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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 3 Early Tamil Society and Culture

Early Tamil Society and Culture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Early Tamil Society And Culture Question 1.
The name of the script used in the Sangam Age ………….
(a) English
(b) Devanagari
(c) Tamil-Brahmi
(d) Granta
Answer:
(c) Tamil-Brahmi

Early Tamil Society And Culture Class 9 Question 2.
The Sri Lankan chronicle composed in the Pali language mentioning about merchants and horse traders from Tamil Nadu
(a) Deepa vamsa
(b) Arthasastra
(c) Mahavamsa
(d) Indica
Answer:
(c) Mahavamsa

Early Tamil Society And Culture Book Back Answers Question 3.
The notable Chola king credited with bringing forest lands under the plough and developing irrigational facilities.
(a) Karikalan
(b) Rajarajari I
(c) Kulothungan
(d) Rajendran I
Answer:
(a) Karikalan

Early Tamil Society And Culture Pdf Question 4.
Inscription that mentions the Cheras …………..
(a) Pugalur
(b) Gimar
(c) Pulimankombai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Pugalur

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 5.
The famous Venetian traveller who described Kayal as a great and noble city.
(a) Vasco da gama
(b) Alberuni
(c) Marco Polo
(d) Megasthenes
Answer:
(c) Marco Polo

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 6.
(i) Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age.
(ii) Prakrit was the language used by the common people in Northern India during the Mauryan period.
(iii) Vienna Papyrus, a Roman document, mentions trade related to Muziri.
(iv) The concept of Thinai is presented in the Tamil grammar work of Pathupaattu.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i) is correct
(ii) is correct
(iii) is correct
(iv) incorrect

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Solutions Question 7.
(i) Pathitrupathu speaks about the Pandya kings and their territory.
(ii) The Akanaanuru describes the trading activities at Kaveripoompattinum.
(iii) The Chola Emblem was the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of a tiger.
(iv) Neythal is a sandy desert region.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i) incorrect
(ii) incorrect
(iii) is correct
(iv) incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. are documents scripted on stones, copper plates, coins and rings.
2. ………….. refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring societies of the past.
3. ……………. the classic work on economy and statecraft authored by Kautilya during the Mauryan period.
4. …………… is a poetic theme which means a class or category and refers to a habitat or ecozone with specific physiographical characteristics.
5. ………….referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Romans and West Asian people.
Answers:
1. Epigraphy
2. Archeological excavations
3. Arthasastra
4. Sangam poems
5. Yavanar

III. Find out the correct statement.

9th Social Early Tamil Society And Culture Question 1.
(a) Evidence of iron smelting has been found in Kodumanal and Guttur.
(b) Periplus of Erythren Sea mentions about the pepper trade with India.
(c) Punch marked coins are the earliest coins used in India mostly made of gold.
(d) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

Question 2.
(a) The Cheras ruled over Kaveri delta and their capital was Uraiyur.
(b) The Maangulam Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions mention the King Karikalan.
(c) The terms Vanikan and Nigama appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions were different types of merchants.
(d) Salt merchants were called Vanikars and they travelled in bullock carts along with their family.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

V. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Archaeological sites provide evidence of past history – Discuss.
Answer:

• Archaeological sites have mounds which are an accumulation of soil, pottery, building and organic remains and objects.
• Archaeological excavation refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring and interpreting societies of the past.

Question 2.
How important are coins as a source of evidence for the study of Sangam Age?
Answer:

• Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age.
• The coins of.the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas, punch-marked coins, and Roman coins form another important source of evidence from the Sangam Age.
• They were used as bullion for their metal value and as ornaments.

Question 3.
The Tamil rulers were independent of Mauryan authority. What explanation would you offer.
Answer:

1. The Tamil rulers were independent of Mauryan authority because Ashokan inscriptions found in present day Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are not seen in Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
2. So we can conclude the status of Tamil rulers.

Question 4.
Agriculture was one of the main sources of subsistence in Sangam Age. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Crops like paddy, sugarcane, millets were cultivated. Both wet and dry land farming were practiced.
2. In the riverine and tank irrigated areas paddy was cultivated.
3. Millets were cultivated in the dry lands.
   So Agriculture was one of the main sources of subsistence in Sangam Age.

Question 5.
Overseas interactions brought glory to ancient Tamilagam. Give examples in support.
Answer:

• Tamil country had connections with countries overseas both in the east and west.
• Roman ships used monsoon winds to cross the Western Sea or the Arabian Sea to connect Tamilagam with the Western world.
• Spices including pepper, ivory, and precious stones were exported. Metal including gold, silver and copper and precious stones were imported.
• Yavanar referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Romans and West Asian people. Yavana derives from the Greek region of Ionia.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Hero Stones:
(a) What was the common practice in a pastoral society?
Answer:
As cattle were considered an important source of wealth, raiding cattle owned by adjoining tribes and clans was common practice in a pastoral society.

(b) Who plundered the cattle wealth of enemies?
Answer:
Tribal chieftains plundered the cattle wealth of enemies whose warriors fought to protect their cattle.

(c) How were the dead warriors remembered?
Answer:

1. Many warriors died in such battles and were remembered as martyrs.
2. Memorial stones were erected in their honour.

(d) Which Tamil text describes the procedures for erecting hero stones?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam describes the procedures for erecting hero stones.

Question 2.
Non-Tamil Sources (Foreign Accounts):
(a) What does the presence of the non-Tamil sources reveal?
Answer:
The presence of the non-Tamil sources reveals the extensive contacts and interactions of the early Tamil society with the outside world.

(b) Name the classic work of the Mauryan period that makes a mention that the pearl and shells came from Pandya country.
Answer:
Arthasastra the classic work of the Mauryan period makes a mention that the pearl and shells came from the Pandya country.

(c) What is a chronicle?
Answer:
Chronicle is a narrative text presenting the important historical events in chronological order.

(d) Who speaks about the pepper trade between Roman empire and India?
Answer:
Pliny speaks about the pepper trade with India and he states that it took 40 days to reach India.

Question 3.
Industries and Crafts of the Sangam Age:
(a) What were the important aspects of urbanisation?
Answer:
Craft production and craft specialization were important aspects of urbanisation.

(b) What is the Tamil name for a potter?
Answer:
“Kuyavar” is the Tamil name for potter.

(c) What were the different types of pottery used by the peopla?
Answer:
Black ware, russet-coated painted ware, black and red ware potteries were the different types of pottery used.

(d) Identify the Iron implements required for agriculture and warfare.
Answer:
Swords, daggers and spears were the iron implements required for agriculture and warfare.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
To what extent do you think the political powers of Tamilagam influenced Sangam Age polity?
Answer:

• Sangam Age has its roots in the Iron Age.
• In the Iron Age people were organised into chiefdoms.
• From such communities of Iron-Age emerged the Vendhars of the early historic period and the Velirs of the Sangam Age were chieftains.
• Tamil rulers were independent of the Mauryan authority.
• Among the political powers of the Sangam Age, the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas occupied pre-eminent positions. They were known as Muvendhar (the three kings).
• The Muvendhar controlled the major towns and ports of the Sangam period.
• The Cheras controlled the region of present-day Kerala and also the Western parts of TamilNadu.
• Vanci was the capital, Muciri and Thondi were their Port towns.
• The Cholas ruled over the Kaveri delta and Northern parts of TamilNadu. Uraiyur was their capital, Kaveripoompattinam was the Port town.
• The Pandyas who ruled the Southern part of TamilNadu are referred to the Ashokan inscriptions.
  Madurai was the capital.
  Apart from the Vendhars, there were Velirs and numerous chieftains who occupied territories on the margins of the muvendhar.
• The Sangam Age society was a society in transition from a tribal community ruled by a chief to a larger kingdom ruled by a king.
  Social stratification had begun to take root in Tamil society by the Sangam times.
  Thus the political powers of Tamilagam influenced Sangam society.

Question 2.
Indicate how the industries and crafts of the Sangam Age contribute to their economy.
Answer:
Craft production and craft specialization were important aspects of urbanization.

• In the Sangam Age there were professional groups that produced various commodities.
  The system of production of commodities is called industry.
• Pottery was practised in many settlements.
• Iron manufacturing was an important artisanal activity. Iron implements were required for agriculture and Warfare.
• The Sangam Age people had the knowledge of Stone ornaments, Gold jewellery, Glass beads, etc.
• The Pamban coast is famous for pearl fishery. Sangam literature describes women wearing shell bangles.
• Textile production was another important occupation. Periplus mentions the fine variety of textiles produced in the Tamil region.
• Trade and exchange was important for people to have access to different commodities. Specialised groups called Vanikars travelled in groups trading goods and commodities between regions.
• Akanaanuru poem 149 describes the trading at the port of Muciri as follows: “the well crafted ships of the Yavana came with gold returned with pepper at the wealthy port of Muciri”
• Barter was the primary mode of exchange. For instance, rice was exchanged for fish.
• Salt was precious and a handful of it would fetch an equal amount of rice.
  Thus the industries and crafts of Sangam Age contributed to their economy.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark on the map of south India, the ancient Tamilagam and the territories of Tamil kingdoms.
Answer:
You can take guidance from your teacher and reference from the internet to mark the ancient Tamilagam and the territories of Tamil Kingdoms on the map of South India.

Question 2.
Visit a museum and collect information about inscriptions, coins and instruments used by the ancient people.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a visit to the museum for the students. The students can collect information about inscriptions, coins, and instruments used by the ancient people.

Question 3.
Visit the early historic sites of Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, Keezhadi etc.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a visit to the early historic sites of Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, Keezhadi, etc.

Question 4.
Conduct a study on materials excavated from prehistoric sites and on Tamil-Brahmi script.
Answer:
You can do this activity with the help of your teacher.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance
1. A power-point presentation on the origin of human life.
Refer the Books, Internet to collect the points.

Early Tamil Society and Culture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The earliest written work on Tamil Grammar is ………………..
(a) Thirukural
(b) Tholkappiam
(c) Pathinen Melkanakku
(d) Pathinen Kilkanakku
Answer:
(b) Tholkappiam

Question 2.
This is an Epic …………..
(a) Silappathikaaram
(b) Pattinapallai
(c) Mullai pathu
(d) Madurai Kanchi
Answer:
(a) Silappathikaaram

Question 3.
During the Sangam Age …………… landscape followed the pastoral way of life.
(a) Marutham
(b) Neithal
(c) Mullai
(d) Palai
Answer:
(c) Mullai

Question 4.
……………… is an ornament made in precious stone where images are carved on the surface.
(a) Cameo
(b) Intagliol
(c) Chronicle
(d) Papyrus
Answer:
(a) Cameo

Question 5.
The roots of the Sangam Age is in ……………
(a) Bronze Age
(b) Mesolithic Age
(c) Iron Age
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Iron Age

Question 6.
(i) Bullion means precious metal available in the form of ingots, (correct)
(ii) Punch-marked coins are the earliest coins used in India, (correct)
(iii) Non-Tamil literary sources also offer information on early Tamil society, (correct)
(iv) Millets were cultivated in the wet lands, (incorrect)
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct

Question 7.
(i) Barter was the primary mode of exchange.
(ii) Spices including pepper and precious stones were exported.
(iii) The Sangam Age saw the first urbanization in Tamilagam.
(iv) People in the Sangam Age had no faith in religion.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) is correct (ii) incorrect
(c) (i) is correct (iv) incorrect
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) correct (iv) incorrect
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) correct (iv) incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. collection includes ten long songs.
2. Act of destruction of heritage property (or) property belonging to others are called ……………..
3. …………… is the study of the past by interpretation of the material cultural remains.
4. ………….. Geography is a gazetteer and atlas of Roman times.
5. ………… table is an illustrated map of the Roman Roads.
6. A paper produced out of the papyrus plant used extensively for writing purposes in ancient …………..
7. The Silappathikaram speaks about ………………. who built a temple for Kannagi.
8. ………….. is a long poem about Kaveripoompattinam.
9. The Pamban coast is famous for ……………..
10. Spices including …………. …………. and ………. were exported.
Answers:
1. Pathupattu
2. Vandalism
3. Archaeology
4. Ptolemy’s
5. Pentingerian
6. Egypt
7. Gheran Senguttuvan
8. Pattinappalai
9. Pearl fishery
10. pepper, ivory, precious stones

III. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss about the Tamil Traders and Sailors.
Answer:
As seafaring people, Tamil traders and sailors established commercial and cultural links across the seas and merchants from foreign territories also visited the Tamil region.

Question 2.
What does the third section of the Tholkappiyam describe?
Answer:
The third section of Tholkappiyam describes poetic conventions that provide information on Tamil social life.

Question 3.
What does the development of Script mark?
Answer:

1. The development of script marks the beginning of the historical period.
2. The period before the use of written script is called prehistoric period.

Question 4.
What do you know about the Hero stones of the Post-Sangam Age?
Answer:

1. Hero stones of the Post-Sangam Age and the Pallava period occur in large numbers in pastoral regions especially around the Chengam region near Thiruvannamalai district.
2. These hero stones have inscriptions and the images of warriors and names of heroes.

Question 5.
What does Erythrean sea refer to?
Answer:

1. Erythrean sea refers to the waters around the red sea.
2. It makes references to the Sangam Age, Ports of Muciri, Thondi, Korkai and Kumari as well as the Gheras and the Pandyas.

Question 6.
What is Ptolemy’s Geography?
Answer:
Ptolemy’s Geography is a Gazetteer and atlas of Roman times providing geographical details of the Roman Empire in the Second Century CE.

Question 7.
What do you know about Muvendhar?
Answer:
Among the political powers of the Sangam Age, the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas occupied pre-eminent positions. They were known as Muvendhar (the three kings). The muvendhar controlled the major towns and ports of the Sangam period.

Question 8.
What is the Urban centre?
Answer:
A planned town with brick architecture and a proper layout. Urban centres have a larger population involved in non-agrarian, commercial and political occuptations. Various industrial activities are seen in these towns.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.
Question 1.
Tholkappiam.
(i) What is the earliest written work on Tamil grammar?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam.

(ii) To whom did it attribute?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam attributed to Tholkappiyar.

(iii) What does the third section of Tholkappiam describe?
Answer:
The third section describes the poetic conventions that provide information on Tamil social life.

(iv) Mention the oldest among the Tamil Texts.
Answer:
Pathupattu and Ettuthogai.

Question 2.
Pearl fishery and shell bangle.
(i) Which place is famous for pearl fishery?
Answer:
The Parpban coast is famous for pearl fishery.

(ii) What were very common in the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Shell bangles were very common in the Sangam Age.

(iii) Who collected conch shells from the Pamban Island?
Answer:
The Parathavers collected conch shells from the Pamban Island.

(iv) What does Sangam literature describe?
Answer:
Sangam literature describes women wearing shell bangles.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the “Archaeological sites”.
Answer:
(i) Archaeological excavation refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring and interpreting societies of the past.

(ii) Archaeological excavations at the early historic sites are the source of evidence of the activities of the Sangam Age people.

(iii) Excavations at Arikkamedu, Azhagankulam, Uraiyur, Kanchipuram, Kaveripoom pattinam, Korkai, Vasavasamudram, Keezhadi, Kodumanal in Tamil Nadu, and Pattanam in Kerala provide the evidence we have of this period.

(iv) Arikkamedu, near Puducherry, is a Sangam Age port, excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). British archaeologist, Robert Eric Mortimer Wheeler, French Archaeologist, J.M. Casal, and Indian archaeologists, A. Ghosh and Krishna Deva, excavated this site. They found evidence of a planned town, warehouse, streets, tanks and ring wells.

Question 2.
Give an account of “Emergence of towns and ports”.
Answer:

1. The Sangam Age saw the first urbanization in Tamilagam.
2. Cities developed and they had brick buildings, roof tiles, ring wells and planned towns, streets, and store houses.
3. The towns worked as ports and artisanal centres. Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, , Azhagankulam and Korkai on the east coast and Pattanam in Kerala were port centres. Kanchipuram, Uraiyur, Karur, Madurai and Kodumanal were inland trade centres.
4. Many goods and commodities were produced in these centres and were exported to various regions.
5. Though few in number, large towns appeared in the Sangam Age.
6. Small villages however were found in many areas. Bronze vessels, beads, shell bangles, glass beads, pottery with names of people written in Tamil-Brahmi script were found at these sites.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.2

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
In ΔABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC
(i) If \(\frac{\mathbf{A D}}{\mathbf{D B}}=\frac{3}{4}\) and AC = 15 cm find AE.
(ii) If AD = 8x – 7, DB = 5x – 3, AE = 4x – 3 and EC = 3x – 1, find the value of x.
Solution:

x = 1, \(\frac{-1}{2}\) ⇒ x = 1

Ex 4.2 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P,Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC if PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.
Solution:
Any line parallel to the parallel sides of a trapezium dives the non-parallel sides proportionally.
∴ By thales theorem, In ΔACD, we have

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 Question 3.
In ΔABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively. For each of the following cases show that DE || BC
(i) AB = 12 cm, AD = 8 cm, AE = 12 cm and AC = 18 cm.
(ii) AB = 5.6 cm, AD = 1.4 cm, AC = 7.2 cm and AE = 1.8cm.
Solution:

∴ It is satisfied
∴ DE||BC

(ii) AB = 5.6 cm,
AD = 1.4 cm,
AC = 7.2 cm,
AE = 1.8 cm.
If \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{AD}}=\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{AE}}\) is satisfied then BC || DE
\(\frac{5.6}{1.4}=\frac{7.2}{1.8}\)
5.6 × 1.8 = 1.4 × 7.2
10.08 = 10.08
L.H.S = R.H.S
∴ It is satisfied
∴ DE||BC

Exercise 4.2 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
In fig. if PQ || BC and PR ||CD prove that

Solution:
In the figure PQ || BC, PR ||CD.

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 Question 5.
Rhombus PQRB is inscribed in ∆ABC such that ∠B is one of its angle. P, Q and R lie on AB, AC and BC respectively. If AB = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, find the sides PQ, RB of the rhombus.
Solution:
In ∆CRQ and ∆CBA
∠CRQ = ∠CBA (as RQ || AB)
∠CQR = ∠CAB (as RQ || AB)

⇒ 72 – 12a = 6a
⇒ 18a = 72
a = 4
Side of rhombus PQ, RB = 4 cm, 4 cm.

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 12th Sum Question 6.
In trapezium ABCD, AB || DC, E and F are points on non-parallel sides AD and BC respectively, such that EF || AB . Show that \(\frac{{A E}}{{E D}}=\frac{{B F}}{{F C}}\)
Solution:

10th Geometry Exercise 4.2 Question 7.
In figure DE || BC and CD || EF . Prove that AD² = AB × AF.

Solution:

10th Geometry 4.2 Question 8.
In a ∆ABC, AD is the bisector of ∠A meeting side BC at D, if AB = 10 cm, AC = 14 cm and BC = 6 cm, find BD and DC.
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 13th Sum Question 9.
Check whether AD is bisector of ∠A of ∆ABC in each of the following
(i) AB = 5 cm, AC = 10 cm, BD = 1.5 cm and CD = 3.5 cm.
(ii) AB = 4 cm, AC = 6 cm, BD = 1.6 cm and CD = 2.4 cm.
Solution:
AB = 5 cm,
AC = 10 cm,
BD = 1.5 cm,
CD = 3.5 cm,

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 11th Sum Question 10.
In figure ∠QPC = 90°, PS is its bisector. If ST⊥PR, prove that ST × (PQ + PR) = PQ × PR.

Solution:

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 14th Sum Question 11.
ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB = AD, the bisector of ∠BAC and ∠CAD intersect the sides BC and CD at the points E and F respectively. Prove that EF || BD.
Solution:
By angle bisector theorem in ∆ABC,

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 Solutions Question 12.
Construct a ∆PQR which the base PQ = 4.5 cm, ∠R=35° and the median from R to RG is 6 cm.
Solution:
Construction:
Step (1) Draw a line segment PQ = 4.5 cm
Step (2) At P, draw PE such that ∠QPE = 35°.
Step (3) At P, draw PF such that ∠EPF = 90°.
Step (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to PQ which intersects PF at O.
Step (5) With O centre OP as raidus draw a circle.
Step (6) From G mark arcs of 6 cm on the circle.
Mark them as R and S.
Step (7) Join PR and RQ.
Step (8) PQR is the required triangle.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Practical Geometry Question 13.
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Solution:
Construction:
Step (1) Draw a line segment QR = 5 cm.
Step (2) At Q, draw QE such that ∠RQE = 40°.
Step (3) At Q, draw QF such that ∠EQF = 90°.
Step (4) Draw perpendicular bisector to QR, which intersects QF at O.
Step (5) With O as centre and OQ as raidus, draw a circle.
Step (6) From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and P’.
Step (7) Join PQ and PR.
Step (8) PQR is the required triangle.
Step(9) From P draw a line PN which is ⊥^r to LR. LR meets PN at M.
Step (10) The length of the altitude is PM = 2.2 cm.

10th Geometry Question 14.
Construct a ∆PQR such that QR = 6.5 cm, ∠P = 60° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.5 cm.
Solution:

Construction:
Steps (1) Draw QR = 6.5 cm.
Steps (2) Draw ∠RQE = 60°.
Steps (3) Draw ∠FQE = 90°.
Steps (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to QR.
Steps (5) The ⊥^r bisector meets QF at O.
Steps (6) Draw a circle with O as centre and OQ as raidus.
Steps (7) Mark an arc of 4.5 cm from G on the ⊥^r bisector. Such that it meets LM at N.
Steps (8) Draw PP’ || QR through N.
Steps (9) It meets the circle at P, P’.
Steps (10) Join PQ and PR.
Steps (11) ∆PQR is the required triangle.

10th Maths Ex 4.2 Question 15.
Construct a ∆ABC such that AB = 5.5 cm, C = 25° and the altitude from C to AB is 4 cm.
Solution:

Construction:
Step (1) Draw \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) = 5.5 cm
Step (2) Draw ∠BAE = 25°
Step (3) Draw ∠FAE = 90°
Step (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to AB.
Step (5) The ⊥^r bisector meets AF at O.
Step (6) Draw a circle with O as centre and OA as radius.
Step (7) Mark an arc of length 4 cm from G on the ⊥^r bisector and name as N.
Step (8) Draw CC¹ || AB through N.
Step (9) Join AC & BC.
Step (10) ∆ABC is the required triangle.

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 11th Sum Question 16.
Draw a triangle ABC of base BC = 5.6 cm, ∠A=40° and the bisector of ∠A meets BC at D such that CD = 4 cm.
Solution:
Construction:
Steps (1) Draw a line segment BC = 5.6 cm.
Steps (2) At B, draw BE such that ∠CBE = 60°.
Steps (3) At B draw BF such that ∠EBF = 90°.

Steps (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to BC, which intersects BF at 0.
Steps (5) With O as centre and OB as radius draw a circle.
Steps (6) From C, mark an arc of 4 cm on BC at D.
Steps (7) The ⊥^r bisector intersects the circle at I. Join ID.
Steps (8) ID produced meets the circle at A.
Now join AB and AC. ∆ABC is the required triangle.

10 Maths Exercise 4.2 Question 1 7.
Draw ∆PQR such that PQ = 6.8 cm, vertical angle is 50° and the bisector of the vertical angle meets the base at D where PD = 5.2 cm.
Solution:

Steps (1) Draw a line segment PQ = 6.8 cm
Steps (2) At P, draw PE such that ∠QPE = 50°.
Steps (3) At P, draw PF such that ∠FPE = 90°.
Step (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to PQ, which intersects PF at 0.
Step (5) With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
Step (6) From P mark an arc of 5.2 cm on PQ at D.
Step (7) The ⊥^r bisector intersects the circle at I. Join ID.
Step (8) ID produced meets the circle at R. Now join PR & QR. ∆PQR is the required triangle.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

10th Maths Exercise 7.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 5:7 and its curved surface area is 5500 sq.cm. Find its radius and height.
Solution:
r = 5x
h = 7x
CSA of a cylinder = 2πrh

∴ Radius = 5 × 5 = 25 cm
height = 7 × 5 = 35 cm

Ex 7.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
A solid iron cylinder has total surface area of 1848 sq.m. Its curved surface area is five – sixth of its total surface area. Find the radius and height of the iron cylinder.
The external radius and the length of a hollow
Solution:

Exercise 7.1 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
The external radius and the length of a hollow wooden log are 16 cm and 13 cm respectively. If its thickness is 4 cm then find its T.S.A.
Solution:
R = 16 cm
r = R – thickness
r = 12 cm
= 16 – 4 = 12 cm
h = 13 cm
Total surface area of hollow cylinder = 2π(R + r) (R – r + h) sq. units.

∴ T.S.A = 2992 cm²

10th Maths Mensuration Exercise 7.1 Question 4.
A right angled triangle PQR where ∠Q = 90° is rotated about QR and PQ. If QR = 16 cm and PR = 20 cm, compare the curved surface areas of the right circular cones so formed by the triangle.
Solution:
When it is rotated about PQ the C.S.A of the cone formed = πrl.


1005.71 > 754.28
∴ CSA of the cone rotated about its PQ is larger than the CSA of the cone rotated about QR.

10th Maths Exercise 7.1 Question 5.
4 persons live in a conical tent whose slant height is 19 cm. If each person require 22 cm² of the floor area, then find the height of the tent.
Solution:
Base area of the cone = πr² = sq units.

10th Maths Exercise 7.1 In Tamil Question 6.
A girl wishes to prepare birthday caps in the form of right circular cones for her birthday party, using a sheet of paper whose area is 5720 cm², how many caps can be made with radius 5 cm and height 12 cm.
Solution:

10th Maths 7.1 Question 7.
The ratio of the radii of two right circular cones of same height is 1 : 3. Find the ratio of their curved surface area when the height of each cone is 3 times the radius of the smaller cone.
Solution:

10th Mensuration Solutions Question 8.
The radius of a sphere increases by 25%. Find the percentage increase in its surface area.
Solution:
Surface area of sphere A = 4πr²
New radius = r’ = 1.25r,
[∵ r + 0.25r] (25% = 0.25)
New surface area = A’ = 4π(r’)²
= 4π(1.25 r)²

10th Maths Ex 7.1 Question 9.
The internal and external diameters of a hollow hemispherical vessel are 20 cm and 28 cm respectively. Find the cost to paint the vessel all over at ₹ 0.14 per cm².
Solution:
External diameter D = 28 cm
Internal diameter d = 20 cm

10th Maths 7.1 Exercise Question 10.
The frustum shaped outer portion of the table lamp has to be painted including the top part. Find the total cost of painting the lamp if the cost of painting 1 sq.cm is ₹ 2.

Solution:
Here given that R = 12 m
r = 6 m
h = 8 m

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Atmosphere

Atmosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the Best Answer.

9th Class Social Atmosphere Lesson Question 1.
…………… is the most important gas for the survival of living
(a) Helium
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) oxygen
(d) methane
Answer:
(c) oxygen

Atmosphere 9th Class Lesson Question 2.
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is ……………
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Mesosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

Atmosphere Lesson For 9th Class Question 3.
…………. reflects radio waves.
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(c) Mesosphere

Define Atmosphere Class 9 Question 4.
The average global surface temperature is …………….
(a) 12°c
(b) 13°c
(c) 14°c
(d) 15°c
Answer:
(b) 13°c

Chapter 3 Atmosphere Question 5.
The process of change of state of water from gaseous to liquid state is called ……………..
(a) Precipitation
(b) evaporation
(c) transpiration
(d) condensation
Answer:
(d) condensation

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Question 6.
The …………… is the chief energy source of the Earth.
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Stars
(d) clouds
Answer:
(a) Sun

9th Social Guide Geography Question 7.
All types of clouds are found in the ……………….
(a) Troposphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere.
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

9th Class Social 4th Lesson Atmosphere Question 8.
…………….. clouds are called ‘Sheep clouds’.
(a) Alto-cumulus
(b) Alto-Stratus
(c) Nimbo-stratus
(d) Cirro-cumulus
Answer:
(a) Alto-cumulus

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 9.
The Monsoons are ……………
(a) Prevailing winds
(b) Periodic winds
(c) local winds
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Periodic winds

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 10.
Dew in the form of ice crystals is called ………….
(a) frost
(b) fog
(c) mist
(d) sleet
Answer:
(d) sleet

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Geography Book Question 11.
………………. is called the eye of the storm.
(a) Pressure
(b) wind
(c) cyclones
(d) snow
Answer:
(c) cyclones

9th Social Geography Question 12.
The vertical movement of air is called ……………
(a) Wind
(b) storm
(c) Air current
(d) drift
Answer:
(c) Air current

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (g)
7. (f)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Social Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 1.
Define the atmosphere.
Answer:
The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 2.
Name the different atmospheric layers.
Answer:
The different atmospheric layers are Troposphere* Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Question 3.
Mention the factors that affect the climate.
Answer:
The factors that affect the climate are

• Distance from the equator
• Altitude
• Nearness to the sea
• Nature of the prevailing winds
• Mountain barrier
• Cloud cover
• Ocean currents
• Natural vegetation

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 4.
What is insulation?
Answer:
The amount of heat received from the sun in the form of short waves is called insulation (or) incoming Solar Radiation.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 9th Std Question 5.
What are isotherms?
Answer:

• Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on maps, connecting points that have equal temperatures. .
• Temperature varies from place to place, season to season and continent to continent.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Books Social Science Question 6.
Write short note on ‘Lapse rate’.
Answer:

• Altitude refers to the height above sea level.
• The temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C far every 165 mts of height. This is called “Normal Lapse rate”.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Social Question 7.
What are the processes responsible for heating the atmosphere?
Answer:
The processes responsible for heating the atmosphere are Radiation, Conduction, Convection and Advection.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 8.
Mention the planetary wind system of the earth.
Answer:
The winds which constantly blow in the same direction throughout the year are called the planetary winds. They are also called as permanent winds (or) the prevailing winds.

Question 9.
Write short note on:
(a) Trade winds (b) Roaring Forties
Answer:
(a) Trade winds:

1. Trade winds blow from the subtropical high pressure belt to the Equatorial low pressure belt in both the hemispheres.
2. They blow with great regularity, force and in a constant direction throughout the year. They are very helpful to the traders.

(b) Roaring forties:

1. Westerlies are the permanent winds.
2. They blow from South West to North East in the Northern hemisphere and North West to South East in the Southern hemisphere.
3. The velocity of westerlies become so vigourous and fast to be called Roaring forties at 40°.

Question 10.
How are clouds formed?
Answer:

1. Large amount of water evaporates each day from the surface of the Sea.
2. This is the principal source of atmospheric moisture.
3. Cool moisture laden air, gets collected around particles like dust, salt content from the sea, smoke, etc, and forms clouds.
4. Sometimes mixing warmer and cooler air also produces clouds.

Question 11.
What are the different types of rainfall?
Answer:
Based on the mechanisms of raising the air, there are three types of rainfall.

1. Convectional rainfall
2. Frontal (or) cyclonic rainfall
3. Orographic rainfall

Question 12.
What is Precipitation? What are the different forms of precipitation?
Answer:

1. Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation.
2. The main forms of precipitation are Drizzle, rain, sleet, snow, hail, etc.

Question 13.
Write short notes on:
a. Drizzle b. rain c. sleet d. snow e. heat
Answer:
a. Drizzle:

1. Falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with diameter of less than 0.5 is called a drizzle mm from low clouds.
2. Sometimes drizzles are combined with fog and hence reduce visibility.

b. Rain:

1. Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperatures above the freezing point.
2. It occurs only when there is abundant moisture in the air. The diameter of a rain drop is more than 5 mm.

c. Sleet:

1. Sleet refers to precipitation in the form of pellets made up of transparent and translucent ice.
2. This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.

d. Snow:

1. Snow is formed when condensation occurs below freezing point.
2. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi opaque ice crystals.
3. When these ice crystals collide and stick together, it becomes snowflakes. ‘

e. Heat:

1. Is the energy which makes objects hot, while temperature measures the intensity of heat.

Question 14.
How are Cyclones classified?
Answer:
Cyclones Can be classified into

1. Tropical cyclones
2. Temperate cyclones
3. Extra Tropical cyclones.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Weather and climate.
Answer:

Question 2.
Land breeze and sea breeze.
Answer:

Question 3.
Windward side and Leeward side.
Answer:

Question 4.
Tropical cyclone and Temperate cyclones
Answer:

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Cyclones cause huge loss of life and property.
Answer:

• Because they are formed due to the diffetential heating of land and sea.
• Due to heavy rain, strong wind & large storm.
• The destruction depends mainly on its intensity, its size and its location,
• After the cyclone the devastation continues.

Question 2.
Cloudy days are warmer than cloudless days.
Answer:
On a cloudy day some energy from the sun gets into the atmosphere through the clouds but can’t get out again, when this happens the heat builds up during the day, so it gets warmer outside.

Question 3.
Fog is dangerous for traffic.
Answer:

1. Fog is a cloud form at the surface of the earth made of tiny water droplets suspended in the air.
2. Visibility is the greatest problem with fog.
3. Fog creates dangerous driving conditions and so it is dangerous for traffic.

Question 4.
Convectional rainfall is also called 4 O’ clock rain.
Answer:

1. The convectional rainfall occurs regularly in the equatorial region in the evenings.
2. The ascending moist air cools, condenses and results in convectional rainfall. So it is called 4 O’ clock rainfall.

Question 5.
Polar Easterlies are cold and dry. Why it is so?
Answer:

• Polar Easterlies blow form the high pressure areas of the Polar highs at the North and South Poles towards low pressure areas within westerlies at high altitudes.
• When air moves near the poles, cold temperatures shrink the air. So Polar Easterlies are cold and dry.

VI. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph about the structure of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere. The five atmospheric layers are Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Troposphere: The lowest layer of the atmosphere is the troposphere. The Greek word ‘tropos’ means ‘turn’ or change. The layer extends up to 8 kms at the poles and up to 18 kms at the Equator. The temperature decreases with increasing height. Almost all weather phenomenon take place in this layer. Hence it is called weather making layer. The upper limit of the troposphere is called as tropopause.

Stratosphere: Stratosphere lies above the troposphere. It extends to a height of about 50 km above earth surface. Since this layer is a concentration of ozone molecules, it is also referred as ozonosphere. The temperature increases with increase in height in this layer. Large jet planes normally fly here. The upper limit of the stratosphere is called as stratopause. Mesosphere: Mesosphere extends between 50km and 80km. The temperature increases with increasing height. Radio waves transmitted from earth are reflected back to earth from this layer. Most of the meteors nearing the earth, get burned here. The uppermost limit of the mesosphere is the mesopause.

Thermosphere: Thermosphere exists above the mesosphere. It extends to about 600 km. The composition of gases in the lower thermosphere is more or less uniform, hence it is called ‘‘Homosphere”. The upper portion of the thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”. Here the temperature increases with increasing height. Ionosphere is a layer of the thermosphere that contains Ions and free electrons.

Exosphere: The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is called exosphere. This layer is extremely rarefied with gases and gradually merges with the outer space. This zone is characterized by aurora Australis and aurora borealis.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of permanent winds.
Answer:
Westerlies are the permanent Winds that blow from the tropical high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt in both the hemispheres. They blow from South West to North East . in the northern hemisphere and North West to South East in the southern hemisphere. The velocity of westerlies become so vigorous and fast to be called Roaring Forties at 40°, Furious Fifties at 50° and Screaming Sixties at 60° latitudes.

Question 3.
How are clouds classified? Explain them.
Answer:
According to their height, clouds are classified into the following types
• High clouds (6 – 20 km Height)
• Middle clouds (2.5 km – 6 km Height)
• Low clouds (ground surface to 25 km height)
These major types of clouds are further divided into different types on the basis of shape and structure.

1. High clouds
   • Cirrus: Detached clouds in the form of white delicate fibrous silky filaments formed at the high sky (8000 meters to 12000 meters) are called Cirrus clouds. These clouds are dry and do not give rainfall.
   • Cirro-cumulus: White patched, sheet or layer like clouds composed of ice crystals. Cirro-stratus: Smooth milky transparent whitish clouds composed of tiny ice crystals.
2. Middle clouds
   • Alto-stratus: Thin sheets of grey or blue coloured clouds in uniform appearance, consisting of frozen water droplets.
   • Alto-cumulus: clouds fitted closely together in parallel bands, called as ‘Sheep clouds’ or wool pack clouds.
   • Nimbo stratus: These are clouds of dark colour very close to the ground surface associated with rain, snow or sleet.
3. Low clouds
   • Strato-cumulus: Grey or whitish layer of non-fibrous low clouds found in rounded patches at an height of 2500 to 3000 metres, associated with fair or clear weather.
   • Stratus: Dense, low lying fog-like clouds associated with rain or snow.
   • Cumulus: Dome-shaped with a flat base often resembling a cauliflower, associated with fair weather.
   • Cumulo-nimbus: Fluffy thick towering thunderstorm cloud capable of producing heavy rain, snow, hailstorm or tornadoes.

Question 4.
How are cyclones formed? How are they classified?
Answer:
The term cyclone is a Greek word meaning “coil of a snake”. Cyclones are centres of low pressure where, winds from the surrounding high pressure area converge towards the centre in a spiral form. Due to the rotation of the earth, the cyclonic winds in the northern hemisphere move in anti clock wise direction, where as they move in clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
Cyclones can be classified into

Tropical cyclones, Temperate cyclones and Extra tropical cyclones . Tropical cyclones: Tropical cyclones develop in the Inter tropical convergence zone [ITCZ], They are formed due to the differential heating of land and sea.
Tropical cyclones are known as ‘cyclones’ in Indian ocean, ‘typhoons’ in the western pacific ocean, ‘hurricanes’ in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific ocean, ‘baguios’ in Phillipines and ‘willy willy’ in Australia. Tropical cyclones often cause heavy .loss of life and property on the coasts and become weak after reaching the landmasses.

Temperate cyclones: Temperate cyclones are formed along a front where hot and cold air masses meet in mid-latitudes between 35° and 65°N and S. Temperate cyclones do not become weak like the tropical cyclones on reaching the land. Temperate cyclone commonly occurs over the North Atlantic Ocean, North West Europe, Mediterranean basin. Mediterranean basin’s temperate cyclones extend up to Russia and India in winter. In India it is as called western disturbances.

Extra tropical cyclones: Extra tropical cyclones occur in the latitudes between 30° and 60° in both the.hemispheres. They are also called as mid-latitude cyclones. They collect energy from temperature differences which are found in higher latitudes. Extra tropical cyclones produce mild showers to heavy gales, thunderstorms, blizzards, and tornadoes.

Question 5.
Explain the different forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Precipitation
Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation. When the dew point is reached in the cloud water droplets become saturated and start to fall. Hence, they fall on the earth as precipitation.
The climatic conditions/ factors influencing the forms of precipitation mainly are:
• Temperature.
• Altitude
• Cloud type
• Atmospheric conditions.
• Precipitation process.
The main forms of precipitation include drizzle, rain, sleet, snow, hail, etc.
Drizzle: Falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with diameter of less than 0. 5 is called a drizzle.mm from low clouds. Sometimes drizzles are combined with fog and hence reduce visibility.

Rain: Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperature above the freezing point. It occurs only when there is abundant moisture in the air. The diameter of a rain drop is more than 5 mm.

Sleet: Sleet refers to a precipitation, in the form of pellets made up of transparent and translucent ice. This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.

Snow: Snow is formed when condensation occurs below freezing point. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi opaque ice crystals. When these ice crystals collide and stick together, it becomes snowflakes.

Hails: Hails are chunks of ice (greater than 2 cm in diameter) falling from the sky, during a rainstorm or thunderstorm.
Hailstones are a form of solid precipitation where small pieces of ice fall downwards. These . are destructive and dreaded forms of solid precipitation because they destroy agricultural crops and human lives.

VII. Activity:

1. Preparing chart of clouds at various atmospheric levels. – Individual Activity.
2. Collecting proverbs clouds and rain related proverbs. – Individual Activity.
3. Poem on ‘clouds’ and ‘rain’. – Individual Activity.
4. Report writing observe the clouds for a week. Write your report about the shape and colours of the clouds. – Group Activity.
5. Working models (a) Rain Gauge (b) Wind vane – Group Activity.
   • The teacher takes initiative to complete the following activities.
   • The students get the assistance of the teacher to complete the given task.
6. Preparing bar diagram:
   (a) Collect the data of temperature of Kanyakumari, Delhi, Allahabad, and Itanagar for a day.
   (b) Also collect the data of rainfall received by Jaisalmer (Rajasthan), Mawsynram (Meghalaya), Nagapattinam, Coimbatore for a day. – Group Activity.
7. Become a budding Meteorologist:
   Record the local weather condition of your place for a week. – Group Activity.
   

Answer:
You can do this activity in groups under the guidance of your teacher.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called as weather making layer?
Answer:
The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere. It is also known as the weather-making zone because all physical processes of weather, like wind, clouds, storms, rainfall, mist, fog and hail, occur here.

Atmosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is a permanent gas of the atmosphere.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Argon
(c) Methane
(d) Helium
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 2.
This gas helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) Ozone

Question 3.
The upper most layer of the atmosphere is …………….
(a) Statrosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer:
(c) Exosphere

Question 4.
This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.
(a) Sleet
(b) Snow
(c) Hail
(d) Hailstones
Answer:
(a) Sleet

Question 5.
Humidity of the atmosphere is measured by the wet and dry bulb thermometer called ………….
(a) Anemometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Barometer
Answer:
(c) Hygrometer

Question 6.
This is one of the most feared weather phenomenon.
(a) Snow
(b) Hailstones
(c) Sleet
(d) Hails
Answer:
(b) Hailstones

Question 7.
Tropical cyclones in India is known as ……………
(a) baguios
(b) willy willy
(c) hurricanes
(d) Cyclones
Answer:
(d) Cyclones

Question 8.
The wind blowing from the east is ……………
(a) Planetary winds
(b) Easterly winds
(c) Variable winds
(d) Local winds
Answer:
(b) Easterly winds

Question 9.
This is the wettest place of India.
(a) Mawsynram
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Shillong
(d) Pune
Answer:
(a) Mawsynram

Question 10.
This is the earth’s magnetic belt ………………
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Magnetosphere
Answer:
(d) Magnetosphere

II. Match the following.
(a)

Answer:
(a)
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (c)

(b)

Answer:
(b)
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Who discovered Nitrogen in Atmosphere? When?
Answer:
In 1772 CE Daniel Rutherford discovered Nitrogen in atmosphere.

Question 2.
What are Auroras?
Answer:
Auroras are cosmic glowing lights produced by a stream of electrons discharged from the Sun’s surface due to magnetic storms that are seen as unique multicolored fire works hanging in the polar sky during mid night.

Question 3.
What are mountain barriers?
Answer:

• The location of the mountains influence the climate of a place.
• The mountain chains act as natural barrier for the wind.
• Sometimes they prevent the entry of cold winds into the country (or) the’escape of monsoon winds, thus having a great influence over the climate.

Question 4.
What happens to atmospheric pressure with altitude?
Answer:

• Air pressure decreases with altitude.
• The air molecules became scattered and more widely spaced at higher altitudes.
• The air pressure develops by 34 millibars per 300 metres increase in height.

Question 5.
What do you call the winds of a particular area?
Answer:

• The winds that are blown in a particular locality for a short period of time are called the local winds.
• The effects of these local winds are experienced only in that particular area.

Question 6.
Define the terms (a) Absolute humidity (b) Relative humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity: The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is called Absolute Humidity.
Relative Humidity: The ratio between the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere and the amount of water vapour it can hold is Relative humidity.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Conduction and Convection.
Answer:

Question 2.
Isobar and Isotherm.
Answer:

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Thermosphere is also referred as “Heterosphere”.
Answer:
The upper portion of the Thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”.

Question 2.
The wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon. Why?
Answer:

1. During the day the land masses get heated more rapidly than the oceans.
2. Heated air ascends and causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean.
3. Therefore the wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon.

Question 3.
The sub-tropical high pressure are called “horse latitudes”. Why?
Answer:

1. With little Water and food left for humans, sailors used to throw the horses into the sea in order to make the vessels lighter.
2. Henceforth these belts (or) latitudes are called as “horse latitudes”.

Question 4.
“Water droplets fall on the earth as precipitation”. Why?
Answer:

1. When the dew point is reached in the cloud, water droplets become saturated and start to fall.
2. Hence they fall on the earth as precipitation.

VI. Paragraph questions.

Question 1.
Describe the “composition of the atniosphere”.
Answer:
(i) Atmosphere is a mixture of gases, water vapour and dust particles in different proportions.

(ii) Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%) are permanent gases of the atmosphere. They constitute 99% of the total composition and their percentages always remain the same without any change.

(iii) The remaining one percentage is occupied by Argon (0.93%), Carbon-di-oxide, (0.03%), Neon (0.0018%), Helium (0.0005%), Ozone (0.00006%) and Hydrogen (0.00005%). Krypton, Xenon and Methane are also present in trace. Water vapour (0 – 0.4%) is also found in the atmosphere, which plays an important role in predicting weather phenomenon.

(iv) The other solid particles present in the atmosphere includes dust particles, salt particles, pollen grains, smoke, soot, volcanic ashes etc.,
(v) Oxygen is most important for living organisms.
(vi) CO₂ absorbs heat and keeps the atmosphere warm by insulation and radiation.
(vii) Nitrogen acts as a diluent and is chemically inactive.
(viii) Ozone helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(ix) The solid particles in the atmosphere acts as nuclei on which water vapour condense to form precipitation.

Question 2.
How is the Orographic rainfall caused?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall, also called relief rainfall, is caused when air is forced to rise against a high mountain. The mountain barriers lying across the direction of air flow, force the moisture laden air rise along the mountain slope. This results in the cooling of the air, which leads to the formation of clouds and rain. This rainfall is called Orographic rainfall. The side of the ‘ mountain facing the wind is called the windward side and receives heavy rainfall. It is called the rainfed region. The other side of the mountain that does not face the wind is called the leeward side and receives less rainfall becomes rain shadow region.

VII. HOTs (Higher Order Thinking skills) Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called as weather making layer?
Answer:
‘Tropos’ means ‘turn’ (or) change. Almost all weather phenomenon takes place in this layer. Hence Troposphere is called as weather making layer.

Question 2.
Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are always affected by cyclones. Why?
Answer:

1. Coastal zone is exposed to natural forces including cyclones and Tsunamis.
2. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are situated on the Sea-Shore.
3. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are vulnerable to storms.
4. During Summer Bay of Bengal subject to intense heat cause to raise the humid and unstable air masses that produce cyclone.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

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Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Questions And Answers Question 1.
What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
Answer:
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Question 2.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

10th Social History 1st Lesson Question 3.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

10th Social History 1st Lesson Question Answer Question 4.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

10th Social Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Question 5.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare
(b) trench warfare
(c) submarine warfare
(d) ship warfare
Answer:
(b) trench warfare

Outbreak Of World War I And Its Aftermath Question 6.
Which country after World War I took to a policy of isolation?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath In Tamil Question 7.
To which country did the first Secretary-General of League of Nations belong?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Dutch
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britain

10th History Timeline Chart In English Question 8.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Japan forced a war on China in the year …….
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of ……. signed in May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year ……….
4. In the Balkans ……… had mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannenberg …….. suffered heavy losses.
6. ……… as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. ……… became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists before Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year ……….
Answers:
1. 1894
2. London
3. 1902
4. Macedonia
5. Russia
6. Clemenceau
7. Kerensky
8. 1925

III. Choose the correct statement

10th Social 1st Lesson Question Answer Question 1.
(i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
(ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
(iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
(iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Pdf Question 2.
(i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans
(ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
(iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
(iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

10th Social History Question 3.
Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and capturing England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

10th Social Science 1st Lesson Question 4.
Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

IV. Match the following.

Answers
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (a)

V. Answer briefly.

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Class 10 Question 1.
How do you assess the importance of the Sino-Japanese War?
Answer:
The Sino-Japanese War proved that Japan was the strongest nation of the East Asia.

Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
Answer:
The countries of Triple-Entente were Britain, France and Russia.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Question 3.
What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
Answer:
England’s jingoism, France’s chauvinism and Germany’s Kultur were militant forms of nationalism in Europe.

Question 4.
What do you know of trench warfare?
Answer:
Trenches or ditches dug by troops enabled soldiers to safely stand and protect themselves from enemy fire. During the first world war the battle of Mame (between French and Germans) is a memorable one for trench warfare.

Question 5.
What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
Answer:
It was Mustafa Kemal Pasha whose efforts caused Turkey’s rebirth as a nation. Not only did Kemal Pasha win freedom for the country but he modernised it and changed it out of all recognition. He put an end to the Sultanate and the Caliphate.

Question 6.
Highlight the global influence of Russian Revolution?
Answer:
In many countries, communist government were formed. Debates over issues like land reforms, social welfare, workers rights and gender equality started taking place in the global context.

Question 7.
List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Here are the two causes for the failure of the League of Nations:
a. The League appeared to be an organisation of those who were victorious in the First World War. Though it had a world-wide membership. It became very much the centre of European diplomacy.
b. The unanimity of members was required for all its decisions on political issues. Since it lacked the military power of its own, it could not enforce its decisions

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Imperialism

(а) What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
Answer:
Monopoly capitalism is a capitalist system typified by tread monopolies in the hands of a few people. After 1870, the capitalism of free competition (based on the principle of free trade without any control or regulation by the state) became the capitalism of monopolies.

(b) How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
Answer:
Japan took to Western education and machinery with a modem army and navy had emerged as an advanced industrialised power. It also followed the imperialistic aggression policy of the European powers faithfully. It surprised the world by giving a crashing defeat to China in the Sino-Japanese War during the period of 1894-95. Japan also defeated Russia in Russo-Japanese War in 1904 and got back Port Arthur from it. In this way it emerged as an imperial power.

(c) Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
Answer:
An ever-growing demand for markets and raw materials made the industrial countries hungry for colonies in the nineteenth century.

(d) What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
Answer:
Capitalism produced huge contrasts. Those contrasts were: extreme poverty and extreme wealth, slum and skyscraper, empire-state and dependent exploited colony.

Question 2.
German Emperor
(a) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
(b) What was the violent form of Germany called?
(c) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
(d) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
(a) He was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.
(b) The violent form of Germany is called Kultur.
(c) The British agreement with France to occupy Morocco was not consented by Germany.
(d) The colonies of Germany in Africa were attacked by the allies and therefore had to surrender to them.

Question 3.
Balkan Wars

(а) Why was Balkan League formed?
Answer:
Balkan League was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan War in 1912-13.

(b) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
Answer:
The new state of Albania was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia , between them. Turkey was reduced the area around Constantinople.

(c) Who were defeated in this war?
Answer:
The Turkish forces were defeated in the first Balkan War.

(d) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
Answer:
The name of the Treaty signed at the end of the second Balkan War was the Treaty of Bucharest

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the main causes of the First World War.
Answer:

1. European great powers were divided into two armed camps.
2. One camp consisted of central powers namely Germany, Austria-Hungary Bulgaria and Turkey which was called Triple Alliance formed in 1882.
3. Another camp consisted of Ally powers namely Britain, France, and . Russia which was called Entente cordiale formed in 1904.
4. The aggressive nature of German Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II who proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.
5. The emergence of militant forms of nationalism like England’s Jingoism, France’s Chauvinism and Germany’s Kulthur contributed to the outbreak of the war.
6. Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany wanted declare Morocco an International ‘ colony instead of France occupying it with the support of Britain. Thus France was hostile under German.
7. Balkan countries like Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and Montenegro was succeeding each other in occupying Balkan regions from Turks. So, to control them Balkan League was formed.
8. The Balkan League defeated the Turks in the first Balkan war in 1912.
9. When dispute arose in sharing the spoils of the war with Bulgaria, the second Balkan war broke out in 1913 against it and Bulgaria was defeated. Turks and Bulgaria approached Germany for help.
10. Austrian crown prince Ferdinand was killed by Princip a Serbian lad of Bosnia.
11. Austria could get support from Germany while Serbia from Russia.
12. Germany therefore declared war on Russia on 1 August 1914.
13. The Franco – Russian Alliance forced Germany to wage war against France when Britain also Supported them.
14. Thus, the first world war broke out between central powers and Allies in 1914.

Question 2.
Highlight the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

1. Germany was found guilty of starting the War and therefore was to pay reparations for the losses suffered. The Reparation Commission set up for deciding the compensation decided on 6,600 million pounds to be paid in installments. All Central Powers were directed to pay war indemnity.
2. The German army was to be limited to 100,000 men. A small navy was allowed, but there were to be no submarines and no air force.
3. The union of Austria and Germany was forbidden and Germany was to acknowledge and respect the Independence of Austria.
4. Germany was forced to give up all the rights and titles over her overseas possessions to the allies. All German colonies became mandated territories under the League of Nations.
5. Germany was forced to revoke the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk (with Russia) and Bucharest (Bulgaria).

Question 3.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

1. Lenin gained the support of a small majority known as Bolsheviks which became the Bolshevik party. His opponents were called as Mensheviks.
2. In October, Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik central committee to decide on immediate revolution.
3. The revolutionary troops and armed factory workers seized the government buildings including the winter palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters on 7th November 1917.
4. The next day, 8th November, the new communist government was formed headed by Lenin.
5. He renamed, the Bolshevik party into Russian communist party.
6. The Russian communist party developed agriculture and Industry, and eliminated Illiteracy and poverty within a record time.
7. Women were given equal rights and right to vote.
8. Land was distributed to poor peasants.
9. Lenin appealed for peace and opted for withdrawing from the war and concentrated on the formation of new government.
10. Therefore, In March 1918, the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed.
11. The communist government encouraged the colonies to fight for their freedom.
12. It led to debates over key issues, land reforms, social welfare, worker’s rights and gender equality started taking place in a global context.

Question 4.
Estimate the work done by the League of Nations, pointing out the reasons for its failure?
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of the League of Nations:

1. The League had been successful until signing of the Locarno Treaty in 1925. It was the year when European powers were confronted with a problem—how to achieve disarmament. The Council of the League set up a commission to hold a Disarmament Conference to sort out the problem.
2. The proposed conference materialised only in February 1932. In this conference, Germany’s demand of equality of arms with France was rejected. In October Hitler withdrew Germany from the conference and the League.
3. In September 1931, Japan attacked Manchuria and the League condemned its action. So Japan resigned from the League.
4.  Italy also resigned from the League in 1937. Thereafter the League was a passive witness to events, taking no part in the crises over the Rhineland. Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland.
5. The last decisive action it took was in December 1939 when Russia was expelled for her attack on Finland. The Assembly did not meet again and the League of Nations was finally dissolved in 1946.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to mark the places of battles and the capital cities of the countries that were engaged in the War.

Question 2.
An assignment or a project work on the role of Indian soldiers in different battle fields across the globe and the casualties they suffered during the War be attempted by the students.
Answer:
British Indian Army: A Military department was created within the government of the East India company at Kolkata in the year 1776.
The British Indian Army was a critical force for the primacy of the British empire both in India and across the world.

Participation:

1. Maintaining the internal security of the British Raj
2. Anglo-Burmese war
3. First and second Anglo-Sikh war
4. First, Second and Third Anglo Afghan war
5. First and Second Opium wars in China
6. Boxer Rebellion in China

World War I (1914-1918): Indian soldiers 1.3 million Indian soldiers served with Allies in which, 74,187 Indian troops were killed. Indian Army fought against German empire in western front.

World War II (1939-1945): Indian soldiers 1,30,000 men along with 44,000 men in British units in India . Some 87,000 Indian soldiers died in the war.

First Kashmir war (1947): Tensions between Indian and Pakistan largely over Kashmir have never been entirely eliminated.

Indo-Pakistani war (1965): India lost a total of 150-190 tanks during the conflict. Over 3,000 soldiers were killed.

Sino-Indian conflict (1967): Conflict between Indian troops and members of the Chinese People’s Liberation Army on 1st Oct 1967. Indian losses were 88 killed and 163 wounded.

Indo-Pakistani war (1971): The war began with aerial strikes on eleven Indian air stations. Indian forces captured around 5,795 sq.miles land in the west but returned in 1972 Simla agreement.

Kargil war (1999): The war broke out at the Himalayan heights in the Kargil district of India. There was heavy casualties in India.

UN peace keeping mission: In 2014, India is the third largest troop contributor with 7,860 personnel deployed. Nearly 157 Indians have been killed during such operations. The Indian army provided paramedical units to help the sick and the wounded.

IX. Map Work

Mark the following countries on the world map.

1. Great Britain
2. Germany
3. France
4. Italy
5. Morocco
6. Turkey
7. Serbia
8. Bosnia
9. Greece
10. Austria-Hungary
11. Bulgaria
12. Rumania

Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……. was in competition with Germany and United States.
(a) Japan
(b) England
(c) Africa
Answer:
(b) England

Question 2.
The outcome of the first world war is the:
(a) French
(b) Russian
(c) American
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Russian

Question 3.
China was politically independent under the ……..
(a) Chin rule
(b) Chou rule
(c) Manchu rule
Answer:
(c) Manchu rule

Question 4.
Chauvinism means:
(a) extreme patriotism
(b) thinking high
(c) blind patriotism
(d) quality of the state
Answer:
(a) extreme patriotism

Question 5.
In 1876, barely 10% of Africa was under rule.
(a) Austria
(b) European
(c) China
Answer:
(b) European

Question 6.
The International court of Justice was set up at ……………. with ……………. judges.
(a) Greece, 10
(b) Hague, 15
(c) Austria,20
(d) America
Answer:
(b) Hague, 15

Question 7.
The term ………. denotes control or rule by a country over the Political and Economical life of another country.
(a) Imperialism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Socialism
Answer:
(a) Imperialism

Question 8.
The event of police and soldiers fired on th peaceful processions against Tsar in Russia was called:
(a) Bloody Sunday
(b) Petrograd problem
(c) Worst incident
(d) Militant action
Answer:
(a) Bloody Sunday

Question 9.
The industrial revolution created a need for …….
(a) Peace
(b) War
(c) Raw materials
Answer:
(c) Raw materials

Question 10.
The years of the first world war is:
(a) 1914-1918
(b) 1914-1916
(c) 1914-1917
(d) 1914-1920
Answer:
(a) 1914-1918

Question 11.
“Germany alone was competent to rule the whole world”, was said by
(a) Bismark
(b) Kaiser Wilhelm II
(c) Hitler
Answer:
(b) Kaiser Wilhelm II

Question 12.
France wanted to get back
(a) Alsace and Lorraine
(b) Bosnia and Herzegovina
(c) Estonia and Latvia
Answer:
(a) Alsace and Lorraine

Question 13.
Austria declared war on Serbia on
(a) 28^th July 1914
(6) 28^th June 1914
(c) 28^th August 1914
Answer:
(a) 28^th July 1914

Question 14.
Germany invaded France by crossing
(a) Luxemburg
(b) Rhineland
(c) Belgium
Answer:
(c) Belgium

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The First World War started in ……….
2. Turkey extended her support to the ……….
3. ……… expedition was an utter failure for the British.
4. …….. an American ship was torpedoed by a German submarine.
5. In Russia, the Tsarist government was overthrown by ……..
6. Germany was sued for peace on November ………
7. The League of Nations was officially founded in January ……..
8. Japan captured Manchuria in …………
9. The turning point of the First World War was the ……….
10. The Bolshevik Party was renamed as ……….
11. The Treaty of Versailles abolished ……… in Germany, Austria and Russia.
12. The League had its headquarters in ……….
13. In March 1918, the …… was signed.
Answers:
1. 1914
2. Central Powers
3. Dardanelles
4. Lusitania
5. Lenin
6. 11,1918
7. 20,1920
8. 1931
9. entry of America
10. Russian Communist Party
11. Monarchy
12. Geneva
13. Treaty of Brest- Litovsk

III. Match the following

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (d)
5. (b)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Define Imperialism.
Answer:
The word‘imperialism’is defined in three ways:

1. The term imperialism refers to the policy of extending a country’s rule over the others.
2. It is a policy of aggressive behaviour of one state against another.
3. It also refers to a country’s domination over the political and economic interest of another nation to exploit its natural resources.

Question 2.
Name the countries of Triple Alliance? When was it formed?
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Bulgaria and Turkey were the countries of Triple Alliance. It was formed under the guidance of Bismarck in 1882.

Question 3.
Industrial Revolution is an important cause for the rise of Imperialism – Explain it.
Answer:

1. Industrial Revolution in European countries resulted in a great increase in production. So there was a need for raw materials and new markets.
2. It also instructed a great progress in the means of transport and communication.
3. Due to the “Protective trade policy” of Europe, they could not sell their finished goods in their local markets.
4. These causes forced the Europeans to find new markets in Asian and African continents which led to the rise of Imperialism.

Question 4.
Write a note on Balkan League.
Answer:
Balkan is a region in South-eastern Europe between the Mediterranean sea and the Black sea.

Turkey extended her empire over the Balkans. Taking advantage of the political instability of the Turkish empire, Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and later Montenegro tried control over it and formed the Balkan League in March 1912.

Question 5.
Why did Germany needed colonies?
Answer:

1. Germany needed colonies as a sign of her world importance.
2. She needed colonies for her growing population.
3. To get raw materials and markets for its finished products.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Pravada.
Answer:
Pravada is a Russian word meaning ‘Truth’. It was the official newspaper of the communist party of the soviet union from 1918 to 1991.

Question 7.
Why did America enter into First World War?
Answer:

1. In 1917, Germany drowned four merchant ships of America including Lusitania with her submarines.
2. More than hundred Americans died in this incident.
3. This incident made the American President Woodrow Wilson angry and he declared war on Germany on the 6^th April of 1917.

Question 8.
What is the significance of the Treaty of Portsmouth?
Answer:
In the Russo-Japanese war, of 1904, Japan defeated Russia. By the Treaty of Portsmouth, got back Port Arthur, also entered the circle of great powers.

Question 9.
What are the organs of the League of Nations?
Answer:
The League of Nations consisted of: The General Assembly, The Council, The Secretariat, The International Court of Justice, and The International Labour Organisation.

Question 10.
Write any two incidents of violations by the member countries of the League.
Answer:

1. Japan attacked Manchuria in September 1931 and when the League condemned Japan, it resigned from the League.
2. Russia attacked Finland in 1939.

Question 11.
Name the prominent industrial areas in the Russian Empire?
Answer:
St. Petersburg and Moscow.

Question 12.
Who led the procession of workers to the event “Bloody Sunday” in Russia?
Answer:
Father Gapon

Question 13.
Write a note on Trusts and Cartels.
Answer:

1. A Trust is an Industrial organization in USA engaged in production, distribution of a commodity and control over its supply and price.
2. A Cartel was an association in Germany which was based upon a contractual agreement between people doing same type of business.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Causes for the rise of Imperialism

(a) What became the fashion of the later part of the 19^th century?
Answer:
Imperialism became the fashion of the later part of the 19^th century.

(b) What was the “White man’s burden”?
Answer:
To civilise the backward and uncivilised native people of Africa and Asia.

(c) Why were the European nations forced to acquire new colonies?
Answer:
The European nations were forced to acquire new colonies to get the Balance of power with their neighbours and competitors.

(d) What promoted the spirit of imperialism?
Answer:
The discovery of new routes to African and Asian continents.

Question 2.
Rise of Japan

(a) Which incident of Japan surprised the whole world?
Answer:
The crushing defeat of China by little Japan in the Sino-Japanese war of (1894-95) surprised the world.

(b) Why did Japan entered an alliance with England?
Answer:
Japan developed hostile towards Russia because Franch was the ally of Russia. Therefore, it entered into an alliance with Britain.

(c) What was the result of the Russo-Japanese war?
Answer:
In the Russo-Japanese war of 1904, Japan defeated Russia and the Treaty of Portsmouth was signed thereby got back Port Arthur.

(d) What was the position of Japan after this war?
Answer:
Japan after this war, entered the charmed circle of the great powers.

Question 3.
Balkan Problem

(a) Name the Balkan countries.
Answer:
Serbia, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece and Montenegro.

(b) How did the First Balkan War come to an end?
Answer:
The First Balkan War came to an end by the “Treaty of London”.

(c) Why did the other Balkan countries declare war on Bulgaria?
Answer:
Dispute arose between Serbia and Bulgaria in sharing the spoils of the war.

(d) What was the result of the Second Balkan war?
Answer:
Bulgaria was defeated and Serbia gained more territories.

Question 4.
Violent Form Of Nationalism

(a) What was the attitude developed with the growth of Nationalism?
Answer:
The attitude of “ My country right or wrong, I support it” developed.

(b) What is meant by Jingoism, Chauvinism, Kulthur.
Answer:
Jingoism – England – Blind patriotism.
Chauvinism – France – Extreme Patriotism.
Kulthur – Germany – Thinking high.

(c) Why did hatred developed towards other countries?
Answer:
The love for one country demanded hatred for another country.

(d) What did the newspapers do?
Answer:
Newspapers whipped up nationalist feelings by twisting the situation obtained in other countries.

Question 5.
War in the Near East front

(a) When did Turkey enter the war?
Answer:
In October 1914.

(b) Why was it considered a terrible blow?
Answer:
Because communications between Russia and the Allies were cut off.

(c) Why did Britain wanted to capture Gallipoli Peninsula?
Answer:
To control the Dardanelles and to capture Constantinople.

(d) What was the result of Dardanelles expedition?
Answer:
It was an utter failure to Britain.

Question 6.
League of nations

(a) When was the covenant of the League of nations formed?
Answer:
The Covenant of the League was formed at the Paris peace conference in 1919.

(b) Who helped in its formation?
Answer:
President ofU.S.A Woodrow Wilson.

(c) What was the structure of the League?
Answer:
The League consisted of Assembly,, the council, the Secretariat, Court of Justice and the International Labour organization.

(d) What were the privileges Enjoyed by the member countries?
Answer:
Each member had one vote and even the small nations possessed the right of Veto (The vote that blocks a decision).

Question 7.
League of Nations:

(a) Name the organisations which were found before the League of Nation.
Answer:

1. The League of Nations society 1915.
2. The World League for Peace 1917
3. The League of Free Nations Association 1918.

(b) Where was the League of Nation’s headquarters situated?
Answer:
The League of Nation’s headquarters was situated at Geneva in Switzerland.

(c) How should the member nations solve the problems?
Answer:
The member nations should solve the problems only through the League of Nations.

(d) When did Japan capture Manchuria?
Answer:
Japan captured Manchuria in 1931.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What were the effects of Imperialism?
Answer:
Positive effects:

1. The powerful nations developed the transport and communication facilities in the weaker nations.
2. The formers gave the latter education, medical care and better methods of sanitation.
3. They introduced new farming methods to get increased food production.
4. These changes meant less death in the colonies and overall improvement in the standard of living.
5. It promoted order, discipline and unity in countries.
6. Clemenceau of trance, Orlando of Italy, Lloyd George of Britain and Woodrow Wilson of America were the main personalities of the conference.

The Treaty of Versailles:

1. The peace treaty with Germany was signed and it was called the Treaty of Versailles.
2. A huge war indemnity was imposed or Germany and German army was reduced.
3. The overseas possessions of Germany were divided among the victorious nations.
4. Germany surrendered Alsace and Lorraine to France.
5. The saar coal field was to be occupied by France for 15 years.

Other important treaties:

1. The Treaty of Germaine was concluded in Austria.
2. The Treaty of Trianon was concluded with Hungary.
3. The Treaty of Nevilly was concluded with Bulgaria.
4. The Treaty of Severes was concluded with Turkey.

New Nations created:

1. In many countries, monarchies gave place to Democracies.
2. New Republics of Czechoslovakia and Poland were born.
3. The Republic of Austria and Hungary was recognized.

Negative effects:

1. The colonies had no freedom. They were exploited and treated as slaves.
2. Imperialism led to the exploitation of the natural resources of the colonies.
3. The colonies were used as the suppliers of raw materials and markets for finished products.
4. The colonies plunged into poverty and unemployment due to the disappearance of indigenous industries.
5. The traditional pattern of agriculture was completely changed as the natives were forced to cultivate raw materials rather than food crops.
6. The introduction of western culture and education led to the loss of traditional culture, of the colonies.
7. It also led to the extinction of some native races of Africa due to slave trade.
8. The policy of racial discrimination was practiced in some colonies.

Question 2.
What were the criticisms raised against the peace settlement?
Answer:

1. The defeated powers were absent from the negotiations.
2. Self-determination was the principle for restoring peace among nations, but Germany alone did not follow it.
3. Austria was not allowed to unite with Germany.
4. Germany was thus left with total injustice.
5. Germany had to pay 6,600 million pounds for reparation which was beyond her capacity.
6. Germany was newly bordered by small weak states.
7. In 1920, the United States took a policy of Isolation.
8. Italy was given merely small places like Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
9. The peace settlement created many national minorities and countries gave promises to respect the rights of minorities.
10. Separate treaties were drawn up and signed by the allies with Austria, Hungary, Bulgaria and Turkey.
11. Though, it was largely due to the pressure from President of USA, Woodrow Wilson, League was formed but could not become the member of the League.

Question 3.
What were the achievements of League of Nations?
Answer:
The League of Nations succeeded in solving many problems during its existence for about 20 years.

1. It settled the dispute between Sweden and Finland regarding the ownership of Aaland island.
2. It solved a boundary dispute in Silesia between Poland and Germany.
3. It solved a dispute between Greece and Italy over the Island of Corfu.
4. It avoided a war between Greece and Bulgaria over the border disputes.
5. In 1926, Germany was admitted as a member of the League of Nations. In 1934, Russia was also admitted in the League.
6. It solved a border issue between Peru and Columbia.
7. Through its other organs, the League prevented the spread of many diseases.
8. It extended its helping hand in solving the problems of refugees and lepers.
9. It whole heartedly promoted cultural co-operation among the nations.
10. It attempted to raise the standard of education in various states.
11. The International Court of Justice handled more than thirty cases. It delivered judgement in some cases and in some others gave advisory opinions.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 1 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.5

9th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Question 1.
Construct the ∆LMN such that LM = 7.5 cm, MN = 5 cm and LN = 8 cm. Locate its centroid.
Solution:
In ∆LMN
LM = 7.5 cm,
MN = 5 cm,
LN = 8 cm

Construction :
Step 1 : Draw ∆LMN with LNM = 8 cm, MN = 5 cm, LM = 7.5 cm
Step 2 : Construct perpendicular bisectors for any two sides (LN and MN) to find the mid points of LM and MN.
Step 3 : Draw the medians LD, ME. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the triangle LMN.

9th Maths Geometry Question 2.
Draw and locate the centroid of the triangle ABC where right angle at A, AB = 4 cm and AC = 3 cm.
Solution:
In ∆ABC,
AB = 4 cm,
AC = 3 cm,
∠A = 90°

Construction:
Step 1 : Draw ∆ABC with AB = 4 cm, AC = 3 cm, ∠A = 90°
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (AB and AC) to find the mid points of AB and AC.
Step 3 : Draw the medians CD and BE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given triangle.

9th Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 3.
Draw the ∆ABC , where AB = 6 cm, ∠B = 110° and AC = 9 cm and construct the centroid.
Solution:
In ∆ABC,
AB = 6 cm,
∠B = 110°
AC = 9 cm

Construction:
Step 1 : Draw ∆ABC with AB = 6 cm, ∠B =110°, AC = 9 cm
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (BC and AB) to find the mid points of BC and AB.
Step 3 : Construct medians AD and CE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given ∆ABC.

9th Geometry 4.5 Question 4.
Construct the ∆PQR such that PQ = 5 cm, PR = 6 cm and ∠QPR = 60° and locate its centroid.
Solution:
In ∆PQR, PQ = 5 cm, PR = 6 cm, ∠QPR = 60°

Construction :
Step 1 : Draw ∆PQR with the given measurement
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (PQ and QR) to find the mid points of PQ and QR.
Step 3 : Draw medians PD and RE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given ∆PQR.

9th Standard Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 5.
Draw ∆PQR with sides PQ = 7 cm, QR = 8 cm and PR = 5 cm and construct its Orthocentre.
Solution:
∆PQR with sides PQ = 7 cm,
QR = 8 cm,
PR = 5 cm.

Construction:
(i) Draw the ∆PQR with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices (R and P) to their opposite sides (PQ and QR) respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection of the altitude H is the Orthocentre at the given ∆PQR.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 6.
Draw an equilateral triangle of sides 6.5 cm and locate its Orthocentre.

Solution:
Equilateral triangle at sides 6.5 cm.

Construction :
(i) Draw the ∆ABC with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices A and B, to their opposite sides BC and AC respectively.
(iii) The point intersection of the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆ABC.

9th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Solutions Question 7.
Draw ∆ABC, where AB = 6 cm, ∠B = 110° and BC = 5 cm and construct its Orthocentre.
Solution:
∆ABC, where AB = 6 cm,
B = 110° and
BC = 5 cm.

(i) Draw the ∆ABC with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices (A and B), to their opposite sides (BC and AC) respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆ABC.

9th Standard Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Question 8.
Draw and locate the Orthocentre of a right triangle PQR where PQ = 4.5 cm, QR = 6 cm and PR = 7.5 cm.
Solution:
Right triangle PQR where PQ = 4.5 cm, QR = 6 cm and PR = 7.5 cm.

Construction:
(i) Draw the ∆PQR with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices R and Q, to their opposite sides PQ and PR respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection of the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆PQR.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.5

10th Maths Exercise 2.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Check whether the following sequences are in A.P.
(i) a – 3, a – 5, a – 7, ………
(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \), ………..
(iii) 9, 13, 17, 21, 25, ………
(iv) \(\frac { -1 }{ 3 } \),0,\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \),………..
(v) 1,-1, 1,-1, 1,-1,…
Solution:
To prove it is an A.P, we have to show d = t₂ – t₁ = t₃ – t₂.
(i) a – 3, a – 5, a – 7………
t₁,t₂,t₃
d = t₂ – t₁ = a – 5 – (a – 3) = a – 5 – a + 3 = -2
∴ d = -2    ∴ It is an A.P.
d = t₃ – t₂ = a – 7 – (a – 5) = a – 7 – a + 5 = -2

(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \), ………..

(v) 1,-1, 1,-1, 1,-1,…
d = t₂ – t₁ = -1 -1 = -2
d = t₃ – t₂ = 1 – (-1) = 2
-2 ≠ 2 ∴ It is not an A.P.

Ex 2.5 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
First term a and common difference d are given below. Find the corresponding A.P.
(i) a = 5, d = 6
(ii) a = 7, d = 5
(iii) a = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \), d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
Solution:
(i) a = 5, d = 6
A.P a, a + d, a + 2d, ………
= 5, 5 + 6, 5 + 2 × 6, ………
= 5, 11, 17,…
(ii) a = 7,d = -5
A.P. = a,a + d,a + 2d,…
= 7,7 + (-5), 7 + 2(-5), ……….
= 7, 2, -3, …….,…
(iii) a = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \), d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Maths Solution Question 3.
Find the first term and common difference of the Arithmetic Progressions whose nthterms are given below

(i) t_n = -3 + 2n
Answer:
t_n = -3 + 2 n
t₁ = -3 + 2(1) = -3 + 2
= -1
t₂ = -3 + 2(2) = -3 + 4
= 1
First term (a) = -1 and
Common difference
(d) = 1 – (-1) = 1 + 1 = 2

(ii) t_n = 4 – 7n
Answer:
t_n = 4 – 7n
t₁ = 4 – 7(1)
= 4 – 7 = -3
t₂ = 4 – 7(2)
= 4 – 14 = -10
First term (a) = – 3 and
Common difference (d) = 10 – (-3)
= – 10 + 3
= – 7

10th Maths Exercise 2.5 Question 4.
Find the 19th term of an A.P. -11, -15, -19, ………..
Solution:
A.P = -11, -15, -19, ……..
a = -11
d = t₂ – t₁ =-15-(-11)
= -15 + 11
= -4
n = 19
∴ t_n = a + (n – 1)d
t₁₉ = -11 + (19 – 1)(-4)
= -11 + 18 × -4
= -11 – 72
= -83

Class 10 Maths Exercise 2.5 Solution Question 5.
Which term of an A.P. 16, 11, 6, 1,… is -54?
Answer:
First term (a) = 16
Common difference (d) = 11 – 16 = -5
t_n = – 54
a + (n – 1) d = -54
16 + (n – 1) (-5) = -54
54 + 21 = -54
54 + 21 = 5n
75 = 5n
n = \(\frac { 75 }{ 5 } \) = 15
The 15^th term is – 54

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 2.5 Question 6.
Find the middle term(s) of an A.P. 9, 15, 21, 27, ……. ,183.
Solution:
A.P = 9, 15, 21, 27,…, 183
No. of terms in an A.P. is
n = \(\frac { l-a }{ d } \) + 1
a = 9, l = 183, d = 15 – 9 = 6
∴ n = \(\frac { 183-9 }{ 6 } \) + 1
= \(\frac { 174 }{ 6 } \) + 1
= 29 + 1 = 30
∴ No. of terms = 30. The middle must be 15th term and 16th term.
∴ t₁₅ = a + (n – 1)d
= 9 + 14 × 6
=9 + 84
= 93
t₁₆ = a + 15 d
= 9 + 15 × 6
= 9 + 90 = 99
∴ The middle terms are 93, 99.

10th Maths Exercise 2.5 In Tamil Question 7.
If nine times the ninth term is equal to the fifteen times fifteenth term, Show that six times twenty fourth term is zero.
Answer:
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
9 times 9^th term = 15 times 15^th term
9t₉ = 15 t₁₅
9[a + 8d] = 15[a + 14d]
9a + 72d = 15a + 210d
9a – 15a + 72 d – 210 d = 0
-6a – 138 d = 0
6a + 138 d = 0
6 [a + 23 d] = 0
6 [a + (24 – 1)d] = 0
6 t₂₄ = 0
∴ Six times 24th terms is 0.

Ex 2.5 Class 10 Question 8.
If 3 + k, 18 – k, 5k + 1 are in A.P. then find k.
Solution:
3 + k, 18 – k, 5k + 1 are in A.P
⇒ 2b = a + c if a, b, c are in A.P

10th Maths 2.5 Exercise Question 9.
Find x,y and z gave that the numbers x,
10, y, 24, z are in A.P.
Answer:
x, 10, y, 24, z are in A.P
t₂ – t₁ = 10 – x
d = 10 – x …..(1)
t₃ – t₂ = y – 10
d = y – 10 ……(2)
t₄ – t₃ = 24 – y
d = 24 – y …..(3)
t₅ – t₄ = z – 24
d = z – 24 …..(4)
From (2) and (3) we get
y – 10 = 24 – y
2y = 24 + 10
2y = 34
y = 17
From (1) and (2) we get
10 – x = y – 10
– x – y = -10 -10
-x -y = -20
x + y = 20
x + 17 = 20(y = 17)
x = 20 – 17 = 3
From (1) and (4) we get
z – 24 = 10 – x
z – 24 = 10 – 3 (x = 3)
z – 24 = 7
z = 7 + 24
z = 31
The value of x = 3, y = 17 and z = 31

10th Maths 2.5 Question 10.
In a theatre, there are 20 seats in the front row and 30 rows were allotted. Each successive row contains two additional seats than its front row. How many seats are there in the last row?
Solution:
t₁ = a = 20
t₂ = a + 2 = 22
t₃ = a + 2 + 2 = 24 ⇒ d = 2
∴ There are 30 rows.
t₃₀ = a + 29d
= 20 + 29 × 2
= 20 + 58
= 78
∴ There will be 78 seats in the last row.

Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Question 11.
The Sum of three consecutive terms that are in A.P. is 27 and their product is 288. Find the three terms.
Answer:
Let the three consecutive terms be a – d, a and a + d
By the given first condition
a – d + a + a + d = 27
3a = 27
a = \(\frac { 27 }{ 3 } \) = 9
Again by the second condition
(a – d) (a) (a + d) = 288
a (a² – d²) = 288
9(81 – d²) = 288 (a = 9)
81 – d² = \(\frac { 288 }{ 9 } \)
81 – d² = 32
∴ d² = 81 – 32
= 49
d = \(\sqrt { 49 }\) = ± 7
When a = 9, d = 7
a + d = 9 + 7 = 16
a = 9
a – d = 9 – 7 = 2
When a = 9, d = -7
a + d = 9 – 7 = 2
a = 9
a – d = 9 – (-7) = 9 + 7 = 16
The three terms are 2, 9, 16 (or) 16, 9, 2

Maths Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Question 12.
The ratio of 6th and 8^th term of an A.P is 7:9. Find the ratio of 9^th term to 13^th term.
Solution:
\(\frac{t_{6}}{t_{8}}=\frac{7}{9}\)
\(\frac { a+5d }{ a+7d } \) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 9 } \)
9a + 45d = 7a + 49d
9 a + 45 – 7d = 7a + 49 d
9a + 45d – 7a – 49d = 0
2a – 4d = 0 ⇒ 2a = 4d
a = 2d
Substitue a = 2d in

Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 13.
In a winter season let us take the temperature of Ooty from Monday to Friday to be in A.P. The sum of temperatures from Monday to Wednesday is 0° C and the sum of the temperatures from Wednesday to Friday is 18° C. Find the temperature on each of the five days.
Solution:
Let the five days temperature be (a – d), a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d.
The three days sum = a – d + a + a + d = 0
⇒ 3a = 0 ⇒ a = 0. (given)
a + d + a + 2d + a + 3d = 18
3a + 6d = 18
3(0) + 6 d = 18
6d = 18
d = \(\frac { 18 }{ 6 } \) = 3
∴ The temperature of each five days is a – d, a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d
0 – 3, 0, 0 + 3, 0 + 2(3), 0 + 3(3) = -3°C, 0°C, 3°C, 6°C, 9°C

2.5 Exercise Class 10 Question 14.
Priya earned ₹ 15,000 in the first month. Thereafter her salary increased by ₹1500 per year. Her expenses are ₹13,000 during the first year and the expenses increases by ₹900 per year. How long will it take for her to save ₹20,000 per month.
Solution:

We find that the yearly savings is in A.P with a₁ = 2000 and d = 600.
We are required to find how many years are required to save 20,000 a year …………..
a_n = 20,000
a_n = a + (n – 1)d
20000 = 2000 + (n – 1)600
(n – 1)600 = 18000
n – 1 = \(\frac { 18000 }{ 600 } \) = 30
n = 31 years

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 1 Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Question 1.
………….. is genetically closest to humans.
(a) Gorilla
(b) Chimpanzee
(c) Orang-utan
(d) Great Apes
Answer:
(b) Chimpanzee

Evolution Of Human And Society Prehistoric Period Question 2.
The period called ……………. marks the beginning of agriculture and animal domestication.
(a) Palaeolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Megalithic
Answer:
(c) Neolithic

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Question Answer Question 3.
Direct ancestor of modem man was ……………..
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Neanderthal man
Answer:
(c) Homo sapiens

9th Social Guide Question 4.
………….. refers to the area covering Egypt, Israel-Palestine and Iraq.
(a) Great Rift Valley
(b) Fertile Crescent
(c) Solo river
(d) Neander Valley
Answer:
(b) Fertile Crescent

Evolution Of Human And Society-Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 5.
Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England first discovered the …………. tools at Pallavaram near Chennai.
(a) Stone Age
(b) Palaeolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Neolithic
Answer:
(b) Palaeolithic

9th Social History 1st Lesson Question 6.
(i) The period before the introduction of writing is called pre-history.
(ii) The pre-historic people developed language, made beautiful paintings and artefacts.
(iii) The pre-historic societies are treated as literate.
(iv) The pre-historic period is called ancient. .
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 7.
(i) The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called Celts.
(ii) Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Chennai district.
(iii) The cultural period that succeeded the Neolithic is called the Bronze Age.
(iv) The period that witnessed domestication .of animals and cultivation of crops is called Mesolithic.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 8.
Assertion (A): Many of the Mesolithic sites are found nearby rivers and tanks.
Reason (R): Irrigation management developed during Mesolithic period.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but R doesn’t explain A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A and R both are incorrect
Answer:
(d) A and R both are incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The primitive multi-cellular life first appeared in the age of ……………..
2. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the …………. culture.
3. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called ………………… technology.
4. ………………… is known as the Middle Stone Age, as it is placed between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic.
Answers:
1. Proterozoic
2. Low Palaeolithic
3. lithic
4. Mesolithic period

III. Find out the correct statement.

Evolution Of Human And Society Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 1.
(a) The concept ‘survival of the fittest’ contributed to the scientific understanding of human origins.
(b) The book “On the Origin of Species” was published by Herbert Spencer.
(c) Darwin’s theory of biological evolution connects with the process of natural selection.
(d) Geology is the study of lithic technology.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Answers Question 2.
(a) Among the great Apes Orangutan is genetically the closest to humans.
(b) The ancestors to humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(c) Flake is a small chip that has flaking on both sides.
(d) Acheulian is the main block of stone from which small1 chips are flaked by using a hammer stone.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

9th Social Book Back Answers Question 1.
Discuss how the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.
Answer:

1. Humans are the only species on earth concerned with understanding as well as explaining the World and Universe.
2. Humans became knowledgeable and conscious in the coarse of evolution.
3. They became curious and began to think and ask questions about nature, organisms and the world around them.
   e.g., At first they worshipped nature as God.
   Later on they developed their own understanding some of which is not scientific. Thus the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.

9th New Social Book Back Answers Question 2.
Write a note on the impact of pastoralism on the prehistoric people in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The people in the Age practiced agriculture, domesticated cattle and sheep.
2. Some of the groups were still hunting and gathering.
3. Millets & rice were cultivated.
4. Irrigation management developed in this period. In the deltaic regions irrigation as a technology had developed.
5. Evidences of rice is seen in Megalithic sites like Adidchanallur in Thoothukudi district and Porunthal near Palani.

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Meaning In Tamil Question 3.
List out the features of Megalithic Burial types.
Answer:

1. The Iron Age is also known as Megalithic since people created burials with large stones for the dead people.
2. Within these burials, the skeletons (or) a few bones of the dead persons were placed along with grave goods including iron objects, carnelian beads and bronze objects.
3. Some of the burials do not have human bones and they have only the grave goods.
4. They may be called memorial burials.

9th Social Science Guide Question 4.
Examine the tool making technical skills of lower Palaeolithic people.
Answer:

1. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the Lower palaeolithic period.
2. These tools were fitted with a wooden and bone handle. They were used for cutting, piercing and digging.
3. The people also used hammer stones and spheroids.
4. The quartzite pebbles and cobbles were chosen as raw materials.
   The tools are found in the soil deposits and also in the exposed river side.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Evolution Of Humans And Society – Prehistoric Period Notes Question 1.
Hominid and Hominins.
(a) Who are Hominids?
Answer:
Hominids refers to all the species of the modem and extinct great apes, which also includes humans.

(b) Who was the earliest human ancestor to make tools in Africa?
Answer:
Homo habilis (handy human) was the earliest known human ancestors to make tools in Africa about 2.6 million years ago.

(c) How are the modern humans known?
Answer:
Modem-humans are known as Homo sapiens.

(d) Name any one species of this tribe.
Answer:
Homo erectus – extinct Humans are the only living species.

9 Social Guide Question 2.
Earliest Lithic Assemblages of Human ancestors.
(a) Where are Acheulian tools reported to have been found in Karnataka and in Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Acheulian tools are reported to have been found in Isampur in Karnataka and Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh.

(b) What is meant by Lithic Technology?
Answer:
‘Lith’ means stone. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called lithic technology.

(c) What are Biface tools?
Answer:
Bifaces are tools that have flaking on both sides (bi = two, face = side).

(d) Name a few stone tools used by the human ancestors.
Answer:
Core is the main block of stone. Flake is a small chip removed from a large stone block. Levalloisian tools includes long blades and burins. Burin is a stone-made chisel with a sharp cutting edge.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Social Science Class 9 Guide Question 1.
The developments in the fields of agriculture, pottery and metal tools are considered a landmark in the life of Megalithic period- Substantiate.
Answer:

• As the name suggests, people used iron technology.
• An exchange relationship developed among the people.
• The people of this age had knowledge of metallurgy and pottery making.
• The Iron Age is also known as Megalithic period since people created burials with large stones for the dead people.
• Weapons such as swords and daggers, axes, chiesels, lamps and tripod stands are also found.
• The Iron tools were used for agriculture, hunting, gathering and in battles.
• Bronze bowls, vessels with stylish finials decorated with animals and birds, bronze mirrors and bells have also been found. So these developments are considered a landmark in the life of Megalithic period.

Question 2.
The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth. Elucidate.
Answer:

• The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.
• The earth contains geological, archaeological and biological records of historical times in its upper layers.
• They are important for reconstructing the history of the earth and various living organisms.
• The fossil bones of the human ancestors are embedded in the earth’s layers.
• Palaeoanthropologists and archaeologists excavate the soil and rock layers on the earth and extract evidence about human ancestors.
• These layers and the fossils are scientifically dated to study the various stages in human evolution and prehistory.
• Through the gathered evidence they attempt to understand the evolution of human history and developments in a chronological order.
• The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
• Gradually conditions emerged for the growth of organisms. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras, periods and epochs by the Geologists. Thus the history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark the prehistoric sites on the world map.
Answer:
(i) The ancestors to humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(ii) You can draw the Prehistoric sites of human ancestors in Africa with the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance.
Answer:
A power-point presentation on the origin of human life.
A power-point presentation on the pre-historic tools.
A power-point presentation on the scripts of the ancient.

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. …………….. is the study of the human past through the analysis and interpretation of material remains.
(a) Geology
(b) Archaeology
(c) History
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Archaeology

Question 2.
The beginning of history writing can be traced to the ancient ……………..
(a) Greeks
(b) Egyptians
(c) Romans
(d) Africans
Answer:
(a) Greeks

Question 3.
The DNA of a Chimpanzee is ……………. identical to that of a human being.
(a) 95%
(b) 96%
(c) 97%
(d) 98%
Answer:
(d) 98%

Question 4.
………….. are stone artefacts of small size.
(a) Microliths
(b) Bifaces
(c) Acheulian
(d) core
Answer:
(a) Microliths

Question 5.
Evidence of Neolithic village is found at …………… in Vellore district.
(a) Gudiam
(b) Athirampakkam
(c) Payyampalli
(d) Salem
Answer:
(c) Payyampalli

Question 6.
The ……………. was a formative period and the foundation for the Sangam Age.
(a) Iron Age
(b) Bronze Age
(c) Stone Age
(d) Age of Information Technology
Answer:
(a) Iron Age

Question 7.
(i) We live in the age of Information Technology.
(ii) The internet has literally put the world on our finger tips.
(iii) The Prehistoric people were the pioneers of literacy.
(iv) Powerful Technology developed all of a sudden.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) & (iv) are correct
(d) (i) & (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 8.
(i) The chimpanzee is genetically the closest to humans.
(ii) Hominins & their origin have been traced to Asia.
(iii) The Hominins emerged around 6 to 5 million years ago.
(iv) The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites for the Prehistoric period.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct and (c) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 9.
……………… are tools used for scraping the surfaces.
(a) Lunates
(b) Triangles
(c) Scrapers
(d) Cists
Answer:
(c) Scrapers

Question 10.
…………… are pottery jars and were used for burying the dead.
(a) Urns
(b) Cists
(c) Dolmens
(d) Menheirs
Answer:
(a) Urns

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Prehistoric people were the pioneers of ……………..
2. …………… were the apes from which modem humans evolved.
3. Prehistoric animal (or) plant that turns to stone over a period of time …………….
4. The earliest tools made by human ancestors are found in ……………. in Kenya.
5. …………….. people buried the dead people systematically.
6. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around …………… (or) even earlier.
7. Oxen were used in ………….. civilisation for tilling the land.
8. ……………. discovered the first Palaeolithic tools in India at Pallavaram.
9. ………….. people perhaps devised the first pottery.
10. The black and Red colour pottery were used by ……………. and people.
Answers:
1. Creative Knowledge
2. Australopithecines
3. Fossil
4. Lomekwi
5. Neanderthals
6. 7000 BCE
7. Sumerian
8. Sir Robert Bruce Foote
9. Neolithic
10. Iron Age & Sangam Age

III. Match the following

a.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

b.

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss when the earth was formed.
Answer:

1. The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
2. Gradually, conditions emerged for the growth of organisms.
3. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans.
4. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras periods and epochs by the geologists.

Question 2.
Who proposed the idea of the Three Age system?
Answer:

1. The idea of the Three Age system proposed by CJ. Thomsen became the basis for understanding early human history.
2. He classified the artefacts in the Danish National Museum, Copenhagen, into Stone Age, Bronze Age and Iron Age.

Question 3.
The Great Rift valley in Africa has evidence for the Prehistoric period. Discuss.
Answer:

• The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites that have evidence for the prehistoric period.
• The Great Rift valley is a valley – like formation that run for about 6,400 km from the Northern part of Syria to Central Mozambique in East Africa.
• This geographical feature is visible even from the space, and many prehistoric sites are found in Africa.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Prehistoric cultures”.
Answer:
While the fossil bones are classified as various species such as Homo habilis, Homo erectus and Neanderthalensis, based on the lithic tools, cultures are assigned names such as Earliest Lithic, Assemblages, Oldowan Technology, Lower, Middle and Upper Palaeolithic and Mesolithic cultures.

Question 5.
Why were the Levalloisian tools called so?
Answer:

1. The lithic tool – making tradition of the Levalloisian belonged to this period.
2. Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core.
3. These tools are found in Europe and Central and Western Asia.
4. The Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core. It was named after the town of Levallois in France.

Question 6.
What was the main factor for the development of early civilisations?
Answer:

1. As a result of domestication and cultivating plants, there was an excess food production.
2. The surplus food production was a main factor for the development of early civilizations.

Question 7.
Describe the burials in the Sangam Age.
Answer:

1. The Sangam literature mentions the various burial practices of the people.
2. The Megalithic burials are classified as dolmens, cists, menheirs, rock-cut caves, um burials and sarcophagus.
3. The burial types of Kodakkal (umbrella stone), Toppikkal (hatstone) and Paththikal (hood stone) are found in Kerala.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

(A) Oldest Museum.
Question 1.
Name the oldest museum, in the world.
Answer:
The museum of Ennigaldi Nanna in Mesopotamia.

Question 2.
When was it established?
Answer:
It was established in 530 BCE.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest surviving museum at present?
Answer:
The Capitoline museum in Italy is perhaps the oldest surviving museum at present (1471 CE).

Question 4.
Name the bldest university museum in the world.
Answer:
Ashmolean Museum at Oxford University is the oldest University Museum in the world.

(B) Mesolithic culture.
Question 1.
Mention the evidence for the existence of Mesolithic hunt-gatherers.
Answers:
They are found at Chennai, North Arcot, Dharmapuri, Salem, Coimbatore, Ariyalur, Trichi, Pudukottai, Madurai, Sivagangai, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari.

Question 2.
What type of artefacts were used by the people of this period?
Answer:
The people of this period used small artefacts made of Chert and Quartz. .

Question 3.
What are the tool types used by them?
Answer:
The tool types are scrapers, lunates and triangles.

Question 4.
What did they do for their subsistence?
Answer:
These people hunted wild animals and gathered fruits, nuts and roots for their subsistence.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the Neolithic culture in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

• The culture that domesticated animals and cultivated crops is called Neolithic.
• It is known as the New Stone Age. The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called celts.
• Cattle rearing was their main occupation. They lived in small villages with houses made of thatched roof and walls plastered with clay.
• Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Vellore district and a few sites in the Dharmapuri region.
• Payyampalli is a village in Vellore district of Tamil Nadu. The earliest evidence for the domestication of animals and the cultivation of plants is found at this site, which was excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• Evidence for pottery making and cultivation of horse gram and green gram has been found in this village.
• These Neolithic sites were part of the Southern Neolithic Culture of India. They are mainly concentrated in the Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka regions.
• The Neolithic people used stone axes fitted on a wooden handle.
• These polished stone axes are worshipped in many village temples of Tamil Nadu even today.

Question 2.
Domestication of Animals and plants. A milestone in Human History. Explain.
Answer:

1. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around 7000 BCE or even earlier.
2. Wheat and barley were cultivated at Mehrgarh in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent (Pakistan) before 6000 BCE.
3. Animal domestication developed as part of symbiotic life.
4. Dogs may have been domesticated first. Friendly animals were gradually domesticated. Sheep and goat were domesticated around 10,000 BCE in Southwest Asia.
5. Oxen were used in Sumerian civilization for tilling the land. Mehrgarh in Pakistan has evidence of sheep, goat and cattle domestication in the Neolithic period.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 4.3 பல்துறைக் கல்வி Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.3 பல்துறைக் கல்வி

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
பத்துப்பாட்டு, எட்டுத்தொகை, பதினெண்கீழ்க்கணக்கு நூல்கள் ஆகிய தொகுப்புகளில் இடம்பெறும் நூல்களின் பெயர்களைத் திரட்டி எழுதுக.
Answer:

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
அறியாமையை நீக்கி அறிவை விளக்குவது ………………………..
அ) விளக்கு
ஆ) கல்வி
இ) விளையாட்டு
ஈ) பாட்டு
Answer:
ஆ) கல்வி

Question 2.
கல்விப் பயிற்சிக்குரிய பருவம் ……………………
அ) இளமை
ஆ) முதுமை
இ) நேர்மை
ஈ) வாய்மை
Answer:
அ) இளமை

Question 3.
இன்றைய கல்வி ……………………… நுழைவதற்குக் கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது.
அ) வீட்டில்
ஆ) நாட்டில்
இ) பள்ளியில்
ஈ) தொழிலில்
Answer:
ஈ) தொழிலில்

நிரப்புக

1. கலப்பில் …………………………. உண்டென்பது இயற்கை நுட்பம்
2. புற உலக ஆராய்ச்சிக்கு ………………… கொழுகொம்பு போன்றது.
3. வாழ்விற்குரிய இன்பத் துறைகளில் தலையாயது ………………………. இன்பம் ஆகும்.
Answer:
1. வளர்ச்சி
2. அறிவியல்
3. காவிய

பொருத்துக

1. இயற்கை ஓவியம் – அ) சிந்தாமணி
2. இயற்கை தவம் – ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
3. இயற்கைப் பரிணாமம் – இ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
4. இயற்கை அன்பு – ஈ) கம்பராமாயணம்
Answer:
1. இ
2. அ
3. ஈ
4. ஆ

குறுவினா

Question 1.
இன்றைய கல்வியின் நிலை பற்றித் திரு.வி.க கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• இன்றைய கல்வி குறிப்பிட்ட பாடங்களை நெட்டுற (மனப்பாடம்) செய்து தேர்வில் தேறி, பட்டம் பெற்று, ஒரு தொழிலில் நுழைவதற்கு ஒரு கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது.
• நாளடைவில் அக்கல்விக்கும் வாழ்விற்கும் தொடர்பு இல்லாமல் போகிறது என்று திரு.வி.க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 2.
தாய்நாடு என்னும் பெயர் எவ்வாறு பிறக்கிறது?
Answer:
தாய்நாடு என்னும் பெயர் தாய்மொழியைக் கொண்டே பிறக்கிறது.

Question 3.
திரு. வி. க., சங்கப் புலவர்களாகக் குறிப்பிடுபவர்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• இளங்கோவடிகள்
• சேக்கிழார்
• திருத்தக்கத்தேவர்
• கம்பர்
• திருஞானசம்பந்தர்
• பரஞ்சோதி
• ஆண்டாள்

சிறு வினா

Question 1.
தமிழ்வழிக் கல்வி பற்றித் திரு. வி. க. கூறுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• கலப்பில் வளர்ச்சி உண்டு என்பது இயற்கை நுட்பம்.
• தமிழை வளர்க்கும் முறையிலும் அளவிலும் கலப்பைக் கொள்வது சிறப்பு.
• ஆகவே, தமிழ்மொழியில் அறிவுக்கலைகள் இல்லை என்னும் பழம் பாட்டை நிறுத்தி, அக்கலைகளைத் தமிழில் பெயர்த்து எழுதித் தாய்மொழிக்கு ஆக்கம் தேடுவோம் தமிழ்
• கலைகள் யாவும் தாய்மொழி வழி மாணாக்கர்களுக்கு அறிவுறுத்தப்படும் காலமே தமிழ்த்தாய் மீண்டும் அரியாசனம் ஏறும் காலமாகும் என்று திரு.வி.க. கூறுகின்றார்.

Question 2.
அறிவியல் கல்வி பற்றித் திரு. வி. க. கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• உலக வாழ்விற்கு மிக இன்றியமையாதது அறிவியல்.
• உடற்கூறு, உடலோம்பு முறை, பூதபௌதிகம், மின்சாரம், நம்மைச் சூழ்ந்துள்ள செடி, கொடி, பறவை, விலங்கு முதலியவற்றைப் பற்றிய அறிவும், கோள் இயக்கம், கணிதம், அகத்திணை முதலிய அறிவும் நமக்கு வேண்டும்.
• இந்நாளில் அத்தகைய அறிவு தேவை. புற உலகு ஆராய்ச்சிக்கு அறிவியல் கொழுகொம்பு போன்றது.
• நம் முன்னோர் கண்ட பல உண்மைகள் அறிவியல் அரணின்றி, இந்நாளில் உறுதி பெறலரிது.
• இக்கால உலகத்தோடு உறவு கொள்வதற்கும் அறிவியல் தேவை.
• ஆகவே, அறிவியல் என்னும் அறிவுக்கலை இளைஞர்கள் உலகில் பரவ வேண்டும் என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகின்றார்.

நெடுவினா

Question 1.
காப்பியக் கல்வி குறித்துத் திரு. வி. க. கூறும் செய்திகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
(i) வாழ்விற்கு உரிய இன்பத் துறைகளில் காவிய இன்பமும் ஒன்று. அதுவே முதன்மையானது என்றும் கூறலாம்.

(ii) நாம் தமிழர்கள், நாம் பாட்டு இன்பத்தை நுகர வேண்டும். அதற்காகத் தமிழ் இலக்கியங்களுக்கு இடையே செல்ல வேண்டும். தமிழில் இலக்கியங்கள் பலப்பல இருக்கின்றன.

(iii) இயற்கை ஓவியம் பத்துப்பாட்டு, இயற்கை இன்பக்கலம் கலித்தொகை, இயற்கை வாழ்வில்லம் திருக்குறள், இயற்கை இன்பவாழ்வு நிலையங்கள் சிலப்பதிகாரமும் மணிமேகலையும், இயற்கைத் தவம் சிந்தாமணி, இயற்கைப் பரிணாமம் கம்பராமாயணம், இயற்கை அன்பு பெரிய புராணம், இயற்கை இறையுறையுள் தேவார திருவாசக திருவாய் மொழிகள்.

(iv) இத்தமிழ்க் கருவூலங்களை உன்ன உன்ன உள்ளத்திலும் வரும் இன்ப அன்பைச் சொல்லால் சொல்ல இயலாது.

(v) இளைஞர்களே! தமிழ் இளைஞர்களே! பெறற்கரிய இன்ப நாட்டில் பிறக்கும் பேறு பெற்றிருக்கிறீர்கள். தமிழ் இன்பத்தில் சிறந்த இன்பம் இவ்வுலகில் உண்டோ ? தமிழ்க் காவியங்களைப் படியுங்கள். இன்பம் நுகருங்கள் என்று திரு. வி. க. காப்பியக் கல்வி பற்றிக் கூறுகிறார்.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
திரு. வி. க குறிப்பிடும் பல்துறைக் கல்வியில் நீங்கள் எதனைக் கற்க விரும்புகிறீர்கள்?
Answer:
(i) திரு. வி. க. குறிப்பிடும் பல்துறைக் கல்வியில் நான் அறிவியல் கல்வியைக் கற்க விரும்புகிறேன்.

(ii) காரணம் என்னவென்றால், தமிழ் மொழி அறிந்த எனக்கு அறிவியல் பற்றிய செய்திகளை மேலும் தெரிந்து கொள்ளவும், அறிவியலில் உள்ள பல புதுமையான செய்திகளைத் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தவும் அறிவியல் கல்வி கற்க விரும்புகிறேன்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
இளமையில் கல் என்பது ………………….
அ) முதுமொழி
இ) அறிவு மொழி
ஆ) புதுமொழி
ஈ) தமிழ்மொழி
Answer:
அ) முதுமொழி

Question 2.
இயற்கை ஓவியம் …………………..
அ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
இ) திருக்குறள்
ஆ) கலித்தொகை
ஈ) சிலப்பதிகாரம்
Answer:
அ) பத்துப்பாட்டு

Question 3.
இயற்கை இன்பக்கலம் ……………………….
அ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
இ) திருக்குறள்
ஆ) கலித்தொகை
ஈ) மணிமேகலை
Answer:
ஆ) கலித்தொகை

Question 4.
இயற்கை வாழ்வில்லம் ……………………
அ) பெரிய புராணம்
இ) திருக்குறள்
ஆ) சிந்தாமணி
ஈ) மணிமேகலை
Answer:
இ) திருக்குறள்

Question 5.
இயற்கைத் தவம் ……………….
அ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி
ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
இ) கம்பராமாயணம்
ஈ) மணிமேகலை
Answer:
அ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி

Question 6.
இயற்கைப் பரிணாமம் …………….
அ) கம்பராமாயணம்
இ) திருவாசகம்
ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
ஈ) திருக்குறள்
Answer:
அ) கம்பராமாயணம்

Question 7.
இயற்கை அன்பு ……………………
அ) கம்பராமாயணம்
இ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி
ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
ஈ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
Answer:
ஈ) பெரிய புராணம்

நிரப்புக

1. அறியாமையை நீக்கி அறிவை விளக்குவது …………………….
2. ………………………. கல்வி முதலியனவும் கல்வியின் பாற்பட்டனவே.
3. கல்வி என்பது ……………….. தேடும் வழிமுறை அன்று.
4. …………….. வாயிலாகவே கல்வி பயிலுதல் வேண்டும்.
5. கலப்பில் வளர்ச்சி உண்டு என்பது ………………….. நுட்பம்.
6. இயற்கை இன்ப வாழ்வு நிலையங்கள் …………………….. மற்றும் ………………..
7. இயற்கை இறையுறையுள் ………….., …………………., …………………
8. உலக வாழ்விற்கு மிக மிக இன்றியமையாதது …………………… என்னும் அறிவுக்கலை.
Answer:
1. கல்வி
2. தொழில்
3. வருவாய்
4. தாய்மொழி
5. இயற்கை
6. சிலப்பதிகாரம், மணிமேகலை
7. தேவாரம், திருவாசகம், திருவாய்மொழி
8. அறிவியல்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
திரு. வி. க வின் படைப்புகள் யாவை?
Answer:

• மனித வாழ்க்கையும்
• தமிழ்த்தென்றல்.
• காந்தியடிகளும்.
• பொதுமை வேட்டல்.
• பெண்ணின் பெருமை.
• முருகன் அல்லது அழகு.

Question 2.
இயற்கை அன்னையின் எச்சரிக்கை என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:
தொழில் நோக்குடன் கல்வி பயிலுதல் வேண்டாம் என்றும், அறிவுலகின் பொருட்டுக் கல்விபயிலுதல் வேண்டும் என்றும், இயற்கை அன்னை எச்சரிக்கை செய்தவண்ணமாய்
இருக்கிறாள் என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 3.
இயற்கை முறையாகத் திரு. வி. க எடுத்துரைப்பது யாது?
Answer:

• நாம் தமிழ் மக்கள்! நாம் நமது தாய்மொழி வாயிலாக கல்வி பெறுதலே சிறப்பு.
• அதுவே, இயற்கை முறை என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 4.
கல்வி குறித்து விஜயலட்சுமி பண்டிட் கூறும் கருத்துகள் யாவை?
Answer:
“கல்வி என்பது வருவாய் தேடும் வழிமுறை அன்று. அது மெய்ம்மையைத் தேடவும், அறநெறியைப் பயிலவும் மனித ஆன்மாவுக்குப் பயிற்சி அளிக்கும் ஒரு நெறிமுறை ஆகும்” என்று கல்வி குறித்து விஜயலட்சுமி பண்டிட் கூறுகிறார்.

Question 5.
எது தமிழுக்கு இழுக்காகாது என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்?
Answer:
குறியீடுகளுக்குப் பல மொழிகளில் இருந்து கடன் வாங்குவது தமிழுக்கு இழுக்காகாது என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 6.
இளைஞர்களுக்குத் திரு. வி. க. விடுக்கும் வேண்டுகோள் யாது?
Answer:
(i) இளைஞர்களே! தமிழ் இளைஞர்களே! பெறற்கரிய இன்ப நாட்டில் பிறக்கும் பேறு பெற்று இருக்கிறீர்கள். தமிழ் இன்பத்தில் சிறந்த இன்பம் இவ்வுலகில் உண்டோ ?

(ii) தமிழ்க் காவியங்களைப் படியுங்கள், இன்பம் நுகருங்கள் என்று திரு. வி. க. இளைஞர்களுக்கு வேண்டுகோள் விடுக்கிறார்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
ஏட்டுக்கல்வி குறித்துத் திரு. வி. க. கூறும் கருத்துகள் யாவை?
Answer:

• ஏட்டுக்கல்வியே கல்வி என்னும் ஒரு கொள்கை எங்கும் நிலவி வருகிறது.
• ஏட்டுக்கல்வி மட்டும் கல்வி ஆகாது.
• இந்நாளில் கல்வி என்பது பொருள் அற்றுக் கிடைக்கிறது. குறிப்பிட்ட பாடங்களை மனப்பாடம் செய்து தேர்வில் தேறி, பட்டம் பெற்று, ஒரு தொழிலில் நுழைவதற்குக் கல்வி ஒரு கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது.
• நாளடைவில், அக்கல்விக்கும் வாழ்விற்கும் தொடர்பு இல்லாமல் போகிறது என்கிறார் திரு. வி. க.

Question 2.
திரு. வி. க. குறிப்பிடும் கல்வி குறித்த தலைப்புகளைப் பட்டியலிடுக.
Answer:

• ஏட்டுக் கல்வி
• இயற்கைக் கல்வி
• தொழிற் கல்வி
• இசைக் கல்வி
• தாய்மொழிவழிக் கல்வி
• நாடகக் கல்வி
• தமிழ்வழிக் கல்வி
• அறிவியல் கல்வி
• காப்பியக் கல்வி

Question 3.
தாய்மொழிவழிக் கல்வி குறித்து திரு. வி. க. கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

•  நாம் தமிழர், நம் தாய்மொழி வாயிலாகவே கல்வி பெறுவது சிறப்பு. அதுவே தான் இயற்கை முறை.
• போதிய ஓய்வு நேரமும் வாய்ப்பும் இருப்பின் வேறு பல மொழிகளையும் பயிலலாம்.
• ஆனால் தாய்மொழி வாயிலாகவே கல்வி பயிலுதல் வேண்டும்.
• தாய்நாடு என்னும் பெயர் தாய்மொழியைக் கொண்டு பிறப்பது ஆகும்
  – என்று தாய்மொழிவழிக் கல்வி குறித்து திரு. வி. க. கூறுகின்றார்.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

10th Maths Exercise 4.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
The length of the tangent to a circle from a point P, which is 25 cm away from the centre is 24 cm. What is the radius of the circle?
Solution:
24² + r² = 25²
576 + r² = 625
r² = 625 – 576
= 49

Ex 4.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
∆LMN is a right angled triangle with ∠L = 90°. A circle is inscribed in it. The lengths of the sides containing the right angle are 6 cm and 8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
Solution:
∆LMN,
By Pythagoras theorem,

Exercise 4.4 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
A circle is inscribed in ∆ABC having sides 8 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm as shown in figure, Find AD, BE and CF.

Solution:
We know that the tangents drawn from are external point to a circle are equal.
Therefore AD = AF = x say.
BD = BE = y say and
CE = CF = z say
Now, AB = 12 cm, BC = 8 cm, and CA= 10 cm.
x + y = 12, y + z = 8 and z + x = 10
(x + y) + (y + z) + (z + x) = 12 + 8 + 10
2(x + y + z) = 30
x + y + z = 15
Now, x + y = 12 and x + y + z = 15
12 + z = 15 ⇒ z = 3
y + z = 8 and x + y + z = 15
x + 8 = 15 ⇒ x = 7
and z + x = 10 and x + y + z = 15
10 + y = 15 ⇒ y = 5
Hence, AD = x = 7 cm, BE = y = 5 cm
and CF = z = 3 cm.

10th Maths Exercise 4.4 Question 4.
PQ is a tangent drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O and QOR is a diameter of the circle such that ∠POR = 120° . Find ∠OPQ.
Solution:
∠POR + ∠POQ = 180° (straight angle = 180°)
∴ 120 +∠POQ = 180°
∠POQ = 60°
∠OQP = 90° (∵ radius is ⊥^r to the tangent at the point of contact)

∴ ∠POQ + ∠PQO + ∠OPQ = 180° (∵ sum of the 3 angles of a triangle is 180°)
∴ 60 + 90 + ∠OPQ = 80°
∠OPQ = 180° – 150° = 30°

10th Maths Geometry Question 5.
A tangent ST to a circle touches it at B. AB is a chord such that ∠ABT = 65°. Find ∠AOB , where “O” is the centre of the circle.
Solution:
In the figure,
∠OBT = 90° (∵OB-radius, BT – Tangent)
= 115°
∴ ∠OBA = 90° – 65°
∠OAB = 25° (OA = OB)
∴ ∠AOB = 180° – 50°
= 130°

10th Maths Practical Geometry Guide Pdf Question 6.
In figure, O is the centre of the circle with radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT intersects the circle E, if AB is the tangent to the circle at E, find the length of AB.

Solution:
In ∆OPT, OP = r = 5 cm
OT = 13 cm
PT = 12 cm
In ∆OPA, OA² = OP² + AP² ………….. (1)
In ∆OAE, OA² = OE² + AE² …………. (2)
Equating (1) and (2),
OP² + AP² = OE² + AE² (∵ OP = OE = r)
∴ AP = AE
Parallel BQ = EB
In ∆AET, AT² = AE² + ET²
∴ ET² = AT² – AE² = (AT + AE) (AT – AE)
∴ ET² = (AT + AP) (AT – AE) (∵ AE = AP)
∴ 8 × 8 = 12 × (AT – AE)

10th Geometry Question 7.
In two concentric circles, a chord of length 16 cm of larger circle becomes a tangent to the smaller circle whose radius is 6 cm. Find the radius of the larger circle.
Solution:
AB = 16 cm given
CA = CB(∵ OC ⊥^r AB)

OB² = OC² + BC²
= 6² + 8²
= 36 + 64 = 100
OB = Radius of the larger circle = \(\sqrt{100}\) = 10 cm.

10th Geometry Exercise 4.4 Question 8.
Two circles with centres O and O’ of radii 3 cm and 4 cm respectively intersect at two points P and Q, such that OP and O’P are tangents to the two circles. Find the length of the common chord PQ.
Solution:
Given: OP = OQ = 4
O’P = O’Q = 3

OO’ is the perpendicular bisector of chord PQ.
Let R be the point of intersection of PQ and OO’.
Assume PR = QR = x and OR = y
In OPO’, OP² + O’P² = (OO’)² ⇒ OO’
= \(\sqrt{4^{2}+3^{2}}\) = 5
OR = y ⇒ OR = 5 – y
In ∆OPR, PR² + OR² = OP² ⇒ x² + y = 4² ……….. (1)
In ∆O’PR, PR² + O’R² = O’P² ⇒ x² + (5 – y)² = 9 ………….(2)
(1) – (2)=> y² – (25 + y² – 10y) = 16 – 9
⇒ y² – 25 – y² + 10y = 7 .
⇒ 10y = 25 + 7 ⇒ 10y =32
⇒ y =3.2
Substituting y = 3.2 in (1), we get x = \(\sqrt{4^{2}-3.2^{2}}\)
x = 2.4
PQ = 2x ⇒ PQ = 4.8 cm

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.4 Question 9.
Show that the angle bisectors of a triangle are concurrent.
Solution:

In ∆ABC, let AD, BE are two angle bisectors.
They meet at the point ‘O’
We have to prove that = \(\frac{A C}{C D}=\frac{A O}{O D}\)
Construct CO to meet the interesecting point O from C.

Hence proved.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Practical Geometry Question 10.
In ∆ABC , with ∠B = 90° , BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm, D is a point on AC such that AD = 2 cm and E is the midpoint of AB. Join D to E and extend it to meet at F. Find BF.
In the figure ∆ABC, ∆EBF are similar triangles.
Solution:
Consider DABC, Then D, E, F are respective points on the sides CA, AB and BC. By constrution D, E, F are collinear.

10th Maths Guide Geometry Question 11.
An artist has created a triangular stained glass window and has one strip of small length left before completing the window. She needs to figure out the length of left out portion based on the lengths of the other sides as shown in the figure.

Solution:
In the figure, let O be the concurrent point of the angle bisectors of the three angles.

10th Maths Practical Geometry Question 12.
Draw a tangent at any point R on the circle of radius 3.4 cm and centre at P ?
Solution:
Radius = 3.4 cm
Centre = P
Tangent at any point R.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) Draw a circle with centre P of radius 3.4 cm.
(2) Take a point R on the circle. Join PR.
(3) Draw ⊥^r line TT¹ to PR. Which passes through R.
(4) TT1 is the required tangent.

10th Maths Geometry Guide Question 13.
Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem.
Solution:
Construction:
Steps:
(1) With O as the centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
(2) Take a point R on the circle. Through R draw any chord PR.
(3) Take a point Q distinct from P and R on the circle, so that P, Q, R are in anti-clockwise direction. Join PQ and QR.
(4) Through R drawn a tangent TT¹ such that ∠TRP = ∠PQR.
(5) TT¹ is the required tangent.

Maths Geometry 10th Question 14.
Draw the two tangents from a point which is 10 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Solution:
Radius = 5 cm
The distance between the point from the centre is 10 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 5 cm.
(2) Draw a line OP =10 cm.
(3) Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP which cuts OP at M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA and PB = 8.7 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle ∠POA;

10th Maths New Syllabus Exercise 4.4 Question 15.
Take a point which is 11 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 4 cm and draw the two tangents to the circle from that point.
Solution:
Radius = 4 cm
The distance of a point from the center =11 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) With centre O, draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
(2) Draw a line OP = 11 cm.
(3) Draw a ⊥^r bisector of OP, which cuts atM.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 10.2 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle

10th Maths 4.4 Question 16.
Draw the two tangents from a point which is 5 cm away from the centre of a circle of diameter 6 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Solution:
Diameter = 6 cm
Radius = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3 cm.
The distance between the centre and the point is 5 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) With centre O, draw a circle of radius , 3cm.
(2) Draw a line OP = 5 cm.
(3) Draw a bisector of OP, which cuts OP and M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 4 cm
Verification:
In the right triangle ∆OPA,

10th Maths Book Geometry Question 17.
Draw a tangent to the circle from the point P having radius 3.6 cm, and centre at O. Point P is at a distance 7.2 cm from the centre.
Radius 3.6 cm.
Solution:
Distance from the centre to the point is 7.2 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) Draw a circle of radius 3.6 cm with centre O.
(2) Draw a line OP = 7.2 cm.
(3) Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 6.2 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle.