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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1.3 திக்கெல்லாம் புகழுறும் திருநெல்வேலி

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
திருநெல்வேலி …………….. மன்னர்களோடு தொடர்பு உடையது.
அ) சேர
ஆ) சோழ
இ) பாண்டிய
ஈ) பல்லவ
Answer:
இ) பாண்டிய

Question 2.
இளங்கோவடிகள் …………………….. மலைக்கு முதன்மை கொடுத்துப் பாடினார்.
அ) இமய
ஆ) கொல்லி
இ) பொதிகை
ஈ) விந்திய
Answer:
இ) பொதிகை)

Question 3.
திருநெல்வேலி ………… ஆற்றின் கரையில் அமைந்துள்ளது.
அ) காவிரி
ஆ) வைகை
இ) தென்பெண்ணை
ஈ) தாமிரபரணி
Answer:
ஈ) தாமிரபரணி

பொருத்துக

Answer:

குறுவினா

Question 1.
தாமிரபரணி ஆற்றின் கிளை ஆறுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
தாமிரபரணி கிளை ஆறுகள் : பச்சையாறு, மணிமுத்தாறு, சிற்றாறு, காரையாறு, சேர்வலாறு, கடனாநதி.

Question 2.
கொற்கை முத்து பற்றிக் கூறுக.
Answer:

• கொற்கையில் விளைந்த பாண்டி நாட்டு முத்து உலகப் புகழ் பெற்றதாகும்.
• நற்றிணை, அகநானூறு முதலான சங்க இலக்கியங்கள் கொற்கை முத்தின் சிறப்பைக் கூறுகின்றன.
• கிரேக்க, உரோமாபுரி நாடுகளைச் சேர்ந்த யவனர்கள் முத்துக்களை விரும்பி வாங்கிச்சென்றனர்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
திருநெல்வேலிப் பகுதியில் நடைபெறும் உழவுத்தொழில் குறித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
(i) திருநெல்வேலி மாவட்டப் பொருளாதாரத்தில் முதன்மையான பங்கு வகிப்பது உழவுத் தொழில். தாமிரபரணி ஆற்றின் மூலம் இங்கு உழவுத்தொழில் நடைபெறுகின்றது. இங்கு குளத்துப் பாசனமும் கிணற்றுப் பாசனமும்கூடப் பயன்பாட்டில் உள்ளன.

(ii) இரு பருவங்களில் நெல் பயிரிடப்படுகின்றது. மானாவாரிப் பயிர்களாகச் சிறுதானியங்கள், எண்ணெய்வித்துகள், காய்கனிகள், பருத்தி, பயறுவகைகள் போன்றவை பயிரிடப்படுகின்றன.

(iii) இராதாபுரம், நாங்குநேரி, அம்பாசமுத்திரம், தென்காசி போன்ற பகுதிகளில் பெருமளவில் வாழை பயிரிடப்படுகின்றது. இங்கு விளையும் வாழைத்தார்கள் -9 தமிழ்நாடு மட்டுமின்றி கர்நாடகம், கேரளம் போன்ற பிற மாநிலங்களுக்கும் அனுப்பப்படுகின்றன.

(iv) நெல்லிக்காய் உற்பத்தியில் தமிழகத்தில் நெல்லை மாவட்டமே முதலிடம் வகிக்கின்றது.

Question 2.
திருநெல்வேலிக்கும் தமிழுக்கும் உள்ள தொடர்பு குறித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
திருநெல்வேலியும், தமிழும் :
(i) அகத்தியம் என்னும் முதல் தமிழ் இலக்கண நூலை எழுதியவர் அகத்தியர். இவர் திருநெல்வேலியிலுள்ள பொதிகை மலையில் வாழ்ந்தவர்.
(ii) சங்கப் புலவரான மாறோக்கத்து நப்பசலையார், நம்மாழ்வார், பெரியாழ்வார், குமரகுருபரர், திரிகூடராசப்பக் கவிராயர், கவிராசப் பண்டிதர் ஆகியோர் திருநெல்வேலிச் சீமையில் பிறந்து தமிழுக்குச் செழுமை சேர்ந்துள்ளனர்.
(iii) அயல்நாட்டு அறிஞர்களான ஜி.யு.போப், கால்டுவெல், வீரமாமுனிவர் போன்றோரையும் தமிழின்பால் ஈர்த்த பெருமைக்கு உரியது திருநெல்வேலி.

Question 3.
திருநெல்வேலி நகர அமைப்புப் பற்றிக் கூறுக.
Answer:
(i) பொருநை எனப்படும் தாமிரபரணி ஆற்றின் கரையில் அமைந்துள்ள நெல்லை மாநகரின் அமைப்பு சிறப்பானது.
(ii) நகரின் நடுவே நெல்லையப்பர் திருக்கோவில் அமைந்துள்ளது. கோவிலைச் சுற்றி நான்கு பக்கங்களிலும் மாட வீதிகள், அவற்றைச் சுற்றித் தேரோடும் வீதிகள், அழகுற அமைந்துள்ளன.
(iii) அரசரால் தண்டிக்கப்பட்டவர்கள் சிறை வைக்கப்பட்டதால் பெயர்பெற்ற காவற்புரைத் தெரு உள்ளது.
(iv) தானியங்களை விற்கும் வீதியான கூழைக்கடை (கூலம் – தானியம்), பொன் நாணயங்களை உருவாக்கும் பணியாளர்கள் வாழ்ந்த பகுதி அக்கசாலை, பெரு வணிகம் நடைபெற்ற இடமான பேட்டை என்னும் ஊர் உள்ளது.
(v) இத்தகு சிறப்பு மிகுந்த நகர அமைப்புகளைக் கொண்டு காலத்தால் புகழ்பெற்று நிற்கிறது திருநெல்வேலி நகரம்.

சிந்தனை வினா

மக்கள் மகிழ்ச்சியாக வாழ ஒரு நகரம் எவ்வாறு இருக்க வேண்டும் என்று நினைக்கிறீர்கள்?
Answer:
மக்கள் மகிழ்ச்சியாக வாழ ஒரு நகரம் :
(i) மக்கள் ஆண்டு முழுவதும் தண்ணீர் பஞ்சம் இன்றி வாழ உதவும் நீர்நிலைகளைப் பாதுகாக்க வேண்டும்.
(ii) மழைநீர் வீணாகக் கடலில் சென்று கலக்காமல் ஆங்காங்கு குளங்கள் இருக்க வேண்டும்.
(iii) அனைத்து வீடுகளிலும் மழைநீர் சேகரிப்புத் தொட்டி அமைத்திருக்க வேண்டும்.
(iv) மாணவர்கள் பள்ளிக்கு நீண்ட தூரம் செல்லாமல் மக்கள் தொகைக்கு ஏற்ப பள்ளிகள் மற்றும் கல்லூரிகள் இருக்க வேண்டும்.
(V) கோவில்கள் மற்றும் நூலகம் இருக்க வேண்டும்.
(vi) ஆங்காங்கு பூங்காக்கள் அமைத்து மரம் செடிகளை வளர்க்க வேண்டும். குழந்தைகள் விளையாடுவதற்கும், குழந்தைகள் முதல் பெரியவர்கள் வரை உடற்பயிற்சிக்கும் நடைப் பயிற்சிக்கும் உதவும்படி அமைக்க வேண்டும்.
(viii) சிறந்த போக்குவரத்து வசதிக்குச் சாலைகள் நன்கு அமைக்க வேண்டும்.
(ix) சிறந்த மருத்துவனைகள் இருக்க வேண்டும்.
(x) சாலையோரங்களில் மரங்கள் வளர்க்க வேண்டும்.
(xi) பலவகையான வணிகம் நடைபெற வேண்டும்.
(xii) மேற்கூறிய அனைத்தும் மக்களை மகிழ்ச்சியாக வாழ வைக்கும்.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
உங்களுடைய மாவட்டத்தில் உள்ள சுற்றுலா இடங்கள் பற்றிய செய்திகளைத் தேடித் தொகுக்க.
Answer:
எனது மாவட்டத்தில் உள்ள சுற்றுலா இடங்கள் :
என்னுடைய மாவட்டம் சென்னை . இது நம் மாநிலத்தின் தலைநகரம் ஆகும். இங்கு பார்க்க வேண்டிய இடங்கள் பல உள்ளன. இங்குள்ள மெரினா கடற்கரை, உலகிலேயே மிக நீண்ட கடற்கரைகளில் இரண்டாவது இடத்தைப் பெறுகிறது. சென்னை வாசிகள் ஆசையோடு பொழுதுபோக்கி மகிழும் அருமையான திறந்த வெளி இடமாகும்.

ஆங்கிலக் கிழக்கிந்தியக் கம்பெனியரால் கட்டப்பட்டது புனித ஜார்ஜ் கோட்டை. இதன் வெளிப்புறத்தில் அகழி , அதனை சுற்றி மதில் சுவர்கள் உள்ளன. கோட்டையின் முன்பு மிகவும் உயரமான கொடிக்கம்பமும் உள்ளது.
அண்ணா அருங்காட்சியகம், பாரத ரத்னா டாக்டர் எம்.ஜி.ஆர். நினைவிடம் ஆகியவை மெரினா கடற்கரையில் அமைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. முதல் உலகப் போரில் தனது நாட்டிற்காக இன்னுயிரை ஈந்த வீரர்களுக்கு மரியாதை செலுத்தும் விதமாக போர் நினைவுச் சின்னம் கடற்கரைச் சாலையில் அமைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. இங்கு ஆண்டு தோறும் இராணுவ தினத்தின் போது மலர்வளையம் வைத்து அஞ்சலி செலுத்தப்படுகிறது.

எழும்பூரில் உள்ள அருங்காட்சியகம், இந்தியாவிலுள்ள பழமையான அருங்காட்சியகங்களில் இரண்டாவது இடத்தை வகிப்பது. இது 1851ல் நிறுவப்பட்டது. இது தேசிய மரபுச் செல்வங்களை காக்கும் கலைக் களஞ்சியமாக அமைந்துள்ளது.
வள்ளுவர் கோட்டம், தமிழ் மறையாம் திருக்குறளை உலகுக்கு அளித்த திருவள்ளுவரின் நினைவாக கட்டப்பட்ட கலைச் சின்னமாகும்.

சென்னை கிண்டியில் காந்தியடிகள், இராஜாஜி, காமராசர் நினைவாலயங்கள் உள்ளன. ஆசிய விளையாட்டு அரங்குகளின் அரசி’ எனப் போற்றப்படும் ஜவகர்லால் நேரு விளையாட்டு அரங்கம் உள்ளது.
அறிஞர் அண்ணா உயிரியல் பூங்கா வண்டலூரில் உள்ளது. வானவியல் பற்றிய த்துகளை நுண்ணிய ஒளி, ஒலி சாதனங்களைக் கொண்டு மக்களுக்குக் குறிப்பாக மாணவர்களுக்கு எளிய முறையில் கற்பிக்கும் இடமான கோளரங்கம், கோட்டூர்புரத்தில் உள்ளது.

காளிகாம்பாள் கோவில், கந்த கோட்டம், திருவல்லிக்கேணி பார்த்தசாரதி கோவில், மயிலாப்பூரில் உள்ள கபாலீஸ்வரர் கோவில், வடபழனியில் உள்ள முருகர் கோவில், திருவேற்காடு கருமாரியம்மன் கோவில், ஸ்ரீ மஹா ப்ரத்யங்கரா தேவி ஆலயம், கோயம்பேடு குறுங்காலீசுரவர் கோவில் என பல ஆன்மிகத்தலங்கள் நிறைந்தது எங்கள் சென்னை மாவட்டம்.

Question 2.
தமிழ்நாட்டில் உள்ள மாநகராட்சிகள் பற்றிய செய்திகளைத் தொகுக்க.
Answer:
தமிழ்நாட்டில் மொத்தம் 15 மாநகராட்சிகள் உள்ளன. அவைகளைப் பற்றிய செய்திகளை காண்போம்.

(i) சென்னை மாநகராட்சி
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 29 செப்டம்பர் 1688
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட நாள் : 29 செப்டம்பர் 1688
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 15
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : திருவொற்றியூர், மணலி , மாதவரம், தண்டையார்பேட்டை, ராயபுரம், திரு.வி.க.நகர், அம்பத்தூர், அண்ணா நகர், தேனாம்பேட்டை, கோடம்பாக்கம், வளசரவாக்கம், ஆலந்தூர், அடையார், பெருங்குடி, சோளிங்கநல்லூர்.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 200
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) :86,96,010

(ii) கோயம்புத்தூர் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1 நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 1981
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 5
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு, மற்றும் மத்திய மண்டலம்.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 148
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 42,24,106

(iii) மதுரை மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1 நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 1971
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் :4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 100
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 14,62,420

(iv) திருச்சிராப்பள்ளி மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 1994
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : ஸ்ரீரங்கம், அரியமங்கலம், பொன்மலை , K. அபிஷேகபுரம்
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 65
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 10,21,717

(v) சேலம் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1 நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 1994
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : சூரமங்கலம், ஹஸ்தம்பட்டி, அம்மாபேட்டை, கொண்டலாம்பட்டி
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 60
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 10,13,388

(vi) திருநெல்வேலி மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 1994
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : தச்சநல்லூர், பாளையம் கோட்டை, மேலப்பாளையம், திருநெல்வேலி
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 55
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 4,74,838

(vii) திருப்பூர் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1 டிசம்பர் 1947(பஞ்சாயத்து யூனியனாக)
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 2008
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 60
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 4,66,998

(viii) ஈரோடு மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 1871
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 2008
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : சூரம்பட்டி, காசிபாளையம், வீரப்பன்சத்திரம், பெரிய சேமூர்.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 60
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 4,44,782

(ix) வேலூர் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1 நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட நாள் :1 ஆகஸ்ட் 2008
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : காட்பாடி, வேலூர் கோட்டை, சத்துவாச்சாரி, செண்பகம்.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 60
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 4,21,327

(x) தூத்துக்குடி மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட நாள் : 5 ஆகஸ்ட் 2008
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 60
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 3,56,094

(xi) தஞ்சாவூர் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1 நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 2014
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 62
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 2,22,943

(xii) திண்டுக்கல் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1 நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 2014
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை :51
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 2,07,225

(xiii) நாகர்கோவில் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 2019
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 51
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 2,24,849

(xiv) ஓசூர் மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள் : 1நவம்பர் 1866
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 2019
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் :4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை :51
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 1,16,821

(xv) ஆவடி மாநகராட்சி :
நகரம் உருவாக்கப்பட்ட நாள்
: 10 ஜனவரி 1955
மாநகராட்சியாக மேம்படுத்தப்பட்ட ஆண்டு : 2019
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்கள் : 4
நிர்வாக மண்டலங்களின் பெயர்கள் : வடக்கு, கிழக்கு, தெற்கு, மேற்கு.
வார்டுகளின் எண்ணிக்கை : 80
மக்கள் தொகை (2011 கணக்கெடுப்பின் படி) : 3,44,701

தெரிந்து தெளிவோம்

(i) முற்காலத்தில் திருநெல்வேலிக்கு வேணுவனம் என்னும் பெயரும் இருந்துள்ளது. மூங்கில் காடு என்பது அதன் பொருளாகும். மூங்கில் நெல் மிகுதியாக விளைந்தமையால் அப்பகுதிக்கு நெல்வேலி என்னும் பெயர் ஏற்பட்டிருக்கலாம் எனவும் கருதுவர்.

(ii) திருநெல்வேலிக்கு அருகிலுள்ள ஆதிச்சநல்லூர் என்னும் இடத்தில் நிகழ்த்தப்பட்ட அகழ்வாய்வில் இறந்தவர்களின் உடல்களைப் புதைக்கப் பழந்தமிழர்கள் பயன்படுத்திய முதுமக்கள் தாழிகள் கண்டெடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. மேலும் தமிழரின் தொன்மைக்கும் நாகரிகச் சிறப்புக்கும் சான்றாக விளங்கும் தொல்பொருள்கள் இங்குக் கிடைத்துள்ளன. இவ்வூர் தற்போது தூத்துக்குடி மாவட்டத்தில் உள்ளது.

(iii) தாமிரபரணி ஆற்றின் மேற்குக் கரையில் திருநெல்வேலியும் கிழக்குக் கரையில்
பாளையங்கோட்டையும் அமைந்துள்ளன. இவ்விரு நகரங்களும் இரட்டை நகரங்கள் என அழைக்கப்படுகின்றன. பாளையங்கோட்டையில் அதிக அளவில் கல்வி நிலையங்கள் இருப்பதால் அந்நகரைத் தென்னிந்தியாவின் ஆக்ஸ்போர்டு என்பர்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

நிரப்புக.

1. பழந்தமிழகத்தை ஆண்ட மன்னர்கள் சேரர், சோழர், பாண்டியர்.
2. பாண்டியர்களின் தலைநகர் மதுரை.
3. பாண்டியர்களது இரண்டாவது தலைநகரமாக விளங்கிய நகரம் திருநெல்வேலி.
4. திருநெல்வேலிப் பகுதியை வளம் செழிக்கச் செய்யும் ஆறு தாமிரபரணி ஆகும்.
5. ‘திக்கெல்லாம் புகழுறும் திருநெல்வேலி’ எனப் பாடியவர் திருஞானசம்பந்தர்.
6. ‘தண்பொருநைப் புனல் நாடு’ என்று பாடியவர் சேக்கிழார்.
7. வேணுவனம் என்பதன் பொருள் மூங்கில் காடு.
8. தமிழகத்தில் நெல்லிக்காய் உற்பத்தியில் முதலிடம் வகிக்கும் மாவட்டம் திருநெல்வேலி.
9. தாமிரபரணி கடலோடு கலக்கும் இடத்தில் உள்ள துறைமுகம் கொற்கை.
10. முத்துப்படு பரப்பிற் கொற்கை முன்றுறை’ என்று பாடும் நூல் நற்றிணை
11. ‘கொற்கையில் பெருந்துறை முத்து எனப் பாடும் நூல் அகநானூறு.
12. காவற்புரை என்றால் சிறைச்சாலை.
13. தானியங்கள் விற்கப்படும் தெரு கூலக்கடைத் தெரு.
14. வணிகம் நடைபெறும் பகுதி பேட்டை என்று வழங்கப்பட்டது.
15. இரட்டை நகரங்கள் என்பவை திருநெல்வேலியும், பாளையங்கோட்டையும் ஆகும்.
16. தென்னிந்தியாவின் ஆஃஸ்போர்டு பாளையங்கோட்டை.
17. பாண்டிய மன்னன் நின்றசீர் நெடுமாறனை நெல்லை நகர மக்கள் எதிர்கொண்டு வரவேற்ற இடம் பாண்டியபுரம் என்று வழங்கப்படுகின்றன.
18. பாண்டிய மன்னனின் தேவியாகிய மங்கையர்க்கரசியை மகளிர் எதிர்கொண்டு வரவேற்ற இடம் திருமங்கை நகர் என்று வழங்கப்படுகின்றன.
19. தாமிரபரணி ஆற்றின் வேறு பெயர் தண்பொருநை .
20. திருநெல்வேலிக்கு அருகில் அகழ்வாய்வு நிகழ்த்தப்பட்ட இடம் ஆதிச்ச நல்லூர்.
21. இறந்தவர்களின் உடல்களைப் புதைக்கப் பழந்தமிழர்கள் பயன்படுத்தியவை முதுமக்கள் தாழிகள்.

விடையளி :

Question 1.
திருநெல்வேலி பற்றிக் குறிப்பு எழுதுக.
Answer:
(i) திருநெல்வேலி தமிழகத்தின் பழமையான நகரங்களுள் ஒன்று.
(ii) பழந்தமிழகத்தைச் சேர, சோழ, பாண்டியர் என்னும் மூவேந்தர் ஆண்டு வந்தனர்.
(iii) அவர்களுள் பாண்டியர்களின் தலைநகரமாக விளங்கியது மதுரை.
(iv) அவர்களது இரண்டாவது தலைநகரமாகத் திருநெல்வேலி விளங்கியது.

Question 2.
திருநெல்வேலியைப் பற்றி திருஞானசம்பந்தர் பாடியவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:
(i) ‘திக்கெல்லாம் புகழுறும் திருநெல்வேலி ‘ ‘எனத் திருநெல்வேலியின் சிறப்பைப் போற்றியுள்ளார்.
(ii) திருநெல்வேலியில் திங்கள் தோறும் திருவிழா நடைபெறும் என்பதை,
“திங்கள் நாள் விழா மல்கு திருநெல் வேலியுறை செல்வர் தாமே” என்று பாடியுள்ளார்.

Question 3.
குற்றாலமலையின் வளத்தைப் பாடியவர் யார்? என்னவென்று பாடியுள்ளார்?
Answer:
(i) குற்றால மலையின் வளத்தைப் பாடியவர் திரிகூட இராசப்பக் கவிராயர்.
(ii) “வானரங்கள் கனிகொடுத்து மந்தியொடு கொஞ்சும் மந்திசிந்து கனிகளுக்கு வான்கவிகள் கெஞ்சும்” என்று பாடியுள்ளார்.

Question 4.
திருநெல்வேலி மாவட்டத்தில் கோட்டைகள் பல இருந்தமைக்குச் சான்றாக விளங்கிய ஊர்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
(i) பாளையங்கோட்டை
(ii) உக்கிரன்கோட்டை
(iii) செங்கோட்டை.

Question 5.
பண்டைய வரலாற்றை நினைவூட்டும் திருநெல்வேலி மாவட்ட ஊர்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
(i) சேரன்மாதேவி
(ii) கங்கைகொண்டான்
(iii) திருமலையப்புரம்
{iv) வீரபாண்டியப் பட்டினம்
(V) குலசேகரன்பட்டினம்.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.3

10th Maths Exercise 4.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
A man goes 18 m due east and then 24 m due north. Find the distance of his current position from the starting point?
Solution:
Using Pythagoras theorem

AC² = AB² + BC²
= (18)² + (24)²
= 324 + 576
= 900
AC = \(\sqrt{900}\) = 30 m
∴ The distance from the starting point is 30 m.

Ex 4.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
There are two paths that one can choose to go from Sarah’s house to James house. One way is to take C street, and the other way requires to take A street and then B street. How much shorter is the direct path along C street? (Using figure).

Solution:
By using Pythagoras theorem
AC² = AB² + BC²
= 2² + (1.5)²
= 4 + 2.25
= 6.25
AC = 2.5 miles.
If one chooses C street the distance from James house to Sarah’s house is 2.5 miles
If one chooses A street and B street he has to go 2 + 1.5 = 3.5 miles.
2.5 < 3.5, 3.5 – 2.5 = 1 Through C street is shorter by 1.0 miles.
∴ The direct path along C street is shorter by 1 mile.

10th Maths Exercise 4.3 Question 3.
To get from point A to point B you must avoid walking through a pond. You must walk 34 m south and 41 m east. To the nearest meter, how many meters would be saved if it were possible to make a way through the pond?
Solution:
By using Pythagoras

AC² = AB² + BC²
= 34² + 41²
= 1156+ 1681
= 2837
AC = 53.26 m
Through B one must walk 34 + 41 = 75 m walking through a pond one must comes only 53.2 m
∴ The difference is (75 – 53.26) m = 21.74 m
∴ To the nearest, one can save 21.74 m.

Ex 4.3 Class 10 Question 4.
In the rectangle WXYZ, XY + YZ = 17 cm, and XZ + YW = 26 cm. Calculate the length and breadth of the rectangle?

Solution:
XY + YZ = 17 cm …………. (1)
XZ + YW = 26 cm ………… (2)
(2) ⇒ XZ = 13, YW = 13
(∵ In rectangle diagonals are equal).
(1) ⇒ XY = 5, YZ = 12 XY + YZ = 17
⇒ Using Pythagoras theorem
5² + 12² = 25 + 144 = 169 = 13²
∴ In ∆XYZ = 13² = 5² + 12² it is verified
∴ The length is 12 cm and the breadth is 5 cm.

Class 10th Maths Samacheer Kalvi Solution Question 5.
The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 6 m more than twice of the shortest side. If the third side is 2 m less than the hypotenuse, find the sides of the triangle?
Solution:
Let a is the shortest side.
c is the hypotenuse
b is the third side.

∴ The sides of the triangle are 10m, 24m, 26m.
Verification 26² = 10² + 24²
676 = 100 + 576 = 676

Exercise 4.3 Class 10 Question 6.
5 m long ladder is placed leaning towards a vertical wall such that it reaches the wall at a point 4m high. If the foot of the ladder is moved 1.6 m towards the wall, then find the distance by which the top of the ladder would slide upwards on the wall.
Solution:
Let the distance by which top of the slide moves upwards be assumed as ‘x’.

From the diagram, DB = AB – AD
= 3 – 1.6 ⇒ DB = 1.4 m
also BE = BC + CE
= 4 + x
∴ DBE is a right angled triangle
DB² + BE² = DE² ⇒ (1.4)² + (4 + x)²= 5²
⇒ (4 + x)² = 25 – 1.96 ⇒ (4 + x)² = 23.04
⇒ 4 + x = \(\sqrt{23.04}\) = 4.8
⇒ x = 4.8 – 4 ⇒ x = 0.8 m

Ex 4.3 Class 10 Maths Question 7.
The perpendicular PS on the base QR of ∆PQR intersects QR at S, such that QS = 3 SR. Prove that 2PQ² = 2PR² + QR².
Solution:

In ∆PQS,
PQ² = PS² + QS² ………… (1)
In ∆PSR,
PR² = PS² + SR² ……….. (2)
(1) – (2) ⇒ PQ² – PR² = QS² – SR² …………. (3)

Hence it proved.

Class 10 Maths Ex 4.3 Question 8.
In the adjacent figure, ABC is a right-angled triangle with right angle at B and points D, E trisect BC. Prove that 8AE² = 3AC² + 5AD².

Solution:
Since D and E are the points of trisection of BC,
therefore BD = DE = CE
Let BD = DE = CE = x
Then BE = 2x and BC = 3x
In right triangles ABD, ABE and ABC, (using Pythagoras theorem)
We have AD² = AB² + BD²
⇒ AD² = AB² + x² ……………. (1)
AE² = AB² + BE²
⇒ AB² + (2x)²
⇒ AE² = AB² + 4x² ………… (2)
and AC² = AB² + BC² = AB² + (3x)²
AC² = AB² + 9x²
Now 8 AE² – 3 AC² – 5 AD² = 8 (AB² + 4x²) – 3 (AB² + 9x²) – 5 (AB² + x²)
= 8AB² + 32x² – 3AB² – 27x² – 5AB² – 5x²
= 0
∴ 8 AE² – 3 AC² – 5 AD² = 0
8 AE² = 3 AC² + 5 AD².
Hence it is proved.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Plant Kingdom Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer
11th Botany Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Which of the plant group has gametophyte as a dominant phase?
(a) Pteridophytes
(b) Bryophytes
(c) Gymnosperm
(d) Angiosperm
Answer:
(b) Bryophytes

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Botany Book Question 2.
Which of following represent gametophytic generation in pteridophytes?
(a) Prothallus
(b) Thallus
(c) Cone
(d) Rhizophore
Answer:
(a) Prothallus

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Botany Question 3.
The haploid number of chromosome for an Angiosperm is 14, the number of chromosome in its endosperm would be …………… .
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 42
(d) 28
Answer:
(c) 42

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Botany Question 4.
Endosperm in Gymnosperm is formed …………… .
(a) at the time of fertilization
(b) before fertilization
(c) after fertilization
(d) along with the development of embryo
Answer:
(b) before fertilization

Question 5.
Differentiate halpontic and diplontic life cycle.
Answer:
Halpontic cycle:

• Gametophyte is dominant
• Sporophyte is represented by zygote

Diplontic cycle:

• Sporophyte is dominant
• Gametophyte is represented by few cell gametophyte

Question 6.
What is Plectostele? Give example.
Answer:
Plectostele: Xylem plates alternates with phloem plates. Example: Lycopodiurn clavatum.

Question 7.
What do you infer from the term Pycnoxylic?
Answer:
Pycnoxylic wood is compact with narrow medullary ray. Example: Pinus

Question 8.
Mention two characters shared by Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:
Gymnosperms:

• Vessels are absent (except Gnetales)
• Phloem lacks companion cells

Angiosperms:

• Vessels are present
• Companion cells are present

Question 9.
Do you think shape of chloroplast is unique for algae? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Variation among the shape of the chloroplast is found in members of algae. It is Cup shaped (chlamydomonas). Discoid ((Chara), Girdle shaped (Ulothrix), reticulate (Oedogonium), spiral (Spirogyra), stellate (Zygnema) and plate like (Mougeoutia).

Question 10.
Do you agree with the statement ‘Bryophytes need water for fertilization’? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, in Bryophytes. water plays a vital role in fertilisation, since water film is needed for the transfer of spermatium (male sex cell) to the egg cell.

Entrance Examination Questions Solved

Question 1.
Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions? (NEET – 2017)
(a) Archaebacteria
(b) Eubacteria
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Mycobacteria
Answer:
(a) Archaebacteria

Question 2.
Select the mismatch …………… . (NEET – 2017)

Answer:
(b) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza

Question 3.
Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen? (NEET – 2017)
(a) Bacillus
(b) Pseudomonas
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Nostoc
Answer:
(c) Mycoplasma

Question 4.
Read the following statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements: (AIPMT – 2015).
A. Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
B. Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte,
C. Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
D. Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.
E. In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes arc present within sporangia located on sporophyte.

(a) B, C and E
(b) A, C and D
(c) B, C and D
(d) A, D and E
Answer:
(d) A, D and E

Question 5.
An example of colonial algae is …………… . (NEET – 2017)
(a) Chlorella
(b) Volvox
(c) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(b) Volvox

Question 6.
Five kingdom system of classification suggested by RH. Whittaker is not based on …………… . (AIPMT- 2014)
(a) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
(b) Mode of reproduction
(c) Mode of nutrition
(d) Complexity of body organisation
Answer:
(a) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus

Question 7.
Mycorrhizae are the example of …………… . (NEET – 2017)
(a) Fungitasis
(b) Amensalism
(c) Antibiosis
(d) Mutualism
Answer:
(d) Mutualism

Question 8.
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? (AIPMT – 2014)
(a) Polio virus
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measles virus
(d) Retrovirus
Answer:
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus

Question 9.
Viroids differ from viruses in having: (NEET – 2017)
(a) DNA molecules with protein coat
(b) DNA molecules without protein coat
(c) RNA molecules with protein coat
(d) RNA molecules without protein coat
Answer:
(d) RNA molecules without protein coat

Question 10.
Select the mismatch: (NEET – 2017)
(a) Pinus – Dioecious
(b) Cycas – Dioecious
(c) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(d) Equisetum – Homosporous
Answer:
(a) Pinus – Dioecious

Question 11.
Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are …………… . (NEET – 2017)
(a) Haplontic, Diplontic
(b) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(c) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(d) Haplodiplontic, Halplontic
Answer:
(c) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

Question 12.
Zygote meiosis Is characterisitic of …………… . (NEET – 2017)
(a) Marchantia
(b) Fucus
(c) Funaria
(d) Chlamydomonas
Answer:
(d) Chlamydomonas

Question 13.
Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them? (NEET – 2017)
(a) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
(b) Merthanobacterium : Lactic acid
(c) Penicillium natatum : Acetic acid
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
Answer:
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol

Question 14.
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell? (NEET – 2017)
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nuclear membrane
(e) Plasma membrane
(d) Glycocalyx
Answer:
(d) Glycocalyx

Question 15.
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids? (NEET – 2016)
(a) They lack a protein coat
(b) They are smaller than viruses
(c) They causes infections
(d) Their RNA is a high molecular weight
Answer:
(d) Their RNA Is a high molecular weight

Question 16.
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes require …………… . (NEET – 20L6)
(a) Wind
(b) Insects
(c) Birds
(d) Water
Answer:
(d) Water

Question 17.
How many organisms in the list below are autotrophs? (AIPMT Mains 2012)
Answer:
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chora, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three
Answer:
(c) Six

Question 18.
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks? (NEET – 2016)
(a) Lichens
(b) Liverworts
(c) Mosses
(d) Green algae
Answer:
(a) Lichens

Question 19.
Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of …………… .(NEET – 2013)
(a) Stamen and carpel on the same plant
(b) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
(c) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
(d) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
Answer:
(c) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Question 20.
Read the following five statement (A – E) and answer as asked next to them …………… . (AIPMT Prelims – 2012)
(a) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte
(b) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent
(c) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum
(d) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous
(e) The spores of slime moulds lack cell walls
How many of the above statement are correct? (AIPMT Prelims – 2012)
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
Answer:
(d) One

Question 21.
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is …………… . (NEET – 2016)
(a) Chitin
(b) Peptidoglycan
(c) Cellulose
(d) Hemicellulose
Answer:
(a) Chitin

Question 22.
Which one of the following statements is wrong? (NEET – 2016)
(a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue – green algae
(b) Golden algae are also called desmids
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
Answer:
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria

Question 23.
Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets? (AIPMT Prelims – 2007)
(a) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
(b) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
(c) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
(d) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Answer:
(a) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas

Question 24.
Ectophloic siphonostele is found in …………… . (AIPMT Prelims – 2005)
(a) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae
(b) Osmunda and Equisetum
(c) Marsilea and Botrychium
(d) Dicksonia and maiden hair fern
Answer:
(b) Osmunda and Equisetum

Question 25.
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita? (NEET – 2016)
(a) Flower
(b) Leaf
(c) Stem
(d) Root
Answer:
(d) Root

Question 26.
Select the correct statement: (NEET – 2016)
(a) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
(b) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
(d) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
Answer:
(c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

Question 27.
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of …………… . (NEET – 2016)
(a) Sporulation
(b) Budding
(c) Somatic hybridization
(d) Apomixis
Answer:
(d) Apomixis

Question 28.
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom …………… . (NEET – 2016)
(a) Animalia
(b) Monera
(c) Protista
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(b) Monera

Question 29.
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the …………… . (NEET – 2016)
(a) Halophiles
(b) Thermoacidophiles
(c) Methanogens
(d) Eubacteria
Answer:
(c) Methanogens

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Plant Kingdom Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Gametophytic phase is …………… .
(a) triploid
(b) tetraploid
(c) haploid
(d) diploid
Answer:
(c) haploid

Question 2.
Haplodiplontic life cycle is seen in …………… .
(a) algae
(b) gymnosperm
(c) bryophytes
(d) angiosperm
Answer:
(c) bryophytes

Question 3.
Which algae leads an endozoic life in Hydra?
(a) Chlorella
(b) Gracilaria
(c) Ulothrix
(d) Chlamydomonas
Answer:
(a) Chlorella

Question 4.
Study of algae is called …………… .
(a) biology
(b) mycology
(c) bryology
(d) phycology
Answer:
(d) phycology

Question 5.
Siliceous walls are present in …………… .
(a) Chara
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Dunaliella
(d) Diatoms
Answer:
(d) Diatoms

Question 6.
In Chara, thallus is encrusted with …………… .
(a) calcium carbonate
(b) hydrogen sulphate
(c) silica
(d) ammonium carbonate
Answer:
(a) calcium carbonate

Question 7.
Pyrenoids are present in …………… .
(a) mitochondrion
(b) chloroplast
(c) ribosomes
(d) lysosomes
Answer:
(b) chloroplast

Question 8.
Type of vegetative reproduction seen in ulothrix is …………… .
(a) bulbils
(b) fission
(c) fragmentation
(d) tubers
Answer:
(c) fragmentation

Question 9.
…………… are thin walled non – motile spores.
(a) Zoospores
(b) Akinetes
(c) Aplanospores
(d) Genunae
Answer:
(c) Aplanospores

Question 10.
Fusion of either morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes is called as …………… .
(a) isogamy
(b) anisogamy
(c) syngamy
(d) oogamy
Answer:
(b) anisogamy

Question 11.
According to Fritsch, the algae are classified into …………… classes.
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 9
Answer:
(c) 11

Question 12.
Photosynthetic part of the phaeophyceae thallus Is called as
(a) holdfast
(b) stipes
(c) lamina
(d) fronds
Answer:
(d) fronds

Question 13.
A characteristic pigment of phaeophyceae is …………… .
(a) xanthophyle
(b) carotenoid
(c) fucoxanthin
(d) chlorophyll
Answer:
(c) fucoxanthin

Question 14.
…………… is used as single cell protein.
(a) Chlorella
(b) Kelps
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(a) Chlorella

Question 15.
Gelidium belongs to …………… members.
(a) Rhodophyccae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Cyanophyccae
(d) Dinophyceae
Answer:
(a) Rhodophyceae

Question 16.
Carrageenan is obtained from …………… .
(a) Chlorella
(b) Chara
(c) Chondrus
(d) Chlamydomonas
Answer:
(c) Chondrus

Question 17.
…………… are the amphibians of the plant kingdom.
(a) Pteridophytes
(b) Algae
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Bryophytes
Answer:
(d) Bryophytes

Question 18.
Marchantia vegetatively propagates by …………… .
(a) tubers
(b) gemmae
(c) buds
(d) brood bodies
Answer:
(b) gemmae

Question 19.
Peat is obtained from …………… .
(a) Anthoceros
(b) Dendroceros
(c) Sphagnum
(d) Funaria
Answer:
(c) Sphagnum

Question 20.
…………… is a bryophyte used to cure pulmonary tuberculosis.
(a) Marchantia polymorpha
(b) Polytrichum
(c) Sphagnum
(d) Bryum
Answer:
(a) Marchantia polymorpha

Question 21.
Type of stele seen in Marsilea is …………… .
(a) Protostele
(b) Siphonostele
(c) Adiantum
Answer:
(b) Siphonostele

Question 22.
Which of the following pteridophyte is used as a biofertiliser?
(a) Marsilea
(b) Pteridium
(c) Pteris
(d) Azolla
Answer:
(d) Azolla

Question 23.
Which of the following is naked seed producing plant?
(a) Angiosperm
(b) Gymnosperm
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Bryophytes
Answer:
(b) Gymnosperm

Question 24.
Amber is obtained from …………… .
(a) Angiosperm
(b) Gymnosperm
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Bryophytes
Answer:
(b) Gymnosperm

Question 25.
Coralloid roots of cycas have symbiotic association with …………… .
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Euglena
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(a) Blue green algae

Question 26.
Pinus roots are in symbiotic relationship with …………… .
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Euglena
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(b) Mycorrhiza

Question 27.
Which is not a class of Gymnosperm?
(a) Lycopodia
(b) Cycadopsida
(c) Coniferopsida
(d) gnetopsida
Answer:
(a) Lycopodia

Question 28.
The endosperm of gymnosperm is …………… .
(a) haploid
(b) triploid
(c) diploid
(d) Poliploidy
Answer:
(a) haploid

Question 29.
Shiwalik fossil park is located at …………… .
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Rajmahal hills
(d) Jharkhand
Answer:
(b) Himachal Pradesh

Question 30.
When does the angiosperm appeared on Earth?
(a) Devonian
(b) Cambrian
(c) Early cretaceous
Answer:
(c) Early cretaceous

Question 31.
Which is also called as vascular cryptogam?
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Algae
Answer:
(b) Pteridophytes

Question 32.
Which is not a cryptogam?
(a) Algae
(b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Angiospermae
Answer:
(d) Angiospermae

Question 33.
…………… is a haiophytic alga.
(a) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(b) Dunaliella salina
(c) Coleochaete
(d) Volvox
Answer:
(b) Dunaliella salina

Question 34.
Who is called as the Father of Indian Phycology?
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy
(b) Y. Bharadwaja
(c) V.S. Sundaralingam
(d) V. Desikachary
Answer:
(a) M.O. Parthasarathy

Question 35.
Wedge shaped modified branches developed by Sphacelaria are called as …………… .
(a) Buds
(b) Akinetes
(c) Tubers
(d) Bulbils
Answer:
(d) Bulbils

Question 36.
Pteridophytes were abundant in the …………… period.
(a) Cambrian
(b) Precambrian
(c) Devonian
(d) Cretaceous
Answer:
(c) Devonian

Question 37.
Heterospory is originated in …………… .
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Algae
Answer:
(b) Pteridophytes

Question 38.
Sago is obtained from …………… .
(a) Cycas revoluta
(b) Pinus roxburghii
(c) Finus insularis
(d) Cedrus deodara
Answer:
(a) Cycas revoluta

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Define alternation of generation.
Answer:
Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation.

Question 2.
Name any two marine algae.
Answer:
Two marine alga:

1. Gracilaria and
2. Sargassum

Question 3.
Name any two fresh water algae.
Answer:
Two fresh water algae:

1. Oedogonium and
2. Ulothrix

Question 4.
Mention any two endozoic algae.
Answer:
Two endozoic algae:

1. Chlorella and
2. Cladophora crispata.

Question 5.
Define Phycology.
Answer:
The study of algae is called as phycology or algology.

Question 6.
Define epiphytic algae with an example.
Answer:
Algae growing on the surface of aquatic plants are called as epiphytic algae.
Example: Coleochaete.

Question 7.
Name few eminent algologist.
Answer:
F.E. Fritsch, F.E. Round, Y. Bharadwaja and T.V. Desikachary

Question 8.
Write the chemical composition of algae cell wall.
Answer:
Cellulose and hemicellulose.

Question 9.
List out the criteria involved in algal classification.
Answer:
Pigmentation, reserve food materials and flagellation pattern.

Question 10.
What are pyrenoids? Mention its role.
Answer:
Pyrenoids are proteinaceous bodies found in chromatophores of algae and assist in the synthesis and storage of starch.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Isogamy and Oogamy with example.
Answer:
Between Isogamy Oogamy with example:

Question 12.
Which is the reserve food material of phaeophyceae members.
Answer:
Mannitol and Laminarin starch.

Question 13.
Name the male & female sex organ of Rhodophyceae members.
Answer:
Male sex organ is called spermatangium. Female sex organ is called carpogonium.

Question 14.
Which is responsible for pigmentation of Brown algae?
Answer:
A golden brown pigment called fucoxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from olive green to brown to the algal members of Phaeophyceae.

Question 15.
Mention any two algae members used in Agar – Agar production.
Answer:
Two algae member used in Agar – Agar production:

1. Gracilaria and
2. Gigartina.

Question 16.
Bryophytes are amphibians of plant kingdom – Justify.
Answer:
Bryophytes are called as ‘amphibians of plant kingdom’ because they need water for completing their life cycle.

Question 17.
Why bryophytes are called as Non – vascular cryptogam?
Answer:
Vascular tissue like xylem and phloem are completely absent in bryophytes, hence called as ‘Non – vascular cryptogams’.

Question 18.
Which type of sexual reproduction occurs in Bryophytes. Name the male & female parts.
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. Male sex organ is called as Antheridia. Female sex organ is called as Archegonia.

Question 19.
What are sporophylls?
Answer:
Sporophylls are the special leaves on which spore bearing sporangia are borne. Sporophylls organize to form strobilus or cone.

Question 20.
Compare Eusporangiate and Leptosporangiate.
Answer:
Eusporangiate and Leptosporangiate:

Question 21.
Differentiate homospory and heterospory with example.
Answer:
Homospory and Heterospory With Example:

Question 22.
Which period, does the pteridophytes dominate the surface?
Answer:
Devonian period of Paleozoic era.

Question 23.
List out the ways of vegetative propagation by Pteridophytes.
Answer:
Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds.

Question 24.
Define Stele & mention its types.
Answer:
Stele refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem. pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith. There are two types of steles:

1. Protostele
2. Siphonostele

Question 25.
Distinguish between Protostele & Siphonostele.
Answer:

Question 26.
DefIne Eustele?
Answer:
The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles around the pith. Example: Dicot stem.

Question 27.
What Is amber? Which group of plants produce amber?
Answer:
Amber is a plant secretion that is a efficient preservative that doesn’t get degraded and hence can preserve remains of extinct life forms. The amber is produced by Pinites succinifera, a Gymnosperm.

Question 28.
Which period, does the gymnosperm dominate the Earth?
Answer:
Jurassic and Cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era.

Question 29.
Distinguish between Manoxylic & Pycnoxylic.
Answer:

Question 30.
Define Siphonogamous condition.
Answer:
Siphonogainy refers to the development of pollen tubes for the transfer of male nuclei to egg cell.

Question 31.
Mention any two common features for both gymnosperm & angiosperm.
Answer:
Two common features for both gymnosperm & angiosperm.:

1. Production of seeds
2. Presence of Eustele

Question 32.
What is Canada balsam. Add a note on it.
Answer:
Canada balsam is a resin obtained from Abies balsamea. It is used as mounting medium in permanent slide preparation.

Question 33.
Why do we use the term ‘form genera’ for fossil plants?
Answer:
The term ‘form genera’ is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments.

Question 34.
Name few fossil sites of india.
Answer:
few fossil sites of india:

Question 35.
Mention the names of any two fossil gymnosperm.
Answer:
Medullosa, Lepidocarpon and Lepidodendron.

Question 36.
Which group of plants dominate the Earth today? Define it.
Answer:
Angiosperms are the group of plants producing ovules enclosed by ovary.

Question 37.
What is an open vascular bundle?
Answer:
A vascular bundle is open when it has Cambium.

Question 38.
What is a closed vascular bundle?
Answer:
A vascular bundle is closed when it does not have Cambium.

Question 39.
Mention any two morphological differences between Dicot & Monocot.
Answer:
Two morphological differences between Dicot:

1. Leaves show reticulate venation
2. Flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous

Two morphological differences between Monocot:

1. Leaves show parallel venation
2. Flowers are trimerous

Question 40.
Name the two divisions of spermatophyta?
Answer:
The two divisions are:

1. Gymnospermae and
2. Angiospermae

Question 41.
What are brood bodies?
Answer:
Brood bodies are the small detachable branches which help in vegetative propagation.
e.g., Bryopteris fruticulosa.

Question 42.
What are gemmae?
Answer:
Gemmae are small propagative structures which help in asexual reproduction.
e.g., Marchantia.

III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
What are cryptogam? Mention its division.
Answer:
Cryptogams are non – flowering or non – seed producing plants. It has been divided into Algae, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.

Question 2.
In which group of plants we can observe Haplodiplontic life cycle? Draw a diagram of Haplodiplontic life cycle.
Answer:
Bryophytes and Pteridophytes:

Question 3.
Name the 3 types of life cycles seen in plants?
Answer:
The 3 types of life cycles seen in plant:

1. Haplontic life cycle
2. Diplontic life cycle
3. Haplodiplontic life cycle

Question 4.
Where can we see cryophytic & halophytic algae? Give example.
Answer:
Cryophytic & Halophytic Algae:

• Cryophytic algae grow on snow. e.g., Chlamydomonas nivalis.
• Halophytic algae grow in salt pans, e.g., Dunaliella salina.

Question 5.
List out the various types of vegetative reproduction seen in algae.
Answer:
Fission, fragmentation, budding, bulbils, tubers.

Question 6.
List out the various asexual spores produced by algae.
Answer:
Zoospores, aplanospores, autospores, hypnospores, tetraspores and akinetes.

Question 7.
Write any three differences between chlorophyceae and phaeophyceae members?
Answer:

Question 8.
Define exoscopic embryogeny.
Answer:
In exoscopic embryogeny, the first division of the zygote is transverse & form inner and outer cell. The apex of the embryo develops from outer cell.

Question 9.
Name the three classes of Bryophytes, according to Proskauer.
Answer:
Three Classes of Bryophytes, According to Proskauer:

1. Hepaticopsida
2. Anthocerotopsida and
3. Bryopsida.

Question 10.
How peat is obtained? Write its economic value.
Answer:
A large amount of dead thallus of Sphagnum gets accumulated and compressed, hardened to form peat. It is used as fuel in commercial scale (Netherlands). Nitrates, brown dye and tanning materials are derived from peat. Sphagnum and peat are also used in horticulture as packing material because of their water holding capacity.

Question 11.
Mention any three Pteridophytes and their economic value.
Answer:
Economic Importance of Pteridophyte:
Pteridophyte:

• Marsilea
• Azolla
• Pteris vittata

Uses:

• Food
• Biofertilizer
• Removal of heavy metals from soils – Bioremediation

Question 12.
How the vascular plants dominate the Earth?
Answer:
The success and dominance of vascular plants is due to the development of,

1. Extensive root system.
2. Efficient conducting tissues.
3. Cuticle to prevent desiccation.
4. Stomata for effective gaseous exchange.

Question 13.
Name the three classes of gymnosperms.
Answer:
Three Classes of Gymnosperms:

1. Cycadospsida
2. Coniferopsida and
3. Gnetopsida.

Question 14.
Name any three economically important products & uses of the gymnosperm plants.
Answer:
Three economically important products & uses of the gymnosperm plants:

Question 15.
Compare the anatomical features between Dicots & Monocots.
Answer:

IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Explain in detail about the various life cycle patterns in plants.
Answer:
Life cycle patterns in plants: Alternation of Generation: Alternation of generation is common in all plants. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation. Following type of life cycles are found in plants:

(a) Haplontic life cycle: Gametophytic phase is dominant. photosynthetic and independent, whereas sporophytic phase is represented by the zygote. Zygote undergoes meiosis to restore haploid condition. Example: Volvox and Spimgyra.

(b) Diplontic life cycle: Sporophytic phase (2n) is dominant, photosynthetic and independent. The gametophytic phase is represented by the single to few celled gametophyte. The gametes fuse to form zygote which develops into sporophyte. e.g., Fucus, gymnosperms and angiosperms.

(c) Haplodiplontic life cycle: This type of life cycle is found in Bryophytes and pteridophytes which is intermediate between haplontic and diplontic type. Both the phases are multicellular, but they differ in their dominant phase.

In Bryophytes dominant independent phase is gametophyte and it alternates with short – lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophyte. In Pteridophytes sporophyte is the independent phase. It alternates with multicellular saprophytic or autotrophic, independent, short lived gametophyte (n).

Question 2.
Write a note on diversified thallus organisation seen in algae with examples.
Answer:
A wide range ofthallus organisation is found in algae. Unicellular motile (Chlamydomonas), unicellular non-motile (Chlorella), Colonial motile (Volvox), Colonial non-motile (Hydrodictyon), siphonous (Vaucheria), unbranched filamentous (Spirogyra), branched filamentous (Cladophora), discoid (Coleochaete) heterotrichous (Fritschiella), Foliaceous (Ulva) to Giant Kelps (Laminaria and Macrocystis).

Question 3.
Describe the various types of sexual reproduction observed in algae.
Answer:
Sexual reproduction in algae are of three type:

1. Isogamy: Fusion of morphologically and Physiologically similar gametes E.g. Ulothrix.
2. Anisogamy: Fusion of either morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes E.g. Pandorina
3. Oogamy: Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes. E.g. Sargassum.

The life cycle shows distinct alternation of generation.

Question 4.
Describe the salient features of Chlorophyceae members.
Answer:
The salient features of Chlorophyceae members:

1. Chlorophyceae commonly called as green algae.
2. Mostly aquatic (fresh water or marine), few terrestrial.
3. Shape of chloroplast differs. It may be cup shaped (Chlamydomonas) or girdle – shaped or reticulate, or stellate etc.
4. Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’ are photosynthetic pigments.
5. Pyrenoids store starch & also proteins.
6. Outer cell wall is made of pectin and inner is cellulose.
7. Vegetative reproduction is by fragmentation.
8. Asexual reproduction by zoospores, aplanospores and akinetes.
9. Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous. E.g. Chlamydomonas, Volvox and Spirogyra.

Question 5.
Describe the salient features of Phaeophyceae members.
Answer:
The salient features of Phaeophyceae members:

1. Phaeophyceae commonly called as Brown algae.
2. Majority are marine habitats. Pleurocladia is a fresh water form.
3. Thallus may be filamentous, frond – like or giant kelps.
4. Thallus is differentiated into photosynthetic part-frond, stalk – like structure – stipe and a holdfast for attachment.
5. Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘c’, carotenoids and Xanthophylls are photosynthetic pigments.
6. A golden brown fucoxanthin pigment gives olive green to brown colour.
7. Mannitol and Laminarin starch is the storage material.
8. Motile spores with unequal flagella (one whiplash and one tinsel) are present.
9. Oogamous is the major type of sexual reproduction. Isogamy is also seen.
10. Alternation of generation is seen. Example: Sargassum, Fucus, Laminaria and Dictyota.

Question 6.
Describe the salient features of Rhodophyceae.
Answer:
The salient features of Rhodophyceae:

1. Rhodophyceae commonly called as red algae.
2. Mostly marine habitats.
3. The thallus is multicellular, macroscopic, and may be filamentous, ribbon – like etc.
4. Chlorophyll ‘a’, r-phycoerythrin and r-phycocyanin are photosynthetic pigments.
5. Asexual reproduction is by means of monospores, neutral spores and tetraspores.
6. Floridean starch is the storage material
7. Sexual reproduction in oogamous.
8. Male sex organ is spermatangium producing spermatium.
9. Female sex organ is carpogonium.
10. Spermatium is carried by water and fuses with egg forming zygote.
11. Zygote undergoes meiosis forming carpospores.
12. Alternation of generation is seen. Example: Ceramium, Gelidium and Gigartina.

Question 7.
Tabulate the economic importance of algae.
Answer:
Economic importance of Algae:

Question 8.
Enumerate the general character of Bryophytes.
Answer:
The general character of Bryophytes:

1. Bryophytes are non – vascular cryptogams due to absence of xylem & phloem.
2. The plant body is a gametophyte and it is conspicuous, long – lived.
3. Plant body is undifferentiated into root, stem & leaves. Thalloid forms with rhizoids are seen in liverworts & hornworts. Leaf – like and stem – like structures are seen in mosses.
4. Vegetative reproduction is by adventitious buds, tubers, brood bodies or by gemmae.
5. Sexual reproduction is oogamous producing Antheridia & Archegonia in multicellular protective coverings.
6. Antheridia produces biflagellate antherozoids which swims in water & fuse with egg forming diploid zygote.
7. Water is essential for fertilization.
8. Zygote is the first cell of sporophyte. Zygote undergoes mitotics forming undifferentiated embryo, forming sporophyte. The embryogeny is exoscopic.
9. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte.
10. Sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta & capsule.
11. Capsule of Sporophyte produces haploid spores by meiosis.
12. Bryophtyes are homosporous which are dispersed by elaters.
13. Spores germinate producing haploid gametophyte.
14. Heterologous alternation of generation.
15. Proskauer classified bryophytes into 3 classes, Hepaticopsida(Riccia),Anthocerotopsida (Anthoceros) and Bryopsida (Funaria).

Question 9.
List out the general characters of Pteridophytes.
Answer:
General characteristic features of Pteridophytes:

1. Plant body is sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
2. Roots are adventitious.
3. Stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching.
4. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous.
5. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea)
6. Tracheids are the major water conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.
7. Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called sporophyll. The sporophylls gets organized to form cone or strobilus. e.g., Selaginella and Equisetum.
8. They may be homosporous (produce one type of spores – Lycopodium) or Heterosporous (produce two types of shorts – Selaginella). Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.
9. Development of sporangia may be eusporangiate (development of sporangium from group of initials) or leptosporangiate (development of sporangium from single initial).
10. Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (n).
11. Spore germinates to produce haploid, multicellular green, cordate shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus.
12. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction.
13. Sexual reproduction is Oogamous. Sex organs, namely antheridium and archegonium are produced on the prothallus.
14. Antheridium produces spirally coiled and multiflagellate antherozoids.
15. Archegonium is flask shaped with broad venter and elongated narrow neck. The venter possesses egg or ovum and neck contain neck canal cells.
16. Water is essential for fertilization. After fertilization a diploid zygote is formed and undergoes mitotic division to form embryo.
17. Pteridophytes show apogamy and apospory.

Question 10.
Write a note on economic importance of Pteridophytes.
Answer:
A note on economic importance of Pteridophytes:
Pteridophyte:

1. Rumohra adiantiformis (leather leaf fem)
2. Marsilea
3. Azolla
4. Dryopteris filix – mas
5. Pteris vittata
6. Pteridium sp.
7. Equisetum sp.
8. Psilotum, Lycopodium, Selaginella, Angiopteris, Marattia.

Uses:

1. Cut flower arrangements
2. Food
3. Biofertilizer
4. Treatment for tapeworm
5. Removal of heavy metals from soils – Bioremediation
6. Leaves yield green dye
7. Stems for scouring
8. Ornamental plants

Question 11.
What is protostele? Explain its types.
Answer:
In protostele xylem surrounds phloem. The type includes Haplostele, Actinostele, Plectostele and mixed protostele.

1. Haplostele: Xylem surrounded by phloem is known as haplostele. E.g. Selaginella.
2. Actinostele: Star shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele. E.g. Lycopodium serratum.
3. Plectostele: Xylem plates alternates with phloem plates. E.g. Lycopodium clavatum.
4. Mixed prototostele: Xylem groups uniformly scattered in the phloem. E.g. Lycopodium cernuum.

Question 12.
Define Siphonostele. Explain its types.
Answer:
In siphonostele xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre. It includes Ectophloic siphonostele, Amphiphloic siphonostele, Solenostele, Eustele, Atactostele and Polycylic stele.

1. Ectophloic siphonostele: The phloem is restricted only on the external side of the xylem. Pith is in centre. E.g. Osmunda.
2. Amphiphloic siphonostele: The phloem is present on both the sides of xylem. The pith is in the centre. E.g. Marsilea.
3. Solenostele: The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace.
   • Ectophloic solenostele – Pith is in the centre and the xylem is surrounded by phloem. E.g. Osmunda.
   • Amphiphloic solenostele – Pith is in the centre and the phloem is present on both sides of the xylem. E.g. Adiantum pedatum.
   • Dictyostele – The stele is separated into several vascular strands and each one is called meristele. E.g. Adiantum capillus – veneris.
4. Eustele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles around the pith. E.g. Dicot stem.
5. Atactostele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles and are scattered in the ground tissue. E.g. Monocot stem.
6. Polycyclic stele: The vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders. E.g. Pteridium.

Question 13.
Point out the general characters of Gymnosperms.
Answer:
General characteristic features:

1. Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen woody trees or shrubs. Some are lianas (Gnetum)
2. The plant body is sporophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
3. A well developed Tap root system is present. Coralloid Roots of Cycas have symbiotic association with blue green algae. In Pinus the roots have mycorrhizae.
4. The stem is aerial, erect and branched or unbranched (Cycas) with leaf scars.
5. In conifers two types of branches namely branches of limited growth (Dwarf shoot) and Branches of unlimited growth (Long shoot) is present.
6. Leaves are dimorphic, foliage and scale leaves are present. Foliage leaves are green, photosynthetic and borne on branches of limited growth. They show xerophytic features.
7. The xylem consists of tracheids but in Gnetum and Ephedra vessels are present.
8. Secondary growth is present. The wood may be Manoxylic (Porous, soft, more parenchyma with wide medullary ray – Cycas) or Pycnoxylic (compact with narrow medullary ray – Pinus).
9. They are Heterosporous. The plant may be monoecious (Pinus) or dioecious (Cycas).
10. Microsporangia and Megasporangia are produced on Microsporophyll and Megasporophyll respectively.
11. Male and female cones are produced.
12. Anemophilous pollination is present.
13. Fertilization is siphonogamous and pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nuclei.
14. Sporne (1965) classified gymnosperms into 3 classes, 9 orders and 31 families. The classes include
    • Cycadospsida
    • Coniferopsida
    • Gnetopsida.

Question 14.
List out the features common for both Gymnosperms & Angiosperms.
Answer:
Gymnosperms resemble with angiosperms in the following features:

1. Presence of well organised plant body which is differentiated into roots, stem and leaves
2. Polyembryony (presence of many embryo). The naked ovule develops into seed. The endosperm is haploid and develop before fertilization.
3. The life cycle shows alternation of generation. The sporophytic phase is dominant and gametophytic phase is highly reduced.
4. Presence of cambium in gymnosperms as in dicotyledons.
5. Flowers in Gnetum resemble to the angiosperm male flower. The Zygote represent the first cell of sporophyte.
6. Presence of integument around the ovule.
7. Both plant groups produce seeds
8. Pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nucleus in both.
9. Presence of Eustele.

Question 15.
Differentiate the characters of Gymnosperm & Angiosperm.
Answer:
Difference between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms:
Gymnosperms:

1. Vessels are absent [except Gnetales]
2. Phloem lacks companion cells
3. Ovules are naked
4. Wind pollination only
5. Double fertilization is absent
6. Endosperm is haploid
7. Fruit formation is absent
8. Flowers absent

Angiosperms:

1. Vessels are present
2. Companion cells are present
3. Ovules are enclosed within the ovary
4. Insects, wind, water, animals etc., act as pollinating agents
5. Double fertilization is present
6. Endosperm is triploid
7. Fruit formation is present
8. Flowers present

Question 16.
List out the economic importance of Gymnosperms.
Answer:
Economic importance of Gymnosperms:

Question 17.
List Out the salient’ features of Anglosperms.
Answer:
Salient features of Anglosperms:

1. Vascular tissue (Xylem and Phloem) is well developed.
2. Flowers are produced instead of cone.
3. The embryosac (Ovule) remains enclosed in the ovary.
4. Pollen tube helps in fertilization, so water is not essential for fertilization.
5. Double fertilization is present. The endosperm is triploid.
6. Angiosperms are broadly classified into two classes namely Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.

Question 18.
Distinguish between Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.
Answer:
Angiosperms:

V. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs)

Question 1.
State which were the first true land plants? Mention two Characteristics features of these plants.
Answer:
Pteridophytes are the first true land plants. Pteridophytes are the first plants to acquire vascular tissue. Heterosporous condition was developed from Pteridophytes.

Question 2.
Give a comparative account of the following:
(a) Marchantia and Marsilea
(b) Cycas and rose
Answer:
(a) Marchantia is a Bryophyte whereas Marsilea is a Pteridophyte.
(b) Cycas is a gymnospermic plant and rose is a angiospermic plant.

Question 3.
Why are angiosperms so called? In which structures do the seeds develop?
Answer:
Angiosperms are so called because these plants have covered seeds. Seed of angiosperms develop within the ovary which later modify into fruit.

Question 4.
Name the gymnosperms that are exception with regard – to vascular tissue.
Answer:
All the gymnosperms possess tracheids as conducting tissues whereas gymnosperms like Gnetum & Ephedra possess vessels as their conducting tissues.

Question 5.
Both gymnosperms & angiosperms are seed bearers. Yet they are classified separately. Why?
Answer:
Gymnosperms and angiosperms are classified separately because the seeds of the angiosperms are enclosed by ovary (fruit wall) whereas the gymnospermic seeds are naked (not covered by ovary).

Question 6.
Bryophytes maintain soil texture – comment.
Answer:
Bryophytes play a major role in soil formation through succession and help in soil conservation.

Question 7.
Why heterosporous condition is advanced?
Answer:
Heterospory refers to the development of two different types of spores. Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.

Question 8.
Associate the following features with groups in which they first appeared.
(a) Vascular tissues
(b) Seeds inside fruits
(c) Heterospore production
Answer:
(a) Vascular tissues – Pteridophytes
(b) Seeds inside fruits – Angiosperms
(c) Heterospory – Pteridophytes.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 3 Vegetative Morphology

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Vegetative Morphology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer
Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Bio Botany Question 1.
Which of the following k polycarpic plant?
(a) Mangifera
(b) Bambusa
(c) Musa
(d) Agave
Answer:
(a) Mangifera

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Botany Question 2.
Roots are …………… .
(a) descending. negatively geotrophic, positively phototrophic
(b) descending, positively geotrophic, negatively phototrophic
(c) ascending, positively geotrophic, negatively phototrophic
(d) ascending, negatively geotrophic, positively phototrophic
Answer:
(b) descending, positively geotrophic, negatively pholotrophic

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Botany Solutions Question 3.
Bryophyllum and Dioscorea are example for …………… .
(a) foliar bud, apical bud
(b) foliar bud, cauline bud
(c) cauline bud, apical bud
(d) cauline bud, foliar bud
Answer:
(b) foliar bud, cauline bud

Question 4.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) In Pisum sativum leaflets modified into tendrils
(b) In Atalantia terminal bud is modified into thorns
(c) In Nepenthes midrib is modified into lid
(d) In Smilax inflorescence axis is modified into tendrils
Answer:
(b) In Pisum sativum leaflets modified into tendrils

Question 5.
Select the mismatch pair.

Answer:
(d) Allamanda – (iv) Ternate phyllotaxy

Question 6.
Draw and label the parts of regions of root.
Answer:
The parts of regions of root:

Question 7.
Write the similarities and differences between
1. Avicennia and Trapa
2. Radical buds and foliar buds
3. Phylloclade and cladode
Answer:
1. Avicennia and Trapa
2. Radical buds and foliar buds
3. Phylloclade and cladode

Question 8.
How root climbers differ from stem climbers?
Answer:
Root climbers:

1. Plants climbing with the help of adventitious roots (arise from nodes)
2. Example: Piper betel

Stem climbers (twiners):

1. These climbers lack specialised structure for climbing and the stem itself coils around the support.
2. Example: Ipomoea

Question 9.
Compare sympodial branching with monopodial branching.
Answer:
Sympodial branching:
The terminal bud cease to grow after a period of growth and the further growth is taken care by successive or several lateral meristem or buds. This type of growth is also known as sympodial branching. Example: Cycas.

Monopodial branching:
The terminal bud grows uninterrupted and produce several lateral branches. This type of growth is also known as monopodial branching. Example: Polyalthia.

Question 10.
Compare pinnate unicostate venation and palmate multicostate venation.
Answer:
Pinnate Unicostate Venation and Palmate Multicostate Venation:

1. Pinnate unicostate venation: In pinnate unicostate there is only one prominent midrib.
2. Palmate multicostate venation: In palmate multicostate there are many midribs running parallel to each other.

Text Book Activities Solved

Question 1.
Collection of medicines prepared from root, stem, leaf of organic plants.
Answer:
Medicines Prepared From Root, Stem, Leaf Of Organic Plants:

Question 2.
Prepare a report of traditional medicines.
Answer:
Traditional medicines: Ayurvcda, Siddha, Unani, Acupuncture, Homeopathy, Naturopathy, Chinese or oriental medicine.

Question 3.
Growing micro greens In class room – project work. (Green seed sprouts)
Answer:
Definition: Micro green are miniature plants of greens, herbs or vegetables. They arc rich nutrient source and also added as flavouring agent in food. Growing micro greens in classroom:

• Step 1. Take a shallow tray.
• Step 2. Place a inch of organic potting soil in the bottom of tray.
• Step 3. Scatter the seeds (celery, lettuce, etc.) over the soil surface.
• Step 4. Sprinkle some water. Cover the seeds with a thin layer of soil.
• Step 5. Place the whole setup near the lighted window.
• Step 6. Within a day or two, seeds with germinate.
• Step 7. Maintain the moisture of soil. Greens can be harvested within 2 – 3 weeks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Vegetative Morphology Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
The study about external features of an organism is known as …………… .
(a) morphology
(b) anatomy
(c) physiology
(d) taxonomy
Answer:
(a) morphology

Question 2.
…………… deals with the study of shape. site and structure of plant parts.
(a) External morphology
(b) Internal morphology
(c) External anatomy
(d) Internal anatomy
Answer:
(a) External morphology

Question 3.
The branch of science that deals with the classification of organisms is called as …………… .
(a) taxonomy
(b) morphology
(c) physiology
(d) anatomy
Answer:
(a) taxonomy

Question 4.
…………… deals with the study about the root and shoot system.
(a) Vegetative morphology
(b) Reproductive morphology
(c) External morphology
(d) Internal morphology
Answer:
(a) Vegetative morphology

Question 5.
…………… deals with the study about flowers, fruits and seeds of a plant.
(a) Reproductive morphology
(b) Vegetative morphology
(c) External morphology
(d) Internal morphology
Answer:
(a) Reproductive morphology

Question 6.
The general form of a plant is referred to as …………… .
(a) habitat
(b) structure
(c) habit
(d) shape and size
Answer:
(c) habit

Question 7.
…………… are soft stemmed plants with less wood or no wood.
(a) Shrubs
(b) Trees
(c) Herbs
(d) Climbers
Answer:
(c) Herbs

Question 8.
Perennial herbs having a bulb, corm. rhizome or tuber as the underground stem are termed as …………… .
(a) thallophytes
(b) rhodophytes
(c) geophytes
(d) cyanophytes
Answer:
(c) geophytes

Question 9.
Climbers are also called as …………… .
(a) herbs
(b) trees
(c) vines
(d) shrubs
Answer:
(c) vines

Question 10.
…………… is a perennial, woody plant with several main stems arising from the ground level.
(a) Herb
(b) Runner
(c) Climber
(d) Shrub
Answer:
(d) Shrub

Question 11.
…………… is an example for vines.
(a) Hibiscus
(b) Phyllanthus
(c) Palmyra
(d) Ventilago
Answer:
(d) Ventilago

Question 12.
…………… grows on rocks.
(a) Mesophytes
(b) Lithophytes
(c) Xerophytes
(d) Psammophytcs
Answer:
(b) Lithophytes

Question 13.
The plants that grows on dry habitats are called …………… .
(a) meophytes
(b) xerophytes
(c) lithophytes
(d) psammophytes
Answer:
(b) xerophytes

Question 14.
Mesophytes grows on …………… .
(a) sand
(b) soils with sufficient water
(c) rocks
(d) dry habitats
Answer:
(b) soils with sufficient water

Question 15.
…………… grows on sand.
(a) Mesophytes
(b) Psammophytes
(c) Lithophytes
(d) Xerophytes
Answer:
(b) Psammophytes

Question 16.
Azadirachta indica is an example for …………… .
(a) psammophytes
(b) mesophytes
(c) lithophy es
(d) xerophytes
Answer:
(b) mesophytes

Question 17.
Ipomoea pes – caprae is an example for …………… .
(a) mesophyles
(b) psammophytes
(c) lithophytes
(d) serophytes
Answer:
(b) psammophytes

Question 18.
…………… is an example for xerophytes.
(a) Lichens
(b) Euphorbia
(c) Ficus
(d) Ipomoea
Answer:
(b) Euphorbia

Question 19.
Plants growing emergent in marshy saline habitat are called as …………… plants.
(a) free floating
(b) submerged
(c) emergent
(d) mangroves
Answer:
(d) mangroves

Question 20.
…………… type of aquatic plants with roots or stems are anchored to the substrate under water with aerial shoots growing above water.
(a) Submerged
(b) Free floating
(c) Emergent
(d) Mangroves
Answer:
(c) Emergent

Question 21.
Hydrilla and Vallisneria are the examples of …………… type of aquatic plants.
(a) emergent
(b) free floating
(c) submerged
(d) mangroves
Answer:
(c) submerged

Question 22.
Plants that grows completely under water are called as ……………. type of aquatic plants.
(a) emergent
(b) free floating
(c) submerged
(d) mangroves
Answer:
(c) submerged

Question 23.
Plants growing on the water surface are called as …………… type of aquatic plants.
(a) emergent
(b) submerged
(c) free floating
(d) mangroves
Answer:
(c) free floating

Question 24.
Therophyte is a plant that completes its life cycle in …………… growing season.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) several
Answer:
(a) one

Question 25.
A plant that grows vegetatively during the first season and undergoes flowering and fruiting during the second season is called as …………… .
(a) biennial
(b) therophyte
(c) perennial
(d) geophyte
Answer:
(a) biennial

Question 26.
Spinach, carrot and lettuce are the examples of …………… .
(a) biennial
(b) annual
(c) geophytes
(d) ephemerals
Answer:
(a) biennial

Question 27.
A plant that grows for many years that flowers and set fruits for several season during the life span is called as …………… .
(a) geophytes
(b) annual
(c) biennial
(d) ephemerals
Answer:
(a) geophytes

Question 28.
When perennial plants bear fruits every year they are called as …………… .
(a) polycarpic
(b) ephemerals
(c) annual
(d) therophyte
Answer:
(a) polycarpic

Question 29.
Talipot palm, Bamboo and Agave are examples of …………… .
(a) polycarpic geophytes
(b) therophytes
(c) monocarpic geophytes
(d) biennial
Answer:
(c) monocarpic geophytes

Question 30.
Watermelon is a / an …………… plant.
(a) biennial
(b) perennial
(c) geophytic
(d) ephemeral
Answer:
(d) ephemeral

Question 31.
…………… is an example for polycarpic perennial.
(a) Peas
(b) Fennel
(c) Agave
(d) Sapota
Answer:
(d) Sapota

Question 32.
Flowering plants are also called as …………… .
(a) sporophytes
(b) thallophytes
(c) magnoliophytes
(d) phaeophytes
Answer:
(c) magnoliophytes

Question 33.
The part of a plant that arises from radicle is …………… .
(a) stem
(b) root
(c) bud
(d) flower
Answer:
(b) root

Question 34.
Root cap is made up of …………… cells.
(a) parenchyma
(b) collenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma
(d) chlorenchyma
Answer:
(a) parenchyma

Question 35.
In …………… plant multiple root cap is seen.
(a) Pandanus
(b) Pistia
(c) Bougainvillea
(d) Pea
Answer:
(a) Pandanus

Question 36.
Root pockets are seen in …………… .
(a) Pandanus
(b) Pistia
(c) Bougainvillea
(d) Pea
Answer:
(b) Pistia

Question 37.
In …………… zone of the root, the cells get differentiated.
(a) Root hair zone
(b) Elongation zone
(c) Meristematic zone
(d) Maturation zone
Answer:
(d) Maturation zone

Question 38.
Roots developing from any part of the plant other than the radicle is called …………… root.
(a) fibrous
(b) adventitious
(c) tap
Answer:
(b) adventitious

Question 39.
Match the following topics with correct examples.

Answer:
(d) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii.

Question 40.
The cells of this region undergo active cell division …………… .
(a) root hair zone
(b) maturation zone
(c) elongation zone
(d) meristematic zone
Answer:
(d) meristematic zone

Question 41.
Tap root system develops from this part of embryo …………… .
(a) plumule
(b) coleoptile
(c) node
(d) radicle
Answer:
(d) radicle

Question 42.
Negatively geotropic roots are seen in plant like …………… .
(a) Beta vulgaris
(b) Hibiscus
(c) Rhizophora
(d) Euphorbia
Answer:
(c) Rhizophora

Question 43.
Respiratory roots are found in …………… .
(a) Sweet potato
(b) Bruguiera
(c) Mango
(d) Dahlia
Answer:
(b) Bruguiera

Question 44.
Beaded root are also called as …………… root.
(a) annulated
(b) moniliform
(c) tuberous
(d) fasciculated
Answer:
(b) moniliform

Question 45.
Match the following.

Answer:
(c) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i.

Question 46.
Match the following.

Answer:
(d) a – v, b – i, c – ii, d – iii, e – iv.

Question 47.
The roots that grows vertically downwards from the lateral branches into the soil is called as …………… roots
(a) brace
(b) climbing
(c) buttress
(d) prop
Answer:
(d) prop

Question 48.
…………… roots are thick roots growing obliquely from the basal nodes of their main stem.
(a) pillar
(b) stilt
(c) buttress
(d) prop
Answer:
(b) stilt

Question 49.
Clasping roots are also called as …………… .
(a) Pillar
(b) Stilt
(c) Clinging
(d) Buttress
Answer:
(c) Clinging

Question 50.
Match the following.

Answer:
(c) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii.

Question 51.
Which part of embryo develops into stem?
(a) Radicle
(b) Micropyle
(c) Ostia
(d) Plumule
Answer:
(d) Plumule

Question 52.
The point from which leaf arises is called as …………… .
(a) internode
(b) intranode
(c) node
(d) code
Answer:
(c) node

Question 53.
Which is not a character of stem?
(a) Exogenous branches
(b) Descending portion
(c) Nodes
(d) buds
Answer:
(b) Descending portion

Question 54.
Which is not a function of stem?
(a) Support
(b) transport of food
(c) Transport of water
(d) Absorption of water
Answer:
(d) Absorption of water

Question 55.
Which is the primary function of stem?
(a) Storage
(b) Perennation
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Water transport
Answer:
(d) Water transport

Question 56.
Collateral bud is a …………… bud.
(a) terminal
(b) lateral
(c) extra axillary
(d) accessory
Answer:
(d) accessory

Question 57.
Cauline buds arise from …………… .
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaf
(d) nodes
Answer:
(b) stem

Question 58.
Which of the following plant produces bulbils?
(a) Bryophyllum
(b) Begonia
(c) Allium proliferum
(d) Solanum americanum
Answer:
(c) Allium proliferum

Question 59.
…………… plants produce foliar buds.
(a) Allium
(b) Solanum
(c) Citrus
(d) Begonia
Answer:
(d) Begonia

Question 60.
Radical buds develop from …………… .
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaf
(d) plumule
Answer:
(a) root

Question 61.
In Polyalthia longifolia, the stem is …………… .
(a) decurrent
(b) caudex
(c) excurrent
(d) culm
Answer:
(c) excurrent

Question 62.
Which of the following is not a creeper?
(a) Cynodon
(b) Oxalis
(c) Indigofera
(d) Centella
Answer:
(c) Indigofera

Question 63.
Clockwise coiling climbers are called …………… .
(a) hexose
(b) dextrose
(c) ministrose
(d) sinistrose
Answer:
(b) dextrose

Question 64.
In Artabotrys, …………… is modified into hook.
(a) leaflets
(b) inflorescence axis
(c) petiole
(d) axillary buds
Answer:
(b) inflorescence axis

Question 65.
…………… are woody stem climbers.
(a) Lianas
(b) Tendrils
(c) Phylloclade
(d) Phyllode
Answer:
(a) Lianas

Question 66.
……………. is a characteristic adaptation of xerophytes.
(a) Hook
(b) Thorn
(c) Cladode
(d) Phylloclade
Answer:
(d) Phylloclade

Question 67.
Flattened cladode is present in …………… .
(a) Asparagus
(b) Atalantia
(c) Carissa
(d) Ruscus
Answer:
(d) Rusus

Question 68.
Musa is an example for …………… .
(a) climber
(b) runner
(c) stolon
(d) sucker
Answer:
(d) sucker

Question 69.
Eichhornia exhibit …………… type of stem modification.
(a) stolon
(b) offset
(c) runner
(d) sucker
Answer:
(b) offset

Question 70.
Underground stems are generally called as …………… .
(a) root caps
(b) root stocks
(c) root pockets
(d) root modification
Answer:
(b) root stocks

Question 71.
Which is not a character of root stock?
(a) Nodes
(b) Internodes
(c) Terminal bud
(d) Root cap
Answer:
(d) Root cap

Question 72.
Which is an example for compound tunicated bulb?
(a) Allium cepa
(b) Allium sativum
(c) Tulipa sps.
(d) Bulbophyllum
Answer:
(b) Allium sativum

Question 73.
…………… is a pseudobulb.
(a) Allium cepa
(b) Allium sativum
(c) Tulipa sps.
(d) Bulbophyllum
Answer:
(d) Bulbophyllum

Question 74.
…………… is a horizontally growing underground stem.
(a) Corm
(b) Rhizome
(c) Bulb
(d) Tuber
Answer:
(b) Rhizome

Question 75.
All the leaves of a plant together called as …………… .
(a) phyllome
(b) phyllode
(c) phylloclade
(d) Phyllanthus
Answer:
(a) phyllome

Question 76.
Which Is not a primary function of leaf?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Storage
(d) Gas exchange
Answer:
(c) Storage

Question 77.
Lamina of leaf is called as …………… .
(a) hypopodium
(b) mesopodium
(c) endopodiurn
(d) epipodium
Answer:
(d) epipodium

Question 78.
Swollen, broad leaf base Is called as …………… .
(a) phyttome
(b) pulvinus
(c) stipule
(d) bract
Answer:
(b) pulvinus

Question 79.
Pulvinus is a characteristic feature of …………… .
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Musaceae
(d) Solanaceae
Answer:
(b) Fabaceae

Question 80.
Stalk of leaf is called as …………… .
(a) pedicel
(b) pctiole
(c) phyllum
(d) perianth
Answer:
(b) petiote

Question 81.
Poaceac is seen in …………… family.
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Musaccac
(d) Sotanaccac
Answer:
(c) Musacese

Question 82.
Which of the following plant possess sessile leases?
(a) Hibiscus
(b) mangifera
(c) Psidiun
(d) Gloriosa
Answer:
(d) Gloriosa

Question 83.
Arrangement of veins on lamina is called …………… .
(a) venalion
(b) aesivation
(c) placentation
(d) phyllotaxy
Answer:
(a) venation

Question 84.
Parallel venatlon is the characteristic feature of …………… .
(a) angiospertns
(b) gymnosperms
(c) dicots
(d) monocots
Ans.
(d) monocots

Question 85.
In greek, ‘taxis’ means …………… .
(a) crowding
(b) spreading
(c) arrangement
(d) attachment
Answer:
(c) arrangement

Question 86.
Palmately parallel divergent venation is seen in …………… .
(a) Carica papaya
(b) Borassus flabellifer
(c) Zizyphus
(d) Cinnamomum
Answer:
(b) Borassus flabellifer

Question 87.
Spiral arrangement of leaves show vertical rows called …………… .
(a) decussate
(b) bifarious
(c) orthostichies
(d) distichous
Answer:
(c) orthostichies

Question 88.
Nerium exhibits …………… phyllotaxy.
(a) ternate
(b) whorled
(c) decussate
(d) alternate
Answer:
(a) ternate

Question 89.
In Allamanda, …………… phyllotaxy is seen.
(a) ternate
(b) verticillate
(c) alternate
(d) opposite
Answer:
(b) verticillate

Question 90.
The secondary rachii are called as …………… .
(a) stipel
(b) ligule
(c) petiole
(d) pinnae
Answer:
(d) pinnae

Question 91.
Tripinnate compound leaves are seen in …………… .
(a) Citrus
(b) Oxalis
(c) Oroxylum
(d) Allamanda
Answer:
(c) Oroxylum

Question 92.
In Gloriosa, …………… is modified into tendril.
(a) apical leaflet
(b) entire leaf
(c) leaf tip
(d) Petiole
Answer:
(c) leaf tip

Question 93.
In Euphorbia, …………… are modified into spines.
(a) stipels
(b) ligules
(c) stipules
(d) Petiole
Answer:
(c) stipules

Question 94.
Storage leaves are observed in …………… family.
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Cucurbitaceae
(c) Crassulaceae
(d) Musaceae
Answer:
(c) Crassulaceae

Question 95.
Phyllodes are the modification of …………… .
(a) pedicel
(b) pinnae
(c) petiole
(d) stipule
Answer:
(c) petiole

Question 96.
…………… is an example for pitcher.
(a) Sarracenia
(b) Acacia
(c) Parkinsonia
(d) Sedum
Answer:
(a) Sarracenia

Question 97.
Stamens are equivalent to …………… .
(a) megasporophyll
(b) microsporophyll
(c) microsporangium
(d) megasporangium
Answer:
(a) megasporophyll

Question 98.
Rolling or folding of individual leaves is called …………… .
(a) venation
(b) phyllotaxy
(c) ptyxis
(d) branching
Answer:
(c) ptyxis

Question 99.
In Mimusops, the leaves are …………… .
(a) fagacious
(b) evergreen
(c) deciduous
(d) marcescent
Answer:
(b) evergreen

Question 100.
Heterophylly is mainly seen in …………… .
(a) xerophytes
(b) mesophytes
(c) lithophytes
(d) hydrophytes
Answer:
(d) hydrophytes

Question 101.
Isobilateral leaf is seen in …………… .
(a) onion
(b) pine
(c) tridax
(d) grass
Answer:
(d) grass

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Define morphology.
Answer:
The study of various external features of the organism is known as morphology.

Question 2.
What is plant morphology?
Answer:
Plant morphology also known as external morphology deals with the study of shape, size and structure of plants and their parts like (roots, stems, leaves, flowers, fruits and seeds).

Question 3.
Differentiate between vegetative morphology & reproductive morphology.
Answer:
between vegetative morphology & reproductive morphology:

1. Vegetative morphology:  Vegetative morphology deals with the shoot system and root system.
2. Reproductive morphology:  Reproductive morphology deals with flowers, inflorescence, fruits & seals.

Question 4.
Define shrub. Give an example.
Answer:
A shrub is a perennial, woody plant with several main stems arising from the ground level. e.g.. Hibiscus

Question 5.
Classify plants based on habitat.
Answer:
Depending upon where plants grow habitats may be classified into major categories:

1. Terrestrial and
2. Aquatic.

Question 6.
Distinguish between terrestrial and aquatic plants.
Answer:
Between terrestrial and aquatic plants:

1. Terrestrial plants:  Plants growing on land are called terrestrial plants.
2. Aquatic plants: Plants living in water environment are called aquatic plants.

Question 7.
Classify the terrestrial plants based on their adaptation.
Answer:
Mcsophytes, serophytes, psammophytes and lithophytes.

Question 8.
What do you mean by caudex?
Answer:
If the trunk of a plant remains unbranched it is said to be caudex. e.g.. Palmyra and coconut.

Question 9.
What is a liana? Mention its importance.
Answer:
Liana is a vine that is perennial and woody. Lianas are major components in the tree canopy layer of some tropical forests. e.g. Ventilago.

Question 10.
What are therophytes?
Answer:
Therophyte is a plant that completes its life cycle in one growing season. e.g. Peas.

Question 11.
Name the two primary functions of roots.
Answer:
The two primary functions of roots:

1. Absorption of water and nutrients from soil.
2. Anchorage of plants in soil.

Question 12.
Where does the roots develop from?
Answer:
Root develops from the radicle which is the first structure that comes out when a seed is placed in the soil.

Question 13.
Give an example for
(a) Free floating plants
(b) Submerged plants
(c) Mangroves and
(d) Emergent plants?
Answer:
(a) Free floating plant – e.g Pistia.
(b) Submerged plant – e.g: Hydrilla
(c) Mangroves – e.g: Avicennia
(d) Emergent – e.g: Typha

Question 14.
What is root cap? Mention its role.
Answer:
Root tip is covered by a dome shaped parenchymatous cells called root Cap. It protects the meristematic cells in the apex.

Question 15.
Explain the nature of root based on tropism.
Answer:
Based on tropism. roots are positively geotropic and negatively phototropic.

Question 16.
What are adventitious roots?
Answer:
Roots developing from any part of the plant other than radicle is called adventitious roots.

Question 17.
Why do roots modify their structure? Name the types of root modification.
Answer:
Roots modify their structure to perform secondary functions. The two types of root modification are tap root modification and fibrous root modification.

Question 18.
Name the places from which adventitious roots arise.
Answer:
Adventitious roots may rise from base of stem, nodes or internodes.

Question 19.
What are prop roots? Give an example.
Answer:
Prop (Pillar) roots grow vertically downward from the lateral branches into the soil, e.g., Ficus benghalensis (banyan tree) and Indian rubber.

Question 20.
How velamen helps the Vanda plant?
Answer:
Velamen is a spongy tissue developed by epiphytic roots of Vanda. It helps in absorption of moisture from atmosphere.

Question 21.
Which type of adventitious roots are seen in Bryophyllum plants?
Answer:
Bryophyllum produces foliar roots which arise from the veins or lamina of leaf for the formation of new plants.

Question 22.
How Cuscuta survives?
Answer:
Cuscuta is a parasitic plant which produces haustorial roots from stem that penetrates into the tissue of host plant and suck nutrients. Thus Cuscuta survives.

Question 23.
“Roots perform photosynthesis” – Justify with example.
Answer:
Roots of some climbing or epiphytic plants develop chlorophyll and turn green which help in photosynthesis. These roots are called as photosynthetic roots. e.g.,Tinospora.

Question 24.
Which part of embryo gives rise to root and shoot?
Answer:
Radicle gives rise to root. Plumule gives rise to shoot.

Question 25.
Define node & internode.
Answer:
Node & Internode:

• Node: The point from which the leaf arises is called node.
• Internode: The region between two adjacent nodes is called intemode.

Question 26.
Explain stem based on tropism.
Answer:
Stem is positively phototropic & negatively geotropic.

Question 27.
Classify buds based on their origin & function.
Answer:
Buds based on their origin & functio:

1. Based on origin, buds are classified into (a) Terminal or Apical bud and (b) Lateral or Axillary or Axil bud.
2. Based on function, buds are classified into (a) Vegetative bud and (b) Floral or Reproductive bud.

Question 28.
What are adventitious buds? Give an example.
Answer:
Buds arising at any part other than stem are known as adventitious bud. e.g., Begonia.

Question 29.
Mention various types of stem seen in angiosperms.
Answer:
Majority of angiosperm possess upright, vertically growing erect stem. They are:

1. Excurrent
2. Decurrent
3. Caudex and
4. Culm.

Question 30.
Why do certain plants climb?
Answer:
Climbing helps to display the leaves towards sunlight and to position the flower for effective pollination.

Question 31.
What are creepers? Give example.
Answer:
Creepers are plants growing horizontally closer to the ground and produces roots at each node. e.g., Oxalis.

Question 32.
Distinguish between dextrose & sinistrose climbers.
Answer:
Between dextrose & sinistrose climbers:

1. Dextrose: Clockwise coiling climbers are called dextrose, e.g. Dioscorea alata.
2. Sinistrose: Anti – clockwise coiling climbers are called sinistrose. e.g. Dioscorea bulbifera.

Question 33.
What are root stocks? What are its function?
Answer:
Perennial and some biennial herbs have underground stems, which are generally known as root stocks.  Root stock functions as a storage and protective organ.

Question 34.
What is a bulb? Mention its types.
Answer:
Bulb is a condensed, conical or convex stem surrounded by fleshy scale leaves. There are two types:

1. Tunicated (coated) bulb and
2. Scaly bulb.

Question 35.
Define branching. Mention its types.
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of branches on a stem is known as branching. There are two main types of branching:

1. Lateral branching and
2. Dichotomous branching.

Question 36.
Define phyllome.
Answer:
All the leaves of a plant together are referred as phyllome.

Question 37.
List out any four primary functions of leaves.
Answer:
Photosynthesis, transpiration, gaseous exchange and protection of buds.

Question 38.
What is a leaf base?
Answer:
The part of the leaf attached to the node of the stem is called leaf base. It protects growing buds at its axil.

Question 39.
What is pulvinus?
Answer:
In legumes leaf base become broad, thick and swollen which is known as pulvinus. e.g., Clitoria.

Question 40.
Which leaf part acts a bridge between leaf & stem? Define.
Answer:
Petiole is the bridge between leaf and stem. Petiole or leaf stalk is a cylindrical or subcylindrical or flattened structure of a leaf which joins the lamina with the stem.

Question 41.
Mention the types of leaves based on petiole.
Answer:
A leaf with petiole is said to be petiolate. e.g. Hibiscus. Leaves that do not possess petiole is said to be sessile, e.g. Calotropis.

Question 42.
What are stipules? State its functions.
Answer:
Stipules are the two lateral appendages develop at the leaf base of dicot plants. Stipules protects the leaf in bud condition.

Question 43.
Define venation. Mention its types.
Answer:
The arrangement of veins and veinlets on the leaf blade or lamina is called venation. Venation is classified into two types:

1. Reticulate venation and
2. Parallel venation.

Question 44.
Define ligule.
Answer:
In some grasses (Monocots) an additional out growth is present between leaf base and lamina. It is called ligule.

Question 45.
What are stipulate & exstipulate leaves?
Answer:
Stipulate & Exstipulate Leaves:

1. Leaves with stipules are called stipulate leaves.
2. Leaves without stipules are called exstipulate or estipulate leaves.

Question 46.
Define phyllotaxy. Mention its types.
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of leaves on the stem is known as phyllotaxy.  There are 4 types of phyllotaxy:

1. Alternate
2. Opposite
3. Temate and
4. Whorled.

Question 47.
How phyllotaxy helps the plants?
Answer:
Phyllotaxy is to avoid over crowding of leaves and expose the leaves maximum to the sunlight for photosynthesis.

Question 48.
You are given a mango leaf. Which type does it belongs to? Define it.
Answer:
Mango leaf is a simple leaf. A simple leaf is the one, where the petiole bears a single lamina.

Question 49.
Define heterophylly. Which type of plants show this adaptation?
Answer:
Occurence of two different kinds of leaves in the same plants is called heterophylly. Heterophylly is an adaptation of aquatic plants.

Question 50.
When a leaf is said to be centric?
Answer:
When the leaf is more or less cylindrical and directed upwards or downwards, as in pine and onion, etc., the leaf is said to be centric.

Question 51.
Which type of leaf is common among monocots? Define it.
Answer:
When the leaf is directed vertically upwards, as in many monocotyledons, it is said to be ‘ isobilateral leaf. Example: Grass.

Question 52.
Define ptyxis.
Answer:
Rolling or folding of individual leaves is called as ptyxis.

Question 53.
Classify plants based on habit.
Answer:
Based on habit plants are classified into herbs, shrubs, climbers (vines) and trees.

Question 54.
Musa is a monocarpic perennial. Give possible reason.
Answer:
Musa is a monocarpic perennial, since it produces flowers and fruits only once and die after a vegetative growth of several years.

Question 55.
What are the parts that constitute the typical leaf?
Answer:
There are three main parts in a typical leaf:

1. Leaf base (Hypopodium)
2. Petiole (Mesopodium) and
3. Lamina (Epipodium).

Question 56.
What is a pseudobulb?
Answer:
Pseudobulb is a short erect aerial storage or propagating stem of certain epiphytic and terrestrial sympodial orchids, e.g. Bulbophyllum.

Question 57.
Which factor determines the branching patterns?
Answer:
Branching pattern is determined by the relative activity of apical meristem.

Question 58.
Mention the secondary functions of leaf with an example for each.
Answer:
Functions:

1. Storage
2. Protection
3. Support
4. Reproduction

Examples:

1. Aloe
2. Opuntia
3. Nepenthes
4. Bryophyllum

Question 59.
List out the families that possess sheathing leafbase.
Answer:
Arecaceae, Musaceae, Zingiberaceae and Poaceae.

Question 60.
What are stipels?
Answer:
Sometimes, small stipule like outgrowths are found at the base of leaflets of a compound leaf. They are called stipels.

Question 61.
Compare the stem nature of Corm and Rhizome
Answer:
Corm:

1. Stem is succulent underground
2. Presence of erect growing tips.

Rhizome:

1. Stem is horizontal underground
2. Presence of lateral growing tips.

III. Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Morphological study is important in Taxonomy. Why?
Answer:
Morphological features are important in determining productivity of crops. Morphological characters indicate the specific habitats of living as well as the fossil plants and help to correlate the distribution in space and time of fossil plants. Morphological features are also significant for phylogeny.

Question 2.
Differentiate between polycarpic and monocarpic perennial.
Answer:
Polycarpic perennial:

1. When they bear fruits every year, they are called polycarpic.
2. e.g. mango, sapota, etc.

Monocarpic perennial:

1. Some plants produce flowers and fruits only once and die after a vegetative growth of several years. These plants are called monocarpic.
2. e.g. Bamboo, Agave, Musa, Talipot palm.

Question 3.
List down the key difference between roots and shoots.
Answer:
Roots:

1. Positively geotropic
2. Negatively phototropic
3. Non – green in colour
4. Nodes, intemodes and buds are absent

Shoots:

1. Negatively geotropic
2. Positively phototropic
3. Green in colour
4. Nodes, intemodes and buds are present

Question 4.
Name the three distinct zones of root.
Answer:
The three distinct zones of root:

1. Meristematic Zone
2. Zone of Elongation
3. Zone of Maturation

Question 5.
Draw a simplified diagram showing the various regions of root.
Answer:
The various regions of root:

Question 6.
Give a brief account on tap root system.
Answer:
Primary root is the direct prolongation of the radicle. When the primary root persists and continues to grow as in dicotyledons, it forms the main root of the plant and is called the tap root. Tap root produces lateral roots that further branches into finer roots. Lateral roots along with its branches together called as secondary roots.

Question 7.
How does the fibrous root system develops?
Answer:
Most of the monocots the primary root of the seedling is short lived and lateral roots arise from various regions of the plant body. These are bunch of thread – like roots equal in size which are collectively called fibrous root system generally found in grasses. Example: Oryza sativa.

Question 8.
Briefly explain the development process of leaf primordium.
Answer:
The plumule of the embryo of a germinating seed grows into stem. The epicotyl elongates after embryo growth into the axis (the stem) that bears leaves from its tip, which contain the actively dividing cells of the shoot called apical meristem. Further cell divisions and growth result in the formation of mass of tissue called a leaf primordium.

Question 9.
Name the three types of Adventitious buds.
Answer:
The three types of Adventitious buds:

1. Radical buds
2. Foliar buds
3. Cauline buds

Question 10.
Write a brief note on Bulbils.
Answer:
Bulbils (or specialized buds): Bulbils are modified and enlarged bud, meant for propagation. When bulbils detach from parent plant and fall on the ground, they germinate into new plants and serve as a means of vegetative propagation, e.g., Agave.

Question 11.
Distinguish between root climbers and stem climbers.
Answer:
Root climbers:

1. Plants climbing with the help of adventitious roots (arise from nodes).
2. e.g. Piper betel, Piper nigrum, Hedera helix, Pothos, Hoya.

Stem climbers:

1. These climbers lack specialised structure for climbing and the stem itself coils around the support.
2. e.g. Ipomoea, Convolvulus, Dolichos, Clitoria, Quisqualis.

Question 12.
Explain the three different types of trailers with an example.
Answer:
Types of Trailers:

1. Prostrate (Procumbent): A stem that grows flat on the ground, e.g. Evolvulus alsinoides, Indigofera prostrata.
2. Decumbent: A stem that grows flat but becomes erect during reproductive stage. e.g., Portulaca, Tridax, Lindenbergia.
3. Diffuse: A trailing stem with spreading branches, e.g. Boerhaavia diffusa, Merremia tridentata.

Question 13.
Cladode is a stem modification. Comment on it.
Answer:
Cladode is a flattened or cylindrical stem similar to Phylloclade but with one or two inteENodes only. Their stem nature is evident by the fact that they bear buds, scales and flowers. e.g. Asparagus (cylindrical cladode), Ruscus (flattened Cladode).

Question 14.
Comment on Corm with an example.
Answer:
Corm is a succulent underground stem with an erect growing tip. The corm is surrounded by scale leaves and exhibit nodes and intemodes. e.g., Amorphophallus, Gladiolus, Colacasia, Crocus, Colchicum.

Question 15.
Differentiate between monopodial and sympodial branching.
Answer:
Monopodial branching:

1. The terminal bud grows uninterrupted and produce several lateral branches. This type of growth is also known as monopodial branching.
2. e.g. Polyalthia, Swietenia, Antiaris.

Sympodial branching:

1. The terminal bud caese to grow after a period of growth and the further growth is taken care by successive or several lateral meristem or buds. This type of growth is also known as sympodial branching.
2. e.g. Cycas.

Question 16.
Draw and label the parts of a leaf.
Answer:
The parts of a leaf:

Question 17.
Describe the pattern of leaf arrangement in mosaic leaf.
Answer:
In mosaic leaf, leaves tend to fit in with one another and adjust themselves in such a way that they may secure the maximum amount of sunlight with minimum amount of overlapping. The lower leaves have longer petioles and successive upper leaves possess decreasing length petioles, e.g., Acalypha, Begonia.

Question 18.
How the leaf hooks helps the Bignonia plant?
Answer:
In cat’s nail (Bignonia unguiscati) an elegant climber, the terminal leaflets become modified into three, very sharp, stiff and curved hooks, very much like the nails of a cat. These hooks cling to the bark of a tree and act as organs of support for climbing.

Question 19.
Which types of plants develop tendril? How does it helps the plant?
Answer:
In some plants Stem is very weak and hence they have some special organs for attachment to the support. So some leaves are partially or wholly modified into tendril. Tendril is a slender wiry coiled structure which helps in climbing the support.

Question 20.
Rosa species plants are not eaten by herbivores. Why?
Answer:
Rosa species plants develop Prickles. Prickles are small, sharp structure which are the outgrowths from epidermal cells of stem or leaf. It helps the plant in scrambling over other plants. It is also protective against herbivory.

Question 21.
Certain plants like Aloe and Agave can survive in extreme dry conditions. How ?
Answer:
Aloe and Agave are Xerophytes. They develop fleshy and swollen leaves. These succulent leaves store water, mucilage and food. They also resist desiccation.

Question 22.
Write a brief note on Phyllode.
Answer:
Phyllodes are flat, green – coloured leaf – like modifications of petioles or rachis. The leaflets or lamina of the leaf are highly reduced or caducous. The phyllodes perform photosynthesis and other functions of leaf.
Example: Acacia auriculiformis (Australian acacia), Parkinsonia.

Question 23.
Briefly describe the leaf modification in Nepenthes.
Answer:
The leaf becomes modified into a pitcher in Nepenthes. In Nepenthes the basal part of the leaf is laminar and the midrib continues as a coiled tendrillar structure. The apical part of the leaf as modified into a pitcher the mouth of the pitcher is closed by a lid which is the modification of leaf apex.

Question 24.
How the leaves of Utricularia helps in its nourishment?
Answer:
In bladderwort (Utricularia), a rootless free – floating, aquatic plant the leaf is very much segmented. Some of these segments are modified to form bladder – like structures, with a trap – door entrance that traps aquatic animalcules.

Question 25.
What do you understand by the term developmental heterophylly.
Answer:
In plants like Ficus heterophylla leaves vary from entire to variously lobed structures during different developmental stages. Young leaves are usually lobed or dissected and the mature leaves are entire. Such type is known as developmental heterophylly.

Question 26.
List out few secondary functions of stem.
Answer:
Foods storage, perennation, water storage, photosynthesis, buoyancy, protection and support.

Question 27.
Make a tabular column showing types of terrestrial plants and their environmental adaptation with examples.
Answer:
Types of terrestrial plants and their environmental adaptation with examples:

IV. Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Make a list of aquatic plants and their environmental adaptation with an example.
Answer:
Aquatic plants and their environmental adaptation with an example:

Question 2.
Compare the location, cellular types and the functions of different zones of root.
Answer:
The location, cellular types and the functions of different zones of root:

Question 3.
Draw a flow chart depicting the various types of root modification.
Answer:
The various types of root modification:

Question 4.
Describe the tap root modification for storage purpose with diagram.
Answer:
Tap root modification – Storage roots

1. Conical Root – These are cone like, broad at the base and gradually tapering towards the apex. e.g. Daucus carota.
2. Fusiform root – These roots are swollen in the middle and tapering towards both ends. e.g. Raphanus sativus
3. Napiform root – It is very broad and suddenly tapers like a tail at the apex. e.g. Beta vulgaris
   

Question 5.
Define bud. Explain the types of buds based on location.
Answer:
Buds are the growing points surrounded by protective scale leaves:

1. Terminal bud or Apical bud: These buds are present at the apex of the main stem and at the tips of the branches.
2. Lateral bud or Axillary bud: These buds occur in the axil of the leaves and develop into a branch or flower.
3. Extra axillary bud: These buds are formed at nodes but outside the axil of the leaf as in Solanum americanum.
4. Accessory bud: An extra bud on either side (collateral bud) or above (superposed bud or serial bud) the axillary bud. e.g: Citrus and Duranta.

Question 6.
Draw a flow chart illustrating stem modifications.
Answer:
A flow chart illustrating stem modifications:

Question 7.
List out the characteristics of leaf.
Answer:
The characteristics of leaf:

• Leaf is a lateral appendage of the stem.
• It is borne at the node of the stem.
• It is exogenous in origin.
• It has limited growth.
• It does not possess apical bud.
• It has three main parts namely, leaf base, petiole and lamina.
• Lamina of the leaf is traversed by vascular strands, called veins.

Question 8.
Define phyllotaxy. Explain its types
Answer:
The mode of arrangement of leaves on the stem is known as phyllotaxy (Greek. Phyllon = leaf; taxis = arrangement). Phyllotaxy is to avoid over crowding of leaves and expose the leaves maximum to the sunlight for photosynthesis. The four main types of phyllotaxy are:

1. Alternate
2. Opposite
3. Temate and
4. Whorled.

1. Alternate phyllotaxy: In this type there is only one leaf per node and the leaves on the successive nodes are arranged alternate to each other. Spiral arrangement of leaves show vertical rows are called orthostichies. They are two types:

• Alternate spiral: In which the leaves are arranged alternatively in a spiral manner. e.g. Hibiscus and Ficus.
• Alternate distichous or Bifarious: In which the leaves are organized alternatively in two rows on either side of the stem, e.g. Monoon longifolium (Polyalthia longifolia).

2. Opposite phyllotaxy: In this type each node possess two leaves opposite to each other. They are organized in two different types:

1. Opposite superposed: The pair of leaves arranged in succession are in the same direction, that is two opposite leaves at a node lie exactly above those at the lower node. e.g. Psidium (Guava), Eugenia jambolana (Jamun) and Quisqualis (Rangoon creeper).
2. Opposite decussate: In this type of phyllotaxy one pair of leaves is placed at right angles to the next upper or lower pair of leaves, e.g., Calotropis, Zinnia and Ocimum

3. Ternate phyllotaxy: In this type there are three leaves attached at each node. e.g. Nerium.

4. Whorled (verticillate) type of phyllotaxy: In this type more than three leaves are present in a whorl at each node forming a circle or whorl, e.g. Allamanda and Alstonia scholaris.

Question 9.
Define ptyxis & explain its types.
Answer:
Rolling or folding of individual leaves is called ptyxis. There are seven types of ptyxis as follows:

1. Reclinate – When the upper half of the leaf blade is bent upon the lower half as in loquat (Eriobotrya japonica).
2. Conduplicate – When the leaf is folded lengthwise along the mid – rib, as in guava, sweet potato and camel’s foot tree (Bauhinia).
3. Plicate or Plaited – When the leaf is repeatedly folded longitudinally along ribs in a zig – zag manner, as in Borassus flabellifer.
4. Circinate – When the leaf is rolled from the apex towards the base like the tail of a dog, as in ferns.
5. Convolute – When the leaf is rolled from one margin to the other, as in banana, aroids and Indian pennywort. Musa and members of Araceae.
6. Involute – When the two margins are rolled on the upper surface of the leaf towards the mid – rib or the centre of the leaf, as in water lily, lotus, Sandwich Island Climber (Antigonon) and Plumbago.
7. Crumpled – When the leaf is irregularly folded as in cabbage.

Question 10.
How the duration of leaf is determined? Classify leaves according to duration.
Answer:
Leaves may stay and function for few days to many years, largely determined by the adaptations to climatic conditions.

• Cauducuous (Fagacious): Falling off soon after formation, e.g., Opuntia and Cissus quadrangularis.
• Deciduous: Falling at the end of growing season so that the plant (tree or shrub) is leafless in winter / summer season, e.g., Maple, Plumeria, Launea and Erythrina.
• Evergreen: Leaves persist throughout the year, falling regularly so that tree is never leafless. e.g., Mimusops and Calophyllum.
• Marcescent: Leaves not falling but withering on the plant as in several members of Fagaceae.

V. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs)

Question 1.
Roots are non – green coloured. Is there is any green coloured root? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, roots of certain epiphytic & climbing plants develop chlorophyll and turn green to perform the function of photosynthesis. Such a root is called photosynthetic root or assimilatory root. E.g., Tinospora.

Question 2.
Which part of ginger and onion are edible?
Answer:
The edible part of onion is stem covered by fleshy leaves (bulb). The edible part of ginger is underground stem (rhizome).

Question 3.
Name the body parts of the following plants which is modified for food storage.
Answer:
Plant:

1. Carrot
2. Colocasia
3. Aloe

Modified part for food storage:

1. Root
2. Stem
3. Leaves

Question 4.
Give two examples for angiospermic plants producing adventitious roots.
Answer:
Two examples for angiospermic plants producing adventitious roots:

1. Buttress root of Bombax.
2. Prop (Pillar) root of Ficus benghalensis.

Question 5.
Rhizome of ginger is like roots of other plants grown underground. Despite this fact ginger is a stem not a root – Justify.
Answer:
Rhizome of ginger is a underground stem not a root because, it possess nodes, internodes, scale leaves & buds, which are the characteristics of stem.

Question 6.
Vanda is an epiphyte. Epiphytes are the plants growing on branches of trees. They do not have direct contact with soil. How they obtain water for its photosynthetic activity?
Answer:
Epiphytic plants like Vanda develop special type of roots containing sponge – like tissue called velamen. These spongy tissue helps in absorbing the atmospheric moisture and utilize it for their photosynthetic activity.

Question 7.
How does a pneumatopore work?
Answer:
Pneumatopores are the special above-ground roots growing above the surface of water seen in plants growing in water logged soils. These pneumatopores has small pores that facilitate the intake of oxygen by roots.

Question 8.
Carnivorous plants like Nepenthes have nutritional adaptations. Which part of Nepenthes plant is modified to solve this problem?
Answer:
The apical part of the leaf is modified into pitcher and the leaf tip is modified into lid of pitcher.

Question 9.
Why do we use the term ‘monocarpic perennial’ for Musa?
Answer:
Musa is a monocarpic perennial because it grows for several years but produces flowers and fruits once in its life time.

Question 10.
Mention any two morphological characters to differentiate monocots from dicots.
Answer:
Two morphological characters to differentiate monocots from dicots:

1. Monocots have fibrous roots and dicots have tap root system.
2. Monocot leaves show parallel venation, whereas dicot leaves show reticulate venation.

Question 11.
Why potato tuber is considered as a stem? Although it is an underground plant part.
Answer:
Though potato tuber is found underground, it is a stem since it possess axillary buds & scale leaves.

Question 12.
Fibrous roots are adventitious in origin – Explain.
Answer:
Adventitious roots are those arising from plant parts other than radicle. Fibrous roots are seen in monocots. In monocots, the primary root arising from radicle is short – lived & soon replaced by the lateral roots arising in bunches from the base of stem. Thus fibrous roots are adventitious in origin.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 1 Multimedia and Desktop Publishing

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

12th Computer Application Chapter 1 Question 1.
………………………… refers to any type of application that involves more than one type of media such as text, graphics video animation and sound
(a) an executable file
(b) desktop publishing
(c) multimedia
(d) hypertext
Answer:
(c) multimedia

12th Computer Application 1st Lesson Answer Key Question 2.
One of the disadvantages of the multimedia is its …………………………….
(a) cost
(b) adaptability
(c) usability
(d) relativity
Answer:
(a) cost

Computer Application Chapter 1 Question 3.
Expand JPEG
(a) joint photo experts gross
(b) joint photographic experts group
(c) joint processor experts group
(d) joint photographic expression group
Answer:
(b) joint photographic experts group

Multimedia And Desktop Publishing Question 4.
You need hardware, software and …………………….. to make multimedia.
(a) network
(b) compact disk drive
(c) good idea
(d) programming knowledge
Answer:
(b) compact disk drive

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Application Question 5.
Match the following by choosing the right one.
(i) Text – 1.TGA
(ii) Image – 2. MIDI
(iii) Sound – 3. MPEG
(iv) Video – 4. RTF
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
Answer:
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Computer Application Question 6.
Find the odd one on the following which is not an image format
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) RTF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(c) RTF

Samacheer Kalvi 12 Computer Application Question 7.
………………………….. is the process displaying still images they give continuous movement
(a) Text formats
(b) Sound
(c) MP3
(d) Animation
Answer:
(d) Animation

12th Computer Application Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
The live telecasting of real time program through Internet is known as ……………………………..
(a) web casting
(b) web hosting
(c) data manipulation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) web casting

Question 9.
GIF use ………………………. color look up table
(a) 8 bit
(b) 8 KB
(c) 8 MB
(d) 8 GB
Answer:
(a) 8 bit

Question 10.
RTF file format was introduced by ……………………………
(a) TCS
(b) Microsoft
(c) Apple
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

PART – II
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Multimedia and their features?
Answer:
The word multimedia consists of two words “multi” and “media” which means that multiple forms of media are combined to gather and provide services like storage, communication, presentation and Input/output interactions of text, video, image, graphics and audio.
Features of Multimedia:

1. The information they handle is represented digitally.
2. Multimedia Systems are integrated, computer controlled and usually interactive.

Question 2.
List out Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.

Question 3.
Classify the TEXT component in multimedia?
Answer:
Text is classified as static text and hypertext. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

Question 4.
Classify the IMAGE component in multimedia?
Answer:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the Image components are classified in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images:
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

Vector Images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Question 5.
Define Animation and their features?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.
Features:

1. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation.
2. The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second.

Question 6.
List out image file formats?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics).

Question 7.
List out audio file formats?
Answer:
WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format).

Question 8.
List out video file formats?
Answer:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave) and MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 9.
Define Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Question 10.
List out Multimedia Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager, Content Specialist, Script Writer, Text Editor, Multimedia Architect, Computer Graphic Artist, Audio and Video Specialist, Computer Programmer, Web Master.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain about Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.
Text:
Text is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person.

Image:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images.

Sound:
Sound is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

Video:
Video is defined as the display of recorded event, scene.

Animation:
Animation is the process of displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.

Question 2.
Describe the features and techniques of animation?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation. Using numerical transformations the movement of that image along its paths is calculated for their defining coordinates.

The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second. Animations may be in two or three dimensional. The two dimensional animation, bring an image alive, that occur on the flat X and Y axis of the screen, while in three dimensional animation it occurs along the three axis X, Y and Z. Animation tools are very powerful and effective. The two basic types of animations are Path animation and Frame animation.

Question 3.
Write roles and responsibilities of Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content.

Script Writer:
The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page.

Question 4.
Describe the various file formats in multimedia?
Answer:
Text Formats: RTF, Plain text, Image Formats:TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Jbint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics), Digital Audio File Formats: WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format), Digital Video File Formats: AVI (Audio/Video Interleave), MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 5.
Explain animation industry and their scope?
Answer:
1. The Indian Animation Industry encompasses traditional 2D animations, 3D animation <& visual effects for films.

2. An animation Studio is a company producing animated media. Many of these studios help with the fulfillment of animation works for big brand names and have carried out outsourced projects including Nemo.

3. The first Indian animated TV series was Ghayab Aya in the year 1986. The first Indian animated film was The Banyan Deer in 1957.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain in detail Process of Multimedia ?
Steps in Multimedia Production
Answer:
Adequate time and efficient planning is required for multimedia production, which assures that the project will be proceed smoothly and certainly ensures that the information reaches the target audience. Following are the phases for development of complex multimedia projects. Multimedia and Desktop Publishing.

Conceptual Analysis and Planning:
The process of multimedia making begins with a conceptual ignition point. Conceptual analysis identifies a appropriate theme, budget and content availability on that selected theme. Additional criteria like copyright issues also are considered in this phase.

Project design:
Once the theme is finalized objectives, goals, and activities are drawn for the multimedia project. General statements are termed as goals. The specific statements in the project is known as the objectives. Activities are series of actions performed to implement an objective. These activities contribute to the Project design phase.

Pre-production:
Based on the planning and design, it is necessary to develop the project.
The following are the steps involved in pre-production:

Budgeting:
Budgeting for each phases like consultants, hardware, software, travel, communication and publishing is estimated for all the multimedia projects.

Multimedia Production Team:
The production team for a high-end multimedia project requires a team efforts. The team comprises of members playing various roles and responsibilities like Script writer, Production manager, Editor, Graphics Architect, Multimedia Architect and Web Master.

Hardware/Software Selection:
All multimedia Application requires appropriate tools to develop and playback the application. Hardware includes the selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing the records. Selection of the suitable software and file formats depends on the funds available for the project being developed.

Defining the Content:
Content is the “stuff’ provided by content specialist to the multimedia architect with which the application is developed, who prepares the narration, bullets, charts and tables etc.

Preparing the structure:
A detailed structure must have information about all the steps ‘along with the time line of the future action. This structure defines the activities, responsible person for each activity and the start/end time for each activity.

Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Testing:
The complete testing of the pilot product is done before the mass production to ensure that everything is in place, thereby avoiding the failure after launch. If it’s an web . based product its functioning is tested with different browsers like Internet Explorer, Chrome, Mozilla and Netscape Navigator. If it is a locak multimedia application on a LAN it must be deployed in the server for testing purpose. After the testing process are over, the product is incorporated with valid suggested changes.

Documentation User documentation is a mandatory feature of all multimedia projects. The documentation has all the valuable information’s starting from the system requirement till the completion of testing. Contact details, e-mail address and phone numbers are provided for technical support and sending suggestions and comments.

Delivering the Multimedia Product:
Multimedia applications are best delivered on CD/DVD or in the website . In reality various challenges are faced while delivering through internet, like bandwidth problems, huge number of plug-ins required to play audio and video and long downloading time. Finally, a multimedia application is delivered in a more effective way by the integration of two mediums CD-ROM/DVD and Internet.

Question 2.
Explain in detail Techniques of Animation?
Answer:
The various animation techniques are
(i) Traditional Animation:
Traditional animation involved animators drawing by hand for each and every frame. It is creating the drawings one by one on the frame. Eg. Snow White and the Seven Dwarf Movie

(ii) Computer animation – 2D, 3D:

1. The famous mickey mouse was created using the 2D animation technique.
2. The first 2D animation was called Fantasmagorie. It is a short cartoon made by Emile Cohl. It is entirely in black and white

(iii) Digital 2D animation:

1. Creating animations in the 2 dimensional space with the help of digital technologies is called digital 2D animation.
2. Create 100s of drawing and animate them to show same kind of movement in technically called digital 2d animations.

(iv) Digital 3D animation:
3D animation models are highly realistic. They are used to create Short Films, TV Commercials.

(v) Stop-motion animation:
Using frame by frame animation, physical static objects are moved around. Eg. Movie “The Teddy Bears”.

(vi) Mechanical Animations:
Instead of robotics, machines can be animated by using the mechanical animation techniques. It helps the animator to understand how the machine works.

(vii) Chuckimation:
Chuckimation is one of the popular animation techniques created by “Action League Now!” creators. It is the combination of stop frame animation and live shots, where characters are dropped into a particular frame.

(Viii) Clay animation (or) claymation:
Pieces of clay are moulded to create characters and based on the imagination of the animator, a story is unfolded. There are oil based and water based clays available.

(ix) Typography Animation:
Typography is nothing but font faces and letters and combination of text in motion.
Eg. Titles part of movie “The Atlantic”

(x) Sand Animation:
A lit glass table is used as a canvas and the animator creates animation by moving the sand in certain directions.

(xi) ZoetrOpe Animation:
Some still images are drawn on a drum and when turned in a circular way, we will get an illusion of movement.

Question 3.
Explore the opportunities in Animation filed movie industry?
Answer:
In India, the VFX domain, or the animation and visual effects industry has been growing stronger and stronger in recent years.

1. Animation and visual effects requirement for massive international projects such as HBO’s top TV series and Marvels’ hit Infinity War and Black Panther was outsourced to Indian companies in Mumbai and Pune.
2. This led to the significant increase in the number of students enrolling for a VFX course.
3. As such, a student that completes a 3D animation course cap hope to build a rewarding and satisfying career in the Media and Entertainment field these days.
4. The timeless classics Tom and Jerry and Mickey Mouse created a milestone but the legacy is not disappointing.
5. Indian animation has risen from an amateur piece of craft like “The Banyan Deer” to the million rupees project “Chhota Bheem”
6. POGO, the leading cartoon channel in India is the most successful entertainment channel for kids.
7. Indian animation industry is anticipated to grow faster than the IT industry.
8. The industry has grown to a multibillion net work standard.
9. As a result of the growing demand in industry, the scope of animation course in tremendous.
10. The number of VFX artists and animators that worked on Baahubali was around 750.
11. Ex. For Top animates Movies: Spider-Man, Incredibles 2, Zootopia, Inside Out, Toy Story 3, Finding Nemo, Frozen, etc.

Question 4.
Explain in detail about production team Roles and Responsibilities?
Answer:
Multimedia Production Team:
Managing team members in a way to get maximum outcome with high degree of efficiency is mandatory in multimedia production. The fine quality high-end multimedia production application requires a specialize team comprises of the following members:

Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality. The production manager should be an expertise in the technology expert, good at proposal writing, good communication skills and budget management skills. Also must have experience in human resource management and act as an efficient team leader.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content. Program content refers to projects information, graphics, data or facts presented through the multimedia production.

Script Writer:
Video and film scripts represents a linear sequence of events. The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments and if needed uses the virtual reality integration into the program.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically. Text and narration is an integrated part of the application.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
The roles of these specialists are needed for dealing with narration and digitized videos to-be added in a multimedia presentation. They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language. These scripts usually develops special functions like developing the software to give the size and shape of video windows, controlling peripherals and so on.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page. They converts a multimedia presentation into a web page. Final multimedia product is ready for consultation is a joint effort of the entire team. Initially, the production manager identifies the project content, while the web master provides access to a wide range of community through web-services.

Question 5.
Explain about different file formats in multimedia files?
Answer:
File Formats for Multimedia:
The following is an outline of current file formats used for the production and delivery of multimedia data.
Text Formats:
RTF Rich Text Format:
is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Plain text:
Plain text files can be opened, read, and edited with most text editors. Commonly used are Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X) and so on. Other computer programs are also capable of reading and importing plain text. Plain text is the original and popular way of conveying an e-mail.

Image Formats:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format):
This format is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

BMP (Bitmap):
Initially this format is in use with Windows 3.1. It is quite large and uncompressed and hence BMP is used for the high-resolution or large images.

DIB (Device Independent Bitmap):
This format which is similar to BMP, allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

GIF (Graphics Interchange Format):
GIF is a compressed image format. Most of the computer color images and backgrounds are GIF files. This file format is best suitable for graphics that uses only limited colors, and it is the most popular format used for online color photos. 13-bit Color look up table is used by the GIF format to identify its color values. This format is supported widely.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG was designed to attain maximum image compression. It uses loss compression technique, where a compression method is referred that loses some of the data required for the image reconstruction. It works good with photographs, naturalistic artwork, and similar material but functions less on lettering, live drawings or simple cartoons.

TGA (Tagra):
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like worldwide web. So it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Digital Audio File Formats:
1. WAV (Waveform Audio File Format):
It is the most popular audio file format in windows for storing uncompressed sound files. In order to attain the. reduced file size it can also be converted to other file formats like MP3.

2. MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format)
3. MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

4. OGG:
A free, open source container format that is designed for obtaining better streaming and evolving at high end quality digital multimedia. It can be compared to MP3 files in terms of quality.

5. AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format):
A standard audio file format used by Apple which is like a WAV file for the Mac.

6. WMA (Windows Media Audio):
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

7. RA (Real Audio Format):
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD. Besides the variety of audio file formats available, the most common formats are wave files (.WAV) and MPEG Layer-3 files (.MP3), WMA and RA.

Digital Video File Formats:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave):
AVI is the video file format for Windows. Here sound and picture elements are stored in alternate interleaved chunks in the file.

MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group):
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1
……………………….. applications plays vital role in presenting information to the user.
(a) Power point
(b) Multimedia
(c) Star office
(d) php
Answer:
(b) Multimedia

Question 2.
In the term multimedia, multi refers to …………………………….
(a) medium
(b) single
(c) hybrid
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

Question 3.
What is the plural form of medium?
(a) medium
(b) mediu
(c) media
(d) median
Answer:
(c) media

Question 4.
How many major components are there in Multimedia?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 5.
Which is not a multimedia components? [Pick the odd one out].
(a) Test
(b) Image
(c) Sound
Answer:
(a) Test

Question 6.
Identify the static element from the following.
(a) Video
(b) graphics
(c) Animation
Answer:
(b) graphics

Question 7.
…………………………. is the basic components of Multimedia.
(a) Video
(b) Animation
(c) Text
Answer:
(c) Text

Question 8.
In …………………… the words are given along with the images to explain about the images.
(a) Static text
(b) Hyper text
(c) Multi text
(d) Super text
Answer:
(a) Static text

Question 9.
The readability of the text depends on the ………………………….
(a) pronunciation
(b) spacing
(c) punctuation
(d) b & c
Answer:
(d) b & c

Question 10.
In how many ways, in ages can be generated by the computer?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 11.
Bitmap images are otherwise called as ………………………… images.
(a) multimedia
(b) vector
(c) Raster
Answer:
(c) Raster

Question 12.
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is ……………………………
(a) raster images
(b) bitmap
(c) vector
(d) both (a) &(b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) &(b)

Question 13.
The tiny dots which forms on the screen (picture elements) are called as …………………………
(a) pitel
(b) pixel
(c) dots
(d) dpi
Answer:
(b) pixel

Question 14.
……………………… is a simple matrix of pixel that forms a raster image.
(a) Bitmap
(b) Pixel
(c) Vector
(d) Animation
Answer:
(a) Bitmap

Question 15.
In determining number of colors, ……………………. bits indicates 256 colors.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 16.
………………………… is a techniques used to reduce the file size of the images.
(a) Animation
(b) Rendering
(c) Compression
(d) Morphing
Answer:
(c) Compression

Question 17.
Identify which is not a compression format?
(a) GIF
(b) TIFF
(c) JPEG
(d) MIDI
Answer:
(d) MIDI

Question 18.
What is the least frame rate for smooth appearance of images?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 19.
How many frames per second are needed for a normal natural looking images?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Question 20.
If the image appears in xy axis of the screen, then it is called as ………………………… animation.
(a) picture
(b) Image xy
(c) 2D
(d) 3D
Answer:
(c) 2D

Question 21.
If the image appears inXYZ axis of the screen then it is called as ………………………. animation.
(a) 2D
(b) 3D
(c) XYZ
Answer:
(b) 3D

Question 22.
How many types of animations are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 23.
The two types of animations are …………………………
(a) Frame, object
(b) path, object
(c) path, Frame
Answer:
(c) path, Frame

Question 24.
Which animation involves moving an object on the screen with constant background?
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(b) Path

Question 25.
Multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously in ……………………………. animations.
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(c) Frame

Question 26.
Which one of the following is the most serious element in multimedia and provides the pleasure of music, special effects etc?
(a) Text
(b) Image
(c) Sound
(d) Video
Answer:
(c) Sound

Question 27.
What is the unit of sound?
(a) Decibels
(b) Newton
(c) Hertz
(d) Frequency
Answer:
(a) Decibels

Question 28.
MIDI stand for ………………………………..
(a) Magic In Data Interface
(b) Musical Instrument Digital Identifier ,
(c) Magnetic Induction Drive Input
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface
Answer:
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface

Question 29.
………………………….. Sound is a digitized sound.
(a) Recorded
(b) Digital
(c) Frame
(d) Sampled
Answer:
(d) Sampled

Question 30.
is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample.
(a) Digitized sound
(b) sampling rate
(c) compression
(d) compression ratio
Answer:
(b) sampling rate

Question 31.
How many types of videos are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 32.
The display of recorded event, scene etc. are called as …………………………..
(a) Video
(b) Sampling
(c) Frames
(d) Modelling
Answer:
(a) Video

Question 33.
How many categories of Analog videos’are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 34.
Which video format have all the components like brightness, color and synchronization are combined into one signal?
(a) Digital video
(b) MIDI
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 35.
Which video format produces low plarity videos?
(a) Analog video
(b) Digital video
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 36.
Which one of the following format was used for customer analog video recording tape formats?
(a) Beta max
(b) MIDI
(c) DIB
(d) BMP
Answer:
(a) Beta max

Question 37.
How many different multimedia file formats are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 38.
RTF stand for …………………………..
(a) Rich Text Format
(b) Real Time Format
(c) Red Tagra Format
(d) Recording to file Format
Answer:
(a) Rich Text Format

Question 39.
The RTF was introduced in the year …………………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1985
(c) 1987
(d) 1992
Answer:
(c) 1987

Question 40.
Match the following editors with OS?
1. Gedit/Nano – (a) windows
2. Text Edit – (b) Unix / Linux
3. Notepad – (c) Mac OS
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)
(b) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(a)
(c) 1-(a),2-(b),3-(c)
(d) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(c)
Answer:
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)

Question 41.
Identify which is not an editor?
(a) Notepad
(b) Gotit
(c) Nano
(d) Text Edit
Answer:
(b) Gotit

Question 42.
………………………….. is the popular way of conveying an e-mail.
(a) RTF
(b) plaintext
(c) BMP
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) plaintext

Question 43.
TIFF is a ………………………….. Format of file.
(a) Sound
(b) Video
(c) Text
(d) Image
Answer:
(d) Image

Question 44.
identify the statement which is correct.
(i) RTF was developed by apple.
(ii) TIFF format is common in desktop publishing world.
(iii) GIF uses lossy compression technique
(iv) JPEG works good with photographs.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct

Question 45.
Which is the first popular format for high resolution images?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) JPEG
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 46.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) DIB
(b) BMP
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 47.
TIFF Stand for …………………………
(a) Time Interchange File Format
(b) Tagged Image File Format
(c) Time In File Format
(d) Task Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(b) Tagged Image File Format

Question 48.
Which one of the following format produces high quality output in DTP world?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) PNG
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) TIFF

Question 49.
BMP stands for …………………………..
(a) Bitwise Manipulation
(b) Binary Manipulations
(c) Bitmap
(d) Binary Map
Answer:
(c) Bitmap

Question 50.
Pick out the correct statement from the following.
(a) GIF are good with photographs
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications
(c) TIFF produces two quality output
(d) BMP is used for high resolution & small images
Answer:
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications

Question 51.
DIB stands for …………………………..
(a) Drive in Bus
(b) Devuce Input Bias
(c) Device Interface Format
(d) Device Independent Bitmap
Answer:
(d) Device Independent Bitmap

Question 52.
GIF stands for ……………………….
(a) Graphics Interchange Format
(b) Graphics Interchange File
(c) Graphics Interface Format
(d) Grahics Interface File
Answer:
(a) Graphics Interchange Format

Question 53.
TGA means …………………………
(a) Tagged
(b) Tagra
(c) tamil graphics
(d) Tiff graphics
Answer:
(b) Tagra

Question 54.
PNG means ………………………
(a) Power Net Gate
(b) Portable
(c) Portable Network Graphics
(d) Power Network Graphics
Answer:
(c) Portable Network Graphics

Question 55.
WAV stands for …………………………..
(a) Wave
(b) Waveform
(c) Waveform Audio Video Format
(d) Waveform Audio File Format
Answer:
(d) Waveform Audio File Format

Questionv 56.
AIFF stands for ………………………..
(a) Audio Interchange File Format
(b) Audio In File Format
(c) Audio Interference File Format
(d) Audio Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(a) Audio Interchange File Format

Question 57.
WMA means ……………………………
(a) Wave Media Animation
(b) Wave Moving Animation
(c) Windows Media Audio
(d) Waveform Media Audio
Answer:
(c) Windows Media Audio

Question 58.
RA stands for ……………………………
(a) Rich Animation
(b) Real Audio
(c) Rapid Audio
(d) Raster Audio
Answer:
(b) Real Audio

Question 59.
AVI means ……………………………
(a) Audio Video Interleave
(b) Animation Video Interface
(c) Audio Video Interchange
(d) Animation Video Intechange
Answer:
(a) Audio Video Interleave

Question 60.
The MPEG layer-3 Format is ……………………………
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) MIDI
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 61.
Which image format is used for storing high-resolution large images?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) DIB
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) BMP

Question 62.
Which image format allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices?
(a) BMP
(b) DIB
(c) DIP
(d) PNG
Answer:
(b) DIB

Question 63.
What is the table used by the GIF format to identify colors?
(a) Color
(b) Look color
(c) Color Look up
(d) Color up
Answer:
(c) Color Look up

Question 64.
………………………… is a compressed image format.
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) PNG
(d) DIB
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 65.
What is the compression technique used by JPEG image format?
(a) Lossless
(b) Lossy
(c) Full compression
(d) Half / partial
Answer:
(b) Lossy

Question 66.
Which image format is good with photographs, naturalistic artworks?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) GIF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(d) JPEG

Question 67.
…………………………… is the first popular format for high resolution images.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 68.
Most of the video – capture boards supports …………………………… formats.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 69.
…………………………… format is fully streameable with a best display option.
(a) JPEG
(b) GIF
(c) PNG
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(c) PNG

Question 70.
Which format works good with online viewing applications like www?
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) PNG

Question 71.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 72.
Identify the wrongly matched pair from the following.
(a) OGG – (i) Audio
(b) MPEG – (ii) Video
(c) MIDI- (iii) Text
(d) TGA – (iv) image
(a) (iii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(a) OGG – (i) Audio

Question 73.
Identify which is not an Digital Audio File Format.
(a) OGG
(b) AVI
(c) AIFF
(d) WMA
Answer:
(b) AVI

Question 74.
Which format is most popular for storing and downloading music?
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) JPEG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 75.
…………………………… format stores uncompressed sound files.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) WAV

Question 76.
Which files are compressed to onw-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file?
(a) WAV
(b) OGG
(c) WMA
(d) MP3
Answer:
(d) MP3

Question 77.
AIFF was developed by …………………………
(a) Microsoft
(b) Apple
(c) IBM
(d) Flash
Answer:
(b) Apple

Question 78.
……………………….. is a free, open source container format.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) WMA
Answer:
(c) OGG

Question 79.
Expand DRM.
(a) Digi Read Memory
(b) Digital Rich MP3
(c) Data Read Memory
(d) Digital Right Management
Answer:
(d) Digital Right Management

Question 80.
Which digital Audio format is designed with DRM facility?
(a) WMA
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) MP3
Answer:
(a) WMA

Question 81.
Identify the format which is not developed by Microsoft?
(a) AVI
(b) WMA
(c) AIFF
(d) RTF
Answer:
(c) AIFF

Question 82.
Who developed WMA?
(a) Apple
(b) Microsoft
(c) Macromedia
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

Question 83.
…………………………… abilities are provided in WMA format for copyright protection.
(a) DMA
(b) DRA
(c) DRM
(d) DMR
Answer:
(c) DRM

Question 84.
The sound and picture elements in AVI are stored in alternate …………………………… chunks in the file.
(a) interleaved
(b) interface
(c) interrupt
(d) interchange
Answer:
(a) interleaved

Question 85.
Multimedia Framework was started in the year ……………………………
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 86.
Find the pair wrongly matched.
(i) MPEG-2 – DVD, TV set top Boxes
(ii) MPEG-4 – Multimedia
(iii) MPEG-1 – Mobile
(iv) MPEG-7 -Video CD
(v) MPEG-21 – Multimedia Framework
(a) (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (v)
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (iii), (iv)

Question 87.
Which MPEG format is used for multimedia and mobile web?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-21
(c) MPEG-7
(d) MPEG-2
Answer:
(a) MPEG-4

Question 88.
………………………. is a standard format for generation digital video and audio compression under the ISO.
(a) AVI
(b) MP3
(c) JPEG
(d) MPEG
Answer:
(d) MPEG

Question 89.
Which format had research on “Multimedia Framework” in the year 2000?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-2
(c) MPEG7
(d) MPEG-21
Answer:
(d) MPEG-21

Question 90.
How many steps are there in Multimedia production?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 91.
The first step in Multimedia production is ……………………………
(a) project design
(b) conceptual analysis
(c) planning
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(d) both b & c

Question 92.
The general statements in project design stage are termed as ……………………………
(a) goals
(b) objectives
(c) Aim
(d) planning
Answer:
(a) goals

Question 93.
The selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing comes under
(a) content definition
(b) RAM capacity
(c) structure preparing
(d) Hardware / Software selection
Answer:
(d) Hardware / Software selection

Question 94.
Find the correct statement from the following
(i) Start / end time of each activity are defined in preparing the structure stage.
(ii) A pilot project will be ready in the production stage.
(iii) Suggestions and comments are given in the documentation phase.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) (ii) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 95.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia applications through internet.
(a) Bandwidth
(b) Plugins
(c) Downloading time
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 96.
Which software is used to incorporate the text in the production stage?
(a) Light pen
(b) Scanner
(c) OCR
(d) OMR
Answer:
(c) OCR

Question 97.
Identify which is not a browser?
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) Trash
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Google Chrome
Answer:
(b) Trash

Question 98.
Arrange the options given below in the proper order.
(i) Budgeting
(ii) project design
(iii) Documentation
(iv) Hardware / software selection
(v) Testing
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(c) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii)
Answer:
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)

Question 99.
Copyright issues are considered in the …………………………… phase.
(a) conceptual analysis and planning
(b) project design
(c) pre-production
(d) Budgeting
Answer:
(a) conceptual analysis and planning

Question 100.
How many members are there in multimedia production team?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 9

Question 101.
The production manager should not be an expertise in ……………………………
(a) technology
(b) proposal writing
(c) communication
(d) Text Narration
Answer:
(d) Text Narration

Question 102.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) The text should always be structured
(b) The text should be grammatically correct
(c) The text must flow logically
(d) All the above statements are correct
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are correct

Question 103.
The multimedia presentation is converted into a web page by
(a) computer programmer
(b) web master
(c) graphic artist
(d) multimedia architect
Answer:
(b) web master

Question 104.
…………………………… represents a linear sequence of events.
(a) video
(b) film scripts
(c) Text
(d) a & b
Answer:
(d) a & b

Question 105.
Who plays a vital role in dealing with backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3D objects, animations, logos of the programs.
(a) Multimedia Architect
(b) Web Master
(c) Computer Graphic Artist
(d) Video Specialist
Answer:
(c) Computer Graphic Artist

Question 106.
Identify the person who is not a member of Multimedia Production team.
(a) Content specialist
(b) Program debugger
(c) Script writer
(d) Text Editor
Answer:
(b) Program debugger

Question 107.
How many million consumers uses Internet, radio and video services every month?
(a) 55
(b) 45
(c) 65
(d) 75
Answer:
(a) 55

Question 108.
…………………………… is a multimedia based teaching and learning system at GMU in Germany to provide decentralized learning environment to the students.
(a) MODULO
(b) MODULES
(c) MODE
(d) MODEL
Answer:
(a) MODULO

Question 109.
…………………………… is an Education satellite launched in India to provide virtual classrooms.
(a) EDSAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) E-SAT
(d) E SATELLITE
Answer:
(b) EDUSAT

Question 110.
……………………………. conferencing is a system that performs face to face interactions for the users.
(a) Multimedia
(b) Video
(c) Audio
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 111.
…………………………… is a free standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen.
(a) Kiosk
(b) Helpdesk
(c) Customer care
(d) ATM
Answer:
(a) Kiosk

Question 112.
Banks uses Kiosks in the form of
(a) Cash
(b) Finance
(c) Credit Cards
(d) ATM
Answer:
(d) ATM

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of vector images?
Answer:
Relatively small amount of data is required to represent the image and thereby only less memory is needed to store.

Question 2.
Define compression?
Answer:
Compression is a technique used to reduce the file size of images that is useful for storing large number of images and speeding transmission for networked applications.

Question 3.
Mention some compression formats?
Answer:

1. GIF – Graphics Interface Format
2. TIFF – Tagged Image File Format
3. JPEG – Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 4.
Define frame Animation?
Answer:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

Question 5.
Define sampling rate?
Answer:
Sampling rate is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample (bit depth, resolution and sample size).

Question 6.
Write note on MIDI?
Answer:
Musical Instrument Digital Identifier (MIDI) is a standard communication tool developed for computers and electronic instruments. This tool is flexible and easy for composing the projects in multimedia. Tools for synthesizing the sound and software for sequencing are necessary for MIDI.

Question 7.
Classify video?
Answer:
The video can be categorized into two types as:
Analog video and Digital video

Question 8.
Classify Analog video?
Answer:
Analog Video’s are classified as

1. composite Analog video
2. component Analog video

Question 9.
Write note on RTF text format?
Answer:
Rich Text Format is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Question 10.
Mention some text editors?
Answer:
Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X)

Question 11.
Compare BMP and DIB?
Answer:
DIB is similar to BMP. It allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

Question 12.
Write note on Tagra?
Answer:
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

Question 13.
Write note on MP3 format?
Answer:
MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

Question 14.
Write note on WMA?
Answer:
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

Question 15.
Write note on RA Format?
Answer:
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD.

Question 16.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia product?
Answer:

1. Bandwidth issues.
2. Huge Number of Plugins required to play audio and video.
3. Long downloading time.

Question 17.
Name the various fields where multimedia plays a vital role?
Answer:
Education, Entertainment, Business Systems, Medical Services, Public Places and Multimedia Conferencing.

Question 18.
What is Kiosk?
Answer:
Kiosk is a free-standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen. It is^ commonly used in airports and other public locations to provide directions and few mandatory information’s.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Define path animation?
Answer:
Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e.g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

Question 2.
Define composite Analog video? Mention same characteristics of composite Analog video?
Answer:
Composite Analog Video has all the video components like brightness, color, and synchronization combined into one signal. Due to the combining of the video components, the quality of the composite video resulted in color blending, low clarity and high generational loss.

Question 3.
Write note on TIFF?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate GIF and JPEG?
Ans
GIF:

1. It is lossless format
2. It is limited to 8 bit palette
3. Size of GIF is more
4. Good for animation works

JPEG:

1. It uses lossy format
2. It allows multiple colors
3. It is lesser
4. Good for photographs

Question 5.
Explain PNG format?
Answer:
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like world wide web. so it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Question 6.
Write note on MPEG?
Answer:
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on , MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Question 7.
List out the steps in Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Conceptual Analysis and Planning, Project design, Pre-production, Budgeting, Multimedia Production Team, Hardware/Software Selection, Defining the Content, Preparing the structure, Production, Testing, Documentation and Delivering the Multimedia Product.

Question 8.
What is meant by digital library?
Answer:
Information’s are available in digital formats It include digital books, scanned images, graphics and digitized audio-visual clips etc. digital library projects were based on textual data, images, audio and video recordings were also integrated under the collection of digital library.

IV. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain various components of Multimedia?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation. They are explained in detail below:
1. Text:
is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

2. Images:
acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images: The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

3. Vector images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

4. Frame animation:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

5. Sound:
is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

6. Video:
is defined as the display of recorded event, scene etc. The powerful way to convey information in multimedia applications are embedding of video. The video can be categorized in two types as Analog video and Digital video.PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
………………………… refers to any type of application that involves more than one type of media such as text, graphics video animation and sound
(a) an executable file
(b) desktop publishing
(c) multimedia
(d) hypertext
Answer:
(c) multimedia

Question 2.
One of the disadvantages of the multimedia is its …………………………….
(a) cost
(b) adaptability
(c) usability
(d) relativity
Answer:
(a) cost

Question 3.
Expand JPEG
(a) joint photo experts gross
(b) joint photographic experts group
(c) joint processor experts group
(d) joint photographic expression group
Answer:
(b) joint photographic experts group

Question 4.
You need hardware, software and …………………….. to make multimedia.
(a) network
(b) compact disk drive
(c) good idea
(d) programming knowledge
Answer:
(b) compact disk drive

Question 5.
Match the following by choosing the right one.
(i) Text – 1.TGA
(ii) Image – 2. MIDI
(iii) Sound – 3. MPEG
(iv) Video – 4. RTF
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
Answer:
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3

Question 6.
Find the odd one on the following which is not an image format
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) RTF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(c) RTF

Question 7.
………………………….. is the process displaying still images they give continuous movement
(a) Text formats
(b) Sound
(c) MP3
(d) Animation
Answer:
(d) Animation

Question 8.
The live telecasting of real time program through Internet is known as ……………………………..
(a) web casting
(b) web hosting
(c) data manipulation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) web casting

Question 9.
GIF use ………………………. color look up table
(a) 8 bit
(b) 8 KB
(c) 8 MB
(d) 8 GB
Answer:
(a) 8 bit

Question 10.
RTF file format was introduced by ……………………………
(a) TCS
(b) Microsoft
(c) Apple
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

PART – II
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define Multimedia and their features?
Answer:
The word multimedia consists of two words “multi” and “media” which means that multiple forms of media are combined to gather and provide services like storage, communication, presentation and Input/output interactions of text, video, image, graphics and audio.
Features of Multimedia:

1. The information they handle is represented digitally.
2. Multimedia Systems are integrated, computer controlled and usually interactive.

Question 2.
List out Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.

Question 3.
Classify the TEXT component in multimedia?
Answer:
Text is classified as static text and hypertext. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

Question 4.
Classify the IMAGE component in multimedia?
Answer:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the Image components are classified in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images:
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

Vector Images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Question 5.
Define Animation and their features?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.
Features:

1. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation.
2. The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second.

Question 6.
List out image file formats?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics).

Question 7.
List out audio file formats?
Answer:
WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format).

Question 8.
List out video file formats?
Answer:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave) and MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 9.
Define Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Question 10.
List out Multimedia Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager, Content Specialist, Script Writer, Text Editor, Multimedia Architect, Computer Graphic Artist, Audio and Video Specialist, Computer Programmer, Web Master.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain about Multimedia Components?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation.
Text:
Text is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person.

Image:
Images acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images.

Sound:
Sound is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

Video:
Video is defined as the display of recorded event, scene.

Animation:
Animation is the process of displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement.

Question 2.
Describe the features and techniques of animation?
Answer:
Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. In animation the screen object is a vector image in animation. Using numerical transformations the movement of that image along its paths is calculated for their defining coordinates.

The least frame rate of at least 16 frames per second gives the impression of smoothness and for natural looking it should be at least 25 frames per second. Animations may be in two or three dimensional. The two dimensional animation, bring an image alive, that occur on the flat X and Y axis of the screen, while in three dimensional animation it occurs along the three axis X, Y and Z. Animation tools are very powerful and effective. The two basic types of animations are Path animation and Frame animation.

Question 3.
Write roles and responsibilities of Production team members?
Answer:
Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content.

Script Writer:
The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page.

Question 4.
Describe the various file formats in multimedia?
Answer:
Text Formats: RTF, Plain text, Image Formats:TIFF (Tagged Image File Format), BMP (Bitmap), DIB (Device Independent Bitmap), GIF (Graphics Interchange Format), JPEG (Jbint Photographic Experts Group), TGA (Tagra), PNG (Portable Network Graphics), Digital Audio File Formats: WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format), OGG, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format), WMA (Windows Media Audio), RA (Real Audio Format), Digital Video File Formats: AVI (Audio/Video Interleave), MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group).

Question 5.
Explain animation industry and their scope?
Answer:
1. The Indian Animation Industry encompasses traditional 2D animations, 3D animation <& visual effects for films.

2. An animation Studio is a company producing animated media. Many of these studios help with the fulfillment of animation works for big brand names and have carried out outsourced projects including Nemo.

3. The first Indian animated TV series was Ghayab Aya in the year 1986. The first Indian animated film was The Banyan Deer in 1957.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain in detail Process of Multimedia ?
Steps in Multimedia Production
Answer:
Adequate time and efficient planning is required for multimedia production, which assures that the project will be proceed smoothly and certainly ensures that the information reaches the target audience. Following are the phases for development of complex multimedia projects. Multimedia and Desktop Publishing.

Conceptual Analysis and Planning:
The process of multimedia making begins with a conceptual ignition point. Conceptual analysis identifies a appropriate theme, budget and content availability on that selected theme. Additional criteria like copyright issues also are considered in this phase.

Project design:
Once the theme is finalized objectives, goals, and activities are drawn for the multimedia project. General statements are termed as goals. The specific statements in the project is known as the objectives. Activities are series of actions performed to implement an objective. These activities contribute to the Project design phase.

Pre-production:
Based on the planning and design, it is necessary to develop the project.
The following are the steps involved in pre-production:

Budgeting:
Budgeting for each phases like consultants, hardware, software, travel, communication and publishing is estimated for all the multimedia projects.

Multimedia Production Team:
The production team for a high-end multimedia project requires a team efforts. The team comprises of members playing various roles and responsibilities like Script writer, Production manager, Editor, Graphics Architect, Multimedia Architect and Web Master.

Hardware/Software Selection:
All multimedia Application requires appropriate tools to develop and playback the application. Hardware includes the selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing the records. Selection of the suitable software and file formats depends on the funds available for the project being developed.

Defining the Content:
Content is the “stuff’ provided by content specialist to the multimedia architect with which the application is developed, who prepares the narration, bullets, charts and tables etc.

Preparing the structure:
A detailed structure must have information about all the steps ‘along with the time line of the future action. This structure defines the activities, responsible person for each activity and the start/end time for each activity.

Production:
In the multimedia application, after the pre-production activities, the production phase starts. This phase includes the activities like background music selection, sound recording and so on. Text is incorporated using OCR software, Pictures shot by digital camera, Video clips are shot, edited and compressed. A pilot project is ready by this time.

Testing:
The complete testing of the pilot product is done before the mass production to ensure that everything is in place, thereby avoiding the failure after launch. If it’s an web . based product its functioning is tested with different browsers like Internet Explorer, Chrome, Mozilla and Netscape Navigator. If it is a locak multimedia application on a LAN it must be deployed in the server for testing purpose. After the testing process are over, the product is incorporated with valid suggested changes.

Documentation User documentation is a mandatory feature of all multimedia projects. The documentation has all the valuable information’s starting from the system requirement till the completion of testing. Contact details, e-mail address and phone numbers are provided for technical support and sending suggestions and comments.

Delivering the Multimedia Product:
Multimedia applications are best delivered on CD/DVD or in the website . In reality various challenges are faced while delivering through internet, like bandwidth problems, huge number of plug-ins required to play audio and video and long downloading time. Finally, a multimedia application is delivered in a more effective way by the integration of two mediums CD-ROM/DVD and Internet.

Question 2.
Explain in detail Techniques of Animation?
Answer:
The various animation techniques are
(i) Traditional Animation:
Traditional animation involved animators drawing by hand for each and every frame. It is creating the drawings one by one on the frame. Eg. Snow White and the Seven Dwarf Movie

(ii) Computer animation – 2D, 3D:

1. The famous mickey mouse was created using the 2D animation technique.
2. The first 2D animation was called Fantasmagorie. It is a short cartoon made by Emile Cohl. It is entirely in black and white

(iii) Digital 2D animation:

1. Creating animations in the 2 dimensional space with the help of digital technologies is called digital 2D animation.
2. Create 100s of drawing and animate them to show same kind of movement in technically called digital 2d animations.

(iv) Digital 3D animation:
3D animation models are highly realistic. They are used to create Short Films, TV Commercials.

(v) Stop-motion animation:
Using frame by frame animation, physical static objects are moved around. Eg. Movie “The Teddy Bears”.

(vi) Mechanical Animations:
Instead of robotics, machines can be animated by using the mechanical animation techniques. It helps the animator to understand how the machine works.

(vii) Chuckimation:
Chuckimation is one of the popular animation techniques created by “Action League Now!” creators. It is the combination of stop frame animation and live shots, where characters are dropped into a particular frame.

(Viii) Clay animation (or) claymation:
Pieces of clay are moulded to create characters and based on the imagination of the animator, a story is unfolded. There are oil based and water based clays available.

(ix) Typography Animation:
Typography is nothing but font faces and letters and combination of text in motion.
Eg. Titles part of movie “The Atlantic”

(x) Sand Animation:
A lit glass table is used as a canvas and the animator creates animation by moving the sand in certain directions.

(xi) ZoetrOpe Animation:
Some still images are drawn on a drum and when turned in a circular way, we will get an illusion of movement.

Question 3.
Explore the opportunities in Animation filed movie industry?
Answer:
In India, the VFX domain, or the animation and visual effects industry has been growing stronger and stronger in recent years.

1. Animation and visual effects requirement for massive international projects such as HBO’s top TV series and Marvels’ hit Infinity War and Black Panther was outsourced to Indian companies in Mumbai and Pune.
2. This led to the significant increase in the number of students enrolling for a VFX course.
3. As such, a student that completes a 3D animation course cap hope to build a rewarding and satisfying career in the Media and Entertainment field these days.
4. The timeless classics Tom and Jerry and Mickey Mouse created a milestone but the legacy is not disappointing.
5. Indian animation has risen from an amateur piece of craft like “The Banyan Deer” to the million rupees project “Chhota Bheem”
6. POGO, the leading cartoon channel in India is the most successful entertainment channel for kids.
7. Indian animation industry is anticipated to grow faster than the IT industry.
8. The industry has grown to a multibillion net work standard.
9. As a result of the growing demand in industry, the scope of animation course in tremendous.
10. The number of VFX artists and animators that worked on Baahubali was around 750.
11. Ex. For Top animates Movies: Spider-Man, Incredibles 2, Zootopia, Inside Out, Toy Story 3, Finding Nemo, Frozen, etc.

Question 4.
Explain in detail about production team Roles and Responsibilities?
Answer:
Multimedia Production Team:
Managing team members in a way to get maximum outcome with high degree of efficiency is mandatory in multimedia production. The fine quality high-end multimedia production application requires a specialize team comprises of the following members:

Production Manager:
In a multimedia production, the role of production manager is to define, and coordinate, the production of the multimedia project in time and with full quality. The production manager should be an expertise in the technology expert, good at proposal writing, good communication skills and budget management skills. Also must have experience in human resource management and act as an efficient team leader.

Content Specialist:
Content specialist is responsible for performing all research activities concerned with the proposed application’s content. Program content refers to projects information, graphics, data or facts presented through the multimedia production.

Script Writer:
Video and film scripts represents a linear sequence of events. The script writer visualizes the concepts in three dimensional environments and if needed uses the virtual reality integration into the program.

Text Editor:
The content of a multimedia production always must flow logically and the text should always be structured and correct grammatically. Text and narration is an integrated part of the application.

Multimedia Architect:
The multimedia architect integrates all the multimedia building blocks like graphics, text, audio, music, video, photos and animation by using an authoring software.

Computer Graphic Artist:
The role of Computer Graphic Artist is to deal with the graphic elements of the programs like backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3-D objects, animation, and logos etc.

Audio and Video Specialist:
The roles of these specialists are needed for dealing with narration and digitized videos to-be added in a multimedia presentation. They are responsible for recording, editing sound effects and digitizing.

Computer Programmer:
The computer programmer writes the lines of code or scripts in the appropriate language. These scripts usually develops special functions like developing the software to give the size and shape of video windows, controlling peripherals and so on.

Web Master:
The responsibility of the web master is to create and maintain an Internet web page. They converts a multimedia presentation into a web page. Final multimedia product is ready for consultation is a joint effort of the entire team. Initially, the production manager identifies the project content, while the web master provides access to a wide range of community through web-services.

Question 5.
Explain about different file formats in multimedia files?
Answer:
File Formats for Multimedia:
The following is an outline of current file formats used for the production and delivery of multimedia data.
Text Formats:
RTF Rich Text Format:
is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Plain text:
Plain text files can be opened, read, and edited with most text editors. Commonly used are Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X) and so on. Other computer programs are also capable of reading and importing plain text. Plain text is the original and popular way of conveying an e-mail.

Image Formats:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format):
This format is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

BMP (Bitmap):
Initially this format is in use with Windows 3.1. It is quite large and uncompressed and hence BMP is used for the high-resolution or large images.

DIB (Device Independent Bitmap):
This format which is similar to BMP, allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

GIF (Graphics Interchange Format):
GIF is a compressed image format. Most of the computer color images and backgrounds are GIF files. This file format is best suitable for graphics that uses only limited colors, and it is the most popular format used for online color photos. 13-bit Color look up table is used by the GIF format to identify its color values. This format is supported widely.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group):
JPEG was designed to attain maximum image compression. It uses loss compression technique, where a compression method is referred that loses some of the data required for the image reconstruction. It works good with photographs, naturalistic artwork, and similar material but functions less on lettering, live drawings or simple cartoons.

TGA (Tagra):
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

PNG (Portable Network Graphics):
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like worldwide web. So it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Digital Audio File Formats:
1. WAV (Waveform Audio File Format):
It is the most popular audio file format in windows for storing uncompressed sound files. In order to attain the. reduced file size it can also be converted to other file formats like MP3.

2. MP3 (MPEG Layer-3 Format)
3. MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

4. OGG:
A free, open source container format that is designed for obtaining better streaming and evolving at high end quality digital multimedia. It can be compared to MP3 files in terms of quality.

5. AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format):
A standard audio file format used by Apple which is like a WAV file for the Mac.

6. WMA (Windows Media Audio):
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

7. RA (Real Audio Format):
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD. Besides the variety of audio file formats available, the most common formats are wave files (.WAV) and MPEG Layer-3 files (.MP3), WMA and RA.

Digital Video File Formats:
AVI (Audio/Video Interleave):
AVI is the video file format for Windows. Here sound and picture elements are stored in alternate interleaved chunks in the file.

MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group):
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Multimedia and Desktop Publishing Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1
……………………….. applications plays vital role in presenting information to the user.
(a) Power point
(b) Multimedia
(c) Star office
(d) php
Answer:
(b) Multimedia

Question 2.
In the term multimedia, multi refers to …………………………….
(a) medium
(b) single
(c) hybrid
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

Question 3.
What is the plural form of medium?
(a) medium
(b) mediu
(c) media
(d) median
Answer:
(c) media

Question 4.
How many major components are there in Multimedia?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 5.
Which is not a multimedia components? [Pick the odd one out].
(a) Test
(b) Image
(c) Sound
Answer:
(a) Test

Question 6.
Identify the static element from the following.
(a) Video
(b) graphics
(c) Animation
Answer:
(b) graphics

Question 7.
…………………………. is the basic components of Multimedia.
(a) Video
(b) Animation
(c) Text
Answer:
(c) Text

Question 8.
In …………………… the words are given along with the images to explain about the images.
(a) Static text
(b) Hyper text
(c) Multi text
(d) Super text
Answer:
(a) Static text

Question 9.
The readability of the text depends on the ………………………….
(a) pronunciation
(b) spacing
(c) punctuation
(d) b & c
Answer:
(d) b & c

Question 10.
In how many ways, in ages can be generated by the computer?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 11.
Bitmap images are otherwise called as ………………………… images.
(a) multimedia
(b) vector
(c) Raster
Answer:
(c) Raster

Question 12.
The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is ……………………………
(a) raster images
(b) bitmap
(c) vector
(d) both (a) &(b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) &(b)

Question 13.
The tiny dots which forms on the screen (picture elements) are called as …………………………
(a) pitel
(b) pixel
(c) dots
(d) dpi
Answer:
(b) pixel

Question 14.
……………………… is a simple matrix of pixel that forms a raster image.
(a) Bitmap
(b) Pixel
(c) Vector
(d) Animation
Answer:
(a) Bitmap

Question 15.
In determining number of colors, ……………………. bits indicates 256 colors.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 16.
………………………… is a techniques used to reduce the file size of the images.
(a) Animation
(b) Rendering
(c) Compression
(d) Morphing
Answer:
(c) Compression

Question 17.
Identify which is not a compression format?
(a) GIF
(b) TIFF
(c) JPEG
(d) MIDI
Answer:
(d) MIDI

Question 18.
What is the least frame rate for smooth appearance of images?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 19.
How many frames per second are needed for a normal natural looking images?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Question 20.
If the image appears in xy axis of the screen, then it is called as ………………………… animation.
(a) picture
(b) Image xy
(c) 2D
(d) 3D
Answer:
(c) 2D

Question 21.
If the image appears inXYZ axis of the screen then it is called as ………………………. animation.
(a) 2D
(b) 3D
(c) XYZ
Answer:
(b) 3D

Question 22.
How many types of animations are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 23.
The two types of animations are …………………………
(a) Frame, object
(b) path, object
(c) path, Frame
Answer:
(c) path, Frame

Question 24.
Which animation involves moving an object on the screen with constant background?
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(b) Path

Question 25.
Multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously in ……………………………. animations.
(a) Vector
(b) Path
(c) Frame
(d) Static
Answer:
(c) Frame

Question 26.
Which one of the following is the most serious element in multimedia and provides the pleasure of music, special effects etc?
(a) Text
(b) Image
(c) Sound
(d) Video
Answer:
(c) Sound

Question 27.
What is the unit of sound?
(a) Decibels
(b) Newton
(c) Hertz
(d) Frequency
Answer:
(a) Decibels

Question 28.
MIDI stand for ………………………………..
(a) Magic In Data Interface
(b) Musical Instrument Digital Identifier ,
(c) Magnetic Induction Drive Input
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface
Answer:
(d) Most Interactive Digital Interface

Question 29.
………………………….. Sound is a digitized sound.
(a) Recorded
(b) Digital
(c) Frame
(d) Sampled
Answer:
(d) Sampled

Question 30.
is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample.
(a) Digitized sound
(b) sampling rate
(c) compression
(d) compression ratio
Answer:
(b) sampling rate

Question 31.
How many types of videos are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 32.
The display of recorded event, scene etc. are called as …………………………..
(a) Video
(b) Sampling
(c) Frames
(d) Modelling
Answer:
(a) Video

Question 33.
How many categories of Analog videos’are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 34.
Which video format have all the components like brightness, color and synchronization are combined into one signal?
(a) Digital video
(b) MIDI
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 35.
Which video format produces low plarity videos?
(a) Analog video
(b) Digital video
(c) Component Analog Video
(d) Composite Analog Video
Answer:
(d) Composite Analog Video

Question 36.
Which one of the following format was used for customer analog video recording tape formats?
(a) Beta max
(b) MIDI
(c) DIB
(d) BMP
Answer:
(a) Beta max

Question 37.
How many different multimedia file formats are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 38.
RTF stand for …………………………..
(a) Rich Text Format
(b) Real Time Format
(c) Red Tagra Format
(d) Recording to file Format
Answer:
(a) Rich Text Format

Question 39.
The RTF was introduced in the year …………………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1985
(c) 1987
(d) 1992
Answer:
(c) 1987

Question 40.
Match the following editors with OS?
1. Gedit/Nano – (a) windows
2. Text Edit – (b) Unix / Linux
3. Notepad – (c) Mac OS
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)
(b) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(a)
(c) 1-(a),2-(b),3-(c)
(d) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(c)
Answer:
(a) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a)

Question 41.
Identify which is not an editor?
(a) Notepad
(b) Gotit
(c) Nano
(d) Text Edit
Answer:
(b) Gotit

Question 42.
………………………….. is the popular way of conveying an e-mail.
(a) RTF
(b) plaintext
(c) BMP
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) plaintext

Question 43.
TIFF is a ………………………….. Format of file.
(a) Sound
(b) Video
(c) Text
(d) Image
Answer:
(d) Image

Question 44.
identify the statement which is correct.
(i) RTF was developed by apple.
(ii) TIFF format is common in desktop publishing world.
(iii) GIF uses lossy compression technique
(iv) JPEG works good with photographs.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iv) are correct

Question 45.
Which is the first popular format for high resolution images?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) JPEG
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 46.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) DIB
(b) BMP
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 47.
TIFF Stand for …………………………
(a) Time Interchange File Format
(b) Tagged Image File Format
(c) Time In File Format
(d) Task Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(b) Tagged Image File Format

Question 48.
Which one of the following format produces high quality output in DTP world?
(a) TIFF
(b) TGA
(c) PNG
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) TIFF

Question 49.
BMP stands for …………………………..
(a) Bitwise Manipulation
(b) Binary Manipulations
(c) Bitmap
(d) Binary Map
Answer:
(c) Bitmap

Question 50.
Pick out the correct statement from the following.
(a) GIF are good with photographs
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications
(c) TIFF produces two quality output
(d) BMP is used for high resolution & small images
Answer:
(b) PNG is portable, good with online viewing applications

Question 51.
DIB stands for …………………………..
(a) Drive in Bus
(b) Devuce Input Bias
(c) Device Interface Format
(d) Device Independent Bitmap
Answer:
(d) Device Independent Bitmap

Question 52.
GIF stands for ……………………….
(a) Graphics Interchange Format
(b) Graphics Interchange File
(c) Graphics Interface Format
(d) Grahics Interface File
Answer:
(a) Graphics Interchange Format

Question 53.
TGA means …………………………
(a) Tagged
(b) Tagra
(c) tamil graphics
(d) Tiff graphics
Answer:
(b) Tagra

Question 54.
PNG means ………………………
(a) Power Net Gate
(b) Portable
(c) Portable Network Graphics
(d) Power Network Graphics
Answer:
(c) Portable Network Graphics

Question 55.
WAV stands for …………………………..
(a) Wave
(b) Waveform
(c) Waveform Audio Video Format
(d) Waveform Audio File Format
Answer:
(d) Waveform Audio File Format

Questionv 56.
AIFF stands for ………………………..
(a) Audio Interchange File Format
(b) Audio In File Format
(c) Audio Interference File Format
(d) Audio Interrupt File Format
Answer:
(a) Audio Interchange File Format

Question 57.
WMA means ……………………………
(a) Wave Media Animation
(b) Wave Moving Animation
(c) Windows Media Audio
(d) Waveform Media Audio
Answer:
(c) Windows Media Audio

Question 58.
RA stands for ……………………………
(a) Rich Animation
(b) Real Audio
(c) Rapid Audio
(d) Raster Audio
Answer:
(b) Real Audio

Question 59.
AVI means ……………………………
(a) Audio Video Interleave
(b) Animation Video Interface
(c) Audio Video Interchange
(d) Animation Video Intechange
Answer:
(a) Audio Video Interleave

Question 60.
The MPEG layer-3 Format is ……………………………
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) MIDI
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 61.
Which image format is used for storing high-resolution large images?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) DIB
(d) GIF
Answer:
(b) BMP

Question 62.
Which image format allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices?
(a) BMP
(b) DIB
(c) DIP
(d) PNG
Answer:
(b) DIB

Question 63.
What is the table used by the GIF format to identify colors?
(a) Color
(b) Look color
(c) Color Look up
(d) Color up
Answer:
(c) Color Look up

Question 64.
………………………… is a compressed image format.
(a) GIF
(b) JPEG
(c) PNG
(d) DIB
Answer:
(a) GIF

Question 65.
What is the compression technique used by JPEG image format?
(a) Lossless
(b) Lossy
(c) Full compression
(d) Half / partial
Answer:
(b) Lossy

Question 66.
Which image format is good with photographs, naturalistic artworks?
(a) TIFF
(b) BMP
(c) GIF
(d) JPEG
Answer:
(d) JPEG

Question 67.
…………………………… is the first popular format for high resolution images.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 68.
Most of the video – capture boards supports …………………………… formats.
(a) JPEG
(b) TGA
(c) GIF
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(b) TGA

Question 69.
…………………………… format is fully streameable with a best display option.
(a) JPEG
(b) GIF
(c) PNG
(d) TIFF
Answer:
(c) PNG

Question 70.
Which format works good with online viewing applications like www?
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) PNG

Question 71.
Identify which is not an image format.
(a) PNG
(b) TIFF
(c) TGA
(d) OGG
Answer:
(d) OGG

Question 72.
Identify the wrongly matched pair from the following.
(a) OGG – (i) Audio
(b) MPEG – (ii) Video
(c) MIDI- (iii) Text
(d) TGA – (iv) image
(a) (iii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(a) OGG – (i) Audio

Question 73.
Identify which is not an Digital Audio File Format.
(a) OGG
(b) AVI
(c) AIFF
(d) WMA
Answer:
(b) AVI

Question 74.
Which format is most popular for storing and downloading music?
(a) MP3
(b) MPEG
(c) JPEG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) MP3

Question 75.
…………………………… format stores uncompressed sound files.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) AIFF
Answer:
(a) WAV

Question 76.
Which files are compressed to onw-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file?
(a) WAV
(b) OGG
(c) WMA
(d) MP3
Answer:
(d) MP3

Question 77.
AIFF was developed by …………………………
(a) Microsoft
(b) Apple
(c) IBM
(d) Flash
Answer:
(b) Apple

Question 78.
……………………….. is a free, open source container format.
(a) WAV
(b) MP3
(c) OGG
(d) WMA
Answer:
(c) OGG

Question 79.
Expand DRM.
(a) Digi Read Memory
(b) Digital Rich MP3
(c) Data Read Memory
(d) Digital Right Management
Answer:
(d) Digital Right Management

Question 80.
Which digital Audio format is designed with DRM facility?
(a) WMA
(b) TIFF
(c) OGG
(d) MP3
Answer:
(a) WMA

Question 81.
Identify the format which is not developed by Microsoft?
(a) AVI
(b) WMA
(c) AIFF
(d) RTF
Answer:
(c) AIFF

Question 82.
Who developed WMA?
(a) Apple
(b) Microsoft
(c) Macromedia
(d) IBM
Answer:
(b) Microsoft

Question 83.
…………………………… abilities are provided in WMA format for copyright protection.
(a) DMA
(b) DRA
(c) DRM
(d) DMR
Answer:
(c) DRM

Question 84.
The sound and picture elements in AVI are stored in alternate …………………………… chunks in the file.
(a) interleaved
(b) interface
(c) interrupt
(d) interchange
Answer:
(a) interleaved

Question 85.
Multimedia Framework was started in the year ……………………………
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 86.
Find the pair wrongly matched.
(i) MPEG-2 – DVD, TV set top Boxes
(ii) MPEG-4 – Multimedia
(iii) MPEG-1 – Mobile
(iv) MPEG-7 -Video CD
(v) MPEG-21 – Multimedia Framework
(a) (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (v)
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (iii), (iv)

Question 87.
Which MPEG format is used for multimedia and mobile web?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-21
(c) MPEG-7
(d) MPEG-2
Answer:
(a) MPEG-4

Question 88.
………………………. is a standard format for generation digital video and audio compression under the ISO.
(a) AVI
(b) MP3
(c) JPEG
(d) MPEG
Answer:
(d) MPEG

Question 89.
Which format had research on “Multimedia Framework” in the year 2000?
(a) MPEG-4
(b) MPEG-2
(c) MPEG7
(d) MPEG-21
Answer:
(d) MPEG-21

Question 90.
How many steps are there in Multimedia production?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 91.
The first step in Multimedia production is ……………………………
(a) project design
(b) conceptual analysis
(c) planning
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(d) both b & c

Question 92.
The general statements in project design stage are termed as ……………………………
(a) goals
(b) objectives
(c) Aim
(d) planning
Answer:
(a) goals

Question 93.
The selection of fastest CPU, RAM and huge monitors, sufficient disc for storing comes under
(a) content definition
(b) RAM capacity
(c) structure preparing
(d) Hardware / Software selection
Answer:
(d) Hardware / Software selection

Question 94.
Find the correct statement from the following
(i) Start / end time of each activity are defined in preparing the structure stage.
(ii) A pilot project will be ready in the production stage.
(iii) Suggestions and comments are given in the documentation phase.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) (ii) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

Question 95.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia applications through internet.
(a) Bandwidth
(b) Plugins
(c) Downloading time
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 96.
Which software is used to incorporate the text in the production stage?
(a) Light pen
(b) Scanner
(c) OCR
(d) OMR
Answer:
(c) OCR

Question 97.
Identify which is not a browser?
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) Trash
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Google Chrome
Answer:
(b) Trash

Question 98.
Arrange the options given below in the proper order.
(i) Budgeting
(ii) project design
(iii) Documentation
(iv) Hardware / software selection
(v) Testing
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(c) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii)
Answer:
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (iii)

Question 99.
Copyright issues are considered in the …………………………… phase.
(a) conceptual analysis and planning
(b) project design
(c) pre-production
(d) Budgeting
Answer:
(a) conceptual analysis and planning

Question 100.
How many members are there in multimedia production team?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer:
(b) 9

Question 101.
The production manager should not be an expertise in ……………………………
(a) technology
(b) proposal writing
(c) communication
(d) Text Narration
Answer:
(d) Text Narration

Question 102.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) The text should always be structured
(b) The text should be grammatically correct
(c) The text must flow logically
(d) All the above statements are correct
Answer:
(d) All the above statements are correct

Question 103.
The multimedia presentation is converted into a web page by
(a) computer programmer
(b) web master
(c) graphic artist
(d) multimedia architect
Answer:
(b) web master

Question 104.
…………………………… represents a linear sequence of events.
(a) video
(b) film scripts
(c) Text
(d) a & b
Answer:
(d) a & b

Question 105.
Who plays a vital role in dealing with backgrounds, bullets, buttons, pictures editing, 3D objects, animations, logos of the programs.
(a) Multimedia Architect
(b) Web Master
(c) Computer Graphic Artist
(d) Video Specialist
Answer:
(c) Computer Graphic Artist

Question 106.
Identify the person who is not a member of Multimedia Production team.
(a) Content specialist
(b) Program debugger
(c) Script writer
(d) Text Editor
Answer:
(b) Program debugger

Question 107.
How many million consumers uses Internet, radio and video services every month?
(a) 55
(b) 45
(c) 65
(d) 75
Answer:
(a) 55

Question 108.
…………………………… is a multimedia based teaching and learning system at GMU in Germany to provide decentralized learning environment to the students.
(a) MODULO
(b) MODULES
(c) MODE
(d) MODEL
Answer:
(a) MODULO

Question 109.
…………………………… is an Education satellite launched in India to provide virtual classrooms.
(a) EDSAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) E-SAT
(d) E SATELLITE
Answer:
(b) EDUSAT

Question 110.
……………………………. conferencing is a system that performs face to face interactions for the users.
(a) Multimedia
(b) Video
(c) Audio
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(d) Both a and b

Question 111.
…………………………… is a free standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen.
(a) Kiosk
(b) Helpdesk
(c) Customer care
(d) ATM
Answer:
(a) Kiosk

Question 112.
Banks uses Kiosks in the form of
(a) Cash
(b) Finance
(c) Credit Cards
(d) ATM
Answer:
(d) ATM

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of vector images?
Answer:
Relatively small amount of data is required to represent the image and thereby only less memory is needed to store.

Question 2.
Define compression?
Answer:
Compression is a technique used to reduce the file size of images that is useful for storing large number of images and speeding transmission for networked applications.

Question 3.
Mention some compression formats?
Answer:

1. GIF – Graphics Interface Format
2. TIFF – Tagged Image File Format
3. JPEG – Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 4.
Define frame Animation?
Answer:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

Question 5.
Define sampling rate?
Answer:
Sampling rate is defined as how often the samples are taken and how many numbers are used to represent the value of each sample (bit depth, resolution and sample size).

Question 6.
Write note on MIDI?
Answer:
Musical Instrument Digital Identifier (MIDI) is a standard communication tool developed for computers and electronic instruments. This tool is flexible and easy for composing the projects in multimedia. Tools for synthesizing the sound and software for sequencing are necessary for MIDI.

Question 7.
Classify video?
Answer:
The video can be categorized into two types as:
Analog video and Digital video

Question 8.
Classify Analog video?
Answer:
Analog Video’s are classified as

1. composite Analog video
2. component Analog video

Question 9.
Write note on RTF text format?
Answer:
Rich Text Format is the primary file format introduced in 1987 by Microsoft with the specification of their published products and for cross-platform documents interchange.

Question 10.
Mention some text editors?
Answer:
Notepad (Windows), Gedit or nano (Unix, Linux), TextEdit (Mac OS X)

Question 11.
Compare BMP and DIB?
Answer:
DIB is similar to BMP. It allows the files to be displayed on a variety of devices.

Question 12.
Write note on Tagra?
Answer:
It is the first popular format for high-resolution images. TGA is supported by Most of the video-capture boards.

Question 13.
Write note on MP3 format?
Answer:
MPEG Layer-3 format is the most popular format for storing and downloading music. The MP3 files are roughly compressed to one-tenth the size of an equivalent WAV file.

Question 14.
Write note on WMA?
Answer:
It is a popular windows media audio format owned by Microsoft and designed with Digital Right Management (DRM) abilities for copyright protection.

Question 15.
Write note on RA Format?
Answer:
Real Audio format is designed for streaming audio over the Internet. The digital audio resources are usually stored as a computer file in computer’s hard drive or CD/DVD.

Question 16.
What are the factors to be considered while delivering the multimedia product?
Answer:

1. Bandwidth issues.
2. Huge Number of Plugins required to play audio and video.
3. Long downloading time.

Question 17.
Name the various fields where multimedia plays a vital role?
Answer:
Education, Entertainment, Business Systems, Medical Services, Public Places and Multimedia Conferencing.

Question 18.
What is Kiosk?
Answer:
Kiosk is a free-standing furnished equipped multimedia computer that allow users to retrieve information via a touch screen. It is^ commonly used in airports and other public locations to provide directions and few mandatory information’s.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Define path animation?
Answer:
Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e.g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

Question 2.
Define composite Analog video? Mention same characteristics of composite Analog video?
Answer:
Composite Analog Video has all the video components like brightness, color, and synchronization combined into one signal. Due to the combining of the video components, the quality of the composite video resulted in color blending, low clarity and high generational loss.

Question 3.
Write note on TIFF?
Answer:
TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) is common in desktop publishing world (high quality output), and is supported by almost all software packages. Recent versions of TIFF allows image compression, and the format is comfortable for moving large files between computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate GIF and JPEG?
Ans
GIF:

1. It is lossless format
2. It is limited to 8 bit palette
3. Size of GIF is more
4. Good for animation works

JPEG:

1. It uses lossy format
2. It allows multiple colors
3. It is lesser
4. Good for photographs

Question 5.
Explain PNG format?
Answer:
An extensible file format for the less loss, portable and well compressed storage of raster images. PNG acts as replacement for GIF and also replaces multiple common uses of TIFF. PNG works good with online viewing applications like world wide web. so it is fully streameable with a best display option.

Question 6.
Write note on MPEG?
Answer:
MPEG is a standard for generating digital video and audio compression under the International Standards Organization (ISO) by the group of people. The group has developed MPEG-1, the standard on which Video CD and MP3 are based, MPEG-2, the standard that supports products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD, MPEG-4, the standard for multimedia and mobile web. MPEG-7, the standard for search of audio and visual content. Research on , MPEG-21 “Multimedia Framework” has started in 2000. Simply MPEG is the standards for digital video and audio compression.

Question 7.
List out the steps in Multimedia Production?
Answer:
Conceptual Analysis and Planning, Project design, Pre-production, Budgeting, Multimedia Production Team, Hardware/Software Selection, Defining the Content, Preparing the structure, Production, Testing, Documentation and Delivering the Multimedia Product.

Question 8.
What is meant by digital library?
Answer:
Information’s are available in digital formats It include digital books, scanned images, graphics and digitized audio-visual clips etc. digital library projects were based on textual data, images, audio and video recordings were also integrated under the collection of digital library.

IV. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain various components of Multimedia?
Answer:
Multimedia has five major components like text, images, sound, video and animation. They are explained in detail below:
1. Text:
is the basic components of multimedia and most common ways of communicating information to other person. Static text, the text or the words will remain static as a heading or in a line, or in a paragraph. A hypertext is a system which consists of nodes, the text and the links between the nodes, which defines the paths the user need to follow for the text access in non-sequential ways.

2. Images:
acts as an vital component in multimedia. These images are generated by the computer in two ways, as bitmap or raster images and as vector images. Raster or Bitmap Images: The common and comprehensive form of storing images in a computer is raster or bitmap image.

3. Vector images:
Drawing elements or objects such as lines, rectangles, circles and so on to create an images are based on Vector images.

Animation is the process displaying still images so quickly so that they give the impression of continuous movement. Path animation involves moving an object on a screen that has a constant background e g. a cartoon character may move across the screen regardless of any change in the background or the character.

4. Frame animation:
In frame animations, multiple objects are allowed to travel simultaneously and the background or the objects also changes.

5. Sound:
is a meaningful speech in any language and is the most serious element in multimedia, providing the pleasure of music, special effects and so on.

6. Video:
is defined as the display of recorded event, scene etc. The powerful way to convey information in multimedia applications are embedding of video. The video can be categorized in two types as Analog video and Digital video.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Real Numbers Ex 2.6

Ex 2.6 Class 9 Question 1.
Simplify the following using addition and subtraction properties of surds:
(i) 5\(\sqrt { 3 }\) + 18\(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 2\(\sqrt{3}\)
(ii) 4\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 2 ]{ 5 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\)
(iii) 3\(\sqrt { 75 }\) + 5\(\sqrt { 48 }\) – \(\sqrt { 243 }\)
(iv) 5\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 40 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 625 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 320 }\)
Solution:
(i) 5\(\sqrt { 3 }\) + 18\(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 2\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = (5 + 18 – 2)\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 21\(\sqrt { 3 }\)
(ii) 4\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 2 ]{ 5 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) = (4 + 2 – 3)\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) = 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\)
(iii) 3\(\sqrt { 75 }\) + 5\(\sqrt { 48 }\) – \(\sqrt { 243 }\)

(iv) 5\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 40 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 625 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 320 }\)

2.6 9th Class Math Question 2.
Simplify the following using multiplication and division properties of surds :
(i) \(\sqrt{3} \times \sqrt{5} \times \sqrt{2}\)
(ii) \(\sqrt { 35 }\) ÷ \(\sqrt { 7 }\)
(iii) \( \sqrt[3]{27} \times \sqrt[3]{8} \times \sqrt[3]{125}\)
(iv) (7\(\sqrt { a }\) – 5\(\sqrt { b }\))(7\(\sqrt { a }\) + 5\(\sqrt { b }\))
(v) \([\sqrt{\frac{225}{729}}-\sqrt{\frac{25}{144}}] \div \sqrt{\frac{16}{81}}\)
Solution:

Maths Class 9 Exercise 2.6 Solutions Question 3.
If \(\sqrt { 7 }\) =1.414, \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.732, \(\sqrt { 5 }\) = 2.236, \(\sqrt { 10 }\) = 3.162, then find the values of the following correct to 3 places of decimals.
(i) \(\sqrt{40}-\sqrt{20}\)
(ii) \(\sqrt{300}+\sqrt{90}-\sqrt{8}\)
Solution:

9th Class Maths Exercise 2.6 Solution Question 4.
Arrange surds in descending order :
(i) \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\)
(ii) \(\sqrt[2]{\sqrt[3]{5}}, \sqrt[3]{\sqrt[4]{7}}, \sqrt{\sqrt{3}}\)
Solution:
(i) \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\)
5^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)}
∴ The order of the surds \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\) are 3, 9, 6.
4^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\)}
3^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)} l.c.m of 3, 9, 6 is 18

∴ The descending order of \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\) is \((15625)^{\frac{1}{18}}>(27)^ {\frac{1}{18}} >16^{\frac{1}{18}} \text { i.e. } \sqrt[3]{5}>\sqrt[6]{3}>\sqrt[9]{4}\)

(ii) \(\sqrt[2]{\sqrt[3]{5}}, \sqrt[3]{\sqrt[4]{7}}, \sqrt{\sqrt{3}}\)
The order of the surds \(\sqrt[2]{\sqrt[3]{5}}, \sqrt[3]{\sqrt[4]{7}}, \sqrt{\sqrt{3}}\) are 6, 12, 4
l.c.m of 6, 12, 4 is 12

Class 9 Maths Ex 2.6 Solution Question 5.
Can you get a pure surd when you find
(i) the sum of two surds
(ii) the difference of two surds
(iii) the product of two surds
(iv) the quotient of two surds
Justify each answer with an example.
Solution:

Exercise 2.6 Class 9 Maths Question 6.
Can you get a rational number when you compute
(i) the sum of two surds
(ii) the difference of two surds
(iii) the product of two surds
(iv) the quotient of two surds
Justify each answer with an example.
Solution:
(i) Yes (5 – \(\sqrt{3}\)) + (5 + \(\sqrt{3}\)) = 10, a rational number
(ii) Yes \((5+\sqrt[3]{7})-(-6+\sqrt[3]{7})=11\), a rational number
(iii) Yes (5 + \(\sqrt{3}\) ) (5 – \(\sqrt{3}\) ) = 25 – 3 = 22, a rational number
(iv) Yes \(\frac{5 \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}=5\) ,a rational number

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Real Numbers Ex 2.1

9th Maths Exercise 2.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Which arrow best shows the position of \(\frac { 11 }{ 3 }\) on the number line?

Solution:
\(\frac { 11 }{ 3 }\) = 3.666….. = 3.7 (nearly)
∴ D arrow best shows the position of \(\frac { 11 }{ 3 }\) on the number line.

9th Maths Real Numbers Exercise 2.1 Question 2.
Find any three rational numbers between \(\frac { -7 }{ 11 }\) and \(\frac { 2 }{ 11 }\).
Solution:
Three rational numbers between \(\frac { -7 }{ 11 }\) and \(\frac { 2 }{ 11 }\) are \(\frac { -6 }{ 11 }\), \(\frac { -5 }{ 11 }\), \(\frac { -4 }{ 11 }\), ……, \(\frac { -1 }{ 11 }\)

9th Maths Exercise 2.1 Question 3.
Find any five rational numbers between
(i) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) and \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)
(ii) 0.1 and 0.11
(iii) -1 and -2
Solution:
(i) a = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\), b = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)
Let q₁, q₂, q₃, q₄ and q₅ be five rational numbers, q₁ = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(a + b)

(ii) The rational numbers between 0.1 and 0.11 are 0.101, 0.102, 0.103, …..0.109.
(iii) -1 and -2
Let q₁, q₂, q₃, q₄ and q₅ be five rational numbers.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4

11th Maths Exercise 2.4 Solutions Question 1.
Construct a quadratic equation with roots 7 and -3.
Solution:
The given roots are 7 and -3
Let α = 7 and β = -3
α + β = 7 – 3 = 4
αβ = (7)(-3) = -21
The quadratic equation with roots α and β is x² – (α + β) x + αβ = 0
So the required quadratic equation is
x² – (4) x + (-21) = 0
(i.e.,) x² – 4x – 21 = 0

11th Maths Exercise 2.4 Question 2.
A quadratic polynomial has one of its zeros 1 + \(\sqrt{5}\) and it satisfies p(1) = 2. Find the quadratic polynomial.
Solution:
Given α = 1 + \(\sqrt{5}\) So, β = 1 – \(\sqrt{5}\)

The quadratic polynomial is
p(x) = x² – (α + β)x + αβ
p(x) = k (x² – 2x – 4)
p( 1) = k(1 – 2 – 4) = -5 k
Given p (1) = 2

Exercise 2.4 Class 11 Maths Question 3.
If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation x² + \(\sqrt{2}\)x + 3 = 0, form a quadratic polynomial with zeroes 1/α, 1/β.
Solution:
α and β are the roots of the equation x² + \(\sqrt{2}\)x + 3 = 0

11th Maths Exercise 2.4 Answers Question 4.
If one root of k(x – 1)² = 5x – 7 is double the other root, show that k = 2 or – 25.
Solution:
k(x – 1)² = 5x – 7
(i.e.,) k(x² – 2x + 1) – 5x + 7 = 0
x² (k) + x(-2k – 5) + k + 1 = 0
kx² – x(2k + 5) + (k + 7) = 0
Here it is given that one root is double the other.
So let the roots to α and 2α

2(4k² + 25 + 20k) = 9k (k + 7)
2(4k² + 25 + 20k) = 9k² + 63k
8k² + 50 + 40k – 9k² – 63k = 0
-k² – 23k + 50 = 0
k² + 23k – 5o = 0
(k + 25)(k – 2) = 0
k = -25 or 2

Exercise 2.4 Class 11 Question 5.
If the difference of the roots of the equation 2x² – (a + 1)x + a – 1 = 0 is equal to their product then prove that a = 2.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solution Question 6.
Find the condition that one of the roots of ax² + bx + c may be
(i) negative of the other
(ii) thrice the other
(iii) reciprocal of the other.
Solution:
(i) Let the roots be α and -β
Sum of the roots = – b/a = 0 ⇒ b = 0

(ii) Let the roots be α, 3α

Samacheer Kalvi 11 Maths Solutions Question 7.
If the equations x² – ax + b = 0 and x² – ex + f = 0 have one root in common and if the second equation has equal roots that ae = 2(b + f).
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Maths Question 8.
Discuss the nature of roots of
(i) -x² + 3x + 1 = 0
(ii) 4x² – x – 2 = 0
(iii) 9x² + 5x = 0
Solution:
(i) -x² + 3x + 1 = 0
⇒ comparing with ax² + bx + c = 0
∆ = b² – 4ac = (3)² – 4(1)(-1) = 9 + 4 = 13 > 0
⇒ The roots are real and distinct

(ii) 4x² – x – 2 = 0
a = 4, b = -1, c = -2
∆ = b² – 4ac = (-1)² – 4(4)(-2) = 1 + 32 = 33 >0
⇒ The roots are real and distinct

(iii) 9x² + 5x = 0
a = 9, b = 5, c = 0
∆ = b² – 4ac = 5² – 4(9)(0) = 25 > 0
⇒ The roots are real and distinct

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Question 9.
Without sketching the graphs find whether the graphs of the following functions will intersect the x- axis and if so in how many points.
(i) y = x² + x + 2
(ii) y = x² – 3x – 1
(iii) y = x² + 6x + 9
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Class 11 Maths Solutions Question 10.
Write f(x) = x² + 5x + 4 in completed square form.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.4 Additional Questions

11th Maths Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the values of k so that the equation x² = 2x (1 + 3k) + 7(3 + 2k) = 0 has real and equal roots.
Solution:
The equation is x² – x(2) (1 + 3k) + 7 (3 + 2&) = 0
The roots are real and equal
⇒ ∆ = 0 (i.e.,) b² – 4ac = 0
Here a = 1, b = -2 (1 + 3k), c = 7(3 + 2k)
So b² – 4ac = 0 ⇒ [-2 (1 + 3k)]² – 4(1) (7) (3 + 2k) = 0
(i.e.,) 4 (1 + 3k)² – 28 (3 + 2k) = 0
(÷ by 4) (1 + 3k)² – 7(3 + 2k) = 0
1 + 9k² + 6k – 21 – 14k = 0
9k² – 8k – 20 = 0
(k – 2)(9k + 10) = 0

To solve the quadratic inequalities ax² + bx + c < 0 (or) ax² + bx + c > 0

11th Maths Samacheer Kalvi Solutions Question 2.
If the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation ax² – 5x + c = 0 are both equal to 10 then find the values of a and c.
Solution:
The given equation is ax² – 5x + c = 0
Let the roots be α and β Given α + β = 10 and αβ = 10

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Question 3.
If α and β are the roots of the equation 3x² – 4x + 1 = 0, form the equation whose roots are \(\frac{\alpha^{2}}{\beta}\) and \(\frac{\beta^{2}}{\alpha}\)
Solution:

11th Maths Chapter 2 Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
If one root of the equation 3x² + kx – 81 = 0 is the square of the other then find k.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Maths Solution Question 5.
If one root of the equation 2x² – ax + 64 = 0 is twice that of the other then find the value of a
Solution:

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 5.1 திருக்கேதாரம் Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 5.1 திருக்கேதாரம்

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
தேவாரம் பாடிய மூவர் பற்றிய செய்திகளைத் திரட்டுக.
Answer:
திருஞானசம்பந்தர் :

• இயற்பெயர் – ஆளுடைய பிள்ளை
• பெற்றோர் – சிவபாத இருதயர், பகவதி அம்மையார்.
• ஊர் – சீர்காழி

தேவாரத்தின் முதல் நூலைப் பாடியவர். பன்னிரு திருமுறைகளில் ஒன்று, இரண்டு மற்றும் மூன்றாம் திருமுறை இவர் பாடியவை.

சிறு வயதில் மூன்று வயதுவரை பேசாதிருந்தார். உமையம்மை கொடுத்த ஞானப்பாலை உண்ணும்போது தோடுடைய செவியன் எனும் முதல் பாடலைப் பாடினார்.

திருநாவுக்கரசர் :

• இயற்பெயர் – மருள்நீக்கியார்
• சிறப்புப் பெயர்கள் – திருநாவுக்கரசர், வாகீசர், அப்பர், ஆளுடைய அரசு, தாண்டக வேந்தர், தருமசேனர்
• பெற்றோர் – புகழனார், மாதினியார்.
• தமக்கை – திலகவதியார்
• பிறந்த ஊர் – திருவாமூர்

இவர் பாடிய பாடல்கள் பன்னிரு திருமுறைகளுள் 4, 5, 6 ஆம் திருமுறைகளாகத் தொகுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன.

சுந்தரர் :

• பிறந்த ஊர் – திருநாவலூர்
• பெற்றோர் – சடையனார், இசைஞானியார்.
• இயற்பெயர் – நம்பியாரூரர்
• சிறப்புப் பெயர்கள் – வன்தொண்டர், தம்பிரான் தோழர்.

இவருடைய பாடல்கள் ஏழாம் திருமுறையாகப் பன்னிரு திருமுறைகளுள் வைக்கப் பட்டுள்ளன.

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
காட்டிலிருந்து வந்த …………………… கரும்பைத் தின்றன.
அ) முகில்கள்
ஆ) முழவுகள்
இ) வேழங்கள்
ஈ) வேய்கள்
Answer:
இ) வேழங்கள்

Question 2.
‘கனகச்சுனை’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ………………………..
அ) கனகச் + சுனை
ஆ) கனக + சுனை
இ) கனகம் + சுனை
ஈ) கனம் + சுனை
Answer:
இ) கனகம் + சுனை

Question 3.
முழவு + அதிர என்பதனைச் சேர்த்தெழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல் …………………….
அ) முழவுதிர
ஆ) முழவுதிரை
இ) முழவதிர
ஈ) முழவு அதிர
Answer:
இ) முழவதிர

குறுவினா

Question 1.
தமிழ் இசையோடு இணைந்து இசைக்கும் இசைக்கருவிகளாகச் சுந்தரர் கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:
புல்லாங்குழல் மற்றும் முழவு ஆகியவற்றைத் தமிழ் இசையோடு இணைந்து இசைக்கும் இசைக் கருவிகளாகச் சுந்தரர் கூறுகின்றார்.

சிறு வினா

Question 1.
திருக்கேதாரத்தைச் சுந்தரர் எவ்வாறு வருணனை செய்கிறார்?
Answer:

• பண்ணோடு சேர்ந்த இனிய தமிழ்ப் பாடல்களைப் பாடும் போது, அதற்கு ஏற்றவாறு முதிர்ந்த மூங்கில்களால் ஆன புல்லாங்குழலும் முழவும் இணைந்து ஒலிக்கும்.
• கண்களுக்கு இனிய குளிர்ச்சிதரும் ஒளியை உடைய பொன் வண்ண நீர் நிலைகள் வைரங்களைப் போன்ற நீர்த் திவலைகளை வாரி இறைக்கும்.
• நிலத்தின் மீது நின்று கொண்டிருக்கும் மத யானைகள் மணிகளை வாரி வாரி வீசும். இவற்றால் இடையறாது தோன்றும் ‘கிண்’ என்னும் ஒலியானது இசையாக முழங்கும்.
• இத்தகைய சிறப்புகள் உடைய நகரம் திருக்கேதாரம் என்று சுந்தரர் வருணனை செய்கிறார்.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
விழாக்களின்போது இசைக்கருவிகளை இசைக்கும் வழக்கம் எவ்வாறு தோன்றியிருக்கும்
Answer:
என எழுதுக.
திருவிழாக் கூட்டத்தில் இரைச்சலைக் குறைக்கவும், திருவிழா நிகழ்வு நடக்கப் போகிறது என்பதை அறிவிக்கவும், இசைக்கு மயங்காத உயிர்கள் இல்லை. அந்த உயிர்களைப் படைத்த இறைவன் இசையை விரும்புவான். அதனால் விழாக்களின்போது இசைக்கருவிகள் இசைக்கும் வழக்கம் ஏற்பட்டிருக்கலாம்.

இசைக்கருவிகளை இசைக்கும் போது உணர்ச்சிப் பெருக்கும், பக்திப்பெருக்கும் ஏற்படுவதாலும் விழாக்களின் போது இசைக் கருவிகளை இசைக்கும் வழக்கம் தோன்றியிருக்கும்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
‘நம்பியாரூரர், தம்பிரான் தோழர்’ என்னும் சிறப்புப் பெயர்களால் அழைக்கப்பட்டவர்
அ) சுந்தரர்
ஆ) திருநாவுக்கரசர்
இ) மாணிக்கவாசகர்
ஈ) திருஞானசம்பந்தரர்
Answer:
அ) சுந்தரர்

Question 2.
தேவாரத்தைத் தொகுத்தவர் ……………………
அ) நம்பியாண்டார் நம்பி
ஆ) திருநாவுக்கரசர்
இ) சுந்தரர்
ஈ) திருஞானசம்பந்தர்
Answer:
அ) நம்பியாண்டார் நம்பி

Question 3.
பன்னிரு திருமுறைகளுள் ஏழாம் திருமுறையை இயற்றியவர் ……………………..
அ) திருஞானசம்பந்தர்
ஆ) சுந்த ரர்
இ) சேக்கிழார்
ஈ) நம்பியாண்டார் நம்பி
Answer:
ஆ) சுந்தரர்

Question 4.
‘திருக்கேதாரம்’ எனும் தலைப்பில் அமைந்த கவிதைப் பேழை பாடலை இயற்றியவர்
அ) நம்பியாண்டார் நம்பி
ஆ) சேக்கிழார்
இ) சுந்தரர்
ஈ) திருநாவுக்கரசர்
Answer:
இ) சுந்தரர்

Question 5.
பதிகம் என்பது ……………………. பாடல்களைக் கொண்டது.
அ) ஆறு
ஆ) நூறு
இ) பத்து
ஈ) இருபது
Answer:
இ) பத்து

Question 6.
பொன் வண்ண நிறமாக இருந்தவையாகச் சுந்தரர் குறிப்பிடுவன …………………….
அ) நீர்த்திவலைகள்
ஆ) நீர்நிலைகள்
இ) மணல்
ஈ) புல்லாங்குழல்
Answer:
ஆ) நீர்நிலைகள்

Question 7.
வைரங்களைப் போல இருந்தவையாகத் திருக்கேதாரம் குறிப்பிடுவன …………………
அ) புல்லாங்குழல்
ஆ) முழவு
இ) நீர்த்திவலைகள்
ஈ) நீர்நிலைகள்
Answer:
இ) நீர்த்திவலைகள்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
தேவாரம் பாடிய மூவர் யார்?
Answer:
திருஞானசம்பந்தர், திருநாவுக்கரசர், சுந்தரர்.

Question 2.
தேவாரம் பெயர்க்காரணம் கூறுக.
Answer:

• இறைவனுக்குச் சூட்டப்படும் மாலை (தே + ஆரம்)
• இனிய இசை பொருந்திய பாடல் (தே + வாரம்)

Question 3.
கண்ணுக்குக் குளிர்ச்சி தருபவை என்று சுந்தரர் எவற்றைக் குறிப்பிடுகிறார்?
Answer:
பொன் வண்ண நீர்நிலைகள் கண்களுக்கு இனிய குளிர்ச்சி தரும் என்று சுந்தரர் குறிப்பிடுகிறார்.

Question 4.
நீர் நிலைகள் மற்றும் நீர்த் திவலைகள் ஆகியவற்றிற்குக் கூறப்பட்ட உவமை யாது?
Answer:

• நீர் நிலைகள் – பொன்வண்ணம்
• நீர்த்திவலைகள் – வைரம்

Question 5.
மத யானைகளின் செயல்களாகச் சுந்தரர் குறிப்பிடுவன யாவை?
Answer:
நிலத்தின் மீது நின்று கொண்டிருக்கும் மத யானைகள் மணிகளை வாரி வாரி வீசும் என்று சுந்தரர் குறிப்பிடுகிறார்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
சுந்தரர் குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:
தேவாரம் பாடிய மூவரில் ஒருவர்.
சிறப்பு பெயர் : நம்பியாரூரர், தம்பிரான் தோழர்.
படைப்புகள் : பன்னிரு திருமுறைகளுள் ஏழாம் திருமுறை.

சொல்லும் பொருளும்

பண் – இசை
கனகச்சுனை – பொன் வண்ண நீர்நிலை
மதவேழங்கள் – மத யானைகள்
முரலும் – முழங்கும்
பழவெய் – முதிர்ந்த மூங்கில்

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.4 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.4

8th Standard Maths Exercise 3.4 Question 1.
Factorise the following by taking out the common factor
(i) 18xy – 12yz
(ii) 9x⁵y³ + 6x³y² – 18x²y
(iii) x(b – 2c) + y(b – 2c)
(iv) (ax + ay) + (bx + by)
(v) 2x²(4x – 1) – 4x + 1
(vi) 3y(x – 2)² – 2(2 – x)
(vii) 6xy – 4y² + 12xy – 2yzx
(viii) a³ – 3a² + a – 3
(ix) 3y³ – 48y
(x) ab² – bc² – ab + c²
Solution:
(i) 18xy – 12yz = (2 × 3 × 3 × y × x) – (2 × 2 × 3 × y × z)
Taking out the common factors 2, 3, y, we get
= 2 × 3 × y (3x – 2z) = 6y (3x- 2z)

i) 9x⁵y³ + 6x³y² – 18x²y = (3 × 3 × x² × x³ × y × y²) + (2 × 3 × x² × x × y × y)
Taking out the common factors 3, x², y, we get
= 3 × x² × y (3x³ y² + 2xy – 6)
= 3x²y (3x³ y² + 2xy – 6)

(iii) x(b – 2c) + y(b – 2c)
Taking out the binomial factor (b – 2c) from each term, we have
= (b – 2c)(x + y)

(iv) (ax + ay) + (bx + by)
Taking at ‘a’ from the first term and ‘b’ from the second term we have
(ax + ay) + (bx + by) = a (x + y) + b (x + y)
Now taking out the binomial factor (x + y) from each term
= (x + y)(a + b)

(v) 2x²(4x – 1) – 4x + 1
Taking out -1 from last two terms
2x² (4x – 1) – 4x + 1 = 2x² (4x – 1) – 1 (4x- 1)
Taking out the binomial factor 4x – 1, we get
= (4x – 1)(2x² – 1)

(vi) 3y(x – 2)² – 2(2 – x)
3y(x – 2)² – 2(2 – x) = 3y(x – 2)(x – 2)-2(-1) (x – 2) [∵ Taking out -1 from 2 – x]
= 3y (x – 2) (x – 2) + 2 (x – 2)
Taking out the binomial factor x – 2 from each term, we get
= (x – 2) [3y (x – 2) + 2]

(vii) 6xy – 4y² + 12xy – 2yzx
= 6xy + 12xy – 4y² – 2yzx [∵ Addition is commutative]
= (6 × x × y) + (2 × 6 × x × y) + (-1) (2) (2) y + y) + ((-1) (2) (y) (z) (x))
Taking out 6 × x × y from first two terms and (-1) × 2 × y from last two terms we get
= 6 × x × y(1 + 2) + (-1)(2)y[2y + zx]
= 6xy (3) -2y(2y + zx)
= (2 × 3 × 3 × x × y) – 2xy (2y + zx)
Taking out 2y from two terms
= 2y (9x – (2y + zx)) = 2y (9x – 2y – xz)

(viii) a² – 3a² + a – 3 = a² (a – 3) + 1 (a – 3) [∵ Grouping the terms suitably]
= (a – 3) (a² + 1)

(ix) 3y² – 48y = 3 × y × y² – 3 × 16 × y
Taking out 3 × y = 3y (y² – 16) = 3y (y² – 4²)
Comparing y² – 4² with a² – b²
a = y, b = 4
a² – b² = (a + b) (a – b)
y² – 4² = (y + 4) (y – 4)
∴ 3y (y² – 16) = 3y (y + 4) (y – 4)

(x) ab² – bc² – ab + c²
Grouping suitably
ab² – bc² – ab + c² = b ((ab – c²) – 1(ab – c²)
Taking out the binomial factor ab – c² = (ab – c²) (b – 1)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Maths Question 2.
Factorise the following expressions
(i) x² + 14x + 49
(ii) y² – 10y + 25
(iii) c² – 4c – 12
(iv) m² + m – 72
(v) 4x² – 8x + 3
Solution:
x² + 14x + 49 = x² + 14x + 72
Comparing with a² + 2ab + b² = (a + b)² we have a = x and b = 7
⇒ x² + 2(x) (7) + 7² = (x + 7)²
∴ x² + 14x + 49 = (x + 7)²

(ii) y² – 10y + 25 = y² – 10y + 5²
Comparing with a² – 2ab + b² = (a – b)² we get a = y ; b = 5
⇒ y² – 2(y) (5) + 5² = (y – 5)²
∴ y² – 10y + 25 = (y – 5)²

(iii) c² – 4c – 12
This is of the form ax² + bx + c
Where a = 1,b = – 4 c = – 12, x = c
Now the product ac = 1 × – 12 = – 12 and the sum b = -4

(iv) m² + m – 72

This is of the form ax² + bx + c
where a = 1, b = 1, c = -12
Product a × c = 1 × -72 = -72
Sum b = 1
The middle term m can be written as 9m – 8m
m² + m – 72 = m² + 9m – 8m – 12
= m (m + 9) – 8 (m + 9)
Taking out (m + 9)
= (m + 9) (m – 8)
∴ m² + m – 72 = (m + 9) (m – 8)

(v) 4x² – 8x + 3
This is of the form ax² + bx + c with a = 4 b = -8 c = 3
Product ac = 4 × 3 = 12
Sum b = -8

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Maths 8th Question 3.
Factorize the following expressions using a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² – ab + b²) identity
(i) h³ + k²
(ii) 2a³ + 16
(iii) x³y³ + 27
(iv) 64m³ + n³
(v) r⁴ + 27p³r
Solution:
(i) h³ + k³
Comparing h³ + k³ with a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² – ab + b²) we have a = h, b = k
∴ h³ + k³ = (h + k)(h² – hk + k²)

(ii) 2a² + 16
(2 × a³) + (2 × 8) = 2(a³ + 8) = 2 (a³ + 2³)
∴ 2a³ + 16 = 2 (a³ + 2³)
Comparing with a³ + b³ we have a = a and b = 2
a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² – ab + b²)
2(a³ + 2³) = 2[(a + 2) (a² – (a) (2) + 2²)] = 2[(a + 2) (a² – 2a + 4)]
2a³ +16 = 2 (a + 2) (a² – 2a + 4)

(iii) x³ y³ + 27 = (xy)³ + 3³
Comparing with a³ + b³ we have a = xy ;b = 3
a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² – ab + b²)
(xy)³ + 3³ = (xy + 3) ((xy)² – (xy) (3) + 3²) = (xy + 3) (x²y² – 3xy + 9)
∴ x³y³ + 27 = (xy + 3)(x²y² – 3xy + 9)

(iv) 64m³ + n³ = (4³m³) + n³
= (4m)³ + n³
Comparing this with a³ + b³ we have a = 4m; b = n
a³ + b³ = (a + b) (a² – ab + b²)
(4m)³ + n³ = (4m + n) [(4m)2 – (4m) (n) + n2]
= (4m + n) [4²m² – 4mn + n²]
= (4m + n) [ 16m² – 4mn + n²]
64m³ + n³ = (4m + n) (16m² – 4mn + n²)

(v) r³ + 27p³r = r (r³ + 27p³) = r [r³ + 3³p³]
Comparing r³ + (3p)³ with a³ + b³ we have a = r; b = 3p
a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² – ab + b²)
r[r³ + (3p)³] = r[(r + 3p)(r² – r(3p) + (3p)²)]
= r[(r+ 3p) (r² – 3rp + 3²p²]
= r(r + 3p) (r² – 3rp + 9p²)
r⁴ + 27p³r = r(r + 3p) (r² – 3rp + 9p²)

11th Maths Exercise 3.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Factorize the following expressions using a³ – b³ = (a – b)(a² + ab + b²) identity
(i) y³ – 27
(ii) 3b³ – 192c³
(iii) -16y³ + 2x³
(iv) x³ y³ – 7³
(v) c³ – 27b³ a³
Solution:
(i) y³ – 27 = y³ – 3³
Comparing this with a³ – b³ , we have a = y and b = 3
a³ – b³ = (a + b) (a² + ab + b² )
y³ – 3³ = (y – 3)(y² + (y) (3) + 3² ) = (y – 3) (y² + 3y + 9)
y³ – 27 = (y – 3) (y² + 3y + 9)

(ii) 3b³ + 192c³ = (3 × b³) – (3 × 4 × 4 × 4 × c³) = 3(b³ – 4³ c³)
= 3(b³ – (4c)³ )
Comparing b³ – (4c)³ with a³ – b³ we have a = b and b = 4c
a³ – b³ = (a – b) (a² + ab + b²)
3(b³ – (4c)³) = 3[(b – 4c)(b² + (b)(4c) + (4c)²)]
= 3[(b – 4c)(b² + 4bc + 4² c²)]
3b³ – 192c³ = 3 [(b – 4c) (b² + 4bc + 16c²)]

(iii) -16y³ + 2x³ = 2x³ – 16y³ [∵ Addition is commatative]
= 2(x³ – 8y³) = 2(x³ – 23y³)
= 2(x³ – (2y)³)
Comparing x³ – (2y)³ with a³ – b³ we have a = x and b = 2y
a³ – b³ = (a – b)(a² + ab + b²)
2[x³ – (2y)³] = 2[(x – 2y) (x² + (x) (2y) + (2y)²)]
= 2[(x – 2y) (x² + 2xy + 2² y²)]
-16y³ + 2x³ = 2[(x – 2y)(x² + 2xy + 4y²)]

(iv) x³y³ – 7³ = (xy)³ – 7³
Comparing with a³ – b³ we have a = xy and b = 7
a³ – b³ = (a – b)(a² + ab + b²)
(xy)³ – 7³ = (xy – 7) ((xy)² + (xy) (7) + 7²)
x³y³ – 7³ = (xy – 7) (x²y² + 7xy + 49)

(v) c³ – 27 b³ a³ = c³ – 3³b³ a³ = c³ – (3ba)³
Comparing this with a³ – b³ we have a = x and b = 3ba
a³ – b³ = (a – b)(a² + ab + b²)
∴ c³ – (3ba)³ = (c – 3ba) (c² + (c) (3ba) + (3ba)²)
= (c – 3ba) (c² + 3bac + 3² b²a²)
c³ – 27b³a³ = (c – 3ab) (c² + 3bac + 9a²b²)