Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Binomial Theorem, Sequences and Series Ex 5.1

11th Maths Exercise 5.1 Question 1.

Solution:


Similarly (a + b)⁴ = a⁴ + 4a³b + 6a²b² + 4ab³ + b⁴
∴ (a – b)⁴ + (a + b)⁴ = 2 [a⁴ + 6a²b² + b⁴]
Substituting the value of a and b we get

= 2[16x⁸ + 6(4x⁴)(9(1 – x²)) + 81(1 – x²)²]
= 2[16x⁸ + 216x⁴(1 – x²) + 81(1 – x²)²]
= 2[16x⁸ + 216x⁴ – 216x⁶ + 81 + 81x⁴ – 162x²]
= 2[16x⁸ – 216x⁶ + 297x⁴ – 162x² + 81]
= 32x⁸ – 432x⁶ + 594x⁴ – 324x² + 162

11th Maths Exercise 5.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Compute
(i) 102⁴
(ii) 99⁴
(iii) 9⁷
Solution:

(i) 102⁴ = (100 + 2)⁴ = (10² + 2)⁴

= 1(10⁸) + 4(10⁶)(2) + 6(10⁴)(4) + 4(10²)(8) + 16
= 100000000 + 8000000 + 240000 + 3200 + 16
= 108243216

(ii) 994 = (100 – 1)⁴ = (10² – 1)⁴

= 1(10⁸) + 4(10⁶)(-1) + 6 (10⁴)(1) + 4( 10⁴)(-1) + (-1)⁴
= 100000000 – 4000000 + 60000 – 400 + 1
= 100060001 – 4000400 = 96059601

(iii) 9⁷ = (10 – 1)⁷

= 1(10000000) + 7(1000000)(-1) + 21(100000)(1) + 35(10000)(-1) + 35(1000)(1) + 21(100)(-1) + 7(10)(1) + 1(-1)
= 10000000 – 7000000 + 2100000 – 350000 + 35000 – 2100 + 70 – 1
= 12135070 – 7352101 = 4782969

Sequences And Series Solutions Question 3.
Using binomial theorem, indicate which of the following two number is larger: (1.01)^1000000, 10000.
Solution:
(1.01)^1000000 = (1 + 0.01)^1000000

which is > 10000
So (1.01)^1000000 > 10000 (i.e.) (1.01)^1000000 is larger

11 Maths Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.

Solution:

To find coefficient of x¹⁵ we have to equate x power to 15
i.e. 20 – 5r = 15
20 – 15 = 5r ⇒ 5r = 5 ⇒ r = 5/5 = 1
So the coefficient of x¹⁵ is ¹⁰C₁ = 10

Ex 5.1 Class 11 Question 5.

Solution:

To find coefficient of x⁶
12 – 5r = 6
12 – 6 = 5r ⇒ 5r = 6 ⇒ r = 6/5 which is not an integer.
∴ There is no term involving x⁶.
To find coefficient of x²
12 – 5r = 2
5r = 12 – 2 = 10 ⇒ r = 2

Question 6.

Solution:

when multiplying these terms, we get x⁴ terms

∴ The co-eff of x⁴ is 26325

Ex 5.1 Class 11 Question 7.

Solution:

Chapter 5 Class 11 Maths Question 8.
Find the last two digits of the number 3⁶⁰⁰.
Solution:
3⁶⁰⁰ = 3^{2 × 300} = (9)300 = (10 – 1)³⁰⁰

All the terms except last term are ÷ by 100. So the last two digits will be 01.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Question 9.
If n is a positive integer, show that, 9^{n + 1} – 8n – 9 is always divisible by 64.
Solution:

∴ 9^{n + 1} – 8n – 9 = 64 [an integer]
⇒ 9^{n + 1} – 8n – 9 is divisible by 64

Class 11 Maths Binomial Theorem Question 10.
If n is an odd positive integer, prove that the coefficients of the middle terms in the expansion of (x + y)ⁿ are equal.
Solution:
Given n is odd. So let n = 2n + 1, where n is an integer.
The expansion (x + y)ⁿ has n + 1 terms.
= 2n + 1 + 1 = 2(n + 1) terms which is an even number.

⇒ The coefficient of the middle terms in (x + y)ⁿ are equal.

Class 11 Ex 5.1 Question 11.
If n is a positive integer and r is a non – negative integer, prove that the coefficients of x^r and x^{n – r} in the expansion of (1 + x)ⁿ are equal.
Solution:

Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.1 Question 12.
If a and b are distinct Integers, prove that a – b is a factor of aⁿ – bⁿ, whenever n is a positive integer. [Hint: write aⁿ = (a – b + b)ⁿ and expand]
Solution:

= (a – b)[aⁿ integer]
⇒ aⁿ – bⁿ is divisible by (a – b)

Chapter 5 Maths Class 11 Question 13.
In the binomial expansion of (a + b)aⁿ, the coefficients of the 4^th and 13^th terms are equal to each other, find n.
Solution:
In (a + b)ⁿ general term is t_{r + 1} = ⁿC_r a^{n – r} b^r
So, t₄ = t_{3 + 1} = ⁿC₃ = ⁿC₁₂
⇒ n = 12 + 3 = 15
We are given that their coefficients are equal ⇒ ⁿC₃ = ⁿC₁₂ ⇒ n = 12 + 3 = 15
[ⁿC_x = ⁿC_y ⇒ x = y (or) x + y = n]

Class 11 Chapter 5 Maths Question 14.
If the binomial coefficients of three consecutive terms in the expansion of (a + x)ⁿ are in the ratio 1 : 7 : 42, then find n.
Solution:
In (a + x)ⁿ general term is t_{r + 1} = ⁿC_r
So, the coefficient of t_{r + 1} is ⁿC_r
We are given that the coefficients of three consecutive terms are in the ratio 1 : 7 : 42.

Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Question 15.
In the binomial coefficients of (1 + x)ⁿ, the coefficients of the 5^th, 6^th and 7 terms are in AP. Find all values of n.
Solution:

⇒ (n – 1)(n – 14) = 0
∴ n = 7 , 14

Question 16.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Binomial Theorem, Sequences and Series Ex 5.1 Additional Questions Solved

Question 1.

Solution:
Let T_{r + 1} be the term in which x³² and x^-17 occurs,

(i) Since x³² occurs in this term
∴ Exponent of x = 32
⇒ 60 – 7r = 32 ⇒ 7r = 28
r = 28 ÷ 7 = 4
∴ Coefficient of the term containing x³² = ¹⁵C₄ (-1)⁴ = 1365

(ii) Since x^-17 occurs in this term .
∴ Exponent of x = -17
⇒ 60 – 7r = -17 ⇒ 7r = 77, ∴ r = 11

Question 2.
Find a positive value of m for which the coefficient of x² in the expansion of (1 + x)^m is 6.
Solution:

Also, coefficient of x² in the expansion of (1 + x)^m is 6

⇒ m (m – 1) = 4.3 ⇒ m = 4

Question 3.
In the binomial expansion of (1 + a)^{m + n}, prove that the coefficients of a^m and aⁿ are equal.
Solution:

Question 14.
The coefficient of (r – 1)^th, r^th, and (r + 1)^th terms in the expansion of (x + 1)ⁿ are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. Find both n and r.
Solution:
We know that co-effcients of (r – 1)^th, r^th and (r + 1)^th terms in the expansion of (x + 1)ⁿ are ⁿC_{r – 2}: ⁿC_{r – 1} and ⁿC_r respectively

⇒ 3n – 8r + 3 = 0 and n – 4r + 5 = 0
Solving these for n, r we get,
n = 7 and r = 3

Question 5.

Solution:

Using binomial theorem,

Question 6.
Show that the coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of (1 + x)²ⁿ is equal to the sum of the coefficients of the two middle terms in the expansion of (1 + x)^{2n – 1}.
Solution:
In the expansion of (1 + x)²ⁿ,
Number of terms = 2n + 1, which is odd

Question 7.
If three consecutive coefficients in the expansion of (1 + x)ⁿ are in the ratio 6 : 33 : 110, find n.
Solution:
Let the consecutive coefficients ⁿC_r, ⁿC_{r + 1} and ⁿC_{r + 2} be the coefficients of T_{r + 1}, T_{r + 2} and T_{r + 3} then ⁿC_r : ⁿC_{r + 1} : ⁿC_{r + 2} = 6 : 33 : 110

Question 8.
If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of (x + y)ⁿ is 4096. Then find the greatest coefficient in the expansion.
Solution:
Given that, Sum of the coefficients in the expansion of (x + y)ⁿ = 4096
∴ ⁿC₀ + ⁿC₁ + ⁿC₂+…+ ⁿC_n = 4096
[∴ Sum of binomial coefficients in the expansion of (x + a)ⁿ is 2ⁿ]
⇒ 2ⁿ = 4096 = 2¹²

Question 9.

Solution:
The general term in the expansion of

Question 10.

Solution:

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.2

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 8th Maths Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:

Solution:
(i) \(\frac{18 m^{4}\left(n^{8}\right)}{2 m^{(3)} n^{3}}\) = 9 mn⁵
(ii) \(\frac{l^{4} m^{5} n^{(7)}}{2 l m^{(3)} n^{6}}=\frac{l^{3} m^{2} n}{2}\)
(iii) \(\frac{42 a^{4} b^{5}\left(c^{2}\right)}{6(a)^{4}(b)^{2}}\) = (7)b³c²

Samacheer Guru 8th Maths Question 2.
Say True or False:
(i) 5x³y ÷ 4x² = 2xy
(ii) 7ab² ÷ 14ab = 2b²
Solution:
(i) True
(ii) False

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Standard Maths Question 3.
(i) 27y³ ÷ 3y
(ii) x³y² ÷ x²y
(iii) 45x³y²z⁴ ÷ (-15xyz)
(iv) (3xy)² ÷ 9xy
Solution:

Exercise 3.2 Class 8 Question 4.

Solution:

Class 8 Maths Chapter 3 Exercise 3.2 Solution Question 5.
Divide
(i) 32y² – 8yz by 2y
(ii) (4m² n³ + 16m⁴ n² – mn) by 2 mn
(iii) 10 (4x – 8y) by 5 (x – 2y)
(iv) 81 (9⁴q²r³ + 2p³q³r² – 5p²q²r²) by (3pqr)²
Solution:

Class 8 Maths Chapter 3 Notes Question 6.
Find Adirai’s percentage of marks who scored 25m³n²p out of 100m²np
Solution:
Total marks = 100 m²np
Adirai’s score = 25 m³n²p

Class 8 Maths Chapter 3 Exercise 3.2 Question 7.
Identify the error and correct them.
(i) 7y² – y² + 3y² = 10y²
(ii) 6xy + 3xy = 9x²y²
(iii) m (4m – 3) = 4m² – 3
(iv) (4n)² – 2n + 3 = 4n² – 2n + 3
(v) (x – 2) (x + 3) = x² – 6
Solution:
(i) 7y² – y² + 3y² = (7 – 1 + 3)y² = (6 + 3)y² = 9y²
(ii) 6xy + 3xy = (6 + 3)xy = 9xy
(iii) m (4m – 3) = m (4m) + m (-3) = 4m² – 3m
(iv) (4n)² – 2n + 3 = 16n² – 2n + 3
(v) (x – 2) (x + 3) = x (x + 3) – 2 (x + 3) = x (x) + (x) × 3 + (-2) (x) + (-2) (3)
= x² + 3x – 2x – 6 = x² + x – 6

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 3 Computer Organisation Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 3 Computer Organisation

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Computer Organisation Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

11th Samacheer Kalvi Computer Application Question 1.
Which of the following is said to be the brain of a computer?
(a) Input devices
(b) Output devices
(c) Memory device
(d) Microprocessor
Answer:
(d) Microprocessor

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Application Question 2.
Which of the following is not the part of a microprocessor unit?
(a) ALU
(b) Control unit
(c) Cache memory
(d) register
Answer:
(c) Cache memory

Samacheer Kalvi 11 Computer Application Question 3.
How many bits constitute a word?
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) Determined by the processor used.
Answer:
(d) Determined by the processor used.

Samacheer Kalvi Computer Application Question 4.
Which of the following device identifies the location when address is placed in the memory address register?
(a) Locator
(b) Encoder
(c) Decoder
(d) Multiplexer
Answer:
(c) Decoder

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Computer Application Question 5.
Which of the following is a CISC processor?
(a) Intel P6
(b) AMD K6
(c) Pentium III
(d) Pentium IV
Answer:
(c) Pentium III

Computer Application Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Which is the fastest memory?
(a) Hard disk
(b) Main memory
(c) Cache memory
(d) Blue-Ray dist
Answer:
(c) Cache memory

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Application Guide Question 7.
How many memory locations are identified by a processor with 8 bits address bus at a time?
(a) 28
(b) 1024
(c) 256
(d) 8000
Answer:
(c) 256

Samacheer Kalvi Computer Application Guide Question 8.
What is the capacity of 12cm diameter DVD with single sided and single layer?
(a) 4.7 GB
(b) 5.5 GB
(c) 7.8GB
(d) 2.2 GB
Answer:
(a) 4.7 GB

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Guide Question 9.
What is the smallest size of data represented in a CD?
(a) Blocks
(b) Sectors
(c) Pits
(d) Tracks
Answer:
(c) Pits

11th Computer Applications Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
Display devices are connected to the computer through:
(a) USB port
(b) Ps/2 port
(c) SCSI port
(d) VGA connector
Answer:
(d) VGA connector

II. Short Answers

11th Computer Application Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
What are the parameters which influence the characteristics of a microprocessor?
Answer:
A Microprocessor’s performance depends on the following characteristics:

1. Clock speed
2. Instruction set
3. Word size.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Question 2.
What is an instruction?
Answer:
A command which is given to a computer to perform an operation on a piece of data is called an instruction.

Question 3.
What is a program counter?
Answer:
The Program Counter (PC) is a special register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the next instruction to be executed.

Question 4.
What is HDMI?
Answer:
High-Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller, to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television etc.

Question 5.
Which source is used to erase the content of a EPROM?
Answer:
Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory is a special type of memory which serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory.

III. Explain in Brief.

Question 1.
Differentiate Computer Organization from Computer Architecture?
Answer:
Computer Organisation:
Computer organisation deals with the hardware components of a computer system. It includes input / output devices, the central processing unit, storage and primary memory.

Computer Architecture:
Computer architecture deals with the engineering considerations involed in designing a computer.

Question 2.
Classify the microprocessor based on the size of the data?
Answer:
Depending on the data width, microprocessors can process instructions. The microprocessors can be classified as follows:

1. 8-bit microprocessor
2. 16-bit microprocessor
3. 32-bit microprocessor
4. 64-bit microprocessor.

Question 3.
Write down the classifications of microprocessors based on the instruction set?
Answer:
Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC):
RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computers. They have a small set of highly optimized instructions. Complex instructions are also implemented using simpler instructions, thus reducing the size of the instruction set.
Eg: RISC processors are Intel P6, Pentium IV, AMD K6 and K7.

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC):
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers. They support hundreds of instructions. Computers supporting CISC can accomplish a wide variety of tasks, making them ideal for personal computers.
Eg: CISC processors are Intel 386 & 486, Pentium, Pentium II and III, and Motorola 68000.

Question 4.
Differentiate PROM and EPROM?
Answer:
PROM:
PROM is a memory on which data can be written only once.

EPROM:
EPROM is a memory on which ultra violet rays are used to clear its contents and making it possible to reprogram the memory.

Question 5.
Write down the interfaces and ports available in a computer?
Answer:

Serial Port:
To connect the external devices, found in old computers.

Parallel Port:
To connect the printers, found in old computers.

USB Ports:
To connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external hard disks and printers to the computer. USB 3.0 is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard to connect computers with other electronic gadgets. USB 3.0 can transfer data up to 5 Giga byte/second. USB 3.1 and USB 3.2 are also released.

VGA Connector:
To connect a monitor or any display device like LCD projector. Audio Plugs: To connect sound speakers, microphone and headphones.

PS/2 Port:
To connect mouse and keyboard to PC.

SCSI Port:
To connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI):
High-Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller, to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television etc.

Question 6.
Differentiate CD and DVD?
Answer:
CD:

1. CD stands for compact Disk.
2. CDs are made with the purpose of holding audio files as well as program files.
3. A standard CD can store about 700 MB of data.

DVD:

1. DVD stands for digital versatile disc.
2. DVDs are made with the purpose of holding video files, movies, substantial amount of programs etc.
3. A standard DVD can hold 4.7 GB of data.

Question 7.
How will you differentiate a flash memory and an EEPROM?
Answer:
Flash Memory:

1. The flash memory allows data to be written or erased in blocks.
2. Flash memory is faster in performance.

EEPROM:

1. The EEPROM requires data to be written or erased one byte at a time.
2. EEPROM is slower in performance.

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of a microprocessor?
Answer:
A Microprocessor’s performance depends on the following characteristics:

1. Clock speed
2. Instruction set
3. Word size.

1. Clock Speed:
Every microprocessor has an internal clock that regulates the speed at which it executes instructions. The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called the clock speed. Clock speed is measured in MHz (Mega Hertz) or in GHz (Giga Hertz).

2. Instruction Set:
A command which is given to a computer to perform an operation on data is called an instruction. Basic set of machine level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called as an instruction set. This instruction set carries out the following types of operations: Data transfer, Arithmetic operations, Logical operations, Control flow, Input/output.

3. Word Size:
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its word size. Word size determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed by a microprocessor at one time and the total number of pins on the microprocessor. Total number of input and output pins in turn determines the architecture of the microprocessor.

Question 2.
How the read and write operations are performed by a processor? Explain?
Answer:
The read operation fetches data from memory and transfers to MDR. A single control line performs two operations like Read / Write using 1 or 0. Also, the write operation transfers data from the MDR to memory. This organisation is shown in figure.

The word in the RAM has the same size (no. of bits) as the Memory Data Register (MDR). If the processor is an 8-bit processor like Intel 8085, its MDR and the word in the RAM both have 8 bits.

If the size of the MDR is eight bits, which can be connected with a word of eight bits where the data can be stored or retrieved, the data bus has eight wires in parallel to transfer the data in any one direction which depends on whether the control is read or write. This control line is labeled as R/W, which becomes 1 meAnswer: READ operation and 0 me WRITE operation.

Figure shows the content of MDR and the Memory Word before the READ operation. Also Figure shows the content of MDR and the Memory Word after the READ operation.

The read operation transfers the data (bits) from word to memory data register. The write operation transfers the data (bits) from memory data register to word.

Question 3.
Arrange the memory devices in ascending order based on the access time?

Answer:
Cache memory:
The cache is a very high speed, expensive piece of memory, which is used to speed up the memory retrieval process. The idea of introducing a cache is that, this extremely fast memory would store data that is frequently accessed and if possible, the data that is spatially closer to it. This helps to achieve the fast response time.

Random-access memory / main memory:
RAM is a volatile memory, which meAnswer: that the information stored in it is not permanent. As soon as the power is turned off, whatever data that resided in a RAM is lost. It allows both read and write operations.

Hard Disk:
Hard disk is a magnetic disk on which we can store computer data. In general, hard disks are less portable than floppies, although it is possible to port by removable hard disks. Two types of removable hard disks are disk packs and removable catridges.

Compact disk:
A CD or CD-ROM is made from 1.2 millimeters thick, polycarbonate plastic material. A thin layer of aluminium or gold is applied to the surface. CD data is represented as tiny indentations known as “pits”, encoded in a spiral track moulded into the top of the polycarbonate layer. The areas between pits are known as “lands”. A motor within the CD player rotates the disk. The capacity of an ordinary CD-ROM is 700MB.

Digital versatile Disc (DVD):
A DVD (Digital Versatile Disc or Digital Video Disc) is an optical disc capable of storing up to 4.7 GB of data, more than six times what a CD can hold. DVDs are often used to store movies at a better quality than with a VHS. DVDs can also have interactive menus and bonus features such as deleted scenes and commentaries. Like CDs, DVDs are read with a laser.

Question 4.
Explain the types of ROM?
Answer:
Read-Only memory (ROM):
Read-only memory refers to special memory in a computer with pre-recorded data at manufacturing time which cannot be modified. The stored programs that start the computer and perform diagnostics are available in ROMs. ROM stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.

Once the data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be modified or removed and can only be read. ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off. So, ROM is called as a non-volatile memory.

Programmable Read-Only Memory (PROM):
Programmable read-only memory is also a non-volatile memory on which data can be written only once. Once a program has been written onto a PROM, it remains there forever. Unlike the main memory, PROMs retain their contents ‘ even when the computer is turned off.

The PROM differs from ROM. PROM is manufactured as a blank memory, whereas a ROM is programmed during the manufacturing process itself. PROM programmer or a PROM burner is used to write data to a PROM chip. The process of programming a PROM is called burning the PROM.

Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EPROM): Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of memory which serves as a PROM, out the content can be erased , using ultraviolet rays. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory.

An EPROM differs from a PROM, PROM can be written only once and cannot be erased. EPROMs are used widely in personal computers because they enable the manufacturer to change the contents of the PROM to replace with updated versions or erase the contents before the computer is delivered.

Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge. Like other types of PROM, EEPROM retains its contents even when the power is turned off. Comparing with all other types of ROM, EEPROM is slower in performance.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Computer Organisation Additional Questions and Answer

1. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
………………….. deals with the engineering considerations involved in designing a computer.
(a) Computer organisation
(b) Computer architecture
(c) Microprocessor
(d) Registers
Answer:
(b) Computer architecture

Question 2.
Microprocessor is made up of ……………………. units.
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 3.
The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called:
(a) clock speed
(b) instruction set
(c) word size
(d) control flow
Answer:
(a) clock speed

Question 4.
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its:
(a) clock speed
(b) instruction set
(c) word size
(d) control flow
Answer:
(c) word size

Question 5.
……………………….. is unidirectional.
(a) Data bus
(b) Control bus
(c) Register
(d) Address bus
Answer:
(d) Address bus

Question 6.
…………………… is bidirectional.
(a) Data bus
(b) Control bus
(c) Register
(d) Address bus
Answer:
(a) Data bus

Question 7.
……………………. is a volatile memory.
(a) ROM
(b) EPROM
(c) PROM
(d) RAM
Answer:
(d) RAM

Question 8.
The areas between pits are known as:
(a) sector
(b) track
(c) layer
(d) lands
Answer:
(d) lands

Question 9.
The capacity of an ordinary CD-ROM is:
(a) 800 MB
(b) 700 MB
(c) 900 MB
(d) 600 MB
Answer:
(b) 700 MB

Question 10.
……………………… is the type of disc used for play station games and for playing high-definition (HD) movies.
(a) Hard disks
(b) CD
(c) DVD
(d) Blu-ray disc
Answer:
(d) Blu-ray disc

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define computer organisation?
Answer:
Computer organization deals with the hardware components of a computer system. It includes input/output devices, the central processing unit, storage and primary memory. It is concerned with how the various components of computer hardware operate. It also deals with how they are interconnected to implement an architectural specification.

Question 2.
What are the three main units of microprocessor?
Answer:
The microprocessor is made up of 3 main units. They are –
(i) Arithmetic and Logic unit (ALU):
To perform arithmetic and logical instructions based on computer instructions.

(ii) Control unit:
To control the overall operations of the computer through signals.

(iii) Registers (Internal Memory):
They are used to hold the instruction and data for the execution of the processor.

Question 3.
Define instruction set?
Answer:
A command which is given to a computer to perform an operation on data is called an instruction. Basic set of machine level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called as an instruction set.

Question 4.
What do you mean by word size?
Answer:
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its word size. Word size determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed by a microprocessor. Total number Of input and output pins in turn determines the architecture of the microprocessor.

Question 5.
Define bus?
Answer:
Abus is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of a computer.

Question 6.
What is decoder?
Answer:
A decoder, a digital circuit is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located.

Question 7.
What is read operation?
Answer:
The read operation transfers the data (bits) from memory word to memory data register.

Question 8.
What is write operation?
Answer:
The write operation transfers the data (bits) from memory data register to word.

Question 9.
What criteria microprocessors are classified?
Answer:
Microprocessors are classified based on the following criteria:

1. The width of data that can be processed.
2. The instipction set.

Question 10.
What is USB 3.0?
Answer:
USB 3.0 is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard to connect computers with other electronic gadgets. USB 3.0 can transfer data up to 5 Giga byte/second. USB 3.1 and USB 3.2 are also released.

Question 11.
What are the two basic types of ROM?
Answer:
There are two basic types of RAM

1. Dynamic RAM (DRAM)
2. Static RAM (SRAM)

Question 12.
What is Access time?
Answer:
Access time is the time delay or latency between a request to an electronic system, and the access being completed or the requested data returned.

Question 13.
What is a computer memory?
Answer:
Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored. There are two types of accessing methods to access (store or retrieve) the memory. They are sequential access and random access. In sequential access, thd memory is accessed in an orderly manner from starting to end. But, in random access, any byte of memory can be accessed directly without navigating through previous bytes.

Question 14.
What is a system bus?
Answer:
The system bus is a bunch of wires which is the collection of address bus, data bus and control bus.

Question 15.
Differentiate static RAM and Dynamic RAM?
Answer:
Static RAM:

1. Static RAM needs to be refreshed less often.
2. Static RAM is more expensive.
3. Static RAM uses transistor to store a single bit of data.
4. Static RAM are used in cache memory.

Dynamic RAM:

1. Dynamic RAM needs to be refreshed frequently.
2. Dynamic RAM is less expensive.
3. Dynamic RAM uses a separate capacitor to store each bit of data.
4. Dynamic RAM are used in main memory.

III. Explain in Brief.

Question 1.
What is microprocessor? Draw the block diagram of microprocessor?
Answer:
The microprocessor is a programmable multipurpose silicon chip that is based on a register. It is driven by clock pulses. It accepts input as a binary data and after processing, it provides the output data as per the instructions stored in the memory.

Question 2.
Write short notes on DVD?
Answer:
A DVD (Digital Versatile Disc or Digital Video Disc) is an optical disc capable of storing up to 4.7 GB of data, more than six times what a CD can hold. DVDs are often used to store movies at a better quality. Like CDs, DVDs are read with a laser.

The disc can have one or two sides, and one or two layers of data per side; the number of sides and layers determines how much it can hold. A 12 cm diameter disc with single sided, single layer has 4.7 GB capacity, whereas the single sided, double layer has 8.5 GB capacity. The 8 cm DVD has 1.5 GB capacity. The capacity of a DVD-ROM can be visually determined by noting the number of data sides of the disc. Double-layered sides are usually gold-coloured, while single-layered sides are usually silver-coloured, like a CD.

Question 3.
Write short notes on Blu-ray Disc?
Answer:
Blu-Ray Disc is a high-density optical disc similar to DVD. Blu-ray is the type of disc used for PlayStation games and for playing high-definition (HD) movies. A double-layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to 50GB (gigabytes) of data. This is more than 5 times the capacity of a DVD, and above 70 times of a CD.

The format was developed to enable recording, rewriting and playback of high-definition video, as well as storing large amount of data. DVD uses a red laser to read and write data. But, Blu-ray uses a blue-violet laser to write. Hence, it is called as Blu-Ray.

Question 4.
What are the methods to access the memory? Draw the memory Hierarchy?
Answer:
Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored. There are two types of accessing methods to access (read or write) the memory.

They are sequential access and random access. In sequential access, the memory is accessed in an orderly manner from starting to end. But, in random access, any byte of memory can be accessed directly without navigating through previous bytes.
For figure refer Page 46, Fig. No. 3.5.

Question 5.
List down the different types of operations in Instruction set?
Answer:
A command which is given to a computer to perform an operation on data is called an instruction. Basic set of machine level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called as an instruction set. This instruction set carries out the following types of operations:

1. Data transfer
2. Arithmetic operations
3. Logical operations
4. Control flow
5. Input/output.

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
Explain in detail the various types of storage devices?
Answer:
Secondary Storage Devices:
The secondary storage devices are used to store data that is of larger size which can be accessed later. Since the main memory is costly, the size is generally very limited in a computer. A portion of a secondary storage which can serve as an extension of the main memory and can perform its job is called as virtual memory.

Hard Disks:
Hard disk is a magnetic disk on which you can store computer data. The term hard is used to distinguish it from a soft, or floppy disk. Hard disks can store more data and are faster than floppy disks.

A hard disk, for example, can store anywhere from 10 megabytes to several gigabytes, whereas most floppies have a maximum storage capacity of 1.4 megabytes. In general, hard disks are less portable than floppies, although it is possible to port by removable hard disks. There are two types of removable hard disks: disk packs and removable cartridges.

Compact Disc (CD):
A CD or CD-ROM is made from 1.2 millimeters thick, polycarbonate plastic material. A thin layer of aluminum or gold is applied to the surface. CD data is represented as tiny indentations known as “pits”, encoded in a spiral track moulded into the top of the polycarbonate layer. The areas between pits dre known as “lands”. A motor within the CD player rotates the disk. The capacity of an ordinary CD-ROM is 700MB.

Digital Versatile Disc (DVD):
A DVD (Digital Versatile Disc or Digital Video Disc) is an optical disc capable of storing up to 4.7 GB of data, more than six times what a CD can hold. DVDs are often used to store movies at a better quality than with a VHS. DVDs can also have interactive menus and bqpus features such as deleted scenes and commentaries. Like CDs, DVDs are read with a laser.

The disc can have one or two sides, and one or two layers of data per side; the number of sides and layers determines how much it can hold. A 12 cm diameter disc with single sided, single layer has 4.7 GB capacity, whereas the single sided, double layer has 8.5 GB capacity.

The 8 cm DVD has 1.5 GB capacity. The capacity of a DVD-ROM can be visually determined by noting the number of data sides of the disc. Double-layered sides are usually gold-coloured, while single-layered sides are usually silver-coloured, like a CD.

Flash Memory Devices:
Flash memory is an electronic (solid-state) non-volatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed. They are either EEPROM or EPROM. Examples for Flash memories are pendrives, memory cards etc.

Flash memories can be used in personal computers, Personal Digital Assistants (PDA), digital audio players, digital cameras and mobile phones. Flash memory offers fast access times. The time taken to read or write a character in memory is called access time. The capacity of the flash memories vary from 1 Gigabytes (GB) to 2 Terabytes (TB).

Blu-Ray Disc:
Blu-Ray Disc is a high-density optical disc format similar to DVD. Blu-ray is the type of disc used for PlayStation games and for playing high-definition (HD) movies. In the past, there were other standards for such movies. A double-layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to 50GB (gigabytes) of data.

This is more than 5 times the capacity of a DVD, and above 70 times of a CD. The format was developed to enable recording, rewriting and playback of high-definition video (HD), as well as storing large amounts of data. DVD uses a red laser to read and write data. But, Blu-ray uses a blue-violet laser to write. Hence, it is called as Blu-Ray.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Unit Exercise 1

10th Maths Unit Exercise 1 Question 1.
If the ordered pairs (x² – 3x, y² + 4y) and (-2, 5) are equal, then find x and y.
Solution:
(x² – 3x, y² + 4y) = (-2, 5)
x² – 3x = -2
x² – 3x + 2 = 0

10th Maths Chapter 1 Unit Exercise Question 2.
The cartesian product A × A has 9 elements among which (-1, 0) and (0,1) are found.
Find the set A and the remaining elements of A × A.
Answer:
n(A × A) = 9
n(A) = 3
A = {-1,0,1}
A × A = {-1, 0, 1} × {-1, 0, 1}
A × A = {(-1,-1)(-1, 0) (-1, 1)
(0, -1) (0, 0) (0, 1)
(1,-1) (1, 0) (1, 1)}
The remaining elements of A × A =
{(-1, -1) (-1, 1) (0, -1) (0, 0) (1,-1) (1,0) (1,1)}

10th Maths Unit 1 Question 3.
Given that

(i) f(0)
(ii) f(3)
(iii) f(a + 1) in terms of a.(Given that a > 0)
Solution:
(i) f(0) = 4
(ii) f(3) = \(\sqrt{3-1}=\sqrt{2}\)
(iii) f(a + 1) = \(\sqrt{a+1-1}=\sqrt{a}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Question 4.
Let A = {9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17} and let f : A → N be defined by f(n) = the highest prime factor of n ∈ A. Write f as a set of ordered pairs and find the range of f.
Answer:
A= {9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17}
f: A → N
f(x) = the highest prime factor n ∈ A
f = {(9, 3) (10, 5) (11, 11) (12, 3) (13, 13) (14, 7) (15, 5) (16, 2) (17, 17)}
Range of f = {3, 5, 11, 13, 7, 2, 17}
= {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17}

10th Maths Exercise 1.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Find the domain of the function f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{1-\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}}\)
Solution:
f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{1-\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}}\)
Domain of f(x) = {-1, 0, 1}
(x² = 1, -1, 0, because \(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\) should be +ve, or 0)

10th Maths Unit Exercise Solutions Question 6.
If f (x) = x², g(x) = 3x and h(x) = x – 2, Prove that (f o g)o h = f o(g o h).
Answer:
f(x) = x² ; g(x) = 3x and h(x) = x – 2
L.H.S. = (fog) oh
fog = f[g(x)]
= f(3x)
= (3x)² = 9x²
(fog) oh = fog[h(x)]
= fog (x – 2)
= 9(x – 2)²
= 9[x² – 4x + 4]
= 9x² – 36x + 36 ….(1)
R.H.S. = fo(goh)
goh = g [h(x)]
= g(x – 2)
= 3(x – 2)
= 3x – 6
fo(goh) = fo [goh (x)]
= f(3x – 6)
= (3x – 6)²
= 9x² – 36x + 36 ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(fog) oh = fo {goh)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 1.1 Question 7.
A = {1, 2} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4} , C = {5, 6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} . Verify whether A × C is a subset of B × D?
Solution:
A = {1, 2), B = (1, 2, 3, 4)
C = {5, 6}, D = {5, 6, 7, 8)
A × C = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
B × D = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (1, 7), (1, 8), (2, 5), (2, 6), (2, 7), (2, 8), (3, 5), (3, 6), (3, 7), (3, 8), (4, 5), (4, 6), (4, 7), (4, 8)}
(A × C) ⊂ (B × D) It is proved.

10th Maths Unit 1 Question Paper Question 8.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x-1}{x+1}\), x ≠ 1 show that f(f(x)) = \(-\frac{1}{x}\), Provided x ≠ 0.
Solution:

Hence it is proved.

10th Maths Unit Exercise Question 9.
The function/and g are defined by f(x) = 6x + 8; g(x) = \(\frac{x-2}{3}\).
(i) Calculate the value of \(gg\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(ii) Write an expression for g f(x) in its simplest form.
Solution:

10th Maths Chapter 1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
Write the domain of the following real functions

Solution:
(i) f(x) = \(\frac{2x+1}{x-9}\)
The denominator should not be zero as the function is a real function.
∴ The domain = R – {9}
(ii) p(x) = \(\frac{-5}{4 x^{2}+1}\)
The domain is R.
(iii) g(x) = \(\sqrt{x-2}\)
The domain = [2, ∝)
(iv) h(x) = x + 6
The domain is R.

Students who are preparing for the Science exam can download this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 22 from here for free of cost. These Tamilnadu State Board Textbook Solutions PDF cover all 10th Science Environmental Management Book Back Questions and Answers.

All these concepts of Chapter 22 Environmental Management are explained very conceptually by the subject teachers in Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF as per the prescribed Syllabus & guidelines. You can download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management State Board Pdf for free from the available links. Go ahead and get Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Solutions of Chapter 22 Environmental Management.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 22th Science Chapter 22 Environmental Management Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 22 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 22th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 22 Environmental Management solutions of Class 22th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

10th Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Deforestation leads to ______ in rainfall.
Answer:
Reduction

10th Science Environmental Management Question 2.
Removal of soil particles from the land is called ______
Answer:
Soil erosion

Environmental Management Questions And Answers Pdf Question 3.
Chipko movement is initiated against ______
Answer:
the cutting down of trees

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 4.
______ is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Nilgiris

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Tidal energy is ______ type of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional or renewable

Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ______ fuels.
Answer:
Fossil

Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 7.
______ is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.
Answer:
Coal

II. State whether True or False. If false, write the correct statement:

Science Solution Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Biogas is a fossil fuel.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Biogas is the mixture of methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon-di-oxide and hydrogen.

Samacheer Kalvi 10 Th Science Question 2.
Planting trees increase the groundwater level.
Answer:
True

Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Science Solutions Question 3.
Habitat destruction caused loss of wildlife.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Back Answers Question 4.
Nuclear energy is renewable energy.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Nuclear energy is a non-renewable energy source. The material used in nuclear plants is not renewable.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 5.
Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: During overgrazing, most of the plants are eaten up. If the plants or vegetation is retained, the soil is not exposed. Soil erosion occurs due to overgrazing.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Solutions Question 6.
Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Poaching should be prohibited.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 7.
The national park is a protected park.
Answer:
True

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Science Question 8.
Wildlife protection act was established in 1972.
Answer:
True

III. Match the following:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science Question 1.

Answer:

1. (c) Removal of vegetation
2. (d) Renewable energy
3. (f) Non-renewable energy
4. (e) CO₂
5. (a) energy saving
6. (b) acid rain
7. (g) Lead and heavy metals

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Guide Question 1.
Which of the following is/are a fossil fuel?
i. Tar
ii. Coal
iii. Petroleum
(a) i only
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(c) ii and iii

Environmental Management 10th Class Exercise Question 2.
What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
(a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 3.
The gas released from vehicles exhaust is _________
i. Carbon monoxide
ii. Sulphur dioxide
iii. Oxides of nitrogen
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii

Question 4.
Soil erosion can be prevented by:
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) over growing
(d) removal of vegetation
Answer:
(b) afforestation

Question 5.
A renewable source of energy is ______
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) nuclear fuel
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

Question 6.
Soil erosion is more where there is:
(a) no rain fall
(b) low rainfall
(c) rain fall is high
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rain fall is high

Question 7.
An inexhaustible resources is _______
(a) wind power
(b) soil fertility
(c) wildlife
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 8.
Common energy source in village is:
(a) electricity
(b) coal
(c) biogas
(d) wood and animal dung
Answer:
(d) wood and animal dung

Question 9.
The greenhouse effect refers to _____
(a) cooling of Earth
(b) trapping of UV rays
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) warming of Earth
Answer:
(d) warming of Earth

Question 10.
A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is:
(a) hydropower
(b) solar energy
(c) wind energy
(d) thermal energy
Answer:
(c) wind energy

Question 11.
Global warming will cause _______
(a) raise in the level of oceans
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) sinking of islands
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy?
(a) wind energy is a renewable energy
(b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor
(c) production of wind energy is pollution free
(d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor

V. Answer in a Sentence.

Question 1.
What will happen if trees are cut down?
Answer:
Soil erosion occurs and ecological imbalance takes place if trees are cut down.

Question 2.
What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
Answer:
If the habitat of wild animal is disturbed it leads to extinction of animals or on the verge of extinction.

Question 3.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
The high velocity of wind, air currents, flowing water, landslide, human activities such as deforestation, farming and mining, and overgrazing by cattle are the agents of soil erosion.

Question 4.
Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
The formation of fossil fuels is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewals so fossil fuels are to conserved.

Question 5.
Solar energy is renewable energy. How?
Answer:
Solar energy is renewable, free source of energy, that is sustainable and totally inexhaustible.

Question 6.
How are e- wastes generated?
Answer:
e-wastes are spoiled, out dated, non-repairable, electrical and electronic devices like computer components electronic and electrical appliances.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
The importance of rainwater harvesting is as follows:

• overcome the rapid depletion of groundwater levels.
• To meet the increased demand for water.
• Reduces flood and soil erosion.
• Water stored in-ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:

1. It bums without smoke and therefore causes less pollution.
2. An excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
3. Left over slurry is a good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
4. It is safe and convenient to use.
5. It can reduce the amount of greenhouse gases emitted.

Question 3.
What is the environmental effect caused by sewage?
Answer:

• Sewage is the leading polluter of water resources in India.
• Different species of fishes are killed.
• Contaminated water can cause diseases such as e-coli, diarrhoea and hepatitis A.

Question 4.
What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge groundwater?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is a technique of collecting and storing rainwater for future use. The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater percolate under the ground, so as to recharge ‘groundwater level’.

Methods of rainwater harvesting
(i) Rooftop rainwater harvesting: The rainwater that falls on the roof of the houses, apartments and commercial buildings, etc, is collected and stored in the surface tank and is used for domestic purpose.

(ii) Recharge pit: The collected rainwater is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for Alteration. After Alteration, the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.

• Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris): Eris is constructed in such a way that, if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are interconnected.
• Ooranis: These are small ponds to collect rainwater. They are used for various domestic purposes.

Question 2.
How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:

1. Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
2. Cattle grazing should be controlled.
3. Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
4. Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
5. Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
6. Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in form of a shelter belt.

Question 3.
What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc. The solid wastes are dumped in the soil, which results in landscape pollution. Solid-waste management involves the collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid material that is discarded from the household and industrial activities.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:

• Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.
• Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.
• Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
• Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

Question 4.
Enumerate the importance of forest.
Answer:
Forests are an important component of our environment and are dominated by microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers, dense trees and provide a vast habitat for wild animals. Forests also contribute to the economic development of our country. Forests are vital for human life, it is a source for a wide range of renewable natural resource. They provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.

Forests are major factor of environmental concern. They act as a carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall, reduce global warming, prevent natural hazards like flood and landslides, protect wildlife and also act as catchments for water conservation. They also play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.

Question 5.
What are the consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The consequences of soil erosion are as follows:

• It has led to increased pollution and sedimentation in streams and rivers.
• Clogging the waterways and causing a decrease in fish species.
• Degraded lands often have less ability to hold on to water.
• Topsoil is removed.
• Topsoil quality is reduced.
• No medium crops to grow in soil with poor quality.
• Use of artificial fertilizers.
• Disrupts ecosystem.

Question 6.
Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
Answer:
People would consider forest is a source of raw materials for the factories and industries, and utilise it for development of human without considering about other organism. There are many stake holders of forest. They are those people who are directly or indirectly involved in forest. Management of forest and called life has to take into account the interest of all stake holders which become a challenging task.

VIII. Assertion and Reasoning Questions

In each of the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rainwater.
Reason: Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Energy-efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason: CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by the degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
Answer:

• The coal and petroleum reserves can get exhausted, if we use them at a rapid rate.
• The formation of fossil fuel is a very slow process and takes a very long time for renewal.
• It is necessary to conserve the resource, for the future generation, by reducing their consumption.

Question 2.
What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
Answer:
Non conventional energy resources are non-polluting renewable sources which are environmentally clean. It is available in unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time inexpensive and can be harvested continuously.

Question 3.
Why is the Government imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Answer:
Government is imposing a ban on the use of plastic bags and plastics because,

• Plastics pollute on land, rivers, ponds and all water bodies and soil, etc.
• Burning of plastic in open air leads to environmental pollution, due to the release of poisonous gas.
• The accumulation of plastic bags and plastics prevent the seeping of water into the Earth, which brings down the levels of groundwater.
• Plastic bags can travel long distances by wind and water. They litter our landscapes and water bodies.

Alternatives:

• Bring your own containers and bags to buy things from the shop.
• Use paper wraps or compostable bags with cloth or brown paper.

Improvement of the environment on plastic ban:

• Improve the health of individuals.
• Driving to innovate alternatives.
• Plastic pollution reduced.
• The nation is safe.

X. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support to your answer.
Answer:
In solar cells, the solar panel convert solar energy into electricity, which stored in storage battery. The storage battery gives direct current, which is to be converted into alternating current by an suitable appliances before it can be used to run various, devices. So, it increases the cost of using panels as the source of energy.

In the solar cells the energy is obtained only during the day, when the sun shines. So the solar cells is not used to meet our energy needs.

Question 2.
How would you dispose of the following wastes?

1. Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
2. Industrial wastes like metallic cans

Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
Answer:

1. Domestic wastes have to be thrown out with the trash.
2. Do vermiform composting system for vegetable wastes which can be used as a manure. Industrial wastes like metallic cans can be recycled.

Question 3.
List any three activities based on 3R approach to conserve natural resources.
Answer:
Recycling : Using recycled material of glass plastic, paper, metal etc.
Reuse : Repeating use of items.
Reduce : Avoid the use of materials which increases the solid waste.
Use of public transport instead of personal transport to reduce to consumption of fuel. Use of materials such as paper should be preferred.

Textbook Activities Solved

Question 1.
Collect information regarding the
(i) Tehri Dam project
(ii) Sardar Sarovar Dam project
Answer:
(i) Tehri Dam project:
Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the world. It is a multi-purpose rock and earth-filled embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India. It is the primary dam of the THDC India limited and the Tehri hydro-electric complex. The Tehri Dam withholds a reservoir for irrigation, municipal water supply and the generation of 1000 megawatts of hydroelectricity.

(ii) Sardar Sarovar dam project:
Sardar Sarovar Dam is a gravity dam on the Narmadha river near Navagam. It is a part of the Narmada valley project, a large hydraulic engineering project.
Benefits:

• Provides irrigation facilities.
• Drinking water supply.
• There are two powerhouses, red bed powerhouse and canal head powerhouse with a capacity of 1200 MW and 250 MW, respectively.
• It provides flood protection.
• Wildlife sanctuaries are maintained.
• Development of fisheries.
• Water supply for industries.
• Protection of conserved forests.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
______ is used for generation of _____, at thermal power plants.
Answer:
Coal, Electricity

Question 2.
Petroleum is refined to produce _____ and _____, which are used to run automobiles, trucks, trains and ships, etc.
Answer:
Petrol, Diesel

Question 3.
______ and ______ obtained from petroleum are used as domestic fuel.
Answer:
Kerosene, LPG

Question 4.
Solar energy is obtained from ______
Answer:
Sun

Question 5.
Solar cells convert sunlight directly into ______
Answer:
Electricity

Question 6.
_______ plants convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity.
Answer:
Hydropower

Question 7.
The 3R approach such as _____, _____ and ______ may be followed to effective waste management.
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse and Recycle

Question 8.
_______ is a reserved area for the conservation of entire wildlife including plants and animals.
Answer:
National park

Question 9.
______ is a place reserved exclusively for the use of animals.
Answer:
Sanctuary

Question 10.
Unwanted, non-working and out-dated electronic products become ______
Answer:
e-waste

Question 11.
In India, the forests are classified into ______ forests and ______ forests.
Answer:
Reserved, Protected

Question 12.
The small ponds to collect rainwater is called ______
Answer:
Ooranis

II. Write true or false for the following statements. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
Conservation of natural resources makes an important contribution to the social and economic development of the country.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Overexploitation and shrinking of forest resulted, the increase of animals and the nourishment of wildlife.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Overexploitation and shrinking of forest resulted, in animals becoming extinct, some are threatened and some are on the verge of extinction.

Question 3.
The potential energy possessed by the wind, due to lower speed, that can be converted into chemical power by wind turbines.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The kinetic energy possessed by the wind is due to its high speed, that can be converted into mechanical power by wind turbines.

Question 4.
The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater, run on its surface of Earth.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater, to percolate under the ground, so as to recharge the groundwater level.

Question 5.
The burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature is called electronic wastes.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature is called incineration.

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. (d) Afforestation programme
2. (e) Conservation of wildlife
3. (a) Destruction of forests
4. (f) Removal of an upper layer of soil
5. (c) Photovoltaic devices
6. (b) Crude oil

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The new sources of energy are termed as _______
(a) fossil fuel
(b) Conventional energy resources
(c) Non-conventional sources of energy
(d) conservation
Answer:
(c) non-conventional sources of energy

Question 2.
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because:
(a) They are made of materials with light weight
(b) They are made of toxic materials.
(c) They are made of biodegradable materials.
(d) They are made of non-biodegradable materials.
Answer:
(d) They are made of non-biodegradable materials.

Question 3.
The other name for Biogas is ______
(a) Natural gas
(b) Nitrogen gas
(c) Gobar gas
(d) Shale gas
Answer:
(c) Gobar gas

Question 4.
Wildlife includes:
(a) Wild animals only
(b) Wild plants only
(c) Wild plants and animals
(d) All plants and animals
Answer:
(d) All plants and animals

Question 5.
E-wastes are generally called as _______
(a) garbages
(b) electronic waste
(c) decomposition
(d) solid wastes
Answer:
(b) electronic waste

V. Answer the following shortly.

Question 1.
Why should we conserve forests and wild life?
Answer:
We should conserve forest and wild life to preserve the biodiversity, so as to avoid the loss of ecological stability. Without proper management of forest and wild life, the quality of soil, the water sources, and even the amount of rainfall may be affected.

Question 2.
What are the effects of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wildlife, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

Question 3.
Name the organisation involved in wild life conservation.
Answer:
Organisations Involved in Conservation of Wildlife

1. Indian Board for WildLife (IBWL)
2. World Wildlife Fund (WWF) for Nature
3. World Conservation Union (WCN) ,
4. International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources (IUCN)
5. Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
6. Bombay Natural History Society
7. Wild life Preservation Society of India, Dehradun

Question 4.
What are fossil fuels? How are they formed?
Answer:
The fossil fuels are petroleum, coal and natural gas. Due to the anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms, by a natural process over millions of years, energy-rich substances are formed. As the accumulating sediment layers produce heat and pressure, the remains of the organisms are gradually transformed into hydrocarbons.

Question 5.
Write the uses of solar cells.
Answer:

1. It can be used for street lighting, traffic signals, water pumping, battery charging system etc.
2. It is used in artificial satellites and space probes.
3. It provides radio and TV transmission to remote areas.
4. It is used in calculators, electronic toys and watches.

Question 6.
Write short notes about shale gas.
Answer:
Due to the compaction of small old rocks, which contain mud and minerals such as quartz and calcite, trapped beneath Earth’s surface and form the soft finely stratified sedimentary rock called shale. These rocks contain fossil fuels like oil and gas in their pores. This fuel is extracted by a technique called hydraulic fracturing.

Shale drilling could affect groundwater reserves, which can contaminate drinking water. It also affects the fertility of the soil. A million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas which in turn can affect the fertility of the soil.
A million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas, which in turn can affect the water table.

Question 7.
What is Tidal energy? What is it’s advantages?
Answer:
The energy obtained from the movement of water, due to ocean tides is called tidal energy. Tides are the rise and fall of sea level, caused by the combined effects of the gravitational force. A tidal stream is a fast-flowing body of water created by tides. Turbines are placed in tidal streams. When the tides hit the turbine, the turbine rotates and converts the tidal energy into electric energy.
Advantages:

• It does not produce any pollution.
• It does not use any fuel and does not produce any waste.
• Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
• Water is denser than air and therefore can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.

Question 8.
How is electric energy conserved?
Answer:

• Use energy-efficient appliances to save electricity like compact fluorescent lamps (CFL), Light Emitting Diode [LED] bulbs and other electrical equipment.
• Switch off the lights and fans, television and other electrical appliances, when not in use.
• Switch off the mobile phone chargers when not in use.
• Use more off solar radiation. Solar water heating system can be used instead of electric geysers.
• Minimise the use of air conditioners.

Question 9.
What are the sources of e-waste? What is the environmental impact of e-waste?
Answer:
E-wastes are called electronic wastes, which includes the spoiled, outdated; non-repairable electrical and electronic devices. These wastes contain toxic metals like lead, cadmium, chromium and mercury, and also contains iron, copper, silicon, aluminium and gold, which can be recovered. The sources of e-wastes are:

• Electronic device: Computers, laptops, mobile phones, printers, monitors, televisions, DVD players, calculators, toys and sports equipment.
• Household electrical appliances: Refrigerators, washing machine, microwave oven, mixer, grinder and water heater, etc.
• Accessories: Printing cartridges, batteries and chargers.

Environmental impact of e-wastes:
Disposal of any kind of electrical and electronic devices without knowledge can become the landfill and water pollutants.
Electronic equipment contains many heavy metals such as lead and cadmium that can cause severe soil and groundwater pollution. E-waste dumping yards and the places, nearby are polluted and cause a severe health hazard.

Question 10.
What is the 3R approach of ineffective waste management?
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse and Recycle are the 3R approach for effective waste management. Reducing the amount of waste, we produce is the best way to help the environment. Buying products with minimum packaging, not borrowing things which we do not use often, starting a compost bin, saving energy and water by turning are ways to reduce. Reuse materials in their original form or pass those materials on to others, who could use them. Paper cardboard, metals, plastics and textiles, etc can be recycled. The compost or reuse of bio-degradable wastes is also a kind of recycling.

Question 11.
What are non-conventional energy resources? What does it include?
Answer:
The energy resources available in an unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harvested continuously is called the non-conventional energy resources.

The non-conventional energy resources include biofuel, bio mass-energy, geothermal energy, water energy (hydroelectric energy and tidal energy), solar energy, wave energy and wind energy.

Question 12.
What is the composition of Bio-gas? How is it formed?
Answer:

• Bio-gas is the mixture of methane (75%), hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
• It is produced by the decomposition of animal wastes (cow dung) and plant wastes in the ‘ absence of oxygen.
• It is also commonly called as “Gobar gas”, as the starting material used is cow dung, which ~ means gobar in Hindi.

Question 13.
What are hydropower and hydropower electricity?
Answer:
Earth is covered with 71% of water. The technique to harness the water energy, from the flowing water is called the hydropower.

The electrical energy is derived from water flow and water falling from a height. In hilly areas, there is a continuous flow of water in large amounts falling from high slopes. The electricity produced by flowing water is called hydropower electricity.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What are the aims of wildlife management?
Answer:
The main aim of wildlife conservation are:

1. To control and limit exploitation of species.
2. To preserve the plants and animals from extinction.
3. Maintenance of threatened species and protect species which are on the verge of extinction.
4. Preserve the endangered species.
5. To study the ecological relationship of the plants and animals in natural habitat.
6. Hunting and poaching should be prohibited.
7. Establishment of National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, protected areas and Biosphere reserves.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the classification of energy resources.
Answer:
Energy resources can be classified as renewable and non-renewable.
(i) Non-renewable (exhaustible) energy resources:
The energy obtained from sources that cannot renew themselves over a short period of time is called non-renewable energy. They include coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear power. The conventional energy resources account for 90% of the world’s production of commercial energy and nuclear power account for 10%.

(ii) Renewable (inexhaustible) energy resources:
Renewable (inexhaustible) energy resources are available in the unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harnessed continuously. These are called non-conventional energy resources, which include biofuel, biomass energy, geothermal energy, water energy (hydroelectric energy and tidal energy), solar energy, wave energy and wind energy.

Question 3.
Write a note an shale gas. Explain the environment impact of shale gas.
Answer:
Shale refers to the soft finely stratified sedimentary rock that is formed from the compaction of small old rocks containing mud and minerals – such as quartz and calcite, trapped beneath earth’s surface. These rocks contain fossil fuels like oil and gas in their pores.

The fuel is extracted by a technique called hydraulic fracturing (drilling or well boring of sedimentary rocks layers to reach productive reservoir layers).

Environmental concerns of shale gas:

1. Shale drilling could affect groundwater reserves, which can contaminate the drinking water resources and also affect the fertility of the soil.
2. Million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas, which intum can affect the water table.

Question 4.
(a) How does windmill work?
(b) List out the uses of wind energy and the advantages of wind energy.
Answer:
(a) A windmill is a machine, that converts the energy of wind, into rotational energy by broad blade attached to the rotating axis. When the blowing air strikes the blades of the windmill, it exerts force and causes the blades to rotate. The rotational movement of the blades operate the generator and the electricity is produced. The energy output from each windmill is coupled together to get electricity on a commercial scale.

(b) The uses of wind energy are as follows:

• Generating electricity.
• Run water pumps and flour mills, etc.
• Rotatory motion of windmill is used to draw water from wells.

Advantages of wind energy:

• Wind energy is a free, eco-friendly and renewable source of energy.
• It does not cause pollution.
• Expenses on periodic maintenance are low when compared to the other power sources.

Question 5.
(a) What are the sources of sewage or wastewater?
(b) Expiate the methods which involve in conventional wastewater treatment.
Answer:
(a) The sources of sewage or wastewater involve:

• The domestic purpose or household activities
• Dye and textile industries
• Leather industries
• Sugar and breweries industries
• Paper and pulp industries

(b) The conventional wastewater treatment methods involve the following step:

• Pre-screening: Wastewater generated from domestic and industrial activities is screened to remove soil and solid particulates.
• Aeration: Screened wastewater is pumped to an aeration tank. Here the microbial contaminants are removed by the biological degradation, that occurs, in the presence of air.
• Sedimentation process: In this process, the solid particles in suspension form are allowed to settle. The particles that settle out from the suspension is known as sludge.
• Sludge removal: The sludge generated by the degradation process is transferred periodically from the tank for safe disposal.
• Disinfection: Chlorination and ultraviolet (UV) radiation of treated water is required to remove any microorganism contamination.
• Water recycling: The water will then be supplied for domestic or industrial purposes.

VII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
There are certain NGOs which ask people to donate their used clothes, toys, school books, house hold items. These NGOs segregate the collected items and distribute them to the needy people. What objectives do these NGOs fulfil by this initiatives?
Answer:
The objective behind this is Reuse and Recycle.

Question 2.
Name the national park, which was first established at Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Jim Corbett national park.

Question 3.
An environmentalist on your visit to your school suggested the use of 3R’s to same the environment. Explain the 3R’s.
Answer:
The 3R’s are Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
Reuse : Instead of throwing thing away, try to find ways to use them again.
Recycle : Creating new product out of the materials from the old.
Reduce : It is the best way to help the environment by reducing the amount of waste you produce.

Question 4.
Where does India stand at the consumer of crude oil?
Answer:
India is the third-largest consumer of crude oil in the world after the United States and China.

Question 5.
Why does the white marble of Tajmahal become yellow?
Answer:
The Mathura oil refinery owned by Indian Oil Corporation presents around this area, which produces sulphur and nitrogen oxides. The white marble became yellow due to air pollution. The Government of India has set up emission standards around the monument to protect it from the damage.

Question 6.
Name the fourth oldest dam in the world? Where is it located?
Answer:
Kallanai Dam, which is also Called Grand Anicut, is the fourth oldest dam in the world. The dam is located on the river Kaveri, 20 km from the city of Tiruchirappalli.

Question 7.
Where is the world’s largest and tallest wind turbine located?
Answer:
The world’s largest and tallest wind turbine is situated in Hawai. One wind turbine can produce electricity for 300 homes.

Question 8.
Name the health effects of the following E-wastes.
Answer:

• Lead: Damages the central and peripheral nervous system. It also affects brain development in children.
• Chromium: Asthmatic bronchitis.
• Cadmium: Accumulates in kidney and liver; Neural damage.
• Mercury: Chronic damage to the brain and respiratory system.
• Plastics including polyvinyl chloride [PVC]: Burning produces, dioxin, which can cause developmental and reproductive problems and damage the immune system.

Believing that the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 22th Science Chapter 22 Environmental Management Questions and Answers learning resource will definitely guide you at the time of preparation. For more details about Tamilnadu State Board Class 22th Science Chapter 22 textbook solutions, ask us in the below comments and we’ll revert back to you asap.

Guys who are planning to learn and understand the topics of 10th Social Science History can grab this Tamilnadu State board solutions for Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers from this page for free of cost. Make sure you use them as reference material at the time of preparation & score good grades in the final exams.

Students who feel tough to learn concepts can take help from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, all the Questions and Answers can easily refer in the exams. Go to the below sections and get 10th Social Science History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science History Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science History Board solutions for Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science History Chapter 10 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Social Transformation In Tamil Nadu Question 1.
……………. was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
(a) C.W. Damotharanar
(b) Periyar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Social Transformation Meaning In Tamil Question 2.
…………….. established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, atTranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W. Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 3.
……………. was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
(a) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(a) Kudi Arasu

Question 4.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by :
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 5.
…………… founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M. C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ……………..
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 7.
……………. was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board
(b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board
(d) Staff Selection Commission
Answer:
(a) Staff Selection Board

Question 8.
…………….. was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras Province.
(a) M.C. Rajah
(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(c) T.M. Nair
(d) P. Varadarajulu
Answer:
(a) M.C. Rajah

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The college of Fort St. George was founded by ……………….
3. …………….. is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. ……………. was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as …………
6. ………….. gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was …………
Answers:
1. Tamil
2. F.W. Ellis
3. Maraimalai Adigal
4. Justice Party government
5. Parithimar Kalignar
6. Abraham Pandithar
7. Muthulakshmi Reddi

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement. .
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Flindu Mahasabha.
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins from the North.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
(a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are right
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
Answer:

1. The cultural hegemony of colonialism and the rise of humanism brought several changes in the socio – cultural life of the Indian subcontinent.
2. Modem Tamil Nadu too experienced such a historical transition.
3. Tamil language and cultural played a significant role in their identity construction.
4. The introduction of printing press linguistic research on Dravidian languages etc under pinned the process of Tamil renaissance.
5. Religious literature was taken up for publication after the advent of printing technology.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:
In 1816, F.W. Ellis formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo-Aryan family of languages. Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A comparative Grammar of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of languages, in 1856. He established a close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 3.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar (1832 – 1901) and U.V. Swaminathar (1855 – 1942) Parithimar Kalaignar (1870 – 1903), Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram (1883 – 1953), Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950), Subramania Bharathi (1882 – 1921), S. Vaiyapuri (1891 – 1956), and the poet Bharathidasan (1891 – 1964) in their ownways and through their writings, contributed to the revival of Tamil Literature.

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justice ministry?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples. These temples commanded huge resources which were monopolised and exploited by the dominant caste in the society and led to the mismanagement of public resources. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 5.
What do you know of the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:

1. Caste based discrimination in the dinning hall at the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam (School), which was run by V.V. Subramaniam (a Congress leader) with the financial support of theTamil Nadu Congress Committee.
2. Periyar was disappointed when, despite his objections and protests against this discrimination, the Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam.

Question 6.
Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
Answer:
Name of the newspapers:

1. Dravidian in Tamil
2. Justice in English
3. Andhra Prakasika in Telugu

Question 7.
Estimate Periyar as a Feminist.
Answer:

1. Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the devadasi system (institution of temple girls).
2. Right from 1929, when the Self – Respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.
3. Periyar objected to terms like “giving in marriage”. This, he said treats woman as a thing.
4. He wants it substituted by “Valkaithunai” (companion) a word for marriage taken from the Thirukkural. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why the woman is enslaved?
5. Periyar believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection. He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption.
6. He was a strong champion of birth control and contraception and said that motherhood was a burden to women.
7. In 1989 Government of Tamil Nadu fulfilled the dream of radical reformers by the introduction of the Hindu Succession Tamil Nadu Amendment Act of 1989, which ensured the equal rights to ancestral . property for women in inheritance.

Question 8.
Explain the proceedings of All India Trade Union Congress Conference held in 1920?
Answer:
The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay. The delegates discussed several resolutions. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register, restrictions on exporting foodstuffs, compensation for injuries and health insurance. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the government, just as employers had representation on legislative councils.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Periyar E.V.R
(a) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
Answer:
Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

(b) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
Answer:
The newspapers and journals started by Periyar were – Kudi Arasu, Revolt, Puratchi, Paguththarivu and Viduthalai.

(c) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
Answer:
In Vaikom, people protested against the practice of no access to the temples by the lower caste people. After the local leaders were arrested Periyar led the Temple Entry Movement and was imprisoned. So, people hailed him as Vaikom Virar or hero of Vaikom.

(d) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved?

Question 2.
Labour movement in tamilnadu

(a) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement
Answer:
The First World War (1914 – 18) provides stimulus to industrial growth in India. At the end of the war there were retrenchments across the industries. Combined with high prices, this gave a momentum to the labour movement.

(b) dentify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
Answer:
B.P. Wadia, Singaravelar, Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram

(c) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
Answer:
Bombay

(d) Who organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in 1923.

Question 3.
Maraimalai Adigal
(a) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.

(b) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
Answer:
Siddhanta Deepika

(c) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
Answer:
Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influences from Tamil language. He painted out that Tamil language would suffer with the introduction of Hindi.

(d) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
His teachers P. Sundaram Pillai and Somasundara Nayagar were the key influences in Maraimali Adigal’s life.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on the foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th Century.
Answer:

1. In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar (1832 – 1901) and U.V. Swaminathar (1855 – 1942) spent their lifetime in the re-discovery of the Tamil classics.
2. C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
3. His editions included such texts as Tolkappiyam, Viracholiyam, Iraiyanar-Akapporul, Ilakkana Villakkam, Kaliththokai and Culamani.
4. U.V. Swaminathar a student of Meenakshi Sundaranar took efforts to publish the classical texts such a Civakachinthamani (1887), Paththupattu (1889), Chilapathikaram (1892), Purananuru (1894), Purapporul – Venpa – Malai (1895), Manimekalai (1898), Ainkurunuru (1903) and Pathitrupathu (1904).
5. The publication of these ancient literary texts created an awareness among the Tamil people about their historical tradition, language, literature and religion.
6. In 1816 F.W. Ellis (1777 – 1819) who founded the College of Fort . St. George formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to separate family which was unrelated to the Indo – Aryan family of languages.
7. Robert Caldwell (1814 – 1891) expanded this argument in a book titled A Comparative Grammar of the Dravidian (or) South Indian family of Languages in 1856.
8. He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
9. Tamil intellectuals of this period identified the fundamental differences between Tamil / Dravidian / Egalitarian and Sanskrit / Aryan Brahmanism.
10. They argued that Tamil was a language of Dravidian people who are Non – Brahmin and their social life was casteless, gender – sensitised and egalitarian.
11. These ideas are exemplified in the Tamil invocation song in the play, Manonmaniam written by R Sundaranar (1855 – 1897).
12. Abraham Pandithar (1859 – 1919) gave prominence to Tamil music and published books on the history of Tamil music.
13. C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar Thiru.Vi. kalyanasundaram (1883 – 1953), Parithimar Kalaignar (1870 – 1903) Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950), Subramania Bharathi (1882 – 1921), S. Vaiyapuri (1891 – 1956), and the poet Bharathidasan (1891 – 1964) in their own ways and through their writings, contributed to the revival of Tamil literature.
14. V.G. Suryanarayana Sastri one of the earliest scholars to identify the influence of Sanskrit on Tamil and adopted a pure Tamil name for himself: Parithimar Kalaignar.
15. He was the first to argue that Tamil is a classical language and demanded that the University of Madras should not call Tamil a vernacular language.
16. Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950) is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism and the founder of Tani Tamil Iyakkam.
17. His daughter Neelambikai complied a dictionary that provided pure Tamil equivalents to Sanskrit words that had crept into Tamil vocabulary.

Question 2.
Describe the background for the formation of the Justice party and point out its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Answer:
It was the period of World War I. The British government thought to introduce representative institutions for Indians after the war. Fearing that such political reforms would further strengthen the political power of Brahmins, educated non-Brahmins decided to organize themselves politically. So, in 1916, some prominent non-Brahmin leaders came together from South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF). It later came to be known as the Justice Party. It was a political party in the Madras Presidency of British India.

Contribution of the Justice Party to the cause-social justice:
The Justice Party government widened education and employment opportunities for the majority of the population and created space for them in the political sphere. The Justices removed the legal hindrances restricting inter-caste marriages and broke the barriers that prevented Adi Dravidars from the use of public wells and tanks. In 1921, the Madras legislature under the Justice Party government was the first to approve participators of women in the electoral politics.

Question 3.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Periyar was keen on the introduction of reservations in representative bodies such as the legislative council for Non – Brahmins.
2. Periyar understood the relevance of mass communication in spreading rationalist thought. He started a number of newspapers and journals.
3. He also supported Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorates for scheduled castes.
4. Periyar had a close relationship with Singaravelar who is considered the first communist of South India and a pioneer of Buddhism.
5. In 1937, in opposition to the Rajaji’s Government move to introduce compulsory Hindi in schools, he launched a popular movement to oppose it.
6. The anti – Hindi agitation (1937 – 39) had a big impact of Tamil Nadu’s politics. Periyar was imprisoned for his role in the movement.
7. Rajaji, the Chief Minister of Madras State (1952 – 54), introduced a vocational education programme with training in tune with their father’s occupation.
8. Periyar criticised it as Kula Kalvi Thittam (caste – based education scheme) and opposed it tooth and nail.
9. Anti-north Indian campaigns had made Periyar to take an anti – Hindi stand.
10. Periyar’s experiences taught him that it was necessary to eradicate religion in order to impart progress and Justice.
11. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
12. Periyar objected to the hereditary priesthood in temples.
13. He advocated inter – caste and Self Respect Marriages devoid of any such rituals.
14. Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child – marriage and the devadasi system (institution of temple girls).
15. Periyar objeeted to terms like “giving in marriage” This he said, treats women as a thing- He wants it substituted by Valkaithunai (companion).
16. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why women is enslaved? (xvz7) Periyar believe that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection.
17. Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Union Movement. Project work on the activities of local trade union organizations be done by students.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Students can compile the activities of the local writers’ associations or women’s collectives.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
South Indian Liberal Federation is otherwise known as the ……………….
(a) Dravidian Party
(b) Janatha Party
(c) Justice Party
Answer:
(c) Justice Party

Question 2.
………………. is an ideological and cultural phenomenon.
(a) Culture
(b) Heritage
(c) Renaissance
(d) Architecture
Answer:
(c) Renaissance

Question 3.
The greatest social reformer of Tamil Nadu ……………
(a) E.V. Ramasamy
(b) Nehru
(c) Gandhiji
Answer:
(a) E.V. Ramasamy

Question 4.
The fundamentalist religious practices that denied humans their:
(a) religious
(b) social
(c) culture
(d) dignity
Answer:
(d) dignity

Question 5.
All India Women conference was organized at
(a) Pune
(b) Bombay
(c) Thame
Answer:
(a) Pune

Question 6.
………………. is one of earliest Tamil literary text.
(a) Thirukkural
(b) Chilapathikaram
(c) Purananuru
(d) Manimekalai
Answer:
(a) Thirukkural

Question 7.
Justice Party failed in the year ……………
(a) 1937
(b) 1934
(c) 1930
Answer:
(a) 1937

Question 8.
………………. and ………………. spent their life time in the discovery of the Tamil classics.
(a) C.W. Damotharanar
(b) U.V. Swaminathar
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
In 1921, the Justice Party granted women the right to ……………
(a) Education
(b) Vote
(c) Property
Answer:
(b) Vote

Question 10.
Who was a student of Meenakshi Sundaranar?
(a) P. Sundaranar
(b) Thiru.Vi. Ka
(c) U.V. Swaminathar
(d) Parithimar Kalaignar
Answer:
(c) U.V. Swaminathar

Question 11.
Who collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature?
(a) Ziegenbalg
(b) C. W. Damotharanar
(c) Singaravelar
(d) Subramaniya Bharati
Answer:
(b) C. W. Damotharanar

Question 12.
Whose writings contributed to the revival of Tamil literature?
(a) Subramania Bharathi
(b) Bharathidasan
(c) Thiru.Vi.Ka
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
Women’s India Association was started in ……………….
(a) 1916
(b) 1917
(c) 1920
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1917

Question 14.
Who wrote commentaries on the sangam texts?
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar
(b) Maraimalai Adigal
(c) U.V. Swaminathar
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(b) Maraimalai Adigal

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Justice Party was established in ……………
2. …………… was the first Non – European language that went for print.
3. In 1578 a Tamil book ThambiranVanakkam was published from …………….
4. In 1816 ……………. founded the college of Fort St. George.
5. Ramalinga Adigal is popularly known as ………….
6. ……………. was founded by Pandithar Iyotheethassar.
7. …………. popularly known as M. C. Rajah.
8. M. Singaravelar organized the first celebration of ……………. in 1923.
9. WIA was started in 1917 by ………………
10. The Self-Respect Movement championed not only the causes of the non-Brahmin Hindus, but also that of the ………………
11. ……………. is known for the crucial role he played in the abolition of Sati.
12. Tamil Renaissance questioned the cultural ceremony of ………………
13. ……………… was an early pioneer in Buddhist revival.
14. The Madras Non-Brahmin Association was founded in 1909 to help the …………. students.
Answers:
1. 1916
2. Tamil
3. Goa
4. F. W. Ellis
5. Vallalar
6. Advaidananda Sabha
7. Mylai Chinnathambi Raja
8. May Day
9. Annie Besant
10. Muslims
11. Raja Rammohan Roy
12. Brahminism
13. M. Singaravelu
14. Non-Brahmin

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Rettaimalai Srinivasan was a close associate of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(ii) He participated in the third Round Table Conference held in London.
(iii) He voiced the opinions of the marginalised sections of the society.
(iv) He was a signatory to the Poona Pact of 1932.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i)Agamic temples permitted the performance of rituals in Tamil.
(ii) Tamil songs had a marginal place in musical concerts.
(iii) M.C. Rajah systematically studied the history of Tamil music.
(iv) Abraham Pandithar founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (e)
5. (a)

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4.(c)

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is Renaissance?
Answer:
Renaissance is an ideological and cultural phenomenon. It is closely tied to modernity, rationalism, and the progressive movement of the society.

Question 2.
Narrate Dr. Muthulakshmi rule in the agitation against Devadasi system.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Muthulakshmi dedicated herself to the cause of removing the cruel practice of devadasi system from Tamil Nadu. She fought against this system vigorously.

(ii) Appreciating her role in the agitation against Devadasi System she was nominated to the Tamil Nadu Legislative Council in 1929.

(iii) She was vehemently supported in her efforts by Thiru. Muvalur Ramamirtham and Periyar.

(iv) As a result the Justice Party Government enacted a law abolishing Devadasi System.

Question 3.
How for printing press played a significant role in Tamil literary works?
Answer:

1. The introduction of printing press linguistic research on Dravidian languages underpinned the process of Tamil renaissance.
2. Religious literature was taken up for publication in the early years after the advent of printing technology.
3. This led the resurgence of interest among Tamil scholars in publishing the more ancient Tamil classics around that period.

Question 5.
Write about Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy.
Answer:
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy was the first woman in India to get a degree in medicine. She started the cancer institute at Adyar. She dedicated herself to the cause of removing the cruel practice devadasi system from Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
What kind of vocational education programme was introduced by C. Rajagopalachari in Madras State? How did Periyar react to this?
Answer:
C. Rajagopalachari introduced a vocational education programme that encouraged imparting school children with training in tune with their father’s occupation. Periyar criticised it as caste-based education scheme and opposed it severely.

Question 7.
Write a short note on Tani Tamil Iyakkam.
Answer:

1. Maraimalai Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influence from the Tamil language.
2. The movement made a great impact on Tamil culture especially in language and literature.
3. His daughter Neelambikai played an important role in its foundation.
4. The movement was critical of Hindi, Sanskrit and Brahminical hegemony in Tamil society.
5. This movement paved the way for later social movements that countered Brahminical and the Sanskrit tradition in Tamil society.

Question 8.
Throw light on the context in which the Dravidian Movement emerged.
Answer:
In Madras Presidency, Brahmins dominated all the fields of society, especially politics, education and job opportunities in the government. The 1911 census showed that Brahmins were slightly over 3 percent of Madras Presidency’s population, and non-Brahmins 90 percent. Yet in the ten years from 1901 to 1911 Madras University turned out 4074 Brahmin graduates compared with only 1035 non-Brahmin graduates. It was in this context the Dravidian movement emerged as a defense of the non-Brahmin castes against the Brahmin dominance.

Question 9.
Mention the women activists in the Self – Respect Movement.
Answer:
There were several women activists in the Self Respect Movement. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar, Nagammai Kannamma, Nilavathi, Muvalu Ramamirtham, Rukmani Ammal, Alarmelmangai Thayammal, Nilambikai and Sivakami Chidambaranar.

Question 10.
What are the countries Periyar visited over the years?
Answer:
Over the years Periyar visited many countries and interacted with intellectuals all over. He visited Singapore and Malaya, Egypt, U.S.S.R, Greece, Turkey, Germany, England, Spain, France and Portugal.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
The Justice Party.
(a) Who established the Justice Party?
Answer:
Dr. C. Natesanar, Sir Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal established the Justice Party.

(b) When did the Justice Party come to power?
Answer:
The Justice Party came to power in 1920.

(c) When was it defeated?
Answer:
The Justice Party was defeated in 1937.

(d) Write any two achievements of the Justice Party.
Answer:

• It introduced the system of giving free pattas for housing sites to the poor.
• In 1929 Annamalai university was opened.

Question 2.
The Justice Party

(a) Who established the Justice Party?
Answer:
T.M. Nair and Thiyagaraja Chetty.

(b) When did the Justice Party come to power?
Answer:
In 1920.

(c) When was it defeated?
Answer:
In 1937.

(d) Write the work of the Justice Party.
Answer:
The Justice Party worked towards legislating provisions for communal . representation-reservations for various communities. Two communal Government orders (1921 and 1922) were passed to ensure equitable distribution in appointments to achieving social Justice.

Question 3.
Language agitation before Indian Independence
(a) Name the movements that helped to galvanise the Tamil language.
Answer:
Maraimalai Adigal’s Pure Tamil Movement, the language reforms of Periyar and Tamil Isai Movement.

(b) Highlight the contribution of Abraham Pandithar for the cause of Tamil music.
Answer:
Abraham Pandithar systematically studied the history of Tamil music and attempted to reconstruct ancient Tamil musical system. He founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912 which became the kernel of the Tamil Isai Movement or Tamil Music Movement.

(c) What was seen as a threat to Tamil language and music?
Answer:
The implementation of Hindi as a compulsory language in Tamil Nadu, at various points of time, was seen as a threat to Tamil language and culture.

(d) Who introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools?
Answer:
C. Rajagopalachari introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.

Question 4.
Women’s movements
(a) Why were several streams of women’s movements and organisations established in the early twentieth century?
Answer:
They were established to address the question of women empowerment in Madras Presidency.

(b) Why did women’s India Association publish pamphlets and bulletins in different languages?
Answer:
It published pamphlets and bulletins in different languages to detail the problems of personal hygiene, marriage laws, voting rights, child care and women’s role in the public.

(c) Why was the All India Women’s Conference formed in 1927?
Answer:
It was formed to address the problem of women’s education and recommended that the government implement various policies for the uplift of women.

(d) What was one major objective of the Self-Respect movement?
Answer:
One major objective of the Self-Respect movement was women’s liberation.
IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEARS:

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 10 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.4

10th Maths Exercise 7.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
An aluminium sphere of radius 12 cm is melted to make a cylinder of radius 8 cm. Find the height of the cylinder.
Solution:
Sphere – Radius r₁ = 12 cm
Cylinder – Radius r₂ = 8 cm
h₂ = ?
Volume of cylinder = Volume of sphere melted

∴ Height of the cylinder made = 36 cm.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Question 2.
Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km per hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Find the time in which the level of water in the tanks will rise by 21 cm.
Solution:
In cylinder,
r = 7cm = 0.7m
l = 15 km = 15000 m
In tank
l = 50 m
b = 44 m
h = 0.21 m
Volume of water in tank = lbh
= 50 × 44 × 0.21
= 462 m³

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Mensuration Question 3.
A conical flask is full of water. The flask has base radius r units and height h units, the water poured into a cylindrical flask of base radius xr units. Find the height of water in the cylindrical flask.
Solution:
The volume of water poured = The volume of the water in the conical flask.

∴ The height of the water in the cylindrical flask = \(\frac{h}{3 x^{2}}\) units.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Maths Question 4.
A solid right circular cone of diameter 14 cm and height 8 cm is melted to form a hollow sphere. If the external diameter of the sphere is 10 cm, find the internal diameter.
Solution:
Volume of the hollow sphere made = Volume of the cone melted.

Exercise 7.4 Class 10 Question 5.
Seenu’s house has an overhead tank in the shape of a cylinder. This is filled by pumping water from a sump (underground tank) which is in the shape of a cuboid. The sump has dimensions 2 m × 1.5 m × 1 m. The overhead tank has its radius of 60 cm and height 105 cm. Find the volume of the water left in the sump after the overhead tank has been completely filled with water from the sump which has been full, initially.
Solution:
Volume of water in the sump = lbh
= 2 × 1.5 × l = 200 × 150 × 100 = 3000000 cm³

= 1188000 cm³
∴ The volume of water left in the sump = 3000000 – 1188000
= 1812000 cm³

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solution Question 6.
The internal and external diameter of a hollow hemispherical shell are 6 cm and 10 cm respectively. If it is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of diameter 14 cm, then find the height of the cylinder.
Solution:
D = 10 cm,
R = 5 cm
d = 6 cm,
r = 3 cm

Volume of the cylinder made = Volume of hemisphere melted.

∴ Height of the cylinder made = 1.33 cm.

Ex 7.4 Class 10 Maths Question 7.
A solid sphere of radius 6 cm is melted into a hollow cylinder of uniform thickness. If the external radius of the base of the cylinder is 5 cm and its height is 32 cm, then find the thickness of the cylinder.
Solution:
Volume of the hollow cylinder made = Volume of the sphere melted.

∴ The thickness = External radius – Internal radius
= 5 – 4 = 1

Exercise 7.4 Maths Class 10 Question 8.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with juice. The juice is poured into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both the bowl and the cylinder then find the percentage of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical vessel.
Solution:
Diameter of the bowl = Diameter of the cylinder

∴ Both volumes are equal.
∴ 100% of juice that can be transferred from the bowl into the cylindrical vessel.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 8 Solutions Statistics Ex 8.1

9th Class Maths 8.1 Exercise Solution Question 1.
In a week, temperature of a certain place is measured during winter are as follows 26°C, 24°C, 28°C, 31°C, 30°C, 26°C, 24°C. Find the mean temperature of the week.
Solution:

Mean temperature of the week = 27°C

9th Maths Exercise 8.1 Question 2.
The mean weight of 4 members of a family is 60kg. Three of them have the weight 56kg, 68kg and 72kg respectively. Find the weight of the fourth member.

Solution:

∴ The weight of the fourth member = 44 kg

9th Maths 8.1 Question 3.
In a class test in mathematics, 10 students scored 75 marks, 12 students scored 60 marks, 8 students scored 40 marks and 3 students scored 30 marks. Find the mean of their score.
Solution:
Total number of students = 10 + 12 + 8 + 3 = 33
Total score of 33 students = 10 × 75 + 12 × 60 + 8 × 40 + 3 × 30
= 750 + 720 + 320 + 90 = 1880

= 56.96 or 57 approximately

Statistics Class 9 State Board Question 4.
In a research laboratory scientists treated 6 mice with lung cancer using natural medicine. Ten days later, they measured the volume of the tumor in each mouse and given the results in the table.

Find the mean.
Solution:

x = 142.5 mm³

10th Maths Exercise 8.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
If the mean of the following data is 20.2, then find the value of p

Solution:

(30 +p) 20.2 = 610+20p
606 +20.2p = 610+20p
20.2 p – 20p = 610 – 606 = 4
0.2 = 4
⇒

Maths Book Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
In the class, weight of students is measured for the class records. Calculate mean weight of the class students using Direct method.

Solution:

Class 9 Maths Chapter 8 Question 7.
Calculate the mean of the following distribution using Assumed Mean Method:

Solution:
Let Assumed mean be 25

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Guide Maths Question 8.
Find the Arithmetic Mean of the following data using Step Deviation Method

Solution:
Standard Deviation Method

Students can Download Tamil Chapter 3.5 தொழிற்பெயர் Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.5 தொழிற்பெயர்

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
பின்வருவனவற்றுள் விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர் எது?
அ) எழுது
ஆ) பாடு
இ) படித்தல்
ஈ) நடி[விடை
Answer:
இ) படித்தல்

Question 2.
பின்வருவனவற்றுள் முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர் எது?
அ) ஊறு
ஆ) நடு
இ) விழு
ஈ) எழுதல்
Answer:
அ) ஊறு

பொருத்துக

1. ஓட்டம் – முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர்
2. பிடி – முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர்
3. சூடு – விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர்
Answer:
1. ஓட்டம் – விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர்
2. பிடி – முதனிலைத் தொழிற்பெயர்
3. சூடு – முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர்

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
வளர்தல், பேசுதல் – இவை எவ்வகைப் பெயர்கள்? விளக்கம் தருக.
Answer:

• வளர்தல், பேசுதல் – இவை விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயர்கள்
• வளர்’, ‘பேசு’ என்ற வினைப் பகுதிகள் ‘தல்’ என்ற விகுதியோடு சேர்ந்து தொழிற்பெயர்களாக அமைந்துள்ளன.
• இவ்வாறு வினைப் பகுதியுடன் தொழிற்பெயர் விகுதி சேர்ந்து வருவதனால் விகுதி பெற்ற தொழிற்பெயராயிற்று.

Question 2.
முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர் என்றால் என்ன? சான்று தருக.
Answer:
முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர் : முதனிலையான பகுதி திரிவதால் உருவாகும் தொழிற்பெயர் முதனிலை திரிந்த தொழிற்பெயர் எனப்படும்.

சான்று :
(i) தமிழ் படிக்கும் பேறு பெற்றேன்.
பெறு – பேறு எனத் திரிந்துள்ளது.
(ii) உணவின் சூடு குறையவில்லை .
சுடு – சூடு எனத் திரிந்துள்ளது.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
பேசும் ஓவியங்கள் பாடப்பகுதியில் இடம் பெற்றுள்ள தொழில் பெயர்களைக் கண்டறிந்து தொகுக்க.
Answer:
பேசும் ஓவியங்கள் பாடப்பகுதியில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள தொழில் பெயர்கள்: வேட்டைக்குச் செல்லுதல், நடனம் ஆடுதல், போர் செய்தல்.

மொழியை ஆள்வோம்

கேட்க.

Question 1.
கோட்டோவியம் பற்றிய செய்திகளை உங்கள் பள்ளி ஓவிய ஆசிரியரிடம் கேட்டு அறிக.
Answer:
மாணவர்கள் தாங்களாகவே கோட்டோவியம் பற்றிய செய்திகளை அவரவர் பள்ளி ஓவிய ஆசிரியரிடம் கேட்டு அறிய வேண்டும்.

பேசுக

Question 1.
நீங்கள் கண்டு வியந்த ஓவியங்கள் மற்றும் சிற்பங்கள் பற்றி வகுப்பறையில் பேசுக.
Answer:
அனைவருக்கும் வணக்கம்.
நான் கண்டு வியந்த ஓவியங்கள் மற்றும் சிற்பங்கள் பற்றிக் கூறப் போகிறேன். தஞ்சை மாவட்டத்திலுள்ள தாராசுரம் ஐராவதீஸ்வரர் கோயில் இரண்டாம் இராசராச சோழனால் கி.பி. 1107ஆம் கட்டப்பட்டது. இக்கோயில் கலைகளின் சரணாலயம் என்று சொல்லக்கூடிய அளவிற்கு ஓவியங்களாலும் சிற்பங்களாலும் அழகூட்டப்பட்டுள்ளது.

இக்கோயில் அர்த்தமண்டபம், முகமண்டபம், இராஜகம்பீர மண்டபம், கருவறை மண்டபம் என்று நான்கு மண்டங்களைக் கொண்டது. அடிப் பகுதி, தூண்கள் மற்றும் விதானங்களில் மூன்று பகுதிகளாகச் சிற்பங்கள் நிறைந்து காணப்படுகின்றன. ஒவ்வொரு தூணின் நான்கு பட்டைகளிலும் அமைந்த சிற்றோவியங்கள் அழகாகத் திகழ்கின்றன. கோயிலின் நுழைவு வாயிலில் அமைந்த ஏழு கருங்கற் படிகள், நாதப்படிகளாக வடிவமைக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன.

அவற்றில் நடனக் காட்சிகள், போர்க் காட்சிகள், ரிஷிகள், விலங்குகள், கற்பனை உருவங்கள் செதுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. கருவறை மண்படத்தின் வெளிப்புறச் சுவர்களில் கீழிருந்து மேற்புறம் வரை சிற்பங்கள் நிறைந்து காணப்படுகின்றன.

தாராசுரம் – தமிழரின் கலை, கலாச்சாரப் பண்பாட்டினைப் பறைசாற்றும் எத்தனையோ சின்னங்களில் இதுவும் ஒன்று. இக்கோயிலின் சிறப்பம்சமே, கருவறை மண்டபத்தின் வெளிப்புறச் சுவரின் அடிப்பாகத்தில் 63 நாயன்மார்களின் கதைகளை 95 கற்களில் செதுக்கி வைத்திருப்பதுதான்.

இங்கு கடவுளர் பலரின் வடிவங்கள், முனிவர்கள், வழிபடும் மக்கள், கடவுளின் கதைகள், மக்களின் வாழ்க்கை முறை, கலாச்சாரம், மலர்கள், விலங்குகள், யாழிகள் எனப் பல வகையான வடிவங்களைக் காணமுடிகிறது.

இக்கோயிலில் நடனம், இசை மற்றும் பொழுதுபோக்குகளை வெளிப்படுத்தும் பல்வேறு சிற்பங்கள் அமைந்துள்ளன. ஒரு பெண்மணி ஒரு யானையைத் துரத்துவதுபோல் அமைந்த சிற்பம் என்னை மிகவும் கவர்ந்தது. பெண்களின் வீரத்தைத் தத்ரூபமாக வடித்துள்ளனர்.

இராமாயண மகாபாரதக் கதைகள், இரதி – மன்மதன் கதை, சிவபுராணக் கதைகள் முதலியனவும், பரத நாட்டிய அடவுகளும் காண்பவர் மனத்தை ஈர்க்குமாறு தாராசுரம் கோயில் சிற்பங்கள் அமைந்துள்ளன. பநூறு கோயில்களுக்குச் சென்று சிற்பங்களின் பேரழகைக் கண்டு மகிழ்ந்த அனுபவத்தைத் தாராசுரம் கோயில் ஒன்றே தருகிறது. காண்போரை சுண்டி இழுக்கும் ஓவியங்களும் சிற்பங்களும் என்னை வியப்பில் ஆழ்த்தின.

கவிதையை நிறைவு செய்க

வானும் நிலவும் அழகு
வயலும்…………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………

……………………………………….அழகு
Answer:
வானும் நிலவும் அழகு
வயலும் நீரோடையும் அழகு
வண்ண மீனும் நீலக்கடலும் அழகு
வானவில்லும் விண்மீன்களும் அழகோ அழகு.

படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்து

Answer:
ஓடி விளையாடு பாப்பா என்னும் பாரதியின் வாக்கிற்கு இணங்க ஒற்றுமையோடு
ஓடியாடும் சிறுவர்கள். வற்றாமல் வளம் தரும் ஆறு. நிழல் தரும் மரம், வண்ண த்துப் பூச்சிகள், பூத்துக்குலுங்கும் சோலை, பாடித் திரியும் பறவைகள், மலைக்க வைக்கும் மலையென இயற்கைக் காட்சிகளை ரசித்த வண்ணம் விளையாடுகின்றனர் சிறுவர்கள்.

கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள சொற்களை ஒரு தொடரில் முதல் மற்றும் இறுதிச்சொல்லாகக் கொண்டு சொற்றொடர் உருவாக்குக

(ஓவியக்கலை, இசை, கட்டடக்கலை, வண்ணங்கள் )
(எ.கா.) ஓவியக்கலை கண்ணையும் கருத்தையும் கவர்கிறது.
நுண்கலைகளுள் ஒன்று ஓவியக்கலை.
இசை : இசைக்கு மயங்காதவர் இல்லை.
தொன்மைக் கலைகளுள் தனித்தன்மையுடையது இசை.
கட்டக்கலை : கட்டடக்கலைகளில் தேர்ச்சி பெற்றவர்களாகத் தமிழர்கள் விளங்கினார்.
தமிழர்களின் கை வந்த கலை கட்டடக்கலை.
வண்ணங்கள் : வண்ணங்கள் ஏழும் வானவில்லிற்கு அழகு.
சிவப்பு, பச்சை, நீலம் ஆகிய மூன்றும் முதன்மை வண்ணங்கள்.

சொல்லக் கேட்டு எழுதுக

1. கலைப்படைப்பு மானுடத்தைப் பேச வேண்டும்
2. இருபொருள் தருமாறு பாடப்படுவது இரட்டுற மொழிதல் ஆகும்.
3. வண்ணங்கள் பயன்படுத்தாமல் வரைவது புனையா ஓவியம்.
4. ஆற்று மணலுடன் சுண்ணாம்பைச் சேர்த்துச் சுவரைச் சமப்படுத்துவர்.
5. வள்ளுவர் கோட்டத்தின் அமைப்பு திருவாரூர்த் தேர் போன்றது.

இடைச்சொல் ‘ஐ’ சேர்த்துத் தொடரை மீண்டும் எழுதுக

(எ.கா.) வீடு கட்டினான் – வீடு + ஐ + கட்டினான் = வீட்டைக் கட்டினான்.

1. கடல் பார்த்தாள் – கடல் + ஐ + பார்த்தாள் = கடலைப் பார்த்தாள்
2. புல் தின்றது – புல் + ஐ + தின்றது = புல்லைத் தின்றது
3. கதவு தட்டு ஓசை – கதவு + ஐ + தட்டும் ஓசை = கதவைத் தட்டும் ஓசை
4. பாடல் பாடினாள் – பாடல் + ஐ + பாடினாள் = பாடலைப் பாடினாள்

கீழ்க்காணும் குறிப்புகளைக் கொண்டு கட்டுரை எழுதுக

எங்கள் ஊர்

(முன்னுரை – அமைவிடம் – பெயர்க்காரணம் – தொழில்கள் – சிறப்பு மிகு இடங்கள் – திருவிழாக்கள் – மக்கள் ஒற்றுமை – முடிவுரை )

முன்னுரை :
எங்கள் ஊர் காஞ்சிபுரம். இது இந்தியாவின் ஏழு புனிதத் தலங்களுள் ஒன்றாகும். பல்லவர்களின் தலைநகர் என்ற பெருமைக்குரிய ஊராகும்.

அமைவிடம் :
காஞ்சிபுரம், தமிழ்நாட்டு மாவட்டங்களில் சிறப்புப் பெற்ற மாவட்டமாகும். இது பாலாற்றின் கரையில் அமைந்துள்ளது. இது தென்னிந்தியாவின் மிகவும் பழமையான நகரங்களில் ஒன்றாகும்.

பெயர்க் காரணம் :
இங்குக் காஞ்சி மரங்கள் நிறைந்திருந்ததால் காஞ்சியூர் என்றழைக்கப்பட்டுப் பிறகு காஞ்சிபுரம் எனக் காலப்போக்கில் மாறியிருக்கலாம். கா என்றால் பிரம்மன். அஞ்சித்தல் என்றால் பூசித்தல், புரம் என்றால் நகரம் என்பது பொருள். பிரம்மன் பூசித்த நகரம் ஆதலால் காஞ்சிபுரம் ஆயிற்று என்று பலவாறு பெயர்க்காரணங்கள் கூறப்படுகின்றன.

தொழில்கள் :
காஞ்சிபுரம் கோயில் நகரம் என்றும், பட்டு நகரம் என்றும் அழைக்கப்படுகிறது. இங்கு முதன்மைத் தொழிலாகப் பட்டு நெசவு நடைபெறுகிறது. காஞ்சிப்பட்டு உலகப் புகழ் பெற்றதாகும். பரம்பரை பரம்பரையாகப் பட்டுப்புடவைகளை நெய்யும் நெசவாளிகள் இங்கு வாழ்கிறார்கள். வேளாண்மையில் நெல், கரும்பு, நிலக்கடலை, பயறு வகைகள் நவதானியங்கள் பயிரிடப்படுகின்றன.

சிறப்புமிகு இடங்கள் :
காஞ்சிபுரம் முக்தி தரும் ஏழு நகரங்களில் ஒன்றாகும். இங்குப் பல கோயில்கள் உள்ளன. கைலாசநாதர் கோயில், காமாட்சியம்மன் கோயில், ஏகாம்பர நாதர் கோயில், வரதராஜ பெருமாள் கோயில் ஆகிய கோயில்கள் மிகவும் முக்கியமானவை.

திருவிழாக்கள் :
காஞ்சிபுரத்தில் திருவிழா நடைபெறாத நாட்களே இல்லை என்று கூறும் அளவிற்கு நாள்தோறும் விழாக்கள் நடைபெறும். வரதராஜர் கோயிலில் வைகாசி மாதம் கருடர் சேவை மற்றும் தேர்த் திருவிழா நடைபெறும். ஏகாம்பரநாதர் கோயிலில் பிரம்மோற்சவம் பங்குனி மாதம் 10 நாட்கள் திருவிழாவாகவும் ஏலவார் குழலி அம்மன் திருமணமும் நடைபெறும். பிரம்மோற்சவம் நடைபெறும். இன்னும் பல விழாக்களும் நடைபெறும். அத்திவரதர் நாற்பதாண்டுகளுக்கு ஒருமுறை குளத்திலிருந்து வெளியில் எடுக்கப்பட்டு நாற்பத்தெட்டு நாள்கள் காட்சியளிப்பார்.

மக்கள் ஒற்றுமை :
இங்கு வாழ் மக்கள் பல இனத்தைச் சார்ந்தவர்களாக இருந்தாலும் ஒன்றுபட்டு 2 வாழ்கின்றனர். ஏற்றத்தாழ்வின்றியும் பூசலின்றியும் வாழ்கின்றனர். வேற்றுமையில் ஒற்றுமையை நிலைநாட்டுகின்றனர்.

முடிவுரை :
எங்கள் கோயில் நகரமான காஞ்சிபுரத்திற்கு வருகை தந்து இங்குள்ள கடவுளர்களை வழிபட்டு நன்மையடையுங்கள்.

மொழியோடு விளையாடு

கீழ்க்காணும் புதிரைப் படித்து விடையைக் கண்டறிக.

1. நான் இனிமை தரும் இசைக் கருவி.
எனது பெயர் ஆறு எழுத்துக்களை உடையது.
அதில் இறுதி நான்கு எழுத்துகள் விலை உயர்ந்த ஓர் உலோகத்தைக் குறிக்கும்.
முதல் இரண்டு மற்றும் கடைசி இரண்டு எழுத்துகளைச் சேர்த்தால் விலங்கின் வேறு பெயர் கிடைக்கும். நான் யார்? ……….
Answer:
மிருதங்கம்

2. நான் ஒரு காற்று கருவி
நான் புல் வகையைச் சேர்ந்த தாவரத்திலிருந்து உருவாக்கப்படுகிறேன்.
எனது பெயர் ஏழு எழுத்துகளைக் கொண்டது.
முதல் இரண்டு எழுத்துகள் ஒரு தாவர வகையைக் குறிக்கும்.
இறுதி மூன்று எழுத்துகள் எனது வடிவத்தைக் குறிக்கும். நான் யார்? …
Answer:
புல்லாங்குழல்

பின்வரும் பத்திகளைப் படித்து, கேட்கப்பட்டுள்ள வினாக்களுக்கு விடையளிக்க

சாலை விபத்துகளைத் தவிர்க்கச் சாலை விதிகளை அறிந்து ஒவ்வொருவரும் வாகனங்களை ஓட்ட வேண்டும்.

சாலையில் வாகனங்களை இடப்புறமாகவே செலுத்த வேண்டும். இருவழிச் சாலையின் மையத்தில் விட்டுவிட்டுப் போடப்பட்டுள்ள வெள்ளைக் கோடு இரு போக்குவரத்துக்காகச் சாலை சரி சமமாகப் பிரிக்கப்பட்டுள்ளதைக் குறிக்கும். வாகனங்களை முந்துவதற்குக் கோட்டுக்கு வலது பக்கம் உள்ள சாலையைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கொள்ள அனுமதி உண்டு. இருவழிச் சாலையின் மையத்தில் தொடர்ச்சியாக வெள்ளை அல்லது மஞ்சள் கோடு

வரையப்பட்டிருந்தால் முந்துவதற்கு வலது பக்கச் சாலையைப் பயன்படுத்தக்கூடாது. இரட்டை மஞ்சள் கோடு வரையப்பட்டிருந்தால் முந்துவதற்கு எக்காரணம் கொண்டும் வலது பக்கச் சாலையைப் பயன்படுத்தக் கூடாது.

ஒருவழிப்பாதை என்று குறிப்பிடப்பட்டுள்ள சாலையில் அனுமதிக்கப்பட்டுள்ள திசையில் மட்டும் வாகனங்களைச் செலுத்த வேண்டும். தடக்கோடுகள் இடப்பட்டுள்ள சாலையில் தடத்தின் உள்ளேயே வாகனங்களைச் செலுத்த வேண்டும். வாகனத்தைப் பின்தொடரும் போது மிகவும் நெருக்கமாகப் பின்தொடரக் கூடாது. திரும்பும் போது சைகை காட்ட அடையாள விளக்கை ஒளிரச் செய்ய வேண்டும்.

வினாக்கள் :

Question 1.
சாலையின் எந்தப் பக்கமாக வாகனங்களைச் செலுத்த வேண்டும்?
Answer:
சாலையின் இடப்புறமாகவே வாகனங்களைச் செலுத்த வேண்டும்.

Question 2.
விட்டுவிட்டுப் போடப்படும் வெள்ளைக்கோடு எதனைக் குறிக்கும்?
Answer:
விட்டுவிட்டுப் போடப்படும் வெள்ளைக் கோடு இரு போக்குவரத்துக்காகச் சாலை சரிசமமாகப் பிரிக்கப்பட்டுள்ளதைக் குறிக்கும்.

Question 3.
எந்தக் கோட்டைத் தாண்டி வாகனங்களை முந்திச் செல்ல அனுமதி இல்லை?
Answer:
இரட்டை மஞ்சள் கோட்டைத் தாண்டி வாகனங்களை முந்திச் செல்ல அனுமதி இல்லை.

Question 4.
ஒருவழிப் பாதை எனப்படுவது யாது?
Answer:
ஒருவழிப் பாதை என்பது சாலையில் அனுமதிக்கப்பட்டுள்ள திசையில் மட்டுமே வாகனங்களைச் செலுத்துவது ஆகும்.

Question 5.
வாகனங்களைப் பின் தொடர்வதற்கான முறையைக் கூறு.
Answer:
வாகனங்களைப் பின்தொடரும் போது மிகவும் நெருக்கமாகப் பின் தொடரக் கூடாது.

நிற்க அதற்குத் தக

என் பொறுப்புகள் …

1. நம் நாட்டுத் தொன்மைக் கலைகளை மதிப்பேன்.
2. கலைகளில் ஒன்றையேனும் கற்றுக் கொள்வேன்.
3. கலைச் சின்னங்களைப் பாதுகாப்பேன்.
4. தமிழகச் சுற்றுலாச் சிறப்பு வாய்ந்த இடங்களுக்குச் சென்று தமிழர்தம் கலைத்திறனை அறிந்து போற்றுவேன்.

கலைச்சொல் அறிவோம்

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.1

8th Maths Algebra Exercise 3.1 Question 1.
Multiply a monomial by a monomial.
(i) 6x, 4
(ii) -3x, 7y
(iii) -2m², (-5m)³
(iv) a³, – 4a²b
(v) 2p²q³, -9pq²
Solution:
(i) 6x × 4 = (6 × 4) (x) = 24x
(ii) -3x × 7y = (-3 × 7) (x × y) = -21xy
(iii) (-2m²) × (-5m)³ = -2m² × (-)³ (5³ (m)³) = -2m² × (-125m³)
= (-) × (-)(2 × 125)(m² × m³) = + 250m5 = 250 m
(iv) a³ × (-4a² b) = (-4) × (a³ × a²) × (b) = -4a⁵b
(v) (2p²q³) × (-9pq²) = (+) × (-) × (2 × 9) (p² × p(q³ × q²)) = -18p³q⁵

Maths 8th Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Complete the table

Solution:

8th Standard Maths 3.1 Solution Question 3.
Find the product of the terms.
(i) -2mn, (2m)², -3mn
(ii) 3x²y, -3xy³, x²y²
Solution:
(i) (-2mn) × (2m)² × (-3mn) = (-2mn) × 2² m² × (-3mn) = (-2mn) × 4m² × (-3mn)
= (-) (+)(-) (2 × 4 × 3) (m × m² × m) (n × n)
= + 24 m⁴ n²

(ii) (3²y) × (-31xy³) × (x²y²) = (+) × (-) × (+) × (3 × 3 × 1) (x² × x × x²) x (y × y³ × y²)
= -9x⁵y⁶

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Maths Question 4.
If l = 4pq², b = -3p 2q, h = 2p³q³ then, find the value of 1 × b × h.
Solution:
Given l = 4pq²
b = -3p²q
h = 2p³q³
l × b × h = (4pq²) × (-3p² q) × (2p³q³)
= (+) (-) (+) (4 × 3 × 2) (p × p² × p³) (q² × q × q³)
= -24p⁶q⁶

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Maths Question 5.
Expand
(i) 5x (2y – 3)
(ii) -2p (5p² – 3p + 7)
(iii) 3mn (m³n³ – 5m²n + 7mn²)
(iv) x² (x + y + z) y² (x + y + z) + z² (x – y – z)
Solution:
(i) 5x(2y – 3) = (5x) (2y) – (5x) (3)
= (5 × 2) (x × y) – (5 × 3) x
= 10xy – 15x

(ii) -2p (5p² – 3p + 7) = (-2p) (5p²) + (-2p) (-3p) + (-2p) (7)
= [(-) (+) (2 × 5) (p × p²)] + [(-) (+) (2 × 3) (p × q)] + (-) (+) (2 × 7) p
= -10p³ + 6p² – 14p

(iii) 3mn(m³n³ – 5m²n + 7mn²)
= (3mn) (m³n³) + (3mn) (-5m²n) + (3mn)(7mn²)
= (3) (m × m³) (n × n³) + (+) (-) (3 × 5) (m × m²) (n × n) + (3 × 7) (m × m)(n × n²)
= 3m⁴n⁴ – 15m³ n² + 21m²n³

(iv) x² (x + y + z) + y² (x + y + z) + z² (x – y – z)
= (x² × x) + (x² × y) + (x² × z) + (y² × x) + (y² × y) + (y² × z) + (z² × x) + z² (-y) + z² (-z)
= x³ + x²y + x²z + xy² + y³ + y²z + xz² – yz² – z³
= x³ + y³ – z² + x²y + x²z + xy² + zy² + xz² – yz²

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Maths 8th Question 6.
Find the product of
(i) (2x + 3)(2x – 4)
(ii) (y² – 4) (2y² + 3y)
(iii) (m² – m) (5m²n² – n²)
(iv) 3(x – 5) × 2(x – 1)
Solution:
(2x) (2x – 4) + 3 (2x – 4) = (2x) (2x – 4) + 3 (2x – 4)
= (2x × 2x) – 4 (2x) + 3(2x) – 3 (4)
= 4x² – 8x + 6x – 12
= 4x² + (- 8 + 6)x – 12
= 4x² – 2x – 12

(ii) (y² -4) (2y² + 3y) = y² (2y² + 3y) – 4 (2y² + 37)
= y²(2y²) + y²(3y) – 4(2y²) -4 (3y)
= 2y⁴ + 3y³ – 8y² – 12y

(iii) (m² – n) (5m²n² – n²) = m² (5m²n² – n²) – n (5m²n² – n²)
= m² (5m²n²) + m² (-n²) – n (5m²n²) + (-) (-) n (n²)
= 5m⁴n² – m²n² – 5m²n³ + n³

(iv) 3(x – 5) × 2(x – 1) = (3 × 2) (x – 5) (x – 1)
= 6 × [x (x – 1) – 5 (x- 1)]
= 6 [x.x – x . 1 – 5.x + (-1) (-) 5 1]
= 6 [x² – x – 5x + 5] = 6 [x² + (-1 – 5)x + 5]
= 6 [x² – 6x + 5] = 6x² – 36x + 30

Samacheer Kalvi 8 Maths Question 7.
Find the missing term.
(i) 6xy – × ______ = -12x³y
(ii) ________ × (-15m²n³p) = 45m³n³p²
(iii) 2y(5x²y – ___ + 3 ___) = 10x²y² – 2xy + 6y³
Solution:
(i) 6xy – × (-2x²) = -12x³y
(ii) -3mp × (-15m²n³p) = 45m³n³p²
(iii) 2y(5x²y – x + 3 y²) = 10x²y² – 2xy + 6y³

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Question 8.
Match the following

(A) iv, v, ii, i, iii
(B) v, iv, iii, ii, i
(C) iv, v, ii, iii, i
(D) iv, v, ii, iii, i
Solution:
(a) iv
(b) v
(c) ii
(d) iii
(e) i

Samacheer Kalvi 8 Maths Book Question 9.
A car moves at a uniform speed of (x + 30) km/hr. Find the distance covered by the car in (y + 2)hours. (Hint: distance = speed × time).
Solution:
Sppeed of the car = (x + 30) km / hr.
Time = (y + 2) hours
Distance = Speed × time = (x + 30) (y + 2) = x(y + 2) + 30 (y + 2) = x (y + 2) + 30 (y + 2)
= (x) (y) + (x) (2) + (30) (y) + (30) (2)
= xy + 2x + 30y + 60
Distance covered = (xy + 2x + 30y + 60) km

Objective Type Questions

Samacheer Kalvi Class 8 Maths Solutions Question 10.
The product of 7p³ and (2p²)² is
(A) 14p²
(B) 28p⁷
(C) 9p⁷
(D) 11p¹²
Solution:
(B) 28p⁷

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 8th Maths Question 11.
The missing terms in the product -3m³ n × 9(- -) = ____ m⁴n³ are
(A) mn², 27
(B) m²n, 27
(C) m²n², -27
(D) mn², -27
Solution
(A) mn² ,27

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Maths Guide Question 12.
If the area of a square is 36x⁴y² then, its side is ______ .
(A) 6x⁴y²
(B) 8x²y²
(C) 6x²y
(D) -6x²y
Solution:
(C) 6x²y

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Question 13.
If the area of a rectangle is 48m²n³ and whose length is 8mn2 then, its breadth is ____ .
(A) 6 mn
(B) 8m²n
(C) 7m²n²
(D) 6m²n²
Solution:
(A) 6mn

Maths Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 14.
If the area of a rectangular land is (a² – b²) sq.units whose breadth is (a – b) then, its length is _____
(A) a – b
(B) a + b
(C) a² – b
(D) (a + b)²
Solution:
(B) a + b