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Students can Download Social Science Geography Term 3 Chapter 2 Exploring Continents (Africa, Australia and Antarctica) Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Exploring Continents (Africa, Australia and Antarctica)

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Exploring Continents (Africa, Australia and Antarctica)Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The southernmost tip of Africa is …………..
(a) Cape Blanca
(b) Cape Agulhas
(c) Cape of Good Hope
(d) Cape Town
Answer:
(b) Cape Agulhas

Question 2.
The manmade canal through an isthmus betw een Egypt and Sinai Peninsula is
(a) Panama Canal
(b) Aswan Canal
(c) Suez Canal
(d) Albert Canel
Answer:
(c) Suez Canal

Question 3.
In respect of the Mediterranean climate, consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(1) The average rainfall is 15 cm
(2) The summers are hot and dry; winters are rainy.
(3) Winters are cool and dry; Summers are hot and wet
(4) Citrus fruits are grown
(a) 1 is correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) 2 and 4 are correct

Question 4.
The range which separates the west and east flowing rivers in Australia is
(a) Great Dividing Range
(b) Himalayan range
(c) Flinders range
(d) Mac Donnell range
Answer:
(a) Great Dividing Range

Question 5.
Kalgoorile is famous for …………….. mining.
(a) Diamond
(b) Platinum
(c) Silver
(d) Gold
Answer:
(d) Gold

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. Atlas Mountain is located in …………….. continent.
2. …………….. is the first Indian research station in Antarctica.
3. ………….. is the highest peak of Africa.
4. A temperature grass land of Anustralia is called …………..
5. ………….. is the first indian research station in Antarctica.

Answer:

1. North – west Africa
2. Mt. Kilimanjaro
3. Eucalyptus
4. Downs
5. Dakshin Gangotri

II. Match the following:

1. Pinnacle – Equatorial forest
2. Krill – salt lake
3. Ostrich – small red fish
4. Lake Eyre – flightless bird
5. Jewel of the earth – Pointed limestone pillars

Answer:

1. Pinnacle – Pointed limestone pillars
2. Krill – small red fish
3. Ostrich – flightless bird
4. Lake Eyre – salt lake
5. Jewel of the earth – Equatorial forest

IV. Let us learn:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Aurora is a curtain of color lights appear in the sky.
Reason (R): They are caused by magnetic storms in the upper atmosphere.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) R is true but A is false
Answer:
(a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : A geological feature of Africa is the Great Rift Valley.
Reason (R): A Rift valley is a large crack in the earth’s surface formed by tectonic activity.
(a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) R is true but, A is false
Answer:
(a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why Africa is called a “Mother Continent”?
Answer:
Africa is nicknamed as the ‘Mother Continent’ as it was the oldest inhabited continent on Earth.

Question 2.
What are the important rivers of Africa?
Answer:
The important rivers of Africa are R. Nile, R. Congo or Zaire, R. Niger, R. Zambezi, R. Orange and R. Limpopo.

Question 3.
Name the physical division of Australia.
Answer:
The Physical divisions of Australia are –

1. The Great Western Plateau
2. The Central Low lands
3. The Eastern High lands

Question 4.
Write about the nature of Antarctica continent.
Answer:

1. Antarctica is a unique continent. It does not have a native population.
2. There is no country in Antarctica.
3. It is the coldest continent with a permanent cover of ice.
4. It is the only continent called white continent.

Question 5.
Mention any four economic activities of Australia.
Answer:
Agriculture, forestry, fishing mining, manufacturing, trade and services are the major economic activities of Australia.

VI. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Sahel and Sahara
Answer:
1. Sahel:

• Sahel is a semi-arid tropical Savanna region.
• It covers an area of 3.0 million sq km.
• It is largely a semi-arid belt of barren, sandy and rocky land.

2. Sahara:

• The world-famous Sahara desert is located in the northern part of Africa.
• It has an area of .9.2 million sq kms.
• It consists of many topographical features such as Mountain, plateaus, ergs, oases, sand and gravel covered plains, salt flats, basins and depressions.

Question 2.
Western Antarctica and Eastern Antarctica.
Answer:
1. Western Antarctica:

• The West Antarctica faces the Pacific Ocean.
• The Antarctic Peninsula which points towards the South America shows that it is the continuation of the Andes mountain range.

2. Eastern Antarctica:

• The East Antarctica faces the Atlantic and the Indian Oceans.
• The Mt. Erebus in this region is an active volcano located in the Ross Island.

Question 3.
Great Barrier Reef and Artesian Basin.
Answer:
1. Great Barrier Reef:

• Great Barrier Reef is located in the north east of Australia.
• It is formed by the tiny coral polyps..
• It is about 2300 kms long.

2. Artesian Basin:

• The Artesian Basins are regions on the earth’s surface where water gushes out like a fountain.
• It is found in the arid and semi – arid parts of Queensland.
• It extents for 1.7 million square km.

VII. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Egypt is called the gift of the Nile.
Answer:

1. Nile is the life line of Egypt
2. Without Nile the Egypt would have been a desert
3. So Egypt in the gift of the Nile.

Question 2.
Deserts are found in the western margins of continents.
Answer:

1. Most of the world deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the subtropics because the prevailing winds in the tropics are tropical easterly winds.
2. The tropical easterly winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins of continent and so they bring no rainfall.

Question 3.
Antarctica is called the continent of scientists.
Answer:

1. Scientists of any country are free to conduct experiments and collect data from Antarctica.
2. Hence it is called ‘continent of Science’.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph each:

Question 1.
Give an account on mineral wealth of Australia.
Answer:

1. Minerals are the largest export item of Australia.
2. It contributes about 10 percent of country’s GDP.
3. Australia is the world’s leading producer of bauxite, limonite, rutile and zircon.
4. The Second largest producer of gold, lead, lithium, manganese ore and zinc, the third largest producer of iron ore and uranium and they fourth largest producer of black coal.
5. The coal belts of the country stretches from New Castle to Sydney on the South Eastern Coast.
6. Iron ores are found mainly in southern and Western Australia.
7. Petroleum and natural gas is obtained from Bass Strait and west of Brisbane.
8. Uranium is mined in northern territory at Ram jungle and Queensland.
9. Gold is mined in the western desert at Kalgoorlie and Koolgarlie.
10. Lead, Silver, Zinc, Manganese, Tungsten, Nickel and copper are also mined in parts of Australia.

Question 2.
Describe the flora and fauna of Antarctica
Answer:
Flaora and Fauna:

1. Since the temperature is below freezing point almost throughout the year, no major vegetation is found in this continent.
2. Simple plants like algae, mosses, liverworts, lichens and microscopic fungi can survive and grow in Antarctica.
3. Some algae live in the snow, while other plants grow on the coastal rocky land that is ice free.
4. A few species of plants, such as plankton, algae and mosses are seen in and around, Antarctica’s fresh and saltwater lakes.
5. Small red fish called krill are found in large shoals .It is the food for many warm blooded sea animals.
6. The blue whale is the largest animal which feeds on plankton. All these animals and birds have a thick layer of fat called blubber which helps them to withstand the cold condition.
7. Penguin birds in Antarctica cannot fly. They have webbed feet and flipper instead of wings. Small invertebrates are the only land animals which lives in the continent.

Question 3.
Name the physical divisions of Africa and explain any one.
Answer:
1. Africa consists of mixture of land forms such as mountains, plateaus and plains. The following are the 8 major physical divisions of Africa.

• Sahara
• Sahel
• Savanna
• The Great Rift Valley and the Great Lakes of Africa
• East African Highlands
• Swahili Coast
• The Congo Basin or Zaire Basin
• Southern Africa

2. Southern Africa.

• Most part of the Southern Africa is a plateau region.
• Drakensberg Mountain is found in the eastern portion of the escarpment.
• It extends from north east to south west for 1125 km.
• Its highest peak is.Thabana Ntlenyana (3482m).
• This region is covered with grasslands known as‘Veld’.
• Kalahari Desert lies in the south and Namib Desert is along the south -west shore of Africa.
• Kalahari Desert in this region is not actually a desert but, a bushy scrubland situated between the Orange and Zambezi Rivers.

XI. Map skill:

Question 1.
Mark the following on the outline map of Africa and Australia.
Answer:
Africa:
Equator, Atlas Mountain, Sahara, Eastern highlands, Mediterranean Sea, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Suez Canal, Mount Kilimanjaro,

Australia:
Great Dividing Range , Great barrier reef, Tasmania, tropic of Capricorn, pacific ocean. Great Australian Sandy Desert. Indian ocean, Sydney, Canberra.

X. Activity:

Question 1.
Find out the hemisphere and season during December for the following countries.
Answer:

Question 2.
Label the name of the different states of Australia in the following map

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Exploring Continents (Africa, Australia and Antarctica) Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The second largest continent of the world is …………..
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) Europe
(d) South Africa
Answer:
(b) Africa

Question 2.
The only continent through which Tropic of Capricorn and Tropic of Cancer pass is ………….. in Indian ocean took place in the year 2004.
(a) Asia
(b) Australia
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Africa

Question 3.
Africa is located in all the ………….. hemisphere.
(a) three
(b) two
(c) four
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) four

Question 4.
Henry M. Stanley used the term ………….. to refer to Africa
(a) Land of rising sun
(b) Land of Thousand lakes
(c) Dark continent
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Dark continent

Question 5.
The continent of Africa consists of ………….. countries.
(a) 48
(b) 54
(c) 36
(d) 60
Answer:
(b) 54

Question 6.
The term ‘Maghreb’ refers to ………….. of Africa.
(a) North Western countries
(b) West part
(c) Central part
(d) Eastern part
Answer:
(a) North Western countries

Question 7.
Sahara desert is located in the ………….. part of Africa.
(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Southern
(d) Northern
Answer:
(d) Northern

Question 8.
The Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic ocean are separated by ………….. moutain.
(a) Atlas
(b) Himalayas
(c) Rocky
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Atlas

Question 9.
The African Great Lakes consist of ………….. major lakes.
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 7

Question 10.
Kalahari desert situated between the Orange and ………….. Rivers.
(a) Nile
(b) Congo
(c) Amazon
(d) Zambezi
Answer:
(d) Zambezi

Question 11.
Father of African rivers is …………..
(a) Cango
(b) Nile
(c) Niger
(d) Zambezi
Answer:
(b) Nile

Question 12.
Southern Africas ‘River of Life’ is …………..
(a) Cango
(b) Zambezi
(C) Nile
(d) Zaire
Answer:
(b) Zambezi

Question 13.
The Chief cash crop of Africa is …………..
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Tea
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 14.
Australia’s largest physical division is …………..
(a) The Great Western Plateau
(b) The Central Low lands
(c) The Eastern High lands
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) The Great Western Plateau

Question 15.
Mt. Kosciuszko is located in the …………..
(a) Melbourne
(b) Perth
(c) New South Wales
(d) Adelaide
Answer:
(c) New South Wales

Question 16.
Tasmania gets rain throughout the year from …………..
(a) Trade winds
(b) Monsoon winds
(c) westerly winds
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) westerly winds

Question 17.
The Cash Crop of Australia is …………..
(a) Cotton
(b) Tea
(c) Wool
(d) Jute
Answer:
(c) Wool

Question 18.
Australia is highly dependent on ………….. transport.
(a) road
(b) train
(c) air
(d) water
Answer:
(a) road

Question 19.
There is no native population in …………..
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) Australia
(d) Antarctica
Answer:
(d) Antarctica

Question 20.
Artesian basins are common in …………..
(a) Africa
(b) Australia
(c) Antarctica
(d) South America
Answer:
(b) Australia

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The second most populous continent after Asia is …………..
2. In Africa the Prime Meridian Passes near ………….. the capital of Ghana.
3. The major island of Africa is ……………
4. Sahara is one of the largest ………….. in the world.
5. ………….., an extinct volcano in chad, is the highest point in the sahara.
6. Sahara’s deepest point is ………….. in Egypt.
7. Sahel means ……………
8. In Africa tropical dry grasslands are known as …………..
9. One of the largest plains in Savanna is …………..
10. ………….. plain is called the open Air Zoo.
11. The largest fresh water body in Africa is …………..
12. The first largest fresh water is ………….. in USA.
13. Lake Victoria is the source of river …………..
14. The longest and deepest fresh water lake in the world is ……………
15. Swahili coast is located along the shores of ……………
16. The world’s first largest river basin is ………….. in South America.
17. The second largest river basin in the world is the ………….. in Africa.
18. Southern Africa region is c covered with grasslands known as ……………
19. The Gift of the Nile is ……………
20. The longest river in the world is ……………
21. The world famous waterfall Victoria is formed by the river ……………
22. Southern Africa’s ‘River of Life’ is river ……………
23. A hot and dry dusty local wind blowing from the Sahara desert to Guinea coast is called …………..
24. A hot local wind blowing from Sahara to Mediterranean Sea is called …………..
25. Ghana is the Chief Producer of ……………
26. The most populous country of Africa is …………..
27. Australia is the largest ………….. and smallest ………….. in the world
28. Australia was discovered by …………. an English Seaman in 1770 .
29. The Tropic of ………….. cuts the Australia continent into two equal halves.
30. The capital of Australia is ……………
31. ………….. is the largest monolith rock in the world.
32. The largest desert in Australia is the ……………
33. The largest Salt Lake ………….. lies in the central low lands of Australia.
34. The Eastern Highlands are also known as ………….. in Australia.
35. The Great. Barrier Reef is formed by the ……………
36. The longest river in Australia is ……………
37. The plants and trees in Australia are called ……………
38. The people who work in the sheep station in Australia are known as ……………
39. The indigenous people of Australia are called …………..
40. Tasmania is known as the ………….. Island.
41.  ………….. are rearing in Southern Australia.
42.  The densely populated region is ………….. part of Australia.
43. The Mt. Erebus an active volcano is located in the ………….. Island.
44. The largest piece of ice on the surface of Earth is …………..
45. The largest glacier in the world in ………….. located in …………..

Answers:

1. Africa
2. Accra
3. Antarctica
4. hot deserts
5. Mount Koussi
6. Qattara
7. broder or margin
8. savanna
9. Serengeti
10. Serengeti
11. Lake Victoria
12. Lake superior
13. Nile
14. Tanganyika
15. East Africa
16. Amazon
17. Congo
18. Veld
19. Egypt
20. River Nile
21. Zambezi
22. Zambezi
23. Harmattan
24. Sirocco
25. Cocoa
26. Nigeria
27. island/continent
28. Captain James Cook
29. Capricorn
30. Canberra
31. Ayers rock or Uluru
32. Great Victoria Desert
33. Lake Eyre
34. Great Dividing Range
35. Tiny coral polyps
36. River Murray
37. Xerophytes
38. Jackroos
39. Aborigines
40. Apple
41. Merino
42. Southeastern
43. Ross
44. Antarctica
45. Lambert glacier, Antarctica

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Dark Continent – a) Explorer
2. David Livingstone – b) Evergreen Forest
3. Atlas mduntain – c) Sheep rearing
4. Congo Basin – d) Africa
5. Karoo – e) Young fold mountain

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

Question 2.

1. Captain James Cook – a) New South Wales
2. Uluru – b) Australian river
3. Mt. Kosciuszko – c) Swamp forests
4. Lachlan – d) Monolitic rock
5. Melaleuca – e) Australia

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. a
4. b
5. c

Question 3.

1. Antarctica – a) largest animal
2. White continent – b) Largest Research station
3. Blue whale – c) India
4. Mcmurdo – d) Continent of Science
5. Bharathi – e) Antarctica

Answer:

1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV. Let us learn :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : H.M. Stanley called Africa Dark continent.
Reason (R) : In the beginning the interior of Africa was largely unknown to people.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) R is true but A is false
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : The great Barrier Reef is one of the natural wonders of the world.
Reason (R) : The Great Barrier Reef is formed by the tiny coral polyps.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) R is true but A is false
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Explain the term‘Maghreb’.
Answer:
The north-western African countries of Morocco, Algeria, Libya, Mauritania and Tunisia are collectively called ‘Maghreb’, which means west in Arabic language.

Question 2.
Write a note on Atlas Mountains.
Answer:

1. Atlas Mountain lies in the north- west of Africa.
2. It is a young fold mountain.
3. It separates the Mediterranean sea and Atlantic ocean.
4. The highest point is Mount Toubkal (4167m).

Question 3.
Where do we find Savanna grasslands in Africa?
Answer:

1. Savanna grassland is found in the regions just north and south of the rain forests that lie along the equator.
2. Trees are the main features of the landscape in some parts of the savanna, while tall grass covers the other areas.
3. The Serengeti Plain is one of the largest plains in Savanna.
4. This is called the ‘Open Air Zoo’.

Question 4.
Nile is known as the Father of African Rivers. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. River Nile is known as the Father of African Rivers.
2. It is the largest river in the world with a length of 6650 km.
3. White Nile and the Blue Nile join together to form the River Nile at Khartoum, in Sudan.
4. It flows towards and drains into the Mediterranean-sea.

Question 5.
Write about the animals of Africa.
Answer:

1. There are over one million species of animals in Africa including both the heaviest (elephants) and the tallest (giraffes) land animals on the earth.
2. White Rhinoceros, Western Green Mamba, Zebra, African Elephants, chimpanzee, gorilla, Hippopotamus and Giraffe are the major animals of Africa.
3. Bonobo, Wild Dogs, hyena and Lemur are the typical animals of Africa.

Question 6.
Name the major tribes of Africa.
Answer:
Afar, Fatwa, Bushmen, Dinka, Masai, Pygmies, Zulu, Tswan, and Efe are the major tribes of Africa.

Question 7.
Mention the political division of Australia.
Answer:
There are six states and two Union Territory in Australia They are:

1. New South Wales
2. Queensland
3. South Australia
4. Tasmania
5. Victoria
6. Western Australia
7. Northern Territory
8. Capital Territory (Canberra).

Question 8.
Mention the important cities of Australia.
Answer:

1. Canberra is the capital of Australia.
2. Sydney, Brisbane, Adelaide, Hobart, Melbourne, Perth and Darwin are the other important cities of Australia.

Question 9.
Why is Ayers rock one of the natural wonders of Australia?
Answer:

1. Ayers rock or Uluru is the largest monolith rock in the world.
2. It is found in the central part of The Great Western Plateau region.
3. It is 863 meters high above the sea level.
4. The pointed limestone pillars called Pinnacles are common in this region.

Question 10.
What is meant by Xerophytes?
Answer:

1. The plants and trees in Australia are adapted to dry conditions.
2. They can survive for long period without water.
3. They are called Xerophytes.

Question 11.
Write about the fauna of Australia.
Answer:

1. Australia has almost 400 mammal species and about 140 species of marsupials.
2. These are the animals that carry their young ones in their pouches.
3. Kangaroo is the national animal of Australia.
4. Koala, platypus Wallaby and Dingo are the other important animals of Australia.
5. The bird species like the laughing kookaburra, emu, and rainbow lorikeet are the major birds of Australia.

Question 12.
What are Merino sheep.
Answer:

1. In Australia sheep farming is common in the temperate grassland.
2. Merino sheep are rearing in southern Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and New South Wales.
3. Sheep industry is a well developed industry in Australia.
4. The wool is described as the ‘Cash Crop’ in Australia.

Question 13.
Mention the important industries A frica.
Answer:

1. Food and beverage manufacturing industry is the primary industry in Australia.
2. Finance, ship building, information and technology, mining, insurance, aviation and telecommunication industries are the other important industries.

Question 14.
Mention the living creatures of Antarctica Continent.
Answer:

1. Small red fish called krill are found in large shoals .It is the food for many warm blooded sea animals.
2. The living creatures of this region are includes whales, seals, walrus and sea birds like penguins, albatross, polar Skua and Stout.
3. The blue whale is the largest animal which feeds on plankton.

VI. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
River Congo and River Niger
Answer:
1. River Congo:

• It is the second largest river of Africa.
• Its rises in the highlands of North Eastern Zambia .
• Its length is about 4700km.
• Drains into the Atlantic Ocean

2. River Niger:

• It is one of the major rivers in West Africa.
• It rises from the highlands of Guinea.
• It flows for about 4184 km.
• Drains into the Gulf of Guinea on the Atlantic Ocean.

Question 2.
Equatorial climate and Mediterranean climate (Africa).
Answer:
1. Equatorial climate (Africa):

• It is found in the equatorial region covering the Congo River basin and east African highlands.
• Temperature and rainfall are high all the year round in this region.

2. Mediterranean climate (Africa):

• It is found in the north-western and south western tips of Africa.
• These regions get rainfall in winters while in summers it is hot and dry.

Question 3.
Waterways and Airways (Africa).
Answer:
1. Waterways (Africa):

• Africa has trade routes between Asia and Australia in the east, Europe in the north and America in’the west.
• The major sea ports of Africa are Durban, Dar es Salaam and Mogadishu on the Indian Ocean, Port Said, and Alexandria, on the Mediterranean Sea, Cape Town, Algiers and Abidjan on the Atlantic Ocean.

2. Airways (Africa):

• They connect the capital cities of Africa and the other parts of the world.
• The major international airports of the continent are Cairo, Johannesburg, Nairobi, Dakar, Addis- Ababa, Casablanca, Durban, Douala and Logos.

VII. Give Reasons :

Question 1.
Kilimanjaro summit will be ice -free by 2025.
Answer:

1. The glaciers on the top of Kilimanjaro have been disappearing since 20th centuries.
2. If this trend continues. Kilimanjaro summit will be .ice -free by 2025.

Question 2.
The name of Swahili to the people of Swahili Coast.
Answer:

1. Swahili Coast region extents from Somalia to Mozambique.
2. It was a region where the Africans and Arabs mixed to create a unique culture referred to as Swahili Culture.
3. People of this coast are also called as ‘Swahili’.

Question 3.
Roadways and Railways in Africa are poorly developed.
Answer:

1. Roadways and Railways in Africa are poorly developed due to the presence of many barriers.
2. It is very difficult to lay the roads and rails across the deserts and the dense forests.
3. South Africa, Kenya, Egypt, Libya. Morocco and Nigeria have roadways and railways to some extent.

Question 4.
Australia was the last continent to be discovered.
Answer:

1. Australia was the last of all the continents to be discovered.
2. It was due to its remoteness.

Question 5.
Antarctica is the coldest continent.
Answer:

1. Antarctica is the coldest continent in the world.
2. It is located in the polar region.
3. It has a permanent cover of ice.

Question 6.
Antarctica is the only white continent.
Answer:

1. Antarctica is the only continent called white continent.
2. It has a permanent cover of ice.
3. In some places its ice cap is 4,000 metres deep.

Question 7.
The extraction of minerals does not take place in Antarctica.
Answer:

1. The international agreement on the continent of Antarctica does not permit the extraction of minerals.
2. Hence the extraction of minerals does not take place.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph each :

Question 1.
Write about the mineral wealth of Antarctica Continent.
Answer:

1. Scientific studies show that the Antarctic continent is to be rich in gold, platinum, nickel, copper and petroleum.
2. Traces of chromium, lead, molybdenum, tin, uranium, and zinc are also seen.
3. The possible resources of this region also include silver, platinum, iron ore, cobalt, manganese and titanium.
4. Coal and hydrocarbons have been explored in minimal non-commercial quantities.

Question 2.
Explain the term Aurora
Answer:

1. A natural Curtain of combination of bright pink, red and green color light that appears in the sky near the north and south magnetic poles is called Aurora.
2. The effect is caused by the interaction of charged particles from the sun with atoms in the upper atmosphere.
3. It is also called Aurora Australis or Southern Lights in the South Pole and Aurora Borealis or Northern Lights in the North Pole.
4. These amazing colours appear in the earth’s sky, especially in the high latitudinal countries like Alaska in the north and New Zealand of Falkland in the south.

Question 3.
What type of climatic Pattern is experienced by Australia?
Answer:

1. Australia contains the second largest area of extremely arid land in the world.
2. The Tropic of Capricorn divides the Australia into two equal parts.
3. The Northern half is in the warm tropical zone and the southern half is in the cool temperate zone.
4. The north coastal region experiences monsoon type of climate and there is a heavy rainfall during summer.
5. The east coastal region receives good rainfall from south east trade wind.
6. The hot desert climate extends from central lowlands to western shores.
7. The rainfall in this region is less than 25cm per annum.
8. Mediterranean type of climate prevails in the southern tip of Australia in the region around Perth and Adelaide.
9. Tasmania gets rain throughout the year from westerly winds.

Question 4.
Explain the location and size of Africa.
Answer:

1. Africa is the second largest and second most populous continent after Asia.
2. It stretches from 37°21 ’North latitude to 34° 51 ’ South latitude and from 17°33’ West longitude to 51 °27 ’ East longitude.
3. It spreads over an area of about 30.36 million square kilometres (20.2% of the world’s land area).
4. The equator passes through the middle of Africa and cuts into two equal halves.
5. It is the only continent through which the major latitudes such as Tropic of Cancer, Equator and Tropic of Capricorn pass.
6. Its north-south extent is 7623 km and east-west extent is 7260 km.
7. The Prime Meridian passes this continent.
8. Africa is located in all the four hemispheres.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Exploring Continents (Africa, Australia and Antarctica) Intext activity

Question 1.
On the outline map of Africa draw the courses of main rivers and name them.
Answer:

Question 2.
There are eight deserts in Australia. List them out with the help of Atlas.
Answer:

1. Central Desert
2. Gibson Desert
3. Great Sandy Desert
4. Great Victoria Desert
5. Little Sandy Desert
6. Simpson Desert
7. Strzelecki Desert
8. Tanami Desert

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Road Safety Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Road safety is meant for
(a) Passersby
(b) drivers
(c) public
(d) all who use roads
Answer:
(d) all who use roads

Question 2.
Road accidents affect a country’s
(a) improvement
(b) life
(c) finance
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Permit refers to
(a) permission for driving
(b) permission for carrying goods
(c) certificate for drivers
(d) registration of vehicles
Answer:
(a) permission for driving

Question 4.
Raksha safe drive is a device useful for
(a) pedestrians
(b) motorists
(c) car drivers
(d) passengers
Answer:
(c) car drivers

Question 5.
Road safety week celebration was first imitated in India in the year
(a) 1947
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 2019
Answer:
(b) 1989

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The most useful invention of man for transport is __________
2. Using __________ is inevitable in our journey of life.
3. Too many vehicles on the road cause __________ and __________ pollution.
4. __________ is the monetary supporter of a family.
5. In case of emergency for medical assistance call __________ for help.

Answer:

1. wheel
2. vehicles
3. traffic jam, more
4. Breadwinners
5. 108

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion : Car pooling is the use of vehicles by turns.
Result : It saves fuel, time and money and also
(a) A is correct and R is not correct
(b) A is correct and R is also correct
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is also correct

Question 2.
Find the odd one
(a) car
(b) trucks
(c) tempos
(d) aero planes
Answer:
(d) aero planes

Question 3.
Find the following statements are true or false.

1. Road safety education in the school curriculum is an additional burden for the students
2. An ounce of practice is worth more than tons of preaching.
3. Hoarding on roads has to be banned.
4. Following road safety rules from childhood will become a habit in future.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the distracters while driving?
Answer:
Talking over the mobile phone or texting message or engaging in any activities attention diverted from driving.

Question 2.
Mention the 2 safety gears for safe driving.
Answer:

1. Use of helmets for two wheelers and
2. Seat belts for four wheelers are the two safety gears for safe driving.

Question 3.
Why is not safe to drive in nights?
An extra alertness is needed while driving at night. The uncontrolled sleep, tiredness due to long drive, poor lighting on the road can cause fatal accidents.

Question 4.
When can a person obtain the right to drive a vehicle?
Answer:

1. One should be eligible to get a driving license at the age of 18.
2. One who drives a vehicle should have undergone the training and tests to obtain a driving license.

Question 5.
How can media promote road safety among the public?
Answer:
Mass media and journals could play a key role to raise awareness on road safety. In particular, they can disseminate preventive messages and promote safe behaviours, increase peoples knowledge and understanding of the gravity of the problem and advocate for safer roads and systems.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
List out the documents necessary for an Indian while driving.
Answer:

1. One who drives a vehicle should have undergone the training and tests to obtain a driving license.
2. It is compulsory to have the following documents – driving license, registration certificate of the vehicle, Insurance certificate, Taxation certificate, fitness certificate and permit.

Question 2.
What is the need for including road safety education in the school curriculum?
Answer:

1. Parents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education to young ones.
2. If a child’s parent violates the traffic rules, the child too will imitate the same in future. So the elders have to set an example for them in adhering to the safety rules and regulations.
3. Road Safety education should be provided since childhood.
4. It has to be made a part of school curriculum, syllabus, text book and included in competition on road safety.
5. Activities like writing of slogans, essays and paintings on this theme should be conducted for reinforcement.

Question 3.
How can parents teach their children road safety rules?
Answer:

1. Parents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education to young ones.
2. If a child’s parent violates the traffic rules, the child too will imitate the same in future.
3. So the elders have to set an example for them in adhering to the safety rules and regulations.
4. Video and computer games that simulate receiving should be banned by the government or discouraged by parents as it will develop racing habit in children.
5. Parents should help children learn about the traffic signals and rules.
6. They should be instructed to wait for the right signal and to use the zebra crossing while crossing the road.
7. They should be warn them not to run across or along the road and to use the footpath, while walking on the road.

VII. Hots

Question 1.
Knowing the road safety rules, how will you influence your parents and relatives?
Answer:

1. We will educate parents on following road safety rules.
2. When they don’t wear a helmet, we can urge them to wear and also tell them the risk of not wearing it.
3. We will insist our parents to wear seat belt while driving a car.
4. We will tell them not to exceed the speed limit while riding or driving.

Question 2.
If wheel had not been invented, what might have been our mode of transport?
Answer:
If wheel had not been invented, we would not have been able to ride a two wheeler or use a car. Walking would have been the only mode of transport. Which would have been a very tough job.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
India accounts for about __________ of road accident fatalities at worldwide.
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 8%
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 2.
__________ is a larger threat and the leading cause for road accidents.
(a) Distracted driving
(b) Heavy traffic
(c) Night driving
(d) Tailgating
Answer:
(a) Distracted driving

Question 3.
The Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 passed by the Parliament came into force in __________
(a) 2000
(b) 1990
(c) 1989
(d) 1991
Answer:
(c) 1989

Question 4.
The Mumbai police has released his video of __________ to create awareness among the motorists.
(a) M.S.Dhoni
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Amitabh Bhcchan
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
Answer:
(d) Sachin Tendulkar

Question 5.
The Government of India observes Road safety week1 awareness during, __________
(a) January
(b) March
(c) April
(d) July
Answer:
(a) January

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ is a major traffic violation of rules.
2. _______ is very slow when compared to the expansion of vehicles.
3. _______ is prohibited near a hospital or a school zone.
4. _______ the seat belts while driving a car for both the driver and co-passenger.
5. Two wheeler can carry only _______ adult pillion rider.
6. _______ can result in crucial collisions.
7. _______ is a healthy habit and reduces pollution.

Answer:

1. Reckless Driving
2. Road expansion
3. Sound horn
4. Fasten
5. one
6. Brake failure
7. Cycling

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
What is road safety?
Answer:
Road safety refers to the methods and measures used to prevent road users from being killed or seriously injured.

Question 2.
What is Reckless driving?
Answer:
Reckless driving is a major traffic violation of rules. It is defined as the mental state in which the driver purposely disregard the rules of the road.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Taligating?
Answer:
Tailgating refers to a condition where a driver drives behind another vehicle without leaving sufficient distance between them. In this condition, if the vehicle in front of him, stops suddenly, his own vehicle will crash with it.

Question 4.
Mention a few causes for road accidents.
Answer:

1. Impatience of Pedestrians and violation of traffic rules result in accidents.
2. Drunken driving, jumping red light over speeding and unmanned railway crossings cause great damage to valuable lives.

Question 5.
Why are road safety rules designed?
Answer:

1. Every country has its own road safety rules and regulations for the best interests of its citizens.
2. India also has designed road safety rules for protecting the road users from meeting with accidents and injury.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Raksha safe drive device.
Answer:

1. To avoid accidents because of potholes and road humps, users can opt to use the Raksha safe drive device.
2. It is attached with velcro to the car and alerts the driver about road humps, bad roads and on crossing the speed limits.
3. It is a device capable of automatic crash detection, two – way call connectivity, GPS tracking, engine health monitoring and smart panic button.

Question 7.
What is carpooling? How is it useful?
Answer:
Carpooling will reduce the number of vehicles on the road. It will pave way for a cordial relationship and better understanding among the fellowmen.

Question 8.
Why is road safety week celebrated?
Answer:
Road Safety Week:

1. Road safety week is a national event which aims at promoting public awareness about traffic rules and to reduce causalities due to road accidents.
2. It is observed annually.
3. It is celebrated with great joy and enthusiasm. A variety of programmes related to road safety is conducted.
4. Educational banners, safety posters, leaflets, and pocket guides related to read safety are distributed to the public.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Mention some road safety rules.
Answer:

1. Use standard helmets while driving two wheeler vehicle and strap it before mounting the vehicle.
2. Fasten the seat belts while driving a car for both the driver and co-passenger.
3. Avoid carrying heavy load while riding a two wheeler.
4. Two wheeler can carry one adult pillion rider and not the whole family.
5. Keep a safe distance from the vehicle ahead of yours.
6. Slow down on bends and turns, especially in hill stations.

Question 2.
What are the Preventive measures taken by the Government to reduce the number of road accidents?
Answer:
Preventive Measures:
Government:
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Government of India has taken earnest steps for reducing the number of road accidents.

1. Taking steps for the rectification of accident black spots and improvement of road engineering.
2. Ensuring the good functioning of the traffic signals and road signs at busy crossing roads.
3. Constructing and manufacturing proper roads both in urban and rural areas.
4. Installation of CCTV cameras to record high speed offences which can detect the offenders.
5. Prohibiting the act of digging or hoarding on roads.
6. Remove encroachments and maintain proper pedestrian ways for ensuring road safety.
7. Stringent actions to be taken for the violation of any road safety rules.

Question 3.
What are the suggestion to reduce vehicle pollution?
Answer:

1. Walking is a good alternative and cycling is a good exercise for a distance of 1 to 2 kms.
2. Use eco-friendly vehicles.
3. Implement the idea of installing bollards near unmanned railway crossings. A separate unhindered passage for cyclists would yield many benefits and also reducing road crashes.
4. Cycling is a healthy habit and reduces pollution.
5. Motorcycle manufacturers should be asked to design two wheelers with a designed maximum speed of 50 km ph.
6. An awareness programme can be used by narrating live examples and also projecting videos.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Market and Consumer Protection

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Market and Consumer Protection Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In which case a consumer cannot complain against the manufacturer for a defective product?
(a) Date of expiry unspecified
(b) Price of the commodity
(c) Batch number of the commodity
(d) Address of the manufacturer
Answer:
(c) Batch number of the commodity

Question 2.
Consumer’s face various problems from the producer’s end due to
(a) Unfair trade practices
(b) Wide range of goods
(c) Standard quality goods
(d) Volume of production
Answer:
(a) Unfair trade practices

Question 3.
Consumers must be provided with adequate information about a product to make
(a) Investment in production
(b) Decision in sale of goods
(c) Credit purchase of goods
(d) Decision in purchase of goods
Answer:
(d) Decision in purchase of goods

Question 4.
The system of consumer courts at the national, state, and district levels, looking into consumers grievances against unfair trade practices of businessmen and providing necessary compensation, is called
(a) Three tier system
(b) One tier system
(c) Two tier system
(d) Four tier system
Answer:
(a) Three tier system

Question 5.
Mixing other extraneous material of inferior quality with a superior quality material is called
(a) Purification
(b) Adulteration
(c) Refinement
(d) Alteration
Answer:
(b) Adulteration

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A set up where two or more parties engage in __________ of goods, service and information is called a market.
2. In regulated Markets, there is some oversight by appropriate __________ authoriries
3.  __________ refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has a control on the entire market.
4.  __________ statue is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta in the field of consumer protection for checking unfair trade practices.

Answer:

1. exchange
2. Government
3. Monopoly
4. COPRA

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion: In local Markets the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or are
Reason: A market is not restricted to one physical or geographical location.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is market?
Answer:
A set up where two or more parties engaged in exchange of goods, services and information is called a market.

Question 2.
Describe consumer protection.
Answer:
Consumer protection is a group of laws enacted to protect the rights of consumers, fair trade, competition and accurate information in the market place.

Question 3.
List out the rights of consumers.
Answer:
The Eight Basic Consumer Rights:

1. The Right to Basic Needs.
2. The Right to Safety.
3. The Right to Information.
4. The Right to Choose.
5. The Right to Representation.
6. The Right to Redress.
7. The Right to Consumer Education.
8. The Right to a Healthy Environment.

Question 4.
Discuss about the role of consumer courts.
Answer:
Consumer courts in India:

1. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): A national level court works for the whole country and deals compensation claimed exceeds rupees one core. The National Commission is the Apex body of Consumer Courts; it is also the highest appellate court in the hierarchy. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
2. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC): A state level cour works at the state level with cases where compensation claimed is above 20 lakhs but up to one core.
3. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (DCDRF): A district level court works at the district level with cases where the compensation claimed is up to 20 lakhs.

Question 5.
Write about the types of market and its functions.
Answer:
On the Basis of Geographic Location:

1. Local Markets: In such a market the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or area.
2. Regional Markets: These markets cover a wider are than local markets like a district, or a cluster of few smaller states
3. National Market: This is when the demand for the goods is limited to one specific country. Or the government may not allow the trade of such goods outside national boundaries.
4. International Market: When the demand for the product is international and the goods are also traded internationally in bulk quantities, we call it as an international market.

On the Basis of Time:

1. Very Short Period Market: This is when the supply of the goods is fixed, and so it cannot be changed instantaneously. For example the market for flowers, vegetables. Fruits etc.
2. Short Period Market: The market is slightly longer than the previous one. Here the supply can be slightly adjusted. Example: The demand of fish, milk or egg,
3. Long Period Market: Here the supply can be changed easily by scaling production. So it can change according to the demand of the market.

On the Basis of Nature of Transaction

1. Spot Market: This is where spot transactions occur, that is the money is paid immediately. There is no system of credit.
2. Future Market: This is where the transactions are credit transactions. There is a promise to pay the consideration sometime in the future.

On the Basis of Regulation:

1. Regulated Market: In such a market there is some oversight by appropriate government authorities. For example, the stock market is a highly regulated market.
2. Unregulated Market: This is an absolutely free market. There is no oversight or regulation, the market forces decide everything.

On the basis of Nature of competition:

1. Monopoly:
   Monopoly refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has a control on the entire market. This single seller deals in the products that have no closesubstitutes.
2. Monopolistic Competition:
   Monopolistic competition refers to a market situation in which there are a large number of buyers and sellers of products.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Market and Consumer Protection Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
There are _________ classifications of markets.
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 2.
_________ market is where the transactions are credit transactions.
(a) National
(b) Spot
(c) Future
(d) Monopoly
Answer:
(c) Future

Question 3.
_________ has widened the definition of ‘Consumer’
(a) The Consumer Protection Act 1986
(b) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
(c) District Forum
(d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019
Answer:
(d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019

Question 4.
The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR _________ on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement.
(a) 1,000,000
(b) 1,00,00,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 10,000,000
Answer:
(a) 1,000,000

Question 5.
The NCDRC is headed by _________
(a) Chief justice of the supreme court of India
(b) One of the judges of the high court
(c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. There has to more than one buyer or seller for the market to be _________
2. In a _________ market, the supply can be changed easily by scaling production.
3. In a _________ market, there is no system of credit.
4. The stock market is a highly _________ market.
5. The term monopolistic competition was given by _________

Answer:

1. Competitive
2. Long period
3. spot
4. regulated
5. Prof Edward H. Chamberlin

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion (A) : Hoardings goods is an unifair Trade practice.
Reason (R) : It has an intention of raising the cost of these or similar goods.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who are the two parties involved in a transaction?
Answer:
The two parties involved in a transaction are called seller and buyer. The seller sells goods and services to the buyer in exchange of money.

Question 2.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
A Consumer is a person who purchases a product or avails a service for a consideration, either for his personal use or to earn his livelihood by means of self employment.

Question 3.
What is unfair trade practice?
Answer:
An “unfair trade practice” means a trade practice, which, for the purpose of promoting any sale, use or supply of any goods or services, adopts unfair method, or unfair or deceptive practice.

Question 4.
Give few examples of unfair trade practices.
Answer:

1. False representation
2. When goods and services are not of stated standard, quality or grade
3. When second hand, renovated goods are sold as new ones
4. When goods and services do not have the claimed use, usefulness or benefit
5. When products / services do not have the claimed warranty / guarantee
6. When the price of product or service is misleading.
7. False and misleading advertisement of selling at bargain price.

Question 5.
Why are consumer protection controls established?
Answer:
Consumer Protection Councils are established at the national, state and district level to increase consumer awareness.

Question 6.
Write a short note on E-commerce Transaction.
Answer:
The New Act has widened the definition of consumer’. The definition now includes any person who buys any goods, whether through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

Question 7.
How can consumers e-file complaints?
Answer:
The New Act contains enabling provisions for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Question 8.
Name the important Acts passed for consumer protection.
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986. (ii) The Legal Metrology Act, 2009.
2. The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986.
3. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
4. The prevention of Black Marketing and maintenance of supplies of essential.
5. Commodities Act, 1980.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the features of a market.
Answer:

1. A market is also not restricted to one physical or geographical location. It covers a general wide area and the demand and supply forces of the region.
2. There must be a group of buyers and sellers of the commodity to constitute a market.
   And the relations between these sellers and buyers must be business relations.
3. Both the sellers and buyers must have access to knowledge about the market. There should be an awareness of the demand for products, consumer choices, and preferences, fashion trends, etc.
4. At any given time only one price can be prevalent in the market for the goods and services. This is only possible in the existence of perfect competition.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Women Empowerment

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Women Empowerment Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of gender inequality?
(a) Poor maternal health
(b) Greater insecurity for men
(c) The spread of HIV/AIDS
(d) Lower literacy rates for women
Answer:
(b) Greater insecurity for men

Question 2.
Gender equality is an issue that is relevant to
(a) Girls and women; its a womens issue
(b) All societies, women and men alike
(c) Third world countries only
(d) Developed Countries only
Answer:
(b) All societies, women and men alike

Question 3.
Which of the following strategies will help women become more socially and economically empowered?
(a) Women working together to challenge discrimination
(b) More income sources for women
(c) Improved access to education
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Why are girls more likely than boys to miss out on secondary education in the developing world?
(a) Because of high school fees, only boys are sent to school
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home
(c) Child Marriage restricts girls mobility and freedom
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Jyotirao Phule is remembered as the champion of womens education in India. He, along with his wife ______ ,opened the first school for girls in 1848.
2. ________ is the first Woman to hold a Union Foreign Minister’s post.
3. ________ is the first Woman Director General of Police (DGP).
4. ________ is the first Indian Woman to win Booker

Answer:

1. Savitribai Phule
2. Sushma Swaraj
3. Kanchan Chaudhary Bhattacharya
4. Arundhati Roy

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion: Now women are being integrated at all steps of humanitarian operations.
Reason: Women and girls suffer the most from any kind of conflict in the society.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion: Violence against women cuts across caste, class, religion, age and even education. Reason: Domestic violence is manifested in the form of foeticide, infanticide, dowry murder, marital cruelty, battering, child abuse etc.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Discuss about various roles played by woman in Society.
Answer:

1. Importance of womens economic empowerment in society is inevitable.
2. Women’s economic empowerment is central to realising womens rights and gender equality.
3. Empowering women in the economy and bridging gender gaps in the world of work are key to achieving the agenda for Sustainable Development
4. When ‘more women work, economies grow. 4. Increasing women’s and girls’ educational attainment contributes to women’s economic empowerment and more inclusive economic growth.
5. Other than these, women also play the role of caretakers of children and elders at home.
6. Women have the capacity to transform a society for the better.

Question 2.
What is gender equality?
Answer:
Gender equality is the state of equal case of access to resources and opportunities regardless of gender.

Question 3.
Explain woman’s right.
Answer:
Womans rights are the fundamental human rights which include the right to live free from violence, slavery and discrimination, to be educated, to own property, to vote and to earn a fair and equal wage.

Question 4.
List out the essential factors of woman empowerment.
Answer:
The essential factors for empowerment are :

1. Education: Education gives one the ability to think wisely and take thoughtful decisions.
2. Gender Discrimination: A Society which discriminates between the two genders can never be empowered.
3. Discrimination based on caste, creed, religion etc.

Question 5.
Write an essay on importance of woman’s education.
Answer:
Importance of woman’s education:

1. Increased Literacy: Offering all children education will prop up literacy rates, pushing forward development in struggling regions.
2. Human Trafficking: Women are most vulnerable to trafficking when they are undereducated and poor. Through providing young girls with opportunities and fundamental skills, Human Trafficking can be significantly undermined.
3. Political Representation: Across the globe, women are under represented as voters and restricted from political involvement. Civic education, training and all around empowerment will reduce this gap.
4. Thriving Babies: Children of educated mothers are twice as likely to survive past the age of five.
5. Later Marriage: As suggested by the United Nations Population Fund, in underdeveloped countries, one in every three girls is married before reaching the age of 18. In a region where a girl receives seven or more years of education, the wedding date is delayed by four years.
6. Income Potential: According to (UNESCO) a single year of primary education has shown to increase a girl’s wages later in life by 20 percent.
7. Prospering GDP: Gross Domestic Product also rises when both girls and boys are being offered educational opportunities.
8. Poverty Reduction: When women are provided with equal rights and equal access to education, they go on to participate in economic activity. Increased earning power leads to reduction in poverty level.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Women Empowerment Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
First Women’s University _____ starts, SNDT University in Pune with five students.
(a) Vijaya lakshmi pandit
(b)Maharshi Karve
(c) Mother Teresa
(d) Arundhati Roy
Answer:
(b) Maharshi Karve

Question 2.
First Woman Prime Minister of India _____
(a) Fathima Beevi
(b) Kiran Bedi
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Meira Kumar
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi

Question 3.
First woman defence Minister of India _____
(a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
(b) Meira Kumar
(c) Sushma Swaraj
(d) Pratibha Patil
Answer:
(a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman

Question 4.
The women population shared _____ of the total population of the world.
(a) 75%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(d) 50%

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ is the first Woman President of India.
2. ______ is the first Woman President of the UN General Assembly.
3. The First Woman Speaker of LokSabha is ______
4. The First Woman to win Nobel Peace Prize is ______
5. The first indian women to clime Mount Everest _______

Answer:

1. Pratibha Patil
2. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
3. Meira Kumar
4. Mother Teresa
5. Bachendri Pal

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

IV. Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Assertion (A): It is everyone’s responsibility to make each woman into an independent and empowered woman.
Reason (R): World peace and prosperity cannot be achieved without empowering each and every woman on this planet.
a) A is true but R is false
b) A is false but R is true
c) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is feminism?
Answer:
“Feminism is not about making women stronger. Women are already strong. It’s about changing the way the world perceives that strength”.

Question 2.
Define Education.
Answer:
Education is one of the most important means of empowering women with the knowledge, skills and self-confidence necessary to participate fully in the development process.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of educating a girl child?
Answer:

1. Educating the girl child produces mothers who are educated and who will, in turn, educate their children care for their families and provide their children care and support.
2. The girl child needs to be educated to acquire knowledge and skills needed to advance her status for social interactions and self-improvement.

Question 4.
What the factors responsible for poor female literacy rate?
Answer:

1. Gender based inequality.
2. Social discrimination and economic exploitation.
3. Occupation of girl child in domestic chores.
4. Low enrolment of girls in schools.
5. Low retention rate and high dropout rate.

Question 5.
What are the important aspects of woman empowerment?
Personal rights, Social equality, Political power, and Economic opportunity are the important aspects of woman empowerment.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the need for economic empowerment of woman.
Answer:

1. Gender differences in laws affect both developing and developed economies, and women in all regions.
2. Women remain less likely to participate in the labour market than men around the world.
3. Women are more likely to be unemployed than men.
4. Women are over-represented in informal and vulnerable employment.
5. Globally, women are paid less than men.
6. Women bear disproportionate responsibility for unpaid care and domestic work.
7. Women are still less likely to have access to social protection.

Students can Download Science Chapter 6 Visual Communication Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Visual Communication

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Visual Communication Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The Keyboard shortcut is used to copy the selected text
(a) Ctrl+c
(b) Ctrl+v
(c) Ctrl+x
(d) Ctrl+A
Answer:
(a) Ctrl+c

Question 2.
The Keyboard shortcut is used to cut the selected text
(a) Ctrl+ c
(b) Ctrl+v
(c) Ctrl+x
(d) Ctrl+A
Answer:
(c) Ctrl+x

Question 3.
How many types of page orientation are there in Libre office Writer?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 4.
If the ruler is not displayed in the screen, ________ option is clicked.
(a) View → ruler
(b) view → task
(c) file → save
(d) edit →paste
Answer:
(a) View → ruler

Question 5.
The menu is used to save the document
(a) File → open
(b) file → print
(c) file → save
(d) file → close
Answer:
(c) file → save

II. Answer the following Questions:

Question 1.
What is the use for Text document software?
Answer:

1. A text file is used to store standard and structured textual data or information that is human readable.
2. It is defined in several different formats, including the most popular ASCII for cross.
3. Platform usage and ANSI for windows – based operating platforms.

Question 2.
What is selecting text?
Answer:
Selecting is the process of highlighting text or picking an object. For example, a user may select text to copy, cut or move that text to an alternate location or select a file they want to view.

Question 3.
How to close a document?
Answer:
Close the current document by selecting File Close command on the menu bar or click the Close icon if it is visible on the Standard toolbar.

Question 4.
What is right alignment?
Answer:
Right alignment is text or page formatting that aligns text along the right side of a page or containing element.

Question 5.
How to open an existing document?
Answer:
To open an existing document, do any one of the following methods:

1. Click the Open File button on the menu bar.
2. Choose File → Open command from the menu bar.
3. Press CTRL+O keys on the keyboard. Each of the above method will show the Open dialog box. Choose the file and click the Open button

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Visual Communication Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
_________ is a powerful and free office suite, used by millions of people.
(a) LibreOffice
(b) Microsoft window
(c) JAVA
(d) HTML
Answer:
(a) LibreOffice

Question 2.
_________ can create and edit forms, views and relations.
(a) Calc
(b) Impress
(c) Base
(d) Math
Answer:
(c) Base

Question 3.
_________ is the LibreOmce formula or equation editor.
(a) Impress
(b) Drawing
(a) Base
(d) Math
Answer:
(d) Math

Question 4.
The menu is used to print the document.
(a) File → open
(b) File → Print
(c) File → save
(d) File → save
Answer:
(b) File → Print

Question 5.
A _________ is a set Of characters and numbers in a certain style.
(a) Font
(b) Bullets
(c) Underline
(d) Paragraph
Answer:
(a) Font

Question 6.
_________ alignment refers to the appearance of the left and right sides of the Paragraph.
(a) Right
(b) Left
(c) Paragraph
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Paragraph

Question 7.
How many types of alignment can be selected in LibreOffice?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

Question 8.
A _________ orientation means a horizontal display.
(a) Landscape
(b) Portrait
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Landscape

Question 9.
_________ page is shorter in height but wider in width
(a) Landscape
(b) Portrait
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Portrait

II. Answer the following question:

Question 1.
What is drawing?
Answer:
Draw is a vector drawing tool that can produce everything from simple diagrams or flowcharts to 3D artwork.

Question 2.
How can you create a new document?
Answer:
To create a new document, do any one of the following methods

1. Click the New Document button on the menu bar.
2. Choose File → New command from the menu bar.
3. Press CTRL+N keys on the keyboard.

Question 3.
How can you print a document?
Answer:
To print a document or selected pages follow the steps given below:

1. Open the document to be printed.
2. Choose File → Print command on the menu bar.
3. The Print dialog box will open. Select the Options like print range, Number of copies, Printer name etc. See that printer is switched on and the paper is available in the printer tray.
4. Click OK.

Question 4.
What is the difference between cut and copy?
Answer:
The main difference between Cut and Copy is that cut removes the selected data from its original position while copy creates a duplicate of the original content.

Question 5.
What is font?
Answer:
A font is a set of characters and numbers in a certain style. Each font looks different from other fonts.

Question 6.
What is paragraph alignment?
Answer:
Paragraph alignment refers to the appearance of the left and right sides of the paragraph

III. Paragraph Questions:

Question 1.
What are the components of Libre Office?
Answer:
LibreOffice includes the following components.
Text Document:
Writer is a featurerich tool for creating letters, books, reports, newsletters, brochures, and other documents.

Calc (spreadsheet):
Calc has all of the advanced analysis, charting, and decision making features expected from a high-end spreadsheet. It includes over 300 functions for financial, statistical and mathematical operations, among others.

Impress (presentations):
Impress provides all the common multimedia presentation tools, such as special effects, animation, and drawing tools.

Base (database):
Base provides tools for day-to-day database work within a simple interface. It can create and edit forms, reports, queries, tables, views, and relations, so that managing a relational database is much the same as in other popular database applications.

Math (formula editor):
Math is the LibreOffice formula or equation editor. You can use it to create complex equations that include symbols or characters not available in standard font sets.

Question 2.
How can you selecting the text?
Answer:
For selecting text, the mouse or the keyboard can be used.
Selecting Text with Mouse: Following steps are to be followed:

1. Insertion point is moved to the start of the text to be selected.
2. The left mouse button should be clicked, held down and dragged across the text to be selected.
3. When the intended text is selected, the mouse button should be released.

Selecting Text with Keyboard: Following are the steps to be followed:

1. Insertion point is moved to the start of the text to be selected.
2. The Shift key is pressed down and the movement keys are used to highlight the required text.
3. When the Shift key is released, the text is selected.

Question 3.
List the steps of moving the text.
Answer:
The selected text can be easily cut and pasted in the required location. Following steps are to be followed.

1. The text to be moved to a new location is selected.
2. Edit → Cut is selected or in the tool bar is selected to cut the selected text.
3. Insertion point is moved to the place where the text is to be pasted.
4. Edit → Paste is selected or in the tool bar is selected to paste the text in the new location.
5. The text can also be pasted in this way to another or another type of document.
6. The following keyboard shortcuts can be used to move text.
   Ctrl + X → to Cut, Ctrl + V → to Paste

Question 4.
Hew can you change the margins?
Answer:
If the user is not having the exact value for the margins then the Ruler option on the View menu can be used to change the margins.
Following steps are used in this method:

1. If the ruler is not displayed in the screen, View → Ruler option is clicked.
2. The gray area of the ruler indicates the margin’s top area.
3. The mouse pointer is then moved in between the gray and white area of the ruler.
4. When the pointer is in the right spot, it changes into a line with arrows on both sides.
5. The margin guide is dragged to a new location.

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.3

Question 1.
Compare the following decimal numbers and find out the smaller number.
(i) 2.08,2.086
(ii) 0.99,1.9
(iii) 3.53,3.35
(iv) 5.05,5.50
(v) 123.5,12.35
Solution:
(i) 2.08, 2.086
Let us take 2.080, 2.086.
Comparing 2.08 and 2.086 the whole number part, tenths place digit and the digit in the hundredths place are equal.
Comparing the digits at thousandths place we get 0 < 6.
Therefore 2.08 < 2.086.
Smallest number is 2.08

(ii) 0.99, 1.9
Comparing 0.99 and 1.9.
First when we compare the digit in the whole number parts we get 0 < 1.
∴ 0.99 < 1.9 Smallest number is 0.99

(iii) 3.53,3.35
Comparing 3.53 and 3.35
Here the whole number parts of the given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place, we get 3 < 5
∴ 3.35 < 3.53
Smallest number is 3.35

(iv) 5.05, 5.50
Comparing 5.05 and 5.50
Here the whole number parts of the given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place, we get 0 < 5.
∴ 5.5 < 5.50
Smallest number is 5.05

(v) 123.5, 12.35
Comparing 123.5 and 12.35.
Comparing the whole number parts, we get 12 < 123
∴ 12.35 < 123.5
Smallest number is 12.35

Question 2.
Arrange the following in ascending order.
(i) 2.35, 2.53, 5.32, 3.52, 3.25
(ii) 123.45, 123.54,125.43, 125.34,125.3
Solution:
(i) 2.35, 2.53, 5.32, 3.52, 3.25
Comparing the whole number parts of all the numbers 5 is the greatest and 5 > 3 > 2.
∴ Greatest number is 5.32
Next 3.52 and 3.25 are equal in their whole number.
So comparing their digits in tenths place, we get 5 > 2
So 3.52 > 3.25
Now comparing 2.35 and 2.53 their whole number parts also equal.
∴ Comparing the digit in tenths place we get
2.53 > 2.35 ……(2)
Ascending order :
2.35 < 2.53 < 3.25 < 3.52 < 5.32

(ii) 123.45, 123.54, 125.43, 125.34, 125.3
Comparing the whole number parts we have 123 is the smallest number and two numbers 123.45 and 123.54 have same whole number part.
So in 123.45 and 123.54 comparing their digits in the tenths place we get 4 < 5
∴ 123.45 < 123.54 …(1)
Now comparing the remaining numbers
125.43, 125.34, 125.3 they all have the same whole number part.
Comparing the numbers in the tenths place we have 3 < 4
∴ 125.43 is the greatest …(2)
Also tenths place value 3 = 3 in 125.34 and 125.3
Again comparing the hundredths place value in 125.34 and 125.3, we get
125.3 < 125.34 …(3)
From (1), (2) and (3) we have,
123.45 < 123.54 < 125.3 < 125.34 < 125.43

Question 3.
Compare the following decimal numbers and find the greater number.
(i) 24.5,20.32
(ii) 6.95,6.59
(iii) 17.3,17.8
(iv) 235.42,235.48
(v) 0.007,0.07
(vi) 4.571,4.578
Solution:
(i) 24.5, 20.32
Comparing the whole number part we get 24 > 20
∴ 24.5 > 20.32
greater number is 24.5

(ii) 6.95,6.59
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place we get 9 > 5.
∴ 6.95 > 6.59
Greater number is 6.95

(iii) 17.3,17.8
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place we get 8 > 3.
∴ 17.8 > 17.3
Greater number is 17.8

(iv) 235.42,235.48
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Also the digits at tenths place also equal.
Comparing the digits at the hundredths place we get 8 > 4.
∴ 235.48 > 235.42
Greater number is 235.48

(v) 0.007,0.07
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Also the digits at the tenths place also equal.
∴ Comparing the the digits at the hundredths place we get 7 > 0.
0. 07 > 0.007
greater number is 0.07.

(vi) 4.571,4.578
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Also the digits at the tenths place and the hundredths place also equal.
Again comparing the digits in the thousandths place we get 8 > 1.
∴ 4.578 > 4.571
∴ Greater number is 4.578

Question 4.
Arrange the given decimal numbers in descending order.
(i) 17.35, 71.53, 51.73, 73.51,37.51
(ii) 456.73, 546.37, 563.47, 745.63 457.71
Solution:
(i) 17.35,71.53,51.73,73.51,37.51
Comparing the whole number parts of the given numbers we get
73 > 71 > 51 > 37 > 17.
Descending order:
73.51,71.53,51.73,37.51, 17.35

(ii) 456.73, 546.37, 563.47, 745.63 457.71
Comparing the whole number parts of the given numbers from left to right we get
745 > 563 > 546 > 457 > 456
Descending Order: 745.63, 563.47, 546.37, 457.71, 456.73

Objective Question

Question 5.
0.009 is equal to
(i) 0.90
(ii) 0.090
(iii) 0.00900
(iv) 0.900
Answer:
(iii) 0.00900

Question 6.
37.70 [ ] 37.7
(i) =
(ii) <
(iii) >
(iv) ≠
Answer:
(i) =

Question 7.
78.56 [ ] 78.57
(i) <
(ii) >
(iii) =
(iv) ≠
Answer:
(i) <

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.2

Question 1.
Fill in the following place value table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write the decimal numbers from the following place value table.

Answer:

Question 3.
Write the following decimal numbers in the place value table.
(i) 25.178
(ii) 0.025
(iii) 428.001
(iv) 173.178
(v) 19.54
Solution:
(i) 25.178

(ii) 0.025

(iii) 428.001

(iv) 173.178

(v) 19.54

Question 4.
Write each of the following as decimal numbers.
(i) 20 + 1 + \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 3 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 7 }{ 1000 } \)
(ii) 3 + \(\frac { 8 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 4 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 5 }{ 1000 } \)
(iii) 6 + \(\frac { 0 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 0 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 9 }{ 1000 } \)
(iv) 900 + 50 + 6 + \(\frac { 3 }{ 100 } \)
(v) \(\frac { 6 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 3 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \)
Solution:
(i) 20 + 1 + \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 3 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 7 }{ 1000 } \) = 21 + 2 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \) + 3 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) + 7 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \) = 21.237

(ii) 3 + \(\frac { 8 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 4 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 5 }{ 1000 } \) = 3 + 8 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \) + 4 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) + 5 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \) = 3.845

(iii) 6 + \(\frac { 0 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 0 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 9 }{ 1000 } \) = 6 + 0 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \) + 0 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) + 9 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \) = 6.009

(iv) 900 + 50 + 6 + \(\frac { 3 }{ 100 } \) = 956 + 0 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \) + 3 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) = 956.03

(v) \(\frac { 6 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 3 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \) = 6 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \) + 3 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) = 0.631

Question 5.
Convert the following fractions into decimal numbers.
(i) \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 } \)
(ii) 3 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
(iii) 3 \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 } \)
(iv) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \)
(v) \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 } \)
(vi) \(\frac { 99 }{ 100 } \)
(vii) 3 \(\frac { 19 }{ 25 } \)
Solution:
(i) \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 } \) = 0.3
(ii) 3 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac{7 \times 5}{2 \times 5}\) = \(\frac { 35 }{ 10 } \) = 3.5
(iii) 3 \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 18 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac{18 \times 2}{5 \times 2}\) = \(\frac { 36 }{ 10 } \) = 3.6
(iv) \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac{3 \times 5}{2 \times 5}\) = \(\frac { 15 }{ 10 } \) = 1.5
(v) \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac{4 \times 2}{5 \times 2}\) = \(\frac { 8 }{ 10 } \) = 0.8
(vi) \(\frac { 99 }{ 100 } \) = 0.99
(vii) 3 \(\frac { 19 }{ 25 } \) = \(\frac { 94 }{ 25 } \) = \(\frac{94 \times 4}{25 \times 4}\) = \(\frac { 376 }{ 100 } \) = 3.76

Question 6.
Write the following decimals as fractions.
(i) 2.5
(ii) 6.4
(iii) 0.75
Solution:
(i) 2.5 = 2 + \(\frac { 5 }{ 10 } \) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 10 } \)
(ii) 6.4 = 6 + \(\frac { 4 }{ 10 } \) = \(\frac { 64 }{ 10 } \)
(iii) 0.75 = 0 + \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 5 }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac { 70+5 }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac { 75 }{ 100 } \)

Question 7.
Express the following decimals as fractions in lowest form.
(i) 2.34
(ii) 0.18
(iii) 3.56
Solution:
(i) 2.34 = 2 + \(\frac { 34 }{ 100 } \) = 2 + \(\frac{34 \div 2}{100 \div 2}\) = 2 + \(\frac { 17 }{ 50 } \) = 2\(\frac { 17 }{ 50 } \) = \(\frac { 117 }{ 50 } \)
(ii) 0.18 = 0 + \(\frac { 18 }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac{18 \div 2}{100 \div 2}\) = \(\frac { 9 }{ 50 } \)
(iii) 3.56 = 3 + \(\frac { 56 }{ 100 } \) = 3 + \(\frac{56 \div 4}{100 \div 4}\) = 3 + \(\frac { 14 }{ 25 } \) = 3 \(\frac { 14 }{ 25 } \) = \(\frac { 89 }{ 25 } \)

Objective Questions

Question 8.
3 + \(\frac { 4 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 9 }{ 1000 } \) = ?
(i) 30.49
(ii) 3049 9
(iii) 3.0049
(iv) 3.049
Answer:
(iv) 3.049
Hint: = 3 × 1 + \(\frac { 0 }{ 10 } \) + \(\frac { 4 }{ 100 } \) + \(\frac { 9 }{ 1000 } \) = 3.049

Question 9.
\(\frac { 3 }{ 5 } \) = _______
(i) 0.06
(ii) 0.006
(iii) 6
(iv) 0.6
Answer:
(iv) 0.6
Hint: \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac{3 \times 2}{5 \times 2}\) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 10 } \) = 0.06

Question 10.
The simplest form of 0.35 is
(i) \(\frac { 35 }{ 1000 } \)
(ii) \(\frac { 35 }{ 10 } \)
(iii) \(\frac { 7 }{ 20 } \)
(iv) \(\frac { 7 }{ 100 } \)
Answer:
(iii) \(\frac { 7 }{ 20 } \)
Hint: 0.35 = \(\frac { 35 }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac{35 \div 5}{100 \div 5}\) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 20 } \)

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Life Mathematics Ex 1.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Life Mathematics Ex 1.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:

Question (i)
If 30% of x is 150, then x is ………….
Answer:
500
Hint:
Given 30% of x is 150

Question (ii)
2 minutes is ………… % to an hour.
Answer:
3\(\frac{1}{3}\)%
Hint:
Let 2 min be x% of an hour
and 1 hr = 60 min
x% = \(\frac{2}{60}\) x 100 = \(\frac{200}{3}\) = \(\frac{10}{3}\) = 3\(\frac{1}{3}\)
x = 3\(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question (iii)
If x % of x = 25, then x = …………
Answer:
50
Hint:
Given that x % of x is 25
∴ \(\frac{x}{100}\) = 25
x² = 25 x 100 = 2500
∴ x = \(\sqrt{2500}\) = 50

Question (iv)
In a school of 1400 students, there are 420 girls. The percentage of boys in the school is ………….
Answer:
70
Hint:
Given total number of students in school = 1400
Number of girls in school = 420
Number of boys in school = 1400 – 420 = 980

% of boys = 70%

Question (v)
0.5252 is ………….. %.
Answer:
52.52%
Hint:
Given a number, and to express as a percentage, we need to multiply by 100
∴ to express 0.5252 as percentage, we should multiply by 100
∴ 0.5252 x 100 = 52.52%

Question 2.
Rewrite each underlined portion using percentage language.

Question (i)
One half of the cake is distributed to the children.
Answer:
Answer:
50% of the cake is distributed to the children
Hint:
One half is nothing but \(\frac{1}{2}\) as percentage, we need to multiply by 100
\(\frac{1}{2}\) x 100 = 50%

Question (ii)
Aparna scored 7.5 points out of 10 in a competition.
Answer:
Aparna scored 75% in a competition
Hint:
7.5 points out of 10 is \(\frac{7.5}{10}\) = 0.75
For percentage, we need to multiply by 100
∴ We get 0.75 x 100 = 75%

Question (iii)
The statue was made of pure silver.
Answer:
96% students participated in sports
Hint:
Pure silver means there are no other metals
so, 100 out of 100 parts is made of silver = \(\frac{100}{100}\)
∴ to express as percentage, \(\frac{100}{100}\) x 100% = 100%

Question (iv)
48 out of 50 students participated in sports
Answer:
96% students participated in sports
Hint:
48 out of 50 students in fraction form is \(\frac{48}{50}\).
As a percentage, we need to multiply by 100

Question (v)
Only 2 persons out of 3 will be selected in the interview
Answer:
Only 66\(\frac{2}{3}\)% persons will be selected in the interview.
Hint:
2 out of 3 in fraction form is \(\frac{2}{3}\) to express as percentage, we need to multiply by 100
\(\frac{2}{3}\) x 100 = \(\frac{200}{3}\) = 66\(\frac{2}{3}\)%

Question 3.
48 is 32% of what number?
Solution:
Let the number required to be found be ‘x’
Given that 32% of x is 48

Question 4.
A bank pays ₹ 240 as interest for 2 years for a sum of ? 3000 deposited as savings. Find the rate of interest given by the bank.
Solution:
The formula for simple interest is given by
Interest (I) = \(\frac{PxRxT}{100}\) 100
Where P is principal amount; R is rate of interest in percentage; t is time period Substituting given values in formula, we get
P = 3000, t = 2 yrs, I = Rs 240

Question 5.
A Welfare Association has a sports club where 30% of the members play cricket, 28% play volleyball, 22% play badminton and the rest play indoor games. If 30 member play indoor games.

1. How many members are there in the sports club?
2. How many play cricket, volleyball and badminton?

Solution:
Given data
Members who play Cricket = 30% …..(1)
Members who play Vollyball = 28% …..(2)
Members who play Batminton = 22% ……(3)
Members who play outdoor games = (1) + (2) + (3) = 30
Members who play indoor games = 100 – 80 = 20%
Also given 30 members play indoor games
Let total no of members be ‘x’
∴ \(\frac{30}{x}\) = 20
∴ x = \(\frac{30×100}{20}\) = 15

1. Total number of members is 150

2. Members who play Cricket = 30% of total = \(\frac{30}{100}\) x 150

Question 6.
What is 25% of 30% of 400?
Solution:
Required to find 25% of 30% of 400

Question 7.
If the difference between 75% of a number and 60% of the same number is 82.5, then find 20% of the number.
Solution:
Given that 75% of number less 60% of number is 82.5. Let the number be ‘x’
∴ \(\frac{75}{100}\) × x = 82.5
∴ 0.75 – 0.6.60x = 82.5
∴ 0.15x = 82.5
∴ x = \(\frac{82.5}{0.15}\) = \(\frac{8250}{15}\) = 550
Required to find 20% of number ie 20% of x.

Question 8.
If a car is sold for ₹ 2,00,000 from its original price of? 3,00,000 find the percentage for decrease in the value of the car.

Solution:
Original price of car = ₹ 3,00,000
actual selling price of car = ₹ 2,00,000
Decrease in amount from original = 3,00,000 – 2,00,000 = 1,00,000

Question 9.
A number when increased by 18% gives 236. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the number be x. Given that when it is increased by 18%, we get 236.
x + \(\frac{18}{100}\) = 236
\(\frac{100x+18x}{100}\) = 236
\(\frac{118}{100}\)x = 236
The number = x = \(\frac{236×100}{118}\) = 200

Question 10.
A number when decreased by 20% gives 80. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the number be x. Given that when it is increased by 20% we get 80.

Question 11.
A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. Find the change in that number.
Solution:
Method 1:
Let the number be x. First it is increased by 25%

Method 2:
[to understand, let us assume that number is 100]
So, first when we increase by 25%, we get

We get back 100 ⇒ No change

Question 12.
If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 25% and the denominator is increased by 10%, it becomes \(\frac{2}{5}\). Find the original fraction.
Solution:
Let the fraction be \(\frac{N}{D}\) where N is numerator & D is denominator
It is given that numerator is include by 25%

Question 13.
A fruit vendor bought some mangoes of which 10% were rotten. He sold 33 \(\frac{1}{3}\)% of the rest. Find the total number of mangoes bought by him initially, if he still has 240 mangoes with him.

Solution:
Let the number of mangoes bought by fruit seller initially be x.
Given that 10% of mangoes were rotten
∴ Number of rotten mangoes = \(\frac{10}{100}\) × x
Number of good mangoes = x – no. of rotten mangoes
= x – \(\frac{10}{100}\)x = \(\frac{100x-10x}{100}\) = \(\frac{90}{100}\)x …(1)
Number of mangoes sold = 33\(\frac{1}{3}\)% of good mangoes = \(\frac{100}{3}\)%
∴ Mangoes sold = \(\frac{100}{3}\) x \(\frac{90}{100}\)x × \(\frac{1}{100}\) = \(\frac{30}{100}\)x
Number of mangoes remaining = No. of good mangoes – No. of mangoes sold
From (1) and (2)

Question 14.
A student gets 31% marks in an examination but fails by 12 marks. If the pass percentage is 35%, find the maximum marks of the examination.
Solution:
Let the maximum marks in the exam be ‘x’. Pass percentage is given as 35%
∴ Pass mark = \(\frac{35}{100}\) × x = \(\frac{35}{100}\)x
Student gets 31 % marks = \(\frac{31}{100}\) × x = \(\frac{31}{100}\)x
But student fails by 12 marks → meaning his mark is 12 less than pass mark.
∴ \(\frac{31}{100}\)x = \(\frac{35}{100}\)x – 12
∴ \(\frac{35}{100}\)x – \(\frac{31}{100}\)x = 12
∴ \(\frac{35x-31x}{100}\) = 12 ⇒ \(\frac{4x}{100}\) = 12
∴ \(\frac{12×100}{4}\) = 300

Question 15.
The ratio of boys and girls in a class is 5:3. If 16% of boys and 8% of girls failed in an examination, then find the percentage of passed students.
Solution:
Let number of boys be ‘6’ and number of girls be ‘g’
Ratio of boys and girls is given as 5:3
b:g = 5:3 ⇒ \(\frac{b}{g}\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\) …..(A)
Failure in boys = 16% = \(\frac{16}{100}\) x b = \(\frac{16b}{100}\)
Failure in girls = 8% = \(\frac{8}{100}\) x g = \(\frac{8g}{100}\)
Pass in boys = 100 – 16% = 84% \(\frac{84}{100}\)b …..(1)
Pass in girls = 100 – 8% = 92% = \(\frac{92}{100}\)g
From A, we have \(\frac{b}{g}\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\), = adding 1 on both sides, we get
\(\frac{b}{g}\) + 1 = \(\frac{5}{3}\) + 1
\(\frac{b+g}{g}\) = \(\frac{5+3}{3}\) = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
∴ g = \(\frac{3}{8}\)(b + g)
Similarly b = \(\frac{5}{8}\)(b + g)
Total pass = Pass in girls + Pass in boys
= (1) + (2) = \(\frac{84}{100}\)b + \(\frac{92}{100}\)g

Objective Type Questions

Question 16.
12% of 250 litres is the same as ………. of 150 liters
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Answer:
(c) 20%
Hint:
12% of 250 = \(\frac{12}{100}\) x 250 = 30 lit
Percentage : \(\frac{30}{150}\) x 100 = 20%

Question 17.
If three candidates A, B and C is 3 in a school election got 153, 245 and 102 votes respectively, the percentage of votes for the winner is ……..
(a) 48%
(b) 49%
(c) 50%
(d) 45%
Answer:
(b) 49%
Hint:
Candidate 1: 153
Candidate 2: 245 – winner [as maximum votes]
Candidate 3: 102
Total votes = 1 + 2 + 3 = 153 + 245 + 102 = 500

Question 18.
15% of 25% of 10000 = ………..
(a) 375
(b) 400
(c) 425
(d) 475
Answer:
(a) 375
Hint:
15% of 25% of 10000 is
First let us do 25% of 10,000, which is

Next 15% of the above is \(\frac{15}{100}\) x 2500 = 375

Question 19.
When 60 is subtracted from 60% of a number to give 60, the number is –
(a) 60
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Answer:
(d) 200
Hint:
Let the number be ‘x’.
60% of the number is \(\frac{60}{100}\) × x = \(\frac{60x}{100}\)
Given that when 60 is subtracted from 60%, we get 60
i.e \(\frac{60}{100}\)x – 60 = 60
∴ \(\frac{60}{100}\)x = 60 + 60 = 120
∴ x = \(\frac{120×100}{60}\) = 200

Question 20.
If 48% of 48 = 64% of x, then x =
(a) 64
(b) 56
(c) 42
(d) 36
Answer:
(d) 36
Hint:
Given that 48% of 48 48 = 64% of x

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.4 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.4

Question 1.
Write the decimal numbers represented by the points P, Q, R and S on the given number line.

Solution:
The unit length between 1 and 2 is divided into 10 equal parts and the third part is taken as Q.
∴ Q represents 1 + 0.3 = 1.3
The unit lenth between 3 and 4 is divided into 10 equal parts and the 6th part is taken as P.
∴ P represents 3 + 0.6 = 3.6
The unit length between 4 and 5 is divied into 10 equal parts and the second part is taken as S.
∴ S represents 4 + 0.2 = 4.2
The unit length between 6 and 7 is divided into 10 equal parts and the 8th part is taken.
∴ R represents 6 + 0.8 = 6.8
P(3.6), Q(1.3), R(6.8), S(4.2).

Question 2.
Represent the following decimal numbers on the number line.
(i) 1.7
(ii) 0.3
(iii) 2.1
Solution:
(i) 1.7
We know that 1.7 is more than 1, but less than 2.
There are one ones and 7 tenths in it. Divide the unit length between 1 and 2 on the number line into 10 equal parts and take 7 parts which represents 1.7 = 1 + 0.7

(ii) 0.3
We know that 0.3 is more than 0, but less than 1.
There are 3 tenths in it. Divide the unit lenght between 0 and 1 on the number line into 10 equal parts and take 3 parts, which represent 0.3.

(iii) 2.1
We knowthat 2.1 is more than 2 and less than 3.
There are 2 ones and 1 tenths in it.
Divide the unit length between 2 and 3 into 10 equal parts and take 1 part, which represemt 2.1 = 2 + 0.1

Question 3.
Between which two whole numbers, the following decimal numbers lie?
(i) 3.3
(ii) 2.5
(iii) 0.9
Solution:
(i) 3.3 – 3.3 lies between 3 and 4.
(ii) 2.5 – 2.5 lies between 2 and 3.
(iii) 0.9 – 0.9 lies between 0 and 1.

Question 4.
Find the greater decimal number in the following.
(i) 2.3,3.2
(ii) 5.6,6.5
(iii) 1.2,2.1
Solution:
(i) 2.3, 3.2
Comparing the whole number parts of 2.3 and 3.2 we get 3 > 2.
3.2 > 2.3 – Greater number is 3.2

(ii) 5.6, 6.5
Comparing the whole number parts of 5.6 and 6.5, we get 6 > 5.
6.5 > 5.6 – Greater number is 6.5

(iii) 1.2, 2.1
Comparing the whole number parts of 1.2 and 2.1, we get 2 > 1.
2.1 > 1.2 – Greater number is 2.1

Question 5.
Find the smaller decimal number in the following.
(i) 25.3,25.03
(ii) 7.01,7.3
(iii) 5.6,6.05
Solution:
(i) 25.3, 25.03
The whole number parts of both the numbers are equal.
∴ Comparing the digits at tenths place we get 0 < 3.
∴ 25.03 < 25.3 – Smaller number 25.03

(ii) 7.01,7.3
The whole number parts of both the numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place we get 0 < 3.
∴ 7.01 < 7.3 – Smaller number is 7.01.

(iii) 5.6, 6.05
Comparing the whole number parts, we get 5 < 6.
∴ 5.6 < 6.05 – Smaller number is 5.6

Objective Question

Question 6.
Between which two whole numbers 1.7 lie?
(i) 2 and 3
(ii) 3 and 4
(iii) 1 and 2
Answer:
(iii) 1 and 2

Question 7.
The decimal number which lies between 4 and 5 is _______
(i) 4.5
(ii) 2.9
(iii) 1.9
Answer:
(i) 4.5

Students can Download English Lesson 2 That Sunday Morning Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 3 Prose Chapter 2 That Sunday Morning

Read and Understand

A. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
How does Patna differ from Delhi?
Answer:
Delhi had grand and impressive buildings and monuments, where as Patna had none of them.

Question 2.
What was the girl determined to do? Why?
Answer:
She was determined to win the cycle race because every time her brother wins the race and boasts about it for days.

Question 3.
‘Flow did the cavalry officers look? What happened to them finally?
Answer:
The cavalry officers were brilliant in appearance. Their horses panicked and scattered. They were out of control. One of the cavalry officers fell into the ditch.
Haughtily means proudly or having or showing arrogant superiority.

Question 4.
Why did the girl reply haughtily?
Answer:
The girl replied haughtily, as she did not want to admit to her brother that she was scared and frightened.

Question 5.
Were the girl and her brother friendly with each other?
Answer:
No, they are not friendly with each other.

Question 6.
“I think it would be nice, if we moved quickly from here.”
(a) Who does ‘l’ refer to?
(b) Why did they want to move quickly from there?
Answer:
(a) I refers to‘Savita’s brother’.
(b) They wanted to move quickly from there, as they would be called in for a lot of explanation.

B. Think and Answer.

Question 1.
Work in groups. Discuss and have a debate on life in bustling cities and life in calm towns.
Answer:
Introduction : Village life refers to the living conditions of rural people. City life refers to the life of urban people. There is a wide difference between village life and city life. Both the city and town or village serve functional purpose in their own way. The town feeds and clothes people and the city provides learning and culture. There is a wide gap in the amenities Of life between the city and the town.

A student about city life : Dear students, I would like to say that city life is full of glamour and is very fascinating. There are magnificient multistoreyed buildings, broad roads, shopping malls, multiplexes, electric lights, etc. In large cities there are mills, factories and industries too. All these dazzle the eyes of new comers to the city. Here, there is novelty in everything. The daily routine of life is different. People spend their evening in a park, a library, shopping mall or a cinema hall. Then there are football, tennis and cricket matches, public meetings, speeches by eminent persons, etc. All these are entirely absent in villages. So I conclude saying that city life is fascinating and provide livelihood for a larger number of poor people.

Second student about town life : I don’t agree with you. Though Town life is plain and simple, here there is no din and bustle of the city. Everything is calm and quiet. People are in direct touch with nature. Most of their time passes in looking after fields and cattle. They are religious and pious. They enjoy pure air. They get pure and unadulterated food grains, fruits, milk and milk products. They get fresh vegetables and fruits. So I conclude that village or town life is a calm, healthy and pleasant life.

Question 2.
Imagine you are the girl and give a different ending to the story.
Answer:
When my father was posted in Patna, we had to move there. On a fine Sunday morning, my brother challenged me for a cycle race. I agreed. We started off with a big scream. I was determined to win the race, as I have not won the race earlier. So I pedalled, as fast as I could. My legs and hands ached. Gradually, I moved ahead of my brother. Suddenly I bumped on a cow, which was in the middle of the *, road. The frightened cow ran away. I fell down and immediately got up. ‘I want to win’. This thought made me not to bother of my pain. My brother was closer to me. Slowly I managed to pedal the cycle again. My brother had gone a little further than me. I gathered courage and speed after sometime. I pedalled as fast as I could and reached the finishing point, two seconds before my brother. I screamed with glee that I had won the race.

Vocabulary

C. Match the phrases with their meanings.

Answers:

1. (e)
2. (f)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (a)
6. (b)

D. Refer to a dictionary and find out the meaning of the words given below.

1. beam – to smile radiantly or happily.
2. smile – an amused facial expression.
3. guffaw – loud unrestrained burst of laughter.
4. laugh – to show an emotion of joy.
5. giggle – to laugh repeatedly without control.

E. Read the sentences given below. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the appropriate laughter words from the exercise above.

1. Kavitha’s face _______ with joy as she arrived India.
2. The show was enjoyed by all the audience and they _______ out loudly all the while.
3. When I tickle Nishanth, he always makes a loud _______
4. They didn’t mean any harm, they just did it for _______
5. Things will calm down, you just keep _______

Answers:

1. beamed
2. laughed
3. guffaw
4. giggling
5. smiling

F. Pick the word from the text that is similar to the words or phrases given below.

1. threatening and extremely angry = _________
2. a heavy blow or hit = _________
3. happening gently and slowly = _________
4. any building of a past age, regarded as a historically important place = _________
5. bad luck = _________

Answers:

1. scowl
2. thump
3. gradually
4. monument
5. unfortunate

G. Match each word with its antonyms.

Answers:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Make a sentence of your own for any five words from the above.

1. We sat in a shady place for some rest after a long walk.
2. I was interested to participate in the painting competition.
3. Don’t panic, when you are in trouble.
4. His childhood days were in misery.
5. The night was clear and calm.

Listening

H. Here is a humorous story. But there are some words missing. Listen to your teacher and fill in the blanks to complete the story. Then give a title and a moral to the story.
Answer:
A quick clever reply

Once there lived three friends Vani, Kavi and Sumi. They always played pranks on one another. One day Vani bought some delicious berries and she decided to share them with her friends.

Kavi and Sumi were delighted to see the berries. The three of them sat and started eating the berries. Suddenly Sumi decided to play a trick on Kavi. When she looked under her chair she saw a small heap of berry seeds. She stealthily pushed the heap of seeds under Kavi’s chair.

Then Sumi said, “What is this Kavi? You are so greedy! You alone have eaten so many berries.” Kavi felt bad and didn’t know what to say.

Vani looked here and there. When she looked under Sumi’s chair there were no seeds. So, she replied “Sumi, Kavi was at least greedy, but see yourself. You have eaten all the berries including its seeds.” Then Kavi understood that her friend had just played a trick on her and then all three of them laughed heartily.

Moral: It is a foolish thing to play stupid with others.

Speaking

I. Each person or a group chooses an item from the class and takes two minutes to prepare. He / she must promote and sell the same item in the most humorous way to convince the classmates to buy the product. You can choose items such as eraser, pencil, school bag, book, etc.
Answer:
Custom Round Eraser
We have these erasers exclusively for kids. They look colourful and are great for any grade. The custom round eraser is perfect for students because pencil erasers often wear down quickly. Its available in all the fun colours you want. You can match them, with your other items like pencils, schools bags and water bottles. Have fun with these excellent colourful erasers and enjoy your days at school with your friends.

Pencils
Here, we have colourful pencils for you. They can do wonders. You can write with these pencils on any surface or material. The written part can be erased with a piece of cloth. Whenever you want, you can make it shorter or longer. It can be shortened to any size and kept anywhere you want to. Buy this pencil and enjoy the maximum benefits of it.

Grammar

J. Look at the picture and fill in the blanks with suitable words.

1. The car was moving too _______
   
2. The lift is moving _______
   
3. Joanna did her classwork _______
   
4. Keerthi Vasan arrived _______
   
5. Paul _______ plays cricket with his friends.
   
6. Suguna _______ helps her mother at home.
   

Answers:

1. fast
2. slowly
3. neatly
4. late
5. always
6. often

K. Read the sentences and put the adverbs in the correct boxes. Give two more examples of your own in each box.

1. Anand has decided to submit his project tomorrow.
2. The cat ran behind.
3. Paraman sang in the choir happily.
4. We never come late to the office.
5. The stray elephant was set free in the forest yesterday.
6. Arun and Vimala usually complete their homework on time.
7. Raghav looked at his sister affectionately.
8. I prepare to leave early.

Answer:

L. Put the words in the correct order to make sentences. Use a different colour to write the adverbs.

Question 1.
Was / somebody / there / nearby / standing.
Answer:
There was somebody standing nearby.

Question 2.
Came / Anand / to / school / early.
Answer:
Anand came to school early.

Question 3.
Softly / Murali / speaks.
Answer:
Murali speaks softly.

Question 4.
Beautifully / the house / have / they / decorated.
Answer:
They have decorated the house beautifully.

Question 5.
English / classes / during / always / we / English / speak.
Answer:
We always speak English during English classes.

M. Pick the words from the box and put them in the appropriate column.
(kindly, soft, sweet, everywhere, bright, benstantly, few, then, huge, loudly)

Writing

N. Work in groups and write a paragraph on “Laughter is the best medicine.”
Answer:
Laughter is the best Medicine

A good laugh heals a lot of hurts. It is a mighty good thing that sets everything straight. It is a powerful antidote to stress, pain and conflict. Nothing works faster to bring your mind and body back into balance than a good laugh. Humour lightens your burden, inspires hope, connects you to others and keeps you grounded, focussed and alert. A good hearty laugh relieves physical tension and stress leaving your muscles relaxed for up to 45 minutes after. It improves the function of blood and increases blood flow, which can help protect you against heart attack and other vascular diseases. Shared laughter is one of the most effective tool. When laughter is shared, it binds people together and increases happiness and intimacy. Therefore, one should always maintain positive attitude in life and keep laughing to stay healthy and happy.

Creative Writing

O. Look at the cartoon strips. Create your own humorous story. Write a sentence or two for each frame in the space provided.

Answer:
Two friends Mohan and Sohan were walking in a park. They were enjoying their walk and busy chatting. They were so engrossed in their chatting that they did not look where they were walking.

Suddenly, they fell into a pit and banged into a coconut tree.

Two coconuts dropped from the tree and fell right on top of their heads.

Their heads were swollen with a big lump. It was very painful.

But still, they were happy that they can cherish the coconut water, free of cost. They immediately drank the coconut water and left the place.

That Sunday Morning Additional Questions

I. Select the Suitable Synonyms.

Question 1.
imposing
(a) cheap
(b) simple
(c) grand
Answer:
(c) grand

Question 2.
invariably
(a) never
(b) always
(c) often
Answer:
(b) always

Question 3.
determined
(a) decided
(b) planned
(c) thought
Answer:
(a) decided

Question 4.
blur
(a) clear
(b) unclear
(c) obvious
Answer:
(b) unclear

Question 5.
gradually
(a) slowly
(b) suddenly
(c) abruptly
Answer:
(a) slowly

Question 6.
whoop
(a) jump
(b) run
(c) shout
Answer:
(c) shout

Question 7.
momentum
(a) the force of moving body
(b) the rhythm of a body
(c) the gravity of a body
Answer:
(a) the force of a moving body

Question 8.
stampede
(a) procession
(b) rush
(c) march
Answer:
(b) rush

Question 9.
dislodged
(a) freed
(b) threw
(c) caught
Answer:
(a) freed

Question 10.
haughtily
(a) proudly
(b) hastily
(c) arrogantly
Answer:
(c) arrogantly

II. Select the Suitable Antonyms,

1. early
(a) soon
(b) late
(c) beginning
Answer:
(b) late

Question 2.
shady
(a) dark
(b) dim
(c) sunny
Answer:
(c) sunny

Question 3.
behind
(a) beyond
(b) ahead
(c) around
Answer:
(b) ahead

Question 4.
alone
(a) group
(b) separate
(c) single
Answer:
(a) group

Question 5.
obviously
(a) clearly
(b) evidently
(c) invisibly
Answer:
(c) invisibly

Question 6.
magnificent
(a) grand
(b) simple
(c) impressive
Answer:
(b) simple

Question 7.
grin
(a) smile
(b) giggle
(c) frown
Answer:
(c) frown

Question 8.
scowl
(a) glare
(b) disgust
(c) smile
Answer:
(c) smile

Question 9.
glance
(a) stare
(b) glimpse
(c) scan
Answer:
(a) stare

Question 10.
unpleasant
(a) pleasant
(b) disagreeable
(c) unwanted
Answer:
(a) pleasant

III. Choose the Correct Answers (MCQ).

Question 1.
My father was posted in _______
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Chennai
(d) Patna
Answer:
(d) Patna

Question 2.
On the first Sunday there, my _______ and I decided to do a little exploring on our bikes.
(a) sister
(b) brother
(c) uncle
(d) father
Answer:
(b) brother

Question 3.
After cycling for about _______, my brother got bored.
(a) one hour
(b) two hours
(c) half-an-hour
(d) 40 minutes
Answer:
(c) half-an-hour

Question 4.
The loser treats the other to a _______, okay?
(a) ice cream
(b) chocolate
(c) cake
(d) dinner
Answer:
(b) chocolate

5. My legs _______ and my skirt billowed out. –
(a) cramped
(b) pedalled
(c) ached
(d) kicked
Answer:
(c) ached

Question 6.
I could see the _______ in a haze.
(a) end
(b) comer
(c) road
(d) street
Answer:
(b) corner

Question 7.
I jammed on the brakes and the stopped abmptly.
(a) bike
(b) car
(c) cycle
(d) bus
Answer:
(c) cycle

Question 8.
The horse panicked and
(a) scattered
(b) ran away
(c) jumped
(d) leaped
Answer:
(a) scattered

Question 9.
I landed on the soft earth bordering the .
(a) road
(b) lane
(c) ditch
(d) pond
Answer:
(c) ditch

Question 10.
With one accord, we got onto our bikes and beat a hasty
(a) retreat
(b) move
(c) return
(d) ride
Answer:
(a) retreat

IV. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Who decided to do a little exploring on their bikes?
Answer:
Savita Singh and her brother decided to do a little exploring on their bikes.

Question 2.
Who was posted in Patna?
Answer:
The author’s father was posted in Patna.

Question 3.
Who got bored, after cycling for half-an-hour?
Answer:
Savita’s brother got bored after cycling for half-an-hour.

Question 4.
Who wins the cycle race always?
Answer:
Savita’s brother wins the race always.

Question 5.
Was Savita able to move ahead of her brother?
Answer:
Yes, she was able to move ahead of her brother.

Question 6.
What stood right in the middle of the road?
Answer:
A cow stood alone right in the middle of the road.

Question 7.
What did Savita do to stop the cycle?
Answer:
She jammed on the brakes to stop the cycle.

Question 8.
What happened to one of the riders?
Answer:
His horse threw him down and he landed in the ditch just next to the cow.

Question 9.
Who was coming towards them?
Answer:
One of the horse riders was coming towards them.

Question 10.
Who was behind the horse rider?
Answer:
The man to whom the cow belonged was behind the horse rider.

V. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Hew were toe reads In Patoa?
Answer:
The roads were good and the trees lining them were shady.

Question 2.
What did savita’s brother used to do, whenever he wen the cycle race?
Answer:
Whenever her brother won the race, he used to boast about it for days.

Question 3.
What happened to savita, when she pedalled her cycle fast?
Answer:
Her legs ached. Her skirt spread out in the wind, warning her to hit her face.

Question 4.
Was the author able to go ahead?
Answer:
Yes, she drew level with her brother and then gradually moved ahead.

Question 5.
Where did savita land, as seen as she saw the cew?
Answer:
She jammed the brakes and stopped the cycle, but she could not stop herself, landing straight on the back of the unfortunate cow.

Question 6.
To whom did the horse riders belong?
Answer:
They belonged to the governor’s bodyguard, as they were cavalry officers mounted on their magnificent horses.

Question 7.
What did the cow do to the horses?
Answer:
The frightened cow charged straight at the horses who panicked and scattered.

Question 8.
Where did the Cow fell?
Answer:
It managed to fall into a ditch and in the process freed Savita, who landed on the soft earth bordering the ditch.

Question 9.
Why did one of the horse riders sat down on the read?
Answer:
He sat down on the road, as his pants tore in an awkward place.

Question 10.
Did the girl admit to her brother that she was frightened?
Answer:
No, the girl did not admit to her brother that she was frightened.

VI. Paragraph Questions and Answers.

Question 1.
What did the auther and her brother do on the first Sunday? Hew were the roads there in Patna?
Answer:
On the first Sunday in Patna, the author and her brother decided to do a little exploring on their bikes. It was still very early in the morning and only a few people were walking on the roads. The roads were good and the trees lining them were shady. There were no impressive or grand buildings or monuments, as there were in Delhi. After cycling for about half-an-hour, her brother got bored and challenged Savita for a cycle race to the comer of the road. He said that the loser should treat the other to a chocolate. Savita agreed to this and they were off.

Question 2.
What happened to savita, while racing?
Answer:
During the race, she managed to move ahead of her brother. As she was nearing the comer of the road, she saw a cow right in the middle of the road. She applied brakes and stopped the cycle abruptly. But she was unable to stop the force of her body. She flew over the handle bars and landed straight on the back of the unfortunate cow, which got startled by the sudden attack and started running. The frightened cow charged up the road and round the comer. It spotted cavalry officers mounted on horses coming towards it. So it charged straight at the horses, who panicked and scattered. There was a regular rush. The cow managed to fall into a ditch and in this process freed Savita, who landed on the soft earth bordering the ditch.

Question 3.
How did horses behave, after the cow charged at them?
Answer:
After the frightened cow charged straight at the horses, they got panicked and scattered here and there. They were out of control. Some of them were running like mad in circles, while their riders tried to bring them under control. Two horses were nowhere to be seen, and one horse threw its rider right in front of Savita’s eyes. The poor man landed in the ditch just next to the cow. Thinking that it was another attack, the cow lowered its head at the unfortunate man. The poor man climbed hurriedly out of the ditch, tearing his pants at an awkward place.

That Sunday Morning Grammar Additional

Adverbs

An adverb is a word or phrase that modifies the meaning of an adjective, verb, or other adverb, expressing, place, frequency, manner, or, time.

Adverbs tell us when, where, how and why an action takes place.

A number of them end in ly.
• Brutus and his companions plotted secretly to kill Caesar, plotted – verb, secretly – adverb, tells you how they plotted.

More Adverbs

• She danced gracefully.
• Ram waited patiently for the bus.
• The student behaved insolently with the teacher, (rudely)
• The two friends met accidentally in New York, (by chance)

Here are some adverbs and their meanings.

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable adverbs.

1. Latha danced _______
2. I will meet my sister _______
3. She _______ plays with her friends.
4. It is _______ hot.
5. James coughed _______ to attract attention.
6. He plays the flute _______
7. She was walking _______
8. His jokes are always _______ funny.
9. You don’t _______ care, do vou?
10. My grandmother always smiled _______

Answers:

1. gracefully
2. tomorrow
3. never
4. terribly
5. loudly
6. excellently
7. slowly
8. very
9. really
10. cheerfully

II. Read the sentences and put the adverbs in the correct place.

1. He ran _______
2. The newspaper arrives _______
3. We _______ see John.
4. He ate the chocolate cake _______
5. He is _______ late for work.
6. They go to dinner _______
7. He _______ gave us the money.
8. The toys are _______ the floor.
9. We take a vacation atleast once _______
10. Mary fell _______

Answer:

1. quickly
2. daily
3. seldom
4. greedily
5. often
6. weekly
7. generously
8. on
9. annually
10. down

III. Put the words in the correct order and identify the adverb.

Question 1.
go / together / they / everywhere
Answer:
They go together everywhere.

Question 2.
abruptly / the driver / the bus / stopped
Answer:
The driver stopped the bus abruptly.

Question 3.
now / it’s / time / go
Answer:
It’s time to go now.

Question 4.
Saturdays / usually /1 / on / get up / late
Answer:
I usually get up late on Saturdays.

Question 5.
for / Javed / late / work / is / never
Answer:
Javed is never late for work.

Question 6.
Travel / weekends / Do / often / you / on
Answer:
Do you often travel on weekends?

Question 7.
often / early / class / for / Susan / is / for
Answer:
Susan is often early for class.

Question 8.
usually / when / go / vacation / year / do / each / you / on
Answer:
When do you usually go on vacation each year?

Question 9.
clearly / speak / and / softly
Answer:
Speak softly and clearly.

Question 10.
seen / have / him / before / I.
Answer:
I have seen him before

Adjectives

An Adjective is a word that describes a noun.
Eg : sweet, red, pretty.
Adjectives describe nouns and pronouns.

• Mohan is handsome.
• Hay fever can cause a runny nose, watery eyes and itchy skin.

If you are going to use a number of adjectives to describe something, then they must follow a certain order.

Adjective Order

Adjective related to qualities and feelings are placed first, (jolly, happy, kind).
This is followed by adjectives of size, age, temperature or measurement, (huge, middle- aged, warm)
Place adjectives of colour (yellow, blue, red); then adjectives of nationality. (Indian, Greek, British)
Finally place adjectives of substance and matter, (gold, cotton)

• I meet a jolly middle-aged black French popstar on the flight.
• The enormous old red building was built in 1926.

Note : When adjectives precede a noun, do not use commas.

Examples:

1. This bottle is breakable.
2. tie used to write meaningless letters.
3. I met a homeless person in London.
4. She is an adorable girl.
5. This soup is not edible.
6. He lives in a beautiful house.
7. Ravi is wearing a sleeveless shirt today.
8. Her hair is gorgeous.
9. He is more intelligent than this boy.
10. This house is bigger than that one.
11. I lost my most comfortable shoes.
12. Magesh is taller than Suresh.
13. Alex is the most handsome man on campus.
14. My job is worse than yours.
15. What a wonderful machine is man!
16. The class room is very clean.
17. The sky was multicolored.
18. I used to buy this kind of T-shirts.
19. He donated his old sweaters.
20. Did you have enough food?

Textual Activities

Spin a Yarn

The starting of a story is given. Develop it into a humorous story.

Once there lived a boy who bragged endlessly about himself. One day, he challenged his friend for a running race. He boasted that he was the fastest runner in school and no one had beaten him so far. The two friends started their race in their school ground. The boy started off as fast as he could and was far ahead of his friend. There was a small stone on his way. He tripped and fell down. He was badly hurt. Meanwhile his friend crossed him and won the race. Henceforth the boy stopped bragging about himself.

That Sunday Morning Summary

Section I

This story is an unpleasant episode of the author Savita Singh and how she managed to get out of it. The writer’s father was posted in Patna. On the first Sunday, she and her brother decided to go cycling in the morning. As it was very early in the morning, only a few people were on the roads. The roads with the trees lining them were good and shady. There were no grand buildings or monuments, as in Delhi.

After cycling for about half-an-hour her brother got bored and challenged his sister for a cycle race and the loser should treat the other with a chocolate. Savita agreed and they were off for the race. That was not the first time, they had raced. Usually, her brother would win and boasted about it for days. But Savita Singh was determined to win this race. She pedalled as fast as she could. Her legs ached and her skirt was spread out, warning to hit her face. She was breathing fast and couldn’t see anything clearly. Soon, she drew level with her brother and then gradually, she moved ahead.

Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Why did the family move to Patna?
Answer:
Savita Singh’s father was posted in Patna. So they had to move there.

Question 2.
Who was challenged for a race?
Answer:
Savita was challenged for a race by her brother.

Question 3.
Is the brother boastful? What makes you think so?
Answer:
Yes, the brother is boastful because whenever he wins, he boasts about it for days.

Question 4.
Why did the trees become a green blur?
Answer:
The trees became a green blur to Savita, as she was cycling very fast and due to that, she could not see the trees clearly.

Question 5.
Which line tells you that the girl was faster than the boy?
Answer:
The line ‘Soon I drew level with my brother and then gradually, I moved ahead’, tells us that the girl was faster than the boy.

Section II

As Savita was ahead of her brother, she could see the comer in a cloudy form. She was about to shout with joy. Just then, she saw a cow that stood in the middle of the road. She applied the brakes suddenly, but was thrown off the cycle. She landed on to the back of the cow. The cow was startled and started running out of fear. Savita clunged to her tightly for her dear life. The frightened cow charged straight at the cavalry officers, who were on horseback. The horses panicked and scattered. There was regular rush everywhere. The cow managed to fall into ditch and in the process freed Savita. She landed on the soft earth bordering the ditch.

Read the events of the story. They are in the wrong order. Put them in the correct order.

• And it charged straight at the cavalry officers on horseback. [6]
• And so she flew onto the back of the cow. [4]
• So everybody panicked and made a general rush to safety. [7]
• The startled cow charged off in fear. [5]
• She applied the brakes, but was thrown off the cycle. [3]
• Just then, she saw a lone cow in the middle of the road. [2]
• Finally the cow fell into a ditch and dislodged the girl. [8]
• The girl cried out in delight as she overtook her brother on her cycle. [1]

Section III.

Savita sat up with pain. The cavalry horses were still out of control. Some of them were running madly in circles. Their riders tried to bring them under control. Two horses were not’seen anywhere and another horse threw its rider right in front of the narrator’s eyes. He landed in the ditch just next to the cow. The cow thought it was another attack and lowered its head at the unlucky man.

The poor man climbed hurriedly out of the ditch, tearing his pants at an awkward place. Realising his pants being tom, he sat on the road with a thump. Her brother approached her and commented that she looked such a sight on top of that cow. He started laughing and asked her whether she was alright. She did not want to admit to her brother that she was frightened. So she arrogantly told him that she was alright. Just then, her brother saw one of the horse riders coming towards them with a threatening look and there was also a man to whom the cow belonged coming behind him. So they thought that it would be safe, if both of them moved fast from that place.

Otherwise, they would be called in for a lot of explanation. Both got into their cycles and moved away fast, as they did not want to add another unpleasant episode to the morning event.

Based on your reading, put a (✓) for the correct and (×) for the incorrect statements.

1. The man didn’t want to get up because he was tired as he was thrown into the ditch. (×)
2. The boy was rather unsympathetic to his sister. (×)
3. The girl was badly hurt. (×)
4. The boy and the girl were taken by the cavalry to explain their action. (×)
5. They rode back home quickly. (✓)
6. The girl admitted to her brother that she was badly frightened. (×)