Laxmi

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 23 Economic Biology

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Economic Biology Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Economic Biology 9th Class Question 1.
The production and management of fish is called ……………..
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Sericulture
(c) Aquaculture
(d) Monoculture
Answer:
(a) Pisciculture

Chapter 23 Economic Biology Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an exotic breed of cow?
(a) Jersey
(b) Holstein-Friesan
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Brown Swiss
Answer:
(c) Sahiwal

9th Science Economics Biology Question 3.
Which one of the following is an Italian species of honey bee?
(a) Apis mellifera
(b) Apis dorsata
(c) Apis florae
(d) Apis Cerana
Answer:
(a) Apis mellifera

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an Indian major carp?
(a) Rohu
(b) Catla
(c) Mrigal
(d) Singhara
Answer:
(d) Singhara

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 5.
Drones in the honey bee colony are formed from
(a) unfertilized egg
(b) fertilized egg
(c) parthenogenesis
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(b) fertilized egg

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Question 6.
Which of the following is an high milk yielding variety of cow?
(a) Holstein- Friesan
(b) Dorset
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Red Sindhi
Answer:
(a) Holstein- Friesan

9th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
Which Indian variety of honey bee is commonly used for apiculture?
(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Apis florea
(c) Apis mellifera
(d) Apis indica
Answer:
(d) Apis indica

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Guide Question 8.
………………. is the method of growing plants without soil.
(a) Horticulture
(b) Hydroponics
(c) Pomology
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hydroponics

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solution Question 9.
The symbiotic association of fungi and vascular plants is …………………….
(a) Lichen
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Mycorhizae
(d) Azotobacter
Answer:
(c) Mycorhizae

9th Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
The plant body of mushroom is …………………….
(a) Spawn
(b) Mycelium
(c) Leaf
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Leaf

II. Fill in the blanks.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 9 Science Solutions Question 11.
Quinine drug is obtained from ……………….
Answer:
Cinchona officinalis

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Biology Book Pdf Question 12.
Carica papaya leaf can cure …………….. disease.
Answer:
Apiculture

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Practical Question 13.
Vermicompost is a type of soil made by ………………. and microorganisms.
Answer:
earthworms

Samacheer Kalvi Biology Question 14
……………….. refers to the culture of prawns, pearl and edible oysters.
Answer:
Aquaculture

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Question 15.
The largest member in a honey bee haive is the …………………..
Answer:
F

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Standard Science Question 16
……………… is a preservative in honey.
Answer:
Formic acid

Science Solution Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 17
…………………. is the method of culturing different variety of fish in a water body.
Answer:
Polyculture

III. State whether true or false, If false, correct the given statement.

1. Mycorrhiza is an algae – False.
   Correct Statement: Mycorrhiza is a fungi
2. Milch animals are used in agriculture and transport – False.
   Correct Statement: Milch animals are domesticated for obtaining only milk.
3. Apisflorea is a rock bee – False.
   Correct Statement: Apis Florea is a little bee
4. Ongole is an exotic breed of cattle – False.
   Correct Statement: Ongole is a dual-purpose breed of cattle
5. Sheep manure contains high nutrients than farmyard manure – True.

IV. Differentiate the following

9th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.
Exotic breed and Indigenous breed.
Answer:

Exotic breed	Indigenous breed
Exotic breeds are imported from foreign countries	Indigenous breed are native to India
These foreign breeds are selected for long lactation periods.	These local breed show excellent resistance to diseases.
Example: Jersey, Brown Swiss and Holstein-Friesian	Example: Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Deoni and Gir.

Samacheer Kalvi 9 Science Question 2.
Pollen and Nectar
Answer:

Pollen	Nectar
Pollen is a fine to a coarse powdery substance comprising pollen grains which are male microgametophytes of seed plants, which produce male gametes	It is a sweet viscous secretion secreted by the flower of plants.

Science 9th Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Shrimp and Prawn
Answer:

Shrimp	Prawn
Shrimp has lamellar gills.	Prawns have branching gills.
Shrimp have claws on two of their five pairs of legs.	Prawns have claws on three of their five pairs of legs.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Solutions Question 4.
Farmyard manure and Sheep manure
Answer:

Farmyard manure	Sheep manure
Well decomposed farm yard manure contains 0.5% Nitrogen, 0.2% available phosphate and 0.5% available potash.	It contains 3% Nitrogen, 1% phosphorus pentoxide and 2% potassium oxide.

V. Match the following.

	Column A	.           Column B
1.	Lobsters	(a) Marine fish
2.	Catla	(.b) Pearl
3.	Sea bass	(c) Shell fish
4.	Oysters	(d) Paddy
5	Pokkali	(.e) Fin fish
6	Pleurotus sps	(J) Psoriosis
7	Sarpagandha	(g) Oyster mushroom
8	Olericulture	(h) Reserpine
9	Wrighta tinctoria	(0 Vegetable farming

Answer:

1. (c) Shellfish
2. (e) Finfish
3. (a) Marine fish
4. (b) Pearl
5. (d) Paddy
6. (g) Oyster mushroom
7. (h) Reserpine
8. (i) Vegetable farming
9. (f) Psoriasis

VI. Answer in brief.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 1.
What are secondary metabolites?
Answer:
Most medicines are obtained either directly or indirectly from plants. All the major system of medicines such as Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Homeopathy (AYUSH) use drugs obtained from plants and animals. These drugs from medicinal plants are called secondary metabolites.

Question 2.
What are the types of vegetable garden?
Answer:
Vegetable farming can be classified into:

1. Kitchen or Nutrition gardening,
2. Commercial gardening,
3. Vegetable forcing.

Question 3.
Mention any two mushroom preservation methods.
Answer:
Drying and Vacuum Cooling are some methods used to preserve mushroom.+

Question 4.
Enumerate the advantages of vermicompost over chemical fertiliser.
Answer:

• It is a rich source of nutrients essential for plant growth. It makes the soil fertile.
• It improves soil structure, texture, aeration and water holding capacity and helps to prevent soil erosion.
• It contains valuable vitamins, enzymes and growth regulator substances for increasing growth, vigour and yield of plants.
• It enhances decomposition of organic matter in soil.
• Vermicompost is free from pathogens and toxic elements.
• Vermicompost is rich in beneficial microflora.

Question 5.
What are the species of earthworm used for vermiculture?
Answer:
Among the vast community of earthworms only very few species can be used for vermicompost production. They are Perionyx excavatus (Indian blueworm), Eisenia fetida (Red worms), Eudrilus eugeniae (African night crawler).

Question 6.
List the medicinal importance of honey.
Answer:
Uses of Honey

• Honey has an antiseptic and antibacterial property. It is a blood purifier.
• It helps in building up of haemoglobin content in the blood.
• It is used in Ayurvedic and Unani system of medicines.
• It prevents cough, cold, fever and relieves sore throat.
• It is a remedy for ulcers of tongue, stomach and intestine.
• It enhances digestion and appetite.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the advantage of hydroponics.
Answer:
Hydroponics was demonstrated by a German Botanist Julius Von Sachs in 1980.
Advantages

• Crops can be grown in places where the land is limited, doesn’t exist, or is heavily contaminated.
• The climate – temperature, humidity, light intensification, the composition of the air can be monitored.
• Conservation of water and nutrients.
• Controlled plant growth.
• No intrusion by weeds.
• Fewer pests & diseases
• Minimal use of insecticide or herbicides
• In deserts and Arctic regions hydroponics can be an effective alternative method.
• Hydroponics is successfully employed for the commercial production of seedless cucumber and tomato.

Question 2.
Define Mushroom culture. Explain the mushroom cultivation methods.
Answer:
Mushroom is a fungi belonging to basidiomycetes. It is rich in proteins, fibres, vitamins and minerals. Mushroom culture is the process of producing food, medicine, and other products by the cultivation of mushrooms.
Mushroom can be cultivated either on paddy straw or on wood log.
Major stages of mushroom cultivation are;

• Composting:
  Compost is prepared by mixing paddy straw with number of organic materials like cow dung and inorganic fertilizers. It is kept at about 50°C for one week.
• Spawning:
  Spawn is the mushroom seed. It is prepared by growing fungal mycelium in grains under sterile conditions. Spawn is sown on compost.
• Casing:
  Compost is covered with a thin layer of soil. It gives support to the growing mushroom, provides humidity and helps regulate the temperature.
• Pinning:
  Mycelium starts to form little bud, which will develop into mushroom. Those little white buds are called pins.
• Harvesting:
  Mushroom grow better in 15°C – 23°C. They grow 3 cm in a week which is the normal size for harvesting. In the third week the first flush mushroom can be harvested.

Question 3.
What are the sources of organic resources for vermicomposting?
Answer:
Materials required for vermicomposting
Biologically degradable organic wastes are used as potential organic resources for vermicomposting. They are:

• Agricultural wastes (crop residue, vegetable waste, sugarcane trash)
• Crop residues (rice straw, tea wastes, cereal and pulse residues, rice husk, tobacco wastes, coir wastes)
• Leaf litter
• Fruit and vegetable wastes
• Animal wastes (cattle dung, poultry droppings, pig slurry, goat and sheep droppings)
• Biogas slurry

Question 4.
Give an account of different types of fish ponds used for rearing fishes.
Answer:
Types of ponds for fish culture
Fish farm requires different types of pond for the various developmental stages of fish growth. They are:

1. Breeding pond: Healthy and sexually mature male and female fishes are collected and introduced in this pond for breeding. The eggs released by the female are fertilized by the sperm and fertilized eggs float in water as frothy mass.
2. Hatchling pits: The fertilized eggs are transferred to hatching pits for hatching. Two types of hatching pits are hatcheries and hatching hapas.
3. Nursery ponds: The hatchlings are transferred from hatching pits after 2 to 7 days. The hatchlings grow into fry and are cultured in these ponds for about 60 days with proper feeding till they reach 2 -2.5 cm in length.
4. Rearing ponds: Rearing ponds are used to culture the fry. The fish fry are transferred from nursery pond to rearing ponds and are maintained for about three months till they reach 10 to 15 cm in length. In these rearing ponds the fry develops into fingerlings.
   e) Stocking pond: The stocking pond is also called a culture pond or production pond. These ponds are used to rear fingerlings upto the marketable size. Before releasing the fingerlings, the pond is manured with organic manure and inorganic fertilizers.

Question 5.
Classify the different breeds of the cattle with suitable examples.
Answer:
Cattle breeds
The Indian cattle include cows and buffaloes. They are domesticated for milk, meat, leather and transportation. They belong to two different species, Bos indicus (Indian cows and bulls) and Bos bubalis (buffaloes). These cattle animals are reared for milk and farm labour. They are classified into three types:

1. Dairy breeds,
2. Draught (or) Draft breeds,
3. Dual-purpose breeds

Dairy breeds:
Dairy animals are domesticated for obtaining milk. The cows (milk producing females) are high milk yielders (milch animals). The dairy breeds may be indigenous breeds (or) exotic breeds.

• Indigenous breeds are native of India. They include Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Deoni and Gir. These cattle are well built with strong limbs, prominent hump and loose skin. These local breed animals show excellent resistant to diseases.
• The exotic breeds (Bos taurus) are imported from foreign countries. They include Jersey, Brown Swiss and Holstein-Friesian etc. These foreign breeds are selected for long lactation periods. The Indian (local) breeds and foreign breeds can be cross bred to produce animals with both desired qualities.

Draught (or) Draft breeds:
They are used for agricultural work, such as tilling, irrigation and carting. These include Amritmahal, Kangayam, Umblachery, Malvi, Siri and Hallikar breeds. Bullocks are good draft animals while the cows are poor milk yielders.

Dual-purpose breeds:
These breeds provide milk and they are useful for farm work. In India these breeds are favoured by farmers as the cows are fairly good milk yielders and bullocks are good for draught work. They includes Haryana, Ongole, Kankrej and Tharparkar.

Buffalo breeds:
In India, buffaloes are domesticated in great number. They are the main milk producers. The milk production of buffaloes is more than that of cows. Murrah, Mehsana and Surti are indigenous buffalo breeds which are good milk yielders.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
Biomanuring plays an important role in agriculture. Justify
Answer:
Biomanure also knwon as organic manures, are predominantly derived from plant debris, animal faeces and microbes. They make the soil fertile by adding nutrients like nitrogen. They are eco-friendly. Biomanure is easy to generate and very economical. Some examples of biomanure are Animal manure, Vermicompost and Green Manure.

Question 2.
Each bee hive consists of hexagonal cells. Name the material in which the cell is formed and mention the significance of the hexagonal cells.
Answer:
The cell is formed in a sheet of wax. The hexagonal shape allows to hold the queen bee’s eggs and store the pollen and honey the worker bees bring to the hive.

Activity

Question 1.
Discuss in your class room about the importance of crop insurance to farmers.
Answer:
In agriculture there are risks beyond one’s control. Hence precautionary measures are to be considered to control damage faced by farmers. Farmers who take crop insurance protect their crop and families from unforeseen setbacks.
The advantages of crop insurance are,

1. Stability in Income
2. Minimal Debts
3. Farmers can safely invest on new technological advancements to improve their crop production.
4. Protection against loss of crops
5. Provides Awareness on natural calamities and the preventive measures to be taken

Question 2.
Collect at least five medicinal plants from your locality. Identify the plant and try to find out its medicinal value.
Answer:
Students can perform this activity under the guidance of the class teacher.

Question 3.
Visit a fish farm during the breeding season near your locality and collect information.
Answer:
Students can perform this activity under the guidance of the class teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Economic Biology Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………………. is a branch of agriculture that deals with cultivation of fruits, vegetables and
ornamental plants.
(a) Floriculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Olericulture
(d) Moriculture
Answer:
(b) Horticulture

Question 2.
……………….. is growing of vegetables in small scale in households.
(a) Vegetable farming
(b) Flower farming
(c) Kitchen gardening
(d) Vegetable forcing
Answer:
(c) Kitchen gardening

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an African species of Honey bee?
(a) Apis florae
(b) Apis indica
(c) Apis mellifera
(d) Apis adamsoni
Answer:
(d) Apis adamsoni

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an indegenous of cow?
(a) Sahiwal
(b) Jersey
(c) Red Sindhi
(d) Deoni
Answer:
(b) Jersey

Question 5.
……………… involves rising of cattle for milk production.
(a) Dairy farming
(b) Drying
(c) Freezing
(d) Canning
Answer:
(a) Dairy farming

Question 6.
………………. are low in fibre and contain high level of carbohydrates, protein and other nutrients.
(a) Cattle feed
(b) Roughage
(c) Concentrates
(d) Feed management
Answer:
(c) Concentrates

Question 7.
The ………………. contain the young stages of the honey bees and they are built in the centre
and lower part of the comb.
(a) brood cells
(b) storage cells
(c) drone chamber
(d) queen chamber
Answer:
(a) brood cells

Question 8.
………………….. feeds on the organic wastes.
(a) Bees
(b) Earthworms
(c) Prawns
(d) Cattle
Answer:
(b) Earthworms

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. is the science of growing vegetables.
2. Compost is a ……………….. as well as a fertilizer which is rich in nutrients.
3. …………….. is a small bacterium that colonize the roots of leguminous plants to form root nodules.
4. Application of ……………… has been found to increase yield of wheat, rice, maize and sorghum.
5. Mycelium starts to form little bud which develops into a ……………..
6. Compost for mushroom cultivation is prepared by mixing ………………… with number of organic materials like cow dung and inorganic fertilizers.

Answer:

1. Olericulture
2. soil conditioner
3. Rhizobium
4. Azotobacter
5. mushroom
6. paddy straw

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, write the correct statement.

1. Vermicomposting is the rearing of earthworms for the production of vermicompost – True
2. Pasturage is the production of fruits – False.
   Correct Statement: Pasturage is the availability of flowers to bees for nectar and pollen collection.
3. Binomial name of Nilavembu is Leucas aspera – False.
   Correct Statement: Binomial name of Nilavembu is Andrographis paniculata.
4. Mariculture is the culture of fishes and another aquatic organism in marine water near the sea coast – True
5. Operation flood programme is based on dairy commodity to increase milk supply in urban areas – True.

IV. Match column A with column B.

S.No.	Column A		Column C
1.	Tulsi	a.	Wrightia tinctoria
2.	Nannari	b	Cathyranthus roseus
3.	Vepalai	c	Eucalyptus globulus
4	Cinjona maram	d	Hemidesmus indicus
5	Nithya kalyani	e	Cinchona officinalis
6	Thaila maram	f	Ocimum sanctum

Answer:

S.No.	Column A		Column C
1.	Tulsi	a.	Ocimum sanctum
2.	Nannari	b	Hemidesmus indicus
3.	Vepalai	c	Wrightia tinctoria
4	Cinjona maram	d	Cinchona officinalis
5	Nithya kalyani	e	Cathyranthus roseus
6	Thaila maram	f	Eucalyptus globulus

V. Differentiate the following.

Question 1.
Marine water prawn culture and Freshwater prawn culture
Answer:

Marine water prawn culture	Freshwater prawn culture
The rearing of marine penaied prawn is called marine prawn culture or shrimp culture.	The rearing of freshwater prawn is called fresh water prawn culture.

Question 2.
Extensive fish culture and Intensive fish culture
Answer:

Extensive fish culture	Intensive fish culture
Culture of fishes in large areas with low stocking density and natural feeding.	Culture of fishes in small areas with high stocking density and providing artificial feed to increase production.

Question 3.
Storage cells and Brood cells
Answer:

Storage cells	Brood cells
The storage cells contain honey and pollen.	The brood cells contain the young stages of the honey bees.
They are built in the margin and at the top of the comb.	They are built in the centre and the lower part of the comb.

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Who are the Father of Indian medicines.
Answer:

Ayurveda	Charaka Samhita
Yoga	Patanjali
Unani	Hippocrates
Siddha	Agasthya
Homeopathy	Samuel Hahnemann

Question 2.
What is spawning?
Answer:
Spawn is the mushroom seed. It is prepared by growing fungal mycelium in grains under sterile conditions. Spawning is the sowing or planting of spawn on compost.

Question 3.
What are the types of aquaculture?
Answer:
Aquaculture is classified into;

1. Freshwater aquaculture
2. Brackish water aquaculture
3. Marine water aquaculture (Mariculture)

Question 4.
What is aquaponics?
Answer:
Aquaponics is a system of a combination of conventional aquaculture with hydroponics in a symbiotic environment in which plants are fed with the aquatic animals excreta or wastes.

Question 5.
What is green manure? How is it beneficial?
Answer:
Green manure is obtained by collection and decomposition of green leaves, twigs of trees, shrubs and herbs growing in wastelands, field bunds etc. Green manure improves soil structure, increases water holding capacity and decreases soil loss by erosion. It also helps in reclamation of alkaline soils and reduces weed proliferation. It is a manure obtained from undecomposed green material derived from leguminous plants e.g. Sunhemp, Dhaincha, etc.

Question 6.
Write a note on nutritional value of fishes.
Answer:
Cultivable freshwater and marine food fishes are highly nutritious, rich source of animal proteins and are easily digestible. They are rich in essential amino acids such as lysine and methionine, minerals like calcium, phosphorus, iron, sodium, potassium and magnesium. Fat soluble vitamins A, D and water soluble B-complex vitamins like pyridoxine, cyanocobalamine and niacin ate found in fishes. Polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA) which are helpful in regulation of cholesterol are present in plenty in fishes and thus promote cardiac health.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain hydroponics and give its importance.
Answer:
Hydroponics is the method of growing plants without soil, using mineral nutrient solutions in water. The containers are made of glass, metal or plastic. They range in size from small pots for individual plants to huge tank for large scale growing. It was demonstrated by a German Botanist Julius Von Sachs in 1980. Hydroponics is successfully employed for the commercial production of seedless cucumber and tomato.

Plants are suspended with their roots submerged in water that contain plant nutrients. The roots absorb water and nutrients, but do not perform the anchoring function. Therefore, the plants must be mechanically supported from above.
Importance of hydroponics

• Conservation of water and nutrients.
• Controlled plant growth.
• In deserts and Arctic regions hydroponics can be an effective alternative method.

Question 2.
What are the types of honey bees found in a colony?
Answer:
There are three types of individuals in a colony namely the Queen bee, the drones and the worker bees.

1. Queen Bee: The queen is the largest member and the fertile female of the colony. They are formed from fertile eggs. The queen is responsible for laying eggs in a colony. The life span of the queen bee is 3-4 years.
2. Drones: They are the fertile males. They develop from unfertilized eggs. They are larger than the workers and smaller than the queens. Their main function is to fertilize the eggs produced by the queen.
3. Worker Bees: They are sterile female bees and are the smallest members of the colony. Their function is to collect honey, look after the young ones, clean the comb, defend the hive and maintain the temperature of the bee hive.

Question 3.
Explain the methods used for vermicomposting.
Answer:
Vermicomposting methods can range from a wormbin in the kitchen for household scraps to large mechanized systems, which can be able to accommodate tons of organic material. In general these methods are of the following types:

• Bin (or) Container method
• Vermicomposting of organic wastes in field pits
• Vermicomposting of organic wastes on ground heaps

Bin method:
Vermicomposting by bin method is the rearing of earthworms in a container or bin. The container is half filled with bedding materials such as shredded cardboard, leaves, paddy husk, chopped straw, saw dust and manure. Small quantity of soil and sand is added to provide necessary grit for the worms. The bedding material should be moistened by adding water that enables free movements of the worms. The worms are gently placed and spread evenly on the bedding.

Organic wastes (kitchen wastes, vegetable and fruit wastes) are added which are fed by the earthworms. The bin is covered with coconut leaves or gunny bags to conserve moisture, provide darkness and keep out of pests. After a period of 60 days the wastes are completely transformed into nutrient-rich materials that are excreted by earthworms known as worm castings. These castings are harvested and used as organic manure.

Question 4.
What are concentrates? Why should they be given to cattle?
Answer:
Concentrates are low in fibre and contain high level of carbohydrates, protein and other nutrients. A variety of raw materials such as cholam (jowar), kambu (pearl millet), ragi (finger millet), rice bran, wheat bran, cotton seed cake, mustard cake, linseed cake, groundnut cake, mango seed, neem cake and yellu (sesame) cake can be used to make concentrate feed. The concentrates are fed at the time of milking. This helps in ‘let down’ of milk.
The daily average feed ratio of a milking cow is:

1. 15-25 kg of roughage (dry grass and green fodder)
2. 4-5 kg of grain mixture
3. 100-150 litres of water

For a cow that gives above 2.5 kg milk yield per day, 1 kg of concentrate feed should be given for every additional milk yield.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Metallurgy

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Metallurgy TextBook Evalution

I. Choose the correct answer.

12th Chemistry Chapter 1 Book Back Answers Question 1.
Bauxite has the composition ………………
(a) Al₂O₃
(b) Al₂O₃.nH₂O
(c) Fe₂O₃.2H₂O
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Al₂O₃.nH₂O

Metallurgy Class 12 State Board Question 2.
Roasting of sulphide ore gives the gas (A). (A) is a colourless gas. Aqueous solution of (A) is acidic. The gas (A) is ………………
(a) CO₂
(b) SO₃
(c) SO₂
(d) H,S
Answer:
(c) SO₂

Metallurgy Class 12 Important Questions State Board Question 3.
Which one of the following reaction represents calcination?
(a) 2Zn + O₂ → 2ZnO
(b) 2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO₂
(c) MgCO₃ → MgO + CO₂
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(c) MgCO₃ → MgO + CO₂

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Chemistry Question 4.
The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is ………………
(a) PbO
(b) Al₂O₃
(C) ZnO
(d) FeO
Answer:
(b) Al₂O₃

12th Chemistry Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Which of the metal is extracted by Hall-Herold process?
(a) Al
(b) Ni
(c) Cu
(d) Zn
Answer:
(a) Al

12th Chemistry Metallurgy Book Back Answers Question 6.
Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?
(a) ∆G_f° of sulphide is greater than those for CS₂ and H₂S.
(b) ∆G_r° is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide.
(c) Roasting of the sulphide to its oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
(d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
Answer:
(d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.

12th Chemistry Metallurgy Pdf Question 7.
Match items in column -1 with the items of column – II and assign the correct code:


Answer:
(c) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)

Chemistry Class 12 Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
Wolframite ore is separated from tinstone by the process of ………………
(a) Smelting
(b) Calcination
(c) Roasting
(d) Electromagnetic separation
Answer:
(d) Electromagnetic separation

12th Chemistry Metallurgy Question 9.
Which one of the following is not feasible?
(a) Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Cu(s) + Zn²⁺(aq)
(b) Cu(s) + Zn²⁺+(aq) → Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq)
(c) Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Ag(s) + Cu²⁺(aq)
(d) Fe(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Cu(s) + Fe²⁺(aq)
Answer:
(b) Cu(s) + Zn²⁺+(aq) → Zn(s) + Cu²⁺(aq)

Samacheer Kalvi 12 Chemistry Solutions Question 10.
Electrochemical process is used to extract ………………
(a) Iron
(b) Lead
(c) Sodium
(d) Silver
Answer:
(c) Sodium

12 Chemistry Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
Flux is a substance which is used to convert ………………
(a) Mineral into silicate
(b) Infusible impurities to soluble impurities
(c) Soluble impurities to infusible impurities
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Infusible impurities to soluble impurities

12th Chemistry Metallurgy Important Questions Question 12.
Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth – floatation method?
(a) Magnetite
(b) Hematite
(c) Galena
(d) Cassiterite
Answer:
(c) Galena

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Question 13.
In the extraction of aluminium from alumina by electrolysis, cryolite is added to ………………
(a) Lower the melting point of alumina
(b) Remove impurities from alumina
(c) Decrease the electrical conductivity
(d) Increase the rate of reduction
Answer:
(a) Lower the melting point of alumina

Chemistry Metallurgy Pdf Download Question 14.
Zinc is obtained from ZnO by ………………
(a) Carbon reduction
(b) Reduction using silver
(c) Electrochemical process
(d) Acid leaching
Answer:
(a) Carbon reduction

12th Samacheer Kalvi Chemistry Question 15.
Cupellation is a process used for the refining of ………………
(a) Silver
(b) Lead
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
Answer:
(a) Silver

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Question 16.
Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with cyanide ion. Silver is later recovered by ………………
(a) Distillation
(b) Zone refining
(c) Displacement with zinc
(d) liquation
Answer:
(c) Displacement with zinc

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12 Chemistry Question 17.
Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?
(a) Fe
(b) Cu
(c) Mg
(d) Zn
Answer:
(c) Mg

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Book Solutions Question 18.
The following set of reactions are used in refining Zirconium

This method is known as
(a) Liquation
(b) Van Arkel process
(c) Zone refining
(d) Monds process
Answer:
(b) Van Arkel process

12th Chemistry Solution Book Samacheer Kalvi Question 19.
Which of the following is used for concentrating ore in metallurgy?
(a) Leaching
(b) Roasting
(c) Froth floatation
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 Notes Question 20.
The incorrect statement among the following is ………………
(a) Nickel is refined by Monds process
(b) Titanium is refined by Van Arkels process
(c) ZinC blende is concentrated by froth floatation
(d) In the metallurgy of gold, the metal is leached with dilute sodium chloride solution
Answer:
(d) In the metallurgy of gold, the metal is leached with dilute sodium chloride solution

12th Chemistry 1 Chapter Question 21.
In the electrolytic refining of copper, which one of the following is used as anode?
(a) Pure copper
(b) Impure copper
(c) Carbon rod
(d) Platinum electrode
Answer:
(b) Impure copper

Metallurgy Class 12 Important Questions Pdf Question 22.
Which of the following plot gives Ellingham diagram?
(a) ∆S Vs T
(b) ∆G° Vs T
(c) ∆G° Vs
(d) ∆G° Vs T
Answer:
(b) ∆G° Vs T

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Question 23.
In the Ellingham diagram, for the formation of carbon monoxide
(a) \(\left( \frac { \triangle { S }^{ 0 } }{ \triangle T } \right) \)is negative
(b) \(\left( \frac { \triangle { G }^{ 0 } }{ \triangle T } \right) \)is positive
(c) \(\left( \frac { \triangle { G }^{ 0 } }{ \triangle T } \right) \)is negative
(d) initially \(\left( \frac { \triangle T }{ \triangle { G }^{ 0 } } \right) \)is positive, after 700°C, \(\left( \frac { \triangle { G }^{ 0 } }{ \triangle T } \right) \)is negative
Answer:
(c) \(\left( \frac { \triangle { G }^{ 0 } }{ \triangle T } \right) \)is negative

Question 24.
Which of the following reduction is not thermodynamically feasible?
(a) Cr₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Cr
(b) Al₂O₃ → Cr₂O₃ + 2Al
(c) 3TiO₂ + 4Al → 2Al₂O₃ + 2Al
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) Al₂O₃ → Cr₂O₃ + 2Al

Question 25.
Which of the following is not truc with respect to Ellingham diagram?
(a) Free energy changes follow a straight line. Deviation occurs when there is a phase change.
(b) The graph for the formation of CO₂ is a straight line almost parallel to free energy axis.
(c) Negative slope of CO shows that it becomes more stable with increase in temperature.
(d) Positive slope of metal oxides shows that their stabilities decrease with increase in temperature.
Answer:
(b) The graph for the fonnation of CO₂ is a straight line almost parallel to free energy axis.

II. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is the difference between minerals and ores?
Answer:
Minerals:

1. Minerals contain a low percentage of metal.
2. Metal cannot be extracted easily from minerals.
3. Clay Al₂O₃. SiO₂. 2H₂O is the mineral of aluminium.

Ores:

1. Ores contain a large percentage of metal.
2. Ores can be used for the extraction of metals on a large scale readily and economically.
3. Bauxite Al₂O₃. 2H₂O is the ore of aluminium.

Question 2.
What are the various steps involved in extraction of pure metals from their ores?
Answer:
The extraction of pure metals from the concentrated ores is carried out in two steps:

1. Conversion of the ore into oxides of the metal of interest.
2. Reduction of the metal oxides to elemental metals.

Question 3.
What is the role of Limestone in the extraction of Iron from its oxide Fe₂O₃?
Answer:
In the extraction of iron, a basic flux limestone is used. Limestone decomposes to form CaO which reacts with silica gangue present in the iron ore is acidic in nature to form calcium silicate (slag).

Question 4.
Which type of ores can be concentrated by froth floatation method? Give two examples for such ores.
Answer:
Sulphide ores can be concentrated by froth floatation method, e.g.,

1. Copper pyrites (CuFeS₂H₂)
2. Zinc blende (ZnS)
3. Galena (PbS)

Question 5.
Out of coke and CO, which is better reducing agent for the reduction of ZnO? Why?
Answer:
Coke (C) is a better reducing agent for the reduction of ZnO. Because, when we use coke, the reduction can be easily carried out at 673 K. Thus Carbon (Coke) reduces zinc oxide more easily than carbon monoxide (CO). From the Ellingham diagrams, it is quite clear that the reduction of zinc oxide is more favourable using coke ∆G for the formation of carbon monoxide from carbon is more negative).

Question 6.
Describe a method for refining nickel.
Answer:
The impure nickel is heated in a stream of carbon monoxide at around 350K. The nickel reacts with the CO to form a highly volatile nickel tetracarbonyl. The solid impurities are left behind.
Ni (s) + 4 CO (g) → Ni(CO)₄(g)

On heating the nickel tetracarbonyl around 460 K, the complex decomposes to give pure metal.
Ni(CO)₄ (g) → Ni (s) + 4 CO (g)

Question 7.
Explain zone refining process with an example using the Ellingham diagram given below.
Answer:
1. Zone Refining method is based on the principles of fractional crystallisation. When an impure metal is melted and allowed to solidify, the impurities will prefer to be in the molten region, i.e. impurities are more soluble in the melt than in the solid state metal.

2. In this process, the impure metal is taken in the form of a rod. One end of the rod is heated using a mobile induction heater which results in melting of the metal on that portion of the rod.

3. When the heater is slowly moved to the other end the pure metal crystallises while the impurities will move on to the adjacent molten zone formed due to the movement of the heater. As the heater moves further away, the molten zone containing impurities also moves along with it.

4. The process is repeated several times by moving the heater in the same direction again and again to achieve the desired purity level.

5. This process is carried out in an inert gas atmosphere to prevent the oxidation of metals.

6. Elements such as germanium (Ge), silicon (Si) and galium (Ga) that are used as semiconductor are refined using this process.

Question 8.
1. Predict the conditions under which
(a) Aluminium might be expected to reduce magnesia.
(b) Magnesium could reduce alumina.

2. Carbon monoxide is more effective reducing agent than carbon below 983 K but, above this temperature, the reverse is true -Explain.

3. it is possible to reduce Fe₂O₃ by coke at a temperature around 1200 K.
Answer:
1. The conditions under which:
(a) Ellingham diagram is used to predict thermodynamic feasibility of reduction of oxides of one metal by another metal. Any metal can reduce the oxides of other metals that are located above it in the Ellingham diagram. In the Ellingham diagram, for the formation of magnesia (magnesium oxide) occupy lower position than aluminium oxide. Therefore aluminium cannot be used to reduce the oxides of magnesium (magnesia). Above 1623K, A1 can reduce MgO to Mg, so that ArG° becomes negative and the process becomes thermodynamically feasible.

(b)

• \(\left( \frac { 4 }{ 3 } \right) \)Al + O₂ → \(\left( \frac { 2 }{ 3 } \right) \)Al₂O₃
  
• 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

At the point of intersection of the Al₂O₃ and MgO curves in Ellingham diagram. ∆G°
becomes zero for the reaction:

\(\left( \frac { 2 }{ 3 } \right) \)Al₂O₃ → 2MgO + \(\left( \frac { 4 }{ 3 } \right) \)Al
Below that point magnesium can reduce alumina.

2. From the Ellingham diagram, we find that at 983 K, the curves intersect.

The value of ∆G° for change of C to CO₂ is less than the value of ∆G° for change of CO to CO₂. Therefore, coke (C) is a better reducing agent than CO at 983K or above temperature. However below this temperature (e.g. at 673K), CO is more effective reducing agent than C.

3. Yes, it is possible to reduce Fe₂O₃ by coke at a temperature around 1200 K. In the Ellingham diagram, carbon line cuts across the lines of many metal oxides and hence it can reduce all those metal oxides at sufficiently high temperature. Ellingham diagram for the formation of Fe₂O₃ and CO intersects around 1000 K.

Below this temperature, the carbon line lies above the iron line which indicates that Fe₂O₃ is more stable than CO and hence at this temperature range the reduction is not thermodynamically feasible. However above 1000 K carbon line lies below the iron line and hence we can use coke as a reducing agent around 1200 K. Around 1200 K, coke is better reducing agent because above 1000 K, Gibb’s free energy for the formation of Fe₂O₃ is more than the formation of CO₂ from C.

Question 9.
Give the uses of zinc.
Answer:
Applications of Zinc (Zn):

1. Metallic zinc is used in galvanising metals such as iron and steel structures to protect them from rusting and corrosion.
2. Zinc is also used to produce die-castings in the automobile, electrical and hardware industries.
3. Zinc oxide is used in the manufacture of many products such as paints, rubber, cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, plastics, inks, batteries, textiles arid electrical equipment. Zinc sulphide is used in making luminous paints, fluorescent lights and x-ray screens.
4. Brass an alloy of zinc is used in water valves and communication equipment as it is highly resistant to corrosion.

Question 10.
Explain the electrometallurgy of aluminium.
Answer:
Electrochemical extraction of aluminium Hall-Herold process:
In this method, electrolysis is carried out in an iron tank lined with carbon, which acts as a cathode. The carbon blocks immersed in the electrolyte acts as a anode. A 20% solution of alumina, obtained from the . bauxite ore is mixed with molten cyrolite and is taken in the electrolysis chamber. About 10%, calcium chloride is also added to the solution. Here calcium chloride helps to lower the melting point of the mixture. The fused mixture is maintained at a temperature of above 1270 K. The chemical reactions involved in this process are as follows:

Ionisation of alumina:
Al₂O₃ → 2Al₃ + 3OO^2-

Reaction at cathode:
2Al³⁺ (melt) + 3e^– → Al_(l)

Reaction at anode:
2O^2- (melt) → O₂ + 3e^–

Since carbon acts as anode the following reaction also takes place on it.

• C (s) + O^2- (melt) → CO + 2e^–
• C (s) + 2O^2- (melt) → CO₂ + 4e^–

Due to the above two reactions, anodes are slowly consumed during the electrolysis. The pure aluminium is formed at the cathode and settles at the bottom. The net electrolysis reaction can be written as follows:
4Al³⁺ (melt) + 6O^2- (melt) + 3C_(s) → 4A_(l) + 3CO_2(g)

Question 11.
Explain the following terms with suitable examples.

1. Gangue
2. Slag

Answer:
1. Gangue:
The impurities associated with the minerals are known as Gangue or Matrix.

2. Slag:
A compound formed when gangue is combined with flux is called slag.
Flux + Gangue → Slag

For example, the oxide of iron can be reduced by carbon monoxide as follows:
Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂

In this extraction a basic flux, limestone is used.
Since the silica gangue present in the ore is acidic in nature, the limestone combines with it to form Calcium silicate (Slag).

Question 12.
Give the basic requirement for vapour phase refining.
Answer:
The two requirements for vapour phase refining are:

1. The metal should form a volatile compound with a suitable reagent.
2. The volatile compound is decomposed to give the pure metal.

Question 13.
Describe the role of the following in the process mentioned.

1. Silica in the extraction of copper.
2. Cryolite in the extraction of aluminium.
3. Iodine in the refining of Zirconium.
4. Sodium cyanide in froth floatation.

Answer:
1. The role of silica in the extraction of copper is to remove the iron oxide obtained during the process of roasting as slag. If the sulphide ore of copper contains iron, the silica (SiO₂) is added as flux before roasting. Then, FeO combines with silica to form iron silicate, FeSiO₃ (Slag).

2. Cryolite reduces the melting point of Al₂O₃ and increases its electrical conductivity. Aluminium is produced by the electrolytic reduction of fused alumina in the electrolytic cell. Alumina is not an electrolyte. So it is made as an electrolyte by dissolving it in the fused cryolite. The function of cryolite is to lower the fusion temperature.

3. Zirconium crude metal is heated with iodine in an evacuated vapour to separate from impurities and this decomposes at 1800 K to give a pure zirconium metal and iodine. Initially iodine is heated with zirconium to form a volatile compound.

4. Sulphide ores which are concentrated by the froth floatation process. Depressants are used to prevent certain type of particles from forming the froth. NaCN act as a depressant to separate ZnS from PbS.

Question 14.
Explain the principle of electrolytic refining with an example.
Answer:
The crude metal is refined by electrolysis. It is carried out in an electrolytic cell containing aqueous solution of the salts of the metal of interest. The rods of impure metal are used as anode and thin strips of pure metal are used as cathode.

The metal of interest dissolves from the anode, pass into the solution while the same amount of metal ions from the solution will be deposited at the cathode. During electrolysis, the less electropositive impurities in the anode, settle down at the bottom and are removed as anode mud. Let us understand this process by considering electrolytic refining of silver as an example.

Cathode:
Pure silver

Anode:
Impure silver rods

Electrolyte:
Acidified aqueous solution of silver nitrate. When a current is passed through the electrodes the following reactions will take place Reaction at anode.
2Ag (s) → Ag⁺(aq) + 1 e^–

Reaction at cathode:
Ag⁺ (aq) + 1 e^– → Ag (s)

During electrolysis, at the anode the silver atoms lose electrons and enter the solution. The positively charged silver cations migrate towards the cathode and get discharged by gaining electrons and deposited on the cathode. Other metals such as copper, zinc etc.,can also be refined by this process in a similar manner.

Question 15.
The selection of reducing agent depends on the thermodynamic factor. Explain with an example.
Answer:
From the Ellingham diagram, it is clear that metals for which the standard free energy of formation (∆_fG⁰) of their oxides is more negative can reduce the metal oxides for which the standard free energy of formation (∆_fG⁰) of oxides is less negative.

Thermodynamic factor has a major role in selecting the reducing agent for a particular reaction. Only that reagent will be preferred which will lead to decrease in the free energy (AG°) at a certain specific temperature.
E.g – Carbon reduce ZnO to Zn but not CO.

• ZnO + C → Zn + CO …………..(1)
• ZnO + CO → Zn + CO₂ ………………(2)

In the first case, there is increase in the magnitude of ∆S° while in the second case, it almost remains the same. In other words, ∆G° will have more negative value in the first case, when C is the reducing agent then in the second case when CO acts as the reducing agent. Therefore, C is a better reducing agent.

Question 16.
Give the limitations of Ellingham diagram.
Answer:
Limitations of Ellingham diagram:
1. Ellingham diagram is constructed based only on thermodynamic considerations. It gives information about the thermodynamic feasibility of a reaction. It does not tell anything about the rate of the reaction. Moreover, it does not give any idea about the possibility of other reactions that might be taking place.

2. The interpretation of ∆G is based on the assumption that the reactants are in equilibrium with the product which is not always true.

Question 17.
Write a short note on electrochemical principles of metallurgy.
Answer:
Electrochemical principles also find applications in metallurgical process. The reduction of oxides of active metals such as sodium, potassium etc., by carbon is thermodynamically not feasible. Such metals are extracted from their ores by using electrochemical methods. In this technique, the metal salts are taken in a fused form or in solution form. The metal ion present can be reduced by treating it with some suitable reducing agent or by electrolysis. Gibbs free energy change for the electrolysis process is given by the following expression
∆G° = -nFE°

Where n is number of electrons involved in the reduction process, F is the Faraday and E° is the electrode potential of the redox couple. If E° is positive then the ∆G is negative and the reduction is spontaneous and hence a redox reaction is planned in such a way that the e.m.f of the net redox reaction is positive. When a more reactive metal is added to the solution containing the relatively less reactive metal ions, the more reactive metal will go into the solution. For example,

• Cu (s) + 2Ag⁺(s) → Cu²⁺ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
• Cu²⁺ (aq) + Zn (s) → Cu (s) + Zn⁺(aq)

Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Write the equation for the extraction of silver by leaching with sodium cyanide and show that the leaching process is a redox reaction.
Answer:
The crushed ore of argentite (Ag₂S) is leached with sodium cyanide solution. This reaction forms sodium argento cyanide
Na[Ag(CN)₂]

Step 1:
Ag₂S + 4NaCN \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2Na[Ag(CN)₂] + Na₂S
The solution of sodium argento cyanide combines with zinc dust and forms sodium tetra cyano zincate and precipitated silver.

Step 2:
Zn + 2Na[Ag(CN)₂] → Na₂[Ag(CN)₄] + 2 Ag↓
In the step 2, redox reaction take place.

Question 2.
Magnesite (Magnesium carbonate) is calcined to obtain magnesia, which is used to make refractory bricks. Write the decomposition reaction.
Answer:
Magnesite is a carbonate of magnesium. Magnesite when heated at 800°C to 1000°C at the CO₂ content in it is driven off. The residue so obtained is known as calcined magnesite.

Question 3.
Using Ellingham diagram indicate the lowest temperature at which ZnO can be reduced to zinc metal by carbon. Write the overall reduction reaction at this temperature.
Answer:
Ellingham diagram shows variation in standard Gibbs free energy change with temperature for the formation of oxide. The Ellingham diagram shows straight line upward slope with formation of oxide, but in case of ZnO there is sudden change. Ellingham diagram helps in the selecting suitable reducing agent.

By seeing the Ellingham diagram, the free energy formation (∆_fG°) of CO from C becomes lower temperatures above 1120 K while that of CO₂ from C becomes lower above 1323 K than ∆_fG° of ZnO. As ∆_fG° of C0₂ from CO is always higher than that of ZnO. So C can reduce ZnO to Zn but not CO. Thus carbon is better reducing agent than CO for ZnO.

Question 4.
Metallic sodium is extracted by the electrolysis of brine (aq. NaCl). After electrolysis the electrolytic solution becomes basic in nature. Write the possible electrode reactions.
Answer:
Brine is a solution of sodium chloride (molten state):
The process of electrolysis involves using an electric current to bring about a chemical change and make new chemicals. In the electrolysis of brine, sodium ions migrate to the cathode, where electrons enter the melt and are reduced to sodium metal.
Na⁺ + e^– → Na (at cathode)

Chloride ions migrate the other way toward the anode. They give up their electrons to the anode and are oxidised to chlorine gas.
Cl ^– → \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)Cl₂ + e^– (at anode)

Overall reaction:
2NaCl → 2Na(s) + Cl₂ (g)

For aqueous solution of NaCl:

• H₂O + 2e^– → H₂\(\uparrow \)+ 20H^– (at cathode)
• Cl^– → \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)Cl₂ + e^– (at anode)

Overall reaction:
NaCl (aq) + H₂O(1) → Na⁺(aq) + OH^–(aq) + H₂(g) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)Cl₂(g)
After electrolysis the electrolytic solution becomes basic in nature. [Due to formation of hydroxide (OH^–) ion].

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Metallurgy Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Metallurgy 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Chemical formula of bauxite is ……………
(a) Fe₂O₃
(b) Fe₂O₃. FeO
(c) Al₂O₃ . H₂O
(d) Al₂O₃.2H₂O
Answer:
(d) Al₂O₃.2H₂O

Question 2.
An example of an oxide ore is ……………
(a) malachite
(b) bauxite
(c) galena
(d) zinc blende
Answer:
(b) bauxite

Question 3.
Froth floatation process involves the ……………
(a) treatment of the ore with water and pine oil
(b) washing of the ore with a steam of water
(c) owing off the ore over a conveyor belt rolling over magnetic roller
(d) melting of ore
Answer:
(a) treatment of the ore with water and pine oil

Question 4.
In the froth floatation process for the purification of ores the particles float because ……………
(a) they are light
(b) their surface is not easily wetted by water
(c) they bear electrostatic charge
(d) they are insoluble
Answer:
(b) their surface is not easily wetted by water

Question 5.
In a metallurgical process, an acid flux is used for removing ……………
(a) Slag
(b) basic flux
(c) acidic gangue
(d) basic gangue
Answer:
(d) basic gangue

Question 6.
The process of the removal of impurities from a crude metal is called ……………
(a) concentration
(b) calcination
(c) refining
(d) roasting
Answer:
(c) refining

Question 7.
Which of the following metal is obtained by self reduction method?
(a) Fe
(b) Cu
(c) Ag
(d) Mg
Answer:
(b) Cu

Question 8.
Which one of the following ore is best concentrated by froth floatation method?
(a) Magnetite
(b) Malachite
(c) Galena
(d) Haematite
Answer:
(c) Galena

Question 9.
Heating mixture of Cu₂O and Cu₂S will give ……………
(a) Cu + SO₂
(b) Cu + SO₃
(c) CuO + CuS
(d) Cu₂SO₃
Answer:
(a) Cu + SO₂

Question 10.
Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by Van-Arkel method?
(a) Ag and Au
(b) Ni and Fe
(c) Ga and In
(d) Zr and Ti
Answer:
(d) Zr and Ti

Question 11.
Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al₂O₃) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of ……………
(a) (Al₂O₃) + KF + Na₃AlF₆
(b) (Al₂O₃) + HF + NaAlF₄
(c) (Al₂O₃) + CaF₂ + NaAlF₄
(d) (Al₂O₃) + Na₃AlF₆ + CaF₂
Answer:
(d) (Al₂O₃) + Na₃AlF₆ + CaF₂

Question 12.
The ore which contains both copper and iron ……………
(a) Cuprite
(b) Haematite
(c) Copper pyrite
(d) Malachite
Answer:
(c) Copper pyrite

Question 13.
Match the extraction processes listed in Column-I with metals listed in Column-II.

(a) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
(b) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
(c) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4
(d) A – 4, B – 2, C – l, D – 3
Answer:
(c) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4

Question 14.
Chief ore of aluminium is ……………
(a) bauxite
(b) clay
(c) haematite
(d) magnetite
Answer:
(a) bauxite

Question 15.
Which one of the following metal having least chemical reactive?
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Au
Answer:
(d) Au

Question 16.
Pick out the more reactive metal.
(a) Cu
(b) Ag
(c) Au
(d) Na
Answer:
(d) Na

Question 17.
Consider the following statements.
(i) All ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.
(ii) Bauxite is an ore of aluminium while clay is not.
(iii) Extraction of aluminium form clay is profitable one.

Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 18.
Match the List-I and List-II correctly using the code given below.

Answer:
(c)  3, 4, 2, 1

Question 19.
The impurities associated with ores is ……………
(a) flux
(b) slag
(c) gangue
(d) metal
Answer:
(c) gangue

Question 20.
Oxide ores are concentrated by ……………
(a) handpicking
(b) hydraulic washing
(c) froth floatation process
(d) Magnetic separation process
Answer:
(b) hydraulic washing

Question 21.
Haematite and tin stone are purified by ……………
(a) gravity separation process
(b) magnetic separation process
(c) froth floatation process
(d) handpicking
Answer:
(a) gravity separation process

Question 22.
Froth floatation process is applicable for ……………
(a) oxide ores
(b) carbonate ores
(c) chloride ores
(d) sulphide ores
Answer:
(d) sulphide ores

Question 23.
Copper pyrite and zinc blende are purified by ……………
(a) gravity separation process
(b) magnetic separation process
(c) froth floatation process
(c) handpicking
Answer:
(c) froth floatation process

Question 24.
Frothing agent used in froth floatation process is ……………
(a) pine oil
(b) olive oil
(c) mustard oil
(d) neem oil
Answer:
(a) pine oil

Question 25.
Depressing agents used to separate ZnS from PbS is ……………
(a) NaCN
(b) NaCl
(c) NaNO₃
(d) NaNO₂
Answer:
(a) NaCN

Question 26.
Leaching is also called as ……………
(a) hand picking
(b) Electrolysis
(c) Chemical process
(d) magnetic separation process
Answer:
(c) Chemical process

Question 27.
In the leaching process, the metal present in the ore is converted into ……………
(a) soluble salt
(b) soluble complex
(c) insoluble complex
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
Gold ore is concentrated by ……………
(a) cyanide leaching
(b) alkali leaching
(c) acid leaching
(d) hand picking
Answer:
(a) cyanide leaching

Question 29.
Bauxite is purified by ……………
(a) cyanide leaching
(b) alkali leaching
(c) acid leaching
(d) hand picking
Answer:
(b) alkali leaching

Question 30.
Which type of leaching process convert insoluble sulphide ores into soluble sulphates?
(a) cyanide leaching
(b) alkali leaching
(c) acid leaching
(d) hand picking
Answer:
(c) acid leaching

Question 31.
A chemist involves mining process and he got tow ores mixed together. If one is tinstone and another one is chromite, which type of process will be used to separate that two ores?
(a) Leaching process
(b) Froth floatation process
(c) Zone refining process
(d) Magnetic separation process
Answer:
(d) Magnetic separation process

Question 32.
The process in which the concentrated ore is strongly heated in the absence of air is called as ……………
(a) Roasting
(b) Calcination
(c) Smelting
(d) Leaching
Answer:
(b) Calcination

Question 33.
A chemical substance that forms an easily fusible slag with gangue is called as ……………
(a) flux
(b) pure metal
(c) ore
(d) impure metal
Answer:
(a) flux

Question 34.
Blistered copper is ……………
(a) 98% pure copper
(b) 96% pure copper
(c) 97% pure copper
(d) 88% pure copper
Answer:
(a) 98% pure copper

Question 35.
Ignition mixture used in aluminothermic process is ……………
(a) Mg + BaO₂
(b) MgO + BaO
(c) Al₂O₃ + Mg
(d) Al₂O₃ + BaO₂
Answer:
(a) Mg + BaO₂

Question 36.
For spontaneous reaction, the change in free energy should be ……………
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) neutral
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 37.
The change in Gibbs free energy for a reaction is expressed by ……………
(a) ∆G = ∆H + T∆S
(b) ∆G = ∆H – TS
(c) G = H – TS
(d) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
Answer:
(d) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

Question 38.
Relationship between ∆G° and K_p is ……………
(a) ∆G° = – RT In K_p
(b) ∆G° = – R In K_p
(c) ∆G° = – T In K_p
(d) ∆G° = RT In K_p
Answer:
(a) ∆G° = – RT In K_p

Question 39.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Ellingham drawn on a plot by considering the temperature in the x-axis and the standard free energy change for the formation of metal oxide in y-axis.
(ii) The resultant plot is straight line.
(ii) In the Ellingham diagram, ∆H as slope and ∆S as y-intercept.

Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

Question 40.
Which of the following oxides is unstable j at moderate temperature?
(a) Al₂O₃
(b) Cr₂O₃
(c) MgO
(d) HgO
Answer:
(d) HgO

Question 41.
The oxides will decompose on heating even in the absence of a reducing agent is ……………
(a) Ag₂O
(b) HgO
(c) MgO
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 42.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Ellingham diagram gives information about the thermodynamic feasibility of a reaction.
(ii) It explains the rate of the reaction.
(iii) Below 1000 K temperature, FeO is more stable than CO.

Which of the above statements (s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(d) (ii) only

Question 43.
Gibbs free energy change for the electrolysis process is expressed by ……………
(a) ∆G° = – nFE°
(b) ∆G° = nF
(c) ∆G° = – nE°
(d) ∆G° = nFE°
Answer:
(a) ∆G° = – nFE°

Question 44.
The technique used to refining zinc and mercury is ……………
(a) Liquation
(b) Distillation
(c) Zone refining
(d) Van-Arkel method
Answer:
(b) Distillation

Question 45.
Which of the following is not purified by zone refining process?
(a) Ge
(b) Si
(c) Ga
(d) Al
Answer:
(d) Al

Question 46.
Nickel is purified by ……………
(a) Mond process
(b) Van-Arkel method
(c) Zone refining
(d) Electrolytic refining
Answer:
(a) Mond process

Question 47.
Titanium is purified by ……………
(a) Mond process
(b) Van-Arkel method
(c) Zone refining
(d) Electrolytic refining
Answer:
(b) Van-Arkel method

Question 48.
The metal used for galvanisation of iron is ……………
(a) Al
(b) Zn
(c) Cu
(d) Au
Answer:
(b) Zn

Question 49.
Which metal alloy is used in design of aeroplane parts?
(a) Al
(b) Zn
(c) Cu
(d) Au
Answer:
(a) Al

Question 50.
Which metal is used for making coins and ornaments along with gold and other metals?
(a) Zn
(b) Al
(c) Cu
(d) Fe
Answer:
(c) Cu

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Minerals that contains a high percentage of metal from which it can be extracted conveniently and economically are called ……………
2. …………… helps us to select a suitable reducing agent and appropriate temperature range for reduction.
3. If E° is positive, then the ∆G is ……………
4. Chemical formula of cuprite is ……………
5. Gravity separation is also called as ……………
6. …………… ore is purified by gravity separation process.
7. In froth floatation process …………… acts as a collector.
8. Sodium cyanide is added to depresses the floatation property of ZnS by forming a layer of ……………
9. The process of gold reduced to its elemental state is called ……………
10. Leaching process is a …………… reaction.
11. Magnesite is calcined to give ……………
12. …………… a chemical substance that forms an easily fusible slag with gangue.
13. Flux + Gangue → ……………
14. In the extraction of iron …………… is removed as slag.
15. In the extraction of copper …………… is removed as slag.
16. Cr₂O₃ can be reduced by …………… an process.
17. …………… is used as a reducing agent for the reduction of chromic oxide.
18. …………… is purified by zone refining.
19. In the mond process, impure nickel is heated with …………… compound.
20. …………… filament is used to decompose titanium tetraoxide.
21. …………… is the most abundant metal.
22. …………… is used in packing materials for food items.
23. …………… is used in the manufacture of paints, rubber and cosmetics.
24. …………… is the first metal used by the humans.
25. …………… is one of the expensive and precious metals.
26. …………… is used for increasing the efficiency of solar cells and also used as catalysts.
27. …………… ore is concentrated by froth floatation process.
28. Zinc blende is concentrated by …………… process.
29. Gold ore is leached by adding of ……………

Answer:

1. Ores
2. Ellingham diagram
3. negative
4. Cu₂O
5. Hydraulic washing
6. oxide
7. Sodium ethyl xanthate
8. Na₂[Zn(CN)₄] – Sodium negative
9. Cementation
10. Redox
11. Magnesia
12. Flux
13. slag
14. Calcium silicate (CaSiO₃)
15. Ferrous silicate (FeSiO₃)
16. Aluminothermic process
17. Aluminium
18. semi-conductior
19. carbon monoxide
20. Tungsten
21. Aluminium
22. Aluminium foils
23. Aluminium
24. Zinc oxide
25. Copper
26. Gold
27. Gold nanoparticle
28. Sulphide
29. Froth floatation
30. NaCN

III. Match the following:

Question 1.
(i) Haematite – (a) Fe₃O₄
(ii) Siderite – (b) Fe₃O₃
(iii) Iron pyrite – (c) Fe₃O₃
(iv) Magnetite – (d) FeS₂
Answer:
(i) – (b)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (a)

Question 2.
(i) Copper glance – (a) CuCO₃. Cu(OH)₂
(ii) Malachite – (b) Cu₂S
(iii) Copper pyrite – (c) 2CuCO₃. Cu(OH)₂
(iv) Azurite – (d) CuFeS₂
Answer:
(i) – (b)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (c)

Question 3.
(i) Zinc blende – (a) Al₂0₃.2H₂O
(ii) Bauxite – (b) ZnC0₃
(iii) Zincite – (c) ZnS
(iv) Calamine – (d) ZnO
Answer:
(i) – (c)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (b)

Question 4.
(i) Tin stone – (a) AgCl
(ii) Argentite – (b) Ag₃SbS₃
(iii) Ruby silver – (c) Ag₂S
(iv) Horn silver – (d) SnO₂
Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 5.
(i) Oxide ore – (a) Zinc blende
(ii) Carbonate ore – (b) Horn silver
(Hi) Sulphide ore – (c) Haematite
(iv) Chloride ore – (d) Calamine
Answer:
(i) – (c)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

Question 6.
(i) Tin stone – (a) Magnetic separation process
(ii) Copper pyrite – (b) Leaching process
(Hi) Bauxite – (c) Froth floatation process
(iv) Chromite – (d) Hydraulic washing process
Answer:
(i) – (d)
(ii) – (c)
(iii) – (b)
(iv) – (a)

Question 7.
(i) Aluminium – (a) cosmetics
(ii) Zinc oxide – (b) gas pipelines
(iii) Iron – (c) making coins
(iv) Copper – (d) bicycle chains
Answer:
(i) – (b)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (c)

Question 8.
(i) Gold nanopaticle – (a)Cast iron
(ii) Cast iron – (b) Cooking vessels
(iii) Metallic zinc – (c) Solar cells
(iv) Aluminium – (d) Pump stoves
Answer:
(i) – (c)
(ii) – (d)
(iii) – (a)
(iv) – (b)

IV. Assertion and reasons:

Note:
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) A and R are correct, R explains A
(b) A and R are correct, R does not explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 1.
Assertion(A) – Clay is an ore of aluminium while bauxite is not.
Reason (R) – Aluminium can be economically extracted from bauxite not from clay.
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 2.
Assertion(A) – Haematite and tin stone are concentrated by hydraulic washing process.
Reason (R) – Oxide ores are heavy and have high specific gravity.
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct, R explains A .

Question 3.
Assertion(A) – Sulphide ores are concentrated by froth floatation process.
Reason (R) – Sulphide ores are preferentially wetted by oil can be separated from gangue.
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct, R explains A

Question 4.
Assertion(A) – A suitable reducing agent is selected based on the thermodynamic consideration.
Reason (R) – The reduction of metal oxide with a given reducing agent can occur if the free energy change for the coupled reaction is positive.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong

Question 5.
Assertion(A) – Aluminium can be used as a reducing agent for the reduction of chromic oxide.
Reason (R) – In the Ellingham diagram, formation of chromium oxide lies above that of the aluminium, therefore Al₂O₃ is more stable than Cr₂O₃.
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct, R explains A

Question 6.
Assertion(A) – Zone refining is based on the principles of fractional crystallisation,
Reason (R) – This process is carried out in an inert gas temperature.
Answer:
(b) A and R are correct, R does not explain A

Question 7.
Assertion(A) – Aluminium is used in the j design of chemical reactors.
Reason (R) – Aluminium has high resistance to corrosion.
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct, R explains A

V. Find the odd one out and give the reasons:

Question 1.
(a) Nickel
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Galium
Answer:
(a) Nickel
Reason:
Si, Ge and Ga are purified by I zone refining while Ni is not.

Question 2.
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Silver
(d) Galium
Answer:
(d) Galium
Reason:
Cu, Zn and Ag are purified by electrolytic refining while Ga is not.

Question 3.
(a) ∆G = -ve
(b) ∆H = -ve
(c) ∆S = +ve
(d) ∆S = -ve
Answer:
(d) ∆S = -ve

Reason:
∆G=-ve, ∆H=-ve, ∆S=+ve are the conditions for spontaneous reaction, ∆S = -ve is condition for non-spontaneous process.

Question 4.
(a) Haematite
(b) Siderite
(c) Limonite
(d) Azunte
Answer:
(a) Azurite

Reason:
Azurite is ore of copper but others arc ore of iron.

Question 5.
(a) Copper glance
(b) Zinc blende
(c) Argentite
(d) Magnetite
Answer:
(d) Magnetite

Reason:
Magnetite is oxide ore but others are sulphide ores.

Question 6.
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Sodium
(d) Platinum
Answer:
(c) Sodium

Reason:
Sodium is more reactive element than Ag, Au and Pt.

VI. Find out the correct pair:

Question 1.
(a) Metallurgy – Extraction of metals
(b) Clay – Ore of Al
(c) Na – Native element
(d) Ore – Gangue
Answer:
(a) Metallurgy Extraction of metals

Question 2.
(a) Bauxite – Iron
(b) Siderite – Aluminium
(c) Malachite – Copper
(d) Argentite – Gold
Answer:
(c) Malachite – Copper

Question 3.
(a) Limonite – Sulphide ore
(b) Cuprite – Oxide ore
(c) Calamine – Suiphide ore
(d) Horn silver – Oxide ore
Answer:
(b) Cuprite – Oxide ore

Question 4.
(a) Oxide ore – Froth floatation process
(b) Suiphide ore – Gravity separation process
(c) Gold ore – Leaching method
(d) Oxide ore – Magnetic separation process
Answer:
(c) Gold ore – Leaching method

Question 5.
(a) Aluminium – Galvanising metals
(b) Zinc – Cooking vessels
(c) Iron – Cutlery
(d) Copper – Dental fillings
Answer:
(c) Iron -Cutlery

VII. Find out the incorrect pair:

Question 1.
(a) Copper – Least reactive
(b) Clay – Mineral of Al
(c) Bauxite – Mineral of Al
(d) Gangue – Impurity
Answer:
(c) Bauxite – Mineral of Al

Question 2.
(a) Aluminium – Corundum
(b) Limonite – Iron
(c) Galena – Lead
(d) Tin – Siderite
Answer:
(d) Tin – Siderite

Question 3.
(a) Magnetite – FeO₄
(b) Malachite – CuCO₃ .Cu(OH)₂
(c) Horn silver – Ag₂S
(d) Stefinite – Ag₂SbS₄
Answer:
(c) Horn silver – Ag₂S

Question 4.
(a) Tin stone – Oxide ore
(b) Copper pyrite – Oxide ore
(c) Zincite – Oxide ore
(d) Bauxite – Oxide ore
Answer:
(b) Copper pyrite Oxide ore

Question 5.
(a) Haematitc – Gravity separation process
(b) Copper pyrite – froth floatation process
(c) Bauxite – Leaching process
(a) pyrolusite – Magnetic separation process
Answer:
(b) Copper pyrite – froth floatation process

Question 6.
(a) Gold ore – Cyanide leaching
(b) Nickel ore – Ammonia leaching
(c) Aluminium ore – Alkali leaching
(d) Silver ore – Acid leaching
Answer:
(a) Silver ore – Acid leaching

Question 7.
(a) Aluminium – Design of aeroplane
(b) Zinc oxide – Cosmetics
(c) Zinc suiphide – X-ray screens
(d) Iron – Artifici al limb joints
Answer:
(d) Iron – Artificial limb joints

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Metallurgy 2 Mark Questions and Answers

VIII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Define Metallurgy.
Answer:
The various steps involved in the extraction of metals from their ores as well as refining of crude metals are collectively known as metallurgy.

Question 2.
What are minerals?
Answer:
A naturally occurring substance obtained by mining which contains the metal in free state or in the form of compounds like oxides, sulphides etc… is called as mineral. Bauxite and clay are minerals of Aluminium.

Question 3.
What are ores?
Answer:
A mineral from which the metal can be extracted easily and economically are called ores. Bauxite is an ore of Aluminium.

Question 4.
What are all the steps involved in metallurgical process?
Answer:
The extraction of a metal from its ore consists the following metallurgical process.

1. Concentration of the ore
2. Extraction of crude metal
3. Refining of crude metal

Question 5.
What is Gangue?
Answer:
Generally, the ores are associated with nonmetallic impurities, rocky materials and siliceous matter which arc collectively known as gangue.

Question 6.
Give the depressing agents used in the froth floatation process and why we use depressing agents in that process?
Answer:
Generally sodium cyanide and sodium carbonate are used as an depressing agents for froth floatation process. These reagents are used to selectively prevent other metal sulphides from coming to the froth. For example, when impurities such as ZnS is present in galena (PbS), sodium cyanide (NaCN) is added to depresses the flotation property of ZnS by forming a layer of zinc complex Na₂[Zn(CN)₄] on the surface of zinc sulphide.

Question 7.
What are leaching process?
Answer:
This method is based on the solubility of the ore in a suitable solvent and the reactions in aqueous solution. In this method, the crushed ore is allowed to dissolve in a suitable solvent, the metal present in the ore is converted to its soluble salt or complex while the gangue remains insoluble. This process is also called chemical method.

Question 8.
Explain Cyanide leaching.
Answer:
In the concentration of gold ore, the crashed ore of gold is leached with aerated dilute solution of sodium cyanide. Gold is converted into a soluble cyanide complex. The gangue, aluminosilicate remains insoluble.
4Au (s) + 8CN^– (aq) + O₂ (g) + 2H₂O (1) → 4[Au(CN)₂]^–(aq) + 4OH^– (aq)

Question 9.
What is Cementation?
Answer:
Gold can be recovered by reacting the deoxygenated leached solution with zinc. In this process the gold is reduced to its elemental state (zero oxidation sate) and the process is called
Zn (s)+ 2[Au(CN)₂]^– (aq) → [Zn(CN)₄]^2-(aq)+ 2Au (s)

Question 10.
What is Ammonia leaching.
Answer:
When a crashed ore containing nickel, copper and cobalt is treated with aqueous ammonia . under suitable pressure, ammonia selectively leaches these metals by forming their soluble complexes viz. [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺, [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺, and [Co(NH₃)₅H₂O]³⁺ respectively from the ore leaving behind the gangue, iron(III) oxides/hydroxides and aluminosilicate.

Question 11.
What is Acid leaching?
Answer:
Leaching of sulphide ores such as ZnS, PbS etc,, can be done by treating them with hot aqueous sulphuric acid.
2ZnS(s) + 2H₂SO₄(aq) + O₂ (g) → 2ZnSO₄ (aq) + 2S (s) + H₂O
In this process the insoluble sulphide is converted into soluble sulphate and elemental sulphur.

Question 12.
What is roasting?
Answer:
The process of heating an ore (generally, sulphide are) is strongly below its melting point in the presence of an excess of air is called roasting.

Question 13.
Define Calcination.
Answer:
It is the process in which the concentrated ore is strongly heated in the absence of air. This method can also be carried out with a limited supply of air.

Question 14.
How will you manage sulphur dioxide produced during roasting process?
Answer:
The sulphur dioxide produced during roasting process is harmful to the environment. In modem metallurgical factories, this by product is trapped and converted into sulphuric acid to avoid air pollution.

Question 15.
What is smelting?
Answer:
Smelting is a process of reducing the roasted metallic oxide to metal in molten condition. In this process, impurities are removed by the addition of flux as slag.

Question 16.
Explain Auto reduction.
Answer:
Simple roasting of some of the ores give the crude metal. In such cases, the use of reducing agents is not necessary. For example, mercury is obtained by roasting of its ore cinnabar (HgS)
HgS _(s) + O_2(g) → Hg _(l) + SO₂ \(\uparrow \)

Question 17.
What is Ellingham diagram?
Answer:
The graphical representation of variation of the standard Gibbs free energy of reaction for the formation of various metal oxides with temperature is called Ellingham diagram.

Question 18.
CO is more stable at higher temperature. Why?
Answer:
In the Ellingham diagram, the formation of carbon monoxide is a straight line with negative slope. In this case ∆S is positive as 2 moles of CO gas is formed by the consumption of one mole of oxygen. Hence, CO is more stable at higher temperature.

Question 19.
Ag_2(g)O and HgO are unstable at moderate temperature and they will decompose on heating even in the absence of a reducing agent. Why?
Answer:
Ellingham diagram for the formation of Ag_2(g)O and HgO is at upper part of the diagram and their decomposition temperatures are 600 and 700 K respectively. It indicates that these oxides are unstable at moderate temperatures and will decompose on heating even in the absence of a reducing agent.

Question 20.
What is refining process?
Answer:
Generally the metal extracted from its ore contains some impurities such as unreacted oxide ore, other metals, nonmetal etc. Removal of such impurities associated with the isolated crude metal is called refining process.

Question 21.
List out the common refining methods.
Answer:

1. Distillation
2. Liquation
3. Electrolytic refining
4. Zone refining
5. Vapour phase method

Question 22.
Explain Distillation process with suitable example.
Answer:
This method is employed for low boiling volatile metals like zinc (boiling point 1180 K) and mercury (630 K). In this method, the impure metal is heated to evaporate and the vapours are condensed to get pure metal.

Question 23.
Write the applications of copper.
Answer:

1. Copper is the first metal used by the humans and extended use of its alloy bronze resulted in a new era, Bronze age.
2. Copper is used for making coins and ornaments along with gold and other metals.
3. Copper and its alloys are used for making wires, water pipes and other electrical parts.

Question 24.
Why aluminium cannot be extracted by reducing alumina with carbon?
Answer:
Alumina (Al₂O₃) cannot be reduced by using carbon because aluminum has more affinity for oxygen than carbon. Therefore, aluminium cannot be extracted by reducing alumina with carbon.

Question 25.
Write the names of two ores of copper.
Answer:
Main ores of copper are:

1. Copper pyrites – CuFeS₂
2. Copper glance – Cu₂S
3. Malachite – CuCO₃. Cu(OH)₂

Question 26.
Explain the role of carbon monoxide in the purification of nickel?
Answer:
During the purification of Nickel by Mond’s process, carbon monoxide (CO) is used to convert impure nickel to nickel carbonyl. Nickel carbonyl is an unstable compound. Heating to higher temperature decomposes it to give pure nickel.

Question 27.
ZnO can be reduced to the metal by heating with carbon but not Cr₂O₃. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Carbon has more affinity for oxygen than zinc, whereas chromium has higher affinity for oxygen than zinc. Hence ZnO can be reduced to the metal by heating with carbon but not Cr₂O₃.

Question 28.
Name the method used for the refining of

1. Nickel
2. Zirconium

Answer:

1. Mond’s process
2. Van Arkel’s method

Question 29.
Give one example for

1. Acidic flux
2. Basic flux

Answer:

1. Acidic flux: SiO₂
2. Basic flux: CaCO₃, MgCO₃

Question 30.
Why is the reduction of a metal oxide easier if the metal formed is in liquid state at the temperature of reduction?
Answer:
The entropy is higher if the metal is in liquid state than when it is in solid state. The value of entropy change (∆S) of the reduction process is more on +ve side when the metal formed is in liquid state and the metal oxide being reduced is in solid state. Thus, the value of ∆G° becomes more on negative side and the reduction becomes easier.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Metallurgy 3 Mark Questions and Answers

IX. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
All ores are minerals, but all minerals are not ores. Explain.
Answer:
A naturally occurring substance obtained by mining which contains the metal in free state or in the form of compounds is called a mineral. In most of the minerals, the metal of interest is present only in small amounts and some of them contains a reasonable percentage of metal. Such minerals that contains a high percentage of metal, from which it can be extracted conveniently and economically are called ores. Hence all ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.

Question 2.
Bauxite is an ore of aluminium while china clay is not. Why?
Answer:
Bauxite and china clay, both are minerals of aluminium. However, aluminium can be commercially extracted from bauxite while extraction from china clay is not a profitable one. Hence the mineral, bauxite is an ore of aluminium while china clay is not.

Question 3.
Explain Gravity separation process or Hydraulic washing process?
[OR]
How will you concentrate oxide ores?
[OR]
Explain the suitable method to concentrate hematite and tinstone ores.
Answer:
In this method, the ore having high specific gravity is separated from the gangue that has low specific gravity by simply washing with running water. Ore is crushed to a finely powdered form and treated with rapidly flowing current of water. During this process the lighter gangue particles are washed away by the running water. This method is generally applied to concentrate the native ore such as gold and oxide ores such as hematite (Fe₂O₃), tin stone (SnO₂) etc.

Question 4.
Write a notes on alkali leaching process?
Answer:
In this method, the ore is treated with aqueous alkali to form a soluble complex. For example, bauxite, an important ore of aluminium is heated with a solution of sodium hydroxide or sodium carbonate in the temperature range 470 – 520 K at 35 atm to form soluble sodium meta- aluminate leaving behind the impurities, iron oxide and titanium oxide.
Al₂O₃ (S) + 2NaOH (aq) + 3H₂O (l) → 2Na[Al(OH)₄] (aq)

The hot solution is decanted, cooled, and diluted. This solution is neutralised by passing CO₂ gas, to the form hydrated Al₂O₂ precipitate.
2Na[Al(OH)₄](aq) + CO₂(g) → Al₂O₃. xH₂O(s) + 2NaHCO₃ (aq)
The precipitate is filtered off and heated around 1670 K to get pure alumina Al₂O₃.

Question 5.
Complete the following reaction.

1. ZnS + O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) ?
2. P₄+ O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \)?
3. CaCO₃ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) ?

Answer:

1. 2ZnS + 3O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) 2ZnO + 2SO₂ \(\uparrow \)
2. P₄+ 5O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) P₄O₁₀ \(\uparrow \)
3. CaCO₃ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) CaO + C0₂ \(\uparrow \)

Question 6.
Explain Aluminothermic process.
Answer:
Metallic oxides such as Cr₂O₃ can be reduced by an aluminothermic process. In this process, the metal oxide is mixed with aluminium powder and placed in a fire clay crucible. To initiate the reduction process, an ignition mixture (usually magneisium and barium peroxide) is used.
BaO₂ + Mg → BaO + MgO

During the above reaction a large amount of heat is evolved (temperature upto 2400°C, is generated and the reaction enthalpy is – 852 kJ mol ) which facilitates the reduction of Cr₂O₃ by aluminium power.
Cr₂O₃ + 2Al \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) 2Cr + Al₂O₃

Question 7.
Why aluminium can be used as a reducing agent for the reduction of chronic oxide?
Answer:
Ellingham diagram is used to predict thermodynamic feasibility of reduction of oxides of one metal by another metal. Any metal can reduce the oxides of other metals that are located above it in the diagram. For example, in the Ellingham diagram, for the fonnation of chromium oxide lies above that of the aluminium, meaning that Al₂O₃, is more stable than Cr₂O₃. Hence aluminium can be used as a reducing agent for the reduction of chromic oxide. However, it cannot be used to reduce the oxides of magnesium and calcium which occupy lower position than aluminium oxide.

Question 8.
Write notes on liquation.
Answer:
Liquation:
This method, is employed to remove the impurities with high melting points from metals having relatively low melting points such a stin(Sb;mp=904K), lead(Pb;mp=600K), mercury(Hg; mp = 234 K), and bismuth (Bi; mp = 545K). In this process, the crude metal is heated to form fusible liquid and allowed to flow on a sloping surface.

The impure metal is placed on sloping hearth of a reverberatory furnace and it is heated just above the melting point of the metal in the absence of air, the molten pure metal flows down and the impurities are left behind. The molten metal is collected and solidified.

Question 9.
Write the application of Iron (Fe).
Answer:
1. Iron is one of the most useful metals and its alloys are used everywhere including bridges, electricity pylons, bicycle chains, cutting tools and rifle barrels.

2. Cast iron is used to make pipes, valves and pumps stoves etc.

3. Magnets can be made of iron and its alloys and compounds.

4. An important alloy of iron is stainless steel, and it is very resistant to corrosion. It is used in architecture, bearings, cutlery, surgical instruments and jewellery. Nickel steel is used for making cables, automobiles and aeroplane parts. Chrome steels are used for manufacturing cutting tools and curshing machines

Question 10.
Mention the uses of Gold (Au).
Answer:
1. Gold, one of the expensive and precious metals. It is used for coinage, and has been used as standard for monetary systems in some countries.

2. It is used extensively in jewellery in its alloy form with copper. It is also used in electroplating to cover other metals with a thin layer of gold which are used in watches, artificial limb joints, cheap jewellery, dental fillings and electrical connectors.

3. Gold nanoparticles are also used for increasing the efficiency of solar cells and also used an catalysts.

Question 11.
The extraction of Au by leaching with NaCN involves both oxidation and reduction. Justify giving equation.
Answer:

• 4Au (s) + 8CN^–(aq) + 2H₂O₂(aq) + O₂(g) → 4[Au(CN)₂]^– (aq) + 4OH^–(aq)
• 2[Au(CN)₂]^–(aq) + Zn(s) → 2Au(s)+ [Zn(CN)₄]^-2(aq)

In the first reaction Au changes into Au⁺, i.e. its oxidation takes place. In the second reaction:
Au⁺ → Au°
(i.e.) reduction takes place.

Question 12.
Account for the following facts:

1. The reduction of a metal oxide is easier if the metal formed is in liquid state at the temperature of reduction.
2. The reduction of Cr₂O₃ with Al is thermodynamically feasible, yet it does not occur at room temperature.
3. Pine oil is used in froth floatation method.

Answer:

1. In liquid state entropy is higher than the solid form, this makes ∆_fG more negative.
2. By increasing the temperature, fraction of activated molecules increases, which helps in crossing over the energy barrier.
3. Pine oil enhances the non-wetting property of the ore particles and also acts as the froth collector.

Question 13.
Write the chemical reactions for purification of Zirconium by Van Arkel’s process.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Metallurgy 5 Mark Questions and Answers

X. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain froth floatation process.
(Or)
How will you concentrate sulphide ores?
(Or)
Explain-the concentration of copper pyrites and galena ores.
Answer:
Froth flotation:
This method is commonly used to concentrate sulphide ores such as galena (PbS), zinc blende (ZnS) etc. In this method, the metallic ore particles which are preferentially wetted by oil can be separated from gangue. In this method, the crushed ore is suspended in water and mixed with frothing agent such as pine oil, eucalyptus oil etc. A small quantity of sodium ethyl xanthate which acts as a collector is also added. A froth is generated by blowing air through this mixture.

The collector molecules attach to the ore particle and make them water repellent. As a result, ore particles, wetted by the oil, rise to the surface along with the froth. The froth is skimmed off and dried to recover the concentrated ore. The gangue particles that are preferentially wetted by water settle at the bottom.

When a sulphide ore of a metal of interest contains other metal sulphides as impurities, depressing agents such as sodium cyanide, sodium carbonate etc are used to selectively prevent other metal sulphides from coming to the froth. For example, when impurities such as ZnS is present in galena (PbS), sodium cyanide (NaCN) is added to depresses the flotation property of ZnS by forming a layer of zinc complex Na₂[Zn(CN)₄] on the surface of zinc sulphide.

Question 2.
Discuss the magnetic separation process.
(Or)
How will you separate magnetic ores from non-magnetic ores?
Answer:
Magnetic separation:
This method is applicable to ferromagnetic ores and it is based on the difference in the magnetic properties of the ore and the impurities. For example tin stone can be separated from the wolframite impurities which is magnetic. Similarly, ores such as chromite, pyrolusite having magnetic property can be removed from the non magnetic siliceous impurities.

The crushed ore is poured on to an electromagnetic separator consisting of a belt moving over two rollers of which one is magnetic. The magnetic part of the ore is attracted towards the magnet and falls as a heap close to the magnetic region while the nonmagnetic part falls away from it as shown in the figure.

Question 3.
Write a note on thermodynamic principle of metallurgy.
Answer:
Thermodynamic principle of metallurgy:
The extraction of metals from their oxides can be carried out by using different reducing agents. For example, consider the reduction of a metal
oxide M_xO_y.
\(\frac { 2 }{ y } \)M_xO_y(s) → \(\frac { 2x }{ y } \)M(s) + O₂(g) ……………..(1)

The above reduction may be carried out with carbon. In this case, the reducing agent carbon may be oxidised to either CO or CO₂.

• C + O₂ → CO_2(g) ……….(2)
• 2C + O₂ → 2CO_(g) …………(3)

If carbon monoxide is used as a reducing agent, it is oxidised to CO₂ as follows,
2CO + O₂ → 2CO_2(g)  ……………(4)

A suitable reducing agent is selected based on the thermodynamic considerations. We know that for a spontaneous reaction, the change in free energy (AG) should be negative. Therefore, thermodynamically, the reduction of metal oxide [equation (1)] with a given reducing agent [Equation (2), (3) or (4)] can occur if the free energy change for the coupled reaction. [Equations (1) & (2), (1) & (3) or (1) & (4)] is negative. Hence, the reducing agent is selected in such a way that it provides a large negative AG value for the coupled reaction.

Ellingham diagram:
The change in Gibbs free energy (∆G) for a reaction is given by the expression.
∆G = ∆H – T∆S ……….(1)
where, ∆H is the enthalpy change , T the temperature in kelvin and ∆S the entropy change. For an equilibrium process, ∆G° can be calculated using the equilibrium constant by the following expression ∆G° = – RT lnKp

Harold Ellingham used the above relationship to calculate the ∆G° values at various temperatures for the reduction of metal oxides by treating the reduction as an equilibrium process. He has drawn a plot by considering the temperature in the x-axis and the standard free energy change for the formation of metal oxide in y-axis. The resultant plot is a straight line with ∆S as slope and ∆H as y-intercept. The graphical representation of variation of the standard Gibbs free energy of reaction for the formation of various metal oxides with temperature is called Ellingham diagram.

Question 4.
Explain the observations from the Ellingham diagram.
Answer:
1. For most of the metal oxide formation, the slope is positive. It can be explained as follows. Oxygen gas is consumed during the formation of metal oxides which results in the decrease in randomness. Hence, ∆S becomes negative and it makes the term, T∆S positive in the straight line equation.

2. The graph for the formation of carbon monoxide is a straight line with negative slope. In this case ∆S is positive as 2 moles of CO gas is formed by the consumption of one mole of oxygen gas. It indicates that CO is more stable at higher temperature.

3. As the temperature increases, generally ∆G value for the formation of the metal oxide become less negative and becomes zero at a particular temperature. Below this temperature, ∆G is negative and the oxide is stable and above this temperature ∆G is positive. This general trend suggests that metal oxides become less stable at higher temperature and their decomposition becomes easier.

4. There is a sudden change in the slope at a particular temperature for some metal oxides like MgO, HgO. This is due to the phase transition (melting or evaporation).

Question 5.
Discuss.the applications of the Ellingham diagram:
Answer:
Ellingham diagram helps us to select a suitable reducing agent and appropriate temperature range for reduction. The reduction of a metal oxide to its metal can be considered as a competition between the element used for reduction and the metal to combine with oxygen.

If the metal oxide is more stable, then oxygen remains with the metal and if the oxide of element used for reduction is more stable, then the oxygen from the metal oxide combines with elements used for the reduction. From the Ellingham diagram, we can infer the relative stability of different metal oxides at a given temperature.

1. Ellingham diagram for the formation of Ag₂O and HgO is at upper part of the diagram and their decomposition temperatures are 600 and 700 K respectively. It indicates that these oxides are unstable at moderate temperatures and will decompose on heating even in the absence of a reducing agent.

2. Ellingham diagram is used to predict thermodynamic feasibility of reduction of oxides of one metal by another metal. Any metal can reduce the oxides of other metals that are located above it in the diagram. For example, in the Ellingham diagram, for the formation of chromium oxide lies above that of the aluminium, meaning that Al₂O₃ is more stable than Cr₂O₃. Hence aluminium can be used as a reducing agent for the reduction of chromic oxide. However, it cannot be used to reduce the oxides of magnesium and calcium which occupy lower position than aluminium oxide.

3. The carbon line cuts across the lines of many metal oxides and hence it can reduce all those metal oxides at sufficiently high temperature. Let us analyse the thermodynamically favourable conditions for the reduction of iron oxide by carbon. Ellingham diagram for the formation of FeO and CO intersects around 1000 K.

Below this temperature the carbon line lies above the iron line which indicates that FeO is more stable than CO and hence at this temperature range, the reduction is not thermodynamically feasible. However, above 1000 K carbon line lies below the iron line and hence, we can use coke as reducing agent above this temperature. The following free energy calculation also confirm that the reduction is thermodynamically favoured.

From the Ellingham Diagram at 1500 K:

• 2Fe_(s) + O_2(g) → 2FeO_(g)
• 2C_(s) + O_2(g) → 2CO_(g)
  
• ∆G₁ = – 350 kJ mol^-1 …………(5)
• ∆G₂ = – 480 kJ mol^-1 ………….(6)

Reverse the reaction (1)

• 2FeO_(s) → 2Fe_(s) + O_2(g)
• – ∆G₁= +350 kJ mol^-1 ………. (7)

Now couple the reactions (2) and (3)

• 2FeO_(s) + 2C 2Fe (l,s) + 2CO_(g)
• ∆G₃ = -130 kJ mol^-1 ……………. (8)

The standard free energy change for the reduction of one mole of FeO is:
∆G₃/2 = -65 kJ mol^-1.

Question 6.
Explain the method to purify Titanium metal.
[OR]
Explain Van-Arkel method for refining Titanium.
[OR]
How will you purify metals by using iodine?
Answer:
This method is based on the thermal decomposition of metal compounds which lead to the formation of pure metals. Titanium and zirconium can be purified using this method. For example, the impure titanium metal is heated in an evacuated vessel with iodine at a temperature of 550 K to form the volatile titanium tetra-iodide.(TiI₄). The impurities are left behind, as they do not react with iodine.
Ti_(s) + 2I_2(s) → TiI₄ (vapour)

The volatile titanium tetraiodide vapour is passed over a tungsten filament at a temperature around 1800 K. The titanium tetraiodide is decomposed and pure titanium is deposited on the filament. The iodine is reused.
Til₄ (vapour) → Ti_(s)+ 2I_2(s)

Question 7.
Mention the applications of Aluminium.
Answer:
Aluminium is the most abundant metal and is a good conductor of electricity and heat. It also resists corrosion. The following are some of its applications.

1. Many heat exchangers/sinks and our day to day cooking vessels are made of aluminium.
2. It is used as wraps (aluminium foils) and is used in packing materials for food items,
3. Aluminium is not very strong, However, its alloys with copper, manganese, magnesium and silicon are light weight and strong and they are used in design of aeroplanes and other forms of transport.
4. As Aluminium shows high resistance to corrosion, it is used in the design of chemical reactors, medical equipments,refrigeration units and gas pipelines.
5. Aluminium is a good electrical conductor and cheap, hence used in electrical overhead electric cables with steel core for strength.

Question 8.
Complete the following reactions,

1. Cr₂O₃ + A1 \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) ?
2. B₂O₂ + Na \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) ?
3. ThO₂ + Ca \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) ?
4. Mn₃O₄ + C \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) ?
5. Ag₂O + H₂ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) ?

Answer:

1. Cr₂O₃ + 2Al \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) 2Cr +Al₂O₃
2. B₂O₃ + 6Na \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) 2B +3Na₂O
3. ThO₂ + 2Ca \(\underrightarrow { 1250K }\) Th + 2CaO
4. Mn₃O₄ + 4C \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) 3Mn + 4CO
5. Ag₂O + H₂ \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) 2Ag + H₂O

Common Errors and its Rectifications

Common Errors:

1. In balancing inorganic reactions, they may struggle.
2. Ores formula they may forget.
3. In metallurgy, the steps are very important.

Rectifications:

1. Students are advised to balance first the negative charged atoms like oxygen, chlorine in the equation.
2. Simple way is to remember one oxide ore (or) one sulphide ore from which the metal is extracted.
3. Students should practice to write steps headings first along with explanation.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Prose Chapter 6 From Zero to Infinity

From Zero To Infinity 9th Standard English Warm Up:

Answer:

From Zero To Infinity Summary Question 1.
Did you enjoy solving this?
Answer:
Yes.

From Zero To Infinity Prose Summary Question 2.
Was it easy or hard to solve?
Answer:
It was very easy to solve.

From Zero To Infinity Question 3.
Do you like Mathematics? Give reasons.
Answer:
I like mathematics because it is fun to solve and find the right solutions. It is very useful in our daily lives.
OR
I do not like mathematics because it is complicated and too hard to understand.

From Zero to Infinity Intext Questions

From Zero To Infinity 9th Standard English Question 1.
What was the reaction of the classmates to Ramanujan’s question?
Answer:
The classmates laughed at Ramanujan’s question.

From Zero To Infinity Questions And Answers Question 2.
What did the Indian mathematician Bhaskara prove?
Answer:
The Indian mathematician Bhaskara proved that zero divided by zero is infinity.

From Zero To Infinity Book Back Answers Question 3.
Where did Ramanujan get S.L. Loney’s book on Trigonometry?
Answer:
Ramanujan got Loney’s “Trigonometry” book from a college library.

Zero To Infinity Lesson Summary Question 4.
Where did Ramanujan do his mathematical problems?
Answer:
Ramanujan did his mathematical problems on loose sheets of paper or on a slate.

From Zero To Infinity Lesson Plan Question 5.
What were the subjects neglected by Ramanujan in college?
Answer:
History, English, Physiology were the subjects neglected by Ramanujan in college.

From Zero To Infinity Lesson Summary Question 6.
Which University granted him a fellowship of H75 a month?
Answer:
University of Madras granted him a fellowship of? 75 a month.

From Zero To Infinity Biography Of Ramanujan Question 7.
What did Ramanujan send to G.H. Hardy?
Answer:
Ramanujan sent a letter in which he set out 120 theorems and formulae to G.H Hardy.

From Zero To Infinity Summary In English Question 8.
Who discovered a rare mathematical genius in Ramanujan?
Answer:
G.H Hardy and his colleague J.E. Littlewood discovered a rare mathematical genius in Ramanujan.

From Zero to Infinity Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

From Zero To Infinity Essay Question 1.
Why did the students laugh at Ramanujan?
Answer:
The students laughed at Ramanujan because he asked if no banana was distributed among no one, would every one get one banana.

From Zero To Infinity Summary In Tamil Question 2.
Why did the teacher compliment Ramanujan?
Answer:
The teacher complimented Ramanuj for asking a question that took centuries for mathematicians to answer.

Summary Of From Zero To Infinity Question 3.
Question What did Ramanujan do after reading the book on Trigonometry?
Answer:
After reading the book on Trigonometry, Ramanujan began his own research. He came forth with many mathematical theorems and formulae not given in the book

From Zero To Infinity Pdf Question 4.
What disappointed Ramanujan’s father?
Answer:
Ramanujan failed twice in his first year arts examination in college as he neglected other subjects such as History, English and Physiology. This disappointed his father.

From Zero To Infinity Mind Map Question 5.
How did Ramanujan manage his paper crisis?
Answer:
Ramanujan needed about 2,000 sheets of paper every month. He started using even scraps of paper he found lying on the streets. Sometimes he used a red pen to write over what was written in blue ink.

Question 6.
Why were Ramanujan’s application for jobs rejected?
Answer:
Ramanujan would show his frayed notebooks to every officers. But no one could understand what was written in the notebooks. So, his applications for jobs were rejected.

Question 7.
Why was Ramanujan sent back to India?
Answer:
While Ramanujan continued his research work, Tuberculosis, then an incurable disease, was devouring him. So, he was sent back to India.

Additional Questions:

Question 1.
Who asked the intriguing question to the arithmetic teacher? What do you know about him?
Answer:
The intriguing question was asked by Srinivasa Ramanujan. He was a native of Kumbakonam. Both during his school and research work at Cambridge, he was always ahead of his mathematics teachers.

Question 2.
Where and when was Ramanujan born? What do you know of his father?
Answer:
Ramanujan was born in Erode in Tamil Nadu on December 22, 1887. His father was a petty clerk in a cloth shop.

Question 3.
What was the most significant turn in Ramanujan’s life?
Answer:
The most significant turn came when one of Ramanujan’s senior friends showed him Synopsis of Elementary> Results in Pure Applied Mathematics by George Shoobridge Carr. Ramanujan was delighted than intimidated. This book triggered the mathematical genius in him and he began to work on the problems given in it.

Question 4.
What was Hardy’s opinion of Ramanujan?
Answer:
According to Hardy, Ramanujan was an unsystematic mathematician, similar to one who knows the Pythagorus theorem but does not know what a congruent triangle means. He felt that many discrepancies in his research could be due to his lack of formal education.

Question 5.
How can you say that Ramanujan was multi-talented?
Answer:
Besides Ramanujan being a mathematician, he was a reputed astrologer. He was also an excellent orator and many were eager to listen to his practical and intellectual talks. He used to give lectures on subjects like “God, Zero and Infinity”, topics that no ordinary man can easily indulge in. Hence we can surely say he was multi-talented.

B. Answer the following questions in about 80 -100 words.

Question 1.
Describe the life of Srinivasa Ramanujan in India.
Answer:
Ramanujan was born in Erode in Tamilnadu on December 22,1887. From early childhood, it was evident that he was a prodigy. Senior students used to get his assistance in solving math problems. At the age of 13, he began his own research on Trigonometry. The book “Elementary Results in Pure Applied Mathematics” by George Shoobridge Carr triggered the genius in Ramanujan. He used to do problems on loose sheets and enter the results in notebooks which are now famous as “Ramanujan’s Frayed Notebooks”.

Although Ramanujan secured a first class in Mathematics in the matriculation examination and was awarded the Subramanyan Scholarship, he failed twice in his first year arts examination in college as he neglected other subjects such as History, English and Physiology. He searched for job for food and papers to do calculations. The Director of Madras Port Trust gave a clerical job to Ramanujan on a monthly salary of Rupees 25.

Question 2.
Narrate the association of Ramanujan with G.H. Hardy.
Answer:
Ramanujan sent a letter to the great Mathematician G.H. Hardy of Cambridge University, in which he set out 120 theorems and formulae which included the Reimann Series. Hardy and his colleague Littlewood realized that they had discovered a rare mathematical genius.

They invited him to Britain.Despite the cold weather and food, Ramanujan continued his research with determination in the company of Hardy and Littlewood. Hardy found an unsystematic mathematician in Ramanujan due to his lack of formal education. Ramanujan’s achievements include the Hardy-Ramanujan-Littlewood circle method in number theory.

Additional Questions:

Question 1.
What prompted Ramanujan to ask an intriguing question?
Answer:
The Mathematics teacher was teaching and solving concepts in division. She drew three bananas on the blackboard and she pointed to three boys who were there and asked them how many each would get. A smart student quickly answered that each would get one. After appreciating the students’ answer, the teacher introduced a similar instance of 1,000 bananas distributed among 1,000 boys where each would again get one. While the teacher was explaining, a boy seated in one comer who was none other than Ramanujan asked an intriguing question wherein if no banana was distributed among no one, would everyone still get one banana?

Question 2.
Mention the achievements of Srinivasa Ramanujan.
Answer:
Ramanujan was elected Fellow of the Royal Society on February 28, 1918. In October, 1918 he became the first Indian to be elected Fellow of Trinity College, Cambridge. His achievements at Cambridge include the Hardy-Ramanujan-Littlewood circle method in number theory.

He is also popular with Roger-Ramanujan’s identities in partition of integers. A long list of the highest composite numbers, besides work on the number theory and the algebra of inequalities are also his noted achievements. In algebra his work on continued fractions is considered on par with great mathematicians like Leonard Euler and Jacobi.

Question 3.
What did Ramanujan do when his mind was flooded with ideas?
Answer:
Mathematical ideas flooded Ramanujan’s mind. He was not able to write all of them down. ‘He solved problems on loose sheets of paper, slate and jotted the results down in notebooks. Before he went abroad he had filled three notebooks, later known as Ramanujan’s Frayed Notebooks.

His father who found him scribbling, mistook him to be mad. He had to find money for food and papers to do calculations. Every month, he needed at least 2,000 sheets of paper. He started using scraps of paper found lying on the streets. Sometimes, he even wrote using red ink over used papers found on the streets.

C. Match the words with correct Synonym and Antonym from the table.

Answer:

Listening:

D. Listen to the anecdote “Two Geniuses” and narrate it in your own words.
Answer:

Narration of “Two Geniuses”

There’s a story about how Dr. Albert Einstein was travelling to Universities in his car, delivering lectures on his theory of relativity. During one tired journey, his driver Hans remarked “Dr. Einstein, I have heard you deliver that lecture about 30 times. ,t I know it by heart and bet I could give it myself.”

“Well, I’ll give you the chance”, said the Dr. “They don’t know me at the next University, so when we get there, I’ll put on your cap, and you introduce yourself as Dr. Einstein and give the lecture.”

The driver delivered Einstein’s lecture without any mistakes. When he finished, he started to leave, but one of the professor stopped him and asked a complex question filled with mathematical equations and formulae. The driver thought fast. “The answer to that problem is so simple,” he said,” I’m surprised you have to ask me. In fact, to show you just how simple it is, I’m going to ask my driver Hans to come up here and answer your question”.

Speaking:

E. Divide the students into groups of five and conduct a group discussion on the topic “Importance of Mathematics in Our Everyday Life” The teacher will act as a moderator.
Answer:

Group Discussion on Importance of Mathematics

Teacher: Good morning students! We have just learnt the life of the great mathematician Ramanujan. Now let’s have a group discussion on “Importance of Mathematics in Our Everyday Life”. Divide yourselves into groups of five.

Harsha (Group A) : The importance of maths in everyday life. Mathematics is a methodical application of matter. It is so said because the subject makes a man methodical or systematic. Mathematics makes our life orderly and prevents chaos.

Varsha (Group B) : In Hebrew, it’s root is “thinking.” They tell us that mathematics gives us the critical ability to learn and think logically in any field of endeavor. The skills of learning today are more important than knowledge, which is so readily available on the Internet.

Yusuf (Group C) : Math is an important part of our lives, because in the future you will get a job that deals with math. Math is pretty much in everything you do, really. Math is important because it is the most widely used subject in the world. Every career uses some sort of math.

Adhira (Group D) : Maths improves problem-solving abilities. Teaches clearer logical reasoning. Sharpens concentration and observance. Develops confidence and self-esteem.

Danny (Group E) : Knowing basic math principles keeps you from having to carry around a calculator because good use of math allows you to do many calculations in your head.

Reading:

F. Answer the following questions based on the given passage.

Question 1.
What made John Shepherd-Barron to come up with the idea of ATM?
Answer:
It was then John’s habit to withdraw money on a Saturday, but on this particular weekend he had arrived one minute late and found the bank doors locked against him. This made him to come up with idea of ATM.

Question 2.
When and where was the first ATM installed?
Answer:
The first ATM was installed at a branch in the North London suburb of Enfield on June 27, 1967.

Question 3.
Who was the first person to withdraw cash from the ATM?
Answer:
The first person to withdraw cash from the ATM was Reg Varney, a celebrity resident of Enfield known for his part in the number of popular television series.

Question 4.
Why did Shepherd-Barron reduce the PIN number from six digits to four?
Answer:
Shepherd-Barron’s wife said that she could only remember four figures, because of her, four figures became the world standard.

Question 5.
Which theory of Ramanujan helps the ATMs to dispense cash?
Answer:
Ramanujan’s Partition theory helps the ATMs to dispense cash.

Writing:

G. Paragraph Writing

Question 1.
Write a paragraph of 100-120 words about a memorable anecdote / incident of your life.
Answer:
A memorable anecdote/incident in my life:
I was then a student of class four. One day, I was left at home with my grandmother. It was in the afternoon, my grandmother was taking a nap. I was a very restless one. The toys soon bored me and I looked around for something new. The unique thing which caught my attention was my Grandma’s spectacles.

I put it on my nose just in the style of my Grandma and looked around. Soon my eyes got tired. As I felt pain in my eyes, I removed the specs and threw them away. They struck the wall and landed on the ground broken. Now I got worried and afraid. I started trying to repair it. As I was holding these glass pieces I felt a severe pain in the middle finger of my right hand, I looked at it .

Blood was trickling down from a deep cut in my finger. I started crying loudly. On hearing my loud wailing my Grandma woke up. She hurriedly came out of her room, took a quick glance at my adventure and detecting the source of my trouble, she pressed her hand on my cut finger for some time and then she took me to the doctor for bandaging. I was very much afraid of punishment but my Grandma forgave me although she had to suffer difficulty in seeing until the glasses were repaired. However I was naturally punished as I could neither eat my meals nor do my homework for three days.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph of 100-120 words about your favorite personality.
Answer:
My favorite personality:
There are many people all around the world who are very famous and celebrities. But my favourite personality is my father. My father is my hero. He is kind, polite and really friendly to everyone. He is a teacher by profession and is very good in teaching. He is always ready to help and support the needy and helpless. He is a God fearing person and always teaches us to remember the God’s gifts and God’s love for the world.

I am so proud to have a father like him. He is a simple man with kind rules. He is handsome, my favourite and my ideal man. He is my friend and always ready to encourage, appreciate me for success and always ready to help me wherever I need a friend or a support of my father. I am proud of my father and wish him good health forever.

Grammar:

A. Complete the following sentences using appropriate Connectors from the box.

1. She felt cold _________ she was wearing a winter coat.
Answer:
although

2. This restaurant has some of the best chefs in the town.__________ their service is excellent.
Answer:
Moreover

3. I’m not going to the party tonight __________ I didn’t get an invitation.
Answer:
because

4. You can set the table. __________, I’ll start making dinner.
Answer:
Meanwhile

5. I can play quite a few instruments __________ , the flute, the guitar and the piano.
Answer:
For instance

6. The store was out of chocolate chips; __________ they would need to make a different type of cookies.
Answer:
therefore

7. The stores are open daily __________ Sundays.
Answer:
except

8. I’ll stay __________ you need me.
Answer:
as long as

9. This detergent is highly concentrated and __________ you will need to dilute it.
Answer:
thus

10. It was the thing he prized __________ .
Answer:
above all

Active Voice and Passive Voice:

B. Convert the following active sentences into passive sentences by supplying an appropriate passive verb form.

Question 1.
She will not recognize us. / We__________ by her.
(a) will not recognize
(b) will not being recognized
(c) will not be recognized
Answer:
(c) will not be recognized

Question 2.
They didn’t invite me, but I went anyway. /I __________ but I went anyway.
(a) wasn’t invited
(b) wasn’t being invited
(c) wasn’t inviting
Answer:
(a) wasn’t invited

Question 3.
They broke up the table for firewood. / The table __________ up for firewood.
(a) broke
(b) had broken
(c) was broken
Answer:
(c) was broken

Question 4.
She has won the first prize. / The first prize __________ by her.
(a) has won
(b) has been won
(c) had been won
Answer:
(b) has been won

Question 5.
A friend of mine is repairing the car. / The car __________ by a friend of mine.
(a) is repairing
(b) is repaired
(c) is being repaired
Answer:
(c) is being repaired

Question 6.
Begin the work tomorrow. / Let the work __________ tomorrow.
(a) be begun
(b) begin
(c) is beginning
Answer:
(a) be begun

Question 7.
They speak English in New Zealand. / English __________ in New Zealand.
(a) is speaking
(b) is spoken
(c) is being spoken
Answer:
(b) is spoken

Question 8.
His attitude shocked me. / I __________ by his attitude.
(a) had shocked
(b) had been shocked
(c) was shocked
Answer:
(c) was shocked

Question 9.
She had already sent the parcel. / The parcel __________ by her.
(a) has already been sent
(b) had already been sent
(c) was already sent
Answer:
(b) had already been sent

Question 10.
Her silence worries me / I __________ her silence.
(a) am worrying by
(b) am worried by
(c) have worried by
Answer:
(b) am worried by

C. Match the following Active voice sentences with Passive voice.

Answers:

D. Change the following into passive voice.

Question 1.
Stanley will inform you later.
Answer:
You will be informed by Stanley later.

Question 2.
People speak Portuguese in Brazil.
Answer:
Portuguese is spoken by people in Brazil.

Question 3.
My grandfather built this house in 1943.
Answer:
This house was built by my grandfather in 1943.

Question 4.
Do not hurt the animals.
Answer:
You are warned not to hurt the animals.

Question 5.
You must not drop litter in the streets.
Answer:
You are warned not to drop litter in the streets.

Question 6.
Carry it home.
Answer:
Let it be carried to home.

Question 7.
They are decorating the wall.
Answer:
The wall is being decorated by them.

Question 8.
He has already mended the TV set.
Answer:
The TV set has already been mended by him.

E. Make a scrapbook of’Famous Biographies’ by collecting at least five biographies of famous scientists, mathematicians, inventors, artists etc., of your choice. You may also collect the pictures related to their achievements, inventions etc.
Answer :
Sir Isaac Newton (Scientist):
Sir Isaac Newton was born on Christmas day, 1642. He was an English physicist and mathematician, who was the culminating figure of the scientific revolution of the 17th century. Born in the hamlet of Woolsthorpe, Newton was the only son of a local yeoman. Newton would eventually pick up his idea of a mathematical science of motion and bring his work to full fruition.

A tiny and weak baby, Newton was not expected to survive his first day of life, much less 84 years. Deprived of a father before birth, he soon lost his mother as well, for within two years she married a second time. He was left with his grandmother and moved to a neighbouring village.

For nine years, Isaac was effectively separated from his mother, and his pronounced psychotic tendencies have been ascribed to this traumatic event. Like thousands of other undergraduates, Newton began his higher education by immersing himself in Aristotle’s work. Even though the new philosophy was not in the curriculum, it was in the air.

Sometime during his undergraduate career, Newton discovered the works of the French natural philosopher Rene Descartes and the other mechanical philosophers. Newton had also begun his mathematical studies. Within little more than a year, he had mastered the literature; and, pursuing his own line of analysis, he began to move into new territory.

Despite the. fact that only a handful of savants were even aware of Newton’s existence, he had arrived at the point where he had become the leading mathematician in Europe.

Leonardo da Vinci (Artist):
Leonardo da Vinci was a leading artist and intellectual of the Italian Renaissance who’s known for his enduring works ‘ The Last Supper’ and the ‘Mona Lisa’. Leonardo da Vinci was born on April 15, 1452, in a farmhouse nestled amid the undulating hills of Tuscany outside the village of Anchiano, in present-day Italy. Born out of wedlock to respected Florentine notary Serpiero and a young peasant woman named Caterina.

Leonardo da Vinci was raised by his father and his stepmother. At the age of five, he moved to his father’s family estate in nearby Vinci, the Tuscan town from which the surname associated with Leonardo derives, and lived with his uncle and grandparents. Young Leonardo received little formal education beyond basic reading, writing and mathematics instruction, but his artistic talents were evident from an early age.

Around the age of 14, da Vinci began a lengthy apprenticeship with the noted artist Andrea del Verrocchio in Florence. He learned a wide breadth of technical skills including metalworking, leather arts, carpentry, drawing, painting and sculpting. His earliest known dated work, a pen-and-ink drawing of a landscape – the Amo Valley – was sketched in 1473. With a curious mind and keen intellect, da Vinci studied the laws of science and nature, which greatly improved his work. His ideas and body of work have influenced countless artists and made da Vinci a leading light of the Italian Renaissance.

Pythagoras (Mathematician):
Pythagoras is often known as the first pure mathematician. born on the island of Samos, Greece in 569 BC, his father, Mnesarchus, was a gem merchant. His mother’s name was Pythais and Pythagoras lived with his two or three brothers. Pythagoras was well educated, and played the lyre. He knew poetry and recited Homer. He was interested in mathematics, philosophy, astronomy and music.
Pythagoras believed:

1. The sum of the angles of a triangle is equal to two right angles.
2. The theorem of Pythagoras – for a right-angled triangle the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.
3. Constructing figures of a given area and geometrical algebra. For example they solved various equations by geometrical means.
4. Pythagoras taught that Earth was a sphere in the center of the Universe, that the planets, stars, and the universe were spherical because the sphere was the most perfect solid figure.
5. Pythagoras recognized that the morning star was the same as the evening star, Venus.

The Pythagorean Theorem is a cornerstone of mathematics, and continues to be so interesting to mathematicians that there are more than 400 different proofs of the theorem, including an original proof by President Garfield.

Michael Joseph Jackson (Singer and Dancer):

Michael Joseph Jackson was an American singer, songwriter and dancer. Dubbed the “King of Pop”, he is regarded as one of the most significant cultural icons of the 20th century and is also regarded as one of the greatest entertainers of all time. Jackson’s contributions to music, dance, and fashion, along with his publicized personal life, made him a global figure in popular culture for over four decades.

The eighth child of the Jackson family, Michael made his professional debut in 1964 with his elder brothers Jackie, Tito, Jermaine and Marlon as a member of the Jackson 5. He began his solo career in 1971 while at Motown Records.

In the early 1980s, Jackson became a dominant figure in popular music. His music videos, including “Beat It”, “Billie Jean”, and “Thriller” from his 1982 album Thriller, are all time favourites. Through stage and video performances, Jackson popularized a number of complicated dance techniques, such as the robot and the moonwalk, to which he gave the name.

His distinctive sound and style has influenced numerous artists of various genres. While preparing for his comeback concert series, This Is It, Jackson died of acute propofol and benzodiazepine intoxication in 2009, after suffering from cardiac arrest.

Kapil Dev (Cricketer):

Dev was born as Kapil Dev Nikhanj to Ram Lai Nikhanj, a prominent timber merchant and his wife Raj Kumari Ram Lai Nikhanj in Chandigarh on 6 January 1959. His mother was born in Pakpattan, in the town of the Sufi Saint Baba Farid. His father was from Dipalpur. They lived in Shah Yakka which is now in Okara district, Pakistan. His four sisters were born there before partition and his two brothers in Fazilka, where they moved after partition. His father spent his early life after the partition in Fazilka. They moved to the capital city Chandigarh.

Dev was a student at D.A.V. School and joined Desh Prem Azad in 1971. Dev captained the Indian cricket team that won the 1983 Cricket World Cup. He was India’s national cricket coach between October 1999 and August 2000. He retired in 1994, holding the world record for the most number of wickets taken in Test cricket, a record subsequently broken by Courtney Walsh in 2000.

He is the first player to take 200 ODI wickets. He is the only player in the history of cricket to have taken more than 400 wickets (434 wickets) and scored more than 5000 runs in Tests, making him one of the greatest all-rounders to have played the game. On 11 March 2010, Dev was inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame.

From Zero to Infinity Lesson Summary By Biography Of Srinivasa Ramanujan

Ramanujan was born in Erode in Tamil Nadu on December 22, 1887. His father was a petty clerk in a cloth shop. From early childhood it was evident that he was a prodigy. Mathematical ideas flooded in his mind for which he did not find enough papers to note it down. Hence he started writing them in loose sheets which was later known as Ramanujan’s Frayed Notebook. At the age of 13, he was not only able to master the Loney’s Trigonometiy, but also started his own research and came up with many mathematical theorems and formulae.

At the age of 15, the book Synopsis of Elementary Results in Pure Applied Mathematics by George Shoobridge Carr given by his senior friends triggered the mathematical genius in him. Though Ramanujan was a mathematical genius and was awarded the Subramanyan Scholarship, he failed twice in his first-year arts examination in college, which disappointed his father.

Then Ramanujan started looking for a job as he needed money not only for food but also for papers to do his calculations. His applications were rejected as no one could understand what he had scribbled in his notebooks. Luckily, Director of Madras Port Trust, Francis Spring, understood his capability and he gave Ramanujan a clerical job on a monthly salary of ?25. Later on, some teachers and educationists helped him to get a research fellowship. Thus, on 1st May 1913, the University of Madras granted him a fellowship of ?75 a month, though he had no qualifying degree.

Meanwhile, he had sent a letter to the great mathematician G.H. Hardy of Cambridge University, in which he set out 120 theorems and formulae. Among them was what is known as the Reimann Series, a topic in the definite integral of Calculus. These letters made G.H. Hardy and his colleague J.E. Littlewood realize that they bad discovered a rare mathematical genius. They made quick arrangements for his passage and stay at Cambridge University. Ramanujan sailed to Britain on March 17, 1914.

Even though he found it difficult to adapt to the new environment, he continued his research in Mathematics with determination. He forgot his hardships in the company of Hardy and Littlewood. Ramanujan was elected Fellow of the Royal Society on February 28, 1918. He was the youngest Indian to receive this distinguished fellowship. In October that year, he became the first Indian to be elected Fellow of Trinity College, Cambridge.

Ramanujan continued his works even though Tuberculosis, then an incurable disease, was devouring him. When his friends found him pale, exhausted and emaciated, they sent him back to India. He continued to play with numbers until his death. Apart from a mathematician, Ramanujan was an astrologer of repute and a good speaker.

From Zero to Infinity Glossary:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Atomic Structure

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Atomic Structure Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Atomic Structure Question 1.
The same proportion of carbon and oxygen in the carbon dioxide obtained from different sources proves the law of
(a) reciprocal proportion
(b) definite proportion
(c) multiple proportion
(d) conservation of mass
Answer:
(b) definite proportion

Atomic Structure Book Back Answers Question 2.
Cathode rays are made up of –
(a) neutral particles
(b) positively charged particles
(c) negatively charged particles
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) negatively charged particles

Atomic Structure Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
In water, hydrogen and oxygen are combined in the ratio of by mass.
(a) 1 : 8
(b) 8 : 1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 1 : 3
Answer:
(a) 1 : 8

8th Standard Question 4.
Which of the following statements made by Dalton has not undergone any change?
(a) Atoms cannot be broken.
(b) Atoms combine in small, whole numbers to form compounds.
(c) Elements are made up of atoms.
(d) All atoms of an elements are alike
Answer:
(d) All atoms of an elements are alike

Question 5.
In all atoms of an element –
(a) the atomic and the mass number are same.
(b) the mass number is same and the atomic number is different.
(c) the atomic number is same and the mass number is different
(d) both atomic and mass numbers may vary.
Answer:
(a) the atomic and the mass number are same.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………….. is the smallest particle of an element.
2. An element is composed of …………….. atoms.
3. An atom is made up of …………….., …………….. and ……………..
4. A negatively charged ion is called …………….. while positively charged ion is called
5. …………….. is a negatively charged particle (Electron/Proton).
6. Proton is deflected towards the …………….. charged plate (positively, negatively).

Answer:

1. Atom
2. same kind of
3. proton, electron, neutron
4. anion, cation
5. Electron
6. negatively

III. Match the following

1. Law of Conservation of Mass – Sir William Crookes
2. Law of Constant Proportion – James Chadwick
3. Cathode rays – Joseph Proust
4. Anode rays – Lavoisier
5. Neutrons – Goldstein

Answer:

1. Law of Conservation of Mass – Lavoisier
2. Law of Constant Proportion – Joseph Proust
3. Cathode rays – Sir William Crookes
4. Anode rays – Goldstein
5. Neutrons – James Chadwick

IV. Answer briefly

Question 1.
State the Law of Conservation of Mass.
Answer:
The law states that during any chemical change, the total mass of the products is equal to the total mass of the reactants.

Question 2.
State the Law of Constant Proportions.
Answer:
Law of constant proportions states that in a pure chemical compound the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

Question 3.
Write the properties of anode rays.
Answer:
Properties of Anode rays:

1. Anode rays travel in straight lines.
2. Anode rays are made up of material particles.
3. Anode rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields. Since, they are deflected towards the negatively charged plate, they consist of positively charged particles.

Question 4.
Define valency of an element with respect to hydrogen.
Answer:
Valency of an element is defined as the number of hydrogen atoms which combine with one atom of it.

Question 5.
Define the term ions or radicals.
Answer:
An atom or a group of atoms when they either lose or gain electrons, get converted into ions or radicals.

Question 6.
What is a chemical equation?
Answer:
A chemical equation is a short hand representation of a chemical reaction with the help of chemical symbols and formula.

Question 7.
Write the names of the following compounds.

1. CO
2. N₂O
3. NO₂
4. PCl₅

Answer:

1. Carbon monoxide.
2. Nitrous oxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Phosphorous pentachloride

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
Find the valency of the element which is underlined in the following formula.

1. NaCl
2. CO₂
3. Al(PO₂)
4. Ba(NO₃)₂
5. CaCl₂

Answer:

1. NaCl = 1
2. CO₂ = 4
3. Al(PO₄) = 3
4. Ba(NO₃)₂ = 2
5. CaCl₂ = 2

Question 2.
Write the chemical formula for the following compounds

1. Aluminium sulphate
2. Silver nitrate
3. Magnesium oxide
4. Barium chloride

Answer:

1. Aluminium sulphate = Al₂(SO₄)₃
2. Silver nitrate = AgNO₃
3. Magnesium oxide = MgO
4. Barium chloride = BaCl₂

Question 3.
Write the skeleton equation for the following word equation and then balance them.

1. Carbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide
2. Phosphorus + Chlorine → Phosphorus pentachloride.
3. Sulphur + Oxygen → Sulphur dioxide
4. Magnesium + hydrogen chloride → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen

Answer:
Balanced equation:

1. C + O₂ → CO₂
2. P₄ + 10 Cl₂ → 4PCl₅
3. S + O₂ → SO₂
4. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂

Skeleton equation:

1. C + O₂ → CO₂
2. P + Cl₂ → PCl₅
3. S + O₂ → SO₂
4. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equation.

1. Na + O₂ → Na₂O
2. Ca + N₂ → Ca₃N₂
3. N₂ + H₂ → NH₃
4. CaCO₃ + HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O
5. Pb(NO₃)₂ → PbO + NO₂ + O₂

Answer:

1. 4Na + O₂ → 2Na₂O
2. 3Ca + N₂ → Ca₃N₂
3. N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
4. CaCO₂ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂
5. 2Pb (NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂

VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Why does a light paddle wheel placed in the path of cathode rays begin to rotate, when cathode rays fall on it?
Answer:
It is because the small particles of the cathode rays (electrons) have mass and energy. This energy is used in rotating the paddle wheels.

Question 2.
How can we prove that the electrons carry negative charge?
Answer:
J.J. Thomson found that cathode rays were attracted by the positively charged plate and repelled by the negatively charged plate. This led him to the conclusion that the cathode rays (electrons) were made of negatively charged particles.

Question 3.
Ruthresh, Hari, Kanishka and Thahera collected different samples of water from a well, a pond, a river and underground water. All these samples were sent to a testing laboratory. The test result showed the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen as 1:8.

1. What conclusion would you draw from the above experiment?
2. Which law of chemical combination does it obey?

Answer:

1. Water obtained from different sources like a well, a pond, a river and underground water will always consist of the same two elements hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1 : 8 by mass.
2. It obeys the law of constant proportion.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Atomic Structure Intext Activitics

Activity – 2

Question 1.
Classify the following ions into monovalent, divalent and trivalent.
Ni²⁺, Fe³⁺, Cu²⁺, Ba²⁺, Cs⁺, Zn²⁺, Cd²⁺, Hg²⁺, Pb²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺, CO²⁺, Sr²⁺, Cr³⁺, Li⁺, Ca²⁺, Al³⁺
Answer:

• Monovalent ions – Li⁺, Cs⁺
• Divalent ions – Ni²⁺, Cu²⁺, Ba²⁺, Zn²⁺, Cd²⁺, Hg²⁺, Pb²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺, CO²⁺, Ca²⁺, Sr²⁺
• Trivalent ions – Fe³⁺, Cr³⁺, Al³⁺

Activity – 3

Question 1.
Write the chemical formula of the compounds

Answer:

Activity – 4

Question 1.
Write the names of the chemical compounds.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Atomic Structure Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which of the following scientists observed that cathode rays consists of negatively charged particles?
(a) John Dalton
(b) J.J. Thomson
(c) James Chadwick
(d) Democritus
Answer:
(b) J.J. Thomson

Question 2.
The outer most shell of an atom is known as ………………..
(a) valency
(b) valence electron
(c) nucleus
(d) valance shell
Answer:
(d) valance shell

Question 3.
The valency of which of the element is zero.
(a) iron
(b) hydrogen
(c) helium
(d) oxygen
Answer:
(c) helium

Question 4.
The equation Na + H₂O → NaOH + H₂ is ………………
(a) correct
(b) iricorrect since it is not balanced
(c) incorrect since hydrogen should be written as H and not H₂
(d) None
Answer:
(b) ipcorrect since it is not balanced

Question 5.
Whatis the valency of carbon?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 6.
Metals form ……………..
(a) anions
(b) cations
(c) both a and b
(d) none
Answer:
(b) cations

Question 7.
Isotopes exist because atoms of the same element can have different numbers of –
(a) protons
(b) neutrons
(c) electrons
(d) none
Answer:
(b) neutrons

Question 8.
An atom differs from its ion in ………………
Answer:
(a) nuclear charge
(b) mass number
(c) number of electrons
(d) number of protons
Answer:
(c) number of electrons

Question 9.
What is the atomic number of an element whose electronic configuration is 2, 8, 1?
(a) 10
(b) 23
(c) 11
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 11

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Isotopes have the same ……………… number but different ……………… numbers.
2. ……………… have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
3. Crookes Rays are also called as ……………….
4. Cathode rays are made up of material particles which have mass and ……………….
5. A proton can be defined as a ………………
6. Atoms of all metals will have …………….. electrons in their outermost orbit.
7. All non – metals will have ……………… electrons in the outermost orbit of their atoms.
8. Atoms which carry positive or negative charges are called ……………….
9. Maximum number of electrons that can be present in N shell is ……………….
10. The atomic theory was first proposed by ……………….

Answer:

1. atomic, mass
2. Isobars
3. Cathode rays
4. kinetic energy
5. hydrogen ion
6. 1 to 3
7. 4 to 7
8. ions
9. 32
10. Dalton

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Anode rays travel in straight lines.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
James Chadwick discovered the fundamental particle called proton.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
James Chadwick discovered the fundamental particle called neutron.

Question 3.
Relative charge of an electron is – 1.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Atoms of the same element are identical in all respects.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The first scientific theory about atom was given by J J. Thomson.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The first scientific theory about atom was given by John Dalton.

Question 6.
In television tube, Cathode rays are deflected by magnetic fields.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
An atom has a number of orbits and each orbit has protons.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
An atom has a number of orbits and each orbit has electrons.

Question 8.
The combining capacity of an atom is called valency.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Helium has two electrons in the outermost orbit and so it is chemically inert.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
When an atom gains an electron it has more number of electrons and thus it carries positive charge.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
When an atom gains an electron it has more number of electrons and thus it carries negative charge.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1.	J.J. Thomson	(a)	Law of definite proportions
2.	Air	(b)	Law of indestructibility of mass
3.	Hydrogen ion	(c)	Poor conductor of electricity
4.	Law of constant proportions	(d)	Plum pudding model
5.	Law of conservation of mass	(e)	H+

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. e
4. a
5. b

Question 2.

1.	Crooke’s tube	(a)	Negatively charged particles
2.	Cathode rays	(b)	Cathode ray tube
3.	Proton	(c)	Positively charged particles
4.	Anode rays	(d)	1.6 x 10-24 g

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

V. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : Proton can be defined as a hydrogen ion (H⁺).
Reason : These protons are produced when one electron is removed from one hydrogen atom.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Helium has four electrons in the outermost orbit.
Reason : Neon has eight electron in the outermost orbit.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What is an atom?
Answer:
Atom is the smallest particle of matter that takes part in a chemical reaction.

Question 2.
What is electrical discharge?
Answer:
When electricity passes through air, remove the electrons*from the gaseous atoms and produces ions. This is called electrical discharge.

Question 3.
What is the charge of a neutron?
Answer:
Neutron is a neutral particle, that is it carries no charge.

Question 4.
Define electronic configuration.
Answer:
The arrangement of electrons in the orbits is known as electronic configuration.

Question 5.
Define Orbits.
Answer:
Electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular fixed paths is called orbits or shells.

Question 6.
Name the subatomic particles of an atom.
Answer:
Proton, electron and neutron.

Question 7.
Define nucleus.
Answer:
The nucleus is the central dense core of the atom consisting of neutrons and protons.

Question 8.
What is a reactant in a chemical equation?
Answer:
Reactant is the substance that take part in a chemical reaction.

Question 9.
What is a product in a chemical equation?
Answer:
Product is the substance that are formed in a chemical reaction.

Question 10.
What are the two types of valency?
Answer:
Positive valency and negative valency.

Question 11.
Write any two advantages of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:

1. Dalton’s theory explains most of the properties of gases and liquids.
2. This explains the law of chemical combination and the law of conservation of mass.

Question 12.
Write any two limitations of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:

1. Atom is no longer considered as the smallest indivisible particle.
2. Substances made up of same kind of atoms may have different properties.

Question 13.
What are fluorescent materials?
Answer:
When invisible radiation falls on materials like zinc sulphite, they emit a visible light (or glow). These materials are called fluorescent.

Question 14.
Write the properties of neutrons.
Answer:

1. Neutron is a neutral particle, that is, it carries no charge.
2. It has mass equal to that of a proton that is 1.6 x 10^-24 g.

Question 15.
An atom is electrically neutral. Give reason.
Answer:
The total number of protons present in an atom is equal to the total number of electrons, thus balancing the total charge of the atom.

Question 16.
What is atomic number?
Answer:
The total number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom is called its atomic number.

Question 17.
What is mass number?
Answer:
The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called as mass number.

Question 18.
Mention any two information conveyed by a balanced chemical equation.
Answer:

1. Balanced chemical equation gives us both qualitative and quantitative information.
2. We can get quantitative information like the number of molecules/atoms of the reactants and products that is taking part in the reaction.

Question 19.
What is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
A balanced chemical equation is one in which the total number of atoms of any element on the reactant side is equal to die total number of atoms of that element on the product side.

Question 20.
Draw a diagram to show the electronic configuration of sodium atom.
Answer:

Question 21.
Draw a diagram to show the electronic configuration of chlorine atom.
Answer:

Question 22.
Name the four laws of chemical combinations.
Answer:

1. Law of conservation of mass
2. Law of constant proportion
3. Law of multiple proportion
4. Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes.

Question 23.
Write the names for the following compounds,

1. Aluminium sulphate
2. Silver nitrate.

Answer:

1. Al₂(SO₄)₃
2. AgNO₃

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.

1. Explain J.J. Thomson’s atom model with the help of a diagram.
2. Write the limitations of Thomson’s Atom model.

Answer:
1. J.J. Thomson’s atom model with the help of a diagram:

• Thomson proposed that the shape of an atom resembles a sphere having a radius of the order of 10^-10m.
• The positively charged particles are uniformly distributed with electrons arranged in such a manner that the atom is electrically neutral.
• Thomson’s atom model was also called as the plum pudding model or the watermelon model.
• The embedded electrons resembled the seed of watermelon while the watermelon’s red mass represented the positive charge distribution.
• The plum pudding atomic theory assumed that the mass of an atom is uniformly distributed all over the atom.

2. Limitations of Thomson’s Atom model:

• Thomson’s model failed to explain how the positively charged sphere is shielded from the negatively charged electrons without getting neutralized.
• This theory explains only about the protons and electrons and failed to explain the presence of neutral particle neutron.

Question 2.
Write a note on valency with respect to –

1. Chlorine
2. Oxygen.

Answer:
1. Valency with respect to Chlorine:

• Since valency of chlorine is one, the number of chlorine atoms with which one atom of an element can combine is called valency.
• In sodium chloride (NaCl) molecule, one chlorine atom combines with one sodium atom. So, the valency of sodium is one.
• But, in magnesium chloride (MgCl₂) valency of magnesium is two because it combines with two chlorine atoms.

2. Valency with respect to oxygen:

• Valency can be defined as double the number of oxygen atoms with which one atom of an element can combine because valency of oxygen is two.
• For example, in magnesium oxide (MgO) valency of magnesium is two.

Question 3.
Write the steps are followed to write down the chemical formula of a substance.
Answer:
Step 1:
Write down the symbols of elements/ions side by side so that the positive radical is on the left and the negative radical is on the right hand side.

Step 2:
Write the valencies of the two radicals above their symbols to the right in superscript (Signs ‘+’ and ‘-‘ of the ions are omitted).

Step 3:
Reduce the valencies to simplest ratio if needed. Otherwise interchange the valencies of the elements/ions. Write these numbers as subscripts. However, ‘1’ appearing on the superscript of the symbol is omitted.

Question 4.
What are the steps involved in writing the skeletal equation?
Answer:
The following are the steps involved in writing the skeletal equation:

1. Write the symbols and formula of each of the reactants on the left hand side (LHS) and join them by plus (+) sign.
2. Follow them by an arrow (→) which is interpreted as gives or forms.
3. Write on the right hand side (RHS) of arrow the symbols and formula for each of the products.
4. The equation thus written is called as skeleton equation (unbalanced equation).
5. If the product is a gas it should be represented by upward arrow (↑) and if it is a precipitate it should be represented by downward arrow (↓).
   Example: Mg + H₂SO₂ → MgSO₄ + H₂ ↑

Question 5.
What are the points to be followed while balancing a chemical equation?
Answer:
1. Initially the number of times an element occurs on both sides of the skeleton equation should be counted.

2. An element which occurs least number of times in reactant and product side must be balanced first. Then, elements occuring two times, elements occuring three times and so on in an increasing order must be balanced.

3. When two or more elements occur same number of times, the metallic element is balanced first in preference to non – metallic element. If more than one metal or nonmetal is present then a metal or non-metal with higher atomic mass (refer periodic table to find the atomic mass) is balanced first.

4. The number of molecules of reactants and products are written as coefficient.

5. The formula should not be changed to make the elements equal.

6. Fractional method of balancing must be employed only for molecule of an element (O₂, H₂,O₃, P₄,…) not for compound (H₂O, NH₃,…).

Question 6.
What information are not conveyed by a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:

1. Physical state of the reactants and the products.
2. Heat changes (heat liberated or heat absorbed) accompanying the chemical reaction.
3. Conditions such as temperature, pressure, catalyst etc., under which the reaction takes place.
4. Concentration (dilute or concentrated) of the reactants and products.
5. Speed of the reaction.

Question 7.
Explain the specific ways to be followed while naming chemical compounds?
Answer:
1. In naming a compound containing a metal and a non-metal, the name of the metal is written first and the name of the non-metal is written next after adding the suffix-ide to its name.
Examples:
NaCl – Sodium chloride
AgBr – Silver bromide

2. In naming a compound containing a metal, a non-metal and oxygen, name of the metal is written first and name of the non-metal with oxygen is written next after adding the suffix- ate (for more atoms of oxygen) or -ite (for less atoms of oxygen) to its name.
Examples:
Na₂ SO₄ – Sodium sulphate
Na ₂ – Sodium nitrite

3. In naming a compound containing two non – metals only, the prefix mono, di, tri, tetra, penta etc. is written before the name of non – metals.
Examples:
SO₂ – Sulphur dioxide
N₂O₅ – Dinitrogen pentoxide.

Question 8.
Derive the chemical formula for calcium chloride.
Answer:

• Step 1 – Write the symbols of calcium and chlorine side by side. Ca Cl
• Step 2 – Write the valencies of calcium and chlorine above their symbols to the right. Ca² Cl¹.
• Step 3 – Interchange the valencies of elements. Ca Cl₂.

Thus the chemical formula for calcium chloride is CaCl2.

Question 9.
Describe an experiment to prove that during a chemical charge, the total mass of matter remains the same.
Answer:
1. Prepare 5% of barium chloride (5g of BaCL in 100 ml of water) and sodium sulphatesolutions separately.

2. Take some solution of sodium sulphate in a conical flask and some solution of barium chloride in a test tube.

3. Hang the test tube in the conical flask.

4. Weigh the flask with its contents. Now mix the two solutions by tilting and swirling the flask. Weigh the flask after the chemical reaction is occurred.

5. Record your observation. It can be seen that the weight of the flask and the contents remains the same before and after the chemical change.

6. Hence, it is proved that during a chemical change, the total mass of matter remains the same.

Question 10.
Explain the advantages and limitations of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:
Advantages of Dalton’s Atomic Theory:

1. Dalton’s theory explains most of the properties of gases and liquids.
2. This explains the laws of chemical combination and the law of conservation of mass.
3. This theory helps to recognize the molecular differences of elements and compounds.

Limitations of Dalton’s Atomic Theory:

1. Atom is no longer considered as the smallest indivisible particle.
2. Atoms of the same element have different masses (Isotopes).
3. Atoms of the different elements may have same masses (Isobars).
4. Substances made up of same kind of atoms may have different properties
5. Example: Coal, Graphite and Diamond are made up of carbon atoms but they differ in their properties

Question 11.
Explain the construction of cathode Ray Tube (CRT) with a diagram.
Answer:

1. Cathode Ray Tube is a long glass tube filled with gas and sealed at both the ends.
2. It consists of two metal plates (which act as electrodes) connected with high voltage.
3. The electrode which is connected to the negative terminal of the battery is. called the cathode (negative electrode).
4. The electrode connected to the positive terminal is called the anode(positive electrode).
5. There is a side tube which is connected to a pump.
6. The pump is used to lower the pressure inside the discharge tube.

Question 12.
Explain the properties of Cathode rays.
Answer:
Properties of Cathode rays:

1. Cathode rays travel in straight line from cathode towards anode.
2. Cathode rays are made up of material particles which have mass and kinetic energy.
3. Cathode rays are deflected by both electric and magnetic fields. They are negatively charged particles.
4. The nature of the cathode rays does not depend on the nature of the gas filled inside the tube or the cathode used.

Question 13.
Write the main postulates of Dalton’s Atomic theory.
Answer:
The nain postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory are:

1. All the matters are made up of extremely small particles called atoms (Greek philosopher Democritus used the same name for the smallest indivisible particles).
2. Atoms of the same element are identical in all respects (size, shape, mass and properties).
3. Atoms of different elements have different sizes and masses and possess different properties.
4. Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed, i.e., atom is indestructible.
5. Atoms of different elements may combine with each other in a fixed simple ratio to form molecules or compounds.
6. An atom is the smallest particle of matter that takes part in a chemical reaction.

Question 14.
Complete the table:

Answer:

1. Oxide
2. 2
3. OH^–
4. H₂CO₃

VIII. Solve the following crossword puzzle with the help of the given clues.

Question 1.
Across:
1. The particles that build up an atom.
3. The arrangement of electrons in a succession of energy levels or shells.
5. An electrically neutral sub atomic particle that is part of the nucleus of an atom.
6. A whole number that represents the ability of an atom or a group of atoms to combine with other atoms or group of atoms.
7. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
8. The smallest unit of an element that maintains the properties of an element.
A sub – atomic particle that has a positive electric charge.
Down:
2. A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substance by chemical means.
4. The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom.
9. An ion that has a negative charge.
11 A sub – atomic particle with a negative electric charge.
12. Positively charged ions.
Answer:

Students can Download English Poem 3 Fire Work Night Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 3 Fire Work Night

A. Answer the following questions.

Fireworks Night Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why was the dog frightened?
Answer:
The dog was frightened by the fireworks on a bonfire night.

Firework Night Poem Summary Question 2.
Whom did the dog ask for help?
Answer:
The dog asked the mistress and master for help.

Firework Night Poem Question 3.
What did the dog do when the door is opened?
Answer:
The dog rushed in, when the door was opened.

Firework Night Poem Line By Line Summary Question 4.
Where did the dog hide himself?
Answer:
The dog hid himself behind the couch.

Question 5.
Where will the dog go when the firework stops?
Answer:
He will go to his kennel, when the firework stops

B. Literary appreciation

(a)
Mistress, Master, hear me yelp,
I’m out-of-doors, I want your help.
Let me in-oh, LET ME IN
Before those fireworks begin

Write the rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines.
Answer:
The rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines is ‘aabb’.

(b)
To shoot again I can’t bear that;
My tall is down, my ears are flat,
I’m trembling here outside the door,
Oh, don’t you love me anymore?
Write the rhyming words from the above poetic lines
Answer:
The rhyming words are ‘that – flat’ and ‘door – anymore’

Rhyming words.
Match the rhyming words from the poem.

1. Hark	(a) do
2. Too	(b) fright
3. Yelp	(c) dark
4. Grand	(d) crouch
5. Couch	(e) help
6. Night	(f) hand

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (f)
5. (d)
6. (b)

Figure of speech.

Fire Work Night Question 1.
What is being personified in the sentence – ‘The full moon peeped through partial clouds’?
Answer:
The full moon is being personified here. It peeps through the partial clouds.

Fire Work Night Poem Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of personification?
(a) The chocolates smelled like delicious cake.
(b) The chocolates smell delicious.
(c) The delicious smell of chocolates invited me to eat them.
(d) I dreamt of delicious chocolates.
Answer:
(c) The delicious smell of chocolates invited me to eat them. ]

Fireworks Night Summary Question 3.
Personification is _______
(a) giving human attributes to human beings.
(b) comparing unrelated things.
(c) giving human attributes to non-human objects.
(d) talking the negative aspects of a person.
Answer:
(c) giving human attributes to non-human objects.

Fire Works Night Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension.

Fireworks Night Book Back Answers Question 1.
Mistress, Master, hear me yelp,
(a) Who is yelping?
Answer:
The dog is yelping.

(b) What does the word ‘yelp’ mean?
Answer:
It means ‘a sharp painful cry’.

Fireworks Poem Summary Question 2.
Oh, don’t you love me anymore?
(a) Who is the dog questioning?
Answer:
The dog is questioning the mistress.
(b) Why is he asking such a question?
Answer:
He is asking this question because he has been left outside and no one is responding to his cry.

II. Poetic Devices.

Fireworks Night Poem Summary In English Question 1.
Before these fireworks begin
(a) Pick out the words in alliteration.
Answer:
Before – begin are the words in alliteration.

Fireworks Night Question Answer Question 2.
The lights are on, it’s warm andgrand-
Mistress, let me lick your hand
Before I slip behind the couch.
There I’ll hide myself and crouch
(a) Write the rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines.
Answer:
The rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines is ‘aabb’.

III. Short Questions and Answers.

Fireworks Night Poem Question 1.
When were the fireworks burst?
Answer:
They were burst on a bonfire night.

Fire Works Night Question 2.
Why were the ears of the dog flat?
Answer:
The ears of the dog were flat because it was scared.

Fireworks Poem Questions And Answers Question 3.
What did the dog feel, when it went in?
Answer:
The dog felt warm, and safe inside the house.

Fireworks Night Poem 8th Standard Question 4.
What did the mistress ask her children?
Answer:
She asked them whether she can allow the dog into the house.

Firework At Night Question 5.
Why did the dog say that he would guard the mistress safely all the night?
Answer:
The dog said that he would guard the mistress safely because she understood his fright. ‘

IV. Paragraph Question with Answer.

Firework Night Question 1.
Narrate the fright of the dog left outside the house?
Answer:
The dog is left outside the house on a bonfire night. He gets scared by the sound and bursting of fireworks. He requests his mistress and master to allow him into the house. He is unable to bear the loud bang sound. Out of fear, his tail is down and the ears are flat. He trembles outside the door. He says that he will die with fright, if they don’t allow him into the house. As soon as the mistress opens the door, he rushes through and feels safe inside. It feels grateful to her mistress.

Fire Work Night Summary

The poem focuses on a dog being scared by the fireworks on a Bonfire night. A dog requests his mistress to let him into the house as he is scared of the guns shooting at night. He couldn’t bear the loud ‘bang’ sound. Out of fear, his tail is down and his ears are flat. He is trembling outside the door. He says that he will die with fright, if they don’t allow him into the house.

The mistress opens the door wide and the dog rushes in. He feels safe inside, as the lights are on. It is warm and grand inside. He feels grateful to the mistress and wants to show it by licking her hand, before he slips behind the couch. He will hide there and crouch in safety till the bangs are done. After that, he will run to his kennel and guard her safely because she understood his fright.

Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 2 Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India Question 1.
Who wrote Prithivirajraso?
(a) Kalhana
(b) Vishakadatta
(c) Rajasekara
(d) Chand Bardai
Answer:
(d) Chand Bardai

Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India Book Back Answers Question 2.
Who was the first prominent ruler of Pratiharas?
(a) Bhoja I
(b) Naga Bhatta I
(c) Jayapala
(d) Chandradeva
Answer:
(b) Naga Bhatta 1

Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India In Tamil Question 3.
Ghazni was a small principality in
(a) Mangolia
(b) Turkey
(c) Persia
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(d) Afghanistan

Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India Question Answer Question 4.
What was the most important cause of the invasion of Mahmud of Ghazni?
(a) To destroy idolatry
(b) To plunder the wealth of India
(c) To spread Islam in India
(d) To establish a Muslim state in India
Answer:
(b) To plunder the wealth of India

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ______ was the founder of Vikramashila University.
2. Arabs conquered Sind in ______
3. The city of Ajmeer was founded by ______
4. The Khandarya temple is in ______

Answer:

1. Dharmapala
2. AD (CE) 712
3. Simharaji
4. Madhya Pradesh

III. Match the following

A		B
Khajuraho	i	Mount Abu
Sun Temple	ii	Bundlekhand
Dilwara Temple	iii	Konark

Answer:

1. ii
2. iii
3. i

IV. True or False :

Emergency Of New Kingdoms In North India Question 1.
Rajputra is a Latin word.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: Rajputra is a Sanskrit word.

Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India Class 7 Question 2.
King Gopala was elected by the people.
Answer:
True

Kingdoms Of North India Question 3.
The temple at Mount Abu is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: The temple at Mount Abu is dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Solutions Question 4.
Raksha Bandan is a festival of brotherhood.
Answer:
True

Emergence Of New Kingdoms Question 5.
Indians learnt the numerals 0 – 9 from Arabs.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: Arabians learnt the numerals 0-9 from Indians.

V. Consider the following statements.

Tick (✓) the appropriate answer.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th History Book Question 1.
Assertion (A): The tripartite struggle was to have control over Kanauj.
Reason (R): Kanauj was a big city.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Mahipala could not extend his domain beyond Benaras.
Statement II : Mahipala and Rajendra Chola were contemporaries.
(a) I is correct
(b) II is correct.
(c) I and II are correct
(d) I and II are false
Answer:
(c) I and II are correct.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : India’s Islamic period did not begin after Arab conquest of Sind in AD (CE)712.
Reason (R) : Gurjara Pratiharas gave a stiff resistance to Arabs.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A) : The second battle of Tarain was lost by Prithiviraj.
Reason (R) : There was disunity among the Rajputs
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong and R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.

Question 5.
Consider the following statements and find out which is/are correct.

1. Raksha Bandan tradition is attributed to Rajputs.
2. Tagore started a mass Raksha Bandan festival during Partition of Bengal
3. Raksha Bandan was to counter the British attempt to create a divide between Hindus and Muslims.

(a) 1 is correct
(b) 2 is correct
(c) 3 is correct
(d) All the above are correct
Answer:
(d) All the above are correct

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write about tripartite struggle over Kanauj.
Answer:
There was a prolonged tripartite struggle between the Gurjara Pratiharas of Malwa, the Rashtrakutas of Deccan and the Palas of Bengal, as each one of them wanted to establish their supremacy over the fertile region of Kanauj. In the process, all the three powers were weakened.

Question 2.
Name any four Rajput clans.
Answer:
The Pratiharas, the Chauhans, the Chalukyas (different from the Deccan Chalukyas), known as Solankis, and the Paramaras of Pawars.

Question 3.
Who was the founder of Pala dynasty?
Answer:
Gopala was the founder of Pala dynasty.

Question 4.
Mention the first two early Caliphates.
Answer:
Two early Caliphates were ‘Umayyads’ and the ‘Abbasids’

Question 5.
Name the ruler of Sind who was defeated by Qasim.
Answer:
Qasim defeated Dahir, the ruler of sind and killed him in the battle.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What was the impact of Arab conquest of Sind? (point out any five)
Answer:

1. The people of Sind were given the status of ‘protected subjects’.
2. There was no interference in the lives and religions of the people.
3. The Arab scholars visited Sind and studied many Indian literary works.
4. They translated many Sanskrit books on astronomy, philosophy, mathematics and ’ medicine into Arabic.
5. They learnt the numerals 0 to 9 from India. Until then, the people in the West did not know the use of zero.
6. Through the Arabs, Europe gained more knowledge in mathematics. The importance of zero was learnt by them from India.
7. It is believed that the people in the West and the Arabs learnt the game of chess only from the Indians.

VIII. HOTS :

Question a.
Difference between Mahmud Ghazni’s invasion and Muhammad Ghor’s invasion.
Answer:

Mahmud Ghazni invasion

1. Mahmud of Ghazni conducted 17 raids into India. He initially raided the shahi kingdom. After his victory over Shahi and Waihind, he extended his rule over punjab.

2. But his subsequent raids were aimed at plundering the rich temples and cities of North India. Some of the cites were Nagarkot, Thaneshwar, Mathura and Anhilwad. He plundered the famous temple of Somnath, breaking the idol.

Muhammad Ghor’s invasion

1. Muhammad of Ghor who was initially a vassal of Ghazni took over its control after the death of Mahmud Ghazni. Unlike Ghazni, he wanted to extend his empire in India and captured Multan and Punjab.

Question b.
Find out

Answer:

IX. Student Activity :

Question a.
Word Splash (Students discuss what they know about the words given here. They use the words from what they have learnt in a narrative form)
(Harsha, Rajput,Kanauj,Vikramashila,Prithiviraj,Caliph)
Answer:

1. Harsha: A famous king of the Rajput clans.
2. Rajputs: Rajputra Means scion of the royal blood. They are known for their valour and chivalry. They ruled northern and central India.
3. Kanauj: A very fertile region, there was a prolonged tripartite struggle between Pratiharas of Malwa, Rashtrakutas of Deccan and the Palas of Bengal.
4. Vikramashila: Dharmapala, the pala king founded Vikramashik Monastery, which became a great centre of Buddhist learning.
5. Prithiviraj: Prithiviraj Chauhan, the last of Chauhan king, was considered the greatest of all Chauhan rulers.
6. Caliph: Caliph means a representative of prophet Muhammad.

Question b.
Time Line
Write the event for the given year in each column.

X. Map work
On the river map of India mark the territories ruled by Pratiharas, Chauhans, Palas and Paramaras

XI. Answer Grid

XII. Life skill :

Question 1.
Make an album with the pictures of temples built by Rajput rulers.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Emergence Of New Kingdoms In North India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
was prominent and had become the rallying point for all Rajput clans.
(a) Kanauj
(b) Ajmer
(c) Chittor
(d) Sind
Answer:
(c) Chittor

Question 2.
The one of the four prominent clans of the Rajputs, ruled from Gurjaratra in Jodhpur).
(a) Palas
(b) Pratiharas
(c) Chauhans
(d) Chalukyas
Answer:
(b) Pratiharas

Question 3.
was also a great patron of Buddhism.
(a) Gopala
(b) Mahipala
(c) Devapala
(d) Harsha
Answer:
(c) Devapala

Question 4.
There are sixteen Hindu and Jain temples at which is 32 miles away from Jodhpur.
(a) Osian
(b) Jaipur
(c) Udaipur
(d) Gwalior
Answer:
(a) Osian

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ laid the foundation of the Gurjara dynasty.
2. ______ , son of Rambhadra, succeeded in consolidating the power of the Pratiharas.
3. ______ was the most powerful ruler of the Pala dynasty.
4. The______ of the khajuraho temples are most elegant.
5. Under Pala patronge, a distinctive school of art arose, called ______

Answer:

1. Harichandra
2. Mihirabhoja
3. Mahipala I
4. Shikharas
5. Pala Art or Eastern Indian Art

III. Match the following:

	A		B
a.	Harichandra	i.	Rajput dynasty
b.	Gopala	ii.	Political leader
c.	Simharaji	iii.	Pala dynasty
d.	Caliphates	iv.	Guijara dynasty

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. i
4. ii

IV. True or False :

Question 1.
The Pala dynasty declined soon after the death of Mahipala.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Khajuraho temples are dedicated to Buddha.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: The Khajuraho temples are dedicated to Shiva and Vishnu.

Question 3.
The Palas were adherents to the Mahayana school of Buddhism.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Mahmud is said to have conducted 10 raids into India.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: Mahmud is said to have conducted 17 raids into India.

V. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : King of Kanauj placed a statue of prithiviraj as door keeper at the entrance to his court.
Reason : He wanted to insult Prithiviraj.
(a) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(b) Statement is wrong, Reason is correct.
(c) Statement and Reason are correct.
(d) Statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason are correct.

Question 2.
Statement : After the victory in the second battle of Tarain Muhammad Ghori returned to Ghazni.
Reason : He had a weak army.
(a) Statement and Reason are wrong.
(b) Statement is correct and Reason is wrong.
(c) Reason is correct, Statement is wrong.
(d) Statement and Reason are correct.
Answer:
(b) Statement is correct and Reason is wrong.

Question 3.
Find out the wrong Pair
(a) Suryavanshi – i. Race of the Sun
(b) Chandravanshi – ii. Race of the Moon
(c) Agnikula – iii. Race of the Sky
(d) Tomaras – iv. Haryana region
Answer:
(c) Agnikula – Race of the Sky

VI. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
Name the tower of victory built in chittor to commemorate the victory of Rana of Chittor over Malwa.
Answer:
Jaya Stambha

Question 2.
Who is the chola king who restricted the Pala domain from spreading beyond Banaras.
Answer:
Rajendra Chola

Question 3.
What was the capital of Chauhans between A.D. 956 and 1192?
Answer:
Sakambari.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Name some important Rajput buildings.
Answer:
Some of the important examples of the Rajput buildings are the strong fortresses of Chittorgarh. Ranathambhor and Kumbahlgarh (all in Rajasthan), Mandu, Gwalior, Chanderi and Asirgarh (all in Madhya Pradesh).

Question 2.
Write a short note on Khajuraho temples.
Answer:
The Khajuraho in Bundelkhand has 30 temples. The shikharas of the Khajuraho temples are most elegant. The exterior and interior parts of the temples are adorned with very fine sculptures. These temples are dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras and Hindu deities like Shiva and Vishnu.

Question 3.
Name the famous universities of the Palas period.
Answer:
Famous universities of Nalanda and Vikramashila.

Question 4.
Who was the Buddhist monk who reformed Tibetan Buddhism?
Answer:
Atisha

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
What is the significance of Rakhi or Raksha Bandhan festival?
Answer:
This festival celebrates brotherhood whereby a woman ties a rakhi around the wrists of men whom they treat as brothers with a belief that they would protect them. Rabindranath Tagore started the mass Raksha Bandhan festival to encourage brotherhood and harmony between Hindus and Muslims during partition of Bengal.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 The Cell

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 2 Question 1.
The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of cell is
(a) centimeter
(b) millimeter
(c) micrometer
(d) meter
Answer:
(c) micrometer

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Under the microscope Priya observes a cell that has a cell wall and distinct nucleus. The cell that she observed is
(a) a plant cell
(b) an animal cell
(c) a nerve cell
(d) a bacteria cell
Answer:
(a) a plant cell

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
A control centre’ of the eukaryotic cell is
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(b) Nucleus

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 4.
Which one of the following is not an unicellular organism?
(a) Yeast
(b) Amoeba
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(c) Spirogyra

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Question 5.
Most organelles in a eukaryotic cell are found in the
(a) Cell wall
(b) cytoplasm
(c) nucleus
(d) Vacuole
Answer:
(b) cytoplasm

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. The instrument used to observe the cell is _______
2. I control the food production of a cell. Who am I? _______
3. I am like a policeman. Who am I _______ ?
4. The Term “ cell” was coined by _______
5. The egg of an Ostrich is the _______ single cell.

Answers:

1. microscope
2. chloroplast
3. cell wall
4. Robert hooke
5. largest

III. True or False. If False, give the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Books 6th Science Question 1.
A cell is the smallest unit of life.
Answer:
True

6th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 2.
Nerve cell is the longest cell.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Books Science Question 3.
Prokaryotes were the first form of life on earth.
Ans:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Question 4.
The organelles of both plants and animals are made up of cells.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 5.
New cells are produced from existing cells.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

1. Control center	Cell membrane
2. Food producer (Plant cell)	Mitochondria
3. Gate of the nucleus	Nucleus
4. Gate of the cell	Chloroplasts
5. Energy producer	Nuclear membrane

Answer:

1. Control center	Nucleus
2. Food producer (Plant cell)	Chloroplasts
3. Gate of the nucleus	Nuclear membrane
4. Gate of the cell	Cell membrane
5. Energy producer	Mitochondria

V. Arrange in a correct sequence:

Samcheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 1.
Elephant, Cow, Bacteria, Mango, Rose plant.
Answer:
Bacteria, Rose plant, Mango, Cow, Elephant.

6th Standard Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Hen egg, Ostrich egg, Insect egg.
Answer:
Insect egg, Hen egg, Ostrich egg.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Prokaryote : Bacteria :: Eukaryote : _______
Answer:
Plant or animal cell.

Question 2.
Spirogyra : Plant cell:: Amoeba :
Answer:
animal cell.

Question 3.
Food producer : Chloroplasts :: Power house _______
Answer:
mitochondria.

VII. Give very short answer:

Question 1.
Who discovered the cell in 1665?
Answer:
The English scientist Robert Hooke discovered the cell in 1665 from cork slices kept under a microscope.

Question 2.
What type of cells do we have?
Answer:
We have Eukaryotic cells.

Question 3.
What are the essential components of a cell?
Answer:
A typical cell consists of three major parts.

1. An outer cell membrane
2. A liquid cytoplasm
3. Nucleus

Question 4.
What are the organelles found only in plant cell?
Answer:
Chloroplasts and cell wall are the organelles found only in plant cell.

Question 5.
Give any three examples of the eukaryotic cell?
Answer:

1. Plant cells
2. Animal cells
3. Most of fungi and Algae

Question 6.
Which one is called as “Area of movement”?
Answer:
Cytoplasm is called as “Area of movement”.

Question 7.
Shiva said “ Bigger onion has larger cells when compared to the cells of smaller onion”! Do you agree with his statement or not ? Explain Why?
Answer:
No, the big onion and small onion both of them have plant cell and the size of every cell remains same whether it is of a small onion or big one. The shape is larger means that the number of cells is more in bigger onion.

VIII. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Why cells are called building blocks of life?
Answer:
A brick is a basic building block of a wall, likewise, the cells are the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism. So the cells are called as building blocks of life.

Question 2.
Identify any four parts of the Plant cell.

Answer:

Question 3.
Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell:

1. It’s diameter ranges from 1 to 2 micron
2. Absence of membrane bound organelles
3. Nucleus consisting of no nuclear membrane
4. Absence of nucleoli

Eukaryotic cell:

1. It’s diameter ranges from 10 to 100 micron
2. Presence of membrane bound organelles
3. True nucleus consisting of nuclear membrane
4. Presence of nucleoli

Question 4.
Make sketches of animal and plant cells which you observe under microscope.
Answer:
Plant cell:

1. It is usually larger in size. It is hard in nature.
2. Plant cell have a cell wall in addition to their cell membrane.
3. Plant cell have chloroplast which contain chlorophyll
4. Plant cells have large vacuoles. Centrioles are absent.

Animal cell:

1. Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells. It is not so hard as plant cell.
2. A cell wall is absent.
3. Chloroplast is usually absent.
4. An animal cell may have many small vacuoles.
5. Centrioles are found in animal cells.

Question 5.
Write about the contribution of Robert Hooke in cell biology.
Answer:
Robert hooke was a scientist and inventor. He improved microscope and built a compound microscope. One day he made thin sections of the cork and observed many small identical chambers through his microscope. They were hexagonal in shape. Based on this observations Hooke published a book named Micrographia in the year 1665, where he first used the term Cell. He describes the structure of tissue using the term cell.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Tabulate any five cell organelles and their function.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

X. Project:

1. Use your imagination and create 3-D model of a plant cell?
2. You can use numerous food materials such as a jelly and some cake to make a cell body. Cell organelles can be made using nuts and dry fruits. You can display the model in your class room and invite teachers or students from other classes to rise questions on the project and try to give answer.
Answer:
Activities to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Intext Activities

Activity 1

Aim:
To observe the structure of a single cell (Hen’s egg).

Materials Needed: A hen’s egg and a plate.

Method: Crack the shell and break open the egg in a plate.

Observation: The egg has a yellow part and a transparent part surrounding it. The white transparent part (albumin) is jelly-like and represents the cell’s cytoplasm, while the yellow part (yolk) is thicker and represents the cell’s nucleus. On the internal side of the shell can be seen a thin membrane- like structure, which represents the cell membrane.

Activity 2

Aim: To observe onion peel cells under a microscope

Materials Required: Glass slide, cover slip, onion, iodine solution, knife and microscope.

Procedure: Take an onion and cut it into two halves along its length. Take out one of its fleshy leaves. With the help of a pair of forceps, remove a transparent, thin peel from the inner surface of the leaf. Take a glass slide and put a drop of water at the centre. Place the peel on the drop of water. Pour a drop of iodine solution on the peel. Now place a cover slip over the material. Observe under the microscope.

Observation: You will be able to see rectangular cells of the onion peel, with a nucleus in each of them.

Activity 3

Aim: To rectify the variation between 2-D shape and 3-D shape.

Material req uired: Polythene bag, water, marble ball (golli gundu)

Procedure: Take a polythene bag with water. Put a marble ball into the polythene bag. Then draw a picture in your note book about this task. If you draw a picture in round shape. It will be called 2-Dimenstional picture. If you draw a picture in spherical shape it is called 3-dimenstional.

Result: Now you understand your misconceptions. So the animal cells are spherical in shape and structure, not in a round shape.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Cell Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one is prokaryotic cell among the following?
(a) Plant cell
(b) Animal cell
(c) Nerve cell
(d) Cyano bacteria cell
Answer:
(d) Cyano bacteria cell

Question 2.
The habitat of Eschericia coli bacteria is
(a) It is a soil inhabiting bacteria
(b)It lives in human intestine
(c) It is an aquatic bacteria
(d) It lives in the air
Answer:
(b) It lives in human intestine

Question 3.
A typical cell consists of ______ major parts
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Five
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 4.
The central yellow coloured yolk of egg is
(a) cytoplasm
(b) cell membrane
(c) Reserve material
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(d) Nucleus

Question 5.
Approximate number of cells in the human body is ______
(a) 3.7 × 10¹³
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁴
(b) 3.7 × 10¹²
(d) 3.7 × 10¹⁵
Answer:
(a) 3.7 × 10¹³

Question 6.
Prokaryotic cell type of nucleus is called as _______
(a) nucleolus
(b) nuclear membrane
(c) organelles
(d) nucleiod
Answer:
(d) uncleiod

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ is the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism.
2. Now a days an _______ microscope is used to magnify the cells
3. In Latin the word ‘cellula’ means a _______
4. The branch of science that deals with the study of cells is called.
5. The outer covering part of cell is called _______
6. _______ cells were the first form of life on earth.
7. _______ is present in plant cell only.
8. Plants prepared food with the help of _______

Answers:

1. Cell
2. electron
3. small chamber
4. cell biology
5. cell membrane
6. Prokaryotic
7. Chloro plant
8. chlorophyll

III. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement:

Question 1.
The cell is self-sufficient carry out all the fundamental and essential functions of an organism.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Robert Hooke saw many objects like Butterfly’s compound eyes, Bee’s wings etc.
Answer:
False. Robert Hooke saw many objects like Butterfly’s wings, Bees compand eyes etc.

Question 3.
All the cells can be seen with our naked eye.
Answer:
False. All the cells cannot be seen with our naked eye.

Question 4.
The size of the bacterial cell ranges from 0.01 micro meter to 0.5 micrometer.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Spirogyra and Human beings are unicellular.
Answer:
False. Spirogyra and Human beings are multicellular.

IV. Matching:

1. Discovery of cell	(a)	Nerve cell
2. Unicellular organism	(b)	spirogyra
3. Multicellular organism	(c)	Robert Hooke
4. Longest cell	(d)	Cyano bacteria
5. Prokaryotic cell	(e)	Amoeba

Answer:

1. – c
2. – e
3. – b
4. – a
5. – d

V. Analogy

Question 1.
Smallest cell: virus.
Biggest cell: _______
Answer:
Ostrich egg

Question 2.
Unicellular organism : Chlamydomonas.
Multi cellular organism : _______
Answer:
Human beings

Question 3.
No true nucleus : Prokaryotic cell.
True nucleus : _______
Answer:
Eukaryotic cell

Question 4.
Plant cell: Chloroplast.
Animal cell: _______
Answer:
Centrioles

VI. Give short answer

Question 1.
Give two examples of prokaryotic cell?
Answer:
Cyano bacteria and Eschericia coli bacteria are the examples of prokaryotic cell.

Question 2.
What are the two types of cell?
Answer:
Cells are classified into two types. First one is Prokaryotic cell. It has no true nucleus. Another one is Eukaryotic cell. It has true nucleus.

Question 3.
Define: Prokaryotic cells.
Answer:

1. It has No true nucleus.
2. This type of nucleus is called as nucleiod.
3. No nuclear membrane is around the nucleiod.
4. It is ranging from 0.003 to 2.0 micro meter in diameter.

Question 4.
Write about chloroplasts.
Answer:

1. It is found in plant cell only.
2. It contains green pigment chlorophyll.
3. It captures the energy of sunlight and uses it to produce food for the photosynthesis.
4. it is called as producers for the cell.

Question 5.
What are the functions of nucleus.
Answer:

1. It acts as brain of the cell.
2. It regulates and controls all the cell activities.

Question 6.
Cell wall is called as supporter or protector. Why?
Answer:

1. It surrounds and protects the cell.
2. It makes the cell stiff and strong.
3. It is called as supporter or protector.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the characteristics of plant cell with diagram.
Answer:
Plant cell:

1. It is usually larger in size. It is hard in nature.
2. plane cell have a cell wall in addition to their cell membrane
   
3. Plant cell have chloroplast which contain chlorophyll
4. Plant cells have large vacuoles. Centrioles are absent.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of animal cell with diagram.
Answer:
Animal cell:

1. Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells. It is not so hard as plant cell.
2. A cell wall is absent.
3. Chloroplast is usually absent
   
4. An animal cell may have many small vacuoles.
5. Centrioles are found in animal cells.

Question 3.
Draw the 3-dimensional cell structure and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 4.
Give the difference between animal cell and plant cell.
Answer:
Animal cell:

1. Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells. It is not so hard as plant cell.
2. A cell wall is absent.
3. Chloroplast is usually absent.
4. An animal cell may have many small vacuoles.

Plant cell:

1. It is usually larger in size. It is hard in nature.
2. Plant cell have a cell wall in addition to their cell membrane.
3. Plant cell haves chloroplast which contain chlorophyll
4. Plant cells have large vacuoles. Centrioles are absent.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Human Evolution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Human Evolution 6th Standard Question 1.
The process of evolution is ________.
(a) direct
(b) indirect
(c) gradual
(d) fast
Answer:
(c) gradual

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 2.
Tanzania is situated in the continent of ……………..
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) Africa

II. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
Statement: Migration of man of different part of the world resulted in changes of physic and colour.
Reason: Climatic changes.
(a) Statement is correct.
(b) Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason is correct.
(d) Statement and Reason is wrong.
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason is correct.

III. Find out the Right pair:

(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs
(b) Homo habilis – Upright man
(c) Homo erectus – Wise man
(d) Homo sapiens – Less protruding face
Answer:
(a) Australopithecus – Walked on both legs

IV. Fill in the blanks

1. _______ unearthed the footprints of humans in Tanzania.
2. Millions of years ago, our ancestors led a _______
3. The main occupations of the ancient humans were _______
4. The invention _______ of made farming easier.
5. Rock paintings are found at _______ in Nilgiris.

Answer:

1. Anthropologists
2. Nomadic
3. hunting and gathering
4. Plouglil
5. Karikaiyur

V. State True or False.

1. Anthropology is the study of coins.
2. Homo erectus (Java man) had the knowledge of fire.
3. The first scientific invention of humans was wheel.
4. Goat was the first animal to be domesticated by humans.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

VI. Answer In one word :

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 1.
What method is used to find out the age of the excavated materials?
Answer:
Radiocarbon dating.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Books Solutions Social Science Question 2.
What did early human wear?
Answer:
Hides of animals and barks of trees and leaves.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Question 3.
Where did early humans live?
Answer:
They lived on the branches of tress, in caves and mountain ranges.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Question 4.
Which animal was used for ploughing?
Answer:
Oxen were used for ploughing.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Question 5.
When did humans settle in one place?
Answer:
When people began to practice agriculture, life became an organised one. It made the people settle in one place.

VII. Answer the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Book Question 1.
What is evolution?
Answer:
Evolution is the process through which the humankind changes and develops towards an advanced stage of life.

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Social Science Question 2.
Write any two characteristics of Homosapiens.
Answer:

1. Homosapiens had the appearance of man.
2. They used crude stone implements.
3. They engaged in hunting and gathering.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 3.
Why did humans move from place to place?
Answer:
Humans kept on moving in search of food.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Science Question 4.
Describe the ancient methods of hunting.
Answer:

1. Hunting was the main occupation of humans in the past.
2. They used tools made of stones and bones for hunting
3. They used sharpened weapons.
4. They hunted pig, deer, bison, rhino, elephant and bear.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 5.
Why were axes made?
Answer:
The axes were made to cut trees, remove barks, dig pits, hunt animals and remove the skin of animals.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Book Back Answers Question 6.
How would you define archaeology?
Answer:
Archaeology is the study of prehistoric humans and materials used by prehistoric humans.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 6th Question 7.
What do you know about anthropology?
Answer:
Anthropology is the study of humans and evolutionary history.

VIII. HOTS :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Books Social Science Question 1.
Importance of invention of wheel from the ancient period to the modern period.
Answer:

1. Early homosapiens realised that round objects could be easily moved by rolling them.
2. Their descendants advanced this rolling technique into the transportation of large objects on cylindrical logs.
3. The invention of the wheel and axle allowed a rolling log to be placed through a hole in a wheel to create a cart.
4. Chariot racing was influential in the evolution of the spoked wheel as they allowed chariots to move much faster.
5. The invention of air filled rubber tyres allowed wheels to be much faster, sturdier and stronger.

IX. Student Activity :

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
Prepare album collecting the pictures of ancient humans of different ages
Answer:

X. Answer Grid:

XII. Map work

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Standard Social Science Question 1.
On the out line map of india, mark the following places:

1.  Adichanallur
2. Attirampakkam
3. Bhimbetka
4.  Hunasagi Valley
5. Lothal

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
These people had a big toe to hold tightly and less protruding face
(a) Homo erectus
(c) Neanderthal
(b) Homo habilis
(d) Homo sapiens
Answer:
(b) Homo habilisl

Question 2.
The main occupation of humans in the past was ……………..
(a) fishing
(b) hunting
(c) pot making
(d) trade
Answer:
(b) Hunting

Question 3.
Evidences of this man In seen in Germany
(a) Neanderthal
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo habilis
(d) Cromagnons
Answer:
(a) Neanderthal

Question 4.
Humans with the help of flint made _______
(a) sharp weapons
(b) vessels
(c) carts
(d) boats
Answer:
(a) sharp weapons

II. Match the Statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : The story of human evolution can be scientifically studied with the help of archaeology and anthropology,
Reason : Excavated material remains are the main source for archaeological studies.
(a) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct, Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason are correct
(d) Statement and Reason are wrong
Answer:
(c) Statement and Reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: Early Man’s main occupation was hunting.
Reason : Hue to large scale hunting, many animals became extinct.
(a) Statement is true, Reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is true, Statement is wrong.
(c) Statement and Reason both are wrong.
(d) Both Statement and Reason are true.
Answer:
(d) Both Statement and Reason are true.

Question 3.
Statement : Man denuded to stay close to the river side.
Reason : The land dose to the river side was suitable for farming.
(a) Statement is wrong, Reason is true.
(b) Statement is true, Reason is wrong.
(c) Both statement and Reason are true.
(d) Both statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both statement and Reason are true.

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair.

Question 1.
(a) Nomadic – no fixed home
(b) Bartor – exchange of goods
(c) Hides – barks of a tree
(d) Million – 10 lakhs
Answer:
(c) Hides – barks of a tree

Question 2.
(a) Homo erectus – China
(b) Cromagnons – France
(c) Homo sapiens – Africa
(d) Heidelbergs – London
Answer:
(a) Homo erectus – Chinal

Question 3.
(a) Ancestors – Nomadic life
(b) Beehives – Honey
(c) Axes – Big stones
(d) Wheel – No use
Answer:
(d) Wheel – No use

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ________is a machine capable of taking a person backward or forward in time.
2. The animal that hunts and kills other living things for food is called________
3. When early people found ways to increase production they started________
4. In________ system, the surplus grains were exchanged with other groups for the other things.
5. The practice of agriculture was made easier by________
6. There were many dangers involved in________
7. Plants grow faster in ________ areas.
8. The pots were ________ to make it stronger.
9. Chikki – mukki kal is known for its ________
10. Human procreation resulted in an increase in the________

Answer:

1. Time Machine
2. Predator
3. storing the produce
4. Barter
5. oxen
6. hunting
7. water fed
8. burnt
9. strength – duality
10. population

IV. State True or False:

1. Fire was used by early man to destroy forests.
2. Rock paintings are not informative.
3. Humans domesticated hen, goat and cow after domesticating dogs.
4. Initially agriculture was done for immediate food requirement.
5. Initially humans expressed their feeling through actions.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

V. Answer in one word :

Question 1.
These people have unearthed the footprints of humans in a country called Tanzania.
Answer:
Anthropologists.

Question 2.
He is a Java man who lived approximately 1.8 million years ago.
Answer:
Homo erectus.

Question 3.
He had a mix of human and ape traits with bipedal walk.
Answer:
Australopithecus.

Question 4.
Keeping a stone with bottom and sharpening it with another stone.
Answer:
Art of Flaking.

Question 5.
This helped humans to protect them from predators.
Answer:
Fire.

VI. Answer the following :

Question 1.
How can we study human evolution scientifically?
Answer:
The story of human evolution can be scientifically studied with the help of archaeology and anthropology.

Question 2.
What Is attempted by Anthropologists?
Answer:
Anthropologists attempt by investigating the whole range of human development and behaviour to achieve a total description of cultural and social phenomena.

Question 3.
Explain the hunting and food gathering stage of our ancestors.
Answer:

1.Our ancestors lived in groups, leading nomadic life. They kept on moving in search of food.

2.They hunted pig, dear, bison, rhino, elephant and bear for food. They also scavenged the animals killed by other wild animals like tiger.

3.They learnt the art of fishing. They collected honey and grains. Once the food resource got exhausted in one area, they moved to another place in search of food

Question 4.
How did man make me of file?
Answer:
Humans used flint stone to make fire and used it to protect them from predators, for cooking food and for creating light during night. Thus fire became important for man in olden times.

Question 5.
What was the role played by humans in pot making?
Answer:

1. Humans learned to make pot with clay. The invention of wheel made pot making easier, and the pots made were burnt to make it stronger.
2. They decorated pots with lot of colours.
3. These natural dyes were used in rock paintings.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Human Evolution In – Text Questions

HOTS:

Question 1.
Why did humans become hunter gatherers? Hid the landscape play any role?
Answer:

1. Pre historic hunter gathers often lived in groups of a few dozens of people,
   consisting of several family units.
2. They developed tools to help them survive. They were dependent on the abundance of food in the area which if an area was not plentiful enough required them to move to greener forests (pastures were not around yet).
3. Naturally the landscape played a major role at this stage.

Question 2.
in hunting banned in India?
Answer:

1. India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 bans the killing of all wild animals.
2. However, the chief wildlife warden may, if satisfied that any wild animal from a specified list has become dangerous to human life, or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, permit any person to hunt such an animal

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The Ant and the Cricket Textual Questions

A. Based on your understanding of the poem, read the following lines and answer the questions given below.

(i) “A silly young cricket accustomed to sing
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring.”
(a) What was the routine of the cricket?
(b) Name the seasons mentioned here.
Answer:
(a) The routine of the cricket was to sing and while away the time enjoying the spring.
(b) The seasons mentioned are summer and winter.

(ii) “Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(a) Who does ‘he’ refer to?
(b) Why was his cupboard empty?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the foolish cricket.
(b) His cupboard was empty because he had not stored any food during summer.

(iii) “Not a crumb to be found
On the snow-covered ground;
(a) What couldn’t he find on the ground?
(b) Why was the ground covered with snow?
Answer:
(a) He couldn’t find even a single piece of bread on the ground.
(b) The ground was covered with snow because of the onset of winter season.

(iv) “At last by starvation and famine made bold,
All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold,”
(a) What made the cricket bold?
(b) Why did the cricket drip and tremble?
Answer:
(a) Starvation and hunger made the cricket bold.
(b) The cricket dripped wet and trembled with cold because it was winter.

(v) “Away he set off to a miserly ant,
To keep if, to keep him alive, he would grant
Him shelter from rain,
And a mouthful of grain.”
(a) Whom did the cricket want to meet? Why?
(b) What would keep him alive?
Answer:
(a) The cricket wanted to meet the miserly ant to ask for shelter and food.
(b) Shelter from rain and a mouthful of grain would keep him alive.

(vi) “But we ants never borrow; we ants never lend. ”
(a) Why do you think ants neither borrow nor lend?
(b) Who says these lines to whom?
Answer:
(a) Ants are industrious and good planners. So they neither borrow nor lend.
(b) The miserly ant says this to the silly cricket.

(vii) “Not I My heart was so light
That I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay.”
(a) Who does ‘I’ refer to?
(b) What was the nature of the cricket? How do you know?
Answer:
(a) ‘I’ refers to the cricket.
(b) The nature of the cricket is to sing day and night and be happy.

(viii) “Thus ending, he hastily lifted the wicket,
And out of the door turned the poor little cricket,”
(a) The ant refused to help the cricket. Why?
(b) Explain the second line.
Answer:
(a) The ant refused to help the cricket since they will end up in starvation giving food to the silly cricket.
(b) Since the ant closed the door, the poor little cricket had to turn and go away.

(ix) “He wished only to borrow;
He’d repay it tomorrow;”
(a) Pick out the rhyming words in the above lines.
(b) Give more examples of rhyming words from the poem.
Answer:
(a) The rhyming words in the above lines are borrow and tomorrow.
(b) Sing-spring; home-come; found-ground; see-tree-me; bold-cold; ant-grant; rain-grain; tomorrow-sorrow; ffiend-lend; by-I; light-night; gay-say-away; wicket-cricket and true-two are the rhyming words.

(x) “My heart was so light
that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay.
“You sang, Sir, you say”?
(a) Mention the rhyme scheme employed in the above lines.
Answer:
aabb’ is the rhyme scheme.

Additional Questions

(i) “A silly young cricket, accustomed to sing
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring,
Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(а) What are the two qualities of the Cricket described here?
(b) What is the weather condition in the above lines?
(c) What do you understand by the word, ‘accustomed’?
(d) Why has the young cricket been called silly?
(e) How did he spend his summer and spring?
(f) What did he find in winter?
(g) Write the rhyming words.
Answer:
(a) The two qualities to describe the cricket in this poem are foolish cricket and singer cricket.
(b) The weather condition is dry summer and cold winter.
(c) Accustomed means ‘used to’.
(d) The young cricket has been called silly because he sang day and night all throughout the warm weathers. He made no provisions for the future.
(e) He spent his summer and spring singing all day and night.
(f) He found his empty cupboard without any food to eat in winter.
(g) The rhyming words are ‘sing-spring’ and ‘home-come’.

(ii) “Not a crumb to be found
On the snow-covered ground;
Not a flower could he see,
Not a leaf on a tree.
“Oh I what will become, ” says the cricket, “of me ?”
(a) Who was looking for the crumbs?
(b) What did the Cricket usually do?
(c) Why did he suffer unable to find neither a flower nor a leaf?
(d) When does the cricket ask “Oh! What will become of me?” and why?
Answer:
(a) The cricket was looking for the crumbs.
(b) The cricket usually sang without any thought for the future.
(c) He suffered because he was lazy and careless and not making any plan or provision for the future. He wasted his time when the weather was fine and so starved in the winters as food was covered with snow.
(d) The cricket asks these words when he was in his home looking at the empty cupboard because he finds no food to eat in winter.

(iii) “At last by starvation and famine made bold,
All dripping with wet, and all trembling with cold,
Away he set off to a miserly ant,
To see if, to keep him alive, he would grant”
(a) Who was suffering from starvation and famine?
(b) Why was he ‘dripping with wet’?
(c) Whom did the cricket approach for help?
(d) What did he expect to get from the miserly ant?
(e) What does the word ‘grant’ mean?
(f) Why had the cricket to suffer in winter?
Answer:
(a) The cricket was suffering from starvation and cold.
(b) The winter season was cold and he had no shelter. Hence the cricket was dripping with cold. .
(c) The cricket approached a miserly ant for help.
(d) The cricket expected to get food and shelter from the miserly ant.
(e) Here ‘grant’ means ‘give’.
(f) The cricket had to suffer in winter because of his lazy and careless nature. He was not wise enough to plan the future and store food for the winter season.

(iv) “Him shelter from rain,
And a mouthful of grain.
He wished only to borrow;
He’d repay it tomorrow ;
If not, he must die of starvation and sorrow.”
(a) Who is ‘Him’ in the first line?
(b) What did he want?
(c) From whom did he hope to borrow?
(d) What does the word ‘borrow’ refer to?
Answer:
(a) ‘Him’ refers to the cricket who needs shelter from the ant.
(b) The cricket wanted a mouthful of food and shelter from rain.
(c) The Cricket hoped to borrow from the ant.
(d) The word ‘borrow’ refers to taking money from someone.

(v) “My heart was so light
that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”.
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away”.”
(a) Whose heart was light?
(b) What did he do out of joy?
(c) What is meant by ‘gay’?
(d) Why does the poet say that the nature looks gay?
(e) Explain the phrase, ‘dance winter away’.
(f) The ant tells the cricket to “dance the winter away.” Is the usage of the word ‘dance’ appropriate here? If so, why?
(g) Give the rhyme scheme.
Answer:
(a) The cricket’s heart was light.
(b) Out of joy, the cricket danced the winter away.
(c) ‘Gay’ here means ‘happy and joyful’.
(d) The poet says that the nature looks happy because it’s springtime.
(e) The phrase ‘dance winter away’ means dancing all through the winter season.
(f) The word ‘dance’ here means ‘merry making and wasting time.’ It is appropriate here. The irresponsible cricket does not deserve any sympathy.
(g) ‘aabbb’ is the rhyme scheme.

(vi) “Folks call this a fable. I’ll warrant it true;
Some crickets have four legs, and some have but two”
(a) Who is ‘I’ here?
(b) What is a fable?
(c) ‘…some have but two.’ Who are referred to here?
(d) What is the figure of speech in the second line?
Answer:
(a) The poet is ‘I’ here.
(b) A fable is a short poem or a legend that imparts a moral lesson. It is not based on truths. It often has animals as characters.
(c) The crickets are referred to here.
(d) The figure of speech in the second line is Metaphor- ‘some have but two’. ‘Some’ crickets that have two legs refer to human beings who are as lazy and careless as the cricket. So the Cricket is compared indirectly to the lazy human beings who are two legged.

B. Based on your understanding of the poem, complete the summary using the phrases given below.

In this narrative poem, the poet brings out the idea that is essential for every creature. He conveys this message to the readers through a story of (a) ……………… The ant spends all its summer saving (b) ……………. The cricket (c) …………….. happily in the summer. He (d) …………………. anything for the winter. When winter comes, he is worried that his (e) ……………… is empty. So, he seeks the help of the ant to have (f) ……………… and a (g) …………… to stay. The cricket was even prepared to repay it in the future. The ant made it clear that ants (h) ……………. He also enquired the cricket if it had saved anything when the weather was fine. The cricket answered that it had sung day and night enjoying (i) …………. The ant threw the cricket out and stated in a stem voice it should dance in the winter season too. In his concluding lines, the poet affirms that this is not (j) ………….. but it is true and applicable to (k) …………….. also.
(the pleasant nature, human beings, doesn’t save, warm place, kitchen cupboard, just a fable, saving for future, some grains, never borrow or lend, an ant and a cricket, sings and dances)
Answers:
(a) an ant and a cricket
(b) some grains
(c) sings and dances
(d) doesn’t save
(e) kitchen cupboard
(f) saving for future
(g) warm place
(h) never borrow or lend
(i) the pleasant nature
(j) just a fable
(k) human beings

C. Answer each of the following questions in a paragraph of 120-150 words.

10th English Poem The Ant And The Cricket Question 1.
‘Some crickets have four legs and some have two’. Elucidate this statement from the poet’s point of view.
Answer:
The poet is comparing the lazy crickets to the two-legged creatures – the human beings. The poetic device Metaphor is perfectly used to fit into the situation. Everyone knows that crickets have four legs. But he says some have two to compare the silly cricket to the two-legged human-beings who sometimes are as lazy and silly as the cricket in this poem.

The poet wants to suggest that this story is not entirely a fable; rather, it is related to the real world. Surely, some people are as careless and lazy as the cricket is. Likewise, some humans like the cricket also don’t plan out for the future or for the bad times. They just enjoy the present moment. The poet is thus calling such people as mindless as the cricket.

‘God gave us the gift of life; it is up to us to give ourselves the gift of living well. ’

The Ant And The Cricket 10th Poem Question 2.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger.

He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread to eat. He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant becoming bold by nature. He begged for food and shelter but the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket.

The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend. So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality. Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and the Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away by the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.
‘Accept responsibility for your life. Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else.’

The Ant And The Cricket Poem Class 10 Question 3.
If given a chance, who would you want to be- the ant or the cricket? Justify your answer.
Answer:
If given a chance to be a Cricket or an Ant, it is obvious that I would like to be an ant. I surely wouldn’t like to be called a silly cricket. Who would like to be foolish like the Cricket? I do like to enjoy life and have fun but I strongly do understand the importance of seeing the future needs. I prefer to be wise and intelligent rather than being foolish and silly in my behaviour. Year after year, I have witnessed the different seasons.

I do know that during winter, I will be deprived of food if I am not discrete. Hence, I will be judicious and meticulously work for future like the Ant. I hate to be put to shame. I do not like the idea of borrowing or lending like the Cricket. I agree it’s indeed a shame to be a debtor. So I will never be a debtor borrowing things from others like the Cricket. I hate to brood and be morose.

The Cricket is pushed to such a state looking at the empty cupboard, Surely I do not want to be a moaner. I do like to be courageous but not like the Cricket that became courageous because of starvation and famine. I cannot be so shameless like the Cricket and get turned down by the Ant.
‘I would like to live a day in the life of an ant and hope not to get squashed. ’

Additional Questions

Question 1.
What is the Theme and moral of this poem?
Answer:
The theme of the poem, The Ant and the Cricket is hard work versus laziness. Through the story of the silly cricket, which is also lazy and the wise and industrious ant, the poet teaches us the virtue of hard work. The cricket was foolish enough not to see the imminent needs. He made no plans or supplies for the future. He lived in the present moment. The ant, on the other hand, was wise and hardworking. She worked hard so that she could relish the future. The poet wants us to leam a significant lesson in life.

One must always save for the future. One should not be thoughtless and just enjoy the present moment. You will reap only what you sow. Therefore, we must be foresighted enough to see our future and consequently make plans. One should be ready to face anything in life – be it good or bad. The moral of the cricket’s story is also similar to the theme. One should not be lazy and careless about one’s life and future. Hard work is the key to success. One must leam to save for the future.

‘Self-belief and handwork will
always earn you success. ’

Question 2.
Narrate the fable of ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ in your own words.
Answer:
The silly young cricket was fun-loving. He used to sing all through the pleasant sunny months of summer and spring. He was short-sighted. He didn’t bother to store food for the rainy season and cold winter. When the earth was covered with ice and snow, he found that he had nothing to eat and his cupboard was empty. There were no flowers nor leaves on the trees.

He grew nervous. Starvation could be seen over his face. Wet with the rain and shivering with cold, the hungry cricket went to an ant to get shelter and food. He made it clear that he would return the borrowed grain the next day. With humility, the miserly ant said that he was surely the servant and friend of the cricket. But as a matter of principle, the ants neither borrow nor lend. He asked why he never bothered to store something for the rainy day. The cricket admitted that he had been careless and foolish. He enjoyed the beauties of summer and sang merrily. The ant then told him bluntly to go and dance all winter and turned the poor cricket out.

‘Prudence is foresight
and farsightedness.’

The Ant and the Cricket (Adapted from Aesop s fables)
Literary Devices At A Glance (Figures of Speech)

The Ant and the Cricket by Aesop’s Fables About the Poet:
Aesop’s Fables, or the Aesopica, is a collection of fables credited to Aesop, a slave and storyteller believed to have lived in Samos, a Greek island but others say he came from Ethiopia. The name Aesop is derived from the Greek word Aethiop which means Ethiopia! Aesop’s fables were not believed to have been written as Children’s literature and the book of fables were originally used to make thinly disguised social and political criticisms. The similarity to parables or allegories can be seen in most of the short tales in Aesop’s Book of Fables.

The Ant and the Cricket Summary:

Introduction:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures. The cricket, on the other hand, was a lazy being which sang day and night and made no efforts to plan for the future.

Irresponsible Cricket:
There was a cricket who loved singing. The poet says the cricket is young and silly because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world. But when winter arrived, he began to complain. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread was there to eat. He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried as he perceived his bad future.

Cricket asks for help from the ant:
Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of a stingy ant. He wanted to know if the ant would lend him a shelter from the rain and a mouthful of grain. He promised that he would repay the ant as soon as he could. He was sure to die of hunger and pain if he didn’t do it.

Cricket’s careless reply to ant’s questions:
The ant said to the cricket that he is his servant and friend. However, ants never borrow nor lend. He asked the cricket why he did not store even a single grain of food when the weather was warm. To such a stimulating question, the cricket carelessly replied that he sang day and night as his heart was light and happy and hence never thought of storing food. The ant disapproved the cricket’s reply and told him to go and dance the winter away.

The Ant’s final reply and the state of Cricket:
Thus, completing the conversation, the ant quickly closed the door and turned the poor little cricket out of the house. People call this a legend, but, the poet says that he assures it is true that some crickets have four legs and some crickets have two.

Conclusion:
The poet endorsed the idea of hard work. Hard work fetches fortune. The lazy nature of the Cricket was the reason behind his misfortune. Therefore one has to think ahead and work for safety and comfort. Dependence may not help every time.

The Ant and the Cricket Glossary:
Textual:

Additional:

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Rural Life and Society

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rural Life and Society Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Which system was called by different names like Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari etc.?
(a) Mahalwari
(b) Ryotwari
(c) Zamindari
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Question 2.
Under which Governor General did the permanent settlement implemented in Bengal.
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Minto
Answer:
(b) Lord Cornwallis

Rural Life And Society Question 3.
What was the Mahal in the Mahalwari system?
(a) House
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) Palace
Answer:
(c) Village

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Solutions Question 4.
In which region was the Mahalwari system imposed?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madras
(c) Bengal
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(d) Punjab

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Answers Question 5.
Who among the following Governors introduced Mahalwari system?
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Answer:
(d) Lord William Bentinck

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Pdf Question 6.
In which region was the Ryotwari system not introduced by the British?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Bengal
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Bengal

Rural Life And Society Answer Key Question 7.
The Indigo revolt was led by whom?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Keshab Chandra Roy
(c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer:
(c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas

Rural Life And Society In Tamil Question 8.
The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by whom?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) DigambarBiswas
(d) Keshab Chandra Roy
Answer:
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… is the modified version of the Zamindari system.
2. The Mahalwari system was a Brain child of ……………….
3. Indigo Revolt took place in ……………….
4. Maplah Rebellion was held in ……………….
5. The Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in ……………….

Answer:

1. Mahalwari system
2. Holt Mackenzie
3. Bengal
4. Malabar (Kerala)
5. May 1918]

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. i
4. ii
5. v.

IV. State true or false

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Exercise Question 1.
Warren Hastings introduced quinquennial land settlement.
Answer:
True

Rural Life And Society Mcq Question 2.
Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro.
Answer:
True

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Pdf Download Question 3.
Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Gujarat.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Bengal.

Rural Life And Society Answer Sheet Question 4.
The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1918.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1900.

V. Consider the following statement and tick appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is not true about Zamindari system?

1. This settlement was introduced in 1793.
2. The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
3. This system secured a fixed a stable income for the cultivators.
4. This practice was applicable to the area of 19% of India.

Answer:
3. This system secured a fixed a stable income for the cultivators.

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is correct about Peasants revolt in India?

1. The Santhal rebellion was held in Bengal.
2. DinabandhuMitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.
3. The Deccan riots started from a village at Pune in 1873.
4. The Moplah peasants rebellion was held in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
2. DinabandhuMitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
List out any two salient features of the Permanent settlement?
Answer:
Salient features of the Permanent settlement:

1. The Zamindars were recognised as the owners of land as long as they paid the revenue to the East India Company regularly.
2. The Zamindars acted as the agent of the Government for the collection of revenue from the cultivators.

Question 2.
What were the salient features of the Ryotwari system?
Answer:
Salient features of the Ryotwari system:

1. Revenue settlement was done directly with the ryots.
2. Measurement of field and an estimate of produce was calculated.
3. Government fixed the demand at 45 to 55 percent of the produce.

Question 3.
Bring out the effects of the Mahalwari settlement.
Answer:
Effects of the Mahalwari settlement:

1. The Lambardar enjoyed privileges which was misused for their self – interest.
2. This system brought no benefit to the cultivators.
3. It was a modified version of the Zamindari system and benefited the upper class in villages.

Question 4.
What was the cause of Indigo Revolt in 1859 – 60?
Answer:

1. The European indigo planters compelled the tenant farmers to grow indigo at terms highly disadvantageous to the farmers.

2. The tenant farmer was forced to sell it cheap to the planter and accepted advances from the planter that benefitted the latter. There were also cases of kidnapping, looting, flogging and burning.

3. Led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Charan Biswas, the ryots of Nadia district gave up indigo cultivation in September 1859. Factories were burnt down and the revolt spread.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Mahatma Gandhi on Champaran Satyagraha?
Answer:

1. The European planters of Champaran in Bihar resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which was wholly unjust.
2. The peasants were liable to unlawful extortion and oppression by the planters.
3. Mahatma Gandhi took up their cause. The Government appointed an enquiry commission of which Mahatma Gandhi was a member.
4. The grievances of the peasants were enquired and ultimately the Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in May 1918.

Question 6.
Mention the role of Vallabhai Patel in Bardoli Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. In 1928, the peasants of Bardoli (Gujarat) started their agitation under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, in protest against the government’s proposal to increase land revenue by 30 percent.

2. The peasants refused to pay tax at the enhanced rate and started no – tax campaign from 12 February 1928. Many women also participated in this campaign.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the merits and demerits of the Permanent settlement.
Answer:
Merits:

• Under this system many of the waste lands and forests became cultivable lands.
• The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
• The Zamindars were made free from the responsibility of providing justice.
• The Zamindars remained faithful to the British Government.
• This system secured a fixed and stable income for the British Government.

Demerits:

• The British Government had no direct contact with the cultivators.
• The rights of the cultivators were ignored and they were left at the mercy of the Zamindars.
• The peasants were almost treated as serfs.
• This system was made the Zamindars lethargic and luxurious.
• Many conflicts between the zamindars and the peasants arose in rural Bengal.

Question 2.
What were the impacts of the British Land Revenue system on the cultivators?
Answer:
Impact of the British land revenue system on the cultivators:

1. A common feature of all the settlements was the assessment and the maximize income from land. It resulted in increasing land sales and dispossession.

2. The peasants were overburdened with taxation. Due to the tax burden and famines, in general, the people suffered in poverty and burdened with debts. They had to seek the moneylenders who became rich and acquired lands from the peasants.

3. The Zamindars, money – lenders and lawyers exploited the poor peasants.

4. The stability and continuity of the Indian villages was shaken.

5. Cottage industries disappeared on account of the import of British goods and the peasants had nothing to supplement their income.

6. The old body of custom was replaced by new apparatus of law, courts, fees, lawyers and formal procedures.

7. The British policy proved advantageous only to the government of a privileged section of the society at the cost of the cultivators who were the rightful owners of their lands and claimants of the larger share of the produce.

Question 3.
Write a paragraph about the Moplah Rebellion?
Answer:
Moplah Rebellion (1921):

1. The Muslim Moplah (or Moplah) peasants of Malabar (Kerala) was suppressed and exploited by the Hindu zamindars (Jenmis) and British government.

2. This was the main cause of this revolt.

3. The Moplah peasants got momentum from the Malabar District Conference, held in April 1920.

4. This conference supported the tenants’ cause, and demanded legislations for regulating landlord-tenant relations.

5. In August 1921, the Moplah tenants rebelled against the oppressive zamindars. In the initial phase of the rebellion, the Moplah peasants attacked the police stations, public offices, communications and houses of oppressive landlords and moneylenders.

6. By December 1921, the government ruthlessly suppressed the Moplah rebellion.

7. According to an official estimate, as a result of government intervention, 2337 Moplah rebels were killed, 1650 wounded and more than 45,000 captured as prisoners.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Apart from the exploiting through taxes, how did the British further exploit the land?
Answer:
Apart from the taxes, the British followed the policy of commercialization of Agriculture which was a major set back for Indian farmers. They were forced to grow the soil fertility deteriorating cash crops such as opium. Jute, Indigo etc., Agricultural prices shot up by 31%. They were threatened if they failed to grow these crops.

IX. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Point out the influence which shaped Gandhiji’s ideas on Ahimsa and Satyagraha.
Answer:
The 21 years Gandhiji spent in South Africa offered him valuable insights in familiarizing himself with the inhuman situations that existed outside as well as helping him develop appropriate concepts and techniques of nonviolent defence. He resisted non – violently any oppression and exhorted the Indians to take part in public activities.

For him, South Africa was the place where he first tried methods of non violence and after 20 years of relentless struggle he won finally against the whites.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Rural Life and Society Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………….. was the primary occupation of the Indians, in the pre – colonial period.
(a) Banking
(b) Agriculture
(c) Mining
(d) Fishing
Answer:
(b) Agriculture

Question 2.
By …………….. system, the rights of ownership was handed over to the peasants.
(a) Zamindari
(b) Jagirdari
(c) Malguzari
(d) Ryotwari
Answer:
(d) Ryotwari

Question 3.
Initially, the British Government fixed …………….. of the estimated produce as rent.
(a) One – half
(b) One – fourth
(c) One – third
(d) One – eight
Answer:
(a) one – half

Question 4.
William Bentinck reduced the state share of revenue to ……………..
(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(c) 50%

Question 5.
The newspaper, …………….. brought to light the misery of the cultivators several times.
(a) Times of India
(b) Swadesha Mitran
(c) Indian Express
(d) Hindu Patriot
Answer:
(d) Hindu Patriot

6. The peasant revolt which started in Poona in 1875 is called the ………………
(a) Punjab peasant movement
(b) Deccan Riots
(c) Indigo revolt
(d) Pabna revolt
Answer:
(b) Deccan Riots

Question 7.
In the Kheda district of Gujarat, agriculture failed in 1918 due to ………………
(a) Floods
(b) Cyclone
(c) Famine
(d) Earthquake
Answer:
(c) Famine

Question 8.
…………….. emerged as an important leader of Indian freedom struggle during the Kheda Satyagraha.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawahar lal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Vinobha Bhave
Answer:
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 9.
…………….. broke out in the year 1921.
(a) Moplah Rebellion
(b) Bardoli Satyagraha
(c) Kheda Satyagraha
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(a) Moplah Rebellion

Question 10.
The lands of the peasants of Bardoli were returned when the …………….. came to power in 1937.
(a) Communists
(b) Socialists
(c) Congress
(d) British
Answer:
(c) Congress

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The economic exploitation of the …………….. led to the revolts in future.
2. During the time of Cornwallis, a …………….. settlement of land revenue was introduced.
3. As per the permanent settlement, all judicial powers were taken away from the ……………..
4. By Ryotwari system, the revenue was based on the basis of the …………….. and the nature of the ……………..
5. Radical changes were brought in the Mahalwari system by the guidance of …………….. in 1832.
6. The village as a whole had to pay the revenue through its ……………..
7. The land near the hills of or Rajmahal in Bihar was cultivated by the ……………..
8. The Pabna revolt was led by ……………..
9. During the Deccan riots, the peasants looted the property of ……………..
10. The Deccan riots resulted in passing of the …………….. Act.

Answer:

1. Peasants
2. Ten years (decennial)
3. Zamindars
4. Soil, Crop
5. Robert Martins Bird
6. headman or Lambardar
7. Santhals
8. Keshab Chandra Roy
9. Marwari Sahukars
10. Deccan Agriculturalist Relief

V. Match the following

1. iv
2. v
3. ii
4. iii
5. i

IV. State True or False

Question 1.
According to Permanent settlement, the Zamindars granted patta to the ryots.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Under Ryotwari system, rents would be periodically revised, generally after 5 to 10 years.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Under Ryotwari system, rents would be periodically revised, generally after 20 to 30 years.

Question 3.
The Santhal rebellion continued till 1856.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Under the Tinkathia system in Champaran, the peasants were bound by law to grow indigo on 2/20 part of their land.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Under the Tinkathia system in Champaran, the peasants were bound by law to grow indigo on 3/20 part of their land.

V. Consider the following statement and tick appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not true about Pabna Revolt.

1. Pabna Peasant Uprising was, a resistance movement by the peasants against the oppression of the Zamindars.
2. It was led by Dinabandhu Mitra.
3. Peasants were often evicted from land on the pretext of non payment of rent.
4. There were only a few cases of looting of the houses of the Zamindars.

Answer:
2. It was led by Dinabandhu Mitra

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is collect about the land revenue policies in India?

1. As per the permanent settlements, the ryots became tenants since they were considered the fillers of the soil.
2. Under the Ryotwari system, the Government exploited the Zamindars.
3. Under the Mahalwari system one person could hold only one village.
4. As per the Mahalwari system, the village land belonged to the Zamindars.

Answer:
1. As per the permanent settlements, the ryots became tenants since they were considered the fillers of the soil.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Where were Permanent settlements made in British India?
Answer:
Permanent settlement were made in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi division of U.P., and Northern Karnataka, which roughly covered 19 percent of the total area of British India.

Question 2.
Name the areas where Ryotwari system was introduced?
Answer:
Major areas of introduction of Ryotwari system included Madras, Bombay, parts of Assam, and Coorg provinces of British India.

Question 3.
What were the effects of the Ryotwari settlement?
Effects of the Ryotwari Settlement:

1. In most areas the land revenue fixed was excessive the ryots were hardly left with bare maintenance even in the best of seasons.
2. Under this system the government exploited the farmers instead of zamindars.

Question 4.
What was the major cause of the Pabna revolt?
Answer:

1. Pabna Peasant Uprising was a resistance movement by the peasants against the oppression of the Zamindars.
2. The zamindars routinely collected money from the peasants by the illegal means of forced levy, abwabs, enhanced rent and so on. Peasants were often evicted from land on the pretext of non – payment of rent.

Question 5.
How did the Deccan Riots spread?
Answer:

1. In 1875, the peasants revolted in the district of Poona.
2. Primarily against the oppression of local moneylenders who were grabbing their lands systematically.
3. The uprising started from a village in Poona district when the village people forced out a local moneylender from the village and captured his property.
4. Gradually, the uprising spread over 33 villages and the peasants looted the property of Marwari Sahukars.
5. The uprising turned into violent when the Sahukars took help of the police.

Question 6.
Why was the ‘Punjab Land Alienation ‘ Act passed by the British?
Answer:

1. The peasants of the Punjab agitated against the urban moneylenders. The Government of India did not want any revolt in that province which provided a large number of soldiers to the British army in India.

2. In order to protect the peasants of the Punjab, the Punjab Land Alienation Act was passed in 1900 “as an experimental measure” to be extended to the rest of India if it worked successfully in the Punjab.

Question 7.
How did the Punjab Land Alienation Act divide the population of Punjab?
Answer:
The Act divided the population of the Punj ab into three categories viz., the agricultural classes, the statutory agriculturist class and the rest of the population including the moneylenders.

Question 8.
How was the Kheda Satyagraha organised by Gandhiji?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji organised the peasants to offer Satyagraha and opposed official insistence on full collection of oppressive land revenue despite the conditions of famine.

2. He inspired the peasants to be fearless and face all consequences. The response to his call was unprecedented and the government had to bow to a settlement with the peasants.

Question 9.
What was the result of the Bacholi Satyagraha?
Answer:
In 1930, the peasants of Bardoli rose to a man, refused to pay taxes, faced the auction sales and the eventual loss of almost all of their lands but refused to submit to the Government. However, all their lands were returned to them when the Congress came to power in 1937.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Explain the course and features of the Mahalwari system.
Answer:
1. Mahalwari system, was a modified version of the Zamindari settlement introduced in the Ganga valley, the North – West Province, parts of the Central India and Punjab in 1822.

2. Lord William Bentinck was to suggest radical changes in the Mahalwari system.

3. Assessment of revenue was to be made on the basis of the produce of a Mahal or village. All the proprietors of a Mahal were severally and jointly responsible for the payment of revenue.

4. Initially the state share was fixed two-thirds of the gross produce. Bentinck, therefore, reduced to fifty percent. The village as a whole, through its headman or Lambardar, was required to pay the revenue.

5. This system was first adopted in Agra and Awadh, and later extended to other parts of the United Provinces. The burden of all this heavy taxation finally fell on the cultivators.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
1. The first revolt which can be regarded as peasants’ revolt was the Santhal Rebellion in 1855 – 56.

2. The land near the hills of Rajmahal in Bihar was cultivated by the Santhals.

3. The landlords and money – lenders from the cities took advantage of their ignorance and began grabbing their lands. This created bitter resentment among them leading to their armed uprising in 1855.

4. Consequently, under the belief of a divine order, around 10,000 Santals gathered under two Santhal brothers, Siddhu and Kanhu, to free their country of the foreign oppressors and set up a government of their own.

5. The rebellion assumed a formidable shape within a month. The houses of the European planters, British officers, railway engineers, zamindars and moneylenders were attacked.

6. The rebellion continued till February 1856, when the rebel leaders were captured and the movement was put down with a heavy hand.

7. The government declared the Parganas inhabited by them as Santhal Parganas so that their lands and identity could be safeguarded from external encroachments.

Question 3.
Narrate the course of the Pabna Revolt.
Answer:
1. Large crowds of peasants gathered and marched through villages frightening the zamindars and appealing to other peasants to join with them. Funds were raised from the ryots to meet the costs.

2. The struggle gradually spread throughout Pabna and then to the other districts of East Bengal.

3. Everywhere agrarian leagues were organized. The main form of struggle was that of legal resistance. There was very little violence.

4. It occurred only when the zamindars tried to compel the ryots to submit to their terms by force. There were only a few cases of looting of the houses of the zamindars.

5. A few attacks on police stations took place and the peasants also resisted attempts to execute court decrees. Hardly zamindars or zamindar’s agent were killed or seriously injured.

6. In the course of the movement, the ryots developed a strong awareness of the law and their legal rights and the ability to combine and form associations for peaceful agitation.