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Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 15th Commerce Chapter 15 Recent Trends in Marketing Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 15 Recent Trends in Marketing Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 15th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 15 Recent Trends in Marketing

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 15 Recent Trends in Marketing Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 15th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Recent Trends in Marketing Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Selling goods / services through internet is ________
(a) Green marketing
(b) E-business
(c) Social marketing
(d) Meta marketing
Answer:
(b) E-business

Question 2.
Which is gateway to internet?
(a) Portal
(b) CPU
(c) Modem
(d) Webnaire
Answer:
(c) Modem

Question 3.
Which one represents a cluster of manufacturers, content providers and online retailers organised around an activity?
(a) Virtual mall
(b) Association
(c) Metomediary
(d) Portal
Answer:
(c) Metomediary

Question 4.
Social marketing deals with:
(a) Society
(b) Social Class
(c) Social change
(d) Social evil
Answer:
(c) Social change

Question 5.
Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of ________
(a) Customer to buyers
(b) Retailer to customers
(c) One buyer to another buyers
(d) Direct contact of marketer
Answer:
(a) Customer to buyers

Question 6.
A company’s products and prices is visually represented by ________
(a) Shopping cart
(b) Web portal
(c) Electronic catalogue
(d) Revenue model
Answer:
(c) Electronic catalogue

Question 7.
Green Shelter concept was introduced by group:
(a) ACME
(b) Tata
(c) Reliance
(d) ICI
Answer:
(a) ACME

Question 8.
Pure play retailers are called ________
(a) Market creators
(b) Transaction brokers
(c) Merchants
(d) Agents
Answer:
(b) Transaction brokers

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is E-business?
Answer:
If all the business transactions are carried out through internet and other online tools, it is called E-business.

Question 2.
What is green marketing?
Answer:
Green marketing involves developing and promoting products and services which satisfy customers wants and needs for quality, performance, affordable pricing and convenience – all without causing a detrimental impact on the environment.

Question 3.
What is service marketing?
Answer:
Service marketing denotes the processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, car rentals, healthcare, tourism, professional services, repairs etc.

Question 4.
Define E-Marketing,
Answer:
“E-Marketing is achieving marketing Objectives through use of digital technologies like Internet, world wide web, e-mail, wireless media, and management of digital customer data and electronic customer management systems.

Question 5.
What is E-Tailing?
Answer:
E-tailing or electronic retailing refers to selling of goods and services through a shopping website (internet) or through virtual Store to the ultimate consumer.

Question 6.
What is Social marketing?
Answer:
Social marketing is a new marketing tool. It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy and techniques to achieve specific behavioural goals which ensure social good. For example- not to smoke in public areas.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is B2B and B2C type of E-Commerce?
Answer:
B2B is an online business model that facilitates online sales transactions between two businesses. E-tailing is a business to consumer (B2C) transaction model. E-tailing is also called online retailing.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of social marketing.
Answer:
The primary aim of social marketing is ‘social good’ such as anti-tobacco, anti-drug, anti-pollution, anti-dowry, road safety, protection of girl child, against the use of plastic bags. Social marketing promotes the consumption of socially desirable products and develops health consciousness. It helps to eradicate social evils that affect the society and quality of life.

Question 3.
Discuss the objectives E-Marketing.
Answer:
The following are the objectives of E-Marketing:

1. Expansion of market share
2. Reduction of distribution and promotional expenses
3. Achieving higher brand awareness
4. Strengthening database

Question 4.
Elucidate how E-Commerce differs from E-Business.
Answer:
E-commerce simply refers to the buying and selling of products and services through online but E-business goes a way beyond the simple buying and selling, of goods and service and much wider range of business processes, such as supply chain management, electronic order processing and customer relationship management.

Question 5.
Explain in detail about Niche marketing.
Answer:
It is found by company, by identifying the need of customers which are not served or under served by the competitors. The company which identified niche market develops solution to satisfy the needs of niche market. A niche market does not mean a small market, but it involves specific target audience with a specialized offering.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail how traditional marketing differ from E-marketing.
Answer:
Differences between E-marketing and traditional marketing:

Question 2.
Explain advantages and disadvantages of E-tailing.
Answer:
E-tailing or electronic retailing refers to selling of goods and services through a shopping website:
Advantages:

1. Customer can buy the product at anytime from anywhere.
2. Direct contact of end consumer by the manufacturer cuts down the cost.
3. Customer can buy whatever they want by browsing the various sites.

Disadvantages:

1. E-tailing needs a strong advertisement and for which it has to spend large amount.
2. It is not suitable for small size business.

Question 3.
Describe the various strategies pursued in recent day’s marketers.
Answer:
The market scenario in the world today is changing very rapidly.
Strategies of Recent Marketers:

1. Due to the development in information technology, transportation, liberalisation, their buying habits are varying.
2. In the globalised business environment, the marketer must move goods faster and quicker to satisfy the needs of the customer.
3. It is possible to carryout all the business transactions over an electronic network.
4. They use a variety of tools like computers, laptops, tablet or android phone devices to access different websites.

Question 4.
Compare the concept of social marketing with service marketing.
Answer:
1. Social marketing:
Social marketing is a new marketing tool. It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy to achieve social good. The primary aim of social marketing is ‘social good’ such as anti-tobacco, anti-drug, anti pollution, anti-dowry, road safety, protection of girl child.

2. Service marketing:
A service is any activity or benefit that one party can offer to another which is essentially intangible. Service marketing is a specialized branch of marketing. Service marketing denotes the process of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, car rentals, healthcare, tourism and repairs.

Question 5.
Discuss any two new methods of marketing with its advantages.
Answer:
1. Rural Marketing:
Rural marketing is a process of developing pricing, promoting and distributing rural specific goods and services leading to exchange with rural customers. There is inflow of goods into rural markets for production and consumption and there is also outflow of products to urban areas. the rural to urban flow consists of agricultural products like rice, wheat and sugar etc.

2. Service Marketing:
Service marketing is a special branch of marketing. It denotes the processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, healthcare, tourism and professional services. The service products are mostly intangible. The unique feature of services marketing warrant different strategies compared with the marketing of physical goods.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Recent Trends in Marketing Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

Answer:
(d) Social Marketing (iv) Online retailing

Question 2.
Find out which is not suitable? The products marketed in commodity exchange are ______
(a) Crude oil
(b) Rice
(c) Copper
(d) Gold
Answer:
(b) Rice

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 15th Commerce Chapter 15 Recent Trends in Marketing Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 14th Commerce Chapter 14 Marketing and Marketing Mix Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 14 Marketing and Marketing Mix Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 14th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 14 Marketing and Marketing Mix

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 14 Marketing and Marketing Mix Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 14th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Marketing and Marketing Mix Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The initial stage of Marketing system is _________
(a) Monopoly system
(b) Exchange to Money
(c) Barter system
(d) Self producing
Answer:
(c) Barter system

Question 2.
Who is supreme in the Market?
(a) Customer
(b) Seller
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer
Answer:
(a) Customer

Question 3.
In the following variables which one is not the variable of marketing mix?
(a) Place Variable
(b) Product Variable
(c) Program Variable
(d) Price Variable
Answer:
(c) Program Variable

Question 4.
Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to its target _________  to earn profits through satisfaction of their wants.
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Retailer
(c) Consumer
(d) Seller
Answer:
(c) Consumer

Question 5.
Which one is the example of Intangible product?
(a) Education
(b) Mobiles
(c) Garments
(d) Vehicles
Answer:
(a) Education

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Marketing Mix.
Answer:
“Marketing mix is a pack of four sets of variables namely product variable, price variable, promotion variable, and place variable”

Question 2.
Give any two internal factors affecting the price of product / service.
Answer:
Factors affecting Price of product / service
(a) Internal Factors:

1. Marketing Objectives
2. Marketing Mix Strategy
3. Organizational considerations

Question 3.
Define Product.
Answer:
“A product is anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or consumption that might satisfy a want or a need”, says Philip Kotler.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of marketing?
Answer:
Baker and Anshen say, “The end of all the marketing activities is the satisfaction of human wants”. The following are the objectives of marketing:

1. Intelligent and capable application of modem marketing policies.
2. To develop the marketing field.
3. To develop guiding policies and their implementation for a good result.

Question 2.
What is need for market and’explain the concept of marketing?
Answer:
Market is needed for the producers and consumers. For this there are various concepts:

1. The products produced are to be marketed in the market for sales.
2. First create a consumer and then create products.
3. Keep respect and love customers than the products.
4. Customer is the king of the business.

Question 3.
What are the factors affecting Price of Product?
Answer:
Factors affecting Price of product/service:
(a) Internal Factors:

1. Marketing Objectives
2. Marketing Mix Strategy
3. Organizational considerations
4. Costs
5. Organization Objectives

(b) External Factors:

1. The market after demand
2. Competition
3. Customers
4. Suppliers
5. Legal factors
6. Regulatory factors.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Marketing mix? Describe any two elements.
Answer:

1. A list of important elements or ingredients that make up the marketing programme
2. The list of forces having bearing on marketing operations.

Elements of Marketing of Mix:

1. Product is the main element of marketing. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
2. Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. It is the amount charged for the product.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss about the evolution of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing is one of the business functions. The development of marketing is evolutionary rather than revolutionary.
Evolution of Marketing:

1. Barter System: The goods are exchanged against goods, without money.
2. Production Orientation: This was a stage where producers, instead of being concerned with the consumer preferences, concentrated on the mass production of goods.
3. Sales Orientation: The selling became the dominant factor, without any efforts for the satisfaction of the consumer needs.
4. Marketing Orientation: Customers importance was realised but only as a means of disposing of goods produced.
5. Consumer Orientation: Under this stage only such products are brought forward to the markets which are capable of satisfying the tastes and preferences of consumers.

Question 2.
Why the marketing is important to the society and individual firm? Explain. Importance of Marketing:
To the Society:
Answer:

1. Marketing is a connecting link between the consumer and the producer.
2. Marketing helps in increasing the living standard of people,
3. Marketing helps to increase the nation’s income.
4. Marketing process increases employment opportunities.
5. Marketing helps to maintain economic stability and rapid development in various countries. To the Individual

Firms:

1. Marketing generates revenue to firms.
2. Marketing gives information to the top management for taking overall decisions on production.
3. Marketing and innovation are the two basic functions of all businesses.

Question 3.
Narrate the Elements of Marketing mix.
Answer:
Marketing mix means a marketing programme that is offered by a firm for the satisfaction of human wants. There are four Elements of Marketing mix:

1. Product: A Product is the main element of marketing. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
2. Price: Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. It is the amount charged for the product.
3. Place (Physical Distribution): An excellent quality product, with a good price, will be waste, if it is not transferred from the production place to consumption place.
4. Promotion: An excellent product with competitive price cannot achieve a desired success and acceptance in market, with special features are conveyed to the consumers.

Question 4.
What is Marketing?
Answer:
Marketing is the performance of buying activities that facilitate to more flow of goods and services. It is one of the oldest profession in the world.
Objective: The traditional objective of marketing had been to make the goods available at places where they are needed.
“Later on this idea was changed from ‘exchange’ to “Satisfaction of human wants” Marketing is linking the consumer and the producer. Also marketing helds to maintain economic stability and economic development.

Question 5.
State the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

1. Goods produced may be stored till the time of demand. Hence the goods are stored in warehouses.
2. Also the goods are stored till the goods have good quality.
3. Warehouses create time utility by storing the goods throughout the year and release them as and when they are needed.

Several types of warehouses are used for storing of goods.
They are as follows:

1. Public warehouse
2. Private warehouse
3. Bonded warehouse

Question 6.
How market information is helpful to invention of new product in the market?
Answer:
According to Clark and Clark, market information means “all the facts, estimates, opinions and other information used in marketing of goods”.
From the above definition the details about the market may be obtained from conducting market research and other inventory methods. Market research is solely concerned with the collection of information about the market. The following information may be collected:

1. Goods needed by the customers.
2. Time and want of the goods
3. Quality wanted
4. Size of the market
5. Means of transport

Use to Invent New product: Adequate and accurate information help in the formulation of policies. Based on the taste and preferences, demand and supply of the products, the company can introduce new product. Also the company has to increase the quality and number of products depending upon the information available.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 14th Commerce Chapter 14 Marketing and Marketing Mix Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 13th Commerce Chapter 13 Concept of Marketing and Marketer Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 13 Concept of Marketing and Marketer Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 13th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 13 Concept of Marketing and Marketer

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 13 Concept of Marketing and Marketer Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 13th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Concept of Marketing and Marketer Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
One who promotes (or) Exchange of goods or services for money is called as _____
(a) Seller
(b) Marketer
(c) Customer
(d) Manager
Answer:
(b) Marketer

Question 2.
The marketer initially wants to know in the marketing is _____
(a) Qualification of the customer
(b) Quality of the product
(c) Background of the customers
(d) Needs of the customers
Answer:
(d) Needs of the customers

Question 3.
The Spot market is classified on the basis of _____
(a) Commodity
(b) Transaction
(c) Regulation
(d) Time
Answer:
(b) Transaction

Question 4.
Which one of the market deals in the purchase and sale of shares and debentures?
(a) Stock Exchange Market
(b) Manufactured Goods Market
(c) Local Market
(d) Family Market
Answer:
(a) Stock Exchange Market

Question 5.
Stock Exchange Market is also called _____
(a) Spot Market
(b) Local Market
(c) Security Market
(d) National Market
Answer:
(d) National Market

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Market?
Answer:
The word market is derived from the Latin word ‘Marcatus’ which means trade, commerce,* merchandise, a place where business is transacted.

Question 2.
Define Marketer.
Answer:
“A person whose duties include the identification of the goods and services desired by a set of consumers, as well as the marketing of those goods and services on behalf of a company”.

Question 3.
What is meant by Regulated Market?
Answer:
Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables etc., are called as very short period market.

Question 4.
Mention any four differences between Wholesale Market and Retail Market.
Answer:

Question 5.
What is meant by Commodity Market?
Answer:
A commodity market is a place where produced goods or consumption goods are bought and sold.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What can be marketed in the Market?
Answer:
The dynamic items that can be marketed are listed below:

1. Goods
2. Services
3. Experiences
4. Events
5. Persons
6. Places
7. Properties
8. Organisations
9. Information
10. Ideas

Question 2.
Mention any three Role of Marketer.
Answer:

1. Instigator: As an instigator, marketer keenly watches the developments taking place in the market and identifies marketing opportunities emerging in the ever changing market.
2. Integrator: Marketer plays a role of integrator in the sense that he collects feedback or vital inputs from channel members and consumers.
3. Implementer: Marketer plays a role of implementer when he/she actually converts marketing opportunities into marketable product.

Question 3.
Marketer is an innovator? Do you agree?
Answer:
Marketer seeks to distinguish his products/services by adding additional features or functionalities to the existing product, modifying the pricing structure, introducing new delivery pattern, creating new business models, introducing change in production process and so on.

Question 4.
Why Customer support is needed to Market?
Answer:
Customer or the consumer is the king and is considered to be a guest to your shop. Without the customer there is no business. To develop the market the number of customer is to be increased. So customer support is necessary to increase the sales and gain more profit.

Question 5.
Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Answer:

1. Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables, etc., are called as very short period market. There is no change in the supply of goods.
2. Short Period Market: In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. The demand is greater than supply. Such markets are known as Short Period Market.
3. Long Period Market: This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are dealt for longer period usages

Question 6.
List down the functions of Marketer.
Answer:

1. Gathering and Analysing market information
2. Market planning
3. Product Designing and development
4. Standardisation and Grading
5. Packaging and Labelling
6. Branding
7. Customer Support Services
8. Pricing of Products
9. Promotion and Selling
10. Physical Distribution
11. Transportation
12. Storage and Warehousing

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How the market can be classified?
Answer:
On the basis of different approaches markets can be classified as follows:
I. On the basis of Geographical Area:
(a) Family Market
(b) Local Market
(c) National Market
(d) International Market or World Market

II. On the Basis of Commodities / Goods:
(a) Commodity Market

1. Produce Exchange Market
2. Manufactured Goods Market
3. Bullion Market

(b) Capital Market:

1. Money Market
2. Foreign Exchange Market
3. The Stock Market

III. On the Basis of Economics:
(a) Perfect Market
(b) Imperfect Market

IV. On the basis of transaction:
(a) Spot Market
(b) Future market

V. On the Basis of Regulation:
(a) Regulated Market
(b) Unregulated Market

VI. On the Basis of Time:
(a) Very Short Period Market
(b) Short Period Market
(c) Long Period Market

VII. On the Basis of Volume of Business:
(a) Wholesale Market
(b) Retail Market

VIII. On the Basis of Importance:
(a) Primary Market
(b) Secondary Market
(c) Terminal Market

Question 2.
How the market can be classified on the basis of Economics?
Answer:
The Market can be classified on the basis of Economics as follows:
(a) Perfect Market: A market is said to be a perfect market, if it satisfies the following conditions:

1. Large number of buyers and sellers are there.
2. Prices should be uniform throughout the market.
3. Buyers and sellers have a perfect knowledge of market.
4. Goods can be moved from one place to another without restrictions.

(b) Imperfect Market: A market is said to be imperfect when

1. Products are similar but not identical.
2. Prices are not uniform.
3. There is lack of communication.

Question 3.
What is your contribution to promote the market in the modern society?
Answer:
Market is a place where buyers and sellers gather for purchase and sale. Market may be of Local market, national market and international or Global market.To develop and promote the market the following are needed:

1. Eligible and satisfied and customer is needed.
2. Quality and durable goods are to be marketed.
3. Recent trends like E-marketing, online marketing are to be encouraged.
4. After sales service are to be provided to durable goods.
5. Customers are to be financed for buying costly articles.
6. New Innovations and marketing research are to be introduced to develop the market.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 13th Commerce Chapter 13 Concept of Marketing and Marketer Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 12th Commerce Chapter 12 Employee Training Method Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 12 Employee Training Method Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 12 Employee Training Method

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 12 Employee Training Method Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Employee Training Method Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Off the Job training is given.
(a) In the class room
(b) On off days
(c) Outside the factory
(d) In the playground
Answer:
(c) Outside the factory

Question 2.
Vestibule training is provided.
(a) On the job
(b) In the class room
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment
(d) By the committee
Answer:
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment

Question 3.
Improves Skill Levels of employees to ensure better job performance!
(a) Training
(b) Selection
(c) Recruitment
(d) Performance appraisal
Answer:
(a) Training

Question 4.
When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called.
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Refresher training
(c) Role play
(d) Apprenticeship training
Answer:
(d) Apprenticeship training

Question 5
is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees
(a) Training
(b) Job analysis
(c) Selection
(d) Recruitment
Answer:
(a) Training

Question 6.
Training methods can be classified into training.
(a) Job rotation and Job enrichment
(b) On the Job and Off the Job
(c) Job analysis and Job design
(d) Physical and mental
Answer:
(b) On the Job and Off the Job

Question 7.
Case study method is type of trainee
(a) Only theoretical training
(b) Both theory and practical training
(c) Hands on training
(d) Observation Training
Answer:
(b) Both theory and practical training

Question 8.
Elaborate discussion on specific topic comes under method of training.
(a) Under study
(b) Coaching
(c) Conferences
(d) Counseling
Answers:
(c) Conferences

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by training?
Answer:
Training is the act of increasing / enhancing the new skill of problem solving activity and technical knowledge of an employee for doing the jobs themselves.

Question 2.
What is Mentoring training method?
Answer:
Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee. The focus in this training is on the development of attitude of trainees. It is mostly used for managerial employees.

Question 3.
What is Role play?
Answer:
Under this method trainees are explained the situation and assigned roles. They have to act out the roles assigned to them without any rehearsal.

Question 4.
State e-learning method?
Answer:
E-leaming is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom or office.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is vestibule training?
Answer:
Vestibule training is training of employees in an environment similar to actual work environment. This type of training is given to avoid any damage or loss to machinery in the actual place by trainees. .

Question 2.
What do you mean by on the job training?
Answer:
On the job training refers to the training which is given to the employee at the work place. In other words the employee learns the job in the actual work environment. On the job training is suitable for imparting skills.

Question 3.
Write down various steps in a training programme.
Answer:
Training is one of the planned activities to transfer or modify knowledge, skills and attitude. Every training programme must address certain vital issues listed below.

Question 4.
Write short note on trainer and trainee.
Answer:
A person who is learning and practising the skills of particular job is called trainee. Trainees should be selected on the basis of self-interest and recommendation by the supervisor.

Trainer is a person who teaches skills to employee and prepare them for a job activity. Trainers may be supervisor, co-workers, HR staffs, specialists in the other parts of the company, outside consultants.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define training. Discuss various types of training.
Answer:
According to Edwin B. Flippo” Training is the act of increasing the Knowledge and skills of an employee for doing particular jobs”. Training may be mainly divided into:
(a) On the job training:
(b) Off the job training:

(a) On the Job Training: On the job training refers to the training which is given to the employee at the work place. The following are the on the job training methods.

1. Coaching Method: In this method of training, the superior teaches or guides the new employee about the knowledge and skills.
2. Mentoring Method: Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee.
3. Internship Training Method: A superior gives training to a subordinates or understudy like an assistant to a manager.

(b) Off the Job Training: It is the training method wherein the workers learn the job role away from the actual work place. The following are types of off the job training:

1. Lecture Method: Under this method trainees are educated about concepts, theories, principles in any particular area.
2. E-learning Method: E-learning is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom or office.

Question 2.
What are the differences between on the job training and off the job training?
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the benefits of training.
Answer:
(i) Benefits to the Organization:
(a) It improves the skill of employees and increase the productivity.
(b) It reduces wastages of materials and idle time.
(c) It minimizes the time for supervision.
(d) It reduces the frequent accidents at workplace and consequent payment of compensation.

(ii) Benefits to the Employees:
(a) It increases the knowledge, skill of the employees.
(b) It enables him to gain promotion in shorter time.
(c) It improves the employees productivity.
(d) Employees get higher earnings through incentives and rewards.

(iii) Benefits of Customer:
(a) Customers get better quality of product and service.
(b) Customers get innovative products or value added or feature rich products.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Employee Training Method Additional Questions and Answers

I. A. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
On the job training is given to the employee at the ____________
(a) college
(b) home
(c) workplace
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) workplace

B. Fill in the blanks

1. Mentoring method of training is always used for ____________employees
2. ____________is a person who teaches skills to the employees.

Answers:

1. Managerial
2. Trainer

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by off the job training?
Answer:
Off the job training is the training method where the workers/employees learn the job role away from the actual workplace.

Question 2.
Write a note on internship training.
Answer:
When a superior gives training to subordinates, it is called internship training. The subordinates learn through experience and observation by participating in handling day to day problems.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain any three purposes of training.
Answer:
The purposes of training are as follows:

1. Improved Quality of Work- Training helps to focus on specific area and enables the employees to increase the quality of work carried out by them.
2. Prevention of obsolescence- Training helps to learn more knowledge regarding the latest techniques and trends.
3. Improved Safety Measures- Employees gain awareness about the risks involved in job and safety measure to be adopted through a proper training program.

Case Study

Hemalatha is the MD of Aravindh Textile manufacturing company. Her company produces textiles which has a good sales record in Indian market as well as foreign market. Hemalatha plans to buy new tech machineries for her company. But she first decides to give a training program to her employees about the new machineries.

Question (i)
What kind of training program should she provide to his employees?
Answer:
She should provide on the job training program to her employees, at the workplace itself.

Question (ii)
What kind of benefits do the employees gain from that training program?
Answer:
The employees leam the techniques to operate the machineries. It will increase the production.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 12th Commerce Chapter 12 Employee Training Method Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 11 Employee Selection Process Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 11 Employee Selection Process Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 11 Employee Selection Process

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 11 Employee Selection Process Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Employee Selection Process Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The recruitment and Selection Process aimed at right kind of people.
(a) At right people
(b) At right time
(c) To do right things
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _________ and supervision.
(a) Training
(b) Recruitment
(c) work quality
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Training

Question 3.
_________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.
(a) Selection
(b) Training
(c) Recruitment
(d) Induction
Answer:
(c) Recruitment

Question 4.
Selection is usually considered as a _________ process.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Natural
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 5.
Which of the following test is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate?
(a) physical Test
(b) Psychological Test
(c) attitude Test
(d) Proficiency tests
Answer:
(b) Psychological Test

Question 6.
Wfifich of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process? .
(a) application form test and or interview, reference check and physical examination
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination
(c) Reference check, application form, test and interview and physical examination
(d) physical examination test and on interview application term and reference check.
Answer:
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination

Question 7.
The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about the
(a) Company
(b) Candidate
(c) Questionnaire or Interview Schedule
(d) Competitors
Answer:
(b) Candidate

Question 8.
Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate.
(a) Aptitude Test
(b) Attitude Test
(c) Proficiency Test
(d) Physical Test
Answer:
(a) Aptitude Test

Question 9.
The process of eliminating unsuitable candidate is called _________
(a) Selection
(b) Recruitment
(c) Interview
(d) Induction
Answer:
(a) Selection

Question 10.
Scrutiny of application process is the _________
(a) Last step in Selection process
(b) First step in Selection process
(c) Third step in Selection Process Selection process
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) First step in Selection process

Question 11.
Scrutiny of application process is the
(a) Locating candidates
(b) Determinining the suitable of the candidates
(c) preparing employees for training
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Determinining the suitable of the candidates

Question 12.
The process of placing the right man on the right job is called _________
(a) Training
(b) Placement
(c) Promotion
(d) Transfer
Answer:
(b) Placement

Question 13.
Probation/Trial period signifies _________
(a) one year to two years
(b) One year to three years
(c) Two years to four years
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) one year to two years

Question 14.
Job first man next is one of the principles of _________
(a) Test
(b) Interview
(c) Training
(d) placement
Answer:
(d) placement

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is selection?
Answer:
Selection is the process of choosing the most suitable person for the vacant position in the organization.

Question 2.
What is an interview?
Answer:
According to Scott and others “an interview is a purpose full exchange of ideas, the answering of questions and communication between two or more persons.”

Question 3.
What is intelligence test?
Answer:
Intelligence tests are one of the psychological tests, that is designed to measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.

Question 4.
What do you mean by test?
Answer:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualification to fit into various positions in the organization.

Question 5.
What do you understand about bio data?
Answer:
Most of the Public sector undertakings Recruitment boards supply applications forms for selection of jobs. In this form, the candidate fill the details about family background, educational qualifications, experience, co-curricular activities.

Question 6.
What do you mean by placement?
Answer:
Placement is a process of assigning a specific job to each and every candidate selected. It includes initial assignment of new employees and promotion, transfer or demotion of present employees.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is stress interview?
This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional balance of the candidate interviewed. Interviewer deliberately creates stressful situation and tries to assess the suitability of the candidate by observing his reaction and response to the stressful situations.

Question 2.
What is structured interview?
Answer:
Under this method, a series of questions to be asked by the interviewer are pre-prepared by the interviewer and only these questions are asked in the interview.

Question 3.
Name the types of selection test?
Answer:
Selection tests are of two types: Ability Tests and Personality Tests. Ability tests can further be divided into: aptitude test, achievement test, intelligence test, and judgement test. Personality tests can further be divided into: interest test, personality inventory test, projective test or thematic appreciation test, and attitude test.

Question 4.
What do you mean by achievement test?
Answer:
This test measures a candidate’s capacity to achieve in a particular field. In other words this test measures a candidate’s level of skill in certain areas, accomplishment and knowledge in a particular subject. It is also called proficiency test.

Question 5.
Why do you think the medical examinations of a candidate is necessary?
Answer:
The last technique used in selection process is medical examination. This is the most important step in the selection because a person of poor health cannot work competently and any investment on him may go waste, if he/she is unable to discharge duties efficiently on medical grounds.

Question 6.
What is aptitude test?
Answer:
Aptitude test is a test to measure suitability of the candidates for the post/role. It actually measures whether the candidate possess a set of skills required to perform a given job. It helps in predicting the ability and future performance of the candidate.

Question 7.
How is panel interview conducted?
Answer:
Where a group of people interview the candidate, it is called panel interview. Usually panel comprises chair person, subject expert, psychological experts, representatives of minorities/ underprivileged groups, nominees of higher bodies and so on. All panel members ask different types of questions on general areas of specialization of the candidate.

Question 8.
List out the various selection interviews.
Answer:
Interview represents a face to face interaction between the interviewer and interviewee

1. Preliminary Interview
2. Structured Interview
3. Unstructured Interview
4. In-depth Interview
5. Panel Interview
6. Stress Interview
7. Telephone Interview
8. Online Interview
9. Group interview
10. Video Conference Interview

Question 9.
List out the significance of placement.
Answer:
The significance of the placement is as follows:

1. It improves employee morale.
2. It helps in reducing employee turnover.
3. It helps in reducing conflict rates or accidents.
4. It avoids misfit between the candidates and the job.
5. It helps the candidate to work as per the predetermined objectives of the organization.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain the various types of tests.
Answer:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualifications.

A. Ability Test: Ability test may be divided into:

• Aptitude Test: Aptitude test is a test to measure suitability of the candidates for the post.
• Achievement Test: This test measures a candidate’s capacity to achieve in a particular field.
• Intelligence Test: Intelligence test is designed to measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.
• Judgment Test: This test is conducted to test the presence of mind and reasoning capacity of the candidates.

B. Personality Test: It refers to the test conducted to find out the non-intellectual traits of a candidate. It can be further divided into:

• Interest Test: Interest test measures a candidate’s extent of interest in a particular area.
• Projective Test: This test measures the candidate’s values, personality of the candidate.
• Attitude Test: measures candidate’s tendencies towards the people, situation, action and related things.

Question 2.
Explain the important methods of interview.
Interview means a face to face interaction between the interviewer and interviewee. Interview may be of various types:-

1. Preliminary Interview: It is conducted to know the general suitability of the candidates who have applied for the job.
2. Structured Interview: In this method, a series of questions is to be asked by the interviewer. The questions may be pre-prepared.
3. In depth Interview: This interview is conducted to test the level of knowledge of the interviewee in a particular field.
4. Panel Interview: Where a group of people interview the candidate. The panel usually comprises the chair person, subject expert, psychological experts and so on.
5. Stress Interview: This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional balance of the candidate.
6. Online Interview: Due to tremendous growth in information and communication technology, interviews are conducted by means of internet via Skype, Google duo, Whatsapp.

Question 3.
Explain the principles of placement.
Answer:
The following are the principles of placement:

1. Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements of the job.
2. Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification..
3. Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditiqns of the organisation.
4. Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
5. Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Employee Selection Process Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The types of Aptitude Test are
(i) Numerical Reasoning Test
(ii) Attitude Test
(iii) Vocabulary Test
(iv) Interest Test
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Answer:
(d) Telephone interview – Face to face interview

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by personality test?
Answer:
Personality test refers to the test conducted to find out the non-intellectual traits of a candidate namely temperament, emotional response, capability and stability.

Question 2.
Write a note on attitude test.
Answer:
Attitude test measures candidate’s tendencies towards the people, situation, action and related things. For example: morale study, values study, etc.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by online interview?
Answer:
Due to tremendous growth in information and communication technology, these days interviews are conducted by means of internet via Skype. We chat, Google duo, Viber, Whatsapp or Video chat applications. This enables the interviewers to conduct interview with the candidates living in faraway places.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 11 Employee Selection Process Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 10 Recruitment Methods Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 10 Recruitment Methods Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 10 Recruitment Methods

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 10 Recruitment Methods Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Recruitment Methods Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Recruitment is the process of identifying _______
(a) right man for right job
(b) good performer
(c) right job
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) right man for right job

Question 2.
Recruitment bridges gap between _______ and _______
(a) job seeker and job provider
(b) job seeker and agent
(c) job provider and owner
(d) owner and servant
Answer:
(a) job seeker and job provider

Question 3.
Advertisement is a _______ source of recruitment.
(a) internal
(b) external
(c) agent
(d) outsourcing
Answer:
(b) external

Question 4.
Transfer is an _______ source of recruitment.
(a) internal
(b) external
(c) outsourcing
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) internal

Question 5.
e-Recruitment is possible only through _______ facility.
(a) computer
(b) internet
(c) broadband
(d) 4G
Answer:
(b) internet

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of finding suitable candidates for the various posts in an organisation.

Question 2.
What is promotion?
Answer:
Based on seniority and merits of the employees they are given opportunity to move up in the organisational hierarchy. This is called promotion.

Question 3.
State two benefits of internal source of recruitment.
Answer:
Benefits of internal source of recruitment:

1. Internal source will reduce the cost and expenses of recruitment.
2. It is very useful, by way of selecting from the existing and retiring employees.

Question 4.
Mention any two features of campus recruitment.
Answer:
Campus recruitment is one of the external sources of recruitment. Its features are:

1. The organisations visit the educational institutions to identify and recruit suitable candidates.
2. They have to conduct the test and other interview methods to find out the suitable persons.

Question 5.
List the benefits of external source of recruitment.
Answer:
Benefits of external source of recruitment:

1. The advancement in technology and communication has made it possible to reach out prospective applicants globally online.
2. The existing employees of the organisation may recommend some of their relatives or known people who will be suitable for the existing vacancies.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define the term Recruitment.
According to Edwin B. Flippo, “It is a process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating and encouraging them to apply for jobs in an organisation.”

Question 2.
What are the features of internal source of recruitment?
Answer:
The main features of internal source of recruitment are:

1. Quick process
2. Cheaper than the external recruitment process.
3. Works as a tool of motivation for the staff.
4. The company’s choice is limited to existing employees of the company.

Question 3.
Give two points of differences between advertisement and unsolicited application.
Answer:
Advertisement and unsolicited applicants are external sources of recruitment. There are a few differences between them. They are:
Advertisement:

1. It is an expensive method for the employer because advertising incurs a heavy cost.
2. The employer can advertise in dailies, journals, magazines, etc., about the vacancies in the organisation.

Unsolicited Application:

1. It does not involve any expense for the employer.
2. Job seekers voluntarily apply for the vacancies that are not yet notified by the organisations.

Question 4.
What is the importance of job portals?
Answer:
The organisations can screen for the prospective candidates through internet job portals and fill up their vacancies. It is less expensive. Also the people who are well versed in technology can apply for ajoboftheir choice through this method.

Question 5.
State the steps in Recruitment process.
Answer:
Recruitment process includes the following steps:

1. Planning recruitment
2. Determining vacancies
3. Identifying the sources
4. Drafting information for advertisement
5. Selecting the suitable mode of advertisement
6. Facilitating selection process
7. Evaluation and control

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the different methods of recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment means selecting the right person for the right job. There are basically two ways by which an organisation can recruit its employees – Internal and External sources. External sources can further be classified into Direct and Indirect sources.

Internal Sources – Transfer, Upgrading, Promotion, Demotion, Recommendation by existing Employees, Job rotation, Retired employees, Dependants, Previous applicants, Acquisitions , and Mergers.

External Sources:

1. Direct – Advertisements, Unsolicited applicants, Walk-ins, Campus Recruitment, Recruitment at Factory gate, Rival firms, e-Recruitment.
2. Indirect – Employee referral, Govemment/Public Employment Exchanges, Employment Agencies, Employment Consultancies, Professional Associations, Deputation, Word of mouth, Labour Contractors, Job Portals, Outsourcing, Poaching.

Question 2.
Describe the significance of External source of recruitment.
Answer:
External sources of recruitment include sources that lie outside the organisation. This provides a wider collection of potential employees with the necessary skill set, especially for managerial and technical positions. Existing employees can recommend suitable candidates, which may lead to a higher level of teamwork and synchronisation among employees.

Hiring new employees can lead to the introduction of new blood and thus the introduction of a new set of skills and ideas. External sources of recruitment offer jobs to unskilled, semi-skilled and skilled workers.

Question 3.
Elaborate on the factors affecting recruitment.
Answer:
Some of the factors that affect recruitment are:

1. (a) Size of the Organisation: Bigger organisations find recruitment less problematic than organisations that are smaller in size.
2. (b) Recruiting Policy: Most organisations prefer recruiting through internal sources, because own employees know the organisation and they can well fit into the organisation’s culture.
3. (c) Nature of Post: The recruitment process varies according to type of personnel to be recruited. For example, recruitment process of a bank officer will differ from that of an IPS officer.
4. (d) Demographic factors: Like the details of possible employees- age, religion, literacy level, gender, occupation, economic status, etc.
5. (e) Unemployment rate: If the unemployment rate is high, the number of applicants will be more, making it easy for the recruiters to select from a wide range.
6. (f) Labour Laws: These cover working conditions, compensation, retirement benefits, and safety and health of employees in industrial undertakings.
7. (g) Competitors: Time to time the organisations have to change their recruitment policies and manuals according to the policies being followed by the competitors.

Question 4.
Differentiate Recruitment and Selection.
Answer:

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of having the right person, in the right place, at the right time. It is crucial to organisational performance. Recruitment is the first step in an organisation’s Human Resource Planning. It fulfills the organisation’s need of a set of competitive, motivated arid flexible employees who work towards achieving the organisation’s objectives. Competent Human Resources at the right positions are crucial for the organisation and constitute core competency. Recruitment helps in creating a pool of prospective employees for the organisation, so that the right candidates for the right jobs can be selected from this pool.

It establishes a link between the job seekers and employers. Proper recruitment enables the organization to appoint talented persons for various activities, thereby leading to improved productivity and profitability of the organisation. Unless a company adopts a suitable recruitment policy, it may not be possible for a company to have right candidates for right job.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Recruitment Methods Additional Questions and Answers

I. A. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The internal source of recruitment are _________
(i) promotion
(ii) e-recruitment
(iii) retention
(iv) advertisements
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

B. Fill in the blanks

1. Recruitment acts as a link between _______ and _______
2. Poaching is also called as _______

Answers:

1. job provider, job seeker
2. raiding

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by retention?
Answer:
Retention is a method of internal source of recruitment. The retiring employees can be used to meet the requirement after superannuation as per management discretion.

Question 2.
Write a note on Demotion.
Answer:
Demotion is a kind of activity done by the company. It means movement of employee from a higher position to a lower position due to poor performance.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the term e-Recruitment?
Answer:
e-Recruitment means to carry out the recruitment by online methods. The advancement in technology and communication has made it easy to find out the applicants globally online. It is an inevitable external source of recruitment.

Question 2.
What do you mean by poaching?
Answer:
Poaching means that the company can hire employees from other companies by paying them more. So the company can reduce the expense of giving training and developing their own employees. It is also called as raiding.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 10 Recruitment Methods Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 9 Fundamentals of Human Resource Management Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 9 Fundamentals of Human Resource Management Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 9 Fundamentals of Human Resource Management

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 9 Fundamentals of Human Resource Management Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Fundamentals of Human Resource Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Human resource is a ______ asset.
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Fixed
(d) Current
Answer:
(b) Intangible

Question 2.
Human Resource management is both ______ and ______
(a) Science and art
(b) Theory and practice
(c) History and Geography
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Science and art

Question 3.
Planning is a ______ function
(a) selective
(b) pervasive
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) pervasive

Question 4.
Human resource management determines the ______ relationship.
(a) internal, external
(b) employer, employee
(c) owner, servant
(d) principle, agent
Answer:
(b) employer, employee

Question 5.
Labour turnover is the rate at which employees ______ the organisation.
(a) enter
(b) leave
(c) salary
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) leave

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of Human Resource.
Answer:
In an organisation, the human resource are the employees who are inevitable for the survival and success of the enterprise.

Question 2.
What is Human Resource Management ?
Answer:
Human Resource Management is a function of management concerned with hiring, motivating and maintaining people in an organisation. It focuses on people in an organisation.

Question 3.
State two features of HRM.
Answer:
Features of Human Resource Management.
Universally relevant: Human Resource Management has universal relevance.
Goal oriented: The accomplishment of organisational goals is made possible through best utilisation of human resource in an organisation.

Question 4.
Mention two characteristics of Human Resource.
Answer:
The unique, peculiar and distinctive features of human resources are as under:

1. Human resource is the only factor of production that lives.
2. Human resource created all other resources.

Question 5.
List the functions of HRM.
Answer:
The functions of human resource management may be classified as under: I Managerial function – Planning, Organising, Directing, Controlling.
II Operative function – Procurement, Development, Compensation, Retention, Integration, Maintenance.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define the term Human Resource Management.
Answer:
According to Dale Yoder, Human Resource Management is “the effective process of planning . and directing the application, development and utilisation of human resources in employment”.

Question 2.
What are the features of Human resources ?
Answer:

1. Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
2. Human resource alone can think, act, analyse and interpret.
3. Human resources are emotional beings.
4. Human resources can be motivated either financially or non-financially.
5. The behaviour of human resources are unpredictable.
6. Over years human resources gains value and appreciates.
7. Human resources are movable.
8. Human resource can work as a team.

Question 3.
Give two points of differences between HR and HRM.
Answer:
Human Resource (HR):

1. To obtain personal and organisational objectives, human resource is needed.
2. Human resource are the individuals who acquired the required skills, talents and knowledge to run the organisation.

Human Resource Management (HRM):

1. Human resource management is a function of management relating to hiring, motivating people in an organisation.
2. Human resource management relies on experiments and observations to handle manpower.

Question 4.
What is the importance of Human resource?
Answer:
The vital resource namely human resource is significant because of the following reasons:

1. It is only through human resource all other resources are effectively used.
2. The sustainable growth of an organisation depends on the important resource human resource.
3. Industrial relations depend on human resource.
4. Human relations is possible only through human resource.
5. Human resource manages all other factors of production.

Question 5.
State the functions of Human Resource Management.
Answer:
The functions of human resource management may be classified as under: I Managerial function – Planning, Organising, Directing, Controlling.
II Operative function – Procurement, Development, Compensation, Retention, Integration, Maintenance.

1. Planning: Planning is deciding in advance what to do, how to do and who is to do it. It bridges the gap between where we are and where we want to go.
2. Organising: It includes division of work among employees by assigning each employee their duties, delegation of authority as required.
3. Procurement: Acquisition deals with job analysis, human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement, transfer and promotion.
4. Development: Development includes performance appraisal, training, executive development, career planning and development, organisational development.
5. Compensation: It deals with job evaluation, wage and salary administration, incentives, bonus, fringe benefits and social security schemes.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the unique features of Human Resource.
The unique, peculiar features of human resources are given below.
Answer:

1. Human resource created all other resources.
2. Human resources can be motivated either financially or non-financially.
3. Human resources are movable.
4. Human resource alone can think, act, analyze and interpret.
5. Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
6. Human resource can work as a team.
7. Over years human resources gains value and appreciates

Question 2.
Describe the significance of Human Resource Management.
Answer:
The role of human resource management is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees. The significance of human resource management is given below:

1. To identify manpower needs: Determination of manpower needs in an organisation is very important as it is a form of investment.
2. To ensure the correct requirement of manpower: At any time the organisation should
   not suffer from shortage or surplus manpower which is made possible through human resource management
3. To select right man for right job: Human resource management ensures the right talent to select the right employee for the right job.
4. To update the skill and knowledge: Human resource management enables employees to remain up-to-date through training and development programmes.
5. To appraise the performance of employees: Periodical appraisal of performance of employees through human resource management activities boosts up good performers and motivates slow performers..

Question 3.
Elaborate on the Managerial functions of Human Resource Management.
Answer:
Managerial Functions of Human Resource Management:

1. Planning: Planning is deciding in advance what to do, how to do and who is to do it.
2. Organising: It includes division of work among employees by assigning each employee
   their duties, delegation of authority required.
3. Directing: It involves issue of orders and instructions along with guidance and motivation to get the best employees.
4. Controlling: The control process includes fixing of standards, measuring actual performance, comparing actual with standard laid down, measuring deviations and taking corrective actions

Question 4.
Differentiate HR from HRM.
Answer:
Human Resource (HR):

1. Meaning: Human resource, i.e., the employees create other sources.
2. Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
3. Human resource alone can think, act and analyse.
4. Human resources are movable.
5. Human resource can work as team.

Human Resource Management (HRM):

1. Managing the human resource is known as human resource management.
2. Human resource management has universal relevance.
3. The accomplishment of organisational goal is made possible through human resource in an organisation.
4. Human resource management is intangible function.
5. Human resource management focuses on the development of manpower through training and development programmes.

Question 5.
Discuss the Operating functions of HRM.
Answer:
Operating functions of HRM:

1. Procurement: Acquisition deals with job analysis, human resource planning, recruitment, selection, placement and promotion.
2. Development: It includes performance appraisal, training, executive development, and organisational development.
3. Compensation: It deals with job evaluation, wage and salary administration, incentives, bonus schemes.
4. Retention: This is made possible through health and safety, social security, job satisfaction and quality of work life.
5. Maintenance: This encourages employees to work with job satisfaction, reducing labour turnover, for human resource.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 9 Fundamentals of Human Resource Management Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 8 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 8 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 8 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 8 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Securities Exchange Board of India was first established in the year _________
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 1995
(d) 1998
Answer:
(a) 1988

Question 2.
The headquarters of SEBI is _________
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 3.
In which year SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India?
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 2014
(d) 2013
Answer:
(a) 1988

Question 4.
Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes as _________
(a) Mutual Funds
(b) Listing
(c) Rematerialisation
(d) Dematerialization
Answer:
(d) Dematerialization

Question 5.
SEBI is empowered by the Finance ministry to nominate members on the Governing body of every stock exchange.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 6.
The process of converting physical shares into electronic form is called _________
(a) Dematerialisation
(b) Delisting
(c) Materialisation
(d) Debarring
Answer:
(a) Dematerialisation

Question 7.
Trading in dematerialized shares commenced on the NSE in _________
(a) January 1996
(b) June 1998
(c) December 1996
(d) December 1998
Answer:
(c) December 1996

Question 8.
_________  was the first company to trade its shares in Demat form.
(a) Tata Industries
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Infosys
(d) Birla Industries
Answer:
(b) Reliance Industries

Question 9.
_________  enables small investors to participate in the investment on share capital of large companies.
(a) Mutual Funds
(b) Shares
(c) Debentures
(d) Fixed deposits
Answer:
(a) Mutual Funds

Question 10.
PAN stands for _________
(a) Permanent Amount Number
(b) Primary Account Number
(c) Permanent Account Number
(d) Permanent Account Nominee
Answer:
(c) Permanent Account Number

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a short notes on SEBI.
Answer:
Securities and exchange Board of India (SEBI) was first established in the year 1988 as a non- statutory body for regulating the securities market.

Question 2.
Write any two objectives of SEBI.
Answer:
The first objective of SEBI is to regulate stock exchanges so that efficient services may be provided to all the parties operating there. Another objective is to supervise/check the activities of the brokers and other middlemen in order to control the capital market.

Question 3.
What is Demat account?
Answer:
A demat account holds all the shares that are purchased in electronic or dematerialized form.

Question 4.
Mention the headquarters of SEBI.
Answer:
SEBI has its headquarters at the business district of BandraKurla Complex in Mumbai, and has Northern, Eastern, Southern and Western Regional Offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Ahmedabad, respectively.

Question 5.
What are the various ID proofs?
Answer:
Proof of identity: PAN card, voter’s ID, passport, driver’s license, bank attestation, IT returns, electricity bill, telephone bill, ID cards with applicant’s photo issued by the central or state government are the ID proofs.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Dematerialization?
Answer:
Dematerialization is the process by which physical share certificates of an investor are taken back by the company/registrar and destroyed. Then an equivalent number of securities in the electronic form are credited to the investors account with his Depository Participant.

Question 2.
What are the documents required for a Demat account?
Answer:
For opening a demat account, we submit proof of identity and address along with a passport size photo and the account opening form.
Documents for Identity: Pan card, Voters ID, Passport, Driver’s License, IT Returns, Electricity and Telephone Bills are the Identity documents.
Documents for Address: Ration card, Passport, Voter’s ID card, Driving License, Telephone Bills, Electricity bills are the address documents.

Question 3.
What is the power of SEBI under Securities Contract Act?
Answer:
For effective regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a Notification on 13 September, 1994 delegating several of its powers under the Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act to SEBI is also empowered by the Finance Ministry to nominate three members on the Governing Body of every stock exchange.

Question 4.
What is meant by Insiders trading? .
Answer:
Insider trading means the buying and selling of securities by directors, promoters, etc., who have access to some confidential information about the company. This affects the interests of the general investors and is essential to check this tendency.

Question 5.
Draw the organization structure of SEBI.
Answer:
The SEBI is managed by its members, which consists of following.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the functions of SEBI?
Answer:
SEBI performs three key functions: quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial and quasi-executive.

1. Safeguarding the interests of investors by means of adequate education and guidance.
2. Regulating and controlling the business on stock markets.
3. Conduct inspection and inquiries of stock exchanges, intermediaries and self-regulating organizations.
4. Barring insider trading in securities.
5. Prohibiting deceptive and unfair methods used by financial intermediaries operating in securities market.
6. Registering and controlling the functioning of stock brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, bankers, trustees, underwriters who are linked to securities market.
7. SEBI issues Guidelines and Instructions to businesses orgnisations for issue of shares,
8. Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes such as mutual funds.

Question 2.
Explain the powers of SEBI
Answer:
The various powers of a SEBI are explained below:

1. Powers Relating to Stock Exchanges and Intermediaries: SEBI has wide powers to get the information from the stock exchange and intermediaries regarding their business transactions for inspection.
2. Power to Impose Monetary Penalties: SEBI has power to impose monetary penalties on capital market intermediaries for violations.
3. Power to Initiate Actions in Functions Assigned
4. Power to Regulate Insider Trading: SEBI has power to regulate insider trading or can regulate the functions of merchant banker.
5. Powers Under Securities Contracts Act: For the regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a notification, for delegating several of its powers under the securities contract Act.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of Dematerialisation?
Answer:
Benefits of Dematerialisation:

1. The risks relating to physical certificates like loss, theft, forgery are eliminated completely with a Demat Account.
2. The risk of paper work enables quicker transactions and higher efficiency in trading.
3. The shares which are created through mergers and consolidation of companies are credited automatically in the Demat account.
4. There is no stamp duty for transfer of securities.
5. Certain banks also permit holding of both equity and debt securities in a single account
6. A Demat account holder can buy or sell any amount of shares.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Additional Questions and Answers

I. A. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
SEBI got the statutory powers in the year _____
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 1969
(d) 1980
Answer:
(b) 1992

B. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The first objective of SEBI is to regulate ______
Answer:
Stock exchanges

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the three key functions of SEBI.
Answer:
SEBI performs three key functions.
They are:

1. quasi-legislative
2. quasi-judicial
3. quasi-executive

Question 2.
Write a note on PAN.
Answer:
PAN, or permanent account number, is a unique 10-digit alphanumeric identity allotted to each taxpayer by the Income Tax Department. It also serves as an identity proof.

Case Study

Question (a)
Koushikaa’s father has gifted her the shares of a large cement company with which he had been working. The securities were in physical form. She already has a bank account and does not possess any other forms of securities. She wishes to sell the shares and approached a registered broker for the purpose. Mention one mandatory detail which she will have to provide with the broker.
Answer:
Mandatory Detail:

1. The shares can be sold by opening a Demat account.
2. She has to mention the no of shares of the cement company.
3. Without paper work shares can be transferred through dematerialisation.
4. Shares can be transferred to the person who wants to purchase.
5. Also mention the name of the company, Type of share, amount of share capital.

Question (b)
Mr. Kulandaivel was the Chairman of Thangam Bank. The bank was earning good profits. Shareholders were happy as the bank was paying regular dividends. The market price of their share was also steadily rising. The bank was about to announce taking over the ‘Trinity Bank’. Mr. Kulandaivel knew that the share price of Thangam Bank would rise on this announcement. Being a part of the bank, he was not allowed to buy shares of the bank. He called one of the his rich friends Mr. Chandrasekaran and asked him to invest ? 5 crores in shares of his bank promising him the capital gains.

As expected, the share prices went up by 40% and the market price of Chandrasekaran’s shares was now tl crores. He earned a profit of ?2 crores. He gave ?1 crore to Mr. Kulandaivel and kept ? crore with himself. On regular inspection and by conducting enquires of the brokers involved, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was able to detect this irregularity. The SEBI imposed a heavy penalty on Mr. Kulandaivel. By quoting the lines from the above paragraph, identify and state any two functions that were performed by SEBI in the above case.
Answer:
Functions performed by SEBI in this case:

1. The market price of their share were informed and controlled by SEBI.
2. On regular inspection and conducting enquiries, Exchange Board of India was able to detect this irregularity. The SEBI imposed a heavy penalty on Mr. Kulandaivel.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 8 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 7 Stock Exchange Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 7 Stock Exchange Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 7 Stock Exchange

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 7 Stock Exchange Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Stock Exchange Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
_______ is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
(a) London Stock Exchange
(b) Bombay Stock Exchange
(c) National Stock Exchange
(d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange
Answer:
(d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange

Question 2.
There are ______ stock exchanges in the country.
(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(b) 24

Question 3.
Stock exchanges deal in ______
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Financial Securities
(d) Country’s Currency
Answer:
(c) Financial Securities

Question 4.
Stock exchange allow trading in ______
(a) All types of Shares of any Company
(b) Bonds issued by the Govt
(c) Listed Securities
(d) Unlisted Securities
Answer:
(c) Listed Securities

Question 5.
Jobbers transact in a stock exchange
(a) For their Clients
(b) For their Own Transactions
(c) For other Brokers
(d) For other Members
Answer:
(b) For their Own Transactions

Question 6.
A pessimistic speculator is ______
(a) Stag
(b) Bear
(c) Bull
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(b) Bear

Question 7.
An optimistic speculator is ______
(a) Bull
(b) Bear
(c) Stag
(d) Lame Duck
Answer:
(a) Bull

Question 8.
A bull operator believes in ______
(a) Increase in Prices
(b) Decrease in Prices
(c) Stability in Prices
(d) No change in Prices
Answer:
(a) Increase in Prices

Question 9.
______ means the price at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and made public.
(a) Market Quotations
(b) Trade Quotations
(c) Business Quotations
(d) Buyers Quotations
Answer:
(a) Market Quotations

Question 10.
The rules and regulations of Stock exchange is framed by ______ guide lines.
(a) RBI
(b) Central Government
(c) SEBI
(d) BSE
Answer:
(c) SEBI

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Stock Exchange?
Answer:
Stock Exchange is an organized market for the purchase and sale of industrial and financial security. It is also called stock market or share market.

Question 2.
Define Stock Exchange.
Answer:
According to Husband and Dockerary, “Stock exchanges are privately organized markets which are used to facilitate trading in securities.”

Question 3.
Write any 5 Stock Exchanges in India.
Answer:

1. The Bombay Stock Exchange
2. Bangalore Stock Exchange Ltd
3. The Madras Stock Exchange Ltd
4. The Hydrabad Stock Exchange Ltd
5. The Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd

Question 4.
What is meant by Remiser?
Answer:
Remiser is an agent of a member of a stock exchange. He obtains business for his principal i.e the member.

Question 5.
Who is called a Broker?
Answer:
Broker is a commission agent. He acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers of securities. He charges a commission for his services from both the parties.

Question 6.
What are the types of Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types. They are named on the basis of animals behaviour.
They are:

1. Bull
2. Bear
3. Stag
4. Lame duck

Question 7.
What is meant by Commodity Exchange?
Answer:
A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are purchased and sold. Commodities are listed here: Metals, agricultural products

Question 8.
Mention the recent development in Stock Exchange.
Answer:
The structure of stock market in India has undergone a vast change with developments.
They are follows:

1. National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE)
2. Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)
3. National Clearing and Depository System (NCDS)
4. Securities Trading Corporation of India (STCI)
5. National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)

Question 9.
What is the stock trading time in India?
Answer:
The stock trading time in India for equity market is between 9.15 am to 3.30 am from Monday to Friday. Saturdays and Sundays were holiday.

Question 10.
Explain Dalai Street.
Answer:
Dalai Street is an area in Mumbai, where the Bombay Stock exchange is located. The literal translation of Dalai in Marathi is a broker or intermediary.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the limitations of Stock exchange?
Answer:

1. Lack of uniformity and control of stock exchanges.
2. Absence of restriction on the membership of stock exchanges.
3. Failure to control unhealthy speculation.

Question 2.
Explain Bull and Bear.
Speculators in a stock market are of different types based on animals behaviour.
They are:

1. Bull: A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the future. He purchases the securities expecting price of rise in future.
2. Bear: A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower price.

Question 3.
Explain Stag and Lame Duck.
Answer:

1. Stag: A stag is a cautious speculator in the stock exchange. He applies for shares in new companies and expects to sell them at a premium.
2. Lame Duck: When a bear finds it difficult to fulfill his commitment, he is said to be struggling like a lame duck.

Question 4.
Explain National Stock Market System. (NSMS)
Answer:
National stock market system was advocated by the High Powered Group. It is headed by Shri. Pherwani (popularly known as Pherwani Committee). At present the National Stock Market comprises the following:

1. National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE)
2. Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)
3. Securities Trading Corporation of India (STCI)

Question 5.
Explain National Stock Exchange. (NSE)
Answer:
National Stock Exchange was incorporated in November, 1992. It uses satellite link to spread trading throughout the country. Through computer network, members’ orders for buying and selling within prescribed price are matched by central computer.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the functions of Stock Exchange.
Answer:

1. Ready and Continuous Market: Stock exchange helps the investors to sell his securities easily. And also he can convert his cash into securities.
2. Correct Evaluation of Securities: The prices at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and informed to the public. These prices are called “market quotations”
3. Protection to Investors: All dealings in a stock exchange are in accordance with well- defined rules and regulations. Any malpractice will be severely punished.
4. Proper Channelisation of Capital: People like to invest in the shares of companies which yield good profits. Also people invest in the companies which are giving good dividends.
5. Facilities for Speculation: Speculation is an integral part of stock exchange operations. As a result of speculation, demand for and supply of securities are equalized.

Question 2.
Explain the features of Stock Exchange.
Answer:
There are various features of a stock exchange. They are given below:

1. Market for Securities: Stock exchange is a market, where securities of corporate bodies, government companies are bought and sold.
2. Deals in Second Hand Securities: It deals with shares, debentures bonds and securities already issued by the companies.
3. Regulates Trade in Securities: Stock exchange does not buy or sell any securities on its own account. It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.
4. Allows Dealings only in Listed Securities: In the stock exchange only listed securities are purchased and sold. Unlisted securities cannot be traded in the stock exchange.
5. Association of Persons: A stock exchange is an association of persons or body of individuals which may be registered or unregistered.

Question 3.
Explain the Benefits of Stock Exchange.
Answer:
The benefits of Stock Exchange are classified into benefits to the Community, Company and Investors.
Benefits to the Community:

1. Economic Development: It increases the economic development by ensuring steady flow of savings for production.
2. Fund Raising Platform: It enables the well-managed companies to raise funds by issue of shares.

Benefits to the Company:

1. Enhances Goodwill or Reputation: Companies whose shares are quoted on a stock exchange enjoy greater goodwill and credit standing.
2. Raises huge funds: Stock exchange helps the companies to raise huge funds by issue of shares and debentures.

Benefits to Investors:

1. Liquidity: Stock exchange helps to convert his shares into cash quickly.
2. Investor protection: The stock exchange safeguards, investor’s interest by following strict rules and regulations.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Stock Exchange and Commodity Exchange.
Answer:

Question 5.
Explain Lombard street and Wall street.
Answer:
Lombard Street: Lombard Street is in London. It is a street notable for its connections with the merchants, banking and insurance industries of London. From bank junction, where nine . streets converge by the bank of England, Lombard Street runs southeast for a short distance.

Wall Street: Wall Street is a street in New York. It is the original home of the New York Stock exchange. Also it is the historic headquarters of the largest U.S. brokerages and investment banks.

Wall Street is also used as a collective name for the financial and investment community.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Stock Exchange Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

Answer:
(b) 2,4, 1, 3

Question 2.
Which is not a foreign Stock exchange?
(a) London Stock Exchange
(b) Bombay Stock Exchange
(c) Tokyo Stock Exchange
(d) New York Stock Exchange
Answer:
(b) Bombay Stock Exchange

Case Study

Ramesh and Asaladeepesh are good friends. Ramesh is very god-fearing kind, while Asaladeepesh was an enterprising person, having practical in approach. Read the ” following conversation.

Ramesh : Hi,Deepesh! What are you doing?
Asaladeepesh: Hi, I am reading the newspaper – financial market page that gives us
information about the shares price.
Ramesh : Shares, that is an area of big gambles.
Asaladeepesh: No, not really! You must understand how it works.
Ramesh : Frankly speaking, I think this Capital market is all a gambling game and I don’t see any use of them.
Asaladeepesh :No, you are seriously mistaken; you do not know the importance of capital market. I will tell how it is needed for an individual and an economy.

You are required to play the role of Asaladeepesh and continue the conversation.
Solution:
Ramesh : Ok, you tell me the importance of capital.
Asaladeepesh : Capital is needed for an individual to commence business. Also it is needed to develop the society.
Ramesh : What is capital?
Asaladeepesh : Capital is the finance needed to do the business.
Ramesh : How the capital can be obtained?
Asaladeepesh : Capital may be introduced by self or for the large amount of capital one can issue shares and debentures.
Ramesh : What is meant by share?
Asaladeepesh : Share means a unit or a part of share capital.
Ramesh : What is the income for the shares purchased?
Asaladeepesh :For purchasing shares, the company can declare dividend from the profit earned by the company.
Ramesh : What are the types of shares?
Asaladeepesh : The shares may be of equity shares and preference shares.
Ramesh : What is meant by debentures?
Asaladeepesh : Debenture may be a document for accepting loan from the public.
Ramesh : How the shares can be obtained, if not purchased from the original issue?
Asaladeepesh : You can get the shares from the stock exchange by contacting a broker.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 7 Stock Exchange Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 7 Human Health and Diseases

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Human Health and Diseases Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A 30 year old woman has bleedy diarrhoea for the past 14 hours, which one of the following organisms is likely to cause this illness?
(a) Streptococcus pyogens
(b) Clostridium difficile
(c) Shigella dysenteriae
(d) Salmonella enteritidis
Answer:
(c) Shigella dysenteriae

Question 2.
Exo-erythrocytic schizogony of Plasmodium takes place in __________
(a) RBC
(b) Leucocytes
(c) Stomach
(d) Liver
Answer:
(d) Liver

Question 3.
The sporozoites of Plasmodium vivax are formed from __________
(a) Gametocytes
(b) Sporoblasts
(c) Oocysts
(d) Spores
Answer:
(c) Oocysts

Question 4.
Amphetamines are stimulants of the CNS, whereas barbiturates are __________
(a) CNS stimulant
(b) both a and b
(c) hallucinogenic
(d) CNS depressants
Answer:
(d) CNS depressants

Question 5.
Choose the correctly match pair.
(a) Amphetamines – Stimulant
(b) LSD-Narcotic
(c) Heroin – Psychotropic
(d) Benzodiazepine – Pain killer
Answer:
(a) Amphetamines – Stimulant

Question 6.
The Athlete’s foot disease in human is caused by __________
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Virus
(d) Protozoan
Answer:
(b) Fungi

Question 7.
Cirrhosis of liver is caused by chronic intake of __________
(a) Opium
(b) Alcohol
(c) Tobacco
(d) Cocaine
Answer:
(b) Alcohol

Question 8.
The sporozoite of the malarial parasite is present in __________
(a) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
(b) RBC of human suffering from malaria.
(c) Spleen of infected humans.
(d) Gut of female Anopheles mosquito
Answer:
(a) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito.

Question 9.
Where do the following events in the life cycle of Plasmodium takes place?
(a) Fertilization – __________
(b) Development of gametocytes – __________
(c) Release of sporozoites – __________
(d) Schizogony – __________
Answer:
(a) Fertilization – Gut of mosquito
(b) Development of gametocytes – Human RBC’s
(c) Release of sporozoites – From Mosquito to the human blood
(d) Schizogony – Human liver cells

Question 10.
Paratope is an __________
(a) Antibody binding site on variable regions
(b) Antibody binding site on heavy regions
(c) Antigen binding site on variable regions
(d) Antigen binding site on heavy regions
Answer:
(c) Antigen binding site on variable regions

Question 11.
Allergy involves __________
(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) IgA
(d) IgM
Answer:
(a) IgE

Question 12.
Spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as __________
(a) Metastasis
(b) Oncogenes
(c) Proto-oncogenes
(d) Malignant neoplasm
Answer:
(a) Metastasis

Question 13.
AIDS virus has __________
(a) Single stranded RNA
(b) Double stranded RNA
(c) Single stranded DNA
(d) Double stranded DNA
Answer:
(a) Single stranded RNA

Question 14.
B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called __________
(a) Memory cells
(b) Basophils
(c) Plasma cells
(d) killer cells
Answer:
(c) Plasma cells

Question 15.
Given below are some human organs.
Answer:
Identify one primary and one secondary lymphoid organ. Explain its role.
Liver, thymus, stomach, thyroid, tonsils Primary lymphoid organ – thymus Secondary lymphoid organ – tonsils Immunocompetency of T cells is achieved in Thymus Whereas tonsils help to fight viral and bacterial infections.

Question 16.
Name and explain the type of barriers which involve macrophages.
Answer:
Phagocytic barriers involves macrophages (monocytes, neutrophils) which phagocytose and . digest whole micro organisms.

Question 17.
What are interferons? Mention their role.
Answer:
Interferons are the antiviral proteins which induce antiviral state in the infected cells.

Question 18.
List out chemical alarm signals produced during inflammation.
Answer:
Serotonin, histamine and prostaglandins.

Question 19.
Explain the process of replication of retrovirus after it gains entry into the human body.
Answer:
After getting into the body of the person, the retrovirus enters into macrophages where RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This viral DNA gets incorporated into the DNA of host cells and directs the infected cells to produce viral particles. The macrophages continue to produce virus and in this way acts like a HIV factory.

Question 20.
Explain the structure of immunoglobulin with suitable diagram.
Answer:
An antibody molecule is Y shaped structure that comprises of four polypeptide chains, two identical light chains (L) of molecular weight 25,000 Da (approximately 214 amino acids) and two identical heavy chains (H) of molecular weight 50,000 Da (approximately 450 amino acids). The polypeptide chains are linked together by di-sulphide (S-S) bonds. One light chain is attached to each heavy chain and two heavy chains are attached to each other to form a Y shaped structure. Hence, an antibody is represented by H₂ L₂ The heavy chains have a flexible hinge region at their approximate middles Antigen binding

Each chain (L and H) has two terminal They are C – terminal (Carboxyl) and amino or N-terminal. Each chain (L and H) has two regions. They have variable (V) region at one end and a much larger constant (C) region at the other end. Antibodies responding to different antigens have very different (V) regions but their (C) regions are the same in all antibodies. In each arm of the monomer antibody, the (V) regions of the heavy and light chains combines to form an antigen – binding

site shaped to ‘fit’ a specific antigenic determinant. Consequently each antibody monomer has two such antigen – binding regions. The (C) regions that forms the stem of the antibody monomer determine the antibody class and serve common functions in all antibodies.

Question 21.
What are the cells involved innate immune system?
Answer:
Cells involved in innate immunity are monocytes (macrophages), neutrophils, helper T-cells, B-cells, dendritic cells.

Question 22.
What is vaccine? What are its types?
Answer:
A vaccine is a biological preparation that provides active acquired immunity to a particular disease and resembles a disease causing microorganism and is often made from weakened or attenuated or killed forms of the microbes, their toxins, or one of its surface proteins. The vaccines are classified as first, second and third generation vaccines.

Question 23.
A person is infected by HIV. How will you diagnose for AIDS?
Answer:
A simple blood test is available that can determine whether the person has been infected with HIV. The ELISA test (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay) detects the presence of HIV antibodies. It is a preliminary test. Western blot test is more reliable and a confirmatory test. It detects the viral core proteins. If both tests detect the presence of the antibodies, the person is considered to be HIV positive.

Question 24.
Autoimmunity is a misdirected immune response. Justify.
Answer:
Autoimmune diseases : Autoimmunity is due to an abnormal immune response in which the immune system fails to properly distinguish between self and non-self and attacks its own body. Our body produces antibodies (auto antibodies) and cytotoxic T cells that destroy our own tissues. If a disease-state results, it is referred to as auto-immune disease. Thus, autoimmunity is a misdirected immune response.

Question 25.
List the causative agent, mode of transmission and symptoms for Diphtheria and Typhoid
Answer:

Question 26.
A patient was hospitalized with fever and chills. Merozoites were observed in her blood. What is your diagnosis?
Answer:
Appearance of merozoites in a patients blood may be an indication of malarial parasite – plasmodium.

Question 27.

1. Write the scientific name of the filarial worm that causes filariasis.
2. Write the symptoms of filariasis.
3. How is this disease transmitted?

Answer:

1. Scientific name of the filarial worm – Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Symptoms of filariasis – Inflammation of lymph nodes, obstruction of lymph vessels causes elephantiasis of limbs, genital etc.
3. Mode of disease transmission : Vector transmission (female Culex mosquito)

Question 28.
List the common withdrawal symptoms of drugs and alcohol abuse.
Answer:
The withdrawal symptoms may range from mild tremors or convulsions, severe agitation and fits, depressed mood, anxiety, nervousness, restlessness, irritability, insomnia, dryness of throat, etc, depending on the type of drug abuse.

Question 29.
Why do you think it is not possible to produce vaccine against ‘common cold’?
Answer:
Vaccines target specific pathogens and elicit immunity. In case of common cold, more than 200 strains of viruses are responsible for causing the disease. Hence it is practically difficult to develop vaccine against it.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Human Health and Diseases Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Pick out the disease which is caused by virus.
(a) Candidiasis
(b) Ascariasis
(c) Poliomyelitis
(d) Dysentery
Answer:
(c) Poliomyelitis

Question 2.
__________ test is done to confirm typhoid.
(a) ELISA
(b) Western blot
(c) Widal test
(d) Southern blot
Answer:
(c) Widal test

Question 3.
Match the following. Disease

Answer:
(a) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d- ii

Question 4.
Identify the mismatched pair.

Answer:
(c) Measles – Intestine

Question 5.
Identify the wrong statement regarding polio disease.
(a) Polio is caused by a RNA virus.
(b) One of the infection site of polio is intestine.
(c) Culex mosquito acts as a vector for polio.
(d) Paralysis and respiratory failure are the symptoms
Answer:
(c) Culex mosquito acts as a vector for polio.

Question 6.
Yellow fever is a __________ type of disease.
(a) Neurotropic
(b) Viscerotropic
(c) Pneumotropic
(d) Dermotropic
Answer:
(b) Viscerotropic

Question 7.
Which one of the following pairs is wrong.
(a) Amoebiasis – Home fly
(b) African sleeping sickness – Tsetse flies
(c) Kala-azar – Sandfly
(d) Malaria – female Anopheles mosquito
Answer:
(d) Malaria – female Anopheles mosquito

Question 8.
__________ is the malignant form of malaria.
Answer:
P. falciparum

Question 9.
Schizogony of plasmodium parasite in human liver cells returns in __________
(a) sporozoites
(b) merozoites
(c) trophozoites
(d) schizont
Answer:
(b) merozoites

Question 10.
Incubation period of malaria is about __________
Answer:
12 days

Question 11.

Answer:
(a) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Plasmodium vivax is a digenic parasite
Reason (R): The primary host of P. vivax is man.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) (A) is true (R) is false

Question 13.
Assertion (A): Dermatomycosis is a cutaneous infection.
Reason (R): Fungus belongs to the order Trichophyton
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) explains (A)

Question 14.
Assertion (A): Spleen is a primary lymphoid organ
Reason (R): Primary lymphoid organs trap antigen and destroy them.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Paratope is the antigen-binding site.
Reason (R): It is a part of antibody
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) (A) is true (R) is false

Question 16.
Assertion (A): HIV is a DNA virus.
Reason (R): HIV belongs to genus Lentivirus
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is true (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(d) (A) is false (R) is true

Question 17.
Secretion of HCL in stomach is an example for __________
(a) Anatomical barriers
(b) Phagocytic barriers
(c) Physiological barriers
(d) Inflammatory barriers
Answer:
(c) Physiological barriers

Question 18.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) Antibody Mediated Immunity was elicited by T cells.
(b) It is a character of vertebrates only
(c) Immunoglobulins act against pathogens and kill them.
(d) It is also called humoral immunity
Answer:
(a) Antibody Mediated Immunity was elicited by T cells.

Question 19.
Production process of blood cells in bone marrow is called __________
Answer:
haematopoiesis

Question 20.
Which of the following is not a feature of passive immunity?
(a) It is transient and less effective
(b) Immunological memory is present
(c) Immunity develops immunity
(d) Antibodies are obtained from out side
Answer:
(b) Immunological memory is present

Question 21.
__________ is a primary lymphoid organ of birds.
Answer:
Bursa of Fabricius

Question 22.
Match the following.
(a) Peyer’s patches (i) trachea
(b) BALT (ii) intestine
(c) Adenoid (iii) heart
(d) Thymus (iv) roof of the mouth
Answer:
a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii

Question 23.
Which is not a granulocyte?
(a) Lymphocytes
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Basophils
(d) Eosinophils
Answer:
(a) Lymphocytes

Question 24.
The L and H chains of immunoglobulin are joined by
(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b) disulphide bonds
(c) phosphodiester bonds
(d) ionic bond
Answer:
(b) disulphide bonds

Question 25.
__________ type of Immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions.
Answer:
IgE

Question 26.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Vaccine provide passive acquired immunity
(b) It is made from attenuated or killed microbes.
(c) Vaccines teach our body how to defend from microbes.
(d) MMR is a fist generation vaccine.
Answer:
(a) Vaccine provide passive acquired immunity

Question 27
__________ developed first vaccine for small pox.
Answer:
Edward Jenner

Question 28.
The enzyme attached to RNA of HIV is __________
(a) RNA polymerase
(b) reverse transcriptase
(c) primase
(d) endonuclease
Answer:
(b) reverse transcriptase

Question 29.
Infection of Ascariasis occur due to __________
(a) Sand fly
(b) contaminated food
(c) mosquito bite
(d) stagnant water
Answer:
(b) contaminated food

Question 30.
Which of the following statement(s) is true regarding cancer cells?
(a) Neoplasm or tumor cells show uncontrolled growth
(b) They are metastatic
(c) They lack contact inhibition
(d) They may be benign or malignant.
(a) (a) only
(b) (b) and (c)
(c) (d) only
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 31.
Study dealing with body’s defence mechanism against disease is called __________
(a) Pathology
(b) Immunology
(c) Microbiology
(d) Dermatology
Answer:
(b) Immunology

Question 32.
AIDS is characterized by sharp reduction in number of __________
(a) helper T cells
(b) killer T cells
(c) superior T cells
(d) B-cells
Answer:
(a) helper T cells

Question 33.
Plague and malaria are caused by __________ and __________ respectively.
(a) bacteria and virus
(b) fungi and protozoa
(c) bacteria and protozoan
(d) fungi and bacteria
Answer:
(c) bacteria and protozoan

Question 34.
A pair of fungal disease __________
(a) Amoebiasis, Kala-azar
(b) Candidiasis, Athlete’s foot
(c) Ascariasis, Filariasis
(d) Poliomyelitis, Amoebiasis
Answer:
(b) Candidiasis, Athlete’s foot

Question 35.
Plant source of Heroin is __________
(a) Poppy plants
(b) Cannabis plants
(c) Datura species
(d) Atropa species
Answer:
(a) Poppy plants

Question 36.
The test that confirms HIV positive is __________
(a) Western blot
(b) Northern blot
(c) Southern blot
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) Western blot

Question 37.
Bacillary dysentery is caused due to __________
(a) Salmonella
(b) Shigella
(c) Clostridium
(d) Yersinia
Answer:
(b) Shigellosis

Question 38.
Cocaine is a __________ potent.
(a) Sedative
(b) Hallucinogen
(c) pain reliever
(d) neurotransmitter
Answer:
(b) Hallucinogen

Question 39.
Alkaloid found in tobacco is __________
(a) Atropine
(b) cocaine
(c) heroin
(d) nicotine
Answer:
(d) nicotine

Question 40.
__________ is a chronic memory disorder due to alcohol misuse.
(a) Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Turners’ syndrome
(c) Klinefelters’ syndrome
(d) Korsakoff syndrome
Answer:
(d) Korsakoff syndrome

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
What steps should be taken to maintain good health?
Answer:
Personal hygiene, regular exercise and balanced diet are very important to maintain good health.

Question 2.
Define disease.
Answer:
Disease can be defined as a disorder or malfunction of the mind or body. It involves morphological, physiological and psychological disturbances which may be due to environmental factors or pathogens or genetic anomalies or life style changes.

Question 3.
According to the WHO, what is health?
Answer:
The World Health Organization [WHO] defines health as ‘a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely absence of diseases’.

Question 4.
Differentiate between infectious and non-infections disease.
Answer:

1. Infectious disease: Disease which are transmitted form one person to another are called infectious disease, e.g. Common cold
2. Non-infectious disease: Disease which do not transmitted form one person to another are called non-infectious disease, e.g. Anaemia.

Question 5.
Name any two fungal disease and helminthic disease.
Answer:

1. Fungal disease : Candidiasis, Athlete’s foot
2. Helminthic disease : Ascariasis, Filariasis

Question 6.
Mention the causative organism of the following.

1. Tetanus
2. Bubonic plague
3. Pneumonia
4. Cholera

Answer:

1. Tetanus : Clostridium tetani
2. Bubonic plague : Yersinia pestis
3. Pneumonia : Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Cholera : Vibrio cholerae

Question 7.
Classify viral disease based on the organ of infection.
Answer:

1. Pneumotropic diseases
2. Dermotropic diseases
3. Viscerotropic diseases
4. Neurotropic diseases

Question 8.
Write the symptoms of viral hepatitis.
Answer:

1. Liver damage
2. jaundice
3. nausea
4. yellowish eyes
5. fever and pain in the abdomen.

Question 9.
Name the different species of malarial parasites and also mention which is the fatal one?
Answer:

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Plasmodium ovale
3. Plasmodium malariae
4. Plasmodium falciparum .
5. Plasmodium falciparum causes fatal malaria.

Question 10.
Name the causative agent and confirmatory test for Typhoid.
Answer:
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi. Widal test can be done to confirm typhoid.

Question 11.
Mention the three phases in the life of plasmodium parasite with their respective host.
Answer:

1. Schizogony occurs in man.
2. Gamogony occurs in man.
3. Sporogony occurs in gut of mosquito.

Question 12.
What causes shivering in malarial patient?
Answer:
After infection of RBC with sporozoite, when the RBC ruptures a toxic substance haemozoin is released which causes shivering chills and high fever followed by sweating.

Question 13.
Malaria Eradication programme launched by WHO is a failure. Why?
Answer:
In the 1950’s the World Health Organisation (WHO) introduced the Malaria eradication programme. This programme was not successful due to the resistance of Plasmodium to the drugs used to treat it and resistance of mosquito’s to DDT and other insecticides.

Question 14.
Filarial worm and Plasmodium both are digenic parasites. Man is a common host for both parasites. Name the other host.
Answer:
The other host of filarial worm is female Culex mosquito The other host of plasmodium is female Anopheles mosquito

Question 15.
Name the causative organism of filariasis and mention the site of infection of parasite.
Answer:
Causative organisms of filariasis is Wuchereria bancrofti (filarial worm). The site of infection is lymph vessels and lymph nodes.

Question 16.
What do you mean by the term personal hygiene?
Answer:
Personal hygiene refers to maintaining one’s body clean by bathing, washing hands, trimming fingernails, wearing clean clothes and also includes attention to keeping surfaces in the home and workplace, including toilets, bathroom facilities, clean and pathogen-free.

Question 17.
Define Immunity and Susceptibility.
Answer:
The overall ability of body to fight against the disease causing pathogen is called immunity. It is also called disease resistance and the lack of immunity is known as susceptibility.

Question 18.
How skin and mucus membrane act as barriers for infections?
Answer:
Skin prevents the entry of microbes. Its acidic environment (pH 3-5) retards the growth of microbes.

Question 19.
Mucus membrane entraps foreign microorganisms and competes with microbes for attachment. What is diapedesis?
Answer:
Tissue damage and infection induce leakage of vascular fluid, containing chemotactic signals like serotonin, histamine and prostaglandins. They influx the phagocytic cells into the affected area. This phenomenon is called diapedesis.

Question 20.
Write any two differences between CMI and AMI.
Answer:
Cell Mediated Immunity (CMI):

1. In CMI, pathogens are destroyed by cells without producing antibodies.
2. It is carried out by T cells, Macrophages, NK cells

Antibody Mediated Immunity (AMI):

1. In AMI, pathogens are destroyed by antibodies.
2. It is carried out by B cells, T helper cells, APC cells.

Question 21.
Define haematopoiesis.
Answer:
The process of production of blood cells in the bone marrow is called haematopoiesis.

Question 22.
Which is the primary lymphoid organs of birds? Mention its location and role.
Answer:
Bursa of Fabricius is a primary lymphoid organ of birds. It is attached to the dorsal side of the cloaca. B lymphocytes mature in the bursa and bring about humoral immunity.

Question 23.
What are the primary lymphoid organs of mammals?
Answer:
Bone marrow and thymus gland.

Question 24.
What are Peyer’s patches?
Answer:
Peyer’s patches are oval-shaped areas of thickened tissue that are embedded in the mucus- secreting lining of the small intestine of humans and other vertebrate animals. Peyer’s patches contain a variety of immune cells, including macrophages, dendritic cells, T cells, and B cells.

Question 25.
Point out any four peripheral lymphoid organs.
Answer:
Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, MALT.

Question 26.
Write a brief note on GALT.
Answer:
Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) is a component of the mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) which works in the immune system to protect the body from invasion in the gut.

Question 27.
Why secondary immune response is more effective than primary immune response?
Answer:
Due to the establishment of immunological memory of the first encounter, the secondary immune response highly intense and effective.

Question 28.
Name the Agranulocytes involved in immune response.
Answer:

1. Lymphocyte
2. Monocytes

Question 29.
Why dendritic cells are called so?
Answer:
Dendritic cells are called so because its covered with long, thin membrane extensions that resemble dendrites of nerve cells. These cells present the antigen to T-helper cells.

Question 30.
How many dendritic cells are identified? Name them.
Answer:
Four types of dendritic cells are known. They are langerhans, interstitial cells, myeloid and lymphoid cells.

Question 31.
What are Haptens?
Answer:
Haptens are substance that are non-immunogenic but can react with the products of a specific immune response.

Question 32.
Distinguish between Epitope and Paratope.
Answer:

1. Epitope: Epitope is an antigenic determinant and is ‘ the active part of an antigen.
2. Paratope: A paratope is the antigen – binding site and is a part of an antibody which recognizes and binds to an antigen.

Question 33.
Draw a simplified diagram of immunoglobulin.
Answer:

Question 34.
On which basis, the antibodies are classified? Name them.
Answer:
The antibodies are classified into five major categories, based on their physiological and biochemical properties. They are IgG (gamma), IgM(mu), IgA (alpha), IgD(delta) and IgE (epsilon).

Question 35.
Name any four functions of antibodies.
Answer:
The functions of immunoglobulin are agglutination, precipitation, opsonisation, neutralization.

Question 36.
Which type of bonds are developed between an antigen and antibody? Name them.
Answer:
The bonds that hold the antigen to the antibody combining site are all non-covalent in nature. These include hydrogen bonds, electrostatic bonds, Van der Waals forces and hydrophobic bonds.

Question 37.
What is antibody affinity?
Answer:
Antibody affinity is the strength of the reaction between a single antigenic determinant and a single combining site on the antibody.

Question 38
What do you mean by third generation vaccine?
Answer:
Third generation vaccine contains the purest and the highest potency vaccines which are synthetic in generation. The latest revolution in vaccine is DNA vaccine or recombinant vaccine.

Question 39
Define vaccination.
Answer:
Vaccination is the process of administrating a vaccine into the body or the act of introducing a vaccine into the body to produce immunity to a specific disease.

Question 40.
Define allergy and allergen.
Answer:
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment is called allergy (allo-altered, erg-reaction). The substances to which such an immune response is produced are called allergens.

Question 41.
What is Anaphylaxis?
Answer:
Anaphylaxis is the classical immediate hypersensitivity reaction. It is a sudden, systematic, severe and immediate hypersensitivity reaction occurring as a result of rapid generalized mast-cell degranulation.

Question 42.
Expand

1. MALT
2. NACO

Answer:

1. MALT – Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
2. NACO – National AIDS Control Organisation

Question 43.
How will you define Autoimmunity?
Answer:
Autoimmunity is due to an abnormal immune response in which the immune system fails to properly distinguish between self and non-self and attacks its own body.

Question 44.
What do you mean by drug abuse?
Answer:
The intake of certain drugs for a purpose other than their normal clinical use in an amount and frequency that impair one’s physical, physiological and psychological functions is called drug abuse.

Question 45.
Name any 4 natural cannabinoids.
Answer:
Marijuana, Ganja, Hashish and Charas.

Question 46.
Mention any two drugs to treat insomnia patient.
Answer:

1. methamphetamine
2. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

Question 47.
Name the antibody responsible for allergic reaction. Also mention two chemicals released during allergic response.
Answer:
IgE (epsilon) antibody is responsible for allergic reaction. Histamine and serotonin are the chemicals released during allergic reaction.

Question 48.
Name an opioid drug and its source plant. How it is useful in medical field?
Answer:

1. Morphine is an opioid drug which is extracted from flowers of the poppy plant.
2. It is used as a strong pain killer during surgery.

Question 49.
What is withdrawal symptom? Name any two symptoms.
Answer:
If the intake of the drug or alcohol is abruptly stopped, he or she would develop withdrawal symptoms. In a sense, the body becomes confused and protests against the absence of the drug. The withdrawal symptoms are nervousness and insomnia.

Question 50.
Name the plant source of Cocaine and Heroin.
Answer:

1. Cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
2. Heroin is obtained from poppy plant.

Question 51.
What is Liver cirrhosis?
Answer:
Alcohol interferes with the ability of the liver to break down fat. Over time fat accumulation and high levels of alcohol destroy the liver cells and a scar tissue grows in the place of dead cells. This scarring of the liver is called “Liver cirrhosis”.

Question 52.
Define Korsakoff syndrome.
Answer:
Korsakoff syndrome, a chronic memory disorder is most commonly caused by alcohol misuse.

Question 53.
What are the benefits of exercising our body?
Answer:
Participating in an exercise programme can:

1. Increase self-esteem
2. Boost self-confidence
3. Create a sense of empowerment
4. Enhance social connections and relationships

3 – Mark Questions

Question 54.
Write the name of causative agent, infection site, mode of transmission and any two symptoms of Chikungunya.
Answer:

1. Causative agent – Alpha virus
2. Infection site – Nervous system
3. Mode of transmission – Aedes aegypti (Mosquito)
4. Symptoms – Fever, headache, joint pain and swelling.

Question 55.
Draw and label the parts of Entamoeba histolytica.
Answer:

Question 56.
Give a brief account of Kala-azar.
Answer:
Kala – azar or visceral leishmaniasis is caused by Leishmania donovani, which is transmitted by the vector Phlebotomus (sand fly). Infection may occur in the endothelial cells, bone marrow, liver, lymph glands and blood vessels of the spleen. Symptoms of Kala azar are weight loss, anaemia, fever, enlargement of spleen and liver.

Question 57.
Comment on Malaria vaccine.
Answer:
Malaria vaccine is used to prevent malaria. The only approved vaccine as of 2015 is RTS,S(Mosquirix). It requires four injections and has relatively low efficacy (26-50%). Due to this low efficacy, WHO does not recommend the use of RTS,S vaccine in babies between 6 lr and 12 weeks of age.

Question 58.
What is innate immunity?
Answer:
Innate immunity is the natural phenomenon of resistance to infection which an individual possesses right from the birth. The innate defense mechanisms are non-specific in the sense that they are effective against a wide range of potentially infectious agents. It is otherwise known as non-specific immunity or natural immunity

Question 59.
Explain

1. Cell Mediated Immunity
2. Antibody Mediated Immunity

Answer:

1. Cell-mediated immunity: When pathogens are destroyed by cells without producing antibodies, then it is known as cell mediated immune response or cell mediated immunity. This is brought about by T cells, macrophages and natural killer cells.
2. Antibody mediated immunity or humoral immunity: When pathogens are destroyed by the production of antibodies, then it is known as antibody mediated or humoral immunity. This is brought about by B cells with the aid of antigen presenting cells and T helper cells. Antibody production is the characteristic feature of vertebrates only.

Question 60.
Secondary response is a booster response – Explain.
Answer:
The secondary immune response occurs when a person is exposed to the same antigen again. During this time, immunological memory has been established and the immune system can start producing antibodies immediately. Within hours after recognition of the antigen, a new army of plasma cells are generated. Within 2 to 3 days, the antibody concentration in the blood rises steeply to reach much higher level than primary response. This is also called as “booster response”.

Question 61.
What are lymphoid organs? Mention its types.
Answer:
The organs involved in the origin, maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes are called lymphoid organs. Based on their functions, they are classified into primary or central lymphoid organs and secondary or peripheral lymphoid organs.

Question 62.
Classify antigens based on origin.
Answer:
On the basis of origin, antigens are classified into exogenous antigens and endogenous antigens. The antigens which enter the host from the outside in the form of microorganisms, pollens, drugs, or pollutants are called exogenous antigens. The antigens which are formed within the individual are endogenous antigens. The best examples are blood group antigens.

Question 63.
Point out the factors that determine the binding force between antigen – antibody reactions.
Answer:
The binding force between antigen and antibody is due to three factors. They are closeness between antigen and antibody, noncovalent bonds or intermolecular forces and affinity of antibody.

Question 64.
Why it is important to study antigen – antibody interaction?
Answer:
The chief application of antigen – antibody reactions are to determine blood groups for transfusion, to study serological ascertainment of exposure to infectious agents, to develop immunoassays for the quantification of various substances, to detect the presence or absence, of protein in serum and to determine the characteristics of certain immunodeficiency diseases.

Question 65.
Explain opsonisation property of antibodies.
Answer:
Opsonisation or enhanced attachment is the process by which a pathogen is marked of ingestion and destruction by a phagocyte. Opsonisation involves the binding of an opsonin i.e antibody, to a receptor on the pathogen’s cell membrane. After opsonin binds to the membrane, phagocytes are attracted to the pathogen. So, opsonisation is a process in which pathogens are coated with a substance called an opsonin, marking the pathogen out for destruction by the immune system. This results in a much more efficient phagocytosis.

Question 66.
Give an example for

1. First generufkmvaccine
2. Second generation vaccine
3. Third generation vaccine

Answer:

1. First generation vaccine – MMR vaccine
2. Second generation vaccine – Hepatitis-B vaccine
3. Third generation vaccine – DNA Vaccine

Question 67.
Name the diseases for which vaccines were developed by Louis Pasteur.
Answer:
Cholera, Anthrax and Rabies

Question 68.
How AIDS patient fail to develop immunity?
Answer:
AIDS is caused by Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV). It selectively infects helper T cells. The infected helper T cells will not stimulate antibody production by B-cells resulting in loss of natural defence against viral infection.

Question 69.
Suggest few methods to prevent AIDS.
Answer:
Prevention of AIDS is the best option. Advocating safe sex and promoting regular check-up, safe blood for transfusion, use of disposable needles, use of condoms during sexual contact, prevention of drug abuse, AIDS awareness programme by NACO (National AIDS Control Organisation), NGOs (Non-Governmental Organisations) and WHO are to prevent the spreading of AIDS.

Question 70.
State immunological surveillance theory.
Answer:
The concept of immunological surveillance postulates that the primary function of the immune system is to “seek and destroy” malignant cells that arise by somatic mutation. The efficiency of the surveillance mechanism reduces either as a result of ageing or due to congenital or acquired immunodeficiencies, leads to increased incidence of cancer. Thus, if immunological surveillance is effective, cancer should not occur. The development of tumour represents a lapse in surveillance.

Question 71.
What is contact inhibition? How it is related to tumours growth?
Answer:
Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition, which inhibits uncontrolled growth. Cancer cells do not have this property. As a result, cancerous cells divide continuously giving rise to mass of tissues called tumours.

Question 72.
Differentiate between normal cells and cancer cells.
Answer:
Normal Cells:

1. Small uniformly shaped nuclei Relatively large cytoplasmic volume
2. Conformity in cell size and shape Cells arranged into discrete tissue
3. May possess differentiated cell structures Normal presentation of cell surface markers
4. Lower levels of dividing cells Cell tissues clearly demarcated

Cancer Cells:

1. Large, variable shaped nuclei Relatively small cytoplasmic volume
2. Variation in cell size and shape Disorganised arrangement of cells
3. Loss of normal specialised features Elevated expression of certain cell markers
4. Large number of dividing cells Poorly defined tumor boundaries

Question 73.
Write a note on Heroin.
Answer:
Heroin (smack) is chemically diacetyl morphine, which is white, odourless and bitter crystalline compound. It is obtained by acetylation of morphine, which is extracted from flowers of the poppy plant.

Question 74.
“Smoking and Tobacco chewing is injurious to health” – Comment on the statement.
Answer:
Tohacco is smoked, chewed and used as snuff. It increases the carbon monoxide content of blood and reduces the concentration of haem bound oxygen, thus causing oxygen deficiency in the body. Tobacco contains nicotine, carbon monoxide and tars, which cause problems in the heart, lung and nervous system. Adrenal glands are stimulated by nicotine to release adrenaline and nor adrenaline which increases blood pressure and heart beat.

Question 75.
Point out the symptoms of mental depression.
Answer:
Signs and symptoms of mental depression:

1. Loss of self confidence and self esteem
2. Anxiety
3. Not being able to enjoy things that are usually pleasurable or interesting.

5-Mark Questions 

Question 76.
Name any five viral diseases, their causative agents, infection site, mode of transmission and their symptoms.
Answer:

Question 77.
Describe the life cycle of plasmodium parasite.
Answer:
Plasmodium vivax is a digenic parasite, involving two hosts, man as the secondary host and female Anopheles mosquito as the primary host. The life cycle of Plasmodium involves three phases namely schizogony, gamogony and sporogony.

The parasite first enters the human blood stream through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. As it feeds, the mosquito injects the saliva containing the sporozoites. ‘The sporozoite within the blood stream immediately enters the hepatic cells of the liver. Further in the liver they undergo multiple asexual fission (schizogony) and produce merozoites. After being released from liver cells, the merozoites penetrate the RBC’s.

Inside the RBC, the merozoite begins to develop as unicellular trophozoites. The trophozoite grows in size and a central vacuole develops pushing them to one side of cytoplasm and becomes the signet ring stage. The trophozoite nucleus then divides asexually to produce the schizont. The large schizont shows yellowish – brown pigmented granules called Schuffners granules. The schizont divides and produces mononucleated merozoites. Eventually the erythrocyte lyses, releasing the merozoites and haemozoin toxin into the blood stream to infect other erythrocytes.

Lysis of red blood cells results in cycles of fever and other symptoms. This erythrocytic stage is cyclic and repeats itself approximately every 48 to 72 hours or longer depending on the species of Plasmodium involved. The sudden release of merozoites triggers an attack on the RBCs.

Occasionally, merozoites differentiate into macrogametocytes and microgametocytes. When these are ingested by a mosquitoe, they develop into male and female gametes respectively. In the mosquito’s gut, the infected erythrocytes lyse and male and female gametes fertilize to form a diploid zygote called ookinete. The ookinete migrates to the mosquito’s gut wall and develop into an oocyte.

The oocyte undergoes meiosis by a process called sporogony to form sporozoites. These sporozoites migrate to the salivary glands of the mosquito. The cycle is now completed and when the mosquito bites another human host, the sporozoites are injected and the cycle begins a new.

The pathological changes caused by malaria, affects not only the erythrocytes but also the spleen and other visceral organs. Incubation period of malaria is about 12 days. The early symptoms of malaria are headache, nausea and muscular pain. The classic symptoms first develop with the synchronized release of merozoites, haemozoin toxin and erythrocyte debris into the blood stream resulting in malarial paroxysms – shivering chills, high fever followed by sweating. Fever and chills are caused partly by malarial toxins that induce macrophages to release tumour necrosis factor (TNF-a) and interleukin.

Question 78.
Give an account of helminthic disease.
Answer:
Helminthes are mostly endoparasitic in the gut and blood of human beings and cause diseases called helminthiasis. The two most prevalent helminthic diseases are Ascariasis and Filariasis. Ascaris is a monogenic parasite and exhibits sexual dimorphism. Ascariasis is a disease caused by the intestinal endoparasite Ascaris lumbricoides commonly called the round worms. It is transmitted through ingestion of embryonated eggs through contaminated food and water.

Children playing in contaminated soils are also prone to have a chance of transfer of eggs from hand to mouth. The symptoms of the disease are abdominal pain, vomiting, headache, anaemia, irritability and diarrhoea. A heavy infection can cause nutritional deficiency and – severe abdominal pain and causes stunted growth in children. It may also cause enteritis, hepatitis and bronchitis.

Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, commonly called filarial worm. It is found in the lymph vessels and lymph nodes of man. Wuchereria bancrofti is sexually dimorphic, viviparous and digenic. The life cycle is completed in two hosts, man and the female Culex mosquitoe. The female filarial worm gives rise to juveniles called microfilariae larvae. In the lymph glands, the juveniles develop into adults. The accumulation of the worms block the lymphatic system resulting in inflammation of the lymph nodes. In some cases, the obstruction of lymph vessels causes elephantiasis or filariasis of the limbs, scrotum and mammary glands.

Question 79.
Tabulate the various types of innate immunity and their action mechanism.
Answer:

Question 80.
Point out the differences between active and passive immunity.
Answer:
Active Immunity:

1. Active immunity is produced actively by host’s immune system.
2. It is produced due to contact with pathogen or by its antigen.
3. It is durable and effective in protection.
4. Immunological memory is present.
5. Booster effect on subsequent dose is possible.
6. Immunity is effective only after a short period.

Passive Immunity:

1. Passive immunity is received passively and there is no active host participation.
2. It is produced due to antibodies obtained from outside.
3. It is transient and less effective.
4. No memory.
5. Subsequent dose is less effective.
6. Immunity develops immediately.

Question 81.
How primary immune response differ from secondary immune response?
Answer:
Primary Immune Response:

1. It occurs as a result of primary contact with an antigen.
2. Antibody level reaches peak in 7 to 10 days.
3. Prolonged period is required to establish immunity.
4. There is rapid decline in antibody level.
5. It appears mainly in the lymph nodes and spleen.

Secondary Immune Response:

1. It occurs as a result of second and subsequent contacts with the same antigen.
2. Antibody level reaches peak in 3 to 5 days.
3. It establishes immunity in a short time.
4. Antibody level remains high for longer period.
5. It appears mainly in the bone marrow, followed by the spleen and lymph nodes.

Question 82.
Explain the structure and role of thymus in primary lymphoid organ.
Answer:
Thymus is most active during the neonatal and pre-adolescent periods. The thymus is a flat and bilobed organ located behind the stemun, above the heart. Each lobe of the thymus contains numerous lobules, separated from each other by connective tissue called septa. Each lobule is differentiate into an outer cortex and an inner medulla. Within each lobule, the devoloping T cells called thymocytes are arranged into outer cortex and inner medulla. The inner medulla contains immature thymocytes and outer cortex has matured thymocytes. One of its main secretions is the hormone thymosin. It stimulates the cell to become mature and immunocompetent. By the early teens, the thymus begins to atrophy and is replaced by adipose tissue.

Question 83.
Describe the structure of lymph node with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Lymph node has three zones. They are the cortex, paracortex and medulla. The outer most layer of the lymph node is called cortex, which consists of B-lymphocytes, macrophages, and follicular dendritic cells. The paracortex zone is beneath the cortex, which is richly populated by lymphocytes and interdigitating dendritic cells. The inner most zone is called the medulla

which is sparsely populated by lymphocytes, but many of Afferentymiatic them are plasma cells, which actively secrete antibody molecules. As the lymph enters, it slowly percolates through the cortex, paracortex and medulla, giving sufficient chance for the phagocytic cells and dendritic cells to trap the antigen brought by the lymph.

The lymph leaving a node carries enriched antibodies secreted by the medullary plasma cells against the antigens that enter the lymph node. Sometimes visible swelling of lymph nodes occurs due to active immune response and increased concentration of lymphocytes. Thus swollen lymph nodes may signal an infection. There are several groups of lymph nodes. The most frequently enlarged lymph nodes are found in the neck, under the chin, in the armpits and in the groin.

Question 84.
Explain the types of cells involved in immune system.
Answer:
Lymphocytes: About 20-30% of the white blood cells are lymphocytes. They have a large nucleus filling most of the cell, surrounded by a little cytoplasm. The two main types of lymphocytes are B and T lymphocytes. Both these are produced in the bone marrow. B lymphocytes (B cells) stay in the bone marrow until they are mature. Then they circulate around the body. Some remain in the blood, while others accumulate in the lymph nodes and spleen. T lymphocytes leave the bone marrow and mature in the thymus gland. Once mature, T cells also accumulate in the same areas of the body as B cells. Lymphocytes have receptor proteins on their surface. When receptors on a B cell bind with an antigen, the B cell becomes activated and divides rapidly to produce plasma cells. The plasma cells produce antibodies. Some B cells do not produce antibodies but become memory cells.

These cells are responsible for secondary immune response. T lymphocytes do not produce antibodies. They recognize antigen-presenting cells and destroy them. The two important types of T cells are Helper T cells and Killer T cells. Helper T cells release a chemical called cytokine which activates B cells. Killer cells more around the body and destroy cells which are damaged or infected. Apart from these cells neutrophils and monocytes destroy foreign cells by phagocytosis. Monocytes when they mature into large cells, they are called macrophages which performs phagocytosis on any foreign organism.

Dendritic cells are called so because its covered with long, thin membrane extensions that resemble dendrites of nerve cells. These cells present the antigen to T-helper cells. Four types of dendritic cells are known. They are langerhans, interstitial cells, myeloid and lymphoid cells.

Question 85.
Write in detail about various types of antigen-antibody reactions.
Different types of antigen and antibody reactions:
Answer:
The reaction between soluble antigen and antibody leads to visible precipitate formation, which is Called precipitin reaction. Antibodies that bring about precipitate formation on reacting with antigens are called as precipitins. Whenever a particulate antigen interacts with its antibody, it would result in clumping or agglutination of the particulate antigen, which is called agglutination reaction. The antibody involved in bringing about agglutination reaction is called agglutinin.

Opsonisation or enhanced attachment is the process by which a pathogen is marked of ingestion and destruction by a phagocyte. Opsonisation involves the binding of an opsonin antibody, to a receptor on the pathogen’s cell membrane. After opsonin binds to the membrane, phagocytes are attracted to the pathogen. So, opsonisation is a process in which pathogens are coated with a substance called an opsonin, marking the pathogen out for destruction by the immune system. This results in a much more efficient phagocytosis.

The neutralization reactions are the reactions of antigen-antibody that involve the elimination of harmful effects of bacterial exotoxins or a virus by specific antibodies. These neutralizing substances i.e. antibodies are known as antitoxins. This specific antibody is produced by a host cell in response to a bacterial exotoxin or corresponding toxoid (inactivated toxin).

Question 86.
Describe the structure of HIV with a diagram.
Answer:
The human immunodeficiency virus belongs to the genus Lentivirus. When observed under the electron microscope, HIV is seen as a spherical virus, 100-120 nm in diameter, containing a dense .core surrounded by a lipoprotein envelope.The envelope has glycoprotein (gp) spikes termed gp 41 and gp 120. At the core, there are two large single stranded RNA. Attached to the RNA are molecules of reverse transcriptase.

It also contains enzymes like protease and ribonuclease.The core is covered by a capsid made of proteins. This is followed by another layer of matrix proteins as shown above.

Question 95.
Suggest some of the ways to prevent drug and alcohol abuse.
Answer:

1. Effectively dealing with peer pressure: The biggest reason for teens to start on drugs is due to their friends / peer groups imposing pressure on them. Hence, it is important to have a better group of friends to avoid such harmful drugs and alcohol.
2. Seeking help from parents and peers: Help from parents and peer group should be sought immediately so that they can be guided appropriately. Help may even be sought from close and trusted friends. Getting proper advice to sort out their problems would help the young to vent their feelings of anxiety and guilt.
3. Education and counselling: Education and counselling create positive attitude to deal with many problems and to accept disappointments in life.
4. Looking for danger signs: Teachers and parents need to look for sign that indicate tendency to go in for addiction.
5. Seeking professional and medical assistance: Assistance is available in the form of highly qualified psychologists, psychiatrists and de addiction and rehabilitation programmes to help individuals to overcome their problems.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
Identify the mismatched pair and give reason.
(a) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(b) Filariasis – Wuchereria bancrofti
(c) Dermatomycosis – Trypanosoma gambiense
(c) Common cold – Rhino virus
Answer:
(c) Dermatomycosis – Trypanosoma gambiense is the mismatched pair. Dermatomycosis is a cutaneous infection caused by fungus.

Question 2.
In which form does the malarial parasite enter the human body through mosquito? What is the target site of parasite immediately after entering the host body?
Answer:

1. Sporozoites.
2. After entering the blood stream of host it finally reaches the liver cell.

Question 3.
A boy of ten years had suffered from chicken-pox. His grand mother consoled him that he is not expected to have it for the rest of his life. Whether his grandmother is right? If so how it happens?
Answer:
The infection produces not only antibodies but also generates memory in the lymphocytes. These cells recognize the pathogen on subsequent attack and generate antibodies to neutralize the pathogen, so his grandmother is right and the boy will not get the disease for rest of his life.

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