Category: Class 8

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Educational Development in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Educational Development In India 8th Standard Question 1.
The word ‘Veda’ is derived from ………
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Latin
(c) Prakrit
(d) Pauli
Answer:
(a) Sanskrit

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 2.
Which of the following was an important center for the learning in the ancient period?
(a) Gurukula
(b) Viharas
(c) Pauli
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Gurukula

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 3.
Nalanda, the oldest university in India was located in –
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(c) Bihar

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Question 4.
When did the UNESCO declare Takshashila as world heritage site?
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 5.
Which European country were the first to start Modern System of Education in India?
(a) British
(b) Danish
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
Answer:
(d) Portuguese

Question 6.
Which of the following Charter Act made a provision for an annual grant one lakhs Rupees for the promotion of Education in India?
(a) Charter Act of 1813
(b) Charter Act of 1833
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Charter Act of 1858
Answer:
(a) Charter Act of 1813

Question 7.
Which of the following Commission recommended to constitute the University Grants Commission?
(a) Sergeant Report, 1944
(b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948
(c) Kothari Commission, 1964
(d) National Education Policy, 1968
Answer:
(b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948

Question 8.
In which year the New Education Policy was introduced in India?
(a) 1992
(b) 2009
(c) 1986
(d) 1968
Answer:
(c) 1986

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The word ‘Veda’ means ………
2. Taxila ruins were discovered by ………..
3. ………. was the first ruler to establish a madrasa at Delhi.
4. The New Education Policy was revised in ………….
5. ……….. is the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right to Education Act of (RTE) 2009.
6. Mid – day meal program was introduced in schools in ………

Answers:

1. Knowledge
2. Archaeologist Alexander Cunningham
3. Iltutmish
4. 1992
5. SSA (Sarva Shiksha Abhiyanj
6. 1956

III. Match the following

1. I – Tsing – Saraswathi Mahal
2. Francis Xavier – Magnacarta of Indian Education
3. Wood’s Despatch – Western Education in Madras
4. Sarafoji II – University at Kochin
5. Sir Thomas Munroe – Chinese scholar

Answer:

1. I – Tsing – Chinese scholar
2. Francis Xavier – University at Kochin
3. Wood’s Despatch – Magnacarta of Indian Education
4. Sarafoji II – Saraswathi Mahal
5. Sir Thomas Munroe – Western Education in Madras

IV. State True or False

1. The writings of Charaka and Sushrutha were the sources of learning of medicine.
2. Temples were the centers of learning and played an active role in the promotion of knowledge.
3. The Jataka tales tell us that the kings and society took an active interest in promoting education.
4. Women education in India was not prevalent during the medieval period.
5. The RMSA scheme was implemented during tenth Five Year Plan.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) The Nalanda University was founded in fifth century C.E
(ii) In ancient India teachers had complete autonomy in all aspects from selection of students to designing their syllabi
(iii) In ancient times the teacher was called Kanakkayar.
(iv) The famous college during the Chola period was Kandhalur salai.

(a) i and ii are correct iii and iv are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) iii and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii are correct

Question 2.
Find out the Correct pair –
(a) Maktabs – Secondary School
(b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 – English education
(c) Operation Blackboard – Secondary Education Commission
(d) Salabhogam – Lands were given to temples
Answer:
(b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write about the importance of Gurukulas.
Answer:

1. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru / Acharya.
2. Many of these Gurukulas were named after the sages. Situated in forests, in serve and peaceful surroundings, hundreds of students used to learn together in Gurukulas.
3. This was known as ‘Gurukula System’ of education.

Question 2.
Name the most notable universities that evolved in ancient India.
Answer:
The most notable universities the emerged during that period were situated at –

1. Taxila
2. Nalanda
3. Valabhi
4. Vikramshila
5. Odantapuri
6. Jagaddala

Question 3.
Write a short note on Taxila.
Answer:

1. Taxila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north – western Pakistan.
2. It is an important archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in 1980.
3. Its fame rested on the university where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra.

Question 4.
Mention the education centres flourished in Cholas period?
Answer:

1. Rajaraja Chaturvedimangalam – Vedic College (Ennayiram in Former South Arcot District)
2. Tirubuvanai – Vedic College (Pondicherry)
3. Viravajendra – Medical School (Tiruvaduthurai)

Question 5.
Expand SSA and RMSA.
Answer:

1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
2. Rastriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)

Question 6.
What do you know about RTE.?
Answer:
Right to Education (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to all the children from the age of 6 to 14 years.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What were the sources of .education in ancient India?
Answer:
Education in Ancient India:

1. The historical Sources provide the information that from very early times, the tradition on teaching and learning had been in vogue in India.
2. The concept of Education might have originated from the Vedas.
3. The literal meaning the Sanskrit word ‘Veda’ is knowledge and the word derived from the word Vid, which means ‘to know’.

Gurukula System in ancient India :

1. In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed.
2. There were people in homes, villages and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life.
3. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru / Acharya.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph about the education under the British rule.
Answer:
History of education in British rule can be divided into four periods.

1. From the early days of the British rule upto 1813.
2. Period from 1813 – 1853
3. Period from 1854 – 1920
4. Period from 1921 – 1947

1. From the early days of the British Rule:

• The Company’s charter was renewed in 1813, which compelled the company to assume responsibility for the education of Indian’s, though on a very limited scale.
• Missionaries, non-missionaries like Raja Ram Mohan Roy of Bengal, Pachyappar of Madras, W. Frazer of Delhi contributed to the cause of education.

2. Period from 1813 – 1853:

• The second period was also marked by great educational controversies concerning the issues of educational policy, medium of instruction and method of spreading education.
• These controversies were partially set at rest by Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835.
• It also encouraging English education for the upper classes.

3. Period from 1854 – 1920:

• The Third phase of British – influenced education may be called the period of an All India Educational Policy.
• It commenced with Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch in 1854.

4. Period from 1921 – 1947 :

• This period may be called provincial autonomy.
• The Act of 1935 ushered a new era of educational advancement through the country.
• After the Second World War, a very important plan for educational development, known as the Sergeant Report (1944) was prepared.

Question 3.
Describe the National Policy on Education.
Answer:

1. The First National Educational Policy of 1968,marked a significant step in the history of education in post independent India.

2. It aimed to promote national progress, culture and to strengthen national integration.

3. In 1986, the Government of India introduced a New Education Policy.

4. The aim of New Education Policy (NEP) was to transfer a static society into a vibrant one with a commitment to development and change. It emphasized an equal opportunities for marginalized – sections of the country and the removal of disparity through scholarships, adult education and open universities, especially for rural India.

5. The New Education Policy called for a child – centered approach in primary education.

6. This policy launched operation of Blackboard to improve primary schools nationwide.

7. The New Education Policy was revised again in 1992.

8. It envisaged the formulation of National Curriculum Framework, emphasis on in – service education,improvement of facilities and streamlining of the evaluation system at the secondary stage.

Question 4.
Give a detailed account on education under Cholas.
Answer:
The Chola Period :

1. The Chola Period was the most brilliant and creative period in the Tamil Literature.
2. Tamil education enjoyed a greater connection with religion and temple.
3. Free education was given to people.
4. The curriculum and syllabi had a theoretical background.
5. From the inscription of that period, we. can now gain knowledge about the qualification of teacher, method of teaching etc.

The education centres flourished in Chola’s Period:

1. Rajaraja Chaturvedimangalam Vedic College (Ennayiram in Former South Arcot District).
2. Tirubuvanai Vedic College (in Pondicherry)
3. Viravajendra Medical School (in Tiruvaduthurai).

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
How does the flagship programme of SSA achieve Universal Elementary Education?
Answer:
The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is the Government of India’s flagship programme that was launched in 2000 – 01 to achieve Universal Elementary Education (UEE). SSA is now the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2009) (RTE). Right To Education (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to all the children from the age of 6 to 14 years. The SSA initiates a variety of innovation and activities related to schools.

IX. Mark the following places on the outline map of India

1. Nalanda
2. Taxila
3.Valabhi
4. Kanchi
5. Vikramshila
6. Delhi
7. Lucknow
8. Allahabad
9. Cochin
10. Calcutta
11. Madras
12. Chidambaram
Answer:

X. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of ancient educational centres and prepare an album.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 2.
Find out the historic importance of Nalanda, Taxila and prepare a power point presentation on it.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……… is derived from Sanskrit word
(a) Latin
(b) Prakrit
(c) Veda
(d) Pali
Answer:
(c) Veda

Question 2.
In 1986 …………. policy was introduced in India.
(a) New Education Policy
(b) New Agricultural Policy
(c) New Industrial Policy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) New Education Policy

Question 3.
………. Program was introduced in School in 1956.
(a) Educational
(b) Mid-day-meal
(c) Free Books Scheme
(d) Free Cycle
Answer:
(b) Mid-day-meal

Question 4.
………… means knowledge.
(a) Prakrit
(b) Pali
(c) Viharas
(d) Veda
Answer:
(d) Veda

Question 5.
Iltutmish was the first ruler to establish a ……… at Delhi.
(a) Madrasas
(b) School
(c) Dam
(d) Gurukulam
Answer:
(a) Madrasas

Question 6.
………. ‘Vid’ means:
(a) ‘Togo’
(b) ‘Toknow’
(c) ‘Torun’
(d) ‘Tostudy’
Answer:
(b) ‘To know’

Question 7.
Education is a continuous process of aquring and sharing of ………..
(a) Knowledge
(b) Skills
(c) Values
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8.
The concept of ……….. might have originated from the Vedas.
(a) Information
(b) Distribution
(c) Education
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Education

Question 9.
……… was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north – western Pakistait.
(a) Jataka
(b) Alexander
(c) Nalanda
(d) Taxila
Answer:
(d) Taxila

Question 10.
The UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in ……….
(a) 1980
(b) 1976
(c) 1986
(d) 1982
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 11.
………. played a vital role in importing education and served the centers of learning.
(a) Church
(b) Temples
(c) Both‘a’and‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Temples

Question 12.
Chanakya is said to have composed his ……….
(a) Jataka Tales
(b) Taxila
(c) Arthashastra
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Arthashastra

Question 13.
Archaeologist Alexandar Cunningham discovered its ruins in the mid ……….
(a) 15th Century
(b) 17th Century
(c) 18th Century
(d) 19th Century
Answer:
(d) 19th Century

Question 14.
In the later medieval era, the British came to India and introduced ……… education.
(a) Arabic
(b) Tamil
(c) English
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(c) English

Question 15.
…………. of Jaipur encouraged learning of scientific subjects.
(a) Maulana Sadruddin
(b) Ghaziuddin
(c) Ilthumis
(d) Raj a Jai Singh
Answer:
(d) Raja Jai Singh

Question 16.
Several Madrasas were set up by the ………. and nobles.
(a) Sultans
(b) Raja Jai Singh
(c) Maulana
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Sultans

Question 17.
……… came to India for trade and established trading companies.
(a) Arabs
(b) Europeans
(c) Japanese
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Europeans

Question 18.
The first college offering degrees on a completion of a course was started in ……..
(a) Madras
(b) Culcutta
(c) Goa
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(c) Goa

Question 19.
Charter of Act in 1813 made a provision for an annual grant of sum of ………. for the promotion of education.
(a) 1 lakh rupees
(b) 2 lakhs rupees
(c) 10 thousand rupees
(d) 5 lakhs rupees
Answer:
(a) 1 lakh rupees

Question 20.
Gandhiji evolved a scheme popularly known as the ……… scheme of Basic National Education.
(a) Wood’s Despatch
(b) Wardha Scheme
(c) SSA Scheme
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(b) Wardha Scheme

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Free education at secondary level was introduced in ……….
2. ……….. Rural College was established in 1975.
3. The First National Educational Policy of ………… marked a significant step in the history of education in post – independent India.
4. ……… program was introduced in school in 1956.
5. The Annamalai University was founded at ……….. in 1929.
6. The Madras University was founded in ……….
7. The First University in Tamil Nadu under the British rule ……….
8. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 introduced the department of public instruction in …………
9. ………….. came to Madurai during the time of Veerappa Nayak.
10. The Maratha ruler ……….. collected the old records and kept them in the Saraswathi Mahal Library.
11. ………….. the Governor of Madras Presidency in (1820 – 27).
12. Pradran is an important center of ………. in the country.
13. The curriculum and ………. had a theoretical background.
14. In ancient times, the teacher was called as …………
15. ………… period was the most brilliant and creative period in the Tamil literature
16. ……………. Kings patronized Sanskrit in an exemplary way.
17. The SSA is the Government of India flagship programme was launched in …………
18. In 1948 …………. commission was appointed to present a report on university education.
19. Free and compulsory primary education for all children up to the age of …………
20. The family of Guru functioned as a domestic school or an ………..
21. The ………. accounts given by Hiuen Tsang and I – Tsing.

Answer:

1. 1964 – 64
2. Gandhigram
3. 1968
4. Mid-day meal
5. Chidambaram
6. 1857
7. The Madras University
8. Madras Presidency
9. Fernandez
10. Sarfoji – II
11. Sir Thomas Munroe
12. higher education
13. syllabi
14. ‘Kanakkayar’
15. The Chola
16. The Pandya
17. 2000 – 01
18. Dr. Radhakrishnan
19. 14 years
20. Ashram
21. Jataka tales

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. c

IV. State True or False

1. The word derived from the word vid, which means ‘to understand’.
2. The Gurus and their students worked conscientiously together to become proficient in all aspects of learning.
3. In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed.
4. Taxila is an important archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in 1960.
5. The New Nalanda University is envisaged as a centre of inter – civilisational dialogue.
6. Women education in India was followed during the medival period.
7. The Revered Dr. Middleton, started a missionary college at Calcutta, which become famous as the Bishop’s college.
8. The fourth phase may be called the period of provincial autonomy.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True

V. Consider the following statements and Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) The Chola’s period free education was given to people.
(ii) Thinnappalli Koodam was established during the Vijayanagar rule.
(iii) Pradran is an important center of higher education in the country.
(iv) Fernandez, who came to Madurai during the time of Veerappa Nayak, established a primary school.

(a) (i) & (ii) are Correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are Correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Lord William – Western System of Education in India
(b) Sir Thomas Munroe – Creation of two school principal
(c) Fernandez – Printing press with Devanagari type
(d) Thirukkural – Stress the need for education
Answer:
(c) Fernandez – Printing press with Devanagari type

Question 3.
Find out the correct pair
(a) RMSA – College level
(b) SSA – Serva Shiksha Abhiyan
(c) Hiuen Tsang – Vidhyasathana
(d) The Pallava – ‘Kanakkayar’
Answer:
(b) SSA – Serva Shiksha Abhiyan

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is the role of the Teacher?
Answer:

1. Teachers had complete autonomy in all aspects from selection of students to designing their syllabi.
2. When the teacher was satisfied with the performance of the students, the course concluded.

Question 2.
Who introduced Modern System of Educational in India?
Answer:

1. The Portuguese were the first Europeans who started modem system of education in India.
2. Francis Xavier, a Jesuit, started a University at Cochin.
3. The first collage offering degrees on a completion of a course was started in Goa in (1575).

Question 3.
Write a short note on Wood’s despatch.
Answer:

1. The Wood’s Despatch (1854) is called the ‘Magna Carta’ of English education in India because it was the first declaration of British education policy for educating the masses at all levels.
2. But it resulted in the complete control on state education, divorcing it from Indian ideals and culture.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Jataka tales.
Answer:
The Jataka tales accounts given by Hiuen Tsang and I – Tsing (Chinese scholars) and other sources tell us that kings and society took an active interest in promoting education.

Question 5.
Write a few lines about Monasteries.
Answer:
Many monasteries and viharas were set up for monks and nuns to meditate, debate and discuss with the learned for their quest for knowledge during this period.

Question 6.
What are the characteristics of India’s traditional economy?
Answer:
India’s traditional economy was characterized by a blend of agriculture and handicrafts.

Question 7.
Write few Metal Industrial Centers found in India.
Answer:

1. Certain centers of metal industry were quite well known.
2. For example, Saurashtra was known for bell metal, Vanga for tin industry and Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.

Question 8.
Which is the oldest industry in India?
Answer:
Textile Industry was the oldest industry in India.

Question 9.
Write a short note on beginning of modern industries.
Answer:

1. The process of industrialization started in India from the mid-19th Century.
2. The beginning of modem industry is associated with the development in mainly plantations like jute, cotton and also steel.

Question 10.
Write a short note on self-reliance.
Answer:

1. Another positive aspect of industrial growth is the attainment of the goal of self reliance.
2. We have achieved self-reliance in machinery, plant and other equipment.

VII Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Explain education in Medieval India.
Answer:

1. The country was invaded by various foreign rulers and several traders from different part of the world.
2. Besides, religion, society and culture, education in medieval India also experienced a new perspective.
3. The aim of education during Muslim period (Medieval) was the illumination and extension of knowledge.
4. In the eleventh century, the Muslim rulers established elementary and secondary schools.
5. They founded primary schools (maktabs) in which students learnt reading, writing and basic Islamic prayers.
6. And secondary schools (madrasas) were established to teach advanced language skills. Several madrasas were set up by the Sultans and nobles.
7. The main objective of these madrasas was to train and educate the scholars who would become eligible for the civil service.
8. Iltutmish was the first ruler to establish a madrasas at Delhi during his rule. Gradually many madrasas came into existence.
9. In the later medieval era, the British came to India and introduced English education with the coming of the European missionaries, Western education made firm advances in the country.
10. Various universities and thousands of colleges were formed and popularity of education increased.

Question 2.
Explain the Educational Development in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The pattern of education in Tamil Nadu was not merely reading and understanding of books but listening to learned persons.
2. The Thirukkural stresses the need for education and warns the dangers of illiteracy.
3. In ancient times, the school was called (Palli) and the teacher was a Kanakkayar.
4. Hiuen Tsang gives a graphic picture about Kanchi Buddhist centre and Kanchi, was considered as the main centre of learning.
5. The Chola period was the most brilliant and creative period in the Tamil literature.
6. Tamil education enjoyed a greater connection with religion and temple. Free education was given to people.
7. The curriculum and syllabi had a theoretical background.

Education Centres flourished in Cholas period :

1. Rajaraja Chaturvedimangalam was the famous seat of a Vedic College (Ermayiram in Former South Arcot District).
2. Tirubuvanai Vedic College (in Pondicherry).
3. Viravajendra Medical School (in Thiruvaduthurai).

Education Development in Pandya’s Kings:

1. The Pandya Kings patronised Sanskrit in an exemplary way.
2. It is revealed in the copper plates.
3. The educational institutions of that period were called as (Ghatigai, Salai and Vidhyasathana).
4. Lands were given to teacher. They were known as Salabhogam (Eg. Vallabha Perunchalai at Kanyakumari).
5. The famous college during the Pandya regime was Kandhalur Salai.
6. Mutts occupied a significant place in the promotion of education.

Vijayanagar Rule:

1. Learning flourished under the Vijayanagar rule.
2. Many educational institution were established under their patronage.

Nayak Rule:

1. Thinnappalli Koodam was established during the Nayak Rule.

Question 3.
Explain educational development in modern period.
Answer:

1. Fernandez, who came to Madurai during the time of Veerappa Nayak, established a primary school.
2. Tha Maratha ruler Sarfoji II collected the old records and kept them in the Saraswathi Mahal Library.
3. He also had a printing press with Devanagari type, which was located at Tanjore.
4. Pradran is an important center of higher education in the country.
5. Sir Thomas Munroe the Governor of Madras Presidency (1820 – 27) was highly responsible for the introduction of Western education in Madras Presidency.
6. The Education Commission of Munroe recommended the creation of two principal schools (Collectorate and Tahsildare Schools) in each district.
7. In 183 5 Lord William passed a resolution favouring the introduction of western system of education in India.
8. Wood’s Despatch of 1854 introduced the department of public instruction in Madras Presidency. Grant – in – aid was given to all schools.
9. The Madras University was founded in 1857. It was the first University in Tamil Nadu under the British rule.
10. In 1882 the Local Boards Act was passed. The Board was empowered to open new schools and to get grants from the government.
11. In 1938, all subjects except English were taught in Tamil in Schools.
12. The Annamalai University was founded at Chidambaram in 1929. This was the next step in the development of higher education.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 People’s Revolt

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science People’s Revolt Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

People’s Revolt Class 8 Question 1.
The Palayakkarar system was instituted in –
(a) 1519
(b) 1520
(c) 1529
(d) 1530
Answer:
(c) 1529

Question 2.
Which of the following Palayakkarar of Tamil Nadu was the pioneer against the English rule –
(a) Pulitevan
(b) Yusuf Khan
(c) Kattabomman
(d) Marudhu brothers
Answer:
(a) Pulitevan

Question 3.
Colin Jackson was the collector of –
(a) Madurai
(b) Tirunelveli
(c) Ramanathapuram
(d) Tuticorin
Answer:
(c) Ramanathapuram

Question 4.
Veera Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at the fort of –
(a) Panchalamkurichi
(b) Sivagangai
(c) Tiruppathur
(d) Kayathar
Answer:
(d) Kayathar

Question 5.
Velu Nachiyar was a queen of –
(a) Nagalapuram
(b) Sivagiri
(c) Sivagangai
(d) Virapachi
Answer:
(c) Sivagangai

Question 6.
Tiruchirapalli proclamation was issued by –
(a) Marudhu Pandiyars
(b) Krishnappa Nayak
(c) Velu Nachiyar
(d) Dheeran Chinnamalai
Answer:
(a) Marudhu Pandiyars

Question 7.
Which of the following place was associated with Dheeran chinnamalai –
(a) Dindigul
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Odanilai
Answer:
(d) Odanilai

Question 8.
Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at –
(a) Central India
(b) Kanpur
(c) Delhi
(d) Bareilly
Answer:
(a) Central India

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Eastern Palayms were ruled under the control of ………………
2. Vishwanatha Nayakar instituted the Palayakarar system with the consultation of his minister ……………….
3. The ancestors of Kattabomman belonged to ……………….
4. ……………… was known by Tamils as Veera mangai and Jhansi Rani of south india.
5. ……………… was called as ‘lion’ of sivagangai.
6. ……………… was described the revolt of 1857 as First War of India Independence.

Answer:

1. Kattabomman
2. Ariyanatha Mudaliyar
3. Andhra
4. Velu Nachiyar
5. Chinna Marudu
6. V.D. Savarkar

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. v
2. iii
3. iv
4. ii
5. i.

IV. State true or false

Question 1.
The Vijayanagar rulers appointed Nayaks in their provinces.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Sivasubramania was the minister of Marudhu pandiyas.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Sivasubramania was the minister of Kattabomman.

Question 3.
Kattabomman was hanged on 17th October 1799.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Fettah Hyder was the elder son of Tippu Sultan.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick (V) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) The Vellore revolt was held in 1801.
(ii) The family members of Tippu were imprisoned at Vellore fort after the fourth Mysore war.
(iii) At the time of Vellore revolt, the Governor of Madras was Lord William Bentinck.
(iv) The victory of revolt of Vellore against British was one of the significant event in the history of India.

(a) i & ii are Correct
(b) ii & iv are Correct
(c) ii &iii are correct
(d) i, ii & iv are correct
Answer:
(c) ii &iii are correct

Question (a)
Find out the wrong pair :

1. Marudu Pandiyar – Ettayapuram
2. Gopala Nayak – Dindigul
3. Kerala Varma – Malabar
4. Dhoondaji – Mysore

Answer:
1. Marudu Pandiyar – Ettayapuram

Question (b)
Find out the odd one :
Kattabomman, Oomaithurai, Sevathaiah, Tippu Sultan.
Answer:
Tippu Sultan

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What you know about the Palayakarars? Name some of them.
Answer:
1. Palayakkarar was the holder of a territory or a Palayam. These Palayams were held in military tenure and extended their full co – operation to be need of the Nayaks. The Palayakkarars collected taxes, of which one third was given to the Nayak of Madurai another one third for the expenditure of the army and rest was kept for themselves.

2. Kattabomman, Pulithevan, Marudu Brothers, Dheeran Chinnamalai.

Question 2.
What was the part of Velu Nachiyar in the Palayakkarar revolt?
Answer:
1. Velu Nachiyar was a queen of Sivagangai. she was married to Muthu Vaduganathar, the Raja of Sivagangai. In 1772, the Nawab of Arcot and the British troops invaded Sivagangai. They killed Muthu Vaduganathar in Kalaiyar Koil battle. Velu Nachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived under the protection of Gopala Nayaker at Virupachi near Dindigul.

2. During this period she organised an army and employed her intelligent agents to find where the British stored their ammunition.

3. She arranged a suicide attack by a faithfull follower Kuyili, a commander of Velu Nachiar. She recaptured Sivagangai and was again crowned as queen with the help of Marudu brothers.

Question 3.
Who were the leaders of Palayakkarar confederacy in the south Indian rebellion?
Answer:
Marudu Pandiar of Sivaganga, Gopala Nayak of Dindugal, Kerala Varma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaji of Mysore.

Question 4.
What was the importance of Tiruchirappalli proclamation?
Answer:

1. The Marudu Pandyas issued a proclamation of Independence called Tiruchirappalli Proclamation in June 1801.
2. It was the first call to the Indians to unite against the British.
3. A copy of the proclamation was pasted on the walls of the Nawab’s palace in the fort of Tiruchi and another copy was placed on the walls of the Vaishnava temple at Srirangam. Thus Marudu brothers spread the spirit of opposition against the English everywhere.
4. As a result many Palayakkarars of Tamil Nadu went on a rally to fight against the English.

Question 5.
Bring out the effects of the Vellore revolt.
Answer:
Effects of the Vellore Revolt:

1. The new methods and uniform regulations were withdrawn.
2. The family of Tippu as a precautionary measure was sent to Calcutta.
3. William Cavendish Bentinck was removed from his service.

Question 6.
What was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
1. The immediate cause was the introduction of new Enfield Riffles in the army. The top of the cartridge of this rifle was to be removed by the mouth before loading it in the rifle. The cartridges were greased by the fat of pig and the cow.

2. The Indian sepoys believed that the British were deliberately attempting to spoil the religion of both the Hindus and the Muslims because while the Hindus revered the cow, the Muslims hated the pig.

3. The soldiers, therefore, determined to refuse their service and, ultimately revolted.

4. Thus, the primary and the immediate cause of the revolt was the use of the greased cartridges.

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
What do you know about the Pulithevar?
Answer:
1. Pulithevar was the pioneer in Tamil Nadu, to protest against the English rule in India. He was the Palayakkarar of the Nerkattumseval, near Tirunelveli.

2. During his tenure he refused to pay the tribute neither to Mohammed Ali, the Nawab of Arcot nor to the English. Further he started opposing them. Hence, the forces of the Nawab of Arcot and the English attacked Pulithevar. But the combined forces were defeated by Pulithevar at Tirunelveli.

3. Pulithevar was the first Indian king to have fought and defeated the British in India. After this victory Pulithevan attempted to form a league of the Palayakkars to oppose the British and the Nawab.

4. In 1759, Nerkattumseval was attacked by the forces of Nawab of Arcot under the leadership of Yusuf Khan.

5. Pulithevar was defeated at Anthanallur and the Nawabs forces captured Nerkattumsevval in 1761.

6. Pulithevar who lived in exile recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764. Later, he was defeated by Captain Campell in 1767. Pulithevar escaped and died in exile without fulfilling his purpose, although his courageous trail of a struggle for independence in the history of South India.

Question 2.
Explain the events that led to conflict between Dheeran Chinnamalai and the british.
Answer:
1. Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom at Melapalayam in Chennimalai near Erode. His original name was Theerthagiri. He was a palayakkarar of Kongu country who fought the British East India Company.

2. The Kongu country comprising Salem, Coimbatore, Kamr and Dindigul formed a part of the Nayak kingdom of Madurai but had been annexed by the Wodayars of Mysore.

3. After the fall of the Wodayars, these territories along with Mysore were controlled by the Mysore Sultans. After the third and fourth Mysore wars the entire Kongu region passed into the hands of the English.

4. Dheeran Chinnamalai was trained by French military in modem warfare. He was along the side Tippu Sultan to fight against the British East India Company and got victories against the British.

5. After Tippu Sultan’s death Chinnamalai settled down at Odanilai and constructed a fort there to continue his struggle against the British. He sought the help of Marathas and Maruthu Pandiyar to attack the British at Coimbatore in 1800.

6. British forces managed to stop the armies of the allies and hence Chinnamalai was forced to attack Coimbatore on his own. His army was defeated and he escaped from the British forces.

7. Chinnamalai engaged in guerrilla warfare and defeated the British in battles at Cauvery, Odanilai and Arachalur. During the final battle, Chinnamalai was betrayed by his cook Nallapan and was hanged in Sankagiri Fort in 1805.

Question 3.
What were the causes for the Great revolt of 1857?
Answer:
1. The most important cause of revolt 1857 was a popular discontent of the British policy of economically exploiting India. This hurt all sections of society. The peasants suffered due to high revenue demands and the strict revenue collection policy.

2. Policies of doctrine of lapse, subsidiary alliance and policy of Effective Control created discontentment among people. Annexation of Oudh proved that even the grovelling loyalty can’t satisfy British greed for territories.

3. The conversion activities of Christian missionaries were looked upon with suspicion and fear. The priests and the maulavis showed their discontent against the British rule.

4. Abolition of practices like sati, female infanticide, support to widow remarriage and female education were seen by many as interference in their Indian culture by the Europeans.

5. The Indian sepoys were looked upon as inferior beings and treated with contempt by their British officers. They were paid much less than the British soldiers. All avenues of the promotion were closed to them as all the higher army posts were reserved for the British.

Question 4.
What were the causes for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
Various causes were responsible for the failure of the revolt:

1. Lack of organisation, discipline, common plan of action, centralised leadership, modem weapons and techniques.

2. The rebel leaders were no match to the British Generals. Rani Lakshmi Bai, Tantia Tope and Nana Saheb were courageous but they were not good generals.

3. Non – participation of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, western Punjab and Rajputana.

4. The modem educated Indians did not support the Revolts as they believed that only British rule could reform Indian society and modernize it.

5. The British managed to get the loyalty of the Sikhs, Afghans and the Gurkha regiments. The Gurkhas actually helped the British in suppressing the revolt.

6. The British had better weapons, better generals, and good organisation.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Prove that there was no common purpose among the leaders of the Great revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. The revolt did not have a clear leader. Bahadur Shah II was old and exhausted. He lacked military leadership.
2. At kanpur, Nana Sahib was proclaimed a Peshwa, who was he adopted son of the exited Peshwa Baji Rao II.
3. He believed that he was entitled to a pension from the British.
4. When he was refused to be given, he was compelled to revolt against them. Rani Lakshmi Bai and Tantia Tope fought for Jhansi and Gwaliar.
5. Begun of Awadh wanted to safeguard her territory.
6. Khan Bahadur khan fought against the British when they subjugated his government in Bareiley.
7. As such, they lacked unity and gave way for the easy victory of the British.

Ix. Map skill

Question 1.
On the Riyer map of India mark the following centres of the revolt of 1857.

1. Delhi
2. Lucknow
3. Meerut
4. Barrackpore
5. Jhansi
6. Gwalior
7. Kanpur

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History People’s Revolt Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Viswanatha instituted Palayakkarar system in ……………..
(a) 1546
(b) 1529
(c) 1539
(d) 1549
Answer:
(b) 1529

Question 2.
The Eastern Palayams were the ……………..
(a) Nayaks
(b) Maravas
(c) Chalukyas
(d) Pandyas
Answer:

Question 3.
The Western Palayams were the ……………..
(a) Cheras
(b) Cholas
(c) Maravas
(d) Nayaks
Answer:
(c) Maravas

Question 4.
The ancestors of …………… migrated to Tamil country during the 11th Century.
(a) Pulithevan
(b) Sivasubramaniam
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Kattabomman
Answer:
(d) Kattabomman

Question 5.
……………….. became a poligar during the rule of Nayaks.
(a) Jagaveera Pandiya Kattabomman
(b) Pulithevan
(c) Oomathurai
(d) Sevathaiah
Answer:
(a) Jagaveera Pandiya Kattabomman

Question 6.
After the decline of the Vijayanagar empire, the ……………. established their supremacy in the south.
(a) Nizamz
(b) Mughals
(c) Marathas
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(b) Mughals

Question 7.
…………….. the Governor of Madras council ordered Kattabomman to surrender.
(a) Colin Jackson
(b) S.R. Lushington
(c) Edward Clive
(d) Agnew
Answer:
(c) Edward Clive

Question 8.
In a clash at , SIva subramaniyam was taken as a prisoner.
(a) Pudukottai
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Kayathar
(d) Kallarpatti
Answer:
(d) Kallarpattil

Question 9.
In 1772 the ………….. laid seige of Sivaganga and captured it.
(a) Velu Nachiyar
(b) Nawab of Arcot
(c) Britian
(d) Palayakkaras
Answer:
(b) Nawab of Arcoti

Question 10.
Umaithurai and other fled to Sivaganga, where ………….. gave protection to them.
(a) Marudu Pandya
(b) Nawabs
(c) Pulithevar
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Marudu Pandya

Question 11.
…………… was the capital of chinna Marudhu.
(a) Palayamkottai
(b) Sivaganga
(c) Siruvayal
(d) Mysore
Answer:
(c) Siruayal

Question 12.
……………… policy followed by the English split the forces of the Palayakkarars.
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Divide and Rule
(c) Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Permanent Settlement
Answer:
(b) Divide and Rule

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. became the Nayak of Madurai in 1529.
2. The two blocs among the Palayakkarars were the ………….. and the ………….. blocs.
3. The Western Palayams were ruled under the control of ……………
4. ………….. was the capital of Virapandiyapuram.
5. ………….. was appointed collector in the place of Colin Jackson.
6. ………….. Raj a of pudukottai captured kattabomman and handed him over to the Britian.
7. Siva Subramania was executed at ……………
8. ………….. was more popular among the Marudu Brothers.
9. Penang in Malaya was called the ………….. island.
10. Chinnamalai was betrayed by his cook …………..

Answer:

1. Viswanatha
2. Eastern, Western
3. Pulithevan
4. Panchalankurichi
5. S.R. Lushington
6. Vijaya Ragunatha Tondaiman
7. Nagalauram
8. Chinna Marudu
9. Prince of Wales
10. Nallappan]

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. iv
3. v
4. i
5. ii.

IV. State True or False

Question 1.
Oomathurai was the brother of Veerapandya Kattabomman.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In 1772, the British laid seige of sivaganga and captured it.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In 1772, the Nawab of Arcot laid seige of sivaganga and captured it.

Question 3.
V.D. Savarkar calls the Vellore revolt of 1806 as the prelude to the first war of Indian Independence.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Lord Canning called the British army deputed to Germany by Britain to Calcutta.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Lord Canning called the British army deputed to China by Britain to Calcutta.

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) In May 1801, English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Tiruchi areas.
(ii) The Maruthu brothers were executed in the fort of vellore.
(iii) Oomathurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalankurichi.
(iv) The Karnataka Treaty was signed in 1805.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i, ii and iv are correct
Answer:
(c) i and iii are correct

Question 2.
Find out the wrong Pair

1. Periya Marudu – Vella Marudhu
2. Pulithevan – Nerkattum seval
3. Tippu sultan – Kanpur
4. Dheeran Chinnamalai – Erode

Answer:
3. Tippu sultan – Kanpur

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What was the main causes of rivalry between the English and Kattabomman?
Answer:
Based on the Carnatic treaty of 1792, the company gained the right to collect taxesfrom Panchalamkuruchi. The collection of tribute was the main cause for the rivalry between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 2.
Why did the Madras Goverment direct the collector to Summon the Palavakkarar (Kattabomman)
Answer:
In 1798, Colin Jackson, the collector of Ramanathapuram wrote letters to Kattabomman asking him to pay the tribute arrears. But Kattabomman replied that he was not in a position to remit the tribute due to the famine in the country. Colin Jackson got angry and decided to send an expedition to punish Kattabomman. So the Madras government directed the collector to summon the Palayakkarar at Ramanathapuram and hold a discussion.

Question 3.
What action was taken against the collector for his misbehaviour at Ramanathapuram?
Answer:
Kattabomman wrote a letter to the Madras Council narrating the behaviour of the Collector Colin Jackson. Edward Clive, the Governor of Madras dismissed the Collector for his misbehaviour and released SivaSubramania.

Question 4.
Write a note on Tiruchirpalli proclamation.
Answer:
Marudu Pandyan of Sivaganga formed the South Indian Confederacy of rebels against the British, along with the neighbouring Palayakkarars. This confederacy declared a proclamation which came to be known as Tiruchirappalli Proclamation.

Question 5.
Why did the company order the army to march to Panchalamkurchi?
Answer:
Kattabomman tried to establish his influence over Sivagiri,who refused to join with alliance of the rebels. Kattabomman advanced towards Sivagiri. But the Palayakkar of Sivagiri was a tributary to the Company. So the Company considered the expedition of Kattabomman as a challenge to their authority. So the Company ordered the army to march to Panchalamkuruchi.

Question 6.
Why did the company wage war against Sivaganga?
Answer:
Kattabomman was hanged to death and his brother Umaithurai and others fled to Sivaganga, where Marudu Pandya gave protection to them. The merchants of Sivaganga did not like the interference of the company in their internal politics. The company waged war against Sivaganga for these two causes.

Question 7.
How did the Vellore fort become the meeting ground of the rebel forces of South India?
Answer:
The Vellore fort consisted of large majority of Indian troops, a good part of it recently been raised in Tirunelveli after the Palayakarar uprising of 1800. Many of the trained soldiers of the various Palayams were admitted into the English army. Thus the Vellore fort became the meeting ground of the rebel forces of South India.

Question 8.
State the causes for the Vellore revolt.
Answer:
Causes for the revolt:

1. The strict discipline, new weapons, new methods and uniforms were all new to the sepoys.
2. The sepoys were asked to shave the beard and to trim the moustache.
3. The wearing of religious mark on the forehead and the use of earrings were also banned.
4. The English treated the Indian sepoys as their inferior. There was the racial prejudice.

Question 9.
How did the British regain their lost positions after the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
Lord Canning, the governor-general took immediate steps to suppress the revolt. He collected the forces of Madras, Bombay, Sri Lanka and Burma. On his own initiative, he called the British army which was deputed to China by Britain to Calcutta. He ordered the loyal Sikh army to proceed to Delhi immediately. The British regained their lost positions very soon.

Question 10.
Mention the places of 1853 revolt and the Indian leaders involved.
Answer:
Places of Revolt:

• Delhi
• Lucknow
• Kanpur
• Jhansi & Gwalior
• Bareilly
• Bihar

Indian Leaders:

• Bahadur Shah II
• Begum Hazrat Mahal
• Nana Saheb
• Lakshmi Bai, Tantia tope
• Khan Bahadur Khan
• Kunwar Singh

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Narrate the fall of Panchalamkurchi.
Answer:
1. Major Bannerman moved his army to Panchalamkuruchi on 5th September. They cut of all the communications to the Fort. In a clash at Kallarpatti, Siva Subramaniyam was taken as a prisoner. Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.

2. Vijaya Ragunatha Tondaiman, Raja of Pudukottai, captured Kattabomman from the jungles of Kalapore and handed over to the Company. After the fall of Panchalamkuruchi, Bannerman brought the prisoners to an assembly of the Palayakkarars and after trial sentenced them to death. Sivasubramania was executed at Nagalapuram.

3. On the 16th October ViraPandya Kattabomman was tried before an assembly of Palayakkarar, summoned at Kayathar. On 17th October 1799, Kattabomman was hanged at the fort of Kayathar. Kattabomman’s heroic deeds were the subject of many folk ballads which kept his memory alive among the people.

Question 2.
Explain the course and suppression of the Vellore Revolt.
Answer:
Course of the Vellore Revolt:

1. The Indian soldiers were waiting for an opportunity to attack the English officers. Tippu’s family also took part. Fettah Hyder, the elder son of Tippu, tried to form an alliance against the English.

2. On July 10th in the early morning the native sepoys of the 1 st and 23rd Regiments started the revolt. Colonel Fancourt, who commanded the garrison, was their first victim. The fort gates were closed. Meantime, the rebels proclaimed Futteh Hyder, as their new ruler. The British flag in the fort was brought down. The tiger-striped flag of Tippu Sultan was hoisted on the fort of Vellore.

Suppression of the Vellore Revolt:

1. Major Cootes who was outside the fort rushed to Ranipet and informed Colonel Gillespie. Col. Gillespie reached Vellore fort. He made an attack on the rebel force. The revolt was completely suppressed and failed. Peace was restored in Vellore.

2. On the whole, 113 Europeans and about 350 sepoys were killed in the uprising. The revolt was suppressed within a short period. It was one of the significant events in the history of Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Describe the Course of the 1857 Revolt.
Answer:
On 10 May 1857, the Sepoys of the third cavalry at Meerut openly revolted by swarming the prisons and releasing their comrades. They were immediately joined by the men of the 11th and 20th Native Infantries, and they murdered some English officers and then marched to Delhi. The arrival of Meerut sepoys at Delhi on 11th May and declared of Bahadur Shah II as the Emperor of India. Delhi became the centre of the Great Revolt and Bahadur Shah, its symbol.

The revolt spread quickly. There were mutinies at Lucknow, Kanpur, Jhansi, Bareilly, Bihar, Faizabad, and many other places in north India. Many of them . found that it was a good opportunity to bum the papers of their landlords. Many others whose titles and pensions were abolished by the British who participated in it, inorder to take revenge. The Muslim leaders and Maulvis sought the opportunity of establishing the Muslim rule in India after turning out the British.

Question 4.
What were the consequences of the 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Consequences of the Revolt:

1. The Revolt of 1857 marked a turning point in the history of India. It led to changes in the system of administration and the policy of the Government.
2. The administration of India was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown through the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ in 1858.
3. The governor general was given the title of viceroy.
4. The Board of Directors and the Board of Control were replaced by the Council of 15 members headed by the Secretary of State to supervise Indian affairs.
5. The Indian Army was thoroughly reorganised. More Britishers were employed in the army.
6. The British military policy came to be dominated by the idea of ‘divide and counterpoise’.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 Movements

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Movements Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Movement In Animals Question 1.
Which of the following parts of our body help us in movement?
(i) Bones
(ii) Skin
(iii) Muscles
(iv) Organs
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (ii)
Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)

Movement In Animals Class 8 Question 2.
Which one of the following organisms lack muscles and skeleton for movement?
(a) Dog
(b) Snail
(c) Earthworm
(d) Human being
Answer:
(b) Snail

Movements In Animals 8th Standard Question 3.
……………… joints are immovable.
(a) Shoulder and arm
(b) Knee and joint
(c) Upper jaw and skull
(d) Lower jaw and upper jaw
Answer:
(c) Upper jaw and skull

Movements In Animals Class 8 Question 4.
Why do underwater divers wear fin-like flippers on their feet?
(a) To swim easily in water
(b) To look like a fish
(c) To walk on water surface
(d) To walk over the bottom of the sea (sea bed).
Answer:
(a) To swim easily in water

Movements In Animals Class 8 Samacheer Videos Download Question 5.
External ear (pinna) is supported by –
(a) bone
(b) cartilage
(c) tendon
(d) capsule
Answer:
(b) cartilage

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Biology Book Solutions Question 6.
Cockroach moves with the help of its –
(a) leg
(b) bone
(c) muscular foot
(d) whole body
Answer:
(d) whole body

Question 7.
Which one of the following categories of vertebrae are correctly numbered?
(a) Cervical – 7
(b) Thoracic – 10
(c) Lumbar – 4
(d) Sacral – 4
Answer:
(a) Cervical – 7

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Movement of organisms from place to place is called ………………..
2. ……………….. refers to change in position of the part of an organisms body.
3. A structure which provides rigid frame work to the body is called ………………..
4. Axial skeleton in human consists of ……………….., ……………….., ………………..and …………………
5. Appendicular skeleton in human consists of ……………….. and …………………
6. The place where two bones meet is termed as …………………
7. ……………….. is attached to soft parts of the body like blood vessels, iris, bronchi and the skin
8. ……………….. muscle makes pupil of eyes wider.

Answer:

1. locomotion
2. Movement
3. skeleton
4. Skull facial bones. sternum. ribs, vertebral column
5. Pelvic, Pectoral girdle
6. Joint
7. Smooth muscle
8. Radial

III. State True or False. If false, correct the statement:

Question 1.
Skull in humans consists of 22 bones.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
There are 12 pairs of ribs in human body.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Pelvic girdle is a part of axial skeleton.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Pelvic girdle is a part of appendicular skeleton.

Question 4.
Hinge joint is slightly movable joint.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Cardiac muscle is a voluntary muscle.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Cardiac muscle is a involuntary muscle.

Question 6.
The flexor and extensor muscle of the arm are antagonistic muscles.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer very briefly

Question 1.
What is skeleton?
Answer:

1. The skeleton system provides the hard structure or framework to the human body which supports and protects the body.
2. It is composed of connective tissues like bones, cartilage, tendons and ligaments.

Question 2.
What is cranium?
Answer:

1. Skull has 22 bones of which 8 bones are fixed together to form the cranium.
2. It is called brain box since it protects the brain.

Question 3.
Why our backbone is slightly movable?
Answer:
In the backbone, vertebrae are joined by gliding points, which allow the body to be bent back, front or side wards.

Question 4.
Differentiate axial and appendicular skeleton.
Answer:
Axial skeleton:
The axial skeleton consists of the bones along the axis, or central line of the human body and consists of the skull, facial bones, sternum, ribs, and vertebral column.

Appendicular skeleton:
The appendicular skeleton contains the bones in the appendages of the body, as well as the structures that connect the appendages to the axial skeleton. It comprises the shoulder girdle; the arm, wrist, and hand bones; the pelvic girdle; and the leg, ankle, and foot bones.

Question 5.
What is ligament?
Answer:
A ligament is a band of strong fibrous tissue which connects a bone to a bone.

Question 6.
Define Muscle.
Answer:
Muscles are long bundles of contractile tissue, which has a fixed end (Origin) and movable end which pulls some other part.

Question 7.
Differentiate tendons and ligament.
Answer:
Tendon:

1. They are made of elastic tissue.
2. They attach muscle to a bone

Ligament:

1. They are short bands of tough fibrous connective tissues.
2. They connect one bone to another

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Differentiate between the following.

1. Movement and Locomotion.
2. Endoskeleton and Exoskleton
3. Pectoral and Pelvic girdle
4. Ball and socket Joint and Hinge Joint
5. Voluntary and Involuntary muscle

Answer:
1. Movement and Locomotion

Movement:

• Movement is the act of changing the place or position by one or more parts of the body.
• It can either be voluntary or involuntary.
• A movement takes place at the biological level.
• Movement requires energy.

Locomotion:

• Locomotion is the movement of an organism from one place to another.
• It is always voluntary.
• Locomotion takes place at the organism level.
• Locomotion doesn’t necessarily require energy.

2. Endoskeleton and Exoskleton

Endoskeleton:

• It is the skeleton found inside the body.
• It originals from mesoderm.
• Example: Human beings.

Exoskleton:

• It is the skeleton found on the exterior layer of the body.
• It originals from embryonic ectoderm or mesoderm.
• Example: Scales of fish feathers of birds

3. Pectoral and Pelvic girdle

Pectroal girdle:

• It is situated in the shoulder region.
• It gives articulation to forelimbs.
• The shoulder blade and collar bone remain separate.
• They are comparatively lighter.

Pelvic girdle:

• It is situated in the hip region.
• It gives articulation to legs or hind limb.
• Three bones (ilium, ischium and pubis) are fused to form a single hip bone.
• They are strong to take upto lot of stress

4. Ball and socket Joint and Hinge Joint

Ball and socket Joint:

• A ball shaped head of one bone articulates with a cup like socket of j an adjacent bone.
• Movement can occur in three planes. This joint allows the greatest range of movement.
• Example: Shoulder, Hip

Hinge Joint:

• A cylindrical protrusion of one bone articulates with a trough-shaped depression of an adjacent bone.
• Movement is restricted to one plane. This joint allows bending and straightening only.
• Example: Elbow Knee Ankle

5. Voluntary and Involuntary muscle:

Voluntary muscle:

• They are striated (Multinucleate muscles and unbranched) muscles.
• They are attached to bones.
• Example: found in arms, legs
• They are used as per our will.

Involuntary muscle:

• They are non – striated (Single muscle, central nucleus) muscles.
• They are attached to soft parts of the body like blood vessels, Iris, Skin etc.
• They are not under our control.

Question 2.
What are antagonistic muscles? Give one example.
Answer:

1. Muscles often work in pairs which work against each other. These are called antagonistic pairs.
2. The muscles in the upper arm control the bending and straightening of the arm.
3. The two muscles, the biceps and triceps are working against each other.
4. When the biceps contracts the lower arm is raised and the arm bends.
5. In this position the triceps muscle is relaxed.
6. To straighten the arm the reverse happens.
7. The triceps contracts straightening the arm, while the biceps relaxes.

Question 3.
How is the skeleton of a bird well-suited for flying?
Answer:

1. A bird has streamlined body. Its bones are light and strong.
2. They are hollow and have air spaces between them.
3. The hind limbs of birds are modified as claws, which help them to walk and to perch.
4. The breast bones are modified to hold massive flight muscles which help in moving wings up and down.
5. Birds have special flight muscles and the forelimbs are modified as wings.
6. The wings and tail have long feathers, which help in flying. Birds show two types of flight: gliding and flapping.

Question 4.
What are the functions of skeleton in human body?
Answer:
The skeletal system serves five important functions in the human body:

1. It provides structure and shape to the body.
2. It supports and surrounds the internal organs of the body.
3. Calcium and phosphorus, the two minerals that the body needs for important regulatory functions, are stored inside the bones.
4. Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.
5. The bones of the skeletal system act as levers for muscular action.

Muscular movement would not be possible without tendons (fibrous cords of tissue that attach muscle to bone) and ligaments (fibrous cords of tissue that attach bone to bone).

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Name the different types of joints? Give one example for each type.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write about the human axial skeleton, giving suitable labelled diagram.
Answer:
The axial skeleton consists of the bones along the axis or central line of the human body. It consists of the skull, facial bones sternum, ribs and vertebral column.

Skull:

1. It is a hard structure made of 22 bones.
2. 8 bones are fixed together to form the cranium and 14 hones fuse to form the face.
3. The lower jaw is the only movable bone of the skull.

Vertebral column:

1. It is called the backbone and runs of the back of the body.
2. It is made of 33 individual bones called vertebrae as follows :
   • 7 Cervical vertebrae
   • 12 Thoracic vertebrae
   • 5 Lumbar vertebrae
   • 5 Fused sacral vertebrae
   • 4 Fused coccygeal vertebrae
3. The hollow tube of the vertebral column contains the spinal cord.
4. Vertebrae are joined by gliding points which allow the body to be bent back, front or side – wards.

Function of vertebral column:

1. It protects the spinal cord
2. It supports the head
3. It serves as an attachment for ribs
4. Helps in walking, standing erect and posture.

Sternum or Ribcage:

1. It is a cone shaped structure in the chest region and made up of 12 pairs of ribs.
2. The ribs attached to the vertebral column at the back and the breast bone in the front.
3. There are 12 pairs of ribs.
   • First 10 pairs are attached to breast bone.
   • 2 pairs are called free floating ribs and are free in the front.
4. Rib cage can contract and expand during breathing.
5. It protects the lungs, hearts and a part to the liver.

Question 3.
Discuss various types of movements seen in living organisms.
Answer:
There are three types of movements:

1. Amoeboid movement:
It is brought about by pseudopodia which are appendages which move with movement of protoplasm within a cell.

2. Ciliary movement:
This movement is brought about by appendages called as cilia which are the hair-like extensions of the epithelium. Both these kinds of movements are seen with cells of the lymphatic system.

3. Muscular movement:
It is a more complex movement which is brought about by the musculoskeletal system. This type of movement is seen in the higher vertebrates.
Example: Human beings.

The movements brought about by the musculoskeletal system, comprising of the joints, skeleton and types of muscles.

Some of the movements in body parts of human are:

1. Movement of eyelids.
2. Movement of the heart muscles.
3. Movement of teeth and jaw.
4. Movement of arms and legs.
5. Movements of head.
6. Movements of neck.

Question 4.
What is a streamlined body? How does it help in the movement of animals that fly or swim in water?
Answer:
1. A streamlined body is one which is pointed at the ends and broad in the middle. When such a body travels through a fluid or gaseous medium it exhibits minimum friction or resistance. A body shape which is streamlined helps cut against the friction created by the medium around the moving body.

2. Streamlined body lowers the friction drag between a fluid, air or water and an object moving trough that fluid. Drag is a force that slows down motion. Streamlining reduces the surface area of the moving object.

3. Streamlining reduces friction of movement to a minimum thus decreasing overall drag. Fishes can save energy while swimming because of the streamlined body.

Question 5.
Write a short note on different types of muscles.
Answer:

Muscles found in higher vertebrates are of three types:

1. Striated or skeletal muscles or voluntary muscles.
2. Unstriated or smooth muscles or involuntary muscles.
3. Cardiac muscles.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Movements Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Gliding allows ………………..
(a) movement in two planes
(b) movement in three planes
(c) movement in one plane
(d) no movement
Answer:
(b) movement in three planes

Question 2.
The greatest range of movement is seen in ……………….. joint.
(a) saddle
(b) hinge
(c) ball and socket
(d) pivot
Answer:
(c) Ball and socket

Question 3.
The wrist bones are examples of ……………….. joint.
(a) condyloid
(b) saddle
(c) gliding
(d) hinge
Answer:
(a) condyloid

Question 4.
There are ……………….. types of movable joints.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(d) 6

Question 5.
……………….. is a immovable joint.
(a) Skull
(b) Lower jaw
(c) Spine
(d) Inner ear
Answer:
(a) Skull

Question 6.
The ……………….. is the strongest bone of human skeleton.
(a) femur
(b) skull
(c) vertebrae
(d) ribs
Answer:
(a) Femur

Question 7.
Flat bones are seen in …………………
(a) legs
(b) spine
(c) shoulder
(d) wrist ankle
Answer:
(c) shoulder

Question 8.
Irregular bones are seen in ………………..
(a) legs
(b) skull
(c) vertebral column
(d) ribs
Answer:
(e) vertebral column

Question 9.
Phalanges refer to bones of the ………………..
(a) ankle
(b) toes
(c) wrist
(d) knee
Answer:
(b) toes

Question 10.
……………….. is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle.
(a) Branched
(b) Multi nucleate
(c) Involuntary
(d) Smooth muscle
Answer:
(d) Smooth muscle

Question 11.
……………….. is not found in arm bone.
(a) Radius
(b) Humerus
(c) Patella
(d) Carpals
Answer:
(c) Patella

Question 12.
The hardest working muscle is found in the …………………
(a) skull
(b) eye
(c) thigh
(d) rib cage
Answer:
(b) Eye

Question 13.
……………….. is a bundle of contractile tissue.
(a) Bone
(b) Skeleton
(c) Muscle
(d) Joint
Answer:
(c) Muscle

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The body of cockroach is covered with exoskeleton made of ………………..
2. Setae are seen in ………………..
3. The Atlas/Axis joint is an example of ……………….. joint.
4. A bone is connected to another bone with a …………………
5. Bones are connected to muscles by …………………
6. Inflammation of joints can lead to a disease called …………………
7. The bones need two important minerals which are ……………….. and …………………
8. The endoskeleton originates from …………………
9. ……………….. is the smallest and lightest bone of human skeleton.
10. The ……………….. protects the brain.
11. ……………….. is the bone of the upper arm.
12. An immovable joint is found in the …………………

Answer:

1. chitin
2. earthworm
3. pivot
4. ligamcnt
5. tendon
6. Arthritis
7. calcium, phosphorous
8. mesoderm
9. Stapes
10. cranium
11. Humerus
12. upper jaw

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Muscles can contract, relax and lengthen.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Muscles can only contract and relax but cannot lengthen.

Question 2.
In the Iris, there are two sets of muscles.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Non-striated muscles are involuntary muscles.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Cardiac muscles are voluntary muscles.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Cardiac muscles are in voluntary muscles.

Question 5.
There are 14 pairs of ribs.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
There are 12 pairs of ribs.

Question 6.
Bone of upper jaw is a immovable bone.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Synovial fluid helps to reduce friction.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Joint between rib and breast bone is a fixed joint.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Joint between rib and breast bone is a slightly movable joint.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. b
4. d

Question 2.

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

Question 3.

Answer:

1. b
2. d
3. a
4. c

V. Very short Answers

Question 1.
Define locomotion.
Answer:
The movement of an organism from one place to another is known as locomotion.

Question 2.
How does the fish change direction?
Answer:
The caudal or tail fin helps in changing direction.

Question 3.
Name the types of flight seen in birds.
Answer:
Gliding and flapping.

Question 4.
Why do birds have hollow bones?
Answer:
Hollow bones have air spaces between them and make the body light. This helps the birds in flight.

Question 5.
Name the types of movements seen in animals.
Answer:

1. Amoeboid movement.
2. Ciliary movement
3. Muscular movement

Question 6.
Name two joints with examples.
Answer:

1. Ball and socket joint – Eg. Hip
2. Hinge joint – Eg. Elbow.

Question 7.
Name the types of muscles.
Answer:

1. Striated muscle
2. Non – striated muscle
3. Cardiac muscle

Question 8.
Name the regions of vertebral column and number of vertebrae in each.
Answer:

1. Cervical – 7
2. Thoracic – 12
3. Lumbar – 5
4. Sacral – 5
5. Coccygeal – 4

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
How are joints classified? Explain with example.
Answer:
The point at which two separate bones meet is called a joint Depending on the type of movement they allow, joints can be of three types: fixed, slightly movable and movable joints.

1. Fitted or Immovable joints:
In this type of joint, no movement is possible between the two bones. The structures between the bones of the skull box are examples of immovable joints.

2. Slightly movable joints:
Only very little (partial) movement occurs between the two bones. The joint between a rib and the breast bone or between the vertebrae is the example for slightly movable joint.

3. Freely movable joints:
In this type, varying degree of movements is possible between the two bones forming the joint. There are six major types of movable joints.

Condition:
The different types of movable joints are:

Question 2.
What is a synovial joints?
Answer:

A synovial joint is a joint which makes connection between two bones consisting of a cartilage lined cavity filled with fluid, which is known as a diarthrosis joint. These are the most flexible type of joint between bones, because the bones are not physically connected and can move more freely in relation to each other. Synovial joints have four main distinguishing features.

Question 3.
Explain the arrangement of arm bones.
Answer:

1. Arm bone is the upper limb made up of humems, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges.
2. All these bones are joined by hinge joints which allow the limb to move only in one direction.
3. Humems makes up the upper arm.
4. Fore – arm is made up of radius and ulna.
5. Wrist is made up of carpals. Palm is made up of metacarpals Fingers are made up of phalanges.

Students can Download English lesson 2 Crossing The River Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 2 Supplementary Chapter 2 Crossing The River

Read And Understand

A. Match the following

Answer:

1. e
2. c
3. d
4. f
5. a
6. b

B. Fill in the blanks.

1. Pundit have many _______ and _______
2. Moti is a poor
3. The milkmaid discharged her duties _______
4. Moti feels it as a _______to serve the great pundit
5. The pundit was an _______speaker
6. Moti assured to give the milk at the dawn _______

Answer:

1. disciples, admirers
2. milkmaid
3. faithfully
4. great privilege
5. eloquent
6. enthusiastically

C. Answer the following:

Crossing The River 8th Std Question 1.
What was the pundit’s discourse about?
Answer:
The pundits discourse was about God and Truth and similar tough and complex matters.

Crossing The River Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why did Moti, the milkmaid, feel happy?
Answer:
She left happy that she made a humble contribution towards the pundits physical well being by regularly supplying him with pure milk.

Crossing The River Summary 8th Standard Question 3.
What was the resolution of Moti?
Answer:
Moti’s resolution was that even if the landlord failed to pay her for the milk and her labour, she would not fail in her duty.

Crossing The River Book Back Answers Question 4.
Give reason for the pundit to ask for the milk at dawn.
Answer:
The pundit was under a vow for performing a certain ritual for which he needed the milk at down

8th English Crossing The River Question 5.
Why did Moti come late on the first day of-the ritual?
Answer:
She came late on the first day of the ritual because the boatman did not turn up that early even though Moti informed him of the need for her to cross the river.

Crossing The River 8th Standard Supplementary Question 6.
Mention an incident that shows the naivety of Moti.
Answer:
When Moti came late to pundits house, she explained that she couldn’t cross the river without the  of the boatman. When the pundit commented jocularly that one could cross even the ocean of life by uttering the name of Vishnu, she told him that she did not know about it. She thanked him for passing the secret on to her. The pandit laughed at her naivety.

Crossing The River Summary Question 7.
How did the milkmaid cross the river?
Answer:
She just uttered the name of Vishnu and walked across the river.

Crossing The River 8th Std Book Back Answers Question 8.
What was the secret shared by pundit to milkmaid?
Answer:
The secret was that one could cross even the ocean of life by buttering the name of Vishnu. This was shared by the pundit to the milkmaid.

8th Crossing The River Question 9.
How did the pundit appreciate the milk maid? Who else did he convey his thanks for?
Answer:
He appreciated the pain she had taken in getting up early, milking the cow and delivering the milk to him at dawn. He also asked the milkmaid to convey his thanks to the boatman.

Crossing The River Summary Class 8 Question 10.
Why did the pundit faint at the end of the story?
Answer:
When the pundit saw the mlilk maid crossing the river with ease, he was dumbstruck and almost fainted.

D. Identify the speaker:

1. “But I apply the secret?”
2. “Tell the boatman how pleased I am with him.”

Answer:

1. Moti, the milkmaid
2. The pundit

Step To Success

A. Select correct options to fill in the blanks.

1. As I _______in the rain for the bus to arrive, it appeared as ______ it would not arrive, ______ it took all my patience.
(a) weighted, though, so
(b) wetted, if, so
(c) waited, though, till
Answer:
(c) waited, though, till

B. Select option that correctly forms the 2nd pair similar to the 1st.

Question 1.
Bread : Yeast:: Curd : ?
(a) Germs
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Virus
Answer:
(b) Bacteria

Question 2.
Fungi: Fungus :: Species : ?
(a) Specey
(b) Specy
(c) Specie
(d) Species
Answer:
(d) Species
[Clue : The singular form of ‘Fungi’ is ‘Fungus’. And for ‘Species’, it is the same in singular, in plural.]

Question 3.
Throw : Worth :: Tide : ?
(a) Water
(b) Ocean
(c) Edit
(d) Sea
Answer:
(c) Edit

Question 4.
Lion: Forest :: Otter : ?
(a) Cage
(b) Water
(c) The Alps
(d) Burrow
Answer:
(b) Water

Connecting To Self

Question 1.

Answer:

Crossing The River Additional Questions

I Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The _____ was one only admirers of the Pundit.
(a) boatman
(b) landlord
(c) farmer
(d) helper
Answer:
(b) landlord

Question 2.
Moti _____ before the Pundit.
(a) sang
(b) wrote the secret
(c) prostrated
(d) shouted
Answer:
(c) prostrated

Question 3.
The Pundit was speaking about _____ and Truth.
(a) doctrine
(b) Life
(c) philosophy
(d) God
Answer:
(d) God

Question 4.
“One could cross the _____ of life by uttering the name of Vishnu”.
(a) river
(b) bay
(c) ocean
(d) sea
Answer:
(c) ocean

Question 5.
The story draws a _____ between scholarship and innocence.
(a) similarity
(b) analogy
(c) equivalent
(d) contrast
Answer:
(d) contrast

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The landlord had _______ a poor milkmaid,Moti,to the Pundit
2. She crossed the river by the help of a _______
3. Often the _______ himself received the milk.
4. What a great privilege it is to ______ a great Pundit?’

Answer:

1. Commissioned
2. ferry boat
3. pundith
4. serve

III. dentify the character and speaker:

1. “Well, sir, nobody had told me that!”
2. “That is secret!”
3. “Thank you sir, passing it on to me”
4. “Who then plied the boat for you?”
5. “You forgot the secret you passed on to me”
6. “What do you mean?”
7. “But I apply the secret!”

Answer:

1. Moti, the milkmaid
2. The Pundit
3. Moti, the milkmaid
4. The Pundit
5. Moti, the milkmaid
6. The Pundit
7. Moti, the milkmaid

IV. Write True or False against each statement:

1. The milkmaid did not do her duty sincerely.
2. The boatman did not turn up early morning.
3. The poor woman would hardly understand the importance of the wise observation of the Pundit.
4. The water remained knee deep for Moti.
5. The Pundit almost fainted.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match the following:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

VI. Give Very Short Answers :

Question 1.
Who was the landlord?
Answer:
He was one of the admirers of the Pundit.

Question 2.
What was the name of the milkmaid?
Answer:
The milkmaids name was Moti.

Question 3.
Who helped here to cross the river?
Answer:
The boatman helped her to cross the river.

Question 4.
Did Moti fail in her duty?
Answer:
No, Moti did not fail in her duty.

Question 5.
What did Moti do, when she reached the river-bank?
Answer:
She paid reverence to the river.

VII. Write Short Answers :

Question 1.
How did the milkmaid discharge her duty?
Answer:
The milkmaid discharged her duty faithfully, by delivering milk every morning.

Question 2.
What did the boatman tell to Moti?
Answer:
The boatman told her that it would not be possible for him to fly the boat in darkness as the river was in spate.

Question 3.
How does the story draw a contrast between scholarship and innocence?
Answer:
The story draws a contrast between the scholarship and innocence by demonstrating the miracle of faith.

VIII Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
“The Pundit was an eloquent speaker”.Elucidate.
Answer:
The celebrated Pundit had many disciples and admirers as he was an eloquent speaker. Whenever he gave a discourse, hundreds of people gathered to listen to him. The milkmaid also made it a point to listen to him as she was sure that the Pundit was speaking about God and Truth. The only one who was very near to God and Truth could command such wisdom’, she thought. She was happy that she made a humble contribution to supplying milk to the Pundit.

IX. Rearrange the jumbled sentences :

1. Among them was the landlord of the area who lived on the other side of the river.
2. The milkmaid discharged her duty faithfully day after day.
3. The celebrated Pundit had many disciples and admirers.
4. She crossed the river by the help of a ferry boat.
5. The landlord had commissioned a poor milkmaid Moti to supply milk to the Pundit.
Answer:
3,1,5,2,4
3.The celebrated Pundit had many disciples and admirers.
1. Among them was the landlord of the area who lived on the other side of the river.
5. The landlord had commissioned a poor milkmaid Moti to supply milk to the Pundit.
2. The milkmaid discharged her duty faithfully day after day.
4. She crossed the river by the help of a ferry boat.

X. Read the passage and answer the questions :

Question 1.
One day, while receiving the milk, the Pundit told Moti. “Woman! Can you bring the milk at the least an hour before the sunrise for only a month? I am under a vow for performing a certain ritual for which I need the milk that early.”
(a) Who was Moti?
Answer:
Moti was a milkmaid.

(b) What did the Pundit tell Moti?
Answer:
The Pundit told her to bring milk, an hour before the sunrise for only a month.

(c) Why did he say so?
Answer:
He said so because he was under a vow for performing a certain ritual.

Question 2.
Moti stepped out onto the road. It was a foggy dawn. No doubt the woman was kidding him – concluded the Pundit and he followed her tiptoe. Upon reaching the river-bank, Moti put her empty pot down and folded hands, paid obeisance to the river. Then, picking up the pot, she stepped into The water.

(a) How was the dawn?
Answer:
It was a foggy dawn.

(b) What did the Pundit conclude?
Answer:
The Pundit concluded that the milkmaid was kidding him.

(c) What did she do on reaching the river-bank?
Answer:
She folded her hands and paid reverence to the river.

Crossing The River Summary

The milkmaid, Moti, supplied milk to a celebrated Pundit who had many disciples and admirers. The milkmaid thought that it was a great privilege to serve a great Pundit and discharged her duties sincerely. One day, the Pundit asked her to deliver the milk at least an hour before sunrise, as he was under a vow for performing a certain ritual. The milkmaid agreed but came to deliver the milk long after sunrise. When questioned by the Pundit, she said that she couldn’t cross the river without the boatman. The Pundit commented jocularly that one could cross even the ocean of life by uttering the name of Lord Vishnu. She thanked the Pundit for passing on the secret to her.

Days passed and the period of Pundit’s vow came to an end. The Pundit thanked her and asked her to tell the boatman that he was pleased with him for his task. The milkmaid told him that she crossed the river without the boatman’s help. She just uttered the name of Vishnu and crossed the river. The Pundit was surprised to hear this. He followed her to know the truth. When he saw the milkmaid paying respect to the river and then crossing it with ease, he almost fainted.

While demonstrating the miracle of faith, the story also draws a contrast between scholarship and innocence. It shows the difference between a knowledge of there theory and the knowledge that works through one’s faith in God.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Changes Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Changes Around Us Text Book Exercises

I. Multiple choice questions

Changes Around Us Class 8 Question 1.
Burning of paper is a …………….. change.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Physical & chemical
(d) Neutral
Answer:
(b) Chemical

8th Science Changes Around Us Question 2.
The burning of matchstick is an example for chemical reaction based on
(a) Contact
(b) Electricity
(c) Light
(d) Catalyst
Answer:
(c) Light

8th Science Changes Around Us Book Back Answers Question 3.
…………….. metal undergoes rusting.
(a) Tin
(b) Sodium
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
Answer:
(d) Iron

8th Chemistry Guide Question 4.
The pigment responsible for browning of apples is …………….
(a) Hydrated iron (II) oxide
(b) Melanin
(c) Starch
(d) Ozone
Answer:
(b) Melanin

Matter Around Us Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Brine is a concentrated solution of ………………
(a) Sodium sulphate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Calcium chloride
(d) Sodium bromide
Answer:
(b) Sodium chloride

Changes Around Us Class 8 Ppt Question 6.
Limestone contains ………………. mainly.
(a) Calcium chloride
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium nitrate
(d) Calcium sulphate
Answer:
(b) Calcium carbonate

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 7.
Which of the following factor induces electrolysis?
(a) Heat
(b) Light
(c) Electricity
(d) Catalysis
Answer:
(c) Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Science Question 8.
In Haber’s process of producing ammonia is used as a catalyst.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Iron
(d) Nickel
Answer:
(c) Iron

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Standard Science Question 9.
Dissolved gases like sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides in rain water causes
(a) Acid rain
(b) Base rain
(c) Heavy rain
(d) Neutral rain
Answer:
(a) Acid rain

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Question 10.
…………….. is responsible for Global warming.
(a) Carbon di oxide
(b) Methane
(c) Chlorofluoro carbons
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Carbon di oxide

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Reactants → ……………….
2. Photosynthesis is a chemical reaction that takes place in presence of Iron objects undergo rusting when exposed to and ……………..
3. Iron objects undergo rusting when exposed to …………….. and ……………..
4. ……………… is the basic material to manufacture urea.
5. Electrolysis of Brine solution gives gases.
6. ……………… is a chemical substance which alters the speed of a chemical reaction.
7. ………………. is the enzyme responsible for browning of vegetables, fruits.

Answer:

1. Products
2. Sunlight
3. Water, oxygen
4. Ammonia
5. Chlorine and hydrogen
6. Catalyst
7. Poly phenol oxidase or tyrosinase

III. Write True Or False for the following

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Book Solutions Question 1.
A chemical reaction is a temporary reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
A chemical reaction is permanent.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science 8th Standard Question 2.
Change in colour may take place during a chemical reaction.
Answer:
True.

8th Standard Chemistry Guide Question 3.
Formation of slaked lime from quicklime is a endothermic reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Formation of slaked limed from quicklime is a exothermic reaction.

Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 4.
CFC is a pollutant.
Answer:
True.

Science Solution Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Browning of some vegetables and fruits is due to tannin formation.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Browning of some vegetables and fruits is due to melanin formation.

IV. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Guide Question 1.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. e
4. a
5. b

Question 2.

Answer:

1. e
2. c
3. d
4. b
5. a

V. Give Short Answers For The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define a chemical reaction. .
Answer:
Chemical changes are otherwise called as chemical reactions, because one or more substances (Reactants) undergo a reaction to form one or more new substances (Products).
Reactant(s) → Product(s)

Question 2.
Mention the various conditions required for a chemical reaction to occur.
Answer:
The conditions required for a chemical reaction to take place:

1. Physical contact
2. Solution of reactants
3. Electricity
4. Heat
5. Light
6. Catalyst

Question 3.
Define catalysis.
Answer:
Chemical substance used to alters the speed of the reaction is called catalyst and the process is called catalysis.

Question 4.
What happens when an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution?
Answer:
When iron nail is dipped in the solution of copper sulphate, copper is displaced by iron and forms ferrous sulphate. Thus, the blue colour of copper sulphate changes into green because of formation of ferrous sulphate.

Question 5.
What is pollution?
Answer:
Unwanted change in physical, chemical and biological properties of the environment. This is termed as pollution.

Question 6.
What is Tarnishing? Give an example.
Answer:
Tarnishing of metal articles:
Shiny metal surfaces and other articles lose their shining appearance due to chemical reactions on the surface. For example, silver articles become black on exposure to atmospheric air.

Similarly, brass vessels which contain copper as one of constituents develop a greenish layer on exposure to air for a long time. This is due to a chemical reaction between copper and moist air to form basic copper carbonate and copper hydroxide.

Question 7.
What happens to the brine during electrolysis?
Answer:
A concentrated solution of sodium chloride called Brine is electrolysed to produce chlorine and hydrogen gases along with sodium hydroxide. This is a very important reaction to produce chlorine industrially.

Question 8.
On heating, calcium carbonate gives calcium oxide and oxygen. Is it exothermic reaction or endothermic reaction?
Answer:
Endothermic reaction.

Question 9.
What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
Substances used to alter the speed of a chemical reaction, are called catalysts. For example, metallic iron is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process.

Question 10.
Why photosynthesis is a chemical reaction?
Answer:
1. Photosynthesis is a process in which light energy from the sun is used by the plants to prepare starch from carbon dioxide and water.

2. The sunlight uses the chemical reaction between carbon dioxide and water, which finally ends up in the production of starch (photo means light and synthesis means production). These chemical reactions in used by light are called as photochemical reactions.

Hot Questions

Question 1.
Explain the role of yeast in making cakes?
Answer:

1. Yeast is a key ingredient in the production of baked goods.
2. Yeast is a bio – organic catalyst carbon dioxide is generated by the yeast as a result of the breakdown of fermentable sugars in the dough and makes cakes to rise.

Question 2.
Justify the statement. Burning of fossil fuels is responsible for global warming.
Answer:
The combustion of fossil fuels also releases a large amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas which is responsible for global warming. Humans bum fossil fuels, releasing huge amounts of carbon pollution and trapping more and more heat in the atmosphere.

Question 3.
Discuss acid rain occurs due to emission of smoke from vehicles and industries.
Answer:

1. Rain becomes acidic in nature due to the presence of certain pollutants in the air released by cars and industrial processes.
2. Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide which react with the water molecules in the atmosphere.

Question 4.
Is rusting good for Iron materials? Explain.
Answer:
No. Rusting is not good for iron materials. Rust is a form of iron oxide. It occurs when iron combines with the oxygen in the air causing it to corrode. Rust can affect iron and its alloys. It makes them weaker, by replacing the strong iron with flaky powder.

Question 5.
Do all the fruits and vegetables undergo browning? Explain.
Answer:
No, not all the fruits. E nzymic browning can be observed in fruits such as apricots, pears, bananas, grapes and avocados and vegetables such as aubergines, potatoes, lettuce. The enzyme polyphenol oxidase or tyrosinase that when in contact with oxygen catalyses a biochemical reaction of plants phenolic compounds to brown pigments known as melanin, which results in the fruit or vegetable turning brown.

Question 6.
Classify the following day to day activities based on chemical reactions by physical contact, solutions of reactants, heat, light, electricity and catalyst.

1. Burning of crackers during festivals
2. Addition of water to quicklime to make it slaked lime
3. Silver ornaments become black on exposure to air for a longtime
4. Copper vessel kept in open air for long time

Answer:

1. Chemical reaction.
2. Exothermic reaction.
3. Tarnishing.
4. Rusting.

VI. Answer In Detail

Question 1.
Explain how food items are spoilt due to chemical reactions?
Answer:
1. Spoilage of food and vegetables:
Food spoilage may be defined as any change that causes food unfit for human consumption. The chemical reactions catalyzed by the enzymes result in the degradation of food quality such as development of bad taste and odour, deterioration and loss of nutrients.

Example 1 : Rotten eggs develop a bad smell due to formation of hydrogen sulphide gas.
Example 2 : Decaying of vegetables and fruits due to microbes.

2. Rancidity of fishes and meat:
Fishes and meat containing high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids that undergo oxidation causes bad odour when exposed to air or light. This process is called rancidity.

3. Apples and fruits turn brown when cut:

• Apples and some fruits turn brown due to chemical reaction with oxygen in air. This chemical reaction is called browning.
• The cells of apples, fruits and other vegetables contain an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase or tyrosinase, when come in contact with oxygen catalyses a biochemical reaction of plants, phenolic compounds to brown pigments known as melanins.

Question 2.
Explain the three types of pollution.
Answer:
Generally there are three types of pollutions viz air, water and land pollution. Due to increasing human activities lot of chemical substances are produced artificially which harm all the living and non – living things.
Types of chemical substances and their effects:

Question 3.
Explain any three conditions that is required for a chemical reaction to take place by citing one example each.
Answer:
Conditions required for a chemical reaction to take place:
Chemical reactions can be done through:

1. Physical contact
2. Solution of reactants
3. Electricity
4. Heat
5. Light
6. Catalyst

1. Chemical Reactions Based On Solution Of Reactants:
When we mix two substances (Reactants) in solution form, the chemical reaction takes place to form new substances (Products).
Example:

• Take small amount of solid silver nitrate and sodium chloride in a test tube. The reactants in solid state have no reactions.
• Dissolve the same reactants in water in separate test tubes.
• Mix both the solutions. Silver nitrate solution reacts with sodium chloride solution to form a white precipitate of silver chloride and sodium nitrate solution.
• From the above reaction, we infer that some chemical reactions proceed only in solution form not in solid form.

2. Chemical Reaction Based On Electricity:

• When electricity is passed through water containing small amounts of sulphuric acid, hydrogen and oxygen gases are liberated.
• Similarly, a concentrated solution of sodium chloride called Brine is electrolysed to produce chlorine and hydrogen gases along with sodium hydroxide.
• This is a very important reaction to produce chlorine industrially.
• From the above two reactions, we infer that some chemical reactions proceed only by the passage of electricity.
• Hence, such reactions are called as electrochemical reaction or electrolysis.

3. Chemical Reactions Based On Light:
Sunlight is important not only for us but also for plants as welll. As you know photosynthesis is a process in which light energy from the sun is used by the plants to prepare starch from carbon dioxide and water.
Example:
The sunlight uses the chemical reaction between carbon dioxide and water, which finally ends up in the production of starch (photo means light and synthesis means production). These chemical reactions is used by light are called as photochemical reactions.

VII. Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Kumar is going to build a house. To purchase the iron rods required for construction, he visited an Iron & steel shop nearby. The seller showed him some Iron rods which are fresh and good. He also showed him little older Iron rods which are brownish in appearance. The price of fresh rods are costlier than the older ones* the seller also gave some offer to older ones. Kumar’s friend Ramesh advised him not to buy the cheaper rods.

1. Is Ramesh right in his suggestion?
2. Could you explain the reason for his suggestion?
3. What are the values shown by Ramesh?

Answer::

1. Yes, Ramesh is right in his suggestion because old iron rods were rusted.
2. The older rods are brownish and they are rusted. Rusting destroys the quality of the iron rods and harmful for construction.
3. Responsible behaviour, correct decision, caring and awareness.

Question 2.
Palanikumar is a Lawyer. He lives in a costly flat. Due to high rent, he wants to shift his residence to a place where he has a chemical industry nearby. There the rent is very cheap and the area is less populated also. Rajasekar, his son studying VIII does not like this and likes to go to some other place.

1. Is Rajasekar right in his attitude?
2. Why did he refuse to go there?
3. What are the values shown by Rajasekar?

Answer:

1. Yes, Rajasekar is more concerned over his family health than saving money.
2. Rajasekar know that the air pollution from nearby chemical industry would be harmful and affect his family health.
3. Environmentally sensitive, awareness, caring and correct decision.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Changes Around Us Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water –
(a) Calcium hydroxide is formed
(b) White precipitate of CaO is formed
(c) Lime water turns milky
(d) Colour of lime water disappears
Answer:
(c) lime water turns milky

Question 2.
When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, the ash formed is –
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Yellow
(d) Pink
Answer:
(b) White

Question 3.
Rancidity can be prevented by –
(a) Adding antioxidants
(b) Storing food away from light
(c) Keeping food in refrigerator
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 4.
The reaction of H₂ gas with oxygen gas to form water is an example of –
(a) Combination
(b) Redox reaction
(c) Exothermic reaction
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Combination

Question 5.
On immersing an iron nail in CuSO₄ solution for few minutes, you will observe –
(a) No reaction takes place
(b) The colours of solution fades away
(c) The surface of iron nails acquire a black coating
(d) The colour of solution changes to green
Answer:
(d) the colour of solution changes to green

Question 6.
Chemically rust is –
(a) Hydrated ferrous
(b) Only ferric oxide
(c) Hydrated ferric oxide
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Hydrated ferric oxide

Question 7.
Both CO₂ and H₂ gases are –
(a) Heavier than air
(b) Colourless
(c) Acidic in nature
(d) soluble in water
Answer:
(b) Colourless

Question 8.
Fatty foods become rancid due to the process of –
(a) Oxidation
(b) Corrosion
(c) reduction
(d) hydrogenation
Answer:
(a) Oxidation

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… is the chemical name of rust.
2. ……………… is chemical name of slaked lime
3. ……………… is chemical name of limestone.
4. ……………… is a chemical substance is used in white washing.
5. The head of the matchstick contains ……………… and ………………
6. The sides of the matchbox contains ………………
7. The term electrolysis was introduced by ………………
8. When milk is mixed with coffee decoction, the colour of milk and decoction changes due to ………………
9. Acid rain is a result of ………………
10. Fishes and meat containing high levels of ……………….

Answer:

1. Iron oxide
2. Calcium hydroxide
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime)
5. Potassium chlorate, antimony tri sulphide
6. Red phrosphorous
7. Michael Faraday
8. Chemical reaction
9. Air pollution
10. Polyunsaturated fatty acids

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
The head of a matchstick contains red phosphorous.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The head of a matchstick contains potassium chlorate and antimony tri sulphide.

Question 2.
Lead nitrate produces brown gas on heating.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Photochemistry deals with chemical reactions involving light.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Ammonia is an important fertilizer in agriculture.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Urea is an important fertilizer in agriculture, but ammonia is the material used for the production of urea.

Question 5.
Decaying of vegetables and fruits due to microbes.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Catalyst inhibit the chemical reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Catalysts are used to alter the speed of a chemical reaction and increase the reaction rate.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

i. b
ii. a
iii. d
iv. c

Question 2.

Answer:

i. d
ii. a
iii. b
iv. c

Question 3.

Answer:

i. b
ii. c
iii. d
iv. a

V. Very short Answers

Question 1.
What are the conditions required for a chemical reaction to take place?
Answer:
Chemical reactions can be done through;

1. Physical contact
2. Solution of reactants
3. Electricity
4. Heat
5. Light
6. Catalyst.

Question 2.
What is electrolysis?
Answer:
Some chemical reactions proceed only by the passage of electricity. Hence, such reactions are called as electrochemical reaction or electrolysis.
Example:
When electricity is passed through water containing small amounts of sulphuric acid, hydrogen and oxygen gases are liberated.

Question 3.
What is brine commonly known as?
Answer:
Brine is a solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) and water (H₂O). Brine is a high concentration solution of salt in water.

Question 4.
How is chlorine prepared industrially?
Answer:
A concentrated solution of sodium chloride called BRINE is electrolysed to produce chlorine and hydrogen gases along with sodium hydroxide. This is a very important reaction to produce chlorine industrially.

Question 5.
What is thermo chemical reactions?
Answer:
Some of the chemical reactions can be achieved by the supply of heat only. These reactions are called thermo chemical reactions or thermolysis. In industries limestone rocks are heated to get quicklime (calcium oxide).

Question 6.
What are catalystic reactions?
Answer:
Speed of the certain reactions is influenced by the catalysts and such reactions are called catalytic reactions.

Question 7.
Define the term exothermic and endothermic reactions.
Answer:
Chemical reactions accompanying evolution of heat are called exothermic reactions whereas reactions involving absorbtion of heat are called endothermic reactions.

VI. Short Answer

Question 1.
What is the difference between reactants and products?
Answer:

1. Reactants are the inputs whereas products are output.
2. When we mix two substances(Reactants)in solution form, the chemical reaction takes place to form new substances(Products).
3. There is no existence of products without reactants.

Question 2.
Write the effects of chemical reactions.
Answer:
Chemical reaction requires a specific condition to occur. When chemical reactions take place there will be production of heat, light, sound, pressure etc.

Effects of chemical reactions are:

1. Biological effects
2. Environmental effects
3. Production of heat, light, sound and pressure
4. Evolution of gas, changes in colour and change in state.

Question 3.
What happens to the steel benches and tables during rainy season?
Answer:
Tarnishing of metal articles:
This is because the iron metal comes into contact with water and oxygen, it undergoes a chemical reaction called Rusting. Shiny metal surfaces and other articles lose their shining appearance due to chemical reactions on the surface.

VII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Explain the process of corrosion and rusting.
Answer:
Corrosion:

1. Corrosion is the natural process by which a naturally pure metal converts into a more stable form of itself like hydroxide or oxide.
2. It is an actual degradation of the metal as it renders the metal useless of its usual metallic character.

Rusting:

1. Rusting is the specific name given to the corrosion of iron. Rust can be termed with the chemical formula of iron oxide with its general formula Fe₂O₃.
2. Iron when in contact in the air moisture or water, corrodes and forms rust.

Question 2.
Write a note on catalytic reactions.
Answer:

1. In industries some chemical substances are used to alter the speed of a chemical reaction. These substances are called catalysts.
2. For example, metallic iron is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia using Haber’s process.
3. This ammonia is the basic material for the production of urea, an important fertilizer in agriculture.
4. In Vanaspati ghee (dalda) preparation finely divided nickel is used as a catalyst.
5. Thus, speed of the certain reactions is influenced by the catalysts and such reactions are called catalytic reactions.
6. Enzymes and yeasts are called biocatalysts.

Question 3.
Write the effects of chemical reactions.
Answer:
The effects of chemical reactions are:
1. Evolution of gas:
Gas evolution may take place as a result of chemical reactions. Example: When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a solution of sodium carbonate or sodium bicarbonate carbon dioxide gas is evolved.

2. Change in colour:
Certain chemical changes produce change in colour. Example : When you place a iron nail in a solution of copper sulphate, the blue colour of copper sulphate slowly changes into green due to chemical reaction between iron copper sulphate solution.

3. Change in state:
Certain chemical reaction change of state is observed. Example : When you bum a piece of camphor, smoke comes out as result of chemical reaction between solid camphor and oxygen. Here, there is a change of state from solid to gas.

VIII. Reason out

Question 1.
Speed of the certain reaction is influenced by the catalyst.
Answer:
Reason : Some chemical substances are used to alter the speed of a chemical reaction. Example : metallic iron is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia.

Question 2.
Chlorine is produced by Brine.
Answer:
Reason : Brine is electrolysed to produce chlorine and hydrogen gases along with sodium hydroxide. Such reactions are called as electrolysis.

Question 3.
Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere.
Answer:
Reason : Most of the earth’s ozone is contained in the stratosphere, a layer of the atmosphere 10 – 40 km above the surface of the earth.

Question 4.
Photolysis occurs in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Reason : The UV rays from the sun break ozone (O₃ molecules in the stratosphere into oxygen and atomic oxygen.

IX. Creative questions : HOTS

Question 1.
Name the nitrate which does not produce brown gas on heating?
Answer:

1. The nitrates of alkali metals do not produce reddish brown nitrogen dioxide on heating.
2. The most common ones are sodium nitrate and potassium nitrate.

Question 2.
What are the chemical reactions occur in everyday life?
Answer:

1. The rusting of iron.
2. Combustion (burning) of wood.
3. The metabolism of food in the body.
4. Mixing an acid and a base, such as hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide.
5. Cooking an egg.
6. Digesting sugar with the amylase in saliva.
7. Mixing baking soda and vinegar to produce carbon dioxide gas.
8. Using a chemical battery.
9. The explosion of fire works.
10. Rotting bananas.
11. Photosynthesis.

Question 3.
Is rotting fruit a chemical change?
Answer:
The rotting of fruit is a chemical reaction. It’s not a physical change. Because an enzymatic reaction causes molecules to change when rotting.

Question 4.
An element ‘A’ on exposure to moist air turns reddish – brown and a new compound ‘B’ is formed. The substance ‘A’ and ‘B’ are:
Answer:
A = Fe (Iron)
B = Fe₂O₃ (Iron oxide)

Question 5.
Which substance is flushed in bags of potato chips to prevent rancidity?
Answer:
Nitrogen.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Matter

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Matter Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

(a) Atoms
(b) Molecules
(c) Ions
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

8th Science Matter Around Us Question 2.
The liquid metal used in thermometers is –
(a) Copper
(b) Mercury
(c) Silver
(d) Gold
Answer:
(b) Mercury

8th Science Matter Around Us Book Back Answers Question 3.
The Pictorial symbol for water given by the alchemists was –

Answer:

Matter Around Us Class 8 Answers Question 4.
Which one of the element name not derived from planet?
(a) Plutonium
(b) Neptunium
(c) Uranium
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(d) Mercury

8th Science Matter Around Us Question Answer Question 5.
Symbol of Mercury is –
(a) Ag
(b) Hg
(c) Au
(d) Pb
Answer:
(b) Hg

8th Science Guide Matter Around Us Question 6.
A form of non – metal which has high ductility is –
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Chlorine
(d) Carbon
Answer:
(d) Carbon

8th Class Matter Around Us Lesson Question 7.
Which one of metal possess low tensile strength?
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Zinc

Matter Around Us Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 8.
The property which allows metals to be hammered into their sheets is –
(a) Ductility
(b) Malleability
(c) Conductivity
(d) Tensile strength
Answer:
(b) Malleability

Matter Around Us Lesson In 8th Class Question 9.
The non – metal which conduct current is –
(a) Carbon
(b) Oxygen
(c) Aluminium
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(a) Carbon

Matter Around Us Class 8 Textbook Question 10
Pencil lead contains –
(a) Graphite
(b) Diamond
(c) Aluminium
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(a) Graphite

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The element which possess character of both metals and non – metals are called ……………..
2. The symbol of Tungsten ……………..
3. Melting point of most metal is …………….. than non – metal.
4. Water contains …………….. and …………….. element.
5. …………….. is the used in semiconductor industry.

Answer:

1. Metalloids
2. W
3. Higher
4. Hydrogen, oxygen
5. Silicon / Germanium

III. True or False, if false correct the statement

Matter Around Us Class 8 Pdf Question 1.
Metals are generally good conductors of electricity, but not good conductors of heat.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Metals are generally good conductors of heat and electricity.

Matter Around Us Class 8 Pdf Download Question 2.
Gallium metal is in solid state at or just above room temperature.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Gallium (Ga) become liquid at or just above room temperature.

Matter Around Us Class 8 Textbook Pdf Question 3.
Compounds can be made up of one atom.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
A compound is formed due to the chemical combination of two or more elements.

Matter Around Us Class 8 Samacheer Question 4.
Coal can be drawn into wires.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Coal cannot be drawn into wires, because they are non- metals since non – metals are brittle and non – ductile. So, they cannot be drawn into wires.

Matter Around Us Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Zinc is highly ductile in nature.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Zinc is neither ductile nor malleable at room temperature.

IV. Match the substance given in column A with their use given in Column B

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solution Question 1.

Answer:

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. C

Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 2.

(a) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – D
(b) 1 – C,2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D
(c) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – A
(d) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D
Answer:

1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D

8th Science Matter Around Us Guide Question 3.
Identify the state of matter based on the arrangement of the molecules.

(a) A – gas, B – solid, C – liquid
(b) A – Liquid, B – solid, C – Gas
(c) A – gas, B – solid, C – liquid
(d) A – Liquid, B – Gas, C – Solid
Answer:
(a) A – gas, B – solid, C – liquid

V. Very Short Answer Questions

Matter Around Us 8th Class Question 1.
What is ductility?
Answer:
Metals can be drawn into thin wires. This property of metals is called ductility.
Example : Copper wires.

Matter Around Us Class 8 Answer Key Question 2.
Write the constituent elements and their symbols for the following compounds

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Washing soda

Answer:

8th Standard Matter Around Us Question Answer Question 3.
Write the symbols for these elements

1. Oxygen
2. Gold
3. Calcium
4. Cadmium
5. Iron

Answer:

Question 4.
Name two soft metals that can be cut with a knife.
Answer:
Sodium (Na) and Potassium (K) are soft metals those metals can be cut with a knife.

Question 5.
Which non – metal is essential for our life and all living beings inhale it during breathing?
Answer:
Oxygen is essential for our life and all living beings inhale it during breathing.

Question 6.
Why are bells made of metals?
Answer:
On being hit, metals produce a typical sound. They are said to be sonorous. This property is being made used in making bells.

Question 7.
What does a chemical symbol represent?
Answer:
A chemical symbol is a shorthand method of representing an element.

Symbol of an element signifies:

1. Name of the element.
2. One atom of the element for example,
3. The symbol O stands for the element of oxygen.
4. One atom of oxygen.

Question 8.
Give two examples for metalloids.
Answer:
Boron and silicon.

Question 9.
Mention any three compounds that exist in liquid state.
Answer:

1. Water
2. Hydro chloric Acid
3. Nitric Acid

Question 10.
Write three properties of metalloids.
Answer:
Properties of metalloids:
Metalloids are all solid at room temperature.

1. They can form alloys with other metals
2. Some metalloids, such as silicon and germanium, can act as electrical conductors under the specific conditions, thus they are called semiconductors.
3. Silicon for example appears lustrous, but is not malleable nor ductile (it is brittle – a characteristic of some non – metals). It is a much poorer conductor of heat and electricity than the metals

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Can you store pickle in an aluminium utensil? Explain.
Answer:
No, we cannot store the lemon pickle in aluminium utensil because aluminium is a metal and lemon is acidic. The acids react with metals to give hydrogen which would spoil the food and makes it unfit to use.

Question 2.
Tabulate four points of difference between metals and non – metals.
Answer:

Question 3.
Define tensile strength.
Answer:
Metals have the capacity to withstand strain without breaking. This property is called tensile strength. It is the property that owes the use of iron for the construction of railway tracks.

Question 4.
Why are utensils made up of aluminium and brass?
Answer:

1. The cooking utensils are made up of aluminium and brass because they are good conductors of heat.
2. Aluminium will form a layer of protective oxide that prevents further reaction. Also aluminium is also relatively cheap and that is why it is used widely in making utensils.

Question 5.
Define a Alchemy.
Answer:
Alchemy was form of chemistry studied in the middle age, which was concerned with trying to discover ways to change ordinary metals into gold.

Question 6.
Name the elements for following symbols.

1. Na
2. W
3. Ba
4. Al
5. U

Answer:

1. Na – Sodium
2. W – Tungsten
3. Ba – Barium
4. Al – Aluminium
5. U – Uranium.

Question 7.
Name six common non – metals and write their symbols.
Answer:

Question 8.
Answer:
Mention any four compounds and their uses.
Answer:
Compounds and their uses:

Question 9.
Mention the metals that are used in jewellery.
Answer:
Silver and gold are used for making jewels and in decorative purposes

Question 10.
Mention the uses for the following compounds.

1. Baking soda
2. Bleaching powder
3. Quick lime

Answer:

VII. Reason out

Question 1.
Give reasons for the following.

1. Aluminum foils are used to wrap food items.
2. Immersion rods for heating liquids are made up of metallic substances.
3. A doctor prescribed a tablet to a patient suffering from iron deficiency. The tablet does not look like iron.
4. Sodium and potassium are stored in kerosene.
5. Mercury is used in thermometers.

Answer:

1. Aluminium is malleable, soft and does not react with food items, so it is used to wrap food items.
2. Metals are good conductor of heat and electricity, so immersion rods are made up of metallic substances.
3. It doesn’t look like iron, iron tablets does not contains iron metal, rather it contains iron salts like ferrous sulphate, ferrous citrate etc.
4. Sodium and potassium are very reactive, they react with air and water, so they are stored in kerosene.
5. Mercury is used in thermometers and barometers because of its high density and uniform expansion at different temperature.

Question 2.
Why wires cannot be drawn from materials such as stone or wood?
Answer:
Wires cannot be drawn from materials such as stone or wood, is because these materials are non – conductors of electricity.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Matter Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The most reactive metal is ……………..
(a) Iron
(b) Gold
(c) Zinc
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(d) potassium

Question 2.
The liquid metal at room temperature ……………..
(a) Mercury
(b) Bromine
(c) Sodium
(d) Gold
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 3.
Non – metals are ……………….
(a) Generally liquids
(b) Generally gases
(c) Generally solids and gases
(d) Generally gases and liquids
Answer:
(c) Generally solids and gases

Question 4.
The metal which is stored in kerosene
(a) phosphorous
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium
(d) Gold
Answer:
(c) sodium

Question 5.
The non – metal which is liquid at room temperature is
(a) Carbon
(b) Iodine
(c) Bromine
(d) Chlorine
Answer:
(c) Bromine

Question 6.
The metal which can be cut with a knife
(a) Sodium and potassium
(b) Barium and calcium
(c) Sodium and mercury
(d) Potassium and calcium
Answer:
(a) sodium and potassium

Question 7.
Which of the following is false for gases?
(a) They diffuse easily
(b) They have mass
(c) They do not mix well
(d) They are highly compressible
Answer:
(c) They do not mix well

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Atom or group of atoms having a charge are called ………………
2. In chemistry each element is denoted by a ………………
3. Metals and non – metals are used for making ……………., …………… and ……………..
4. ……………. is so hard that it can scratch glass.
5. The typical shine of metals is called …………….
6. Metals are ……………. conductors of heat and electricity.
7. Metalloids are ……………. at room temperature.
8. A molecule of water is composed of an oxygen atom and ……………..
9. Compounds obtained from non – living sources are called …………….
10. All gases are …………….

Answer:

1. Ions
2. Symbol
3. Tools, machines, cars
4. Osmium
5. Metallic lustre
6. Good
7. Solid
8. Two hydrogen atoms
9. Inorganic compounds
10. Non – metals

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Sodium is a hard metal.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Sodium is a soft metal, it can be cut with a knife.

Question 2.
Silver and copper are very good conductors of electricity.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Metals have high melting points.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Antimony has the highest tensile strength.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Tungsten has the highest tensile strength.

Question 5.
The other name of potassium hydroxide is caustic potash.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

i. b
ii. c
iii. d
iv. a

Question 2.

Answer:

i. b
ii. a
iii. d
iv. c

V. Very short Answers

Question 1.
Which metal has the highest ductility?
Answer:
The most ductile metals is platinum.

Question 2.
Why do metals appear shiny?
Answer:
All metals are shiny. The typical shine of metals is called metallic lustre. All metals have typical metallic lustre. An exception is calcium.

Question 3.
Which metals are not solid at room temperature?
Answer:
Metals are solid under normal conditions of temperature and pressure. Mercury is liquid at room temperature.

Question 4.
Which metals are liquid at room temperature?
Answer:
Elements Cesium (Cs), Rubidium (Rb), Francium (Fr) and Gallium (Ga) become liquid at or just above room temperature.

Question 5.
State different states of matter with an example.
Answer:
Matter has three different states.

Question 6.
Why are metalloids called semimetals?
Answer:
Some elements neither fit with the metals or with non – metals. Such elements are called semi – metals. They exhibit the properties of metals as well as non – metals.

Question 7.
Name the two elements which are derived from the country.
Answer:
(i) Name : Americum
Symbol : Am
Country : America

(ii) Name : Europium
Symbol : Eu
Country : Europe

VII. Short Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate inorganic compounds and organic compounds.
Answer:
Inorganic compounds:
Compounds obtained from non – living sources such as rock, minerals etc.
Example:
Chalk, baking powder etc.

Organic compounds:
Compounds obtained from living sources such as plants and animals.
Example:
Protein, carbohydrates etc.

Question 2.
What is the significance of the symbol of an element? Ans. Symbol of an element signifies .

1. Name of the element.
2. One atom of the element.

Example : The symbol O stands for the element of oxygen. One atom of oxygen.

Question 3.
Tabulate the some important compounds that exist in gaseous state.
Answer:

Question 4.
Answer:
The vapour had purple colour, so the element was given the name after the Greek iodides, which means violet.

Name : Iodine
Symbol : I
Name derived from : Violet (colour, Greek)

Question 5
Answer:
Write a note on Greem symbols.
Answer:
The symbols in form of the geometrical shapes were those used by the ancient Greeks to represent the four basic elements around us such as earth, air, fire and water.

Question 6.
Answer:
Compare the conductivity of metals and non – metals.
Metals:

1. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.
2. Silver and copper are very good conductor of electricity. However bismuth and tungsten are poor conductors.

Non – metals:

1. Non – metals are bad conductor of electricity.
2. Graphite (a form of carbon) is exception.

VIII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Write the physical properties of non – metals.
Answer:
Physical p roperties of non – metals:

1. Physical state:
Non – metals occur as solids, liquids or gases at normal temperature; for example sulphur, phosphorus occurs in solid state while bromine occurs in liquid state. Gases like oxygen, nitrogen, etc., occur in the gaseous state.

2. Hardness:
Non – metals are generally not hard except diamond, (a form of carbon)

3. Lustre:
Non – metals have a dull appearance; Graphite and iodine are exceptions as they are shiny and lustrous.

4. Density:
Non – Metals are generally soft and have low densities. The exception here is diamond (a form of carbon) which’is the hardest naturally occurring substance

5. Melting point and boiling point:
Non – metals have low melting point and boiling point. However, carbon, silicon and boron are exceptions.

6. Tensile strength:
Non – metals do not have tensile strength. However, carbon fibre (a form of carbon) is as tensile as steel.

7. Malleability:
Non – metals are non-malleable. If hammered, they form a powdery mass. Actually non – metals in solid state are brittle in nature.

8. Ductility:
Non – metals are not ductile. Carbon fibre is highly ductile.

9. Conductivity:
Non – Metals are generally bad conductor of electricity. Graphite (a form of carbon) is exception.

10. Sonorous:
Non – metals do not produce sound (non – sonorous) when hit.

Question 2.
Write the uses of metals.
Answer:
Metal:

1. Iron, is used for making bridges, engine parts, iron – sheet and bars.
2. Copper is used for making electrical wires, coins and statue.
3. Silver and gold are used for making jewels, in decorative purposes and photography.
4. Mercury is used in thermometers and barometers because of its high density and uniform expansion at different temperature.
5. Aluminium is used in electrical wires, cables and in aerospace industries.
6. Lead is used in automobile batteries, X – ray machines.

Question 3.
Write the uses of non – metals.
Answer:

1. Diamond (a form of carbon) is used for making jewels, cutting and grinding equipments. Graphite is used in making pencil lead.
2. Sulphur is used in the manufacturing of gun powder and vulcanization of rubber.
3. Phosphorus is used in matches, rat poison etc.
4. Nitrogen is used for manufacturing ammonia.
5. Chlorine is used as a bleaching agent and in sterilizing water.
6. Hydrogen is used as a rocket fuel and hydrogen flame is used for cutting and welding purposes, as well as a reducing agent.

Question 4.
Write a note on classification of compounds.
Answer:
Classsification compound:
Based on the origin of chemical constituents, compounds are classified as inorganic compounds and organic compounds.

1. Inorganic compounds:
Compounds obtained from non – living sources such as rock, minerals etc., are called inorganic compounds. Example: chalk, baking powder etc.

2. Organic compounds:
Compounds obtained from living sources such as plants, animals etc., are called organic compound. Example: Protein, carbohydrates, etc.

Both inorganic and organic compounds exists in all three states of matter ie., solids, liquids and gases.

IX. Cross word puzzle

In this crossword puzzle, names of 10 elements are hidden. Symbols of these are given below. Complete the puzzle.
Answer:

Across and down:

1. Cl
2. H
3. Fe
4. Ag
5. Ar
6. As
7. Br
8. Mn
9. Al
10. Ca
11. S
12. CO

X. Reason out

Question 1.
Sand is also known as silica.
Answer:
Reason : High purity sand almost entirely composed of silica.

Question 2.
Sulphur is used in vulcanization of rubber.
Answer:
Reason : Vulcanization of rubber is a process of improvement of the rubber elasticity and strength by heating it in the presence of sulphur.

Question 3.
Elements are called semi – metals.
Reason : Some elements neither fit with the metals nor with non – metals.

Question 4.
Mercury is the only metal that is liquid at room temperature.
Answer:
Reason : Mercury has a low melting point, and it is a poor electrical and thermal conductor.

XI. Creative questions : HOTS

Question 1.
Which letter is never used in any element symbol?
Answer:
The letter “J” is the only one not found on the periodic table. In some countries (eg: Norway, Poland, Sweden. Serbia, Croatia), the element iodine is known by the name jod.

Question 2.
What is the rarest natural element in the earth?
Answer:
Astatine is the rarest element on earth. Astatine is a naturally occurring semi – metal that results from the decay of uranium and thorium.

Question 3.
Explain why?
Answer:

1. A gas fill a vessel completely?
2. Camphor disappears without leaving any residue.

Answer:

1. Because the molecules of the gas moves freely so it occupies the whole space the vessel.
2. Camphor disappears after sometimes as its surface gains kinetic energy and gets directly converted into gas. The process of getting converted directly into gas without getting converted into liquid is called sublimation.

Students can Download English Poem 2 A Thing of Beauty Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 2 Poem Chapter 2 A Thing of Beauty

Explanation of Poetic Lines

Read and Understand

B. Choose the correct answers.

A Thing Of Beauty Summary Class 8 Question 1.
According to the poet, a thing of beauty is _______
(a) a joy forever
(b) a pain forever
(c) a suffering forever
(d) neglected
Answer:
(a) a joy forever

A Thing Of Beauty Poem 8th Standard Question 2.
Beautiful things never “pass into nothingness ” means that they _______
(a) never increases
(b) create unpleasantness between friends
(c) never fade away
(d) always bring unhappiness
Answer:
(c) never fade away

8th English Poem A Thing Of Beauty Question 3.
“Will keep a bower quiet for us” means _______
(a) Will give us peace and calm
(b) will stop unpleasant sound
(c) make our beds fit to sleep
(d) reduces noise
Answer:
(a) Will give us peace and calm

A Thing Of Beauty Book Back Answers Question 4.
Of all the unhealthy means _______
(a) Pain
(b) neglect
(c) suffering
(d) ill-health
Answer:
(c) suffering

A Thing Of Beauty 8th Poem Question 5.
The sun, moon, trees, old and young are the things that _______
(a) Depress us
(b) remove the pall of gloom from our lives
(c) makes us laugh
(d) gives us oxygen
Answer:
(b) remove the pall of gloom from our lives

C. Answer the following.

8th Poem A Thing Of Beauty Question 1.
How is a thing of beauty joy forever?
Answer:
A thing of beauty is a joy forever because it is a source of endless joy and its eternal beauty never fades away.

A Thing Of Beauty Poem 8th Class Question 2.
Why do we suffer?
Answer:
Over attachments to the earthly things are like a trap which bind us to the materialistic things and keep us away from eternal happiness. So we suffer.

A Thing Of Beauty Poem Class 8 Question 3.
According to the poet, mention the evil things we possess?
Answer:
The evil things we possess are hatred, greed, and negativity.

A Thing Of Beauty Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Identify the figure of speech in the following lines :
A bower quiet for us, and a sleep
Answer:
Metaphor : bower quiet
The calmness of a bower is compared to the calming effect of a beautiful thing.

Of noble natures, of the gloomy days
Answer:
1. Alliteration : Noble – Natures.
2. Anaphora: The use of the same word ‘of’ in two consecutive lines.

That for themselves a cooling covert make
Answer:
Alliteration: That – themselves; cooling – covert.

A Thing of Beauty Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension and poetic Devices.

1. A thing of beauty is a joy forever
Its loveliness increases, it will never
Pass into nothingness;

A Thing Of Beauty Summary Question a.
What is a joy forever?
Answer:
A thing of beauty is a joy forever.

A Thing Of Beauty Question Answer Question b.
What are its qualities?
Answer:
Its loveliness increases and it never fades away.

2. Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing
A flowery band to bind us to the earth,

A Thing Of Beauty Summary In Tamil Question a.
What are we wreathing everyday?
Answer:
We are wreathing a flowering band everyday.

A Thing Of Beauty Questions And Answers Question b.
Why do we wreath a flowery band?
Answer:
We wreathe it to bind us to the earth.

3. An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink

A Thing Of Beauty Poem In Tamil Question a.
What is the immortal drink?
Answer:
All the beautiful things are like nectar which is immortal.

A Thing Of Beauty Solutions Question b.
From where does the immortal drink pour?
Answer:
It pours on us from heaven.

8th Standard Beauty Question Answer Question c.
identify the figure,pf speech.
Answer:
Metaphor; Immortal drink.

4. Full of sweet dreams and health, and quiet breathing
Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing

Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
Breathing – Wreathing are the rhyming words.

5. A thing of beauty is a joy forever
Its loveliness increases, it will never
Pass into nothingness, but will keep
A bower quiet for us, and a sleep.

What is the rhyming scheme of these lines.
Answer:
The rhyming scheme is “aabb”.

6. A flowery band to bind us to the earth,

What is the literary device used here?
Answer:
‘Imagery’ is used here as the poet makes us to visualize that a flowery band binding us to the earth.

7. For simple sheep; and such are daffodils

Which are the words alliterated here?
Answer:
simple – sheep – such are the alliterated words.

II. Short Questions and Answers.

A Thing Of Beauty Poem Question Answers Question 1.
What is a bower?
Answer:
A hower is a pleasant shady place under trees or climbing plants.

A Thing Of Beauty Poem Question 2.
List the things of beauty mentioned in the poem.
Answer:
The Sim, the moon, shady trees, daffodil flowers, streams of water, dense green forest are things of beauty mentioned here.

Question 3.
What does the flowing streams do to us?
Answer:
The flowing streams of water cool and refresh us in the hot summer.

Question 4.
How are the beautiful things?
Answer:
They are like a fountain of immortality bestowed upon us by God.

Question 5.
What is a ‘rill’?
Answer:
A rill is a small clear stream.

IV. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What is the central idea of the poem‘A thing of beauty’?
Answer:
Beauty is a heavenly tonic or drink. It is an endless fountain of nectar. This beauty comes in different forms like a tale, a poem, a play, a lovely object of nature or the heavenly bodies. It soothes our. spirits and gives us good health, sound sleep and mental peace. It removes sadness from our lives and gives an everlasting joy. So beauty is a gift of God to all of us.

Question 2.
Do the things of beauty’ make a lasting impression on us?
Answer:
We feel happy by coming into contact with things of beauty. They make a lasting impression on us. Keats makes it clear at the outset. A thing of beauty is a joy forever. It is a constant source of joy and pleasure. Its beauty never declines or diminishes. Its loveliness goes on increasing every moment. Its value remains undiminished. It never passes into nothingness. It removes the pall of sadness that covers our dark spirits.

A Thing of Beauty Summary

The poet says that a beautiful thing is a source of endless joy. It has eternal beauty which never fades away. A beautiful thing is like a shady shelter which gives us a sleep full of sweet dreams, good health and relaxation.

Our attachments to the Earthly things are like a flowery wreath. They are traps which bind us to the materialistic things and keep us away from eternal happiness. The Earth is full of hatred, greed and negativity. According to the poet, the gloom and sadness caused by this negativity fade away with the positive vibes of the beautiful things that surround us.

The poet lists out some of the beautiful things that surround us. As the saying goes – “lies in the eyes of the beholder” says that the numerous creations of God, like the sun, which gives us energy, the moon’s beauty, the trees which give us shade are the natural beauties around us. The various animals,like the sheep that surround us make our world lively. The pretty flowers like daffodils make the world green and lively.

The following streams of water cool and refresh us in the hot summer season. The forests which are full of the pretty musk rose flowers are a beautiful sight to the eye. All these are the things of beauty. Also, the stories of the brave soldiers who laid their lives to protect their people are beautiful and inspiring. These beautiful things are like a fountain of immortality bestowed upon us by God. They inspire us to live on and maintain our faith in goodness.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Advent of the Europeans

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Advent of the Europeans Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Advent Of The European Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who laid the foundation of Portuguese power in India?
(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Bartholomew Diaz
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
(d) Almeida
Answer:
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque

8th Standard Social Science History Question 2.
Which of the following European Nation was the foremost attempt to discover a sea route to India?
(a) Dutch
(b) Portugal
(c) France
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Portugal

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Standard Social Science Solutions Question 3.
In 1453 Constantinople was captured by ……………
(a) The French
(b) The Turks
(c) The Dutch
(d) The British
Answer:
(b) The Turks

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 4.
Sir William Hawkins belonged to …………….
(a) Portugal
(b) Spain
(c) England
(d) France
Answer:
(c) England

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 5.
The first fort constructed by the British in India was ……………
(a) Fort St. William
(b) Fort St.George
(c) Agra fort
(d) Fort St. David
Answer:
(b) Fort St.George

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Question 6.
Who among the following Europeans were the last to come India as traders?
(a) The British
(b) The French
(c) The Danish
(d) The Portuguese
Answer:
(b) The French

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Question 7.
Tranqueber on the Tamilnadu coast was a trade centre of the ……………
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The British
(c) The French
(d) The Danish
Answer:
(d) The Danish

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. National Archives of India (NAI) is located in ……………..
2. Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese sailor was patronized by ………………
3. The printing press in India was set up by …………….. at Goa in 1556.
4. The Mughal Emperor …………….. permitted the English to trade in India.
5. The French East India Company was formed by ……………..
6. …………….. the King of Denmark issued a charter to create Danish East India company.

Answer:

1. New Delhi
2. King John II
3. Portuguese
4. Jahangir
5. Colbert
6. Christian IV

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. ii
4. i.

IV. State true or false

Samacheer Kalvi 8th History Book Question 1.
Auto biography is one of the written sources.
Answer:
True

8th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Coins are one of the material sources.
Answer:
True

8th History Book In Marathi Pdf Question 3.
Ananda Rangam was a translator served under British.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Ananda Rangam was a translator served under French.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Guide Question 4.
The place where historical documents are preserved is called archives.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick (V) the appropriate answer.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 8 Social Science Solutions Question 1.
(i) Governor Nino de Cunha moved Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.
(ii) Portuguese were the last to leave from in India.
(iii) The Dutch founded their first factory at Surat.
(iv) Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England.

(a) i & ii are Correct.
(b) ii & iv are Correct.
(c) iii is correct
(d) i, ii & iv are correct.

Answer:
(d) i, ii & iv are correct

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.

1. Find out the wrong pair
2. Francis Day – Denmark
3. Pedro Cabral – Portugal
4. Captain Hawkins – Britain
5. Colbert – France

Answer:
1. Francis Day – Denmark

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Give a short note on Archives?
Answer:
Archives is the place where historical documents are preserved. The National Archives of India (NAI) is located in New Delhi. It is the chief storehouse of the records of the government of India.

Question 2.
Write about the importance of Coins.
Answer:
Coins are a good source to know about administrative history. As compared to the literary sources the chances of manipulation is very less in the case of coins. Thus they are an authentic archaelogical source.

Question 3.
Why Prince Henry is called ‘Henry the Navigator’?
Answer:
Prince Henry of Portugal, who is commonly known as the “Navigator”, encouraged his countrymen to take up the adventurous life of exploring the unknown regions of the world.

Question 4.
Name the important factories established by the Dutch in India.
Answer:
After their arrival in India, the Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam, (Andhra Pradesh) in 1605. The other important factories in India were Pulicat, Surat, Chinsura, Kasim bazaar, Patna, Nagapatnam, Balasore and Cochin.

Question 5.
Mention the trading centers of the English in India.
Answer:
The English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad and Broach.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Give an account of the sources of Modern India.
Answer:
1. The sources for the history of modem India help us to know the political, socio – economic and cultural developments in the country.

2. The Portuguese, the Dutch, the French, the Danes, and the English recorded their official transactions in India on state papers.

3. History can be written with the help of written sources and material sources.

4. Written Sources:
After the advent of the printing press, book were published in different languages people began to acquire knowledge easily in the fields like art, literature, history and science.

5. Written sources include Literatures, Travel Accounts, Diaries, Auto Biographies, Pamphlets, Government Documents and Manuscripts.

6. Archives:
It has main source of information for understanding past administrative machinery as well as a guide to the present and future generations related to all matters.

7. Material Sources:
Paintings and statues are the main sources of modem Indian history which provide information about national leaders and historical personalities and their achievements.

8. Historical buildings and museums preserve and promote our cultural heritage,

9. Coins are a good source to know about administrative history.

Question 2.
How did the Portuguese establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:
1. In A.D. 1498, Vasco da Gama reached Calicut, where he was cordially received by King Zamorin, the ruler of Calicut. A second Portuguese navigator, Pedro Alvares Cabral, sailed towards India in 1500.

2. Vasco da Gama came to India for the second time in 1501 with 20 ships and founded a trading centre at Cannanore.

3. One after another, they established factories at Calicut and Cochin.

4. King Zamorin attacked the Portuguese in Cochin, but was defeated.

5. Cochin was the first capital of the Portuguese East India Company.

6. In 1505, Francisco de Almeida was sent as the first Governor for the Portuguese possessions in India.

7. Almeida had the aim of developing the naval power of the Portuguese in India. His policy was known as the “Blue Water Policy”.

8. Sultans of Bijapur and Gujarat were also apprehensive of the expansion of Portuguese control of ports which led to an alliance between Egypt, Turkey and Gujarat against Portuguese invaders.

9. In a naval battle fought near Chaul, the combined Muslim fleet won a victory over the Portuguese fleet under Almeida’s son.

10. Almeida defeated the combined Muslim fleet in a naval battle near Diu, and by the year 1509, Portuguese claimed the naval supremacy in Asia.

11. The real founder of the Portuguese power in India was Alfonso de Albuquerque who captured Goa and established the Portuguese authority over Ormuz in Persian Gulf.

12. Governor Nino de Cunha moved capital from Cochin to Goa in 1530. In 1534, he acquired Bassein from Bahadur Shah of Gujarat, in 1537.

13. During the 16th century, Portuguese succeeded in capturing Goa, Daman, Diu, Salsette, Bassein, Chaul and Bombay on the western coast, Hooghly on the Bengal coast and San Thome on the Madras coast and enjoyed good trade benefits.

Question 3.
How did the British establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:
1. In 1600, Elizabeth, the Queen of England granted a charter to the governor and company of Merchants of London to trade with East Indies.

2. The Company was headed by a Governor and a court of 24 directors.

3. Captain Hawkins visited Jahangir’s court and secured permission to raise a settlement at Surat which was cancelled later.

4. In 1612, the English Captain Thomas Best, inflicted a severe defeat over the Portuguese in a naval battle near Surat.

5. The Mughal Emperor Jahangir permitted the English to establish their factory in 1613 at Surat, which became the headquarters of the English in western India.

6. Captain Nicholas Downton won another decisive victory over the Portuguese in 1614.

7. This enhanced the British prestige at the Mughal court.

8. In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England, who succeeded in concluding a commercial treaty with the emperor

9. Before the departure of Sir Thomas Roe, the English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad and Broach.

VIII. Map skill

Question 1.
On the river map of India, mark the following trading centres of the Europeans.

1. Calicut
2. Cochin
3. Madras
4. Pondicherry
5. Surat
6. Chinsura
7. Pulicat
8. Calcutta

Answer:

IX. HOTs

Question 1.
How did the fall of Constantinople affect the European nations?
Answer:

1. The fall of Constantinople was the end of an era for Europe as it severely hurt traders in the European region.
2. The land route between India and Europe was closed. The Turks penetrated into North Africa and the Balkan Peninsula.
3. It became imperative on the part of the European nations to discover new sea routes to the East.

X. Student Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a chart on the kinds of sources of Modern India.
Answer:
Kinds of Sources of Mordem India.
Hints:
Artifacts from Archeological sites coins, monuments, inscriptions, travelogues and autobiographies are primary sources of information for modem history, it also includes government reports, letter, photographs map diaries, news papers and films.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Advent of the Europeans Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The ……………… of India attracted Europeans to this country.
(a) Technology
(b) Machinery
(c) Wealth
(d) River
Answer:
(c) wealth

Question 2.
Ananda Rangan’s ……………… reveal his profound capacity for political judgment.
(a) Diaries
(b) Books
(c) Paintings
(d) Coins
Answer:
(a) Diaries

Question 3.
The first issue of the calendar of Madras records was published in ……………….
(a) 1914
(b) 1917
(c) 1918
(d) 1920
Answer:
(b) 1917

Question 4.
…………….. help to preserve and promote our cultural heritage.
(a) Parks
(b) Books
(c) Beaches
(d) Museums
Answer:
(d) Museums

Question 5.
The national museum in ……………… is the largest museum in India.
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(a) Delhi

Question 6.
The Reserve Bank of India was formally set up in ……………..
(a) 1940
(b) 1938
(c) 1935
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1935

Question 7.
The first paper currency was issued by RBI in ……………..
(a) 1940
(b) 1938
(c) 1937
(d) 1936
Answer:
(b) 1938

Question 8.
After the capture of Constantinople by the Turks, the land route between India and ……………. was closed.
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(d) Europe

Question 9.
Bartholomew Diaz, was patronized by king ……………..
(a) George II
(b) Henry VIII
(c) John II
(d) Edward VII
Answer:
(c) John II

Question 10.
……………… maintained friendly relations with Vijayanagar Empire.
(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Francisco de Almeida
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
(d) Nino de Cunha
Answer:

Question 11.
The ……………. brought the cultivation of tobacco to India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) British
(d) French
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Question 12.
Due to the influence of the Portuguese ……………. religion spread in India’s western and eastern coasts.
(a) Islam
(b) Catholic
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
Answer:
(b) Catholic

Question 13.
The ……………. followed the Portuguese into India.
(a) British
(b) French
(c) Danish
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(d) Dutch

Question 14.
The Dutch shifted their headquarters from Pulicat to …………… in 1690.
(a) Madras
(b) Bangalore
(c) Nagapattinam
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Nagapattinam

Question 15.
The Dutch was completely wiped out by the year ……………..
(a) 1795
(b) 1695
(c) 1780
(d) 1800
Answer:
(a) 1795

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Europeans came to know about the Wealth of India from the accounts of ……………
2. ……………. was a translator to assist French trade in India.
3. Tamil Nadu Archives has Dutch records which relate to …………… and coast.
4. ………….. prepared the first issue of the calendar of Madras records.
5. The …………… was empowered to issue Government of India notes.
6. The first paper currency issued by RBI bore the portrait of ……………
7. Fort ……………. was built by the British in Cuddalore.
8. ………….. a Portuguese sailor reached the southern most point of Africa in 1487.
9. Vasco – da Gama sailed from ………….. to India.
10. In 1548, the Portuguese occupied …………….
11. The Portuguese were defeated by the English in the battle of …………… in 1759.
12. In Pulicat, the Dutch built the fort of …………….. in 1613.

Answer:

1. Marco Polo
2. Ananda Rangam
3. Cochin, Coromandal
4. Dodwell
5. Reserve Bank of India
6. King George VI
7. St. Davids
8. Bartholomew Diaz
9. Mozambique
10. Salsette
11. Bedera
12. Geldriaj

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. iv
2. i
3. ii
4. iii

IV. State True or False

Question 1.
The archives at Lisbon, Goa, Pondicherry and Madras were literally store houses of precious historical information.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
All documents in Tamil Nadu Archives are in English.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The most of the records in Tamil Nadu Archives are in English.

Question 3.
After his third voyage to India, Vasco da Gama, died in Cochin in 1524.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The English East India company of established its supremacy in the Spice Islands.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
United East India company of established its supremacy in the Spice Islands.

V. Consider the following statements and Tick (V) the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
(i) After 1858, India came under the direct administration of the British crown.
(ii) The settlement of Pondicherry was founded by Martin under a grant from Ibrahim Lodi, the ruler of Bijapur.
(iii) France was the last European country to come to India as trader.
(iv) The three Carnatic wars ruined the English.

(a) i & ii are Correct.
(b) ii & iv are Correct.
(c) i and iii are Correct
(d) i, ii and iv are Correct.
Answer:
(c) i and iii are Correct

Find out the wrong pair

Question 2.

1. Fort St. David – Cuddalore
2. Fort Geldria – Pulicat
3. Fort St. Louis – Goa
4. Fort St. George – Madras

Answer:
(3) Fort St. Louis – Goa

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Name the powers which recorded their official transactions in India on State papers.
Answer:
The Portuguese, the Dutch, the French, the Danes, and the English recorded their official transactions in India on state papers.

Question 2.
What was the impact of the invention of printing press in India?
Answer:
Numerous books were published in different languages. Hence, people began to acquire knowledge easily in the fields like art, literature, history and science.

Question 3.
Name the languages other than English in which the records and documents are found in Tamil Nadu Archives.
Answer:
The collections include series of administrative records in Dutch, Danish, Persian and Marathi. Few documents are in French, Portuguese, Tamil and Urdu.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Dodwell.

1. Dodwell prepared with great effort and the first issue of the calendar of Madras records was published in 1917.
2. He was highly interested in encouraging historical researches. He opened a new chapter in the History of Tamil Nadu Archives.

Question 5.
Name a few historical buildings of India which depict styles and techniques of Indian architecture.
Answer:
Historical buildings like St. Francis Church at Cochin, St. Louis Fort at Pondicherry, St. George Fort in Madras, St. David fort in Cuddalore, India Gate, Parliament House, President House in New Delhi, etc are different styles and techniques of Indian architecture.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘audio – visual’ mean?

1. Audio – visual means possessing both a sound and a visual component, such as slide – tape presentations.
2. Audio – visual service providers frequently offer web streaming, video conferencing and live broadcast services. Television, films, internet are called ‘Audio – visual media’.

Question 7.
Name the important commodities traded by the Dutch.
Answer:
The most important Indian commodities traded by the Dutch were silk, cotton, indigo, rice and opium. They monopolized the trade in black pepper and other spices.

Question 8.
Why was the English East India Company engaged in rivalry with the Portuguese and the Dutch?

1. The English East India Company remained engaged in rivalry with the Portuguese and the Dutch throughout the 17th century.
2. In 1623, the Dutch cruelly killed ten English traders and nine Javanese in Amboyna. This incident accelerated the rivalry between the two Europeans companies.

Question 9.
Who permitted the French to establish a township near Calcutta?
Answer:
In 1673, the French obtained permission from Shaista Khan, the Mughal Subedar (governor) of Bengal to establish a township at Chandranagore, near Calcutta.

Question 10.
Write a short note on the Swedish East India Company.

1. The Swedish East India Company was founded in Gothenburg, Sweden, in 1731 for the purpose of conducting trade with the Far East.
2. The venture was inspired by the success of the Dutch East India Company and the British East India Company.

Question 11.
Why was the British Successful when compared to the other powers?
Answer:
The comparative success of the British over the Portuguese, the Dutch, the Danish, and the French was largely due to their commercial competitiveness, spirit of supreme sacrifice, government support, naval superiority, national character and their ascendency in Europe.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Plant Kingdom

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Plant Kingdom Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the correct answers

Plant Kingdom Class 8 Question 1.
Solanum trilobatum is the binomial name of Thoothuvalai. Here the word ‘Solanum’ refers to …………….
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Class
(d) Orders
Answer:
(b) Genus

8th Science Plant Kingdom Question 2.
…………….. is an example for colonial form of algae.
(a) Oscillatoria
(b) Nostoc
(c) Volvox
(d) Chlorella
Answer:
(c) Volvox

Question 3.
Floridean starch is a reserve food material of …………….
(a) Chloroplyceae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Rhodophyceae
(d) Cyanophyceae
Answer:
(c) Rhodophyceae

Question 4.
The edible mushroom is …………….
(a) Polyporus
(b) Agaricus
(c) Pennicillium
(d) Aspergillus
Answer:
(b) Agaricm

Question 5.
Soil erosion is prevented by …………….. plants.
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Pteridophytes
Answer:
(c) Bryophytes

Question 6.
The first vascular cryptogams in land plants are …………….
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperm
(d) Angiosperm
Answer:
(b) Pteridophytes

Question 7.
The well – developed sporophytic plant body is seen in ……………..
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Angiosperms
Answer:
(c) Gymnosperms

Question 8.
Binominal Nomenclature was first introduced in the year of ……………
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1978
(d) 1623
Answer:
(d) 1623

Question 9.
Penicillin is an antibiotic, which is extracted from
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Pteridophytes
Answer:
(b) Fungi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word‘Taxonomy’is derived from …………….
2. Binomial Nomenclature was first introduced by …………….
3. The book “Genera Plantarum” was written by ……………..
4. Monocotyledon seeds bear only …………….. cotyledon.
5. Brown algae belongs to ……………. class.
6. Agar Agar is obtained from ……………. algae.
7. The reserve food material of fungi are and …………….
8. The first true land plant is …………….
9. Xylem and phloem are absent in ……………. plants.
10. Reticulate venation is present in ……………. plants.

Answer:

1. Greek
2. Gaspard Bauhin
3. Bentham and Hooker
4. One
5. Phaeophyceae
6. Red
7. Glycogen, oil
8. Pteridophyte
9. Bryophyte
10. Dicot

III. True or False

Question 1.
In polypetalae, the petals are free.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Binomial name should contains more than two words.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Binomial name should contain two words.

Question 3.
Artificial system of classification is based on the vegetative characters of the plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Artificial system of classification is based on the morphological characters of the plant.

Question 4.
Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Pinus is a closed seeded plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Pinus is a naked seeded plant.

Question 6.
All bryophytes are hydrophytes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
All bryophytes are amphibians.

Question 7.
Dicotyledons have well developed characters than the monocotyledons.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Monocotyledons have well developed characters than the dicotyledons.

Question 8.
Mosses are the well developed plant in bryophytes.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The dominant phase of the bryophytes is sporophytes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The dominant phase of the bryophytes is gametophyte.

Question 10.
The dominant phase of the pteridophytes is diploid(2n).
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Seeds of angiosperm are produced inside the ovary.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
In gymnosperms ovules are developed from the flowers.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
In gymnosperms, ovules are developed from the seeds.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Which of the following pairs are in correct?

(a) a, b, c
(b) c, d
(c) a, c, d
(d) a ,b ,c, d

Answer:
(b) c, d

Question 2.
Find out the correct pairs:

(a) a, b,
(b) c, d
(c) a,b, c,
(d) a,b, d
Answer:
(b) a,b, d

Question 3.
Which of the following characters are not suitable to angiosperm?
(a) Reticulate / parallel venation, closed seeded plants, sieve tubes are present in phloem.
(b) Seeds are open, ovary is not present, gametes are produced in cones.
(c) Tracheids are the conducting cells, companion cells not are present in phloem.
(d) Trimerous or tetramerous, closed seed, seed with seed coat, bears fruit.

(a) a, b
(b) b, c
(c) e, d
(d) a, d
Answer:
(b) b, c

Question 4.
Which of the following sequences are correct
(a) In Bryophytes – Gametophytes – Sex organ – Gamete fusion – Zygote – Spore mother cell – spore – Thallus.
(b) In Angiosperm – pollination – fertilization – zygote – new plant.
(c) In Gymnosperm – male cone, and female cone – microspore and megaspore – Zygote – new sporophytes plant.
(d) In pteridophytes – pollination by wind, fertilization in the presence of water – zygote prothallus, new plant.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) c, d
(4) b, d
Answer:
(2) a, b

Question 5.
Match column I with coloumn II

(a) A – 4, B – 5, C – 2, D – 3, E – 1
(b) A – 4, B – 5, G – 1, D – 2, E – 1
(c) A – 3, B – 2, C – 4, D – 5, E – 1
(d) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3
Answer:
(a) A – 4, B – 5, C – 2, D – 3, E – 1

V. Answer the following questions shortly

Question 1.
Define Thallus.
Answer:
Thallus refers to a plant body which is not differentiated into roots, stem and leaves. Example: Algae.

Question 2.
What is mean by Binomial Nomenclature? Give example.
Answer:
The naming of an organisms with two words are known as Binomial Nomenclature. For example, the binomial name of mango is Mangifera indica. Here the first word Mangifera refers to the genus name and the second word indica to the species name.

Question 3.
Write any two points of dicotyledons.
Answer:

1. Seed has two cotyledons.
2. Plants have tap root system, leaves with reticulate venation.
3. Flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous. Calyx and corolla are well differentiated.
4. Pollination occurs mostly by insects.

Question 4.
Seeds of gymnosperm plants are naked. Why?
Answer:
In gymnosperms, ovules are borne on megasporophylls and no flowers are produced. Therefore the seeds are described as naked. They are open seed bearing plants.

Question 5.
Write any two economic importance of fungi.
Answer:

1. Mushrooms contain rich protein, minerals and are edible. Example: Agaricus.
2. The antibiotic penicillin is got from the fungus penicillium notatum other antibiotics like gentamycin, erythromycin are also got from fungi.

VI. Answers the following questions in brief

Question 1.
Write short notes about natural system of classification.
Answer:

1. In this system, plants are classified on the basis of several characters. Bentham and Hooker’s classification is an example of Natural System of Classification.
2. This system of classification is based on morphological.
3. This classification is widely used in many Herbaria and botanical gardens all over the world.
4. Bentham and Hooker published their Natural system of Classification in their book named Genera Plantarum in 3 volumes.

Question 2.
Write any three economic importance of algae.
Answer:
1. Agriculture : Some of the blue green algae are essential for the fixing of atmospheric nitrogen into the soil, which increases the fertility of the soil, example Nostoc, Anabaena.

2. Agar Agar : Agar Agar is extracted from some red algae, namely Gelidium, Gracillaria, etc., which is used to prepare growth medium in laboratories.

3. Iodine : Iodine is obtained from brown algae like Laminaria (kelp).

Question 3.
Write the differences between algae and fungi.
Answer:
Algae:

• Algae are autotrophs.
• It has pigments.
• Reserve food material is starch.
• Some algae are prokaryotic in nature, example: Cyanobacteria (Nostac, Anabenae)

Fungi:

• Fungi are heterotrophs.
• It has no pigments
• Reserve food materials are glycogen and oil.
• All are eukaryotic nature, example: Agaricus

Question 4.
How many classes are there in Bryophytes? What are they?
Answer:
Bryophytes are classified into 3 classes.

• Class I: Hepaticae (Liverworts) Example: Riccia.
• Class II: Anthocerotae (Homworts) Example : Anthoceros
• Class III : Musci (Mosses) Example: Funaria

Question 5.
Write any four characters of pteridophytes.
Answer:

1. The main plant body is sporophytes, which is the dominant phase, differentiated into true root, stem and leaves.
2. Sporophytes reproduce by means of spores. Spores are produced in sporangium.
3. The sporangia bearing leaves are called sporophyll.
4. Most of the plants produce only one type of spore, it may be either microspore or megaspore (homosporous).

VII. Answers the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Draw the outline of Bentham and Hookers system classification.
Answer:
Outline of Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification:
Seeded plants (Division):

(i) Dicotyledonae (Class I)

1. Polypetalae (Sub class I)

• Thalamiflorae
• Disciflorae
• Caliciflorae

2. Synpetalae (Sub class II)

• Inferae
• Heteromerae
• Bicarpellatae

3. Monochlamydeae (Sub class III)

• Series 8 Family 36)

(ii) Gymnospermae (Class II) (3 families)

(iii) Monocotyledonae (Class III) (Series 8 Family 36)

Question 2.
Write any five differences between monocot and dicot plants.
Answer:
Monocots:

• Seeds have a single cotyledon.
• Leaves show parallel venation
• They have fibrous root system.
• Flowers are trimerous. Example : Paddy

Dicots:

• Seeds have two cotyledons.
• Leaves show reticulate venation.
• They have tap root system.
• Flowers are tetra or pentamerous. Example : Mango

Question 3.
Write differences between Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
Answer:

Gymnosperm:

• They reproduce by production of cones.
• Pollination is by wind.
• They are naked seed bearing plants.
• The xylem lacks vessels and phloem lacks sieve tubes.
• They have two phases in its life cycle. (Sporophyte & Gametophyte).

Angiosperm:

• They produce flowers.
• Pollination takes place by wind, water, insects etc.
• They are closed seed bearing plants.
• Xylem and phloem and well developed.
• The sporophyte is the dominant phase. Gametophytic phase is much reduced in angiosperms.

Question 4.
Write the economic importance of Gymnosperms.
Answer:

1. Woods of many conifers are used in the paper industries, example Pinus, Agathis.
2. Conifers are the sources of soft wood for construction, packing and plywood industry example Cedrus, Agathis.
3. Turpentine is an essential oil used for paint preparation extracted from the resin of Pinus. It is also used medicinally for relief from pain and bronchitis etc.
4. Seeds of Pinus gerardiana are edible.
5. Ephedrine is an alkaloid extracted from Ephedra. It cures asthma and respiratory problems.
6. Araucaria bidwillii is an ornamental plant.

Question 5.
Write the names of medicinal plants and explain their uses.
Answer:
Medicinal plants and their uses:
1. Acalypha indica (Kuppaimeni):

• The paste obtained from the leaves of this plant is used to cure the bums on the skin.
• The juice of this plant leaves is mixed with lemon juice to cure ringworm.

2. Aegle marmelos (Vilvam):

• The unripe fruit of this tree is used to treat indigestion.
• It is used to cure chronic, diarrhoea and dysentery.

3. Solanum trilobatum:

• The leaves and fruits of this plant cure cough and cold.
• It is widely used in the treatment of tuberculosis and bronchial asthma.

4. Phyllanthus amarus (Keezhanelli):

• The entire plant is used for the treatment of jaundice.
• It gives additional strength to human liver and used to treat other liver disorders.

5. Aloe vera (Sothu katrazhai):

• Leaves of this plant is used to cure piles and inflammations on the skin.
• It cures peptic ulcer.

VIII. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Penicillin is an antibiotic extracted from Penicillium notation.
Reason (R) : It can kill (or) inhibits the growth of the other micro organism.
(a) Both A and R True, R explains A
(b) A only correct, R doesn’t explain A
(c) A True, R explains A
(d) Both A and R False.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R True, R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Artificial system of classification is otherwise called sexual system of classification.
Reason (R) : Artificial system of classification is based on the nature of the vegetative characters.
(a) Both A and R correct
(b) Both A and R incorrect
(c) A is correct R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct R is incorrect

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Bryophytes are called Amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R) : Bryophytes are land plants but they need water for the completion of their life cycle.
(a) A correct R correct
(b) A incorrect R correct
(c) A and R correct R explain A
(d) A and R incorrect
Answer:
(c) A and R correct R explains A

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Plant Kingdom Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………. is a blue green algae.
(a) Chlorella
(b) Oscillatoria
(c) Chara
(d) Laminaria
Answer:
(d) Laminaria

Question 2.
Polvsiohonia is a …………… alga.
(a) Red
(b) Brown
(c) Green
(d) Blue green
Answer:
(a) Red

Question 3.
…………… is used in space travel.
(a) Chlorella
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Volvox
(d) Laminaria
Answer:
(a) Chlorella

Question 4.
……………. is an edible algae.
(a) Spirulina
(b) Gelidium
(c) Nostoc
(d) Volvox
Answer:
(a) Spirulina

Question 5.
Tikka disease is seen in ……………..
(a) paddy
(b) Ground nut
(c) Mango
(d) Maize
Answer:
(b) ground nut

Question 6.
Classification of algae was given by …………….
(a) Martin
(b) Alexopoules
(c) Fritsch
(d) Bentham & Hooker
Answer:
(c) Fritsch

Question 7.
…………… is a hallucinogenic fungus.
(a) Colletotrichum
(b) Claviceps
(c) Cercospora
(d) Albugo
Answer:
(b) Claviceps

Question 8.
…………… is not a fungal disease.
(a) Athlet’s foot
(b) Foot and mouth
(c) Dandruff
(d) Ringworm
Answer:
(b) Foot and mouth

Question 9.
Horse tail refers to …………….
(a) Equisetum
(b) Dryopteris
(c) Lycopodium
(d) Nephrolepis
Answer:
(a) Equisetum

Question 10.
Coralloid roots are seen in …………….
(a) Pimis
(b) Cycas
(c) Gingko
(d) Gnetum
Answer:
(b) Cycas

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Minute algae floating on the surface of water are called …………..
2. ……………… is an example of symbiosis between algae & fungi.
3. The book writtin by Linnaeus is titled …………….
4. Largest Herbarium of India is in ………………
5. The root like structure in bryophytes is called ………………
6. …………….. are the simplest group of land plants.
7. ……………… is a bryophyte which is commonly used in nurseries.
8. In bryophytes spore is the first cell of the ……………… generation.
9. Club moss refers to ……………….
10. An alkaloid got from gymnosperm is ………………
11. ……………… is a essential oil got from pinus.
12. The plant ……………… is used for treatment of jaundice.
13. Special roots present in parasites are called ……………….
14. The male and female sex organs in bryophytes are called as ……………… and ……………… respectively.
15. ……………… got from algae is used to prepare growth medium in laboratories.

Answer:

1. Phytoplanktons
2. Lichens
3. Species Plantarum
4. Kolkata
5. Rhizoid
6. Bryophytes
7. Sphagnum
8. Gametophytic
9. Lycopodium
10. Ephedrine
11. Turpentine
12. Phyllanthus amarus
13. Haustoria
14. Antheridium, archegonium
15. Agar Agar

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Monocotyledonae leaves have reticulate venation.
False.
Correct statement:
Dicotyledonae leaves have reticulate venation. Monocotyledonae leaves have parallel venation.

Question 2.
Carolus linnaeus published their Natural System of Classification.
False.
Correct statement:
Bentham and Hooker published their Natural System of Classification.

Question 3.
Biomial name was first introduced by Gaspard Bauhin.
True.

Question 4.
Agar Agar is extracted from red algae.
True.

Question 5.
Blue green algae increases the fertility of the soil.
True.

Question 6.
Cell wall of algae is made up of a chemical substance called chitin.
False.
Correct statement:
Cell wall of fungi is made up of a chemical substance called chitin.

Question 7.
Saprophytes grow up on the dead and decay matters.
True.

Question 8.
Erymothercium ashbyii are used to produce vitamin Br
True.

Question 9.
Button mushroom cause allergy to children.
False.
Correct statement:
Aspergillus species cause allergy to children.

Question 10.
Reserve food materials of fungi is starch.
False.
Correct statement:
Reserve food materials of fungi is glycogen and oil.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

i. d
ii. a
iii. b
iv. c

Question 2.

Answer:

i. b
ii. c
iii. a
iv. d

Question 3.

Answer:

i. c
ii. a
iii. d
iv. b

V. Assertion and Reason

Direction:
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the four statements, given below, mark one as the correct answer.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion : Fungi are considered as thallophytes.
Reason : The plant body is made up of hyphae.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : The sporophyte of bryophytes is borne on the gametophyte.
Reason : The sporophyte is the dominant phase.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false

Question 3.
Assertion : In pteridophytes, gametophyte is the dominant phase.
Reason : They reproduce by spore production.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 4.
Assertion : Gymnosperms are more developed than monocots.
They produce closed seeds.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

VI. Very short Answers

Question 1.
Name the types of classification.
Answer:
There are four types of classification.

1. Artificial system of classification
2. Natural system of classification
3. Phylogenetic system of classification
4. Modem system of classification.

Question 2.
What are phytoplankton?
Answer:
Some algae are very minute and float on the surface of the water. These algae are called Phytoplankton.

Question 3.
Mention two forms of algae with examples.
Answer:

1. Colonial form – Example: Volvolx.
2. Unicellular form (motile) – Example: Chlamydomonas

Question 4.
Mention two fungal diseases in human beings.
Answer:
Dandruff and ring worm.

Question 5.
Why are byrophytes called as amphibians of the plant kingdom?
Answer:
Water is essential for bryophytes to complete their life cycle. So they are called as amphibians of the plant kingdom.

Question 6.
Write two uses of bryophytes.
Answer:

1. Bryophytes prevent soil erosion.
2. Sphagnum can absorb large amount of water. Hence it is used by gardeners in nurseries.

Question 7.
How are gymnosperms classified?
Answer:

1. Cycadaceae
2. Coniferae
3. Gnetaceae

VI. Short Answer

Question 1.
Mention two differences between bryophytes and pteridophytes.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mention any four fungal diseases in plants
Answer:

1. Wilt disease of cotton
2. Tikka disease of ground nut
3. White rust of radish
4. Red rot of sugarcane.

Question 3.
Mention two salient features of algae.
Answer:

1. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, primitive plants and are autotrophs.
2. Algae belongs to thallophyta, and the plant body of algae are called thallus. i.e. the plant body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaf.

Question 4.
What is artificial system of classification.
Answer:
This is the earliest system of classification in plants. Plants are classified on the basis of one or few morphological characters. The most famous artificial system of classification is Linnaeus classification which was proposed by Carolus Linnaeus.

Question 5.
What is taxonomy?
Answer:
Taxonomy is the branch of biology that deals with the study of identification, classification, description and nomenclature of living organisms.

VIII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Write the classification of algae with type of reserve food, pigments and examples for each type.
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer:
1. Antibiotic :
Penicillin (Penicillium notatum), Neomycin, Gentamycin, Erythromycin are some antibiotics obtained from fungi, which cure variable diseases.

2. Food:
Mushroom contains rich protein and minerals. The most common edible mushroom is Agaricus. (Button mushroom).

3. Vitamins :
Fungus like Ashbya gospii and Erymothecium ashbyii are used to produce vitamin B? (riboflavin).

4. Alcohol:
Fungus like yeast contain enzymes invertase and zymase, which ferment the sugar molasses into alcohol.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

Heat Lesson For Class 8 Question 1.
Heat is a form of ………….
(a) electrical energy
(b) gravitational energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) thermal energy

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Term 2 Question 2.
If you apply some heat energy to a substance, which of the following can take place in it?
(a) Expansion
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Change of state
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

8th Standard Science Heat Question 3.
Which of the following substances will absorb more heat energy?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Science Term 2 Question 4.
If you apply equal amount of heat to a solid, liquid and gas individually, which of the following will have more expansion?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All of them
Answer:
(c) Gas

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 5.
The process of converting a liquid into a solid is called ……………
(a) sublimation
(b) condensation
(c) freezing
(d) deposition
Answer:
(c) freezing

8th Science Heat Lesson Question 6.
Conduction is the heat transfer which takes place in a …………….
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) All of them

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A calorimeter is a device used to measure the …………….
2. …………… is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C.
3. A thermostat is a device which maintains ……………
4. The process of converting a substance from gas to solid is called ……………
5. If you apply heat energy, the temperature of a system will …………….
6. If the temperature of a liquid in a container is decreased, then the inter atomic distance will ……………

Answer:

1. heat capacity of water
2. Specific heat capacity
3. temperature of an object constant
4. deposition
5. increase
6. decrease

III. State True or False. If false, correct the statement

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Guide Term 2 Question 1.
The applied heat energy can be realized as an increase in the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 2.
The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is decreased.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is increased.

Thermal Expansion Is Always A Nuisance Question 3.
The process of converting a substance from solid to gas is called condensation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The process of converting a substance from solid to gas is called sublimation.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solution Question 4.
Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in solids.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in liquids and gases.

8th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
The amount of heat gained by a substance is equal to the product of its mass and latent heat.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Guide Question 6.
In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect and radiate the heat to the outside.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the bottle.

III. Match the following

8th Science Term 2 Question 1.

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. b

V. Read the directions given below and answer the questions.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Heat Class 8 Question 1.
Assertion : Radiation is a form of heat transfer which takes place even in vacuum.
Reason : The thermal energy is transferred from one part of a substance to another part without the actual movement of the atoms or molecules.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Question 2.
Assertion : A system can be converted from one state to another state.
Reason : It takes place when the temperature of the system is constant.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Answer briefly

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
What are the applications of conduction in our daily life?
Answer:

1. We cook food in vessels made up of metals. When the vessel is heated, heat is transferred from the metal to the food.
2. When we iron dresses heat is transferred from the iron to the cloth.
3. Handles of cooking utensils are made up of plastic or wood because they are poor conductors of heat.
4. The temperature inside igloo (snow house) is warm because snow is a poor conductor of heat.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Science Question 2.
What are the effects of heat?
Answer:

1. Expansion
2. Increase in temperature
3. Change in state

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Answers Question 3.
Name three types of heat transfer.
Answer:
Three types of heat transfer are:
Answer:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

8th Standard Science Term 2 Question 4.
What is conduction?
Answer:
The process of heat transfer in solids from the region of higher temperature to the region of lower temperature without the actual movement of atoms or molecules is called as conduction.

Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 5.
Write a note on convection.
Answer:
The form of heat transfer from places of high temperature to places of low temperature by the actual movement of molecules is called convection. Convection takes place in liquids and gases.

Heat Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Define specific heat capacity.
Answer:
Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1°C or 1 K. It is denoted by the symbol C.

Question 7.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
With the help of a neat diagram explain the working of a calorimeter.
Answer:
1. A calorimeter is a device used to measure the amount of heat gained or lost by a substance.

2. It consists of a vessel made up of metals like copper or aluminium which are good conductors of heat and electricity.

3. The metallic vessel is kept in an insulating jacket to prevent heat loss to the environment.

4. There are two holes in it. Through one hole a thermometer is inserted to measure the temperature Of the Contents.

5. A stirrer is inserted through another hole for stirring the content in the vessel.

6. The vessel is filled with liquid which is heated by passing current through the hating element.

7. Using this device we can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.

Question 2.
Write a note on thermostat.
Answer:

1. A thermostat is a device which maintains the temperature of a place or an object constant.

2. The word thermostat is derived from two Greek words, ‘thermo’ meaning heat and ‘static’ meaning staying the same.

3. Thermostats are used in any device or system that gets heated or cools down – to a pre – set temperature. It turns an appliance or a circuit on or off when a particular temperature is reached.

4. Devices which use thermostat include building heater, central heater in a room, air conditioner, water heater, as well as kitchen equipment including oven and refrigerators.

5. Sometimes, a thermostat functions both as the sensor and the controller of a thermal 6 system.

Question 3.
Explain the working of thermos flask.
Answer:

1. A thermos flask has double walls, which are evacuated.
2. It is silvered on the inside.
3. The vacuum between the two walls prevents heat being transferred from the inside to the outside by conduction and convection.
4. With very little air between the walls, there is almost no transfer of heat from the inner wall to the outer wall or vice versa.
5. Conduction can only occur at the points where the two walls meet, at the top of the bottle and through an insulated support at the bottom.
6. The silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the bottle.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Why does the bottom of a lake not freeze in severe winter even when the surface is all frozen?
Answer:
Lakes don’t completely freeze because the ice (and eventually snow) on the surface acts to insulate die water below. To freeze water into ice, a large quantity of heat is to be withdrawn. This heat cannot be

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct? Give reason.
(a) Steel > Wood > Water
(b) Steel > Water > Wood
(c) Water > Steel > Wood
(d) Water > Wood > Steel
Answer:
(b) Steel > Water > Wood
Reason:
Thermal conductivity is defined as the heat flow per unit time.
Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than water and wood.
[Thermal conductivity of steel = 50.2 w/mk
Thermal conductivity of water = 0.6 w/mk Thermal conductivity of wood = 0.12 w/mk]

IX. Problems

Question 1.
An iron ball requires 1000 J of heat to raise its temperature by 20°C. Calculate theheat capacity of the ball.
Solution:
Heat capacity C’ = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\)
Here, A = 1000 J
T = 20°C – 0°C = 20°C = 20 k
C = \(\frac{1000}{20}\) = 50 JK^-1
The heat capacity of the ball = 50 JK^-1

Question 2.
The heat capacity of the vessel of mass 100 kg is 8000 J/°C. Find its specific heat capacity.
Solution:
Specific heat capacity, C = \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\)
Here, m = 100 kg
Heat capacity = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\) = 8000 J/°C = 8000 J/K
C = \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\) = 100 x 8000 J = 8,00,000 JKg^-1 K^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Intext Activities

Activity – 2

Question 1.
Take a cup of water and note its temperature. Heat the water for few minutes and note the temperature again. What caused the temperature change?

Question (i)
Do you find any increase in the temperature?
Answer:
When the water is heated, water molecules receives heat energy, increases the kinetic energy of the molecules.

Question (ii)
What caused the temperature change?
Answer:

1. When the molecules receive more energy, the temperature of the water increases.
2. Heat energy causes increase in temperature.

Activity – 3

Question 1.
Take few ice cubes in a container and heat them for some time. What happens? The ice cubes melt and become water. Now heat the water for some time. What do you observe? The volume of water in the vessel decreases. What do you understand from this Activity?
Answer:

1. In ice cubes, the force of attraction between the water molecules is more. So they are close together.
2. When we heat them the force of attraction decreases and the ice cubes become water.
3. when we heat the water, the force of attraction between the molecules decreases further.
4. Hence they move away from one another and become vapor.
5. Since water vapor escape to the surrounding,water level decreases.
6. From this Activity we understand that heat energy causes change in the state of the substances.

Activity – 4

Question 1.
Take hot water in a cup and put a silver spoon in it. Leave the spoon inside the water for some time. Now touch the end of the spoon. Do you feel the heat?
Answer:

1. Yes, we feel hot.
2. It is because heat in the hot water is transferred from one end to other end of the spoon.
3. In solid substances such as silver spoon, atoms are arranged very closely.
4. So heat transfer takes place from the higher temperature region to lower temperature region.
5. This is due to conduction.

Activity – 5

Question 1.
Take some water in a vessel and heat it on a stove. Touch the surface of the water. It will be cold. Touch it after some time. It will be hot now. How did the heat which was supplied at the bottom reach the top?
Answer:

1. When water in the vessel is heated, water molecules at the bottom receive heat energy and move upward.
2. Then the molecules at the top comes down and get heated.
3. This kind of heat transfer is known as convection.

Activity – 6

Question 1.
Take some amount of water and cooking oil in two separate vessels. Heat them till they reach a particular temperature (Caution: Heat the oil under the supervision of your teacher). Which one is heated first? Water will take more time to get heated. Why?
Answer:

1. Heat transfer depends on the nature of the substance.
2. Water has high specific heat capacity than that of cooking oil.
3. A substance with high specific heat capacity absorbs a large quantity of heat.
4. Thus, it takes long time to heat up.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
1 calorie equals ……………….
(a) 0.42 J
(b) 4.2 J
(c) 420 J
(d) 4200 J
Answer:
(b) 4.2 J

Question 2.
The SI unit of heat energy is ………………
(a) joule
(b) calorie
(c) kilo calorie
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) joule

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a scale of temperature?
(a) Kelvin scale
(b) Celsius scale
(c) Richter scale
(d) Fahrenheit scale
Answer:
(c) Richter scale

Question 4.
Convection of heat takes place in ……………
(a) liquids only
(b) gases only
(c) metals only
(d) liquids and gases
Answer:
(d) liquids and gases

Question 5.
In solid substances, heat is transferred by –
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) only a and b
Answer:
(b) radiation

Question 6.
In conduction, heat flows from ………………
(a) hotter to hotter region
(b) colder to hotter region
(c) hotter to colder region
(d) colder to colder region
Answer:
(c) hotter to colder region

Question 7.
Mud houses are cooler in summer and warmer in winter because –
(a) mud is a bad conductor of heat
(b) mud is a good conductor of heat
(c) mud is a super conductor of heat
(d) none
Answer:
(c) mud is a super conductor of heat

Question 8.
Process of change of state from gaseous state to liquid state is called …………….
(a) freezing
(b) condensation
(c) sublimation
(d) boiling
Answer:
(b) condensation

Question 9.
Substances which allow heat to pass through them are called …………….
(a) conductors
(b) insulators
(c) moderators
(d) none
Answer:
(a) conductors

Question 10.
When two objects are in thermal contact, the heat is transferred by ………………
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) none
Answer:
(c) conduction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In vacuum, heat energy can travel by the process of ……………….
2. In ice cubes the force of attraction between the water molecules is ……………….
3. When we heat water, the force of attraction decreases and the ice cubes becomes ……………….
4. ………………. is the only matter on the Earth that can be found naturally in all three states.
5. Radiation is defined as the heat transfer from one place to another in the form of ………………..
6. Heat capacity C’= ……………….
7. 1 Calorie = …………….. J.
8. Specific heat capacity C = ………………..
9. The device which is used to measure the heat capacity of the liquid is …………………
10. ……………….. is a device which maintains the temperature of a place or an object constant.
11. The vacuum flask was invented by …………………
12. Vacuum flask is also called as …………………
13. The water in the black can becomes ……………….. than that in white can after exposing to the sun.
14. The handles of cooking utensils are made of …………………
15. Black color is a ……………….. absorber of heat.

Answer:

1. radiation
2. morel
3. water
4. Water
5. electro magnetic waves
6. \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\)
7. 4.186 J
8. \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\)
9. Calorimeter
10. Thermostat
11. Sir James Dewar
12. Dewar flask
13. hotter
14. insulators
15. good

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Heat is the transfer of energy between two objects with different temperature.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
When ice changes into a liquid, it absorbs energy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Heat energy flows from a body at low temperature to a body at higher temperature.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Heat energy flows from a body at high temperature to a body at lower temperature.

Question 4.
J/Kg °C is the unit of specific heat capacity.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Conductors have generally high specific heat capacities and insulators have low specific heat capacities.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Conductors have generally low specific heat capacities and insulators have high specific heat capacities.

Question 6.
Temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy of molecules.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
When a liquid evaporates, it gives off energy.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
When a liquid evaporates, it absorbs energy.

Question 8.
When a liquid boils, energy is absorbed.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Water has the lowest specific heat capacity.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Water has the very high specific heat capacity.

Question 10.
While a substance is undergoing a change of state, the temperature of the body remains the same.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
In summer, we prefer light – colored clothes and in winter we usually wear dark – colored clothes.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The transfer of heat by radiation does not require any medium.
Answer:
True

Question 13.
Metals like copper, aluminium are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
In thermos flask, the vacuum between the two walls prevents heat from the inside to the outside by radiation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In thermos flask, the vacuum between the two walls prevents heat from the inside to the outside by conduction and convection.

Question 15.
Thermostat is a device can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Calorimeter is a device can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

1. b
2. d
3. a
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 3.

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

Question 4.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

V. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : When a very hot liquid is poured into a thick glass tumbler it cracks.
Reason : Unequal expansion of the inner and outer glass walls causes the glass to crack.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion : Radiation is a process of transfer of heat in which a material medium is not necessary.
Reason : The heat from the sun reaches us through millions of miles of empty space by convection.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 3.
Assertion : Temperature is the measure of the heat energy.
Reason : Energy is the capacity to do work.
Answer:
Assertion is false, but the reason is true

Question 4.
Assertion : Small gaps left between railway lines.
Reason : It allows for contraction of rails during summer.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write the relation between joule and calorie.
Answer:
1 Calorie = 4.186 J.
1 K cal = 4186 J = 4.186 KJ.

Question 2.
Mention the factors affecting the flow of heat.
Answer:

1. Mass and materials of the bodies in contact.
2. Difference in their temperatures.

Question 3.
What is the principle of calorimetry?
Answer:
Heat lost by the hot body is equal to the heat gained by the cold body.

Question 4.
What are the various modes of transfer of heat?
Answer:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

Question 5.
Which color absorb heat radiation and which color reflects heat radiation?
Answer:
Black surfaces absorb heat radiation. White color reflects heat radiation.

Question 6.
What is the SI unit of heat capacity?
Answer:
The SI unit of heat capacity is JK^-1

Question 7.
Mention the SI unit of specific heat capacity?
Answer:
The SI unit of specific heat capacity is J Kg^-1 K^-1.

Question 8.
What is the function of a thermostat in a device?
Answer:
Thermostat functions both as the sensor and the controller of a thermal system.

Question 9.
Name some appliances which uses thermostat.
Answer:
Central heater in a room, air conditioner, water heater, oven and refrigerators.

Question 10.
What is the function of silvered wall in a thermos flask?
Answer:
The silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the flask.

Question 11.
You would have noticed some space being left in railway tracks. Why?
Answer:

1. It is because railway tracks which are made up of iron (metal) expand during summer.
2. When there is a gap, there will not be any damage in the track due to expansion of the metal rod.

Question 12.
What is transfer of heat?
Answer:
If heat energy is supplied to any substance, it will be transferred from one part of the substance to another part.

Question 13.
Mention the applications of convection in daily life.
Answer:

1. Formation of land breeze and sea breeze is due to convection of air.
2. Wind flows from one region to another region by convection.
3. In hot air balloons heat is transferred by convection and so the balloon raises.
4. In refrigerators, cool air moves downward and replaces the hot air because of convection.

Question 14.
Define radiation.
Answer:
Radiation is defined as the way of heat transfer from one place to another in the form of electromagnetic waves.

Question 15.
Mention the applications of radiation in daily life.
Answer:

1. Heat energy from the Sun reaches the Earth by radiation.
2. While standing near fire we feel the heat which is transferred as radiation.
3. Black surfaces absorb heat radiation. So that the bottom of the cooking vessels are painted black.
4. White color reflects heat radiation. That’s why we are advised to wear white cloth during summer.

Question 16.
Why do we wear woolen clothes in winter?
Answer:

1. The fibers of wool have the property of trapping air in between them.
2. In trapping the air, woolen clothes do not allow the heat to flow away from the body, which would then become cold.
3. Besides, wool is poor conductor of heat. So this property further prevents heat from leaving the body.

Question 17.
Can convection take place in solids? Why?
Answer:

1. No. The molecules in a solid are only free to vibrate about their fixed positions.
2. For convection to take place, the molecules need to move carrying the heat with them.
3. Hence convection cannot take place in solids.

Question 18.
Distinguish between heat capacity and specific heat capacity.
Answer:

Question 19.
Arrange the following in order of decreasing expansion of heating : Steel, milk, air.
Answer:
Air, milk, steel.

Question 20.
Distinguish between evaporation and vaporization.
Answer:

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Describe an experiment to prove that solids expands on heating and contract on cooling.
Answer:

1. Take a metal ball and a metal ring of suitable diameter.
2. Pass the metal ball through the ring.
3. You can observe that the metal ball can easily go through it.
4. Now heat the metal ball and then try to pass it fits through through the ring.
5. It will not pass through the ring.
6. Keep the metal ball on the ring for some time.
7. In few minutes, it will fall through the ring. Expansion in Solids
8. When the ball is heated the atoms in the ball gain heat energy.
9. They start vibrating and force each other apart.
10. As a result an expansion takes place. That’s why the ball did not go through the ring.
11. After some time, as the ball lost the heat energy to the surrounding it came back to its original size and it went through the ring.
12. This shows that heat energy causes expansion in solids.

Question 2.
Write a note on radiation.
Answer:

1. Radiation is the third form of heat transfer.
2. By conduction, heat is transferred through solids, by convection heat is transferred through liquids and gases, but by radiation heat can be transferred through empty space even through vacuum.
3. Heat energy from the Sun reaches the Earth by this form of heat transfer.
4. Radiation is defined as the way of heat transfer from one place to another in the form of electromagnetic waves.

Question 3.
Write the difference between conduction, convection, and radiation.
Answer:

Question 4.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

VIII. Problems for practice

Question 1.
What is the rise in temperature of 5 kg of water if it is given 84,000 J heat energy? Specific heat capacity of water 4200 J Kg^-1 °C^-1.
Solution:
Given, m = 5 kg
Q = 84,000 J
C = 4200 J Kg^-1 °C^-1
Let rise in the temperature be ∆T.
Heat energy (Q) = mC∆T
84,000 = 5 x 4200 x ∆T

= 4°C

Question 2.
A body of mass 750 g requires 13,500 J of heat energy in order to raise its temperature from 25 °C to 55 °C. Calculate its specific heat capacity.
Solution:
Given
m = 750 g = 0.750 kg
∆T (55 – 25)°C = 30°C
Q = 13,500 J
Q = mC∆T
or

= 600 JKg^-1

Question 3.
An iron ball requires 9000 J heat energy to raise its temperature by 10°C. Calculate the heat capacity of the iron bail.
Solution:
Given, Q = 9000 J
∆T = 10°C
Heat capacity, C = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\) = \(\frac{9000}{10}\) = 900 J°C^-1

IX. Picture based Questions

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Freezing
2. Vaporization
3. Condensation
4. Deposition