Category: Class 6

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant pollinator
(a) Duck
(b) Parrot
(c) Humming bird
(d) Dove
Answer:
(c) Humming bird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
a. Nutmag
b. Bamboo
c. Ginger
d. Neem
Answer:
d. Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
(a) Potato
(b) Carrot
(c) Radish
(d) Turnip
Answer:
(a) Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anticancer properties?
a. Amla
b. Tulasi
c. Turmeric
d. Aloe
Answer:
a. Amla

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
(a) Neem tree
(b) Jack tree
(c) Banyan tree
(d) Mango tree
Answer:
(c) Banyan tree

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. In every year October _______ is celebrated as world food day.
2. _______ is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I _______ ?
4. The juice of the leaves of _______ plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called _______

Answers:

1. Sixteenth
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulasi
5. Pulses

III. True or False – If False, give the correct answer :

Question 1.
Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
Answer:
False. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called Ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
Answer:
False. Jasmine is used for ornamental purpose.

Question 4.
Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
Answer:
False. Cotton cloth is suitable for summer season.

Question 5.
Sugarcane is used as bio fuel.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Fibre yielding plant – Chloramine
2. Hardwood – Spice
3. Neem – Hemp
4. Clove – Cereals
5. Millet – Teakwood

Answer:

1. Fibre yielding plant – Hemp
2. Hardwood – Teakwood
3. Neem – Chloramine
4. Clove – Spice
5. Millet – Cereals

V. Analogy :

Question 1.
mango : fruit:: maize : _______
Answer:
cereals.

Question 2.
coconut: fibre :: rose : _______
Answer:
ornamental.

Question 3.
Bees: Polinate insect:: earthworms : _______
Answer:
Natural manure

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Plants that have ingredients which can be used in drug preparation are known as medicinal plants. (Eg.) Tulsi, Neem etc.

Question 3.
How hardwoods differ from softwoods?
Answer:
Hardwoods:

1. Present in angiosperms (flowering plants)
2. It is used to prepare furniture, decks, flooring and wooden construction.
3. Example: Teak, Jackfruit.

Softwoods:

1. Present in gymnosperm (non-flowering plants)
2. It is used to produce plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.
3. Example: Katampu, Pine

Question 4.
What is spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plant traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:
Neem tree, Tulsi tree, Amla tree are the medicinal plants.

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of neem?
Answer:

1. Neem leaf is used for leprosy, eye disorders, intestinal worms, stomach upset, skin ulcer, diseases of heart and blood vessels, fever, diabetes and liver problem.
2. Neem flowers can be used to treat intestinal worm.
3. Neem oil is rich in vitamin E and fatty acid. It helps to improve skin elasticity.

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Write short notes on – Timber yielding plants.
Answer:

1. The wood needed for the construction of buildings and making of furniture are obtained from certain plants.
2. We use wood for these purposes due to their features like durability, stylish finishing and resistance to temperature changes.
3. All commercial timbers are classified into two classes as Hardwoods and softwoods based essentially on their structure.

i. Hardwoods:
Hardwoods are angiosperms (flowering plants), the largest group of land plants. High-quality furniture, decks, flooring and wooden construction are being made only using hardwood. Example: Teak, Jackffuit.

ii. Softwoods:
Softwoods come from gymnosperm (non-flowering plants) trees. Certain angiosperms also yield softwood.
Softwoods have a wide range of applications such as making plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density Fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.
Example: Katampu, Pine.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
Animal – Plant interactions :

1. Animals and birds play an important role in spreading seeds of various plants.
2. The digestive enzymes in the digestive system of the birds soften the protective layer of the seeds and make it easier to germinate.
3. If this natural relationship between animals and plants are affected, it shows its impact on the economy too.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason?
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement (or) not? Explain Why?
Answer:
No. I don’t agree with her statement.

1. Palm tree is technically neither hardwood nor softwood.
2. It comes from a separate family known as Arecaceae.
3. It has significantly different cellular structure from either soft or hardwoods

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions,
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria. How?

Answer:
Bacteria like Pseudomonas are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil for agriculture. So they increase the soil fertility.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants. Why?

Answer:

1. Bees are the best pollinators. Bright colour of flower, smell and honey attract honey bees.
2. The bees go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their legs.
3. It results in cross pollination takes place and the formation of vegetable and fruit. So honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Tabulate the names of vegetables, Cereals and pulses you know.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2

Question 1.
How do Rava, Maida, Sago and Vermicelli are made? Discuss with your friends.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 3

Question 1.
Ask your parents about the medicinal uses of plants such as Phylanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vettiver, Thuthuvalai and make a write up. What are the other plants used for medicinal purpose in your area?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 4

Question 1.
Take a small quantity of cotton swap. Hold in between your thumb and fore finger. Now, gently Start pulling out the cotton, while continuously twisting the Fibres.
Are you able to make a yam?

The process of making yam from Fibres is called Spinning.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
From the earliest time ______ have been the staple food of India.
i. Rice
ii. Millet
iii. Oats
iv. Pulses.
(a) i and ii
(c) i and iv
(b) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Answer:
(a) i and ii

Question 2.
Rava uppuma is made of
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Millet
(d) Sorghum
Answer:
(b) Wheat

Question 3.
For making rope, fibres are obtained from _______ free.
(a) Neem
(b) Mango
(c) Coconut
(d) Jack fruit
Answer:
(c) Coconut

Question 4.
The wealth of any country largely depends upon its
(a) Educational development
(b) Agricultural development
(c) Industrial development
(d) Political development
Answer:
(b) Agricultural development

Question 5.
________ are the best for pollinations.
(a) Housefly
(b) Mosquito
(c) Birds
(d) Honeybees
Answer:
(d) Honeybees

Question 6.
Carpentry works depend on
(a) Medicinal plants
(b) Fibre plants
c) Ornamental plants
(d) Timber plants
Answer:
(d) Timber plants

Question 7.
We obtain _______ from plants for making tyre, seats etc.
(a) Plastic
(b) Rubber
(c) Pencil
(d) Wood
Answer:
(b) Rubber

Question 8.
Neem coated urea releases _______ gradually and helps the plants.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(c) Nitrogen

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Plants, based on their economic values and uses, may be broadly classified into _______ categories.
2. The heartbeat of an Indian kitchen is _______
3. We get food from roots is _______
4. _______ are secured in Pods.
5. India is the _______ largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
6. Some medicinal plants like _______ are used to produce medicines.
7. For making mattresses _______ is used.
8. _______ alone accounts for over 50% of raw jute production.
9. Hardwoods are _______ the largest group of land plants.
10. To decorate houses we are planting climber plant like _______
11. _______ are economically useful for us in silk production.
12. _______ are used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
13. Indian scientists have made a _______ formulation from the Palak to cure Osteoarthritis.

Answers:

1. six
2. Spices
3. Carrot
4. Pulses
5. Second
6. Fungi
7. Silk cotton
8. West Bengal
9. Angiosperms
10. Mullai
11. Silkworms
12. Blue gree algae
13. Nano

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
The useful Hardwoods and Softwoods are given by fibre plants.
Answer:
False. The useful hardwoods and softwoods are given by timber plants.

Question 2.
In the cabbage the edible part is leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Cardamom and black pepper are pulses.
Answer:
False. Cardamom and black pepper are spices.

Question 5.
In turmeric, the Rhizome part is used to help body to fight foreign invaders.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The process of making yam from fibres is called yam production.
Answer:
False. The process of making yam from fibres is called spinning.

Question 7.
Hibiscus trees are used to decorate houses.
Answer:
False. Hibiscus shrubs are used to decorate houses.

Question 8.
Plants and algae living in coral reefs are the food for variety of fishes.
Answer:
True.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Tomato : Vegetable :: Wheat: _______
Answer:
Pulses

Question 2.
Roots as food : Beetroot:: Stem as food : _______
Answer:
Potato

Question 3.
Spices : Cardamom :: Medicinal plant: _______
Answer:
Amla

Question 4.
Protect from scurvy : Amla :: Bronchitis, expectorant: _______
Answer:
Tulsi

Question 5.
Leaf fibres : Agave :: Husk fibres : _______
Answer:
Coconut.

Question 6.
Hardwoods: angiosperm
Soft woods : _______
Answer:
Gymnosperm.

Question 7.
Shrubs : Crape Jasmine :: Climbers : _______
Answer:
Allamanda.

Question 8.
Fix nitrogen in the soil: Pseudomonas :: Produce bio-fuel: _______
Answer:
Jatropha.

V. Match the following :

A.

Answer:
i – c
ii – a
iii – b
iv – e
v – d.

B.

Answer:
i – d
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – c.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define – Economic botany.
Answer:
Economic botany is the study of the relationship between people and plants and the uses of plants in the economy.

Question 2.
Name the plant from which we get cordage or rope?
Answer:
Fibres got from coconut stem, stalk of the compound leaf and husk fibres of the coconut are the sources from which cordage or rope is processed.

Question 3.
Define – Cereals.
Answer:
Cereals are edible components of grain of cultivated grass.
Example : Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

Question 4.
Why do we consider cotton as cash crop?
Answer:

1. Cotton give textile fibres used for making garments or dress materials or fabric.
2. 80% cotton is used in making fabrics or cotton mixed fabrics.
3. Because of its large scale cultivation, manufacture and industry if is a commercially very important plant. So known as cash crop.

Question 5.
Name some medicinal plants.
Answer:
The medicinal plants are Phyllanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vetiver, Thuthuvalai, Neem and Tulsi.

Question 6.
What are the specialities of Teak Wood?
Answer:

1. Teak is a hardwood, durable and strong.
2. Teak central wood is deposited with gum, resin oil etc and so strong that it can’t be destroyed by termites and other insects.
3. Doors, windows, roof and railway sleeper wood and cots are made out of it.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding parts based on the plant parts.
Answer:

1. Plant Fibres include seed hairs – Cotton.
2. Stem Fibres – Flax, jute.
3. Leaf Fibres – Agave.
4. Husk Fibres – Coconut.

Question 8.
Name some states in which jute crop is grown.
Answer:
Jute crop is grown in seven states – West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, Bihar, UttarPradesh, Tripura and Meghalaya.

Question 9.
Classify the Ornamental plants.
Answer:

1. Shrubs – Hibiscus, Crape Jasmine and Crotons
2. Climbers – Mullai, Allamanda and Bougainvilleam
3. Trees – Golden shower tree, Mandarai, Delonix tree

Question 10.
How pollination takes place by insects?
Answer:
Bright colured flowers, smell and honey attract insects. As the insects go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their body. This results in cross pollination.

Question 11.
Define – Osteoarthritis.
Answer:
Osteoarthritis is a joint disease affecting joints and knee in old age and any age people. Pala spinach is used to cure the disease.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Classify the plants as food with example.
1. Vegetables
2. Cereals
3. Pulses
Plants also give us coffee, tea, sugar and raw materials for oil.

1. Vegetables: We get vegetables from different parts of the plants.
Roots : eg : Beetroot, Carrot.
Leaves : eg : Curry Leaves, Cabbage.
Stems : eg : Potato, Yam.
Flowers : eg : Banana flower, Cauliflower.
Fruits : eg : Amla, Guava.

2. Cereals : Cereals are edible components of grain of cultivated grass.
Example : Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

3. Pulses : (i) Pulses are edible seeds of plants legume family. Pulses are secured in pods.
(ii) Example : Bengal gram, Green mung bean.

4. Spices : Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food. Spices come from the bark1 or roots of certain plants, leaves, flowers, or stems of plants primarily used for flavoring, coloring or preserving food.

Spices used in India : Following spices are included in a variety of Indian dishes Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 2.
Give any five medicinal plants and their medicinal use.
Answer:
Here is a list of plants that have the highest medicinal value.

Question 3.
Give other uses of plants.
Answer:

1. Maintain soil fertility – Plants maintain soil fertility. Plants like blue green algae and bacteria like Pseudomonas are also extensively used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
2. Prevent soil erosion – Plants when grown in dense will prevent soil erosion. This is prevented by plants if grown around.
3. Bio-fuels – Some plants are also grown for the sake of bio-fules. Plant fuel is less toxic as it does not emit harmful gases and also less expensive. Ex : Jatropha. Even the plant waste is used to generate electricity. Ex : Sugar mills.
4. Rubber and Natural Plastic – Natural plastics and rubber are also produced from plants.
5. Neem oil coated Urea – Neem coated urea releases nitrogen gradually and helps the plants to absorb maximum nitrogen. It reduces the impact of urea on the environment.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who among the following built the VaikundaPerumai temple?
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II
(c) Dantivarman
(d) Parameshvaravarma
Answer:
(b) Nandivarma II

Question 2.
Which of the following titles were the titles of Mahendra Varma I?
(a) Mattavilasa
(b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of Pulakesin II ?
(a) Aihole
(b) Saranath
(c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
Answer:
(a) Aihole

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Statement I : Pallava art shows transition from rock-cut monolithic structure to stone built temple.
Statement II : Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is an example of Pallava art and architecture.
a. Statement I is wrong.
b. Statement II is wrong,
c. Both the statements are correct
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 2.
Consider Hie following statement! about Pallava Kingdom.
Statement I : Tamil literature flourished under Pallava rule, with the rise in popularity of Thevaram composed by Appar.
Statement II : Pallava King Mahendi avarman was the author of the play MattavilasaPrahasana.
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
Answer:
b. II only

Question 3.

Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty and find out which of the following statements are correct.

1. It was founded by Dantidurga.
2. Amogavarsha wrote Kavirajmarga.
3. Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
a. Ellore caves – Rashtrakutas
b. Mamallapuram – Narasimhavarma I
c. Elephanta caves – Ashoka
d. Pattadakal – Chalukyas
Answer:
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair
a. Dandin – Dasakumara Charitam
b. Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba
c. Bharavi – Kirataijuneeyam
d. Amogavarsha – Kavirajamarga
Answer:
b. Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. _______ defeated Harsha Vardhana on the banks of the river Narmada.
2. _______ destroyed Vatapi and assumed the title Vatapikondan
3. _______ was the author of Aihole Inscription.
4. _______ was the army general of Narasimhavarma I.
5. The music inscriptions in _______ and _______ show Pallavas’ interest in music.

Answer:

1. Pulakesin II
2. Narasimhavarma
3. Ravikirti
4. Paranjothi
5. Kudumianmalai, Thirumayam temples

IV. Match the following:

1. Pallavas – a. Kalyani
2. Eastern Chalukyas – b. Manyakheta
3. Western Chalukyas – c. Kanchi
4. Rashtrakutas – d. Vengi

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

V. State True or False :

1. The famous musician Rudracharya lived during Mahendravarma I.
2. The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Pulakesin II.
3. Mamallapuram is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
4. Thevaram was composed by Azhwars.
5. The Virupaksha temple was built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Name the three gems of Kannada literature.
Answer:
The three gems of Kannada literature were Pampa, Sri Ponna and Raima.

Question 2.
How can we classify the Pallava architecture?
Answer:

1. Rock – cut temples
2. Mahendravarman style
3. Monolithic Rathas and sculptural Mandapas – Mamallan Style
4. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style

Question 3.
What do you know of Gatika?
Answer:

1. Gatika means monastery or Centre of learning.
2. It was popular during the Pallava times at Kanchi.
3. It attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
4. Vatsyaya who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at kanchi (Gatika). Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain.

Question 4.
Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain
Answer:

1. The five rathas (chorits), Popularly called panchapandavar rathes, signify five different style of temple architecture.
2. Each rather has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.

Question 5.
Make a note on Battle of Takkolam.
Answer:

1. Krishna III was the last able ruler of Rashtrakuta dynasty,
2. He defeated the Cholas in the battle of Takkolam (presently in Vellore Dt) and captured Thanjavur.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Examine Pallavas’ contributions to architecture.
Answer:

1. 1. Pallava period is known for architectural splendour.
   2. Pallava’s architecture can be classified as
2. Rock-cut temples – Mahendravarman style.
3. Monlithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas – Mamallan style.
4. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style.

1. Mahendravarman Style:

The best example of MahendraVarma style monuments are cave temples at Mandagapattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirapalli, Vallam, Tirukazhukkundram and Siyamangalam.

2. Mamalla Style:

1. The five rathas (chariots), popularly called Panchapandavar rathas, signify five different style of temple architecture.
2. Each ratha has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.
4. The popular mandapams they built are Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam.
5. The most important among the Mamalla style of architecture is the open art gallery.

3. Rajasimha Style and Nandivarma Style :

1. Narasimhavarma II, also known as Rajasimha, constructed structural temples using stone blocks.
2. The best example of the structural temple is Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram.
3. This temple was built by using sand stones.
4. Kailasanatha temple is called Rajasimheswaram.
5. The last stage of the Pallava architecture is also represented by structural temples built by the later Pallavas.
6. The best example is Vaikunda Perumal temple at Kanchipuram.

Question 2.
Write a note on Elephanta island and Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
Answer:
Elephanta island:

1. Elephanta is an island near Mumbai. It is originally known as Sripuri and the local people called Gharapuri.
2. The Portuguese named it as Elephanta after seeing the image.
3. The Trimurthi Siva icon and the images of dwarapalakas are seen in the cave temple.

Kailasanatha temple at Ellora:

1. Krishna I built Kailasanatha temple. It was one of the 30 temples carved out at Ellora.
2. The temple covers an area of over 60,000 sq.feet and vimanam rises to a height of 90 feet.
3. It portrays typical Dravidian features and has a resemblance of the shore temple at Mamllapuram.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Give an account on Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.
Answer:
Western Chalukyas of Kalyani:

1. They were the descendants of Badami Chalukyas ruled from Kalyani (modem day Basavakalyan).
2. In 973, Tailapa II, a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta mling from Bijapur region, defeated Parmara of Malwa.
3. Tailapa II occupied Kalyani and his dynasty quickly grew into an empire under Someswara I.
4. Someswara I moved the capital from Manyakheta to Kalyani.
5. For over a century, both the Chalukyas and the Cholas fought many fierce battles to control the fertile region of Vengi.
6. In the late 11th century, under Vikramaditya VI, vast areas between the Narmada river in the north and Kaveri river in the South came under Chalukya control.
7. The Kasi Vishwesvara Temple at Lakkundi, the Mallikaijuna temple at Kuruvatti, the Kalleshwara temple at Bagali and the Mahadeva temple at Itagi represent well known examples of the architecture of Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.

X. Activity:

Question 1.
a. Sketch the biography of Mahendravarma 1 and Pulakesin 11.
Answer:
Mahendravarma I :

1. Mahendravarma I (600-630 CE) was a Pallava king.
2. He was the son of Simhavishnu.
3. During his reign the Chalukya king Pulakesin II attacked the Pallava kingdom. He was succeeded by his son Narasimavarma I.
4. He was a great patron of art and literature amongst the Pallavas.
5. In the inscription at the Mandagapattu rock cut temple hails him as Vichitrachitta.
6. It is claimed that the temple was built without wood, brick, mortar or metal
7. He authorsed the play Mattavilasa Prahasana
8. He was initially a patron of Jain faith but converted to Saiva faith under the influence of Saiva Saint Appar.

Pulakesin – II:

1. Pulakesin II (610-642 CE) was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi (present day Badami in Karnataka).
2. During his reign, the Chalukya kingdom expanded to cover most of the Deccan region in Peninsular India.
3. He was the son of the Chalukya king Kirttivarman-I.
4. The most notable military achievement of Pulakesin was his victory over Harshavardhana.
5. He got defeated by Narasimha varma I, who attained the title “Vatapikondan’.
6. Pulakesin was a Vaishnavite, but was tolerant to other faiths including Shaivism, Buddhism and Jainism.
7. He patronised several scholars including Ravikirtti, who composed his Aihole inscription.

b. See the picture and write a few sentences on it.

Arjunas’ Penance :

1. This magnificent relief, carved in the mid-seventh century, measures approximately 30m long and 15m high.
2. Its huge size and scale is difficult to imagine from photographs.
3. A person, standing on the ground in front of it, could barely touch the elephants’ feet.
4. The subject is either Arjuna’s penance or the Descent of the Ganges.
5. The composition of the relief includes the main elements of the story and the scenes of the natural and celestial worlds.
6. Arjuna stands on one leg, his arms upraised in a Yoga posture.

XI. Answer Grid :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Kalabhras were defeated by ________
(a) Simhavarman-II
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhal
(d) Mahendravarman
Answer:
(b) Simhavishnuj

Question 2.
The central part of the Pallava kingdom.
(a) Thondaimandalam
(b) Kongumandalam
(c) Pandya mandalam
(d) Kumarimandalam
Answer:
(a) Thondaimandalam

Question 3.
The Konkan coast was brought under the Chalukyas by
(a) Kirtivarman I
(b) Kirtivarman II
(c) Vikramaditya I
(d) Vikramaditya III
Answer:
(a) Kirtivarman I

Question 4.
The new capital of Rashtrakutas
(a) Manyakheta
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Broach
(d) Pattadakl
Answer:
(a) Manyakheta

Question 5.
Vakataka style was used in ______.
(a) painting
(b) Dance
(c) Music
(d) Cave Temple
Answer:
(a) painting

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Statement I :The cave temples at Badami contain fine sculptures of Vishnu.
Statement II :The Mallikarjuna temple at Kuruvatti was built by the Rashtrakutas.
a. Statement I is wrong.
b. Statement II is wrong.
c. Both the statements are correct
d. Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong!

Question 2.
Consider the following statements about Pattadakal and find out the – correct statements.
Statement I :Pattadakal is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
Statement II :It has ten temples.
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
Answer:
c. Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statement about the Mamalla style and find out which of the following statements are correct.

1. The five rathas are called monolithic.
2. The most important Mamalla style of architecture is the open art gallery.
3. Several miniature sculptures are found on the wall,

a. I only b.
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all the three
Answer:
d. all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
a. Thondai mandalam – Pallavas
b. Mahendra style – Dravidian
c. Simhavishnu – Vatapikondan
d. Paranjothi – Siruthondar
Answer:
c. Simhavishnu – Vatapikondan

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair
a. Parantaka – Cholas
b. Amoga varsha – Manyakheta
c. Rashtrakutas – Ellora
d. Kasi Vishwesvara – Pallavas
Answer:
d. Kasi Vishwesvara – Pallavas

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Jain Narayana temple was built by the _______
2. There are impressive images of at the entrance of _______ the cave temple of Elephanta.
3. Kailasanatha temple portrays typical _______ features
4. Adipurana depicts the life of _______
5. Vikramaijuna Vijaya was written by _______
6. Krishna III built the Krishneswara temple at _______
7. Dahtidurga was an official of high rank under the _______
8. The Vishnu temple at Badami was built by _______
9. The Persian _______ King sent an embassy to the court of Pulakesin II
10. Nalayira divyaprabandam was composed by _______

Answer:

1. Rastrakutas
2. Dwarapalakas
3. Drvidian
4. Rishabadeva
5. Adikavi Pampa
6. Rameshwaram
7. Chalukya
8. Mangalesa
9. Khusru II
10. Azhwars

IV. Match :

1. Vatapi – i. Kirtivarman II
2. Shore Temple – ii. Kalyani
3. Dakshin Chitram – iii. Chalukyas
4. Dantidurga – iv. Mahendravarman I
5. omeswara I – v. Mamallpuram

Answer:

1. – iii
2. – v
3. – iv
4. – i
5. – ii

V. True or False

1. Narasimhavarman I was also known as Rajasimha.
2. Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi is known as Rajasimheswaram.
3. Bharathavenba was written in Tamil.
4. The first Eastern Chalukya ruler was Vishnuvaradhana.
5. Rashtrakutas adopted the Vakataka style in paintings.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What formed Thondaimandalam?
Answer:

1. The central part of the Pallava kingdom was Thonadimandalam.
2. It covered a large political region comprising the northern parts of Tamil Nadu and the adjoining Andhra district.

Question 2.
What do you know about the literary work of Mahendravarma?
Answer:

1. Mahendravarman wrote plays including Mattavilasa Prahasana.
2. The play wrote in Sanskrit denigrates Buddhism.

Question 3.
Write about Siruthondar.
Answer:

1. Narsimhavarman-I’s army general was Paranjothi.
2. He was popularly known as Siruthondar (one of the 63 Nayanmars).
3. Paranjothi led the Pallava army during the invasion of Vatapi.
4. After the victory he had a change of heart and devoted himself to Lord Siva.

Question 4.
‘Vesara style’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. During the Chalukya period a new style of architecture known as ‘Vesera’ was developed.
2. Versa is a combination of south Indian (Dravida) and north Indian (Nagara) building styles.

Question 5.
What is the significance of the Aihole inscription?
Answer:

1. Aihole inscription is found at Meguti temple in Aihole (Bagalkot district, Karnataka).
2. It is written in Sanskrit by Ravikirti, a court poet of Chalukya king Pulakesin II.
3. It makes a mention of the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin II.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Pattadakal.
Answer:

1. Pattdakal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
2. It is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
3. It has ten temples.
4. Out of them, four were built in northern style (Nagara), while the rest six are in the southern (Dravida) style.
5. Virupaksha Temple and Sangameshwara Temple are in Dravida style and Papanatha temple is in Nagara style.
6. The Virupaksha temple is built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
7. Sculptors brought from Kanchi were employed in its construction

Question 4.
Mention the contribution of Rashtrakutas to literature.
Answer:

1. Kannada language became more prominent.
2. Kavirajamarga composed by Amogavarsha was the first poetic work in Kannada language.
3. Court poets produced eminent works in Kannada.
4. The three gems of Kannada literature during the period were Pampa, Sri Ponna and Raima.
5. Adikavi Pampa was famous for his creative works Adipuranaand Vikramaijunavijaya.
6. The life of Rishabadeva, the first Jain Tirthankara is depicted in Adipurana.
7. In Vikramarjunavijaya Pampa’s patron, Chalukya Arikesari, is identified with Arjuna, epic hero of Mahabharatha.

Question 3.
Write about education and literature under the Pallavas.
Answer:

1. Gatika (monastery or centre of learning) at Kanchi was popular during the Pallava times and it attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
2. Vatsyaya who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at Kanchi.
3. The treatise on Dakshin Chitram was compiled during the reign of Mahendravarma I.
4. The greatest Sanskrit Scholar, Dandin, lived in the court of Narasimhavarma I. Dandin composed Dashakumara Charita.
5. Bharavi, the author of the epic Kiratarjuniya, lived in the time of Simhavishnu.
6. Tamil literature has also flourished during the Pallava rule. Thevaram was composed by Nayanmars and Nalayiradivyaprabantham by Azhwars.
7. Perundevanar, patronized by Narasimhavarman II, translated the Mahabharata into Tamil as Bharathavenba.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Understanding Disaster

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Textual Evaluation

I. Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Define Disaster.
Answer:

1. A disaster is a serious disruption of the functioning of a society involving human and material loss.
2. Disaster is broadly classified into natural and man-made disasters.

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. Buddhism
2. Yoga
3. Vedic literature
4. Medicine

Question 3.
Write a short note on ‘Thunder and lightning’.
Answer:

1. Thunder is a series of sudden electrical discharge resulting from atmospheric conditions.
2. This discharge results in sudden flashes of light and trembling sound waves which are commonly known as thunder and lightning.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during the Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

1. Bhaga
2. Hiranya
3. Bali

II. Answer in a paragraph:
Question 1.
What is flood? Explains the do’s and don’ts during floods.
Answer:
(i) An overflow of a large amount of water, beyond its normal limits, especially on the rainfed areas is called a flood.
(ii) During floods – Do’s.

(a) To find out the settlement area whether it is to be affected by flood or not.
(b) Keeping radio, torch and additional batteries, storing drinking water, dry foods items, salt and sugar. Safeguarding materials like kerosene, candle, match box, clothes and valuable things.
(c) Keeping umbrella and bamboo poles.
(d) Keeping first aid box and strong ropes to bind things.
(e) To dig canals from the farm land, to drain the excessive water, keeping sand bags etc.

(iii) During floods – Don’ts.
(a) Try to connect electricity once it is cut.
(b) Operate vehicles.
(c) Swim against floods.
(d) Avoid going on excursions.
(e) Neglect flood warning messages.

III. Activity

Make a flood plan:
On a piece of paper, draw your village/town map roughly. Locate your home, school and playground on the map. Then draw the rivers/stream/lake and road, located nearest to your village/town. Answer the questions listed below.

Question 1.
Which areas and roads would be mostly affected by flood?
Answer:

1. Floods can happen on flat or low-lying areas when water is supplied by rainfall or snowmelt more rapidly than it can either infiltrate or run off.
2. The excess accumulates in place, sometimes to hazardous depths.
3. Surface soil can become saturated, which effectively stops infiltration, where the water table is shallow, such as a floodplain, or from intense rain from one or a series of storms.
4. Infiltration also is slow to negligible through frozen ground, rock, concrete.
5. Areas near water bodies such as lake, river, etc. are also affected by flood.

Question 2.
Can you find out evacuation route?
Answer:

1. In order to avoid great losses and fatality affected by flooding, an evacuation route is to be found out.
2. A study of non physical mitigation, i.e. to establish some alternatives of evacuation routes to some temporary shelters is to be conducted well in advance.
3. A research on the selected several evacuation routes, with the help of Geographic Information System (GIS) can be done.
4. The research can be conducted by analyzing the flood magnitude, inundation area, population density, settlement concentration, temporary shelter locations, topographic condition and existing road system.

Question 3.
If you live in a flood-prone area, what are the precautionary measures you hav e to take during heavy rains?
Answer:
Precaution measures:

1. Listen to the weather reports from Radio, TV, etc.
2. Do not wait until you see rising water.
3. Get out of low areas subject to flooding.
4. If driving, do not drive through flooded roadways!

Be prepared to evacuate:

1. Identify places to go. .
2. Identify alternative travel routes that are not prone to flooding.

Protect your property:

1. Move valuables and furniture to higher levels.
2. Disconnect electrical appliances. Do not touch them if you are wet or standing in water.
3. Bring outside possessions indoors or tie them down securely.
4. Seal vents to basements to prevent flooding.

Question 4.
What are things that you should have in your ‘Go- Kit’ / ‘Drive -away kit’?
‘Go-Kit’ – emergency kit should include some of the following items:
Answer:

1. Drinking water containers.
2. Food that does not require cooking.
3. Cash.
4. Medications and first aid supplies.
5. Clothing, Blanket, toiletries.
6. Battery-powered radio.
7. Flashlights.
8. Extra batteries.
9. Important documents: insurance papers, medical records, bank account numbers.

Question 5.
Make a Hst of emergency numbers. (‘Go-kit’-A kit prepared by and for an Individual
or group who expects to develop It in alternative locations during emergency)
Answer:
The following are the list of Emergency help line telephone numbers:

1. Police – 100
2. Police SMS – 9500099100
3. Fire Service / Rescue Service – 101
4. Traffic Police – 103
5. Accidents – 100,103
6. Traffic Police SMS – 9840000103
7. Ambulance Service – 102, 108
8. Women Help line – 1091
9. Child Help line – 1098
10. Emergency & Accidents – 1099
11. Senior Citizen Help line – 1253
12. Emergency Help line in National Highways – 1033
13. Coastal Emergency Help line – 1093
14. Blood Bank Emergency Help line – 1910
15. Eye Bank Emergency Help line – 1919.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. Stampede is a _________ disaster
2. Avalanches are_________ disaster.
3. The point where an earthquake originate is called its_________
4. Volcanoes are_________where lava erupts.
5. The waves generated by earthquake and volcanic eruptions are called _________
6. A low pressure area which encircled by high-pressure wind is called _________
7. Tsunami Early Warning System was established at Hyderabad in _________
8. Floods that occur within six hours during heavy rainfall are known as _________
9. The lessening of the adverse impacts of hazards and related disasters is _________
10. Rain fed area is primarily supported with _________

Answer:

1. Manmade
2. Natural
3. focus
4. openings/vents
5. Tsunami
6. Cyclones
7. 2007
8. flash floods
9. Mitigation
10. rain water

II. Match the following.

Answer:

1. – iv
2.  – i
3. – v
4. – ii
5. – iii

III. Choose the correct pair:

a. Floods – (i) Massive waves up to 30 m.
b. Cyclone – (ii) Lava
c. Avalanches – (iii) ice, snow and rock fall
d. Landslide – (iv) Low pressure
Answer:
(c) Avalanches – iii) ice, snow and rock fall.

Question 2.
Statement I : Do not go to the Coast to watch Tsunami.
Statement II : During floods drink cold water.
Find out the correct option.
a) I & II are correct
b) I & II are wrong
c) I is correct
d) II is correct
Answer:
(c) I is correct.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Man made disasters involve human and material loss.
Reason (R) : The stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, causing
suffocation and trampling.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is gives the correct explanation.
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not giving the correct explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct
d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is gives the correct explanation

IV. Give short answers to the following questions.

Question 1.
What does the World Disaster Report say?
Answer:

1. The latest development which has been discovered in the World Disaster Reports recently is that the disasters have increased in frequency and intensity.
2. India is one of the most disaster-prone countries of the world.

Question 2.
Explain the terms focus and epicentre.
Answer:

1. The point where an earthquake originate is called its focus.
2. The vertical point at the surface from the focus is called epicentre.

Question 3.
What are Volcanoes?
Answer:
Volcanoes are openings or vents where lava, small rocks and steam erupt on to the Earth’s surface.

Question 4.
Define Tsunami.
Answer:
Tsunami are waves generated by earthquake, volcanic eruptions and underwater landslides.

Question 5.
Explain the term cyclones.
Answer:
A low pressure area which encircled by high-pressure wind is called a cyclone.

Question 6.
Mention the types of floods.
Answer:
a) Flash floods : Such floods that occur within six hours during heavy rainfall.
b) River floods : Such floods are caused by Precipitation over large catchment areas or by melting of snow.
c) Coastal floods : Sometimes floods are associated with cyclone high tides and tsunami.

Question 7.
What are the causes of floods?
Answer:
Causes of floods are :

1. Torrential Rainfall
2. Encroachment of the rivers bank
3. Excessive rainfalls in rivers catchment.
4. Inefficient engineering design in the construction of embankments, dams, and canals.

Question 8.
Mention the effects of floods.
Answer:
The effects of the floods are :

1. Destruction of drainage system
2. Water pollution
3. Soil erosion
4. Stagnation of water
5. Loss of agricultural land and cattle
6. Loss of life and spread of contagious diseases.

Question 9.
What is Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR)
Answer:
Disaster Risk Reduction :

1. The practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyze and manage the causal factors of disasters.
2. There are four key approaches to public awareness for disaster risk reduction.
3. Campaigns, participatory learning, informal education, and formal school based interventions.

V. Give brief answers for the following:

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on man made disaster.
Answer:

1. Fire : Massive forest fires may start in hot and dry weather as a result of lightning and human carelessness or from other causal factors.
2. Destruction of buildings : Demolition of buildings by human activities.
3. Accidents in industries : Chemical, biological accidents that occur due to human error, (e.g.) Bhopal gas tragedy.
4. Accidents in Transport : Violation of road rules, carelessness cause accidents
5. Terrorism : The social unrest or differences in principles leads to terrorism
6. Stampede : The term stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, usually resulting in injuries and death from suffocation and trampling.

Question 2.
What do you know about the society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

1. The society that adhered to four vama system was patriarchal.
2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The number of prime numbers between 11 and 60 is _______
(ii) The numbers 29 and _______ are twin primes.
(iii) 3753 is divisible by 9 and hence divisible by _______
(iv) The number of distinct prime factors of the smallest 4 digit number is______
(v) The sum of distinct prime factors of 30 is ________
Solution:
(i) 12
(ii) 31
(iii) 3
(iv) 2
(v) 10

Question 2.
Say True or False
(i) The sum of any number of odd numbers is always even.
(ii) Every natural number is either prime or composite.
(iii) If a number is divisible by 6, then it must be divisible by 3.
(iv) 16254 is divisible by each of 2, 3, 6 and 9.
(v) The number of distinct prime factors of 105 is 3.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) False
(iii) True
(iv) True
(v) True

Question 3.
Write the smallest and the biggest two digit prime number.
Solution:
Smallest is 11
Biggest is 97

Question 4.
Write the smallest and the biggest three-digit composite number.
Solution:
Smallest three-digit composite number – 100
Biggest three-digit composite number – 999

Question 5.
The sum of any three odd natural numbers is odd. Justify this statement with an example.
Solution:
True, as we know, that,“the sum of any three odd numbers is always an odd number”.
Example: 3 + 7 + 9 = 19 is odd.

Question 6.
The digits of the prime number 13 can be reversed to get another prime number 31. Find if any such pairs exist up to 100.
Solution:
(17, 71), (37, 73) and (79, 97)

Question 7.
Your friend says that every odd number is prime. Give an example to prove him/her wrong.
Solution:
15 is an odd number not prime.

Question 8.
Each of the composite numbers has at least three factors. Justify this statement with an example.
Solution:
True. The composite number 4 has 3 factors namely 1, 2 and 4.

Question 9.
Find the dates of any month of a calendar which are divisible by both 2 and 3.
Solution:
Every month the dates 6, 12, 18, 24 and 30 (excluding February) are divisible by both 2 and 3.

Question 10.
I am a two-digit prime number and the sum of my digits is 10.1 am also one of the factors of 57. Who am I?
Solution:
19

Question 11.
Find the prime factorisation of each number by factor tree method and division method.
(a) 60
(b) 128
(c) 144
(d) 198
(e) 420
(f) 999
Solution:
(a) 60

∴ 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Also

∴ 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
(b) 128

∴ 128 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
Also

∴ 128 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
(c) 144

∴ 144 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
Also

∴ 144 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
(d) 198

∴ 198 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 11
Also

∴ 198 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 11
(e) 420

∴ 420 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
Also

∴ 420 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
(f) 999

∴ 999 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 37
Also

∴ 999 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 37

Question 12.
If there are 143 math books to be arranged in equal numbers in all the stacks, then find the number of books in each stack and also the number of stacks.
Solution:
Total number of books = 143
Factorizing 143 = 11 × 13

A number of stacks and number of books in each stack may be (11, 13) or (13, 11).

Objective Type Questions

Question 13.
The difference between two successive odd number is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0
Solution:
(b) 2

Question 14.
The only even prime number is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d)
Solution:
(c) 2

Question 15.
Which of the following numbers is not prime?
(a) 53
(b) 92
(c) 97
(d) 71
Solution:
(b) 92

Question 16.
The sum of the factors of 27 is
(a) 28
(b) 37
(c) 40
(d) 31
Solution:
(c) 40

Question 17.
The factors of a number are 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 16, 20, 40 and 80. What is the number?
(a) 80
(b) 100
(c) 128
(d) 160
Solution:
(a) 80

Question 18.
The prime factorisation of 60 is 2 × 2 × 3 × 5. Any other number which has the same prime factorisation as 60 is
(a) 30
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) impossible
Solution:
(d) impossible

Question 19.
If the number 6354*97 is divisible by 9, then the value * is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7

Solution:
(a) 2

Question 20.
The number 87846 is divisible by
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 11 only
(d) all of these
Solution:
(d) all of these

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.2

Miscellaneous Practice problems

Question 1.
Draw and answer the following.
i) A triangle which has no line of symmetry
ii) A triangle which has only one line of symmetry
iii) A triangle which has three lines of symmetry
Solution:
(i) A Scalene triangle has no line of symmetry

(ii) An isosceles triangle has only one

(iii) An equilateral triangle has three lines of symmetry.

Question 2.
Find the alphabets in the box which have
i) No Line of symmetry
ii) Rotational symmetry
iii) Reflection symmetry
iv) Reflection and rotational symmetry

Solution:
i) The alphabets which have no line of symmetry are P, N, S, Z
ii) The alphabets which have Rotational symmetry are I, O, N, X, S, H, Z
iii) The alphabets which have reflection symmetry are A, M, E, D, I, K, O, X, H, U, V, W.
iv) The alphabets which has reflection and rotational symmetry are I, O, X, H.

Question 3.
For the following pictures, find the number of lines of symmetry and also find the order of rotation.

Solution:
Number of lines of symmetry is 0; order of rotation is 2

ii)
Number of lines of symmetry is 1.
Order of rotation is 0, because it is an isosceles triangle

iii) Number of lines of symmetry are 2
Order of rotation is 2

iv) Number of lines of symmetry 8 and order of rotation 8

v)

Number of line of symmetry is 1 and order of rotation 0

Question 4.
The three digit number 101 has rotational and reflection symmetry. Give five more examples of three digit number which have both rotational and reflection symmetry.
Solution:
181, 111, 808, 818, 888

Question 5.
Translate the given pattern and com ilete the design in rectangular strip?

Solution:

Challenge Problems

Question 6.
Shade one square so that it possesses
i) One line of symmetry
ii) Rotational symmetry of order 2

Solution:

Question 7.
Join six identical squares so that atleast one side of a square fits exactly with any other side of the square and have reflection symmetry (any three ways).
Solution:
The required combination of squares are given below.

Question 8.
Draw the following:
Solution:
i) A figure which has reflection symmetry but no rotational symmetry.

ii) A figure which has rotational symmetry but no reflection symmetry.

iii) A figure which has both reflection and rotational symmetry.

Question 9.
Find the line of symmetry and the order of rotational symmetry of the given regular polygons and complete the following table and answer the questions given below.

i) A regular polygon of 10 sides will have ____ lines of symmetry.
ii) If a regular polygon has 10 lines of symmetry, then its order of rotational symmetry is _____
iii) A regular polygon of ‘n’ sides ______ has lines of symmetry and the order of rational symmery is _____.

Question 10.
Color the boxes in such a way that it possess translation symmetry.

Solution:
The following figures coloured to posses translation symmetry.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an output device?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Speaker
(d) Pendrive
Answer:
(c) Speaker

Question 2.
Name the cable that connects CPU to the Monitor
(a) Ethernet
(b) Power cord
(c) HDMI
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) Power cord

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an input device?
(a) Speaker
(b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Keyboard

Question 4.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connections?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) Electric wires
(c) VGA
(d) USB
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 5.
Pen drive is _______ device
(a) Output
(b) Input
(c) Storage
(d) Connecting cable
Answer:
(c) Storage

II. Match the following:

1. VGA – Input device
2. Bluetooth – Connecting cable
3. Printer – LDMI
4. Keyboard – Wireless connection
5. HDMI – Output device

Answer:

1. VGA – Connecting cable
2. Bluetooth – Wireless connection
3. Printer – Output device
4. Keyboard – Input device
5. HDMI – LDMI

III. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Name the parts of a computer.
Answer:
Input unit (keyboard, mouse, scanner), Central Processing Unit (CPU),
Output unit (monitor, printer, speaker) are the parts of computer.

Question 2.
Bring out any two differences between input and output devices.
Answer:
Input device:

1. It helps to send the data and commands for the processing.
2. Example: Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Barcode reader, web-camera, Microphone-mic

Output device:

1. The output unit converts command received by the computer in the form of binary signals into easily understandable characters.
2. Example : Monitor, Printer, Speaker, Scanner

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Intext Activities

Activity 1

(Look at the magic of connecting cables to desktop computer with 4,3,2,1 formula, start from 4 proceed till 1. Now your computer is ready to use). By connecting the various parts of a computer we can assemble a computer. For the construction activity, students have to use 4-3-2-1 formula. A system consist of mouse, key board, monitor, CPU, power cables, and connecting cables Students has to connect the four parts of a computer in row 4, using the cables in row 3, through the power cables in row 2 to construct a system.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The _______ is used to move the pointer on a computer screen.
(a) Pendrive
(b) Microphone
(c) Mouse
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 2.
The page on the monitor can be moved up and down using the .
(a) Scroll ball
(b) Left button
(c) Right button
Answer:
(a) Scroll ball

Question 3.
Memory can be expanded externally with the help of _______
(a) Compact Disc
(b) Mouse
(c) Keyboard
(d) Light pen
Answer:
(a) Compact disc

Question 4.
Micro computer is also known as ………
(a) Desktop computer
(b) Personal computer
(c) Laptop
(d) Tablet
Answer:
(b) Personal computer

Question 5.
To connect the speaker to the computer, is used.
(a) mic cable
(b) Audio jack
(c) power cord
(d) Data cable
Answer:
(b) Audio jack

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The data is processed in the _______
2. The output unit converts, commend received by the computer in the form of _______
3. The Computer system which has _______ monitor, emits less heat.
4. _______ computer comes under the micro computer.
5. As the computer is connected with one another, it is also called as _______
6. To connect the Mic to the CPU _______ is used.

Answers:

1. CPU
2. binary signals
3. TFT
4. personal
5. system
6. mic wire/cord

III. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Give some examples of input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Barcode Reader, Microphone, Web camera, Light pen are some input devices.

Question 2.
What are the two types of keys in key board?
Answer:
Keyboard has two types of keys namely number keys and alphabet keys.

Question 3.
Give the uses of right and left button of mouse.
Answer:
Right button is used to select files and to open folder. Left button is used to carryout corrections in the file.

Question 4.
What are the parts of CPU?
Answer:
CPU has three parts, namely

1. Memory unit
2. Arithmetic logic unit. (ALU)
3. Control unit.

Question 5.
Define: Memory unit.
Answer:
The memory unit in the computer saves all data and information temporarily.

Question 6.
Give some examples of output device.
Answer:
Monitor, Printer, Speaker, Scanner are some of the output device.

Question 7.
Name of types of monitors.
Answer:
There are two types of monitors, namely

1. Cathode Ray Tube monitors (CRT)
2. Thin Film Transistor monitors (TFT)

Question 8.
How is a computer classified?
Answer:
A Computer can be classified as follows:

1. Main frame Computer
2. Mini Computer
3. Micro or personal Computer
4. Super Computer

Question 9.
What are the types of Personal Computer?
Answer:
Personal Computer can be classified into three types.

1. Desk top
2. Laptop
3. Tablet.

Question 10.
What is the use of Ethernet?
Answer:
Ethernet cable helps to establish internet connectivity.

Question 11.
Give two examples of wireless connection.
Answer:
Blue tooth and WiFi are used to connect internet without using cables.

Question 12.
What is the use of Bluetooth?
Answer:
Mouse, Keyboard can be connected to the computer using the bluetooth. Using the Bluetooth, the data can be shared with nearby devices.

Question 13.
What is the use of Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Net connectivity can be obtained using the WiFi without any connecting cables. Any data from anywhere can be shared using WiFi.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the types of connecting cables? Describe them.
Answer:
Types of Cables:

• Video Graphics Array (VGA)
• High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)
• Universal Serial Bus (USB)
• Data cable
• Power Cord
• Mic cable
• Ethernet cable

1. VGA cable It is used to connect the computer monitor with the CPU.
2. USB cable /cord Devices like Printer, Pendrive, Scanner, Mouse, Keyboard, web camera, and Mobile phone devices are connected with the computer using USB cord or cable.
3. HDMI cable HDMI cable transmits high quality and high bandwidth streams of audio and video. It connects monitor, projector with the computer.
4. Data cable Data cable transmits data and it is used to connect tablet, mobile phones to the CPU for data transfer.
5. Audio jack The audio jack is used to connect the speaker to the computer.
6. Power cord Power cord temporarily connects an appliance to the main electricity supply.
7. Mic cable To connect the Mic to the CPU, Mic wire/cord is used.
8. Ethernet Ethernet cable helps to establish internet connectivity.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Ratio and Proportion Ex 3.5

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
The maximum speed of some of the animals are given below:
the Elephant = 20 km/h, the Lion = 80 km/hr; the Cheetah = 100 km/h.
Find the following ratios of their speeds in simplified form and find which ratio is the least?
(i) the Elephant and the Lion
(ii) the Lion and the Cheetah
(iii) the Elephant and the Cheetah.
Solution:

∴ The ratio of Elephant to Cheetah is the least.

Question 2.
A particular high school has 1500 students, 50 teachers and 5 administrators. If the school grow s to 1800 students and the ratios are mentioned, then find the number of teachers and administrators.
Solution:
The ratio of Students : teachers : administrators = 1500 : 50 : 5.
The new ratio of Students : teachers : administrators = 1800 : new teachers : new administrators.
Given the ratios are maintained. i.e., they are proportional.

∴ For 1800 students 60 teachers and 6 administrators are needed.

Question 3.
I have a box which has 3 green, 9 blue, 4 yellow, 8 orange coloured cubes in it.
(a) What is the ratio of orange to yellow cubes?
(b) What is the ratio of green to blue cubes?
(c) How many different ratios can be formed, when you compare each colour to any one of the other colours?

Solution:
Number of green cubes = 3
Number of blue cubes = 9
Number of yellow cubes = 4
Number of orange cubes = 8
(a) Ratio of orange to yellow cubes \(\frac{\text { Number of orange cubes }}{\text { Number of yellow cubes }}=\frac{8}{4}=\frac{2}{1}=2: 1\)
Ratio of orange to yellow cubes = 2 : 1
(b) \(\frac{\text { Number of green cubes }}{\text { Number of blue cubes }}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
Ratio of green to blue cubes = 1 : 3
(c) The ratios can be Orange : Yellow, Orange: blue, Orange : green, Yellow : Orange, yellow : blue, yellow : green, blue : green, blue : orange, blue : yellow, green : orange, green : yellow, green : blue. Thus 12 ratios can be formed.

Question 4.
A gets double of what B gets and B gets double of what C gets. Find A : B and B : C and verify whether the result is in proportion or not.
Solution:
A : B = 2 : 1
B : C = 2 : 1
They are in proportion

Question 5.
The ingredients required for the preparation of Ragi Kali, a healthy dish of Tamilnadu is given below.

(a) If one cup of ragi flour is used then, what would be the amount of raw rice required?
(b) If 16 cups of water are used, then how much of ragi flour should be used?
(c) Which of these ingredients cannot be expressed as a ratio? Why?
Solution:
(a) Given Ragi flour: raw rice = 4 : 1
If one cup of ragi flour used then the ratio of ragi flour : raw rice = \(\frac{4}{4}: \frac{1}{4}=1: \frac{1}{4}\)
Raw rice required = \(\frac{1}{4}\) cup
(b) Ratio of water : ragi flour = 8 : 4
If 16 cups of water used then ratio of water : ragi flour = 8 × 2 : 4 × 2 = 16 : 8
8 cups of ragi flour are used.
(c) We know that the quantities of the same units can be compared. Here Ragi flour, Raw rice and water are in one unit, Sesame oil and salt are in different units, these different units cannot be compared and cannot be expressed as a ratio.

Challenging Problem (Textbook Page No. 74)

Question 6.
Antony brushes his teeth in the morning and night on all days in a week. Shabeen brushes her teeth only in the morning. What is the ratio of the number of times they brush their teeth in a week?
Solution:
Number of times = 14 : 7 = 2 : 1

Question 7.
Thirumagal’s mother wears a bracelet made of 35 red beads and 30 blue beads. Thirumagal wants to make smaller bracelets using the same two coloured beads in the same ratio. In how many different ways can she make the bracelets?

Solution:
Ratio of red beads : blue beads = 35 : 30 = 7 : 6
Also given that the bracelet made is smaller in size
∴ The possible ways are red beads : blue beads = 7 : 6 (or) 14 : 12 (or) 21 : 18 (or) 28 : 24
In 4 different way can she made.

Question 8.
Team A wins 26 matches out of 52 matches. Team B wins three-fourth of 52 matches played. Which team has a better winning record?
Solution:
Team A = \(\frac{26}{52}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Team B = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 52 = 39
Team B has a better winning record.

Question 9.
In a school excursion, 6 teachers and 12 students from 6th standard and 9 teachers and 27 students from 7th standard, 4 teachers and 16 students from 8th standard took part. Which class has the least teacher to student ratio?
Solution:
Teacher to Student Ratio of 6th Std = 6 : 12 = 1 : 2
Teacher to Student Ratio of 7th Std = 9 : 27 = 1 : 3
Teacher to Student Ratio of 8th Std = 4 : 16 = 1 : 4
In standard 8th the ratio of teacher to student is 1 : 4 and which is the least.

Question 10.
Fill the blanks using any set of suitable numbers 6 : …… :: ……. : 15
Solution:
6 : ……. = …….. : 15
Product of the extremes = 6 × 15 = 90
Set of suitable numbers
1 and 90, 2 and 45, 3 and 30, 5 and 18, 6 and 15

Question 11.
From your school diary, write the ratio of the number of holidays to the number of working days in the current academic year.
Solution:
Number of working days in an academic year = 220
Number of holidays = 365 – 220 = 145
\(\frac{\text { Number of holidays }}{\text { Number of working days }}=\frac{145}{220}=\frac{29}{44}\)
Number of holidays : No of working days = 29 : 44

Question 12.
If the ratio of Green, Yellow and Black balls in a bag is 4 : 3 : 5, then
(a) Which is the most likely ball that you can choose from the bag?
(b) How many balls in total are there in the bag if you have 40 black balls in it?
(c) Find the number of green and yellow balls in the bag.
Solution:
Green : Yellow : Black = 4 : 3 : 5
(i) Blackballs;
(ii) 96 balls (32 + 24 + 40);
(iii) green balls = 32
yellow balls = 24

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Introduction to Algebra Ex 2.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) The letters a, b, c, .., x, y, z are used to represent _____
(ii) A quantity that takes _____ values is called a variable.
(iii) If there are 5 students on a bench, then the number of students in ‘n’ benches is ‘5 × n’. Here _____ is a variable.
Solution:
(i) Variables
(ii) Different
(iii) n

Question 2.
Say True or False:
(i) The length of part B in the pencil shown is ‘a – 6’.

(ii) If the cost of an apple is ‘x’ and cost of banana is ₹ 5, then the total cost of fruits is ₹ ‘x + 5′
(iii) If there are 11 players in a team, then there will be ’11 + q’ players in ‘q’ teams.
Solution:
(i) False
Length of B is 6 – a
(ii) True
(iii) False
There will be 11q players.

Question 3.
Draw the next two patterns and complete the table.

Solution:

Question 4.
Use a variable to write the rule, which gives the number of ice candy sticks required to make the following patterns.
(a) a pattern of letter C as

(b) the pattern of letter M as

Solution:
(a) A number of sticks used for 1  is 3.

If the number of  formed is ‘n’ then
the number of ice candy sticks required = 3 × n = 3n.
(b) A number of sticks used for one’ is 4.

The number of ice candy sticks required = 4n.

Question 5.
The teacher forms a group of five students in a class. How many students will be there in ‘p’ groups?
Solution:

5p students will be there in groups.

Question 6.
Arivazhagan is 30 years younger to his father. Write Arivazhagan’s age in terms of his father’s age.
Solution:
Let Arivazhagan’s father’s age be x years
According to the problem,
Arivazhagan’s age = (x – 30) years

Question 7.
If ‘u’ is an even number, how would you represent?
(i) the next even number?
(ii) the previous even number?
Solution:
(i) Difference between two even numbers = 2
Given that ‘u’ is an even number.
Next, even number is u + 2.
(ii) Previous even number is u – 2.

Objective Type Questions

Question 8.
Variable means that it
(a) can take only a few values
(b) has a fixed value
(c) can take different values
(d) can take only 8 values
Solution:
(c) can take different values

Question 9.
‘6y’ means.
(a) 6 + y
(b) 6 – y
(c) 6 × y
(d) \(\frac{6}{y}\)
Solution:
(c) 6 × y

Question 10.
Radha is ‘x’ years of age now 4 years ago, her age was
(a) x – 4
(b) 4 – x
(c) 4 + x
(d) 4x
Solution:
(a) x – 4

Question 11.
The number of days in ‘w’ weeks is
(a) 30 + w
(b) 30w
(c) 7 + w
(d) 7w
Solution:
(d) 7w

Question 12.
The value of ‘x’ in the circle is

(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 21
(d) 22
Solution:
(d) 22
2 + 2 = 4, 4 + 3 = 7, 7 + 4 = 11, 11 + 5 = 16, 16 + 6 = 22

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Measurements Ex 2.3

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Two pipes whose lengths are 7 m 25 cm and 8 m 13 cm joined by welding and then a small piece 60 cm is cut from the whole. What is the remaining length of the pipe?
Solution:

Question 2.
The saplings are planted at a distance of 2 m 50 cm in the road of length 5 km by saravanan. If he has 2560 saplings, how many saplings will be planted by him? how many saplings are left?
Solution:
Distance between two saplings = 2 m 50 cm = 250 cm
Total length of the road = 5000 m = 500000 cm

Question 3.
Put ✓ a mark in the circles which adds up to the given measure.

Solution:

Question 4.
Make a calendar for the month of February 2020 (Hint: January 1st 2020 is Wednesday)
Solution:
Given Jan 1st 2020 is Wednesday.
1st + 7 = 8th Wednesday
8th + 7 = 15th Wednesday
15th + 7 = 22nd Wednesday
22nd + 7 = 29th Wednesday
Jan = 30th Thursday
Jan 31st Friday
Feb 1st Saturday
February has 29 days as 2020 is a leap year.

Question 5.
Observe and Collect the data for a minute:

Solution:

Challenge Problems

Question 6.
A squirrel wants to eat the grains quickly. Help the squirrel to find the shortest way to reach the grains. (Use your scale to measure the length of the line segments)

Solution:
The squirrel is in A and the grains are at E
The ways are (i) A → B → C → D → E
(ii) A → G → F → K → E
(iii) A → H → I → J → E
Distance
(i) AB + BC + CD + DE = 2 cm + 2.5 cm + 2.5 cm + 2 cm = 9 cm
(ii) AG + GF + FK + KE = (2.6 + 1.7 + 1.8 + 3) cm = 9.1 cm
(iii) AH + HI + IJ + JE = 3 cm + 2.3 cm + 1 cm + 3.2 cm = 9.5 cm.
1st way ABCDE is the shortest one.

Question 7.
A room has a door whose measures are 1 m wide and 2 m 50 cm high.
(i) Can we make a bed of 2 m and 20 cm length and 90 cm wide into the room?
Solution:
Measures of the door length 2 m 50 cm width and lm (100 cm)
(i) Measures of the bed 2 m 20 cm width and 90 cm
Measures of the bed < measures of the door
∴ Yes, we can take the bed into the room.

Question 8.
A post office functions from 10 a.m to 5.45 pm with a lunch break of 1 hour. If the post office works for 6 days a week. Find the total duration of working hours in a week.
Solution:
Working hours in a day = 6 hrs 45 min
= (6 × 60 min) + 45 min
= (360 + 45) min
= 405 min
Total duration of working hours in a week
= 6 × 405 min
= 2430 min
= \(\frac{2430}{60}\)
= \(\frac{810}{20}\)
= 40 \(\frac{1}{2}\)
= 40 hours 30 minutes

Question 9.
Seetha wakes up at 5.20 a.m. She spends 35 minutes to get ready and travels 15 minutes to reach the railway station. If the train departs exactly at 6 : 00 a.m, will Seetha catch the train?
Solution:
Time of wake up = 5.20 a.m = 5 hour 20 minutes
Time spends = 35 minutes
Then the time = 5 hour 55 minutes
Travelling time to reach railway station = 15 minutes
Now the time will be = 5 hours 70 minutes
= 5 hours (60 + 10) minutes
= 5 hours + (1 hour 10 minutes)
= 6 hours 10 minutes
= 6.10 a.m.
The departure time of the train to get ready = 6.0 a.m.
∴ She will not be able to catch the train.

Question 10.
A doctor advised Vairavan to take one tablet every 6 hours once in the 1st day and once every 8 hours on the 2nd and 3rd day. If he starts to take 9.30 a.m first dose. Prepare a time chart to take the tablet in railway time.
Solution:
The first dose is taken at 9.30 a.m. = 09:30 hours
Duration of every dose in 1st day = 6 hours
Duration of every dose in 2nd and 3rd day = 8 hours
Time Chart.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Find the type of lines marked in thick lines (Parallel, intersecting or perpendicular)

Solution:
(i) Parallel lines
(ii) Parallel lines
(iii) Parallel lines and Perpendicular lines
(iv) Intersecting lines

Question 2.
Find the parallel and intersecting line segments in the picture given below.

Solution:
(a) Parallel line segments

• \(\overline{\mathrm{YZ}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{DE}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{EA}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{ZV}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{VW}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{AB}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{WX}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{BC}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{YX}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{DC}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{YD}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{XC}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{XC}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{WB}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{WB}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{VA}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{VA}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{ZE}}\)
• \(\overline{\mathrm{ZE}} \text { and } \overline{\mathrm{YD}}\)

(b) Intersecting line segments

• DE and ZV
• WX and DC

Question 3.
Name the following angles as shown in the figure.

Solution:
(i) ∠1 = ∠DBC or ∠CBD
(ii) ∠2 = ∠DBE or ∠EBD
(iii) ∠3 = ∠ABE or ∠EBA
(iv) ∠1 + ∠2 = ∠EBC or ∠CBE
(v) ∠2 + ∠3 = ∠ABD or ∠DHA
(vi) ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 = ∠ABC or ∠B or ∠CBA

Question 4.
Measure the angles of the given figures using a protractor and identify the type of angle as acute, obtuse, right or straight.

Solution:
(i) 90° – Right Angle
(ii) 45° – Acute Angle
(iii) 180° – Straight Angle
(iv) 105° – Obtuse Angle

Question 5.
Draw the following angles using the protractor.
(i) 45°
(ii) 120°
(iii) 65°
(iv) 135°
(v) 0°
(vi) 180°
(vii) 38°
(viii) 90°
Solution:
(i) 45°

Construction:
1. Drawn the base ray PQ.
2. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex P. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PQ}}\) with the 0° line. Then drawn and labelled a pointed (R) at the 45° mark on the inner scale (a) anticlockwise and (b) outer scale (clockwise)
3. Removed the protractor and drawn at \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PR}}\) to complete the angle
Now ∠P = ∠QPR – ∠RPQ = 45°.

(ii) 120°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex X. Lined up the ray \(\overline{\mathrm{XY}}\) with the 0° Line. Then draw and label a point Z at 120° mark on the (a) inner scale (anti-clockwise) and (b) outer scale (clockwise).
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overline{\mathrm{XZ}}\) to complete the angle.
Now, ∠X = ∠ZXY = ∠YXZ = 120°.

(iii) 65°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex A. Line up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point C at the 65° mark on the (a) inner scale (anti-clockwise) (b) outer scale (clockwise).
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠A = ∠BAC = ∠CAB = 65°.

(iv) 135°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the Vertex A. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{EG}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point F at the 135° mark on the (a) inner scale (anti-clockwise) and (b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{EF}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠E = ∠FEG = ∠GEF = 135°.

(v) 0°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex G. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{GH}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point I at the 0° mark on the
(a) inner scale (anti-clockwise)
(b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and seen \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{GI}}\) lies exactly on \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{GH}}\)
Now ∠G = ∠HGI = ∠IGH = 0°, which is a zero angle.

(vi) 180°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex I. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{IJ}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and labelled a point K at the 180° mark on the (a) inner scale (anticlockwise) (b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{IK}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠I = ∠JHK = ∠KIJ = 180°, which is a straight Angle.

(vii) 38°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex L. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{LM}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point N at 38° mark on the (a) inner scale (anticlockwise) and (b)*huter scale (clockwise).
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{LN}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠L = ∠MLN = ∠NLM = 38°.

(viii) 90°

Construction:
1. Placed the centre of the protractor at the vertex ‘O’. Lined up the ray \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}\) with the 0° line. Then draw and label a point Q at 90° mark on the (a) inner scale (anticlockwise) and (b) outer scale (clockwise)
2. Removed the protractor and draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OQ}}\) to complete the angle.
Now ∠O = ∠POQ = ∠QOP = 90°.

Question 6.
From the figures given below, classify the following pairs of angles into complementary and non-complementary.

Solution:
We know that the two angles are complementary if they add up to 90°.
Therefore (a) (i) is complementary.
In (v) ∠ABC and ∠CBD are complementary
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are non-complementary

Question 7.
From the figures given below, classify the following pairs of angles into supplementary and non-supplementary.

Solution:
If two angles add up to 180°, then they are supplementary angles.
(a) In (ii) ∠AOB and ∠BOD are supplementary. In (iv) the pair is supplementary
(b) (i) and (iii) are not supplementary.

Question 8.
From the figure.
(i) name a pair of complementary angles
(ii) name a pair of supplementary angles

Solution:
(i) ∠FAE and ∠DAE are complementary
(ii) ∠FAD and ∠DAC are supplementary

Question 9.
Find the complementary angle of
(i) 30°
(ii) 26°
(iii) 85°
(iv) 0°
Solution:
When we have an angle, how far we need to go to reach the right angle is called the complementary angle.
(i) Complementary angle of 30° is 90° – 30° = 60°
(ii) Complementary angle of 26° is 90° – 26° = 64°
(iii) Complementary angle of 85° is 90° – 85° = 5°
(iv) Complementary angle of 0° is 90° – 0° = 90°
(v) Complementary angle of 90° is 90° – 90° = 0°

Question 10.
Find the supplementary angle of
(i) 70°
(ii) 35°
(iii) 165°
(iv) 90°
(v) 0°
(vi) 180°
(vii) 95°
Solution:
How far we should go in the same direction to reach the straight angle (180°) is called supplementary angle.
(i) Supplementary angle of 70° = 180° – 70° = 110°
(ii) Supplementary angle of 35° is 180° – 35° = 145°
(iii) Supplementary angle of 165° is 180° – 165° = 15°
(iv) Supplementary angle of 90° is 180° – 90° = 90°
(v) Supplementary angle of 0° is 180° – 0° = 180°
(vi) Supplementary angle of 180° is 180° – 180° = 0°
(vii) Supplementary angle of 95° is 180° – 95° = 85°

Challenging Problems

Question 11.
Think and write and object having.
(i) Parallel Lines
1. _____________
2. _____________
3. _____________
(ii) Perpendicular lines
1. _____________
2. _____________
3. _____________
(iii) Intersecting lines
1. _____________
2. _____________
3. _____________
Solution:
(i) 1. Opposite edges of a Table.
2. Path traced by the wheels of a car on a straight road
3. Opposite edges of a black board
(ii) 1. Adjacent edges of a Table.
2. Hands of the block when it shows 3.30
3. Strokes of the letter ‘L’
(iii) 1. Sides of a triangle
2. Strokes of letter ‘V’
3. Hands of a scissors

Question 12.
Which angle is equal to twice of its complement?
Solution:
We know that the sum of complementary angles 90°
Given Angle = 2 × Complementary angle

By trial and error, we find that Angle = 2 × Complement for 60°
The required angle = 60°
Another method:
Let the angle be x given
x = 2 (90 – x)
⇒ x = 180 – 2x
⇒ x + 2x = 180
⇒ 3x = 180
⇒ x = 60°

Question 13.
Which angle is equal to two-thirds of its supplement.
Solution:
Supplementary angles sum upto 180°
Given Angle = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × Supplement.
Forming the Table.

By trial and error, we find that angle = \(\frac{2}{3}\) × supplement for 72°.
The required angle 72°.

Question 14.
Given two angles are supplementary and one angle is 20° more than other. Find the two angles.
Solution:
Given two angles are supplementary i.e. their sum = 180°.
Let the angle be x
Then another angle = x + 20 (given)

The two angles are 80° and 100°.

Question 15.
Two complementary angles are in the ratio 7 : 2. Find the angles.
Solution:
Let the angles be 7x, 2x
According to the problem,
7x + 2x = 90
9x = 90
x = \(\frac{90}{9}\)
x = 10
7x = 7 × 10
= 70
2x = 2 × 10
= 20
∴ Two angles are 70° and 20°

Question 16.
Two supplementary angles are in ratio 5 : 4. Find the angles.
Solution:
Total of two supplementary angles = 180°
Given they are in the ratio 5 : 4
Dividing total angles to 5 + 4 = 9 equal parts.
One angle \(=\frac{5}{9} \times 180=100^{\circ}\)
Another angle \(=\frac{4}{9} \times 180=80^{\circ}\)
Two angles are 100° and 80°.