Category: Class 10

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.6 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.6

பலவுள் தெரிவு வினாக்கள்

கேள்வி 1.
n(A × B) = 6 மற்றும் A = {1, 3} எனில் n(B) ஆனது
அ) 1
ஆ) 2
இ) 3
ஈ) 6
விடை :
இ) 3
n(A × B) = 6
n(A) = 2
n(B) = \(\frac{n(A \times B)}{n(A)}=\frac{6}{2}\) = 3

கேள்வி 2.
A= {a, b, p}, B = {2, 3} C = {p, q, r, s} எனில், n[(A ∪ C) × B] ஆனது
அ) 8
ஆ) 20
இ) 12
ஈ) 16
விடை :
இ) 12

A∪C = {a, b, p, q, r, s} = n(A∪C) = 6
B = {2,3} ⇒ n (B) = 2
n[(A ∪ C × B)] = 6 × 2 = 12

கேள்வி 3.
A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5, 6} மற்றும் D = {5, 6, 7, 8} எனில் கீழே
கொடுக்கப்பட்டவைகளில் எது சரியான கூற்று?
அ) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
ஆ) (B × D) ⊂ (A X C)
இ) (A × B) ⊂ (A × D)
ஈ) (D × A) ⊂ (B × A)
விடை :
அ) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
A × C = {1, 2} x {5, 6}
= {(1, 5) (1, 6) (2, 5) (2, 6)}
B × D = {1, 2, 3, 4} × {5, 6, 7, 8}
= {(1, 5) (1, 6) (1, 7) (1, 8) (2, 5) (2, 6) (2, 7) (2,8) (3, 5) (3, 6) (3, 7) (3, 8) (4, 5) (4, 6) (4, 7) (4, 8)}
∴ (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)

கேள்வி 4.
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} -லிருந்து, B என்ற கணத்திற்கு 1024 உறவுகள் உள்ளது எனில் B -ல் உள்ள உறுப்புகளின் எண்ணிக்கை.
அ) 3
ஆ) 2)
இ) 4
ஈ) 8
விடை :
ஆ) 2

n(A) = 5 = p
n(B) = ? = q
2pq = 1024
2^5q = 10
5q = 10
q = 2

கேள்வி 5.
R = {(x, x² ) |X ஆனது 13 – ஐ விடக் குறைவான பகா எண்கள் } என்ற உறவின் வீச்சகமானது
அ) {2, 3, 5,7}
ஆ) {2, 3, 5, 7, 11}
இ) {4, 9, 25, 49, 121}
ஈ) {1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 121}
விடை :
இ) {4, 9, 25, 49, 121}
13 விட குறைவான பகா எண்கள் {2,3, 5, 7, 11}
தரவு f(x) = x²
f(2) = 2² = 4
f(3) = 3² =9
f(5) = 5² = 25
f(7) = 7² = 49
f(11) = 11² = 121
வீச்சகம் = {4, 9, 25, 49, 121}

கேள்வி 6.
(a + 2, 4) மற்றும் (5, 2a + b) ஆகிய வரிசைச் சோடிகள் சமம் எனில், (a, b) என்பது
அ) (2, -2)
ஆ) (5, 1)
இ) (2, 3)
ஈ) (3, -2)
விடை :
ஈ) (3, -2)
a + 2 = 5
a = 5- 2
a = 3
2a + b = 4
2(3) + b = 4
6 + b = 4
b = 4 – 6
b = -2

கேள்வி 7.
n(A) = m மற்றும் n(B) = n என்க. A -லிருந்து B-க்குவரையறுக்கப்பட்ட வெற்றுகணமில்லாத உறவுகளின் மொத்த எண்ணிக்கை
அ) mⁿ
ஆ) n^m
இ) 2^mn – 1
ஈ) 2^mn
விடை :
ஈ) 2^mn
உறவுகளின் மொத்த எண்ணிக்கை
= 2Pq = 2^mnA

கேள்வி 8.
{(a, 8), (6, b)} ஆனது ஒரு சமனிச்சார்பு எனில், a மற்றும் b மதிப்புகளாவன முறையே
அ) (8, 6)
ஆ) (8, 3)
இ) (6, 8)
ஈ) (6, 6)
விடை :
அ) (8, 6)

கேள்வி 9.
A = {1, 2, 3, 4} B = {4, 8, 9, 10} என்க. சார்பு f: A → B ஆனது f = {(1, 4), (2, 8), (3, 9), (4, 10)} எனக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டால் f – என்பது
அ) பலவற்றிலிருந்து ஒன்றுக்கான சார்பு
ஆ) சமனிச்சார்பு
இ) ஒன்றுக்கொன்றான சார்பு
ஈ) உட்சார்பு
விடை :
இ) ஒன்றுக்கொன்றான சார்பு

கேள்வி 10.
f(x) = 2x² மற்றும் g(x) = [LATEX]\(\frac { 1 }{ 3x }\)[/LATEX] எனில் fog ஆனது
அ) \(\frac{3}{2 x^{2}}\)
ஆ) \(\frac{2}{3 x^{2}}\)
இ) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)
ஈ) \(\frac{1}{6 x^{2}}\)
விடை :
இ) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)

கேள்வி 11.
f: A → B ஆனது இருபுறச் சார்பு மற்றும் n(B) = 7 எனில் n(A) ஆனது
அ) 7
ஆ) 49
இ) 1
ஈ) 14
விடை :
அ) 7

கேள்வி 12.
f மற்றும் g என்ற இரண்டு சார்புகளும்
f = {(0, 1), (2, 0), (3, -4), (4, 2), (5, 7)}
g = {(0, 2), (1, 0), (2, 4), (-4, 2), (7, 0)}
எனக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டால் fog-ன் வீச்சகமானது
அ) {0, 2, 3, 4, 5}
ஆ) {-4, 1, 0, 2, 7}
இ) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
ஈ) {0, 1, 2}
விடை :
{0, 1, 2}
g யில் உள்ள எல்லா உறுப்புகளுக்கும் f ல் தொடர்பு உள்ளது.
fog = {0, 1, 2}

கேள்வி 13.
f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+x^{2}}\)எனில்
அ) f(xy) = f(x). f(y)
ஆ) f(xy) ≥ f(x). f(y)
இ) f(xy) ≤ f(x). f(y)
ஈ) இவற்றில் ஒன்றுமில்லை
விடை :
ஆ) ஆ) f(xy) ≥ f(x). f(y)

இருபுறமும் வர்க்கம் காண
1 + x²y² = (1 + x²) (1+y²)
1 + x²y² = 1 + x² + y² + x²y²
எனவே 1+x²y² < 1 + x² + y² + x²y²

கேள்வி 14.
g = {(1, 1) (2, 3) (3, 5) (4, 7) என்ற சார்பானது
g(x) = ax + B எனக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டால் a மற்றும் -வின் மதிப்பானது
அ) (-1, 2)
ஆ) (2, -1)
இ) (-1, -2)
ஈ) (1, 2)
விடை :
(2, -1)
g(x) = ax + β

g(1) = α + β
x, y
(1,1)
g(1) = α + β ………………… (1)
g(2) = 2α + β = 3 ……………….. (2)
x, y
(2, 3)
1, 2 லிருந்து
α = 2
β = -1

கேள்வி 15.
f(x) = (x + 1)³ – (x -1)³ குறிப்பிடும் சார்பானது
அ) நேரிய சார்பு
ஆ) ஒரு கனச் சார்பு
இ) தலைகீழச் சார்பு
ஈ) இருபடிச் சார்பு
விடை :
இருபடிச் சார்பு

f(x) = (x + 1)³ – (x – 1)³
= x³ + 3x² + 3x + 1 – x³ + 3x² -3x + 1
= 6x² + 2 ஒரு இருபடிச்சார்பு

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.5 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.5

கேள்வி 1.
கீழேக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள f மற்றும் g எனும் சார்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்தி fog மற்றும் gof – ஐக் காண்க fog = gof என்பது சரியா சோதிக்க.
i) f(x) = x – 6, g(x) = x²
ii) f(x) = \(\frac{2}{x}\) = g(x) = 2x² – 1
ii) f(x) = \(\frac{x+6}{3}\) g(x) = 3 – x
iv) f(x) = 3 + x, g(x) = x – 4
v) f(x) = 4x² – 1, g(x) = 1 + x
தீர்வு :
i) f(x) = x-6, g(x) = x² [∵ f(x) = x -6]
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x²)
= x² – 6
gof(x) =g[f(x)) = g(x-6)
= (x-6)²
∴ fog ≠ gof

ii) f(x) = \(\frac{2}{x}\) g(x) = 2x² – 1
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(2x² – 1)
= \(\frac{2}{2 x^{2}-1}\)
gof (x) = g(f(x)) = g(\(\frac{2}{x}\))
= 2( \(\frac{2}{x}\) )² – 1
= 2 x \(\frac{4}{x^{2}}\) – 1
= \(\frac{8}{x^{2}}\) – 1
∴ fog ≠ gof

iii) f(x) = \(\frac{x+6}{3}\), g(x) = 3 – x
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(3-x)

iv) f(x) = 3 + x; g(x) = x – 4
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x-4)
= 3 + x -4
= x -1
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(3 + x)
= 3 + x – 4
= x – 1
எனவே fog = gof

v) f(x) = 4x² – 1, g(x) = 1 + x
fog(x) = f(g)(x)) = f(1 + x)
= 4(1 + x)² – 1
= 4(1 + 2x + x²) – 1
= 4 + 8x + 4x² – 1
= 4x² + 8x + 3
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(4x² – 1)
= 1 + 4x² – 1
= 4x²
எனவே fog ≠ gof

கேள்வி 2.
fog = gof எனில் K – யின் மதிப்பைக் காண்க
i) f(x) = 3x + 2, g(x) = 6x – K
ii) f(x) = 2x – K, g(x) = 4x + 5
தீர்வு :
i) f(x) = 3x + 2
g(x) = 6x – K
fog = gof (தர்வு)
fog(x) = gof(x)
f(g(x) = g(f(x))
f(6x – k) = g(3x + 2)
3(6.x – k) + 2 = 6(3.x + 2) – k
18x-3k + 2 = 18.x + 12 – k
2k = -10
k =-5

ii) f(x) = 2x-k, g(x) = 41 + 5
தரவு fog = gof
fog(x) = gof(x)
f(g)(x) = g(f(x)
f(4x + 5) = g(2x-k)
2(4x + 5) -k = 4(2x – k) + 5
8x + 10 – k = 8x -4k + 5
3k = -5
k = -5/3

கேள்வி 3.
f(x) = 2x -1; g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\) எனில், fog = gof = x எனக் காட்டுக.
தீர்வு :
fog (x) = f(g(x)))
= f( \(\frac{x+1}{2}\) )
= \(2\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)-1\)
= x + 1 -1
= x gof = gof(x)
=g(f(x))
=g(2x – 1) = 2x/2
= x
எனவே fog = gof = x
எனவே நிரூபிக்கப்பட்டது.

கேள்வி 4.
f(x) = x² – 1, g(x) = x – 2 மற்றும் gof (a) = 1 எனில் , a ஐக் காண்க
தீர்வு :
i) f(x) = x² – 1;
g (x) = x – 2
தரவு gof(a) =1
g(f(a)) =1
g(a² – 1) = 1
a² – 1 – 2 = 1
a² – 3 = 1
a² = 4
a = ±2

கேள்வி 5.
A, B, C ⊆ N மற்றும் f: A → B என்ற சார்பு f(x) = 2x +1 எனவும் மற்றும்g : B → C ஆனது g(x) = x² எனவும் வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால், fog மற்றும் gof- யின் வீச்சகத்தைக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
தரவு f(x) = 2x +1
g(x) = x²
fog = fog(x)
= f(g(x)))
= f(x²)
= 2x² + 1
gof = gof(x)|
= g(f(x))
= g(2x + 1)
= (2x +1)²
fog மற்றும் gof ன் வீச்சகம்
{y/y = 2x² + 1, x ∈ N }, {y/y = (2x + 1)², x∈N}

கேள்வி 6.
f(x) = x² – 1 எனில் i) fof ii) fofof – ஐக் காண்க
தீர்வு:
தரவு f(x) = x² – 1
a) fof(x) = f(f(x)
= f(x² – 1)
= (x² – 1)² – 1
= x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1
=x⁴ -2x²

b) fofof = fofof(x)
= fof(f(x))
= fof(x² – 1)
= f(f(x2-1))
= f[[x² – 1)² -1)
= f[x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1]
= f[x⁴ – 2x²] ⇒ (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

கேள்வி 7.
f: R – R மற்றும் g:R – R ஆனது முறையே,
f(x) = x⁵, g(x)= x⁴ என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால், fg ஆகியவை ஒன்றுக்கு ஒன்றானதா மற்றும் fog ஒன்றுக்கு ஒன்றான சார்பாகுமா என்று ஆராய்க .
தீர்வு : f(x) = f(y)
x⁵ = y⁵
எனவே x = y
ஆகையால் f ஒரு ஒன்றுக்கு ஒன்றான சார்பு
g(x) = g(y) எனில்
x⁴ = y⁴
ஆகையால் x = y
எனவே g ஒரு ஒன்றுக்கு ஒன்றான சார்பு
fog = fog(x)
= f(g(x))
= f(x⁴)
= (x⁴)⁵
= x²⁰
fog(x) = fog(y) எனில்
x²⁰ = y²⁰
∴ fog ஆனது 1 – 1 சார்பு ஆகும்.

கேள்வி 8.
கொடுக்கப்பட்ட f(x), g(x), h(x) ஆகியவற்றைக் கொண்டு (fog)oh = fo(goh) எனக் காட்டுக.
i) f(x) = x-1, g(x) = 3x + 1 மற்றும் h(x) = x²
ii) f(x) = x² , g(x) = 2x மற்றும் h(x) = x + 4
iii) f(x) = x-4, g(x) = x² மற்றும் h(x) = 3.x – 5
தீர்வு :
i) f(x) = x-1 g(x) = 3x + 1 h(x) = x²
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(3x+1)
= (3x + 1 -1)
= 3x
(fog)oh = (fog) oh (x)
= fog(h(x))
= fog(x² )
= 3x² ……………… (1)

goh(x) = g(h(x)) = g(x² )
= 3x² + 1
fo(goh) = fo(goh(x))
= f(3x² + 1)
fo(goh)= fo(goh(x))
= f(3x² + 1)
= 3x² + 1 – 1
= 3x² ……………….. (2)
(1) , (2) லிருந்து
(fog)oh = fo(goh)

ii) f(x) = x²
g(x) = 2x
h(x) = x + 4
fog(x) = f(g(x)= f(2x)
= (2x)²
= 4x²
(fog)oh = (fog) oh(x)
= fog(h(x)
= fog(x + 4)
= 4(x+4)² =
4(x² + 8x + 16)
= 4x² + 32x + 64
goh = goh = (x) = g(h(x))
=g (x + 4)
= 2 (x + 4) = 2x + 8
fo (goh)= fo (goh)(x)
= fo (2x+8)
= (2x + 8)²
= 4x² + 32x + 64 …………………… (2)
1, 2 லிருந்து

iii) (fog)oh = fo(goh).
f(x) = x – 4
g(x) = x²
h(x) = 3x – 5
fog(x) = fo(x²)
= x² – 4
(fog)oh = (fog)oh(x)
= fog(3x – 5)
= (3x –5)² – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 25 -4
= 9x² -30x + 21 …………….. (1)

goh(x) = go(3x-5)
= (3x – 5)²
= 9x² – 30x + 25

fo(goh)x = fo(9x² -30x + 25)
= 9x² -30x + 25 -4
= 9x² -30x + 21…………………(2)
(1) மற்றும் (2) லிருந்து
(fog)oh = fo(goh)

கேள்வி 9.
f = {{-1, 3), (0, -1), (2, -9)} ஆனது I -லிருந்து Z -க்கான ஒரு நேரிய சார்பு எனில், f(x) -ஐக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = ax + b என்க
கணக்கின்படி f(-1) = 3
a(-1) + b = 3
-a + b = 3 ……………… (1)
மேலும் f(0) = -1
o + b = -1
b = -1
b ன் மதிப்பை (1) ல் பிரதியிட a = -4
∴ f(x) = -4x – 1

கேள்வி 10.
ஒரு மின்சுற்றுக் கோட்பாட்டின் C(t) என்ற ஒரு நேரிய சுற்று, C(at₁ +bt₂ ) = aC(t₁) +bC(t₂) ஐ பூர்த்தி செய்கிறது. மேலும் இங்கு a, b ஆகியவை மாறிலிகள் எனில், C(t) = 3t ஆனது ஒரு நேரிய சுற்று எனக் காட்டுக.
தீர்வு :
கணக்கின்படி c(t) = 3t
c(at₁) = 3at₁ ……………. (1)
c(bt₂) = 3bt₂
1 + 2
c(at₁) + c(bt₂ ) = 3at₁ + 3bt₂
c(at₁ + bt₂ ) = 3at₁ + 3bt₂
= c(at₁) + c(bt₂)
=c(at₁ + bt₂)
மின்சுற்றுக்கோட்பாட்டை பூர்த்தி செய்கிறது.
∴ c(t) = 3t என்பது ஒரு நேரிய சுற்று ஆகும்

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.4 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.4

கேள்வி 1.
கீழே கொடுக்கப்பட்ட வரைபடங்கள் சார்பைக் குறிக்கின்றனவா எனத் தீர்மானிக்கவும். விடைகளுக்கான காரணத்தையும் கொடுக்கவும்.

தீர்வு:
(i)

குத்துக்கோடானது வரைபடத்தை இரு புள்ளிகளில் வெட்டுகிறது. எனவே இது சார்பு அல்ல.

(ii)

குத்துக்கோடானது வரைபடத்தை ஒரே ஒரு புள்ளியில் வெட்டுகிறது. எனவே இது ஒரு சார்பு.

(iii)

குத்துக்கோடானது வரைபடத்தை இரு புள்ளிகளில் வெட்டுகிறது இது ஒரு சார்பு அல்ல.

(iv)

குத்துக்கோடானது வரைபடத்தை ஒரே ஒரு புள்ளியில் வெட்டுகிறது. எனவே இது ஒரு சார்பு

கேள்வி 2.
f : A → B என்ற சார்பானது f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) -1, என
வரையறுக்கப்படுகிறது. இங்கு A = {2, 4, 6, 10, 12} B = {0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 9} ஆக இருக்கும் போது சார்பு f-ஐ பின்வரும் முறைகளில் குறிக்க.
(i) வரிசைச் சோடிகளின் கணம்
(ii) அட்டவணை
(iii) அம்புக்குறி படம்
(iv) வரைபடம்
தீர்வு :
f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1 எனில்
f(2) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 1 – 1 = 0
f(4) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 2 – 1 = 1
f(6) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2
f(10) = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 5 – 1 = 4
f(12) = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 6 – 1 = 5

i) வரிசைச் சோடிகளின் கணம்
f = {(2, 0) (4, 1) (6, 2) (10, 4) (12, 5)}
ii) அட்டவணை

iii) அம்புக்குறி படம்

iv) வரைபடம்

கேள்வி 3.
f = {(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 2), (4, 3), (5, 4)} என்ற சார்பினை
i) அம்புக்குறி படம்
ii) அட்டவணை
iii) வரைப்படம் மூலமாகக் குறிக்கவும்.
தீர்வு :
i) அம்புக்குறி படம்

ii) அட்டவணை

iii) வரைபடம்

கேள்வி 4.
f: N → N என்ற சார்பு f(x) = 2x – 1 என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால் அது ஒன்றுக்கு ஒன்றான ஆனால் மேல் சார்பு இல்லை எனக் காட்டுக.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = 2) – 1
f(1) = 2(1) – 1 = 2 – 1 = 1
f(2) = 2(2) – 1 = 4 – 1 = 3
f(3) = 2(3) – 1 = 6-1 = 5
f(4) = 2 x 4 – 1 = 8 – 1 = 7
துணை மதிப்பகம் = {1, 2, 3, 4, ………..} —– (1)
வீச்ச கம் = {1, 3, 5, …………….} ——– (2)
(1) ≠ (2)
∴ எனவே இது 1 – 1 சார்பு ஆனால் மேல் சார்பு இல்லை .

கேள்வி 5.
f : N → N என்ற சார்பு f(m) = m2 + m + 3 என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால் அது ஒன்றுக்கு ஒன்றான சார்பு எனக் காட்டுக.
தீர்வு :
N = {1,2,3,……..}
f(m) = m² + m + 3
f(1) = 1² + 1 + 3 = 5
f(2) = 2² + 2 + 3 = 9
f(3) = 3² + 3 + 3 = 15
∴ f = {(1,5), (2,9), (3,15) ……}
∴ f ஆனது 1 – 1 சார்பு ஆகும்.

கேள்வி 6.
A = {1, 2, 3, 4} மற்றும் B = N என்க. மேலும் f : A → B ஆனது f(x) = x³ என வரையறுக்கப்படுகிறது எனில்.
i) f -யின் வீச்சகத்தைக் காண்க.
ii) f எவ்வகை சார்பு எனக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = x³ எனில்
f(1) = 1³ = 1
f(2) = 2³ = 8
f(3) = 3³ = 27
f(4) = 4³ = 64

i) வீச்சகம் = {1, 8, 27, 64}
ii) ஒன்றுக்கு ஒன்றான மற்றும் உட்சார்பு

கேள்வி 7.
கீழே கொடுக்கப்பட்ட ஒவ்வொரு சார்பும் இருபுறச் சார்பா, இல்லையா? உன் விடைக்கான காரணத்தைக் கூறுக. i) f : R → R ஆனது f(x) = 2x + 1
ii) f : R – R ஆனது f(x) = 3 – 4x²
தீர்வு :
i) f(x) = 2(x) = 1
f(0) = 2 x (0 + 1 = 1
f(1) = 2 x 1+1 = 3
f(2) = 2 x 2+ 1 = 5
f(3) = 2 x 3+ 1 = 7
வெவ்வேறான உறுப்புகள் வெவ்வேறான உருவங்களைக் கொண்டுள்ளது.
∴ இது 1 – 1 சார்பு
மேலும் n (A) = n (B) என்பதால் இது மேல் சார்பு ஆகும்.
∴ f(x) = 2x+1 ஆனது இருபுறச் சார்பு ஆகும்.
(ii) f(x) = 3 – 4x²
f(1) = 3 – 4(1²) = -1
f(2) = 3 – 4(2²) = -13
f(3) = 3 – 4(3²) = -33
f(4) = 3 – 4(4²) = -61
f(-1) = 3 – 4(-1)² = -1
இங்கு f(1) = f (-1)
ஆனால் 1 ≠ -1
∴ f(x) ஆனது இரு புறச் சார்பு அல்ல

கேள்வி 8.
A = {-1, 1} மற்றும் B = {0, 2} என்க மேலும், f : A → B ஆனது f(x) = ax + b. என் வரையறுக்கப்பட்ட மேல் சார்பு எனில் , a மற்றும் b ஐக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = ax + b
கணக்கின் படி f(-1) = 0
⇒ a(-1) + b = 0
-a + b = 0 …………………….(1)
மேலும் f(1) = 2
⇒ a(1) + b = 2
a + b = 2 ……………………. (2)
1 + 2
– a + b + a + b = 0 + 2
⇒ 2b = 2
b = 1
b ன் மதிப்பை (உ)ல் பிரதியிட
a = 1

கேள்வி 9.
f என்ற சார்பானது
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{aligned}
x+2 ; & x>1 \\
2 ; &-1 \leq x \leq 1 \\
x-1 ; &-3<x<-1
\end{aligned}\right.\)
என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால்
i) f(3)
ii) f (0)
iii) f(-1.5)
iv) f(2) + f(-2)
ஆகியவற்றின் மதிப்புகளைக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cl}
x+2 & \text { if } x=\{2,3,4,5 \ldots \ldots\} \\
2 & \text { if } x=\{-1,0,1\} \\
x-1 & \text { if } x=\{-2\}
\end{array}\right.\)

(i) f(3) = x + 2
= 3 + 2 = 5
ii) f(0) = 2
iii) f(-1.5) = x – 1
= -1.5 – 1
= -2.5
iv) f(2) + f (-2)
= x + 2 + x – 1
= 2 + 2 + (- 2) – 1
= 4 – 3

கேள்வி 10.
f : [-5,9] → R என்ற சார்பானது பின்வருமாறு வரையறுக்கப்படுகிறது.
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
6 x+1 ; & -5 \leq x<2 \\
5 x^{2}-1 ; & 2 \leq x<6 \\
3 x-4 ; & 6 \leq x \leq 9
\end{array}\right.\) என வரையறுக்கப்படுகிறது எனில், பின்வருவனவற்றைக் காண்க.
(i) f(-3) + f(2)
ii) f(7) – f(1)
iii) 2f(4) + f(8)
iv) \(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\)
தீர்வு :
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
6 x+1 \text { if } x=\{-5,-4,-3,-2,-1,0,1\} \\
5 x^{2}-1 \text { if } x=\{2,3,4,5\} \\
3 x-4 \text { if } x=\{6,7,8,9\}
\end{array}\right.\)
f(-3) = 6x +1
= 6 (-3) + 1 = -18 + 1 = -17
f(2) = 5x² – 1
= 5(2²) – 1 = 5 x 4 – 1 = 20 – 1 = 19
f(7) = 3x – 4)
= 3(7) – 4 = 21 – 4 = 17

f(1) = 6x + 1
= 6 (1) + 1 = 7

f(4) = 5x² -1
= 5 x 4² – 1 = 5 x 16 – 1 = 80 – 1 = 79

f(8) = 3x – 4
= 3(8) – 4 = 24 – 4 = 20

f(-2) = 6x + 1
= 6 (-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11

f(6) = 3x – 4)
= 3(6) – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14

i) f(-3) + f(2) = -17 + 19 = 2
ii) f (7) – f(1) = 17 – 7 = 10
iii) 2f(4) + f(8) = 2 x 79 + 20
= 158 + 20 )
= 178

கேள்வி 11.
புவியீர்ப்பு விசையின் காரணமாக : வினாடிகளில் ஒரு பொருள் கடக்கும் தூரமானது S(t) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) gt² + at + b எனக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. இங்கு a, b ஆகியவை மாறிலிகள் (8 ஆனது புவியீர்ப்பு விசையின் காரணமாக ஏற்படும் முடுக்கம்). S(t) ஆனது ஒன்றுக்கொன்றான சார்பாகுமா என ஆராய்க.
தீர்வு :
s{t) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) gt² + at + b என்க
t = 0 எனில் S (o) = b
t = 1 எனில் s(1) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) g x 1² + a x 1 + b
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = g + a + b
S(t₁) = S(t₂) எனில்
t = 2 எனில் S(2) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) g(2²) + a x 2 + b
= \(\frac { 4g }{ 2 }\) + 2a + b
இங்கு ஒவ்வொரு மதிப்பிற்கும் S(t)ன் மதிப்பு வேறுபட்டுள்ளது.
∴ S(t) ஆனது 1 – 1 சார்பு ஆகும்.

கேள்வி 12.
t என்ற சார்பானது செல்சியஸில் (C) உள்ள வெப்பநிலையையும், பாரன்ஹீட்டில் (F) உள்ள வெப்பநிலையையும் இணைக்கும் சார்பாகும். மேலும் அது t(C) = F என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால், (இங்கு F = \(\frac { 9C }{ 5 }\) + 32)
(i) t(0)
(ii) t(28)
(iii) t(-10)
(iv) t(C) = 212 ஆக இருக்கும் போது C – ன் மதிப்பு
(v) செல்சியஸ் மதிப்பும் பாரன்ஹீட் மதிப்பும் சமமாக இருக்கும் போது வெப்பநிலை ஆகியவற்றைக் கண்டறிக. தீர்வு :
கணக்கின் படி t(C) = F
F = \(\frac { 9C }{ 5 }\) + 32
(i) t(0) = \(\frac { 0 }{ 5 }\) + 32 = 32°F
(ii) t(28) =\(\frac{9 \times 28}{5}\) + 32
= \(\frac{252}{5}\) + 32
= 50.4 + 32 = 82.4°F

(iii) \(\frac{9(-10)}{5}\) + 32
= \(\frac{-90}{5}\) + 32
= -18 + 32 = 24

iv) t(C) = 212
c = \(\frac{9 \mathrm{C}}{5}\) + 32 = 212
= 180
9C = 180 x 5
= 900
∴C = 100°C

v) செல்சியஸ் மதிப்பும் பாரன்ஹீட் மதிப்பும்
சமமாக இருக்கும் போது வெப்பநிலை
C = \(\frac{9 \mathrm{C}}{5}\) +32
C – 32 = \(\frac{9 \mathrm{C}}{5}\)
5(C – 32) = 9C
5C – 160 = 9C
5C – 9C = 160
-4C = 160
C = -40

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.3 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.3

கேள்வி 1.
f = { (x,y)/x, y ∈ N மற்றும் y = 2x } ஆனது N-ன் மீதான ஒரு உறவு என்க. மதிப்பகம், துணை மதிப்பகம் மற்றும் வீச்சகத்தைக் காண்க. இந்த உறவு சார்பாகுமா?
தீர்வு :
x, y ∈N
x = {1,2,3 ……}
y = {1,2,3….}
கணக்கின்படி y = 2x
x = 1 எனில் y = 2 x 1 = 2
x = 2 எனில் y = 2 x 2 = 4
x = 3 எனில் y = 2 x 3 = 6
∴ R = {(1,2), (2,4), (3,6), …….)
மதிப்பகம் = {1, 2, 3, ……………….}
துணை மதிப்பகம் = {1, 2, 3, 4……….}
சார்பகம் = {2, 4, 6, ………………}
இந்த உறவு சார்பு ஆகும்.

கேள்வி 2.
x = {3, 4, 6, 8) என்க . R ={(x, f(x) | x ∈ X, f(x) = x² + 1} என்ற உறவானது X- லிருந்து N க்கு ஒரு சார்பாகுமா?
தீர்வு :
தரவு f(x) = x² + 1 இங்கே X = {3, 4, 6, 8}
f(3) = 3² + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
f(4) = 4² + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17
f(6) = 6² + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37
f(8) = 8² + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65
இது ஒரு சார்பு ஆகும்
காரணம் : Xல் உள்ள ஒவ்வொரு உறுப்பிற்கும்
N ல் ஒரே ஒரு உறுப்புடன் தொடர்புள்ளது.

கேள்வி 3.
கொடுக்கப்பட்ட சார்பு f 😡 → x² – 5x + 6, எனில்
(i) f(-1)
(ii) f(2a)
(iii) f(2)
(iv) f(x-1)
ஆகியவற்றை மதிப்பிடுக.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = x² – 5x + 6)
i) x = -1 எனில்
f(-1) = (-1)² – 5(-1) + 6
= 1 + 5 + 6
= 12

ii) x = 2a எனில்
f(2a) = (2a)² – 5(2a) = 6
= 4a² -10a + 6

iii) x = 2 எனில்
f(2) = (2)² – 5(2) + 6 = 4-10+6
= 0

iv) x = x-1 எனில்
f(x-1) = (x-1)² – 5(x-1) + 6
= x² – 2x + 1 -5x + 5 + 6
= x² – 7x + 12

கேள்வி 4.
படம் 1.16 ல் கொடுக்கப்பட்ட வரைபடம் f(x) யின் மூலமாக f(9) = 2 என்பது தெளிவாகிறது.

i) பின்வரும் சார்புகளின் மதிப்புகளைக் காண்க.
(அ) f (0) (ஆ) f (7) (இ) f (2) (ஈ) f (10)
ii) x-இன் எம்மதிப்பிற்கு f(x) = 1 ஆக இருக்கும்?
iii) படம் 1.16 யில் (i) மதிப்பகம் (ii) வீச்சகம் காண்க.
iv) f என்ற சார்பில் 6 -ன் நிழல் உரு என்ன?
தீர்வு :
i) (a) f (0) = 9)
(b) f (7) = 6
(c) f (2) = 6
(d) f (10) = 0

ii) f (x) = 1 எனில் x ன் மதிப்பு 9.5
iii) மதிப்பகம் = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
வீச்சகம் = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
iv) 6ன் நிழல் உரு 5

கேள்வி 5.
f(x) = 2x + 5 என்க. x ≠ 0 எனில், \(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}\) ஐக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
தரவு f(x) = 2x + 5
f(x + 2) = 2(x+2) + 5
= 2x + 4 + 5
= 2x +9

f(2) = 2(2) + 5
= 4 + 5 = 9
\(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}=\frac{2 x+9-9}{x}=\frac{2 x}{x}\) = 2

கேள்வி 6.
ஒரு சார்பு f ஆனது f(x) = 2x – 3 என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால்
i) \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\) ஐக் காண்க
ii) f(x) = 0 எனில், x – ஐக் காண்க
iii) f(x) = x எனில், x – ஐக் காண்க
iv) f(x) = f(1-x) எனில், x – ஐக் காண்க
தீர்வு :
தரவு f(x) = 2x – 3 எனில்
f(0) = 2(0) – 3 = 0 – 3 = -3
f(1) = 2(1) – 3 = 2 – 3 = -1
(i) \(\frac{\mathrm{f}(0)+\mathrm{f}(1)}{2}=\frac{-3-1}{2}=\frac{-4}{2}\) = -2
ii) தரவு f(x) = 0 எனில்
2x – 3 = 0
2x = 3 ⇒ x = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

iii) தரவு f(x) = x எனில்
2x – 3 = x
2x – x = 3
x = 3

iv) தரவு f(x) = f(1-x) எனில்
2x – 3= 2(1-x) -3
2x – 3 = 2 – 2x -3
2x – 3 = -1 – 2x
2x + 2x = -1 +3
4x = 2 ⇒ x = \(\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)

கேள்வி 7.
24 செ.மீ பக்க அளவுள்ள சதுர வடிவத் துண்டிலிருந்து நான்கு மூலைகளிலும் சம அளவுள்ள சதுரங்களை வெட்டிப்படம் 1.17 ல் உள்ளவாறு மேல் புறம் திறந்த ஒரு பெட்டி செய்யப்படுகிறது. இந்தப் பெட்டியின் கன அளவு Vஎனில், V ஐx -யின் சார்பாகக் குறிப்பிடுக.

தீர்வு :
நீளம் = 24 – 2x
அகலம் = 24 – 2x
உயரம் = x
பெட்டியின் கன அளவு = l x b x h
= (24 – 2x) x (24 – 2x) x x
= (24 – 2x)² x x
= (576 – 96x + 4x²) x x
= 4x³ – 96x² + 576x

கேள்வி 8.
f என்ற சார்பு f(x) = 3 – 2x என வரையறுக்கப்படுகிறது. f(x²) = (f(x))² எனில் Xஐக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = 3 – 21 எனில்
f(x) = 3 – 2x²
[f(x)]? = (3 – 23)²
கணக்கின் படி f(x2) = [f(x)]²
3 – 2x² = (3 – 2x)² |
3 – 2x² = 9 – 12x + 4x²
4x² + 2x² – 12x = 3 – 9
6x² – 12x = -6
6x² – 12x + 6 = 0
÷6 ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
⇒ (x – 1)² = 0
⇒ x- 1 = 0
∴ x = 1

கேள்வி 9.
ஒரு விமானம் 500 கி.மீ / மணி வேகத்தில் பறக்கிறது. விமானம் ‘d’ தொலைவு செல்வதற்கு ஆகும் காலத்தை f (மணியில்)-ன் சார்பாக வெளிப்படுத்துக.
தீர்வு :
வேகம் = 500 கி.மீ / மணி
காலம் = t நேரம் என்க
தூரம் = வேகம் X நேரம்
= 500 x t = 500 t

கேள்வி 10.
அருகில் உள்ள அட்டவணையில் நான்கு நபர்களின் முன்னங்கைகளின் நீளம் மற்றும் அவர்களுடைய உயரங்களின் தகவல்கள் வழங்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. அந்த விவரங்களின் அடிப்படையில் ஒரு மாணவர், உயரம் (y) மற்றும் முன்னங்கை நீளம் (x)-க்கான உறவை y = ax + b எனக் கண்டுபிடித்தார். இங்கு a மற்றும் b ஆகியவை மாறிலிகள்.
i) இந்த உறவானது சார்பாகுமா என ஆராய்க.
ii) a மற்றும் b – ஐக் காண்க.
iii) முன்ன ங்கையின் நீளம் 40 செ.மீ எனில், அந்த நபரின் உயரத்தைக் காண்க.
iv) உயரம் 53.3 அங்குலம் எனில், அந்த நபரின் முன்னங்கையின் நீளத்தைக் காண்க

தீர்வு :
உறவு V = 0.9.x + 24.5 ஆகும்
i) இது ஒரு சார்பு
ii) y = ax + b உடன் ஒப்பிடுகையில்
a = 0.9, b = 24.5
iii) முன்னங்கையின் நீளம் 40 செ.மீ எனில் பெண்ணின் உயரம் 60.5 அங்குலம் ஆகும்.
y = (0.9 x 40 + 24.5
= 36 + 24.5
= 60.5
iv) உயரம் 53.3 அங்குலம் எனில் பெண்ணின் முன்னங்கையின் நீளம் 32 செ.மீ
53.3 = 0.9x + 24.5
∴ x = 32

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.2 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.2

கேள்வி 1.
A = {1, 2, 3, 7} மற்றும் B = {3, 0, -1, 7} எனில் பின்வருவனவற்றில் எவை A-லிருந்து B க்கான உறவுகளாகும்?
i) R = {(2, 1), (7, 1)}
ii) R, = {(-1, 1)}
iii) Rs = {(2, -1), (7, 7), (1,3)}
iv) RA = {(7, -1), (0, 3), (3,3), (0, 7)}
தீர்வு :
i) இங்கு (2, 1) மற்றும் (7, 1) ∉ A X B எனவே உறவு இல்லை
ii) இங்கு (-1, 1) ∉ A X B எனவே உறவு இல்லை
iii) R₃ ∈ A X B எனவே இது ஒரு உறவு ஆகும்.
iv) இங்கே (0, 3), (0, 7) ∉ A X B எனவே உறவுஇல்லை

கேள்வி 2.
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, ……… 45} மற்றும் R என்ற உறவு “A- யின் மீது ஓர் எண்ணின் வர்க்கம்” என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால் R-ஐ A X A-யின் உட்கணமாக எழுதுக. மேலும் R-க்கான மதிப்பகத்தையும் வீச்சகத்தையும் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
1² = 1;
2² = 4;
3² = 9;
4² = 16;
5² = 25;
6² = 36
R = {(1, 1) (2, 4) (3, 9) (4, 16) (5, 25) (6, 36}
R ∈ A X A
R ன் மதிப்பகம் = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Rன் வீச்சகம் = {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36)

கேள்வி 3.
R என்ற ஒரு உறவு {(x, y) / y = x + 3,
x ∈ {0,1,2,3,4, 5) எனக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. இதன் மதிப்பகத்தையும் வீச்சகத்தையும் கண்டறிக.
தீர்வு :
தரவு y = x + 3
x = 0; எனில் y = 0 + 3 = 3
x = 1; எனில் y = 1 + 3 = 4
x = 2; எனில் y = 2 + 3 = 5
x = 3; எனில் y = 3 + 3 = 6
x = 4; எனில் y = 4 + 3 = 7
x = 5; எனில் y = 5 + 3 = 8
R ன் மதிப்பகம் = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
R ன் வீச்சகம் = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

கேள்வி 4.
கொடுக்கப்பட்ட உறவுகள் ஒவ்வொன்றையும்
(1) அம்புக்குறி படம்
(2) வரைபடம்
(3) பட்டியல் முறையில் குறிக்க.
i) {(x,y)/x = 2y, x ∈ {2,3,4,5), y ∈ {1, 2, 3,4
ii) {(x,y) /y = x + 3, x, y ஆகியவை இயல் எண்க ள் < 10}
தீர்வு :
i) x = 2y ⇒ y = \(\frac{x}{2}\)
x = 2; எனில் y = \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 1
x = 3; எனில் y = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
x = 4 ; எனில் y = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
x= 5 ; எனில் y = \(\frac{5}{2}\)

i) அம்புக்குறி படம்

ii) வரைபடம்

iii) பட்டியல் முறை
{(2, 1), (4, 2)}

ii) {(x, y)/y = x+3, x,y என்ப வை இயல் எண்க ள் < 10}
x = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
y = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
கணக்கின் படி y = x + 3
x = 1; எனில் y = 1 + 3 = 4
x = 2; எனில் y = 2 + 3 = 5
x = 3; எனில் y = 3 + 3 = 6
x = 4; எனில் y = 4 + 3 = 7
x = 5; எனில் y = 5 + 3 = 8
x = 6; எனில் y = 6 + 3 = 9

i) அம்புக்குறி படம்

ii) வரைபடம்

iii) பட்டியல் முறை
{(1, 4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8) (6, 9)}

கேள்வி 5.
ஒரு நிறுவனத்தில் உதவியாளர்கள் (A) எழுத்தர்கள் (C), மேலாளர்கள் (M) மற்றும் நிர்வாகிகள் (E) ஆகிய நான்கு பிரிவுகளில் பணியாளர்கள் உள்ளனர். A, C, M மற்றும் E பிரிவு பணியாளர்களுக்கு ஊதியங்கள் முறையே ₹ 10,000, ₹ 25,000, ₹50,000 மற்றும் ₹1,00,000 ஆகும். A₁, A₂ A₃ A₄ மற்றும் A₅ ஆகியோர் உதவியாளர்கள் C₁, C₂ C₃ C₄ ஆகியோர் எழுத்தர்கள் M₁, M₂, M₃, ஆகியோர்கள் மேலாளர்கள் மற்றும் E₁, E₂, ஆகியோர் நிர்வாகிகள் ஆவர்.xRy என்ற உறவில் x என்பது y என்பவருக்குக் கொடுக்கப்பட்ட ஊதியம் எனில் R – என்ற உறவை, வரிசைச் சோடிகள் மூலமாகவும் அம்புக்குறி படம் மூலமாகவும் குறிப்பிடுக.
தீர்வு :
வரிசைச் சோடிகளின் கணம் :
{(10000, A₁) (10000, A₂) (10000, A₃ )
(10000, A₄) (10000, A₅) (25000, C₁)
(25000, C₂) (25000, C₃) (25000, C₄)
(50000, M₁) (50000, M₂) (50000, M₃) (100000, E₁) (100000, E₂)}
அம்புக்குறி படம்

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.1 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.1

கேள்வி 1.
பின்வருவனவற்றிற்கு A × B, A × A மற்றும் B × A ஐக் காண்க.
i) A = {2, -2, 3} மற்றும் B = {1, -4}
ii) A = B = {p, q}
iii) A = {m, n}; B = Φ
தீர்வு:
i) A= {2, -2, 3} மற்றும் B = {1, -4}
A × B = {2, -2, 3} × {1,-4}
= {(2, 1), (2, -4), (-2, 1), (-2, -4), (3, 1), (3, -4)}
A × A = {2, -2, 3} × {2, -2, 3}
= {(2, 2), (2, -2), (2, 3), (-2, 2), (-2, -2), (-2, 3), (3, 2), (3, -2), (3, 3)}
B × A = {1, -4} × {2, -2, 3}
= {(1, 2), (1, -2), (1, 3), (-4, 2), (-4, -2), (-4, 3)}

குறிப்பு : இங்கே A × A = A × B = B × A
ஏனெனில் A மற்றும் B என்ற
கணங்களின் உறுப்புகள் சமம்.

ii) A = B = {p, q}|
A × B = {p, q} × {p, q}
= {(p, p), (p, q), (q, p), (q, q)}
A × A = {p, q} × {p, q}
= {(p, p), (p, q), (q, p), (q, q)}
B × A = {p, q} × {p, q}
= {(p,p), (p, q), (q p), (q, q)}

iii) A = {m, n}; B = Φ
A × B = {}
A × A = {m, n} × {m, n}
= {(m, m), (m, n), (n, m), (n, n)}
B × A = {}
குறிப்பு :
A × B = Φ எனில்
A = Φ அல்லது B =Φ

கேள்வி 2.
A = {1, 2, 3} மற்றும் B = {x|x என்பது 10-ஐ விடத் சிறிய பகா எண்).எனில், A × B மற்றும் B × A
ஆகியவற்றைக் காண்க.
தீர்வு:
A = {1, 2, 3} ; B = {2, 3, 5, 7} என்க
A × B = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 5), (1, 7), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 5), (2, 7), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 5), (3, 7)}
B × A= {2, 3, 5, 7} × {1, 2, 3}
= {(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (7, 1), (7, 2), (7, 3)}

கேள்வி 3.
B × A = {(-2, 3) (-2, 4) (0, 3) (0, 4) (3, 3) (3, 4)} எனில், A மற்றும் B ஐ காண்க
தீர்வு :
B = {B × A ல் உள்ள × அச்சுத் தூரங்களின் கணம்}
∴ B = {(-2, 0, 3)}
A = (B× Aல் உள்ள y அச்சுத் தூரங்களின் கணம்)
∴ A = {3, 4}

கேள்வி 4.
A = {5, 6}, B = {4, 5, 6), C = {5,6,7} எனில், A × A = (B × B) ∩ (C × C) எனக் காட்டுக.
தீர்வு :
L.H.S = A × A
= {5,6} × {5,6}
A × A = {(5, 5) (5, 6) (6, 5) (6, 6)} ………………(1)
RHS = (B × B) ∩ (C × C)
B × B = {4, 5, 6} x {4, 5, 6}
= {(4, 4) (4, 5) (4, 6) (5, 4) (5, 5) (5, 6) (6,4) (6, 5) (6, 6)}
C × C = {5,6,7} × {5,6,7}

= {(5, 5) (5, 6) (5, 7) (6, 5) (6, 6) (6, 7) (7, 5) (7, 6) (7, 7)}
(B X B) ∩(Cx C) = {(5, 5) (5, 6) (6, 5) (6, 6)} …………………….(2)
(1) = (2)
A × A = (B × B) ) (C × C)

கேள்வி 5.
A = {1, 2, 3} , B = {2, 3, 5} C = {3, 4} மற்றும் D = {1, 3, 5} எனில் (A ∩ C) × (B ∩ D)
= (A × B) ∩( C × D) என்பது உண்மையா என சோதிக்கவும்.
தீர்வு :
L.H.S (A ∩ C) × (B ∩ D)
A∩C= {1, 2, 3} ∩ {3, 4}
= {3}

B ∩ D = {2, 3, 5} ∩ {1, 3, 5}
= {3, 5}

(A∩C) × (B∩D) = {3} × {3, 5}
= {(3,3) (3, 5) ……………..(1)
R.H.S (A × B) ∩ (C × D)
A × B = {1, 2, 3} × {2, 3, 5}
= {(1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 5)}
C × D = { (3, 4)} × {(1, 3, 5)}
= {(3, 1) (3, 3) (3, 5) (4, 1) (4, 3) (4, 5)}

(A × B) ∩ (C × D) = { (3, 3) (3, 5) }
(1) = (2)
(A∩C) × (B∩D) = (A × B) ∩ (COD) என்பது உண்மை

கேள்வி 6.
A = {x ∈ W/x < 2}, B = {x ∈ N/1 < x ≤ 4} மற்றும் c = {3, 5} எனில் கீழேக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள சமன்பாடுகளைச் சரி பார்க்க.
i) A × (B ∪ C) = (A × B) ∪ (A × C)

குறிப்பு
A = {0, 1}
B = {2, 3, 4}

ii) A × (B ∪ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
iii) (A ∪ B) × C = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
தீர்வு :
i) L.H.S = A × (B∪C)
B ∪ C = {2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 5}
= {2, 3, 4, 5}

A× (B ∪ C) = {0, 1} × {2, 3, 4, 5}
= {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (0, 5) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4) (1, 5)} ………………… (1)
RHS = (A × B) ∪ (A × C)

A × B = {0, 1} × {2,3,4}
= {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4)}

A × C = {0, 1} {3,5}
= {(0,3), (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5)}
(A × B) ∪ (A × C) = {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0,4) (0,5) (1, 2) (1,3) (1,4) (1,5)} ………………….. (2)
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

ii) A × (B ∩ C) = (A x B) ∩ (A x C)
L.H.S = A × (B ∩ C)
B ∩ C = {2,3,4} , {3,5}
= {3}

A × (B C) = {0, 1} {3}
= {(0,3) (1, 3) } …………………… (1)
R.H.S = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
A × B = {0, 1} x {2,3,4}
= {(0, 2) (0,3) (0, 4) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1,4)}
A × C = {0, 1} R {3,5}
= {(0, 3) (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5)}

(A × B) ∩ (A × C) = {(0, 3) (1,3)} …………….. (1)
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

iii) (A∪ B) × C = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
L.H.S = (A ∪ B) × C
A ∪ B = {0, 1} ∪ {2,3,4}
= {0, 1, 2, 3,4}

(A ∪ B) × C = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} * {3,5}
= {(0, 3) (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5) (2, 3) (2,5) (3,3) (3,5) (4, 3) (4,5)} ……………….. (1)

R.H.S = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
(A × C) = {(0, 1) × (3,5)}
= {(0, 3) (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5)}
B × C = {2,3,4} × {3,5}
= {(2,3) (2,5) (3,3) (3,5) (4,3) (4,5)}

(A × C) ∪ (B × C) = {(0, 3) (0,5) (1,3) (1,5) (2, 3) (2,5) (3, 3) (3,5) (4, 3) (4,5)} ………………. (2)
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

கேள்வி 7.
A என்பது 8 – ஐ விடக் குறைவான இயல் எண்களின் கணம், B என்பது 8-ஐ விடக் குறைவான
பகா எண்களின் கணம் மற்றும் C என்பது இரட்டைப்படை பகா எண்களின் கணம் எனில் கீழ்க்கண்டவற்றைச் சரிபார்க்க.

i) (A ∩ B) × C = (A × C) ∩ (B × C)
ii) A × (B – C)= (A × B) – (A × C)
தீர்வு :
கணக்கின் படி A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
B = {2, 3, 5, 7}
C = {2}
i) LHS = (A ∩ B) × C
A ∩ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7} {2,3,5,7}
= {2, 3, 5, 7}
(A ∩ B) × C = {2, 3, 5, 7} × {2}
= {(2, 2) (3, 2) (5, 2) (7, 2) …………….. (1)
R.H.S = (A × C) (B × C)
A × C = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}
B × C = {2, 3, 5, 7} × {2}
={(2, 2) (3, 2) (5, 2) (7, 2)}
(A × C) B × C = {(2, 2) (3, 2) (5, 2) (7, 2)
L.H.S = R.H.S

ii) L.H.S = A × (B – C)
B – C = {2, 3,5,7} – {2}
= {3, 5, 7}
A × (B – C) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {3, 5, 7}
= {(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7
(5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ……………….(1)

R.H.S = (A × B) – (A × C)
(A × B) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2, 3, 5, 7}
= {(1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 2) (3,3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 2) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)}
A × C = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7} x {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}
(A × B) – (A × C))
={(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ……………… (2)
L.H.S = R.H.S (1 மற்றும் 2 லிருந்து)

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase

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Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
(c) Mohamed Ali
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
Answer:
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew

Question 2.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Lucknow
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Nagpur

Question 3.
Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January 1930
(b) 26th December 1929
(c) 16th June 1946
(d) 15th January 1947
Answer:
(a) 26th January 1930

Question 4.
When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 5.
On 8 January 1933 which day was observed …………..
(a) Temple Entry Day
(b) Day of Deliverance
(c) Direct Action Day
(d) Independence Day
Answer:
(a) Temple Entry Day

Question 6.
Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 Act
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Govemment of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(d) Govemment of India Act, 1935

Question 7.
Who defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaya, Gandhi’s candidate, and became the President of the Congress in 1939?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subash Chandra Bose
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer:
(c) Subash Chandra Bose

Question 8.
Where was Gandhi when India attained independence on 15th August 1947?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Wardha
(d) Noakhali
Answer:
(d) Noakhali

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Gandhi was thrown out of the first-class compartment in ………….. station.
2. Gandhi regarded ……………. as his political guru.
3. Khilafat Movement was led by …………….
4. Government of India Act of 1919 introduced …………….. in the provinces.
5. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by …………….
6. Ramsay Macdonald announced ……………….. which provided separate electorates to the minorities and the depressed classes.
7. ………….. established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
8. …………….. coined the term ‘Paksitan’.
Answers:
1. Pietermaritzburg railway
2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
3. AH Brothers
4. Dyarchy
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
6. Communal Award
7. Usha Mehta
8. Choudhry Rahmat Ali

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelu was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Hindustan Republican Army was formed in Kanpur in 1924.
(ii) Ram Prasad Bismil was tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
(iii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed by Surya Sen.
(iv) Chittagong Armoury Raid was carried out by B.K. Dutt.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.
Reason: Gandhi-lrwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation .
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(c) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 4.
Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected Congress ministries.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Describe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
Answer:

1. To protest against the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of the two prominent local leaders Dr. Saifuddin kitchlew and Dr. Sathyapal at Amritsar a public meeting was arranged on 13^th April 1919 at Jallianwalla Bagh in Amritsar.
2. Thousands of villagers assembled there.
3. General Dyer heard about the gathering, surrounded the place with his troops and an armoured vehicle.
4. The only entrance to the park was blocked.
5. without any warning firing took place for ten minutes till the troops ran out of ammunition.
6. Nearly 379 were killed and more than thousands injured due to stampede.
7. After this incident martial law was declared in Punjab especially in Amritsar.
8. The brutality enraged Indians. This incident made Rabindranath Tagore and Gandhi to renounce and surrender their titles and medal.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:
After World War I, the Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims all over the world, was given a very harsh treatment. The Khilafat Movement started in support of the Caliph. It was led by Maulana Mohamed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali, popularly known as the Ali brothers. It aimed to restore the prestige and power of the Caliphate. Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement and saw it an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 3.
Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
On February 5^th 1922 a mass procession was took over by the nationalists and the peasants.

1. Gandhiji advised them not to indulge in any violence. Provoked by the police the people turned in to violence. The angry mob burnt the police station killing 22 policemen.
2. Gandhiji was upset and immediately withdrew the movement.

Question 4.
What was the conflict between the Swarajists and no-changers?
Answer:
In due course of time the Congress got divided into two groups—pro-changers (swarajists) and no-changers. Some of the Congressmen led by Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature. They argued that the national interest could be promoted by working in the Legislative Councils under Dyarchy and weakening the colonial government from within. These Congressmen were called the pro-changers. On the other hand, no-changers like Vallabhbhai Patel, C Rajagopalachari and other followers of Gandhi wanted to continue non-cooperation with the government.

Question 5.
Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
Answer:
On 8 December 1927, the British Government announced Indian statutory commission to super-wise and bring changes in the functioning of the Government in India, (to review the working of the Government of India Act of 1919 and to further suggest reforms in the administration)

1. The committee composed of seven members headed by Sir John Simon, widely known as “Simon Commission”.
2. No Indian members were there in the committee, Indians felt denial of their right to decide their own constitution. So all sections of India including congress and Muslim league decided to boycott the Simon commission.
3. When the Simon commission came to India they were greeted with flag marches with slogan “Go back Simon” and protest wherever they went.

Question 6.
What is Poorna Swaraj?
Answer:
Some of the Congressmen were not satisfied with dominion status of India and wanted to demand complete independence. In the Congress Session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as the President, Poorna Swaraj was declared as the goal. Subsequently, 26 January 1930 was declared as the Independence Day and a pledge was taken all over the country to attain Poorna Swaraj without using any kind of violence.

Question 7.
Write a note on Bhagat Singh.
Answer:

1. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and their comrades reorganized the ‘Hindustan Republican Army’ (HRA) in Punjab.
2. By the influence of socialistic ideals they named it as “Hindustan Socialist Republican Association” in 1928.
3. Bhagat Singh was held responsible for the assassination of ‘Sanders’ a British police officer who lathi charged Lala Laj pat Rai that led to his death.
4. Secondly he along with B. K. Dutt threw a smoke bomb in to the central assembly in 1929 and threw pamphlets shouting Inquilab Zindabadh.
5. He along with Rajaguru was arrested and sentenced to death at the age of 23.
6. Bhagat Singh’s daring and courage inspired many youths across India.

Question 8.
What are the terms of the Poona Pact?
Answer:
The main terms of the Poona Pact were:
(i) The principle of separate electorates was abandoned. Instead, the principle of joint electorate was accepted with reservation of seats for the depressed classes.

(ii) Reserved seats for the depressed classes were increased from 71 to 147. In the Central Legislature 18 per cent of the seats were reserved.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Gandhi and Mass Nationalism

(a) Which incident is considered a turning point in the life of Gandhi?
Answer:
The racial discrimination Gandhi had personally in South Africa was a turning point.

(b) Name the works that influenced Gandhi?
Answer:
He was deeply influenced by the works of Tolstoy “The Kingdom of God is within you” Ruskins ‘Unto this last’ and Thoreau’s ‘Civil Disobedience’.

(c) How did Gandhi use satyagraha as a strategy in South Africa?
Answer:
Gandhiji used the strategy of Satyagraha for fighting the issues of immigration and racial discrimination.

(d) What do you know about the Champaran Satyagraha?
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha ended the oppression of the peasants by the Indigo planters. It gave the object of ‘Civil Disobedience’. The success of champaran Satyagraha made Gandhiji as a leader of mass struggle.

Question 2.
Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(a) What is constructive programme?
Answer:
Programmes that aimed at Khadi promotion, Hindu-Muslim unity and the abolition of untouchability are called constructive programmes.

(b) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
Answer:
He exhorted the Congressmen to go throughout their districts and spread the message of Khaddar, the message of Hindu-Muslim unity, the message of anti-untouchability and take up in hand the youth of the country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj.

(c) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
Answer:
Gandhi tried to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity to strengthen the cause of Swaraj.

(d) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
Answer:
Gandhiji wanted to abolish untouchability from the country. He undertook an all-India tour called the Harijan Tour. He started the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of discriminations. He worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of liquor among the depressed class. He also launched the Temple Entry Movement.

Question 3.
Subhas Chandra Bose and Ina

(a) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
Answer:
Subhas Chandra Bose made his way and reached Japan on a Submarine.

(b) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
Answer:
The women wing of Indian National Army was headed by captain Lakshmisahgal.

(c) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
Answer:
Subhas Chandra Bose reorganized INA in to three brigades: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women brigade named after Rani of Jhansi.

(d) Name the slogan provided by Subhas Chandra Bose.
Answer:
Subhas Chandra Bose gave the Slogan‘Dilli Chalo’.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Examine the factors that led to the transformation of Gandhi into a mass leader.
Answer:

1. Gandhi was a person dedicated to the cause of poorest of the poor instantly gained the goodwill of the masses.
2. He visited Champaran (Bihar) for the cause of getting the solution for the peasants and the people suffering under the exploitation of indigo planters.
3. On reaching Champaran he was asked by the police to return back but he refused.
4. He was summoned for trial.
5. The news spread like wildfire and people in thousands swarmed the place in support of Gandhi.
6. Eventually a committee was formed with Gandhi as a member recommended the abolition of the “tinkathia system”. Thus ending the oppression of the peasants by the Indigo planters.
7. His fruitful intervention in Ahmadabad mill strike and kheda Satyagraha helped Gandhi to establish as a leader of mass struggle.
8. His ability to mobilise the common people across the country through truth and Non- violence transformed Gandhi into a mass leader.

Question 2.
Critically examine the Civil Disobedience Movement as the typical example of Gandhian movement.
Answer:
Programmes such as no-base campaigns caught the imagination of the peasants. Gandhi announced a no-tax campaign in Bardoli in February 1922. These movements greatly enhanced Gandhi’s reputation as a national leader, especially the peasants. Gandhi made a nation-wide tour. Wherever he visited there was a bonfire of foreign clothes. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices. Boycott of British goods and institutions were effective.

The boycott of the Prince of Wales’ visit to India was successful. During this boycott trade unions and workers participated actively. However, Gandhi suddenly withdrew the movement because of the Chauri Chaura incident. On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent. The mob burnt the police station 22 policemen lost their lives. Gandhi immediately withdrew the movement. Gandhi was arrested and was released only in 1924.

Question 3.
Discuss the reasons behind the partition of India.
Answer:

1. Muslim League was formed mainly to fight for the political rights of the Indian Muslims.
2. Jinnah revived the Muslim League in 1934 with the determination of demanding separate state for Muslims.
3. By 1940 he was demanding a separate nation for Muslims arguing that in Independent India Muslims would lose all political power to the Hindus.
4. The Muslim league dubbed the congress as a Hindu organisation.
5. The British policy of Divide and rule had encouraged the vested interests of the Muslims to exploit the religious differences.
6. Cripps mission declared that it would provide a federal Government and the provinces were divided in to three groups namely.
7. Non – Muslim majority provinces, Muslim majority provinces in the North west and in the North East.
8. This proposal was agreed by both the parties but interpreted it differently.
9. The congress wanted the division temporary but the Muslim league wanted to be permanent.
10. Differences arose between the congress and the Muslim League led to the Hindu – Muslim conflicts bringing the communal violence.
11. Finally Mountbatten plan – Two Nation theory – dividing India in to two states India and Pakistan.
12. Partition of India was the ultimate outcome to split the unity of Independent India.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to mark the important places of Gandhian Movement in a map and write a sentence or two about what happened there.

• Amritsar and Lahore: The anti-Rowlatt protest was intense in Punjab, especially in Amritsar and Lahore.
• Delhi: All India Khilafat Conference was held at Delhi in November 1919.
• Calcutta: The Indian National Congress approved the non-cooperation movement in a special session held in Calcutta on September 1920.
• Gorakhpur: On 5 February 1922 a procession of the nationalists in Chauri Chaura, a village near Gorakhpur in present-day Uttar Pradesh provoked by the police turned violent.
• Sabarmati Ashram: At the break of dawn on 12 March 1930 Gandhi set out from Sabarmati Ashram with 78 of its inmates.
• Dandi: At the age of 61 Gandhi covered a distance of 241 miles in 24 days to reach Dandi at sunset on 5 April 1930.
• Vedaranyam: In Tamil Nadu, C. Rajaji led a similar salt march from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam.

Question 2.
Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the views of Gandhi, Jinnah, B.R. Ambedkar, Revolutionaries and Communists.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The unification of the country was brought by the British ……………
(a) Imperialism
(b) Politics
(c) Conquerts
Answer:
(a) Imperialism

Question 2.
Gandhi sailed to England to study.
(a) law
(b) Politics
(c) business
(d) Philosophy
Answer:
(a) law

Question 3.
The religious and social reformers prepared the ground for the rise of …………..
(a) Nationalism
(b) Revolution
(c) Mutiny
Answer:
(a) Nationalism

Question 4.
In South Africa ……………… were treated as coolies.
(a) Gujarathi’s
(b) Indians
(c) South African people
(d) English people
Answer:
(b) Indians

Question 5.
Home – Rule league in Bombay was formed by ………….
(a) Nehru
(b) Tilak
(c) Bharathi
Answer:
(b) Tilak

Question 6.
Towards the end of 19th ……………… century synthetic dyes had forced indigo out of the market.
(a) British
(b) Chinese
(c) German
(d) French
Answer:
(c) German

Question 7.
The slogan adopted during Swadeshi movement was ………….
(a) Go back to Vedas
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Swaraj is my birth right
Answer:
(b) Vande Mataram

Question 8.
………………… returned his knighthood after the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy for the brutality by the British.
(a) Maulana Mohammed Ali
(b) Mrs. Annie Besant
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer:
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 9.
The first session of the Indian National Congress was chained by …………..
(a) Tilak
(b) A.O. Hume
(c) W.C. Bannerjee
Answer:
(c) W.C. Bannerjee

Question 10.
Khilafat movement came to an end with the abolition of caliphate in:
(a) Isreal
(b) Arabia
(c) Turkey
(d) India
Answer:
(c) Turkey

Question 11.
Dr. Annie Besant was an …………..
(a) English lady
(b) Indian lady
(c) Irish lady
Answer:
(c) Irish lady

Question 12.
In Tamil Nadu C. Rajaji led the salt March from ………………… to vedaranyam
(a) Tanjore
(b) Madurai
(c) Thirunelveli
(d) Tiruchirapalli
Answer:
(d) Tiruchirapalli

Question 13.
Rowlatt Act was passed in …………
(a) 1919
(b) 1917
(c) 1918
Answer:
(a) 1919

Question 14.
Gandhi attended the ………………… held at London in 1931 after Gandhi – Irwin pact was signed.
(a) First Round Table Conference
(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Third Round Table Conference
(d) Cabinet mission
Answer:
(b) Second Round Table Conference

Question 15.
C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed ……………… party.
(a) Khadar
(b) DMK
(c) Swarajya
Answer:
(c) Swarajya

Question 16.
To form the interim Government Nehru sought the help of ……………
(a) Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Jinnah
(c) Salimullah Khan
Answer:
(b) Jinnah

Question 17.
Separate state for Muslims was demanded by ……………
(a) Netaji
(b) Jinnah
(c) Ali brothers
Answer:
(b) Jinnah

Question 18.
In which year, Ahmedabad mill strike took place?
(a) 1916
(b) 1917
(c) 1918
Answer:
(c) 1918

Question 19.
Anti-Rowlatt protest was intense in ……………
(a) Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Haryana
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 20.
The Khilafat Committee meeting was held in ………….
(a) Lucknow
(b) Allahabad
(c) Amritsar
(d) Kanpur
Answer:
(b) Allahabad

Question 21.
The Poona Pact took place between Mahatma Gandhi and …………….
(a) Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vallabhai Patel
(d) M. N. Roy
Answer:
(a) Ambedkar

Question 22.
Who was sent as Viceroy to India with the specific task of transfer of power?
(a) Sir John Simon
(b) Pethick Lawrence
(c) Sir Strafford Cripps
(d) Lord Mountbatten
Answer:
(d) Lord Mountbatten

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Indian National Congress was founded in ………………
2. The congress became divided as …………. and …………….
3. The Moderates and the Extremists joined in the Lucknow session in …………..
4. In the …………… session Jawaharlal Nehru met Gandhiji for the first time.
5. ‘Nethaji’ means …………….
6. The All India Muslim League was formed by a group of Muslim …………… and ……………
7. The Rowlatt Act curbed …………… rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened powers.
8. Mahatma Gandhi abruptly called off the ………………. movement when it took violent turn.
9. The congress resolved to fight for Puma Swaraj in 1929 under the presidentship of ………………
10. The Quit India Movement started in ………………
11. The programme of Non-cooperation included boycott of foreign goods and spreading the doctrine of ……………….
12. During 1902 the Hindu Mahasabha was gaining popularity under ………………. and the Muslim League under Ali Brothers.
13. In the Congress session held in Lahore in December 1929 with Jawaharlal Nehru as the President, …………….. was declared as the goal.
14. Gandhiji started the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of ……………..
15. The All India Congress Committee that met at ………….. on 8 August, 1942 passed the Quit India Resolution demanding immediate ending of the British mle in India.
Answers:
1. 1885
2. Extremist, Moderates
3. 1916
4. Lucknow
5. Leader
6. landlords, nawabs
7. Fundamental
8. Non-cooperation
9. Jawaharlal Nehru
10. 1942
11. Swadeshi
12. Madan Mohan Malaviya
13. Pooma Swaraj
14. discriminations
15. Bombay

III. True or false:

1. Subash Chandra Bose was a moderate nationalist.
2. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred in Amritsar on Baisaki day.
3. The Swadeshi Movement started after the partition of Bengal.
4. Maulan Azad became the major spokes person for the demand for Pakistan.
5. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan also known as Badshah Khan founded the Khudai Khidmatgar.
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Wavell Plan was announced in June 1945.
(ii) It provided for an interim government, with an equal number of Hindus and Muslims in the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
(iii) All portfolios, including war portfolio, was to be held by Indian ministers.
(iv) However, in Shimla Conference, the Congress and the Muslim League could not come to an agreement.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct .
(c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion: After the First World War the Caliph of Turkey, who was considered the head of Muslims all over the world, was given a harsh treatment.
Reason: The Khilafat Movement was started in support of the Caliph.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation.
(b) A is right but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are wrong.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation.

V. Match the following.

1.	Surat split	(a)	1905
2.	Swadeshi Movement	(b)	1906
3.	Home Rule Movement	(c)	1907
4.	Minto-Morley Reforms	(d)	1916
5.	Birth of Muslim League	(e)	1909

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

1.	Motilal Nehru	(a)	Uttar Pradesh
2.	Chauri Chaura	(b)	Swarajya party
3.	Lion of Punjab	(c)	Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
4.	Communal Award	(d)	Lala Lajpat Rai
5.	Frontier Gandhi	(e)	Ramsay Mac Donald

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (c)

1.	Cripp’s Mission	(a)	1922
2.	Cabinet Mission	(b)	1932
3.	The August offer	(c)	1940
4.	Poona Pact	(d)	1942
5.	Chauri Chaura incident	(e)	1946

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (a)

1.	Gandhiji returned to India from South Africa	(a)	1931
2.	Jallianwala Bagh massacre	(b)	1915
3.	No tax campaign in Bardoli	(c)	1919
4.	Third Round Table Conference	(d)	1922
5.	Gandhiji revived the Civil Disobedience Movement	(e)	1932

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (a)

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write a brief note on Gandhi’s early life.
Answer:
Mohandas Karam Chand Gandhi was bom in a well to do family on 2nd October 1869 at Porbandar.

1. His father was Kaba Gandhi served as Diwan of Porbandar and Rajkot.
2. Mother was putlibai, a devout vaishavite influenced the young Gandhi.
3. After passing matriculation Gandhi sailed to England to study law in 1888.
4. After becoming barrister Gandhi returned to India in June 1891.
5. He strongly believed in British sense of justice and fair play till he experienced racial discrimination by himself.
6. A Gujarati firm sought his service for assistance in a law suit in South Africa, and he left in April 1893 to South Africa.

Question 2.
Name some of the important moderate leaders.
Answer:

• Dadabai Naoroji
• Surendranath Banarjee
• Pheroze Sha Mehta
• Gopala Krishna Gokhale
• M. G. Ranade

Question 3.
What influenced Gandhi to get trained in the path of Satyagraha?
Answer:

1. Gandhi ideas were formed due to a blend of Indian and Western thoughts.
2. He was greatly influenced by western thinkers and was highly critical of western civilisation and industrialisation.
3. He was inspired by writings of Ruskin and established the phoenix settlements and the Tolstoy Farm.
4. These settlements had equality, community living and dignity of labour and formed as training grounds for the Satyagraha.

Question 4.
When and by whom was the Indian National Congress founded?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by Allan Octavian Hume, a retiree L civil servant.

Question 5.
Write a note on Pro – changers and no – changers of group of congress.
Answer:
In 1923 there was a split in congress namely prochangers and no changers after the suspension of Non – cooperation movement by Gandhi in 1922.

Pro – Changers: The congressmen led by Mothilal Nehru and C.R Das wanted to contest the elections and enter the legislature.

They had the notion that national interest could be promoted by working in the legislative councils under Dyarchy and wreck the colonial Government within.

They effectively used the legislature as a platform for propagation of nationalist ideas.

No. Changers: Staunch followers of Gandhi like Vallabhbhai Patel. C. Rajaji and others who wanted to continue non – cooperation with the Government.

Question 6.
Why was Khilafat Movement started?
Answer:

1. After the defeat of Germany in the first world war, the Turkish empire was broken up.
2. Its territories were shared by British and France.
3. The Sultan of Turkey was humiliated.
4. The Sultan was also the caliph or the religious leader of the Muslims.
5. So the Muslims started the Khilafat Movement.
6. The Ali brothers Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali started the Khilafat Movement in India.

Question 7.
Write a note on Direct Action Day call by Muslims.
Answer:

1. Differences arose between congress and Muslim league.
2. When the congress nominated a Muslim member the league argued it was to be sole representative of the Muslim and withdrew its approval.
3. Jinnah declared 16th August 1946 as the “Direct Action Day”.
4. Hartals, and demonstrations took place which soon turned in to Hindu – Muslim conflict.
5. It spread to other districts of Bengal. The worst affected district was ‘ Noakhali.
6. Gandhi left for the worst affected regions bringing the communal violence under control and spread the message of peace and non – violence.

Question 8.
Write about Swaraj party.
Answer:
(i) In order to lead the national movement a section of the nationalist leaders like C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj party in 1923.

(ii) Instead of boycotting the Assemblies there leaders wanted to oppose the British Government from within the legislature.

(iii) It passed the resolution demanding the establishment of a responsible Government in India,

(iv) After the death of C. R. Das the Swaraj party was dissolved.

Question 9.
Who were the members of the Cabinet Mission?
Answer:

1. Pethick Lawrence
2. A.V. Alexander
3. Sir Stafford Cripps

Question 10.
Explain the Communal Award and Poona Pact of 1932.
Answer:

• At the end of the Second Round Table Conference the British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald announced a scheme known as the communal Award.
• It provided separate electorates for the minorities and the depressed classes.
• Dr. Ambedkar accepted it but Gandhiji protested against this and went on a fast into death.
• After the Poona Pact in 1932 Gandhiji’s ended his fast.
• The depressed communities agreed to have joint electorates with adequate representation.

Question 11.
How India was partitioned?
Answer:

• The new state Pakistan comprised of west Punjab, Sind, north west frontier provinces.
• All the remaining provinces remained with the Indian dominion.

Question 12.
Inspired by Ruskin, Gandhiji established two settlements. Write their names and features.
Answer:
Inspired by Ruskin Gandhiji established the Phoenix Settlements in 1905 and the Tolstoy Farm in 1910. Equality, community living and dignity of labour were inculcated in the settlements. They were also the training grounds for the satyagrahis.

Question 13.
Why did Gandhiji support the Khilafat Movement?
Answer:
Gahdhiji supported the Khilafat Movement as he saw it as an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 14.
The Non-cooperation Movement got nation-wide support. Support the statement with valid points.
Answer:
The Non-cooperation Movement was supported by the people of all sections. They boycotted foreign goods and spread the doctrine of Swadeshi. Thousands left government jobs, students gave up their studies in large numbers and the lawyers gave up thriving practices. They also boycotted the Prince of Wales’ visit to India. The trade unions and workers also participated actively.

Question 15.
What were the recommendations of the Nehru Report?
Answer:

1. Dominion status for India
2. Elections of the Central Legislature and the Provincial Legislatures on the basis of joint and mixed electorates
3. Reservation of seats for the Muslims in Central Legislature and in provinces where they are in a minority and for the Hindus in North West Frontier Province where they were in a minority
4. Provision of fundamental rights, and universal adult franchise.

Question 16.
Jinnah was hailed as ambassador of Hindu-Muslim unity. What made him change his stand?
Or
Under what circumstances did Jinnah begin to espouse the cause of separate nation for Muslims?
Answer:
Jinnah demanded one-third of seats be reserved for Muslims. But it was rejected in the All Party Conference. Later he proposed a resolution which came to be known as Jinnah’s Fourteen Points. However, it was also rejected. Thereafter, he changed his stand and began to espouse the cause of separate nation for Muslims.

Question 17.
Why did the negotiations between the Cripps Mission and the Congress fail? What did the Cripps Mission offer?
Answer:
The negotiations between the Cripps Mission and the Congress failed because Britain was not willing to transfer of effective power immediately. The Cripps Mission offered:

1. Grant of Dominion Status after the War
2. Indian Princes could sign a separate agreement with the British implying the acceptance for the demand of Pakistan.
3. British control of defence during the War.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Factors leading to the rise of National Movement
(a) How did the national leaders inspire the people?
Answer:
They inspired the people with the ideas of self-respect and self-confidence.

(b) When was the Vernacular Press Act passed?
Answer:
The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878.

(c) What was the policy of the British?
Answer:
The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.

(d) How did the British consider the Indians?
Answer:
The British considered the Indians as inferior and uncivilized.

Question 2.
Role of socialists

(a) Who provided the leadership for the Quit India movement when the leaders of congress were in jail?
Answer:
The socialists provided the leadership for the movement in the absence of congress leaders.

(b) Who escaped from the jail and what they did?
Answer:
Jayaprakash Narayan and Ramanand Misra escaped from the prison and organised underground movement.

(c) Who was the women activists who played a heroic role?
Answer:
Aruna Asaf Ali was the woman activists who played a heroic role.

(d) What Gandhi did to stop the atrocities done by the British Government?
Answer:
Gandhi commenced a twenty one day fast in February 1943 which nearly threatened his life.

Question 3.
Extremists
(a) Name the extremists leaders:
Answer:

1. Lokmanya Bala Gangadhar Tilak
2. Bipin Chandra Pal
3. Lala Lajpat Rai
4. Arabind Ghosh

(b) What did Tilak declare?
Answer:
Tilak declared, “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it”.

(c) Name the festivals revived by Tilak?
Answer:
Tilak revived the celebration of “Ganapathi and “Shivaji” festivals.

(d) What was the desire of the militant nationalists?
Answer:
The Militant Nationalists desired to change the aim of the congress and the means to attain it.

Question 4.
Royal indian Navy Revolt

(a) When and where the Royal Indian Navy ratings revolt?
Answer:
In February 1946 at Bombay the Royal Indian Navy ratings revolted.

(b) Where was similar strikes occurred?
Answer:
Strikes occurred in the Indian Air Force and the Indian signal corps Jabalpur.

(c) What was big blow to the imperial power?
Answer:
British surrender in South – East Asia to the Japanese was a big blow to imperial prestige.

(d) What was the effect of this revolt?
Answer:
All political leaders were released and ban on congress was lifted.

Question 5.
The Mount Batten Plan
(a) Who became the Governor General of India in 1947?
Answer:
Lord Mount Batten became the Governor General of India in 1947.

(b) Who was the last British Governor General?
Answer:
Lord Mount Batten was the last British Governor General.

(c) What was Mount Batten Plan?
Answer:
India would be divided into two independent countries namely Indian Union and the Pakistan Union.

(d) What was the reaction of the Congress and Muslim League?
Answer:
Both the Congress and the Muslim League accepted this plan.

Question 6.
Direct Action Day call by Muslim League
(a) What led to a difference between Congress and Muslim League?
Answer:
The nomination of a Muslim member by the Congress led to a difference between Congress and Muslim League.

(b) What was the League’s argument?
Answer:
The League argued it was to be the sole representative of the Muslims and so withdrew its approval.

(c) What happened on the Direct Action Day?
Answer:
Hartals and demonstrations took place which soon turned into Hindu-Muslim communal conflict.

(d) Which district of Bengal was the worst affected? What did Gandhiji do to control the situation?
Answer:
The district of Noakhali was the worst affected. Gandhiji toured the worst affected regions on bare foot spreading the message of peace and non-violence.

Question 7.
Independence and Partition.
(a) Which Act gave effect to the Mount Batten Plan?
Answer:
The Indian Independence Act gave effect to the Mount Batten Plan.

(b) When did the Act come into being?
Answer:
The Act came into being on 18 July 1947.

(c) What changes came with the enactment of the Act?
Answer:
The Act abolished the sovereignty of the British Parliament over India. India was partitioned into two dominions—India and Pakistan.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Narrate how the tribal groups were affected by the Forest Acts enacted by the British? Who attained martyrdom for the cause of forest dwellers?
Answer:

1. The First Forest Act was enacted by the British in 1865.
2. This act restricted the access of the forest dwellers to the forest areas to collect firewood, cattle fodder and other minor forest produce such as honey seeds, nuts, medicinal herbs.
3. Indian Forest Act of 1878.
4. Claimed that original ownership of forests was with the state.
5. Waste lands and fallow lands were included as forests.
6. Shifting cultivation practiced by the tribal people was prohibited.
7. Alienation of forests from local control was stiffly resisted by the aggrieved tribals and the nationalists.
8. Uprising of adivasis (1922 – 24) organised by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Rampa.
9. He made Adivasi areas – the forest area along the Godawari district Vishakapatnam (Eastern ghats) his home.
10. The Adivasis lived in utter poverty and were harassed by police, forest and revenue officials.
11. The efforts of Raju against corrupt officials to protect the interests of Rampa tribals altered the British to target his life.
12. A special team of Malabar police was sent to suppress the uprising of Rampa Adivasis in 1922 – 24.
13. For the cause of forest dwellers Alluri Sitarama Raju attained martyrdom.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Salt Satyagraha. Causes for the Salt Satyagraha:
Answer:

1. The British Government levied tax on common salt used by millions of people.
2. It hit the poor hard. So Gandhiji started the civil disobedience movement on 12th March 1930
3. This movement is known as Salt Satyagraha or the civil disobedience movement.

Dandi March:

1. Gandhi had 78 chosen followers including Sarojini Naidu left Sabarmathi Ashram to Dandi.
2. It covered nearly a distance of 400 km. Thousands of Indians joined the March.
3. They reached Dandi on 6th April. The slogan “Vande Mathara”, echoed every where Gandhiji broke the salt laws on the same day by preparing salt from sea water.

Results:

1. Gandhiji was arrested and put into the prison.
2. In Tamil Nadu Rajagopalachari organized a march from Trichy to Vedaranyam on Tanjore coast to break the salt laws.

Question 3.
Write a paragraph on Quit India Movement:
Answer:
Quit India Movement – 1942:

1. The failure of Cripps mission brought about a change in Gandhi’s attitude.
2. He felt that non-violent methods so far followed did not yield the desired effect. !*‘) Therefore he asked for the complete withdrawal of the British from India.

Resolution:

1. During the Second World War Japan got victory over victory.
2. The Congress leaders felt that the presence of English in India would naturally invite Japan to invade India.
3. So the congress working committee passed a resolution on 8th August 1942 demanding the immediate withdrawal of the British from India.

Gandhi’s memorable speech:
I am not going to be satisfied with anything short of complete freedom. We shall do or die. We shall either free India or die in the attempt.
Results:

• Gandhiji, Nehru, Abul Kalam Azad and other prominent leaders of the congress were arrested.
• Due to lack of proper leadership violent riots took place everywhere.
• At the end of the Second World War, labour party under Clement Atlee came to power in England. He was the supporter of Indian freedom struggle.
• He withdraw all the prohibitory orders imposed on the Congress by the British and also deputed a mission to find a solution for India’s problem.

Question 4.
Throw light on the Round Table Conferences. How did they disappoint the Congress leaders?
Answer:
The First Round Table Conference was held at London in November 1930 in the midst of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Ramsay MacDonald, the British Prime Minister, proposed a federal government with provincial autonomy. There was a deadlock over the question of separate electorates for the minorities. The Congress did not attend this conference as all its leaders were in jail. So, the conference closed without any result. It was clear that without
‘ Congress participation the discussions were of no value. Gandhiji was released from the jail unconditionally.

The Viceroy Lord Irwin held talks with Gandhiji on 5 March 1931. The British agreed to the demand of immediate release of all political prisoners not involved in violence, return of confiscated land and lenient treatment of the government employees who had resigned. It also permitted the people of coastal villages to make salt and non-violent picketing. The Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and attend the Second Round Table Conference. Gandhiji attended this conference which began on 7 September 1931 but refused to accept separate electorates for the minorities. As a result, the second conference also failed.

On returning to India on 28th December 1931, Gandhiji revived the Civil Disobedience Movement. This time the government was prepared to meet the resistance. So, it enforced martial law and arrested Gandhiji on 4th January 1932. Soon all the Congress leaders were also arrested. Protests and picketing by people were suppressed with force. The national st press was completely banned. In the meantime, the Third Round Table Conference was he id from 17 November to 24 December 1932. The Congress did not participate in the confers ce as it had revived the Civil Disobedience Movement.
IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEARS:

Year	Events
1915	Gandhiji arrived in India from South Africa
1918	Kheda Satyagraha
1919	Rowlatt Act, Government of India Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920	Non Co-operation Movement
1921	Ahmedabad Congress Session
1922	Chauri Chaura incident / Suspension of Non Co-operation movement
1923	Birth of Swaraj Party
1924	Formation of Hindustan Republican Army
1925	Death of C.R. Das / Swaraj Party dissolved
1927	Formation of Simon Commission
1928	Arrival of Simon Commission to India / The Nehru Report
1929	Lahore Congress
1930	Salt Satyagraha / Civil Disobedience Movement / Dandi March / First Round Table Conference
1931	Gandhi Irwin Pact / Second Round Table Conference
1932	Poona Pact / The Communal Award / Third Round Table Conference
1935	Government of India Act
1937	Provincial Elections
1939	Second World War started
1940	Jinnah’s demand for separate nation – Pakistan / August offer
1945	End of Second World War
1946	Arrival of Cabinet Mission / Interim Government under Nehru
1947	Mount Batten Plan / Indian Independence Act / India became independent
1948	Gandhiji assassination
1950	Indian constitution came to force / India became a republic

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 8 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 8 Nationalism: Gandhian Phase Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Unit Exercise 1

10th Maths Unit Exercise 1 Question 1.
If the ordered pairs (x² – 3x, y² + 4y) and (-2, 5) are equal, then find x and y.
Solution:
(x² – 3x, y² + 4y) = (-2, 5)
x² – 3x = -2
x² – 3x + 2 = 0

10th Maths Chapter 1 Unit Exercise Question 2.
The cartesian product A × A has 9 elements among which (-1, 0) and (0,1) are found.
Find the set A and the remaining elements of A × A.
Answer:
n(A × A) = 9
n(A) = 3
A = {-1,0,1}
A × A = {-1, 0, 1} × {-1, 0, 1}
A × A = {(-1,-1)(-1, 0) (-1, 1)
(0, -1) (0, 0) (0, 1)
(1,-1) (1, 0) (1, 1)}
The remaining elements of A × A =
{(-1, -1) (-1, 1) (0, -1) (0, 0) (1,-1) (1,0) (1,1)}

10th Maths Unit 1 Question 3.
Given that

(i) f(0)
(ii) f(3)
(iii) f(a + 1) in terms of a.(Given that a > 0)
Solution:
(i) f(0) = 4
(ii) f(3) = \(\sqrt{3-1}=\sqrt{2}\)
(iii) f(a + 1) = \(\sqrt{a+1-1}=\sqrt{a}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Question 4.
Let A = {9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17} and let f : A → N be defined by f(n) = the highest prime factor of n ∈ A. Write f as a set of ordered pairs and find the range of f.
Answer:
A= {9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17}
f: A → N
f(x) = the highest prime factor n ∈ A
f = {(9, 3) (10, 5) (11, 11) (12, 3) (13, 13) (14, 7) (15, 5) (16, 2) (17, 17)}
Range of f = {3, 5, 11, 13, 7, 2, 17}
= {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17}

10th Maths Exercise 1.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Find the domain of the function f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{1-\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}}\)
Solution:
f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{1-\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}}\)
Domain of f(x) = {-1, 0, 1}
(x² = 1, -1, 0, because \(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\) should be +ve, or 0)

10th Maths Unit Exercise Solutions Question 6.
If f (x) = x², g(x) = 3x and h(x) = x – 2, Prove that (f o g)o h = f o(g o h).
Answer:
f(x) = x² ; g(x) = 3x and h(x) = x – 2
L.H.S. = (fog) oh
fog = f[g(x)]
= f(3x)
= (3x)² = 9x²
(fog) oh = fog[h(x)]
= fog (x – 2)
= 9(x – 2)²
= 9[x² – 4x + 4]
= 9x² – 36x + 36 ….(1)
R.H.S. = fo(goh)
goh = g [h(x)]
= g(x – 2)
= 3(x – 2)
= 3x – 6
fo(goh) = fo [goh (x)]
= f(3x – 6)
= (3x – 6)²
= 9x² – 36x + 36 ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(fog) oh = fo {goh)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 1.1 Question 7.
A = {1, 2} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4} , C = {5, 6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} . Verify whether A × C is a subset of B × D?
Solution:
A = {1, 2), B = (1, 2, 3, 4)
C = {5, 6}, D = {5, 6, 7, 8)
A × C = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
B × D = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (1, 7), (1, 8), (2, 5), (2, 6), (2, 7), (2, 8), (3, 5), (3, 6), (3, 7), (3, 8), (4, 5), (4, 6), (4, 7), (4, 8)}
(A × C) ⊂ (B × D) It is proved.

10th Maths Unit 1 Question Paper Question 8.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x-1}{x+1}\), x ≠ 1 show that f(f(x)) = \(-\frac{1}{x}\), Provided x ≠ 0.
Solution:

Hence it is proved.

10th Maths Unit Exercise Question 9.
The function/and g are defined by f(x) = 6x + 8; g(x) = \(\frac{x-2}{3}\).
(i) Calculate the value of \(gg\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(ii) Write an expression for g f(x) in its simplest form.
Solution:

10th Maths Chapter 1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
Write the domain of the following real functions

Solution:
(i) f(x) = \(\frac{2x+1}{x-9}\)
The denominator should not be zero as the function is a real function.
∴ The domain = R – {9}
(ii) p(x) = \(\frac{-5}{4 x^{2}+1}\)
The domain is R.
(iii) g(x) = \(\sqrt{x-2}\)
The domain = [2, ∝)
(iv) h(x) = x + 6
The domain is R.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 22 Environmental Management

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

10th Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Deforestation leads to ______ in rainfall.
Answer:
Reduction

10th Science Environmental Management Question 2.
Removal of soil particles from the land is called ______
Answer:
Soil erosion

Environmental Management Questions And Answers Pdf Question 3.
Chipko movement is initiated against ______
Answer:
the cutting down of trees

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 4.
______ is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Nilgiris

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Tidal energy is ______ type of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional or renewable

Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ______ fuels.
Answer:
Fossil

Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 7.
______ is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.
Answer:
Coal

II. State whether True or False. If false, write the correct statement:

Science Solution Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Biogas is a fossil fuel.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Biogas is the mixture of methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon-di-oxide and hydrogen.

Samacheer Kalvi 10 Th Science Question 2.
Planting trees increase the groundwater level.
Answer:
True

Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Science Solutions Question 3.
Habitat destruction caused loss of wildlife.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Back Answers Question 4.
Nuclear energy is renewable energy.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Nuclear energy is a non-renewable energy source. The material used in nuclear plants is not renewable.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 5.
Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: During overgrazing, most of the plants are eaten up. If the plants or vegetation is retained, the soil is not exposed. Soil erosion occurs due to overgrazing.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Solutions Question 6.
Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Poaching should be prohibited.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 7.
The national park is a protected park.
Answer:
True

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Science Question 8.
Wildlife protection act was established in 1972.
Answer:
True

III. Match the following:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Soil erosion	(a) energy saving
2. Bio-gas	(b) acid rain
3. Natural gas	(c) removal of vegetation
4. Greenhouse gas	(d) renewable energy
5. CFL bulbs	(e) CO2
6. Wind	(f) non-renewable energy
7. Solid waste	(g) lead and heavy metals

Answer:

1. (c) Removal of vegetation
2. (d) Renewable energy
3. (f) Non-renewable energy
4. (e) CO₂
5. (a) energy saving
6. (b) acid rain
7. (g) Lead and heavy metals

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Guide Question 1.
Which of the following is/are a fossil fuel?
i. Tar
ii. Coal
iii. Petroleum
(a) i only
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(c) ii and iii

Environmental Management 10th Class Exercise Question 2.
What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
(a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 3.
The gas released from vehicles exhaust is _________
i. Carbon monoxide
ii. Sulphur dioxide
iii. Oxides of nitrogen
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii

Question 4.
Soil erosion can be prevented by:
(a) deforestation
(b) afforestation
(c) over growing
(d) removal of vegetation
Answer:
(b) afforestation

Question 5.
A renewable source of energy is ______
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) nuclear fuel
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

Question 6.
Soil erosion is more where there is:
(a) no rain fall
(b) low rainfall
(c) rain fall is high
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) rain fall is high

Question 7.
An inexhaustible resources is _______
(a) wind power
(b) soil fertility
(c) wildlife
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 8.
Common energy source in village is:
(a) electricity
(b) coal
(c) biogas
(d) wood and animal dung
Answer:
(d) wood and animal dung

Question 9.
The greenhouse effect refers to _____
(a) cooling of Earth
(b) trapping of UV rays
(c) cultivation of plants
(d) warming of Earth
Answer:
(d) warming of Earth

Question 10.
A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is:
(a) hydropower
(b) solar energy
(c) wind energy
(d) thermal energy
Answer:
(c) wind energy

Question 11.
Global warming will cause _______
(a) raise in the level of oceans
(b) melting of glaciers
(c) sinking of islands
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy?
(a) wind energy is a renewable energy
(b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor
(c) production of wind energy is pollution free
(d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
Answer:
(b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor

V. Answer in a Sentence.

Question 1.
What will happen if trees are cut down?
Answer:
Soil erosion occurs and ecological imbalance takes place if trees are cut down.

Question 2.
What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
Answer:
If the habitat of wild animal is disturbed it leads to extinction of animals or on the verge of extinction.

Question 3.
What are the agents of soil erosion?
Answer:
The high velocity of wind, air currents, flowing water, landslide, human activities such as deforestation, farming and mining, and overgrazing by cattle are the agents of soil erosion.

Question 4.
Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
Answer:
The formation of fossil fuels is a very slow process and takes very long period of time for renewals so fossil fuels are to conserved.

Question 5.
Solar energy is renewable energy. How?
Answer:
Solar energy is renewable, free source of energy, that is sustainable and totally inexhaustible.

Question 6.
How are e- wastes generated?
Answer:
e-wastes are spoiled, out dated, non-repairable, electrical and electronic devices like computer components electronic and electrical appliances.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
The importance of rainwater harvesting is as follows:

• overcome the rapid depletion of groundwater levels.
• To meet the increased demand for water.
• Reduces flood and soil erosion.
• Water stored in-ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of using biogas?
Answer:

1. It bums without smoke and therefore causes less pollution.
2. An excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
3. Left over slurry is a good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
4. It is safe and convenient to use.
5. It can reduce the amount of greenhouse gases emitted.

Question 3.
What is the environmental effect caused by sewage?
Answer:

• Sewage is the leading polluter of water resources in India.
• Different species of fishes are killed.
• Contaminated water can cause diseases such as e-coli, diarrhoea and hepatitis A.

Question 4.
What are the consequences of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge groundwater?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is a technique of collecting and storing rainwater for future use. The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater percolate under the ground, so as to recharge ‘groundwater level’.

Methods of rainwater harvesting
(i) Rooftop rainwater harvesting: The rainwater that falls on the roof of the houses, apartments and commercial buildings, etc, is collected and stored in the surface tank and is used for domestic purpose.

(ii) Recharge pit: The collected rainwater is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for Alteration. After Alteration, the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.

• Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris): Eris is constructed in such a way that, if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are interconnected.
• Ooranis: These are small ponds to collect rainwater. They are used for various domestic purposes.

Question 2.
How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:

1. Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
2. Cattle grazing should be controlled.
3. Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
4. Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
5. Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
6. Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in form of a shelter belt.

Question 3.
What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc. The solid wastes are dumped in the soil, which results in landscape pollution. Solid-waste management involves the collection, treatment and proper disposing of solid material that is discarded from the household and industrial activities.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:

• Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.
• Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.
• Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
• Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

Question 4.
Enumerate the importance of forest.
Answer:
Forests are an important component of our environment and are dominated by microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers, dense trees and provide a vast habitat for wild animals. Forests also contribute to the economic development of our country. Forests are vital for human life, it is a source for a wide range of renewable natural resource. They provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.

Forests are major factor of environmental concern. They act as a carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall, reduce global warming, prevent natural hazards like flood and landslides, protect wildlife and also act as catchments for water conservation. They also play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.

Question 5.
What are the consequences of soil erosion?
Answer:
The consequences of soil erosion are as follows:

• It has led to increased pollution and sedimentation in streams and rivers.
• Clogging the waterways and causing a decrease in fish species.
• Degraded lands often have less ability to hold on to water.
• Topsoil is removed.
• Topsoil quality is reduced.
• No medium crops to grow in soil with poor quality.
• Use of artificial fertilizers.
• Disrupts ecosystem.

Question 6.
Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
Answer:
People would consider forest is a source of raw materials for the factories and industries, and utilise it for development of human without considering about other organism. There are many stake holders of forest. They are those people who are directly or indirectly involved in forest. Management of forest and called life has to take into account the interest of all stake holders which become a challenging task.

VIII. Assertion and Reasoning Questions

In each of the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rainwater.
Reason: Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Energy-efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
Reason: CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by the degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
Answer:

• The coal and petroleum reserves can get exhausted, if we use them at a rapid rate.
• The formation of fossil fuel is a very slow process and takes a very long time for renewal.
• It is necessary to conserve the resource, for the future generation, by reducing their consumption.

Question 2.
What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
Answer:
Non conventional energy resources are non-polluting renewable sources which are environmentally clean. It is available in unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time inexpensive and can be harvested continuously.

Question 3.
Why is the Government imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this ban likely to improve the environment?
Answer:
Government is imposing a ban on the use of plastic bags and plastics because,

• Plastics pollute on land, rivers, ponds and all water bodies and soil, etc.
• Burning of plastic in open air leads to environmental pollution, due to the release of poisonous gas.
• The accumulation of plastic bags and plastics prevent the seeping of water into the Earth, which brings down the levels of groundwater.
• Plastic bags can travel long distances by wind and water. They litter our landscapes and water bodies.

Alternatives:

• Bring your own containers and bags to buy things from the shop.
• Use paper wraps or compostable bags with cloth or brown paper.

Improvement of the environment on plastic ban:

• Improve the health of individuals.
• Driving to innovate alternatives.
• Plastic pollution reduced.
• The nation is safe.

X. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support to your answer.
Answer:
In solar cells, the solar panel convert solar energy into electricity, which stored in storage battery. The storage battery gives direct current, which is to be converted into alternating current by an suitable appliances before it can be used to run various, devices. So, it increases the cost of using panels as the source of energy.

In the solar cells the energy is obtained only during the day, when the sun shines. So the solar cells is not used to meet our energy needs.

Question 2.
How would you dispose of the following wastes?

1. Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
2. Industrial wastes like metallic cans

Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
Answer:

1. Domestic wastes have to be thrown out with the trash.
2. Do vermiform composting system for vegetable wastes which can be used as a manure. Industrial wastes like metallic cans can be recycled.

Question 3.
List any three activities based on 3R approach to conserve natural resources.
Answer:
Recycling : Using recycled material of glass plastic, paper, metal etc.
Reuse : Repeating use of items.
Reduce : Avoid the use of materials which increases the solid waste.
Use of public transport instead of personal transport to reduce to consumption of fuel. Use of materials such as paper should be preferred.

Textbook Activities Solved

Question 1.
Collect information regarding the
(i) Tehri Dam project
(ii) Sardar Sarovar Dam project
Answer:
(i) Tehri Dam project:
Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the world. It is a multi-purpose rock and earth-filled embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India. It is the primary dam of the THDC India limited and the Tehri hydro-electric complex. The Tehri Dam withholds a reservoir for irrigation, municipal water supply and the generation of 1000 megawatts of hydroelectricity.

(ii) Sardar Sarovar dam project:
Sardar Sarovar Dam is a gravity dam on the Narmadha river near Navagam. It is a part of the Narmada valley project, a large hydraulic engineering project.
Benefits:

• Provides irrigation facilities.
• Drinking water supply.
• There are two powerhouses, red bed powerhouse and canal head powerhouse with a capacity of 1200 MW and 250 MW, respectively.
• It provides flood protection.
• Wildlife sanctuaries are maintained.
• Development of fisheries.
• Water supply for industries.
• Protection of conserved forests.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Environmental Management Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
______ is used for generation of _____, at thermal power plants.
Answer:
Coal, Electricity

Question 2.
Petroleum is refined to produce _____ and _____, which are used to run automobiles, trucks, trains and ships, etc.
Answer:
Petrol, Diesel

Question 3.
______ and ______ obtained from petroleum are used as domestic fuel.
Answer:
Kerosene, LPG

Question 4.
Solar energy is obtained from ______
Answer:
Sun

Question 5.
Solar cells convert sunlight directly into ______
Answer:
Electricity

Question 6.
_______ plants convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity.
Answer:
Hydropower

Question 7.
The 3R approach such as _____, _____ and ______ may be followed to effective waste management.
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse and Recycle

Question 8.
_______ is a reserved area for the conservation of entire wildlife including plants and animals.
Answer:
National park

Question 9.
______ is a place reserved exclusively for the use of animals.
Answer:
Sanctuary

Question 10.
Unwanted, non-working and out-dated electronic products become ______
Answer:
e-waste

Question 11.
In India, the forests are classified into ______ forests and ______ forests.
Answer:
Reserved, Protected

Question 12.
The small ponds to collect rainwater is called ______
Answer:
Ooranis

II. Write true or false for the following statements. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
Conservation of natural resources makes an important contribution to the social and economic development of the country.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Overexploitation and shrinking of forest resulted, the increase of animals and the nourishment of wildlife.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Overexploitation and shrinking of forest resulted, in animals becoming extinct, some are threatened and some are on the verge of extinction.

Question 3.
The potential energy possessed by the wind, due to lower speed, that can be converted into chemical power by wind turbines.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The kinetic energy possessed by the wind is due to its high speed, that can be converted into mechanical power by wind turbines.

Question 4.
The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater, run on its surface of Earth.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The main purpose of rainwater harvesting is to make the rainwater, to percolate under the ground, so as to recharge the groundwater level.

Question 5.
The burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature is called electronic wastes.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in the properly constructed furnace at high temperature is called incineration.

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Van Mahotsav	(a) Destruction of forests
2. Bombay Natural History Society	(b) Crude oil
3. Deforestation	(c) Photovoltaic devices
4. Erosion	(d) Afforestation programme
5. Solar cells	(e) Conservation of wildlife
6. Petroleum	(f) Removal of an upper layer of soil

Answer:

1. (d) Afforestation programme
2. (e) Conservation of wildlife
3. (a) Destruction of forests
4. (f) Removal of an upper layer of soil
5. (c) Photovoltaic devices
6. (b) Crude oil

IV. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The new sources of energy are termed as _______
(a) fossil fuel
(b) Conventional energy resources
(c) Non-conventional sources of energy
(d) conservation
Answer:
(c) non-conventional sources of energy

Question 2.
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because:
(a) They are made of materials with light weight
(b) They are made of toxic materials.
(c) They are made of biodegradable materials.
(d) They are made of non-biodegradable materials.
Answer:
(d) They are made of non-biodegradable materials.

Question 3.
The other name for Biogas is ______
(a) Natural gas
(b) Nitrogen gas
(c) Gobar gas
(d) Shale gas
Answer:
(c) Gobar gas

Question 4.
Wildlife includes:
(a) Wild animals only
(b) Wild plants only
(c) Wild plants and animals
(d) All plants and animals
Answer:
(d) All plants and animals

Question 5.
E-wastes are generally called as _______
(a) garbages
(b) electronic waste
(c) decomposition
(d) solid wastes
Answer:
(b) electronic waste

V. Answer the following shortly.

Question 1.
Why should we conserve forests and wild life?
Answer:
We should conserve forest and wild life to preserve the biodiversity, so as to avoid the loss of ecological stability. Without proper management of forest and wild life, the quality of soil, the water sources, and even the amount of rainfall may be affected.

Question 2.
What are the effects of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wildlife, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

Question 3.
Name the organisation involved in wild life conservation.
Answer:
Organisations Involved in Conservation of Wildlife

1. Indian Board for WildLife (IBWL)
2. World Wildlife Fund (WWF) for Nature
3. World Conservation Union (WCN) ,
4. International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources (IUCN)
5. Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
6. Bombay Natural History Society
7. Wild life Preservation Society of India, Dehradun

Question 4.
What are fossil fuels? How are they formed?
Answer:
The fossil fuels are petroleum, coal and natural gas. Due to the anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms, by a natural process over millions of years, energy-rich substances are formed. As the accumulating sediment layers produce heat and pressure, the remains of the organisms are gradually transformed into hydrocarbons.

Question 5.
Write the uses of solar cells.
Answer:

1. It can be used for street lighting, traffic signals, water pumping, battery charging system etc.
2. It is used in artificial satellites and space probes.
3. It provides radio and TV transmission to remote areas.
4. It is used in calculators, electronic toys and watches.

Question 6.
Write short notes about shale gas.
Answer:
Due to the compaction of small old rocks, which contain mud and minerals such as quartz and calcite, trapped beneath Earth’s surface and form the soft finely stratified sedimentary rock called shale. These rocks contain fossil fuels like oil and gas in their pores. This fuel is extracted by a technique called hydraulic fracturing.

Shale drilling could affect groundwater reserves, which can contaminate drinking water. It also affects the fertility of the soil. A million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas which in turn can affect the fertility of the soil.
A million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas, which in turn can affect the water table.

Question 7.
What is Tidal energy? What is it’s advantages?
Answer:
The energy obtained from the movement of water, due to ocean tides is called tidal energy. Tides are the rise and fall of sea level, caused by the combined effects of the gravitational force. A tidal stream is a fast-flowing body of water created by tides. Turbines are placed in tidal streams. When the tides hit the turbine, the turbine rotates and converts the tidal energy into electric energy.
Advantages:

• It does not produce any pollution.
• It does not use any fuel and does not produce any waste.
• Tides are predictable, so tidal energy can be produced at any time.
• Water is denser than air and therefore can generate electricity at lower speeds than wind turbines.

Question 8.
How is electric energy conserved?
Answer:

• Use energy-efficient appliances to save electricity like compact fluorescent lamps (CFL), Light Emitting Diode [LED] bulbs and other electrical equipment.
• Switch off the lights and fans, television and other electrical appliances, when not in use.
• Switch off the mobile phone chargers when not in use.
• Use more off solar radiation. Solar water heating system can be used instead of electric geysers.
• Minimise the use of air conditioners.

Question 9.
What are the sources of e-waste? What is the environmental impact of e-waste?
Answer:
E-wastes are called electronic wastes, which includes the spoiled, outdated; non-repairable electrical and electronic devices. These wastes contain toxic metals like lead, cadmium, chromium and mercury, and also contains iron, copper, silicon, aluminium and gold, which can be recovered. The sources of e-wastes are:

• Electronic device: Computers, laptops, mobile phones, printers, monitors, televisions, DVD players, calculators, toys and sports equipment.
• Household electrical appliances: Refrigerators, washing machine, microwave oven, mixer, grinder and water heater, etc.
• Accessories: Printing cartridges, batteries and chargers.

Environmental impact of e-wastes:
Disposal of any kind of electrical and electronic devices without knowledge can become the landfill and water pollutants.
Electronic equipment contains many heavy metals such as lead and cadmium that can cause severe soil and groundwater pollution. E-waste dumping yards and the places, nearby are polluted and cause a severe health hazard.

Question 10.
What is the 3R approach of ineffective waste management?
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse and Recycle are the 3R approach for effective waste management. Reducing the amount of waste, we produce is the best way to help the environment. Buying products with minimum packaging, not borrowing things which we do not use often, starting a compost bin, saving energy and water by turning are ways to reduce. Reuse materials in their original form or pass those materials on to others, who could use them. Paper cardboard, metals, plastics and textiles, etc can be recycled. The compost or reuse of bio-degradable wastes is also a kind of recycling.

Question 11.
What are non-conventional energy resources? What does it include?
Answer:
The energy resources available in an unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harvested continuously is called the non-conventional energy resources.

The non-conventional energy resources include biofuel, bio mass-energy, geothermal energy, water energy (hydroelectric energy and tidal energy), solar energy, wave energy and wind energy.

Question 12.
What is the composition of Bio-gas? How is it formed?
Answer:

• Bio-gas is the mixture of methane (75%), hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
• It is produced by the decomposition of animal wastes (cow dung) and plant wastes in the ‘ absence of oxygen.
• It is also commonly called as “Gobar gas”, as the starting material used is cow dung, which ~ means gobar in Hindi.

Question 13.
What are hydropower and hydropower electricity?
Answer:
Earth is covered with 71% of water. The technique to harness the water energy, from the flowing water is called the hydropower.

The electrical energy is derived from water flow and water falling from a height. In hilly areas, there is a continuous flow of water in large amounts falling from high slopes. The electricity produced by flowing water is called hydropower electricity.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What are the aims of wildlife management?
Answer:
The main aim of wildlife conservation are:

1. To control and limit exploitation of species.
2. To preserve the plants and animals from extinction.
3. Maintenance of threatened species and protect species which are on the verge of extinction.
4. Preserve the endangered species.
5. To study the ecological relationship of the plants and animals in natural habitat.
6. Hunting and poaching should be prohibited.
7. Establishment of National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, protected areas and Biosphere reserves.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the classification of energy resources.
Answer:
Energy resources can be classified as renewable and non-renewable.
(i) Non-renewable (exhaustible) energy resources:
The energy obtained from sources that cannot renew themselves over a short period of time is called non-renewable energy. They include coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear power. The conventional energy resources account for 90% of the world’s production of commercial energy and nuclear power account for 10%.

(ii) Renewable (inexhaustible) energy resources:
Renewable (inexhaustible) energy resources are available in the unlimited amount in nature and they can be renewed over a short period of time, inexpensive and can be harnessed continuously. These are called non-conventional energy resources, which include biofuel, biomass energy, geothermal energy, water energy (hydroelectric energy and tidal energy), solar energy, wave energy and wind energy.

Question 3.
Write a note an shale gas. Explain the environment impact of shale gas.
Answer:
Shale refers to the soft finely stratified sedimentary rock that is formed from the compaction of small old rocks containing mud and minerals – such as quartz and calcite, trapped beneath earth’s surface. These rocks contain fossil fuels like oil and gas in their pores.

The fuel is extracted by a technique called hydraulic fracturing (drilling or well boring of sedimentary rocks layers to reach productive reservoir layers).

Environmental concerns of shale gas:

1. Shale drilling could affect groundwater reserves, which can contaminate the drinking water resources and also affect the fertility of the soil.
2. Million gallons of water is needed to break and release the shale gas, which intum can affect the water table.

Question 4.
(a) How does windmill work?
(b) List out the uses of wind energy and the advantages of wind energy.
Answer:
(a) A windmill is a machine, that converts the energy of wind, into rotational energy by broad blade attached to the rotating axis. When the blowing air strikes the blades of the windmill, it exerts force and causes the blades to rotate. The rotational movement of the blades operate the generator and the electricity is produced. The energy output from each windmill is coupled together to get electricity on a commercial scale.

(b) The uses of wind energy are as follows:

• Generating electricity.
• Run water pumps and flour mills, etc.
• Rotatory motion of windmill is used to draw water from wells.

Advantages of wind energy:

• Wind energy is a free, eco-friendly and renewable source of energy.
• It does not cause pollution.
• Expenses on periodic maintenance are low when compared to the other power sources.

Question 5.
(a) What are the sources of sewage or wastewater?
(b) Expiate the methods which involve in conventional wastewater treatment.
Answer:
(a) The sources of sewage or wastewater involve:

• The domestic purpose or household activities
• Dye and textile industries
• Leather industries
• Sugar and breweries industries
• Paper and pulp industries

(b) The conventional wastewater treatment methods involve the following step:

• Pre-screening: Wastewater generated from domestic and industrial activities is screened to remove soil and solid particulates.
• Aeration: Screened wastewater is pumped to an aeration tank. Here the microbial contaminants are removed by the biological degradation, that occurs, in the presence of air.
• Sedimentation process: In this process, the solid particles in suspension form are allowed to settle. The particles that settle out from the suspension is known as sludge.
• Sludge removal: The sludge generated by the degradation process is transferred periodically from the tank for safe disposal.
• Disinfection: Chlorination and ultraviolet (UV) radiation of treated water is required to remove any microorganism contamination.
• Water recycling: The water will then be supplied for domestic or industrial purposes.

VII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
There are certain NGOs which ask people to donate their used clothes, toys, school books, house hold items. These NGOs segregate the collected items and distribute them to the needy people. What objectives do these NGOs fulfil by this initiatives?
Answer:
The objective behind this is Reuse and Recycle.

Question 2.
Name the national park, which was first established at Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Jim Corbett national park.

Question 3.
An environmentalist on your visit to your school suggested the use of 3R’s to same the environment. Explain the 3R’s.
Answer:
The 3R’s are Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
Reuse : Instead of throwing thing away, try to find ways to use them again.
Recycle : Creating new product out of the materials from the old.
Reduce : It is the best way to help the environment by reducing the amount of waste you produce.

Question 4.
Where does India stand at the consumer of crude oil?
Answer:
India is the third-largest consumer of crude oil in the world after the United States and China.

Question 5.
Why does the white marble of Tajmahal become yellow?
Answer:
The Mathura oil refinery owned by Indian Oil Corporation presents around this area, which produces sulphur and nitrogen oxides. The white marble became yellow due to air pollution. The Government of India has set up emission standards around the monument to protect it from the damage.

Question 6.
Name the fourth oldest dam in the world? Where is it located?
Answer:
Kallanai Dam, which is also Called Grand Anicut, is the fourth oldest dam in the world. The dam is located on the river Kaveri, 20 km from the city of Tiruchirappalli.

Question 7.
Where is the world’s largest and tallest wind turbine located?
Answer:
The world’s largest and tallest wind turbine is situated in Hawai. One wind turbine can produce electricity for 300 homes.

Question 8.
Name the health effects of the following E-wastes.
Answer:

• Lead: Damages the central and peripheral nervous system. It also affects brain development in children.
• Chromium: Asthmatic bronchitis.
• Cadmium: Accumulates in kidney and liver; Neural damage.
• Mercury: Chronic damage to the brain and respiratory system.
• Plastics including polyvinyl chloride [PVC]: Burning produces, dioxin, which can cause developmental and reproductive problems and damage the immune system.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 10 Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu

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Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Social Transformation In Tamil Nadu Question 1.
……………. was the pioneer of social Reformers in India.
(a) C.W. Damotharanar
(b) Periyar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Maraimalai Adigal
Answer:
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy

Social Transformation Meaning In Tamil Question 2.
…………….. established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, atTranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W. Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 3.
……………. was the official newspaper of the Self Respect Movement.
(a) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(a) Kudi Arasu

Question 4.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by :
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 5.
…………… founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M. C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ……………..
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 7.
……………. was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board
(b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board
(d) Staff Selection Commission
Answer:
(a) Staff Selection Board

Question 8.
…………….. was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in Madras Province.
(a) M.C. Rajah
(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(c) T.M. Nair
(d) P. Varadarajulu
Answer:
(a) M.C. Rajah

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The college of Fort St. George was founded by ……………….
3. …………….. is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. ……………. was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.
5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as …………
6. ………….. gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was …………
Answers:
1. Tamil
2. F.W. Ellis
3. Maraimalai Adigal
4. Justice Party government
5. Parithimar Kalignar
6. Abraham Pandithar
7. Muthulakshmi Reddi

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement. .
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Margret Cousin was one of the founders of Women’s India Association.
(ii) Periyar spent his entire life campaigning against superstitions through Thinkers or Rationalists Forums he had formed.
(iii) Singaravelar was a staunch supporter of the Flindu Mahasabha.
(iv) Periyar emphasised that the caste system in South India is linked with the arrival of Brahmins from the North.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of Dyarchy.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): As World War I was in progress, the British Government was considering the introduction of representative institutions for Indians after the war.
Reason (R): In 1920, Dyarchy as a form of Government was introduced in the provinces.
(a) A is correct, but R is not the correct reason
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are right
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Write a note on Tamil Renaissance.
Answer:

1. The cultural hegemony of colonialism and the rise of humanism brought several changes in the socio – cultural life of the Indian subcontinent.
2. Modem Tamil Nadu too experienced such a historical transition.
3. Tamil language and cultural played a significant role in their identity construction.
4. The introduction of printing press linguistic research on Dravidian languages etc under pinned the process of Tamil renaissance.
5. Religious literature was taken up for publication after the advent of printing technology.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:
In 1816, F.W. Ellis formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo-Aryan family of languages. Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A comparative Grammar of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of languages, in 1856. He established a close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 3.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar (1832 – 1901) and U.V. Swaminathar (1855 – 1942) Parithimar Kalaignar (1870 – 1903), Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram (1883 – 1953), Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950), Subramania Bharathi (1882 – 1921), S. Vaiyapuri (1891 – 1956), and the poet Bharathidasan (1891 – 1964) in their ownways and through their writings, contributed to the revival of Tamil Literature.

Question 4.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justice ministry?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples. These temples commanded huge resources which were monopolised and exploited by the dominant caste in the society and led to the mismanagement of public resources. The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 5.
What do you know of the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:

1. Caste based discrimination in the dinning hall at the Cheranmadevi Gurukulam (School), which was run by V.V. Subramaniam (a Congress leader) with the financial support of theTamil Nadu Congress Committee.
2. Periyar was disappointed when, despite his objections and protests against this discrimination, the Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam.

Question 6.
Name the newspapers published by the South Indian Liberal Foundation.
Answer:
Name of the newspapers:

1. Dravidian in Tamil
2. Justice in English
3. Andhra Prakasika in Telugu

Question 7.
Estimate Periyar as a Feminist.
Answer:

1. Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the devadasi system (institution of temple girls).
2. Right from 1929, when the Self – Respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.
3. Periyar objected to terms like “giving in marriage”. This, he said treats woman as a thing.
4. He wants it substituted by “Valkaithunai” (companion) a word for marriage taken from the Thirukkural. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why the woman is enslaved?
5. Periyar believed that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection. He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption.
6. He was a strong champion of birth control and contraception and said that motherhood was a burden to women.
7. In 1989 Government of Tamil Nadu fulfilled the dream of radical reformers by the introduction of the Hindu Succession Tamil Nadu Amendment Act of 1989, which ensured the equal rights to ancestral . property for women in inheritance.

Question 8.
Explain the proceedings of All India Trade Union Congress Conference held in 1920?
Answer:
The first All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) was held on 31st October 1920 in Bombay. The delegates discussed several resolutions. These included a demand for protection from police interference in labour disputes, the maintenance of an unemployment register, restrictions on exporting foodstuffs, compensation for injuries and health insurance. In addition, the delegates demanded that Indian workers be given some representation in the government, just as employers had representation on legislative councils.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Periyar E.V.R
(a) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
Answer:
Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

(b) What were the Newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
Answer:
The newspapers and journals started by Periyar were – Kudi Arasu, Revolt, Puratchi, Paguththarivu and Viduthalai.

(c) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
Answer:
In Vaikom, people protested against the practice of no access to the temples by the lower caste people. After the local leaders were arrested Periyar led the Temple Entry Movement and was imprisoned. So, people hailed him as Vaikom Virar or hero of Vaikom.

(d) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved?

Question 2.
Labour movement in tamilnadu

(a) Highlight the factors that caused the birth of Trade Union Movement
Answer:
The First World War (1914 – 18) provides stimulus to industrial growth in India. At the end of the war there were retrenchments across the industries. Combined with high prices, this gave a momentum to the labour movement.

(b) dentify the three prominent persons associated with the Madras Labour Union.
Answer:
B.P. Wadia, Singaravelar, Thiru.Vi. Kalyanasundaram

(c) Where was the first conference of All India Trade Union Congress held?
Answer:
Bombay

(d) Who organised the first ever celebration of May Day in Madras and which year?
Answer:
Singaravelar organised the first ever celebration of May Day in 1923.

Question 3.
Maraimalai Adigal
(a) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.

(b) Name the Journal where he worked as a young man.
Answer:
Siddhanta Deepika

(c) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
Answer:
Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influences from Tamil language. He painted out that Tamil language would suffer with the introduction of Hindi.

(d) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
His teachers P. Sundaram Pillai and Somasundara Nayagar were the key influences in Maraimali Adigal’s life.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on the foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th Century.
Answer:

1. In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar (1832 – 1901) and U.V. Swaminathar (1855 – 1942) spent their lifetime in the re-discovery of the Tamil classics.
2. C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature.
3. His editions included such texts as Tolkappiyam, Viracholiyam, Iraiyanar-Akapporul, Ilakkana Villakkam, Kaliththokai and Culamani.
4. U.V. Swaminathar a student of Meenakshi Sundaranar took efforts to publish the classical texts such a Civakachinthamani (1887), Paththupattu (1889), Chilapathikaram (1892), Purananuru (1894), Purapporul – Venpa – Malai (1895), Manimekalai (1898), Ainkurunuru (1903) and Pathitrupathu (1904).
5. The publication of these ancient literary texts created an awareness among the Tamil people about their historical tradition, language, literature and religion.
6. In 1816 F.W. Ellis (1777 – 1819) who founded the College of Fort . St. George formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to separate family which was unrelated to the Indo – Aryan family of languages.
7. Robert Caldwell (1814 – 1891) expanded this argument in a book titled A Comparative Grammar of the Dravidian (or) South Indian family of Languages in 1856.
8. He established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
9. Tamil intellectuals of this period identified the fundamental differences between Tamil / Dravidian / Egalitarian and Sanskrit / Aryan Brahmanism.
10. They argued that Tamil was a language of Dravidian people who are Non – Brahmin and their social life was casteless, gender – sensitised and egalitarian.
11. These ideas are exemplified in the Tamil invocation song in the play, Manonmaniam written by R Sundaranar (1855 – 1897).
12. Abraham Pandithar (1859 – 1919) gave prominence to Tamil music and published books on the history of Tamil music.
13. C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar Thiru.Vi. kalyanasundaram (1883 – 1953), Parithimar Kalaignar (1870 – 1903) Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950), Subramania Bharathi (1882 – 1921), S. Vaiyapuri (1891 – 1956), and the poet Bharathidasan (1891 – 1964) in their own ways and through their writings, contributed to the revival of Tamil literature.
14. V.G. Suryanarayana Sastri one of the earliest scholars to identify the influence of Sanskrit on Tamil and adopted a pure Tamil name for himself: Parithimar Kalaignar.
15. He was the first to argue that Tamil is a classical language and demanded that the University of Madras should not call Tamil a vernacular language.
16. Maraimalai Adigal (1876 – 1950) is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism and the founder of Tani Tamil Iyakkam.
17. His daughter Neelambikai complied a dictionary that provided pure Tamil equivalents to Sanskrit words that had crept into Tamil vocabulary.

Question 2.
Describe the background for the formation of the Justice party and point out its contribution to the cause of social justice.
Answer:
It was the period of World War I. The British government thought to introduce representative institutions for Indians after the war. Fearing that such political reforms would further strengthen the political power of Brahmins, educated non-Brahmins decided to organize themselves politically. So, in 1916, some prominent non-Brahmin leaders came together from South Indian Liberation Federation (SILF). It later came to be known as the Justice Party. It was a political party in the Madras Presidency of British India.

Contribution of the Justice Party to the cause-social justice:
The Justice Party government widened education and employment opportunities for the majority of the population and created space for them in the political sphere. The Justices removed the legal hindrances restricting inter-caste marriages and broke the barriers that prevented Adi Dravidars from the use of public wells and tanks. In 1921, the Madras legislature under the Justice Party government was the first to approve participators of women in the electoral politics.

Question 3.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Periyar was keen on the introduction of reservations in representative bodies such as the legislative council for Non – Brahmins.
2. Periyar understood the relevance of mass communication in spreading rationalist thought. He started a number of newspapers and journals.
3. He also supported Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorates for scheduled castes.
4. Periyar had a close relationship with Singaravelar who is considered the first communist of South India and a pioneer of Buddhism.
5. In 1937, in opposition to the Rajaji’s Government move to introduce compulsory Hindi in schools, he launched a popular movement to oppose it.
6. The anti – Hindi agitation (1937 – 39) had a big impact of Tamil Nadu’s politics. Periyar was imprisoned for his role in the movement.
7. Rajaji, the Chief Minister of Madras State (1952 – 54), introduced a vocational education programme with training in tune with their father’s occupation.
8. Periyar criticised it as Kula Kalvi Thittam (caste – based education scheme) and opposed it tooth and nail.
9. Anti-north Indian campaigns had made Periyar to take an anti – Hindi stand.
10. Periyar’s experiences taught him that it was necessary to eradicate religion in order to impart progress and Justice.
11. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
12. Periyar objected to the hereditary priesthood in temples.
13. He advocated inter – caste and Self Respect Marriages devoid of any such rituals.
14. Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child – marriage and the devadasi system (institution of temple girls).
15. Periyar objeeted to terms like “giving in marriage” This he said, treats women as a thing- He wants it substituted by Valkaithunai (companion).
16. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is why women is enslaved? (xvz7) Periyar believe that property rights for women would provide them a social status and protection.
17. Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to distinguish between Labour Movement and Trade Union Movement. Project work on the activities of local trade union organizations be done by students.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Students can compile the activities of the local writers’ associations or women’s collectives.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
South Indian Liberal Federation is otherwise known as the ……………….
(a) Dravidian Party
(b) Janatha Party
(c) Justice Party
Answer:
(c) Justice Party

Question 2.
………………. is an ideological and cultural phenomenon.
(a) Culture
(b) Heritage
(c) Renaissance
(d) Architecture
Answer:
(c) Renaissance

Question 3.
The greatest social reformer of Tamil Nadu ……………
(a) E.V. Ramasamy
(b) Nehru
(c) Gandhiji
Answer:
(a) E.V. Ramasamy

Question 4.
The fundamentalist religious practices that denied humans their:
(a) religious
(b) social
(c) culture
(d) dignity
Answer:
(d) dignity

Question 5.
All India Women conference was organized at
(a) Pune
(b) Bombay
(c) Thame
Answer:
(a) Pune

Question 6.
………………. is one of earliest Tamil literary text.
(a) Thirukkural
(b) Chilapathikaram
(c) Purananuru
(d) Manimekalai
Answer:
(a) Thirukkural

Question 7.
Justice Party failed in the year ……………
(a) 1937
(b) 1934
(c) 1930
Answer:
(a) 1937

Question 8.
………………. and ………………. spent their life time in the discovery of the Tamil classics.
(a) C.W. Damotharanar
(b) U.V. Swaminathar
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
In 1921, the Justice Party granted women the right to ……………
(a) Education
(b) Vote
(c) Property
Answer:
(b) Vote

Question 10.
Who was a student of Meenakshi Sundaranar?
(a) P. Sundaranar
(b) Thiru.Vi. Ka
(c) U.V. Swaminathar
(d) Parithimar Kalaignar
Answer:
(c) U.V. Swaminathar

Question 11.
Who collected and edited different palm-leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammar and literature?
(a) Ziegenbalg
(b) C. W. Damotharanar
(c) Singaravelar
(d) Subramaniya Bharati
Answer:
(b) C. W. Damotharanar

Question 12.
Whose writings contributed to the revival of Tamil literature?
(a) Subramania Bharathi
(b) Bharathidasan
(c) Thiru.Vi.Ka
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 13.
Women’s India Association was started in ……………….
(a) 1916
(b) 1917
(c) 1920
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1917

Question 14.
Who wrote commentaries on the sangam texts?
(a) Parithimar Kalaignar
(b) Maraimalai Adigal
(c) U.V. Swaminathar
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(b) Maraimalai Adigal

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Justice Party was established in ……………
2. …………… was the first Non – European language that went for print.
3. In 1578 a Tamil book ThambiranVanakkam was published from …………….
4. In 1816 ……………. founded the college of Fort St. George.
5. Ramalinga Adigal is popularly known as ………….
6. ……………. was founded by Pandithar Iyotheethassar.
7. …………. popularly known as M. C. Rajah.
8. M. Singaravelar organized the first celebration of ……………. in 1923.
9. WIA was started in 1917 by ………………
10. The Self-Respect Movement championed not only the causes of the non-Brahmin Hindus, but also that of the ………………
11. ……………. is known for the crucial role he played in the abolition of Sati.
12. Tamil Renaissance questioned the cultural ceremony of ………………
13. ……………… was an early pioneer in Buddhist revival.
14. The Madras Non-Brahmin Association was founded in 1909 to help the …………. students.
Answers:
1. 1916
2. Tamil
3. Goa
4. F. W. Ellis
5. Vallalar
6. Advaidananda Sabha
7. Mylai Chinnathambi Raja
8. May Day
9. Annie Besant
10. Muslims
11. Raja Rammohan Roy
12. Brahminism
13. M. Singaravelu
14. Non-Brahmin

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Rettaimalai Srinivasan was a close associate of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(ii) He participated in the third Round Table Conference held in London.
(iii) He voiced the opinions of the marginalised sections of the society.
(iv) He was a signatory to the Poona Pact of 1932.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i)Agamic temples permitted the performance of rituals in Tamil.
(ii) Tamil songs had a marginal place in musical concerts.
(iii) M.C. Rajah systematically studied the history of Tamil music.
(iv) Abraham Pandithar founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Match the following.

1.	Justice	(a)	E. V. Ramasamy Periyar
2.	Vaikom Hero	(b)	T. M. Nair
3.	Devadasi System	(c)	Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
4.	Justice Party	(d)	English News Paper

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)

1.	Andhra University	(a)	Kerala
2.	Vaikom Sathyagraha	(b)	1924
3.	Widow Remarriage Act	(c)	1856
4.	Public Service Commission	(d)	1925
5.	Vaikom	(e)	1929

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (e)
5. (a)

1.	Self Respect Movement	(a)	Anna Durai
2.	Dravidan	(b)	Periyar
3.	Dravida Munnetra kazhagam	(c)	Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
4.	The First Woman Doctor	(d)	News paper

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4.(c)

1.	Manonmaniam	(a)	Tamil language movement
2.	Tamil Isai Iyakkam	(b)	Liberation
3.	Valkaitunai	(c)	Regions
4.	Viduthalai	(d)	P. Sundaram Pillai
5.	Tinais	(e)	Companion

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is Renaissance?
Answer:
Renaissance is an ideological and cultural phenomenon. It is closely tied to modernity, rationalism, and the progressive movement of the society.

Question 2.
Narrate Dr. Muthulakshmi rule in the agitation against Devadasi system.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Muthulakshmi dedicated herself to the cause of removing the cruel practice of devadasi system from Tamil Nadu. She fought against this system vigorously.

(ii) Appreciating her role in the agitation against Devadasi System she was nominated to the Tamil Nadu Legislative Council in 1929.

(iii) She was vehemently supported in her efforts by Thiru. Muvalur Ramamirtham and Periyar.

(iv) As a result the Justice Party Government enacted a law abolishing Devadasi System.

Question 3.
How for printing press played a significant role in Tamil literary works?
Answer:

1. The introduction of printing press linguistic research on Dravidian languages underpinned the process of Tamil renaissance.
2. Religious literature was taken up for publication in the early years after the advent of printing technology.
3. This led the resurgence of interest among Tamil scholars in publishing the more ancient Tamil classics around that period.

Question 5.
Write about Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy.
Answer:
Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy was the first woman in India to get a degree in medicine. She started the cancer institute at Adyar. She dedicated herself to the cause of removing the cruel practice devadasi system from Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
What kind of vocational education programme was introduced by C. Rajagopalachari in Madras State? How did Periyar react to this?
Answer:
C. Rajagopalachari introduced a vocational education programme that encouraged imparting school children with training in tune with their father’s occupation. Periyar criticised it as caste-based education scheme and opposed it severely.

Question 7.
Write a short note on Tani Tamil Iyakkam.
Answer:

1. Maraimalai Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influence from the Tamil language.
2. The movement made a great impact on Tamil culture especially in language and literature.
3. His daughter Neelambikai played an important role in its foundation.
4. The movement was critical of Hindi, Sanskrit and Brahminical hegemony in Tamil society.
5. This movement paved the way for later social movements that countered Brahminical and the Sanskrit tradition in Tamil society.

Question 8.
Throw light on the context in which the Dravidian Movement emerged.
Answer:
In Madras Presidency, Brahmins dominated all the fields of society, especially politics, education and job opportunities in the government. The 1911 census showed that Brahmins were slightly over 3 percent of Madras Presidency’s population, and non-Brahmins 90 percent. Yet in the ten years from 1901 to 1911 Madras University turned out 4074 Brahmin graduates compared with only 1035 non-Brahmin graduates. It was in this context the Dravidian movement emerged as a defense of the non-Brahmin castes against the Brahmin dominance.

Question 9.
Mention the women activists in the Self – Respect Movement.
Answer:
There were several women activists in the Self Respect Movement. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar, Nagammai Kannamma, Nilavathi, Muvalu Ramamirtham, Rukmani Ammal, Alarmelmangai Thayammal, Nilambikai and Sivakami Chidambaranar.

Question 10.
What are the countries Periyar visited over the years?
Answer:
Over the years Periyar visited many countries and interacted with intellectuals all over. He visited Singapore and Malaya, Egypt, U.S.S.R, Greece, Turkey, Germany, England, Spain, France and Portugal.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
The Justice Party.
(a) Who established the Justice Party?
Answer:
Dr. C. Natesanar, Sir Pitti Theyagarayar, T.M. Nair and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal established the Justice Party.

(b) When did the Justice Party come to power?
Answer:
The Justice Party came to power in 1920.

(c) When was it defeated?
Answer:
The Justice Party was defeated in 1937.

(d) Write any two achievements of the Justice Party.
Answer:

• It introduced the system of giving free pattas for housing sites to the poor.
• In 1929 Annamalai university was opened.

Question 2.
The Justice Party

(a) Who established the Justice Party?
Answer:
T.M. Nair and Thiyagaraja Chetty.

(b) When did the Justice Party come to power?
Answer:
In 1920.

(c) When was it defeated?
Answer:
In 1937.

(d) Write the work of the Justice Party.
Answer:
The Justice Party worked towards legislating provisions for communal . representation-reservations for various communities. Two communal Government orders (1921 and 1922) were passed to ensure equitable distribution in appointments to achieving social Justice.

Question 3.
Language agitation before Indian Independence
(a) Name the movements that helped to galvanise the Tamil language.
Answer:
Maraimalai Adigal’s Pure Tamil Movement, the language reforms of Periyar and Tamil Isai Movement.

(b) Highlight the contribution of Abraham Pandithar for the cause of Tamil music.
Answer:
Abraham Pandithar systematically studied the history of Tamil music and attempted to reconstruct ancient Tamil musical system. He founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912 which became the kernel of the Tamil Isai Movement or Tamil Music Movement.

(c) What was seen as a threat to Tamil language and music?
Answer:
The implementation of Hindi as a compulsory language in Tamil Nadu, at various points of time, was seen as a threat to Tamil language and culture.

(d) Who introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools?
Answer:
C. Rajagopalachari introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.

Question 4.
Women’s movements
(a) Why were several streams of women’s movements and organisations established in the early twentieth century?
Answer:
They were established to address the question of women empowerment in Madras Presidency.

(b) Why did women’s India Association publish pamphlets and bulletins in different languages?
Answer:
It published pamphlets and bulletins in different languages to detail the problems of personal hygiene, marriage laws, voting rights, child care and women’s role in the public.

(c) Why was the All India Women’s Conference formed in 1927?
Answer:
It was formed to address the problem of women’s education and recommended that the government implement various policies for the uplift of women.

(d) What was one major objective of the Self-Respect movement?
Answer:
One major objective of the Self-Respect movement was women’s liberation.
IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEARS:

Year	Events
1905	Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
1906	Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
1916	Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
1917	Champaran Satyagraha
1918	Kheda Satyagraha
1919	Rowlatt Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920	Khilafat Movement /Non-Co-operation Movement
1922	Chauri Chaura incident
1923	The formation of Swaraj Party
1927	The appointment of the Simon Commission
1928	Motilal Nehru Report
1929	The Lahore Congress Session
1930	Salt Satyagraha / First Round Table Conference
1931	Gandhi Irwin Pact / Second Round Table Conference
1932	Communal Award / Poona Pact / Third Round Table Conference
1935	The Government of India Act
1937	First Congress Ministry in Provinces
1940	August Offer / Individual Satyagraha
1942	Cripps Mission / Quit India Movement
1945	Wavell Plan / Simla Conference
1946	RIN Revolt / Cabinet Mission / Interim Government
1947	Mountbatten Plan / India won Independence

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