Laxmi

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Textual Evaluation

I. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Prepare the slogans for road safety.
Answer:
Slogans on Road Safety

1. Alert today – Alive tomorrow.
2. Leave sooner, drive slower, live longer.
3. Speed thrills but kills.
4. Be alert! Accidents hurt.
5. Drive carefully, to live joyfully.
6. A little care makes accidents rare.
7. Fast-drive could be your last drive.
8. Driving faster can cause disaster
9. Chance takers are accident makers.

Question 2.
Identify the following signs.

Answer:
a. No U Turn
b. No Entry
c. Cross Road
d. Hospital

Question 3.
Discuss about the statistics of 2017 accidents data.
Answer:

1. Nearly three persons died every ten minutes in road accidents across India last year.
2. The Report, prepared by the Transport Research Wing of the Ministry of Road Transport and highways, discovered that a total of 4,64,910 road accident were reported by States and Union territories in the calender year of 2017, claiming 1,47,913 lives and causing injuries to 4,70,975 persons.
3. The subject of road safety is an important one. Victims of hit and run cases would now be compensated for up to Rs one million in case of road accident fatalities.
4. Among vehicle categories involved in road accidents, two-wheelers accounted for the highest share (33.9%) in total accidents and fatalities (29.8%) in 2017.
5. However there has been a decline in the total number of road accidents as compared with the year 2016. In percentage terms the number of accidents in 2017 was lower by 3.3 percent and injuries 4.8 percent over that of the previous year.

Question 4.
Debate : Is Wearing helmet necessary?
Answer:

1. It is important for motor cyclists to understand the risks of riding without a helmet.
2. Riders who do not wear helmets are at risk of suffering traumatic brain injury if they are in an accident.
3. Without protection, the head is vulnerable to a traumatic impact in an accident even when travelling at low speeds.
4. Wearing helmet is absolutely necessary for riders and pillion riders.

Question 5.
Draw posters related to road safety.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Mandatory road signs are_________generally in shape.
(a) Circular
(b) Oval
(c) Square
(d) Hexagonal
Answer:
(a) Circular

Question 2.
The pedestrian crossing was instituted in Britain in_________
(a) 1930
(b) 1932
(e) 1934
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1934

Question 3.
Children above_________ years of age should occupy the back seat.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer:
(b) 12

Question 4.
The Zebra crossing with black and white stripes was developed after
(a) Cold war
(b) Civil war
(c) First World war
(d) Second World war
Answer:
(d) Second World war

Question 5.
Red rings or circles give_________ instructions
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Caution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Negative

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cautionary road signs are generally in_________ shape.
2. Informatory road signs are generally in_________ shape.
3. We should wait until_________ a signal appears before proceeding.
4. Amber means_________
5. Traffic signs are there to_________traffic.
6. Answer:
7. Triangular
8. Rectangular
9. Caution
10. green
11. Regulate

III. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain the three types of traffic signs.
Answer:

1. Mandatory road signs are the ones that give order regarding do’s and don’ts and are to be followed strictly. They are generally circular in shape.
2. Cautionary road signs are the ones that was in the road rules regarding the road situation ahead. These signs are generally in triangular shape.
3. Informatory road signs are the ones that give information regarding directions, destination etc. Informatory signs are generally rectangular in shape.

Question 2.
What do the three colours Red, Amber and Green signify?
Answer:

1. Red means stop – wait behind the stop line.
2. Amber means CAUTION.
3. Green means Go-Proceed ahead ensuing that the way is clear.

Question 3.
Mention about the languages of the road.
Answer:

1. Road signs, markings, traffic signals and other traffic devices are there to guide the road users and hence the languages of the road.
2. Traffic signals are there to regulate traffic, warn about hazards and to guide the road user.

Question 4.
How should children use the pavements?
Answer:
Children should be taught to use the pavements. When walking on the road,

1. Walk on any side of the road if there are food paths.
2. On roads without food path walk on your extreme right side facing the oncoming traffic.
3. Use Zebra crossing, foot over bridge and subways to cross the roads.
4. Children below 8 years of age should cross the road with the help of elders.

Question 5.
What should not be done by children while crossing the road?
Answer:

1. Do not cross the road hastily by running.
2. Do not cross the road in front of or in between parked vehicles.
3. Do not try to cross the road from blind comers, turnings where you are not visible to the vehicle drivers.
4. Do not jump over the railings to cross the road.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Soaps were originally made from _______
(a) proteins
(b) animal fats and vegetable oils
(c) chemicals extracted from the soil
(d) foam booster
Answer.
(b) animal fats and vegetable oils

Question 2.
The saponification of a fat or oil is done using ……….. solution for hot process.
a. potassium hydroxide
b. sodium hydroxide
c. sodium chloride
d. sodium hydroxide
Answer:
b. sodium hydroxide

Question 3.
Gypsum is added to the cement for _______
(a) fast setting
(b) delayed setting
(c) hardening
(d) making paste
Answer:
(b) delayed setting

Question 4.
Phenol is ……..
a. carbolic acid
b. acetic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. hydrochloric acid
Answer:
a. carbolic acid

Question 5.
Natural adhesives are made from _______
(a) Protein
(b) fat
(c) starch
(d) vitamins
Answer:
(c) starch

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. _______ gas causes tears in our eyes, while cutting onions.
2. Water, coconut oil and ________ are necessary for soap preparation.
3. _______ is called as farmer’s best friend.
4. _______ fertilizer is ecoffiendly.
5. _______ is an example for natural adhesive.

Answers:

1. Propanethial s-oxide
2. animal fat
3. Earthworm
4. Organic
5. Starch dissolved in water

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement :

Question 1.
Concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.
Answer:
False. Low concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.

Question 2.
Gypsum is largely used in medical industries.
Answer:
False. Gypsum is largely used in cement preparation.

Question 3.
Plaster of Paris is obtained from heating gypsum.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Adhesives are the substances used to separate the components.
Answer:
False. Adhesives are the substances used to join the components.

Question 5.
NPK are the primary nutrients for plants.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

V. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence :

1. Pour that solution into an empty match box, soap can be obtained after drying.
2. Take necessary quantity of water in ajar.
3. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
4. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
5. Try this soap to wash your hand kerchief.
6. Cover your work area with old newspaper.

Answers:

1. Cover your work area with old newspaper.
2. Take necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
4. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
5. Pour that solution into an empty match box, soap can be obtained after drying.
6. Try this soap to wash your hand kerchief.

VI. Analogy :

Question 1.
Urea : Inorganic fertilizer;
Vermi compost: _______
Answer:
Organic fertilizer.

Question 2.
_______ : Natural adhesives ;
Cello tape : Artifical adhesives.
Answer:
Starch dissolved in water.

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the three main constituents of soap?
Answer:
The three main constituents of soap are Lye (Sodium hydroxide), coconut oil and water.

Question 2.
What are the two different types of molecules found in the soap?
Answer:

1. Loving water molecules.
2. Hating water molecules.

Question 3.
Give an example of inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
The Inorganic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium sulphate and Super phosphate.

Question 4.
Mention any three physical properties of phenol?
Answer:

1. Weak acid
2. High volatile
3. White crystalline powder.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of plaster of paris.
Answer:
Uses of plaster of pairs :

1. In making black board chalks.
2. In surgery for setting fractured bones.
3. For making casts for statues and toys etc.
4. In the construction industry.

Question 6.
What are the ingredients of the cement?
Answer:

1. Limestone
2. Clay
3. Gypsum

Question 7.
Why gypsum is used in cement production?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to control the setting of cement.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Why earthworm is called a farmer’s friend?
Answer:
Earthworms take organic wastes as food and produce compost castings. So earthworms are known as Farmers’ Friends because of the multitude of services they provide to improve soil health and consequently plant health.

Question 2.
Explain the process of manufacturing cement.
Answer:
The cement is manufactured by crushing of naturally occurring minerals such as lime stone, clay and gypsum through a milling process.

Question 3.
What are uses of Gypsum?
Answer:
Uses of Gypsum :

1. It is used as fertilizers.
2. It is used in the process of making cement.
3. It is used in the process of making Plaster of Paris.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How are detergents manufactured?
Answer:
Manufacture of Detergents:-
Materials used:
Acid slurry, Soda ash (or) Sodium Carbonate, Trisodium phosphate (TSP), sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour perfume and brightner.

Preparation:

1. Acid slurry is first neutralised.
2. Then neutralised Acid Slurry is mixed with Soda ash and kept for one hour for completion of reaction.
3. Other ingredients such as Trisodium phosphate (TSP), Sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour, perfume, brightner are then blended to the neutralised Acid Slurry with continuous mixing.
4. Then the mixture is dried.
5. Now we get detergent powder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Ravi is a farmer; he rears many cattle in his farm. His field has many bio wastes. Advise Ravi how to change this bio waste to compost by using vermi-composting techniques. Explain the benefits of vermi castings.
Answer:

1. A cement tub is to be constructed to a height of 2’A feet and the breadth 3 feet.
2. Put the Bio-wastes in the cement tub with 5 cm height.
3. Add few earthworms with the Bio-waste.
4. Then add saw dust, or coir waste and husk on the top of Bio-wastes.
5. Then add sand to form a layer of 3 cm.
6. Then add garden waste on the layer of sand.
7. Then spray with water.
8. All layers must be moistioned with water.
9. After 10 to 15 days, we get vermicompost manure.

Benefits:

1. It is rich in all essential nutrients.
2. It improves soil structure, texture and prevent soil corrosion.
3. It contains valuable hormones like auxons, gibberellin etc.
4. It neutralizes the soil protection.

XI. Project :

1. Take 100 ml of hot water in a glass jar.
2. Add 50 gram of maida powder in the hot water and stir it well.
3. A paste like substances are formed. Add a small quantity of copper sulphate for a long use.
4. Now you test this paste by binding your damaged book.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Discuss with your group and list out few chemicals which we use in our home and school.
_______________________
_______________________
Answer:
We are using the following Chemicals in our home and school:-
Detergents, Air fresheners, Disinfectant, Glass cleaning chemicals, Detergents, Shampoo, Lubricants, Metal polishers, Rest room cleaning chemicals, Naphthalene, Bathing soap, Hit.

Activity 2

Preparation of Soap
Materials Required: 35 ml of water, 10 g of Lye (Sodium hydroxide), 60 ml of coconut oil.

Process : Cover your work area with old newspaper. Take 35 ml of water in a jar. Add 10 gram of concentrated sodium hydroxide and allow it to cool.

Then add 60 ml of coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well. Pour that solution into an empty match box, soap can be obtained after getting dried.

Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 3

Collect various kinds, of soap’s wrapper. Complete the following table based on the information provided in the wrapper.

Inference : Nature of the soaps varies according to its constituents.
Answer:

Activity 4

Make a visit to agriculture field in your area. List out the various crops and type of fertilizers used there.

Answer:

Activity 5

Take three empty tumblers of same size and name them as A, B and C. Add two tea spoonful of cement in each of the container. Then pour one tea spoonful of water in container A and two spoonful of water in B and three spoonful of water in C.

After an hour, observe which container of the cement set fast? Touch the containers and see if they are warm or cool. From this experiment, we understand that water and cerhent should be mixed in a certain ratio for fast setting.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ change results in the change of the substance.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Biological
(d) Zoological
Answer:
(b) Chemical

Question 2.
The percentage composition of Nitrogen in Ureas is ………..
(a) 23%
(b) 13%
(c) 21%
(d) 46%
Answer:
(d) 46%

Question 3.
_______ is the important material in construction industry.
(a) Soap
(b) Adhesives
(c) Cement
(d) Fertilizers

Question 4.
Who invented cement?
(a) Edison
(b) Joseph Aspdin
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Robert Brown
Answer:
(b) Joseph Aspdin

Question 5.
_______ concrete is a composite material by mixing iron mesh with cement.
(a) Mortar
(b) m-sand
(c) Reinforced cement
(d) Gypsum
Answer:
(c) Reinforced cement

Question 6.
The molecular formula of ‘Plaster of Paris’ is
(a) CaSO₄. ½ H₂O
(b) CaSO₄. H₂O
(c) CaSO₄. 2H₂O
(d) CaSO₄. 3H₂O
Answer:
(a) CaSO₄. ½ H₂O

Question 7.
The chemical name of gypsum is .
(a) Magnesium sulphate hydrate
(b) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
(c) Carbolic acid
(d) Calcium sulphate dihydrate
Answer:
(d) Calcium sulphate dihydrate

Question 8.
is used in making blackboard chalks.
(a) Plaster of Paris
(b) Gypsum
(c) Epsom
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(a) Plaster of Paris

Question 9.
_________ is used as surgical antiseptic.
(a) Epsom
(b) Phenol
(c) Gypsum
(d) None of these

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Burning of paper is the best example of _______ change.
2. _______ is the branch of science which deals with the study of particles around us.
3. Salt is a combination of the chemicals _______ and _______.
4. We could prepare soft idly as a result of a chemical change named _______ takes place in the idly batter.
5. We are using _______ to remove strong stains on the clothes.
6. _______ help plant grow and restore soil fertility.
7. _______ is the organic tertillzer.
8. _______ invented Portland cement.
9. _______ is the medicine for skin problems.
10. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is called as _______
11. _______ is used in mouthwash in low concentrations.
12. The adhesive used in puncture shop is _______

Answers:

1. Chemical
2. Chemistry
3. Sodium, Chlorine
4. fermentation
5. Wash powder
6. Organic fertilizers
7. Compost
8. Joseph Aspdin
9. Epsom
10. Plaster of parisl
11. Pheno
12. Artificial adhesivel

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Water boiling into water vapour is an example of chemical change.
Answer:
False. Water boiling into water vapour is an example of Physical change.

Question 2.
Chemist identify gypsum as a natural indicator.
Answer:
False. Chemist identify turmeric powder as a natural indicator.

Question 3.
The water we drink is the combination of hydrogen and oxygen.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
When we soak onion in water, then the irritation is increased.
Answer:
False. When we soak onion in water then the irritation is reduced.

Question 5.
Mortar is a paste of cement and sand mixed with water.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Fertilizers containing only plant or animal based materials or those synthesized by microorganisms are called inorganic fertilizers.
Answer:
False. Fertilizers containing only plant or animal based materials or those synthesized by microorganisms are called organic fertilizers,

Question 7.
‘Portland’ cement resembled the high-quality building stones found in Portland, England.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Reinforced Cement Concrete is a mixture of cement, sand and gravel.
Answer:
False. Concrete js a mixture of cement, sand and gravel.

Question 9.
Gypsum is used in the process of making cement.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Gypsum is used in improving plant growth in agriculture.
Answer:
False. Epsom js usecj jn improving plant growth in agriculture.

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

1. – d
2. – c
3. – e
4. – a
5. – b.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
H₂O : Water :: NaCl: ________
Answer:
Sodium Chloride.

Question 2.
Used to join components : Adhesives :: Clean the body _______
Answer:
Soaps.

Question 3.
Organic fertilizer : Compost:: Inorganic fertilizer _______
Answer:
Super phosphate.

Question 4.
Used as fertilizer : Gypsum :: Helps nerves function properly : _______
Answer:
Epsom.

Question 5.
Making casts for statues : Plaster of paris :: Used as mouthwash : _______
Answer:
phenol.

VI. Give Short Answer :

Question 1.
Define physical change.
Answer:
In physical change only the shape, size (or) volume changes; the state of the matter may also change.

Question 2.
What is the use of indicator?
Answer:
The use of indicator is to identify whether material is acid (or) base medium.

Question 3.
How to prepare soft idly?
Answer:
We could prepare soft idly as a result of chemical change named fermentation takes place in the idly batter. During fermentation the idly batter undergoes a chemical change by bacteria.

Question 4.
If we soak onion in water the irritation is reduced. Why?
Answer:
It is due to the presence of a chemical, propanethial s-oxide in onion. This is easily volatile. When we cut onion, some of the cells are damaged and the chemical come out. It becomes vapour and reach our eyes result in irritation and tears in eyes. If we soak onion in water, the chemical is diluted and it cannot reach our eyes. So the irritation is reduced.

Question 5.
Write some materials prepared by chemical changes.
Answer:
Soaps, fertilizers, cement, gypsum, epsom, plaster of paris, phenol are the materials.

Question 6.
Define Principal nutrients.
Answer:
Nitrogen (N), Phosphorous (P) and Potassium (K) are the three important nutrients among the various nutrients needed for plant growth. These three are called as Principal Nutrients.

Question 7.
Differentiate between organic and inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
Organic fertilizers:

1. Plant (or) animal based materials synthesized by micro-organisms
2. Prepared easily.
3. Economical
4. Example : Vermicompost, Compost

Inorganic fertilizers:

1. Natural elements by making them undergo chemical changes.
2. Prepared complicated
3. Not economical
4. Example : Urea, Super phosphate, Ammonium Phosphate.

Question 8.
Why the cement is called as Portland cement?
Answer:
It was named Portland cement because it resembled the high quality building stones found in Portland, England.

Question 9.
What are the uses of cement?
Answer:

1. It is used to construct houses.
2. It is used to construct dams, bridges.

Question 10.
What is the use of Epsom Salt?
Answer:

1. In medical, it eases the stress and relaxes the body.
2. In agriculture, it improves plant growth.
3. It is used as medicine for skin problems.
4. Helps muscles and nerves function properly.

Question 11.
Define Adhesives.
Answer:
A paste like material which is used to join two components together is called adhesive.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
How soaps clean clothes?
Answer:

1. We are using wash powder to remove strong stains on the clothes.
2. The detergent molecules have two sides, one side “water-loving”, other “water-hating”.
   
3. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.
4. When you agitate the cloth the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and is taken away from the cloth.
5. The cloth becomes clean, and the dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules float in the water making it dirty.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Local Bodies – Rural And Urban

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies – Rural And Urban Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_________ is set up w ith several village panchayats.
(a) Panchayat Union
(b) District Panchayat
(c) Taluk
(d) Revenue village
Answer:
(a) Panchayat Union

Question 2.
……………… is National Panchayat Raj Day.
(a) January 24
(b) July 24
(c) November 24
(d) April 24
Answer:
(d) April 24

Question 3.
The oldest urban local body in India is _________
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 4.
The district has the highest number of Panchayat Unions.
(a) Vellore
(b) Thiruvallore
(c) Villupuram
(d) Kanchipuram
Answer:
(c) Villupuram

Question 5.
The head of a corporation is called a_________
(a) Mayor
(b) Commissioner
(c) Chair Person
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Mayor

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. ______ is the fist state in India to introduce town Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted in the year______
3. The tenure of the local body representative is______ years.
4. ______ is the first municipality in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

1. Tamilnadu
2. April 24,1992
3. five
4. Walajahpet in Vellore Dt.

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Is there any corporation in your district? Name it.
Answer:
Chennai Corporation.

Question 2.
What is the need for local bodies?
Answer:
In order to fulfil the requirements of the people and to involve them directly in governance, there is need for an effective system of local bodies.

Question 3.
What are the divisions of a rural local body?
Answer:
The rural local bodies are Categorized into Village Panchayats, Panchayat Unions and District Panchayats.

Question 4.
What are the divisions of an Urban local body?
Answer:
The Urban local bodies are Categorized into City Municipal Corporations, Municipalities and Town Panchayats.

Question 5.
Who are the representatives elected in a Village Panchayat?
Answer:
The elected representatives of the Village Panchayat are

1. Panchayat President
2. Ward members
3. Councillor
4. District Panchayat Ward Councillor.

Question 6.
List out a few functions of corporations.
Answer:

1. Drinking-Water Supply
2. Street Light
3. Maintenance of Clean Environment
4. Primary Health facilities
5. Corporation Schools
6. Birth and Death registration etc.

Question 7.
List out a few means of revenue of village Panchayats.
Answer:
Revenue of Village Panchayats are

1. House Tax
2. Professional Tax
3. Tax on shops
4. Water charges
5. Specific fees for property tax
6. Specific fees for transfer of immovable property
7. Funds from Central and State Governments, etc.

Question 8.
When are Grama Sabha meetings convened? What are the special on those days?
Answer:

1. The Grama Sabha meetings are Convened on January 26, May 1, August 15, and October 2.
2. These days are celebrated as National festival days every year.

Question 9.
What are the special features of Panchayat Raj system?
Answer:
Special features of Panchayat Raj .

1. Grama Sabha
2. Three tier local body governance.
3. Reservations
4. Panchayat elections
5. Tenure
6. Finance Commission
7. Account and Audit, etc.

Question 10.
What is the importance of Grama Sabha?
Answer:

1. Grama Sabha is essential for the effective functioning of Village Panchayat.
2. It enhances public participation in the planning and implementation of schemes for social benefit.

HOTS:

Question 1.
Local bodies play an important role in the development of villages and cities. How?
Answer:

1. Local self government has been playing a vital role.
2. The local bodies provide services to the local community.
3. They act as an instrument of democratic self-government.
4. This level of government is recoginsed by the people as they are close to the citizens and involve them in the decision making process.
5. These institutions perform the functions related to education, sanitation, public health, industry, etc and try to tackle the day-to-day problems of the local people. In a big country like India, the Union government and State government are unable to know the local problems of the citizens. Only the local people can suggest the right solution to local problems.
6. These bodies lessen the workload of Central and State governments. They are the best schools of democracy.
7. Therefore the local bodies play an important role in the development of villages and cities.

VI. Activities:

Question 1.
Find out the number of local bodies in your district and list them
Answer:

HOTS

Question 1.
Why are there only 31 district panchayats, but 32 districts?
Answer:

1. There are 32 districts but there are only 31 districts panchayats because there is no such body for chennai.
2. It is because the district of chennai is falls in urban district. District rural development agency’s ex-officio chairman is the district collector.
3. In the state of Tamil Nadu there are total 32 districts including chennai but there is no district panchyat.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies-Rural And Urban Additional Question

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu there is corporation in __________
(a) Namakkal
(b) Perambalur
(c) Thiruvarur
(d) Erode
Answer:
(d) Erode

Question 2.
All local bodies have a reservation of percent for women ……………….
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 33
Answer:
(c) 33

Question 3.
The administrative oi Beer of a Municipality is __________
(a) Engineer
(b) Executive Officer
(c) Ward Member
(d) Deputy Commissioner
Answer:
(b) Executive Officer

Question 4.
The Tamil Nadu Panchayats (Amendment) Act,2016 has fixed percent reservation for women in panchayat Raj institutions.
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
Answer:
(b) 50

Question 5.
The grass root level, democratic institution is __________
(a) Town Panchayat
(b) Village Panchayat
(c) Grama Sabha
(d) Panchayat Union
Answer:
(c) Grama Sabha

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The __________district has the most number of municipalities.
2. A __________ is between a village and a city.
3. A city Municipal Corporation has a Commissioner who is an __________ officer.
4. The Nilgris and Perambalur district have the lowest number of __________
5. Vehicle charges are one of the revenue sources to __________
6. Mahatma Gandhi advocated __________ as the foundation of India’s political system.
7. The Tamil Nadu State Election Commission is situated in __________ Chennai.

Answer:

1. Kanchipuram
2. Town Panchayat
3. IAS
4. Panchayat Unions
5. City Municipal Corporation
6. Panchayat Raj
7. Koyambedu

III. Match the Following

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. d

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Mention the list of corporations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The list of corporations in Tamil Nadu :

1. Chennai
2. Madurai
3. Coimbatore
4. Tiruchirapalli
5. Salem
6. Tirunelveli
7. Erode
8. Thoothukudi
9. Tiruppur
10. Vellore
11. Dindigul
12. Thanjavur.

Question 2.
What is a Municipality?
Answer:

1. A Municipality is found in the level below the City Municipal Corporation.
2. These areas have a population of more than one lakh and a high amount of revenue.

Question 3.
What is a Town Panchayat?
Answer:

1. A Town Panchayat has about 10,000 population.
2.  A Town Panchayat is between a village and a city.
3. Tamil Nadu was the first state to introduce a town panchayat in the whole of India.

Question 4.
Mention the officials of a City Municipal Corporation?
Answer:

1. A City Municipal Corporation has a Commissioner. He is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer.
2. Government officials are deputed as Commissioners for the Municipalities.
3. The Administrative officer of a Municipality is an Executive Officer (EO).

Question 5.
What is a Village Panchayat?
Answer:

1. Village Panchayats are the local bodies of villages.
2. They act as a link between the people and the government.
3. Villages are divided into wards based on their population.
4. The representatives are elected by the people.

Question 6.
What is Panchayat Union?
Answer:

1. Many Village Panchayats join to form a Panchayat Union.
2. A Councillor is elected from each Panchayat.
3. These councillors will elect a Panchayat Union Chairperson among themselves.
4. A Vice-Chairperson is also elected.
5. A Block Development Officer (BDO) is the administrative head of a Panchayat Union.

Question 7.
What is a District Panchayat?
Answer:

1. A District Panchayat is formed in every district.
2. A district is divided into wards on the basis of 50,000 population.
3. The ward members are elected by the Village Panchayats.
4. The members of the District Panchayat elect the District Panchayat Committee Chairperson.
5. They provide essential services and facilities to the rural population.

Question 8.
Mention the officials of a City Municipal Corporation.
Answer:

1. Mayor of the City Municipal Corporation and the Municipal Chairperson are the elected representatives of the people.
2. The people elect them.
3. The Corporation Deputy Mayor and the Municipal Vice Chair-person are elected by the ward councillors.

Question 9.
Mention the obligating functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
The obligating functions of the Village Panchayat:

1. Water supply
2. Street lighting
3. Cleaning roads
4. Drainage and sewage pipes system
5. Laying down roads
6. Activation of Central and State Government Schemes.

Question 10.
Mention the revenue of the City Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
The revenue of the City Municipal Corporation :

1. House Tax
2. Water Tax
3. Tax on shopping Complexes
4. Professional Tax
5. Entertainment Tax
6. Vehicle charges
7. Funds by Central and State governments, etc.

Question 11.
Mention the role of women in the Local Self government.
Answer:

1. All local bodies have a reservation of 33% for women.
2. In 2011, Local Bodies election, 38% seats were won by women.
3. As per the Tamil Nadu Panchayats (Amendment) Act 2016, 50% reservation for women is being fixed in Panchayat Raj institutions.

V. HOTS:

Question 1.
What do you know about Panch at Awards?
Answer:

1. Panchayat Awards are distributed by Ministry of Panchayat Raj, Government of India every year in the month of April.
2. Best performing panchayats are selected from all over India.
3. Panchayat that performs well in all aspects is chosen as Winners.
4. In 2018, Digambarpur in West Bengal became the best Grama Panchayat of India.
5. A survey was conducted to find out the best Grama Panchayat in India among 2.5 lakh Grama Panchayats.
6. Out of these, the Ministry of Panchayat Raj finalised three top states.
7. The ranking was prepared based on different seven factors that includes system of planning, quality of planning, different activities and level of co-ordination etc.
8. Finally it was Digambarpur chosen as the best one in the country.
9. Karnataka and Sikkim were the other two states that were finalised in top three.
10. In India, April 24th is celebrated as National Panchayat Raj Diwas every year. This day marks the passing of the constitution (73rd Amendment) Act; 1992 that came into force with effect from 24 April 1993.

Question 2.
Write down the Key difference between Urban and Rural Basis for Comparison.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Textual Evaluation

I Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in CPU?
(a) Mother Board
(b) SMPS
(c) RAM
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Free and Open source
b. Free and Traditional software
c. Passive and Open source
d. Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
a. Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a
(a) Paid Software
(b) Licensed Software
(c) Free and Proprietary software
(d) Free and Open-source software
Answer:
(d) Free and Open-source software

Question 4.
Find out Paid and Proprietary software from the given list
a.- Windows
b. MAC OS
c. Adobe Photoshop
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 5.
_______ is a Operating System
(a) Android
(b) Chrome
(c) Internet
(d) Pendrive

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

III. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware:

1. Hardware is the parts of the computer which we can touch and feel.
2. Hardware includes input and output devices, Cabinet, Hard disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive and Graphics card.

Software :

1. Software are programmed and coded application to process the input information.
2. The software processes the data by converting the input information into coding or programmed language.
3. Touching and feeling is not possible. But, we can see the functions of the software in the form of output.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How does it work?
Answer:

1. System Software (Operating System) is software that makes the hardware devices process the data inputted by the user and to display the result on the output devices like Monitor.
2. Without the operating system, computer cannot function on its own.
3. Some of the popular operating system are Linux, Windows, Mac, Android etc.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:

1. Free and open software is available at free of cost and can be shared to many end-users.
2. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to update or development of new software.
3. Examples: 1. Linux, 2. Geogebra.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_____ is a device comprising both hardware and software.
(a) Microwave Oven
(b) Car
(c) Bike
(d) Computer
Answer:
(d) Computer

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct
(a) Free and Open source software
(b) Free and Licensed software
(c) Free and Traditional software
(d) Passive and Traditional source software
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source software

Question 3.
_____ existed before the World Wide Web.
(a) Whatsapp
(b) Email
(c) Facebook
(d) Google
Answer:
(b) Email

Question 4.
Windows is a
(a) Paid software
(b) Licensed software
(c) Free and Open-source software
(d) Free and Proprietary software
Answer:
(a) Paid software

Question 5.
_____ is one of the example of application program.
(a) Drawing tools
(b) Language
(c) Linker
(d) Device driver
Answer:
(a) Drawing tools

Question 6.
The license of the software would not be provided unless it is _____
(a) Collected
(b) Purchased
(c) dismantled
(d) sold
Answer:
(b) Purchased

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. _______ is lifeless without software in a computer.
2. _______ are programmed and coded applications to process the input information.
3. Software is divided into _______ types based on the process.
4. _______ is a developing software to control the internal computer operation.
5. _______ software is available at free of cost and can be shared to many end users.
6. _______ is the Paid and Proprietary Software.

Answer:

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. two
4. Linker
5. Free and Open
6. Adobe Photoshop

III. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
How can we classify the software?
Answer:
The software is divided into two types based on the process. They are

1. System software
2. Application software

Question 2.
Give some examples of System Softwares.
Answer:
Some of the Popular Operating system are LINUX, Windows, Mac, Android etc.

Question 3.
What is open source initiative?
Answer:
The open source initiative is an organization dedicated to promote open source software.

Question 4.
Define – Application Software.
Answer:

1. Application software is a program (or) a group of programs designed for the benefit of end user to work on computer.
2. The application programs can be installed in the hard disk for the usuage on a particular computer.

Question 5.
What is the classification of System Software?
Answer:
System software is divided into two types :

1. System Management Program.
2. Developing Software.

Question 6.
Give the classification of Application Software?
Answer:

1. General Purpose Software.
2. Specific Purpose Software.

Question 7.
Give some examples of Specific Purpose Software?
Answer:

1. Reservation System.
2. Attendance System.
3. Billing System.
4. Report card Generator.

Question 8.
What are the two forms of System and Application Software?
Answer:
The Operating System and application Software are available in two forms. They are:

1. Free and Open Source.
2. Paid and Proprietary Software.

IV. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Draw the flow chart of software classification.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Economics An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Textual Evaluation

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. The producers of food grains are ______
2. Collection of honey is a ______ occupation.
3. The conversion of raw materials into finished goods is called ______
4. According to Gandhiji the villages are ______ of the nation.
5. The percentage of population in the cities of Tamil Nadu is ______

Answer:

1. farmers
2. Primary
3. manufacturing
4. backbone
5. 47 Percent

II. Match the following:

1. Cattle rearing – Secondary occupation
2. Food processing – Services
3. Iron & Steel Industry – Primary occupation
4. Telephone – Agro based industry
5. Cotton Industry – Tertiary occupation

Answer:

1. Cattle rearing – Primary occupation
2. Food processing – Agro based industry
3. Iron & Steel Industry – Secondary occupation
4. Telephone – Services (or) Tertiary occupation
5. Cotton Industry – Agro based industry (or) Secondary occupation

III. Match and find the odd pair:

1. Small scale Industry – Transaction of Money
2. Forest based Industries – Information Technology
3. Services – Paper Industries
4. Banking – Cattle rearing

Answer:

1. Small scale Industry – Cattle rearing
2. Forest based Industries – Paper Industries
3. Services – Information Technology
4. Banking – Transaction of Money

IV. Choose the correct answer:

1. Agriculture is a (Primary / Secondary) occupation
2. Economic activities are divided on the basis of (ownership / use)
3. Sugar Industries are (Primary / Secondary) activity
4. Agro based industry (Cotton / Furniture)
5. Dairy farming is a (Public sector / Co-operative sector)

Answer:

1. Primary
2. use
3. Secondary
4. Cotton
5. Co-operative sector

V. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Sandhai – Define
Answer:
In villages once in a week or month, all things are sold in a particular place at a specific time to meet the needs of the people. That is called Sandai.
What is called barter system?

1. The system of exchanging goods for other goods is called barter system.
2. This was followed in olden days.
3. For example, exchange a bag of rice for enough clothes.

Question 2.
What is trade?
Answer:
The action of buying and selling goods and services is called trade.

Question 3.
What is Savings?
Answer:
The amount from the income which is left for future needs after consumption is called sayings.

Question 4.
What was the necessity for the invention of money?
Answer:

1. When people exchanged commodities, they might have faced, certain problems when comparing the differences in the value of commodity.
2. To solve this problem, people invented a tool called money.

Question 5.
What was the reason for the development of settlements near water bodies?
Answer:

1. Rivers acts as the main source for cultivation of crops.
2. So early man settled permanently near the rivers.

Question 7.
What are called secondary occupation?
Answer:

1. The raw materials obtained from the primary activities are converted into finished products through machinery on a large scale.
2. These activities involve secondary occupation.

Question 8.
Name the city centred industries.
Answer:
Cement, iron, and Aluminium industries, sea food processing are some of the city centered industries.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
List out the important primary occupations of your district.
Answer:
Some of the primary occupation are agriculture, crop production, animals husbandry, fisheries, foresting and mining. It also includes gazing, hunting, gathering.

Question 2.
Mention the manufacturing industries found in your district.
Answer:

1. Cotton textiles
2. Spinning and weaving
3. Food processing industries
4. Beedi production
5. Wind power generations

Question 3.
How are the industries classified on the basis of raw materials?
Answer:
On the basic of raw materials industries are classified as

1. Agro Based Industries – Cotton textiles, Sugar mills and Food processing.
2. Forest Based Industries – Paper mills, Furniture making, Building materials.
3. Mineral Based Industries – Cement, Iron, Aluminium Industries. .
4. Marine Based Industries – Sea food processing.

Question 4.
Write down the occupations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Transport – Roadways, railways waterways, airways
2. Communication – Post, Telephone, information Technology etc.
3. Trade – Procurment of goods, selling
4. Banking – Money transactions, banking services

Question 5.
What do you know about the features of cities?
Answer:

1. A city is a large human settlement.
2. High density of population.
3. Four way roads, flyovers, sky scrapers, parks.
4. Educational institution, hospital, Government offices.
5. Private and public industries and technological institutions.
6. Employment opportunities permanent monthly income, basic requirements are

VII. Fill in the tabular column given below:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Intext Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
Imagine if money disappears one day?
Answer:

1. In our daily life we utilize many things. These things are sold in shops. To buy and sell commodities we use money. If we save money it is good for us and the country.
2. Money is the lubrication for the movement of goods. If these contracts symbolized by money disappeared, there would be instant chaos. All activity would grind to a halt.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Intext Activities

Activity – 3

Fill up the given table.
Answer:

Activity – 4
Put ✓ mark in appropriate box
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Additional Questions

I. Fill In the blanks:

1. Things which are produced in villages are brought to
2. The permanent settlements of early man were called
3. The root of our economy is
4. The raw material for sugar is
5. Banks help in of money.

Answer:

1. Sandhai
2. Villages
3. Agriculture
4. Sugare cane
5. Circulation

II. Match the following:

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

III. Find the odd pair:

IV. Choose the correct answer and fill in the appropriate column:

1. Coal miner
2. Automobile assembling plant
3. Grocery store
4. Helicopter pilot
5. Fisherman
6. Firefighters
7. Cashier
8. Delivery man
9. Oil well
10. Furniture maker
11. Timber cutters
12. Cotton farmer
13. Oil refinery.

Answer:

V. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What art consumer goods?

1. The finished goods which are bought from the market to fulfill the daily needs of the consumers is called consumer goods.
2. Example: Rice, Cloth, Bicycle etc.

Question 2.
Mention a few primary activities.
Answer:
Agriculture, Cattle rearing, fishing, mining, collection of fruits, nuts, honey, rubber, resin and medicinal herbs, lumbering etc are primary activities.

VI. Give a detailed answer :
Question 1.
What is economics? Why is if so important?
Answer:

1. Economics is the study of how societies, governments, business establishments, households and individuals allocate their scarce resources.
2. The study of economics can also provide valuable knowledge for making decisions
   in everyday life.
3. Economics is about the study of scarcity and choice.
4. By studying how markets work, our young people also learn how to make efficient choices in managing their own scarce resources, such as time and money.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Measurements

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The girth of a tree can be measured by
(a) metre scale
(b) metre rod
(e) plastic ruler
(d) measuring tape
Answer:
(d) measuring tape

Question 2.
The conversion of 7 m into cm gives
(a) 70 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 700 cm
(d) 7000 cm
Answer:
(c) 700 cm

Question 3.
Quantity that can be measured Is called
(a) Physical quantity
(b) Measurement
(c) unit
(d) motion
Answer:
(a) Physical quantity

Question 4.
Choose the correct one
(a) km > mm > cm > m
(b) km > mm > m > cm
c) km > m > cm > mm
(d) km > cm > m > mm
Answer:
(c) km > m > cm > mm

Question 5.
While measuring length of an object using a ruler, the position of your eye should be
(a) Left side of the point.
(b) Vertically above the point where the measurement is to be taken.
(c) Right side of the point
(d) Any where according to one’s convenience.
Answer:
(b) Vertically above the

II. True or False.

1. We can say that mass of an object is 126 kg.
2. Length of one’s chest can be measured by using metre scale.
3. Ten millimetres makes one centimetre.
4. A hand span is a reliable measure of length.
5. The SI system of units is accepted everywhere in the world.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. SI Unit of length is symbolically represented as _____
2. 500 gm = _____ kilogram
3. Distance between Delhi and Chennai can be measured in _____
4. 1 m = _____ cm.
5. km = _____ m.

Answers:

1. m
2. 0.5
3. Kilometre
4. 100
5. 5000

IV. Analogy

Question 1.
Sugar: Beam balance; Lime juice?
Answer:
Measuring Jar.

Question 2.
Height of a person : cm; length of your sharpened pencil lead?
Answer:
mm (mull metre)

Question 3.
Milk: volume; vegetables?
Answer:
mass

V. Match the following :

Answer:

VI. Complete the given table

Answer:

VII. Arrange in increasing order of unit.

Question 1.
1 Metre, 1 centimetre, 1 kilometre, and 1 millimetre.
Answer:
1 millimetre < 1 centimetre < 1 Metre < 1 kilometre.

VIII. Find the answer for the following questions within the grid.

1. 10^-3 is one _____
2. SI Unit of time _____
3. Cross view of reading for a measurement leads to _____
4. _____ is the one what a clock reads.
5. _____ is the amount of substance present in an object
6. _____ can be taken to get the final reading of the recordings of different of students for a single measurement.
7. _____ is a fundamental quantity.
8. _____ shows the distance covered by an automobile.
9. A tailor use _____ to take measurements to stitch a cloth.
10. Liquids are measured with this physical quantity.

Answers:

1. Millimetre
2. second
3. error
4. Time
5. Mass
6. Average
7. Length
8. Odometer
9. Tape
10. Litre

IX. Answer in a word or two.

Question 1.
What is the full form of SI system?
Answer:
An international system of unit

Question 2.
Name any one instrument used for measuring mass.
Answer:
Beam balance.

Question 3.
Find the odd one out: Kilogram, millimetre, centimetre, nanometre.
Answer:
Kilogram

Question 4.
What is the SI Unit of mass?
Answer:
Kilogram.

Question 5.
What are the two parts present in a measurement?
Answer:

1. multiple
2. sub

X. Answer in a sentence or two.

Question 1.
Define measurement.
Answer:
The comparison of an unknown quantity with some known quantity is known as measurement.

Question 2,
Define mass?
Answer:
Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.

Question 3.
The distance between two places is 43.65 km. Convert it into metre and cm. 0
Answer:
(a) Convert km into metre
1 km = 1000m
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 1000 = 43650.00 = 43650
= 43650 m.

(b) Convert km into cm.
1 km = 1000 m
1 m = 100 cm
1 km = 1000 × 100 cm
1 km = 100000 cm
∴ 43.65 km = 43.65 × 100000 = 4365000.00
= 4365000 cm.

Question 4.
What are the rules to be followed to make an accurate measurement with scale?
Answer:

1. To avoid the parallax error.
2. Your eye must be exactly in front of vertically above the point where the measurement has to be taken.

XI. Solve the following.

Question 1.
The distance between your school and your house is 2250 m. Express this distance in kilometre.
Answer:
Distance between school and house is 2250 m.
1000 m = 1 km
∴ 2250 m = 2250 ÷ 1000 = 2.25 km.

Question 2.
While measuring the length of a sharpened pencil, reading of the scale at one end is 2.0 cm and at the other end is 12.1 cm. What is the length of the pencil?
Answer:
The difference between the two readings is the length of the pencil.
= 12.1 cm – 2.0 cm
= 10.1 cm or 10 cm and 1 mm.

XII. Write in detail.

Question 1.
Explain two methods those you can use to measure the length of a curved line.
Answer:
Measuring the length of a curved line, by two methods.
First method – using a string.

1. Draw a curved line AB on the paper.
2. Place a string along the curved line.
3. Make sure that the string covers e very bit of the curved line.
4. Mark the points where the curved line begins and ends on the string.
5. Now stretch the string along the length of a meter scale.
6. Measure the distance between two markings of the string.
7. This will give the length of a curved line.

Second method – using a divider.

1. Draw a curved line AB on a paper.
2. Separate the legs of the divider by 0.5 cm or 1 cm using a ruler.
3. Place it on the curved line starting from one end. Mark the position of the other end.
4. Move it along the line again and again cutting the line into number of segments of equal lengths.
5. The remaining parts of the line can be measured using a scale.
6. Count the number of segments.
7. Length of the line = (No. of segments × length of each segment) + length of the left over part.

Question 2.
Fill in the following chart.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Measurements Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In which SI unit, you can measure you height?
(a) Kilogram
(b) Litre
(c) Metre
(d) Second
Answer:
(c) Metre

Question 2.
What is the unit of electric current in SI system?
(a) Kelvin
(b) Ampere
(c) seconds
(d) Volt.
Answer:
(b) Ampere

Question 3.
_____ is used to measure the accurate time of the activity.
(a) Clock
(b) Watch
(c) Stop clock
(d) Sundial
Answer:
(c) Stop dock

Question 4.
These are the measurements used in measuring the volume of liquid.
(a) cylinder
(b) pipettes
(c) burettes
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All

Question 5.
S.I unit for Volume is _____
(a) m²
(b) m
(c) m³
(d) none
Answer:
(c) m³

Question 6.
Twenty decimetre is equal to _____
(a) 2 km
(b) 20 cm
(c) 2 metre
(d) 200 mm
Answer:
(c) 2 metre

Question 7.
_____ is used to measure mass.
(a) Stop clock
(b) Beam balance
(c) Sundial
(d) Graduated cylinder
Answer:
(b) Beam balance

Question 8.
The metric system of units was created by the _____ in 1790.
(a) Greek
(b) Australians
(c) Russians
(d) French
Answer:
(d) French

Question 9.
The moon’s gravitational pull is one _____ of the earth’s pull.
(a) seventh
(b) sixth
(c) fifth
(d) fourth
Answer:
(b) Sixth

II. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement.

Question 1.
Kerosene is measured with the help of the graduated cylinder.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Length is a fundamental quantity.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
On moon, the gravitational force is greater than earth.
Answer:
False. On moon the gravitational force is lesser than earth.

Question 4.
An electronic balance is a device used to find accurate mass.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Speedometer is a device used for indicating distance travelled by an automobile.
Answer:
False. Odometer js a device used for indicating distance travelled by an automobile.

Question 6.
A ruler or scale used now a days to measure length was invented by William Bedwell.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Length, mass and time are some of the derived quantities.
Answer:
False. Length, mass, and time are some of the fundamental quantities.

Question 8.
Leaves and piece of paper are heavier things.
Answer:
False. Leaves and piece of paper are lighter things.

Question 9.
National physical laboratory is located in Delhi.
Answer:
True.

III. Analogy.

Question 1.
Potatoes : Kilogram; Water?
Answer:
Litre.

Question 2.
Stop clock : accurate time; _______ : accurate weight
Answer:
Electronic balance.

Question 3.
Mass : Balance; Length?
Answer:
measuring tape.

Question 4
Amount of matter: mass; Gravitational Pull?
Answer:
Weight.

IV. Answer the following questions in one or two words.

Question 1
What are the materials needed to find the length of a banana?
Answer:
A meter scale, a string or thread, sketch pen..

Question 2.
What formula is used to measure area of your class room?
Answer:
My class room area = Length × Breadth

Question 3.
Give an example of a device used to find the accurate measurement of weight.
Answer:
Electronic balance.

Question 4.
In earlier days, which instruments are used to measure time?
Answer:
Sand clock and Sun dial.

Question 5.
What are the clocks used to measure a smaller duration of time?
Answer:
Electronic clock, Stop watch.

Question 6.
Who invented a ruler or scale?
Answer:
William Bedwell.

Question 7.
Which alloy is used to make the standard metre rod?
Answer:
An alloy of Platinum and iridium.

V. Match the following

Answers:
a. ii
b. iii
c. iv
d. i

VI. Answer the following In one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is the international system of units or SI units?
Answer:
For the sake of uniformity all over the world, we have adopted a common set of units to express measurements that are called as an International system of units or SI units.

Question 2.
Give some examples of larger length measures.

1. Height of the building,
2. Length of a banner,
3. Height of lamp post.

Question 3.
What are the unit of measurements of very small length?
Answer:

1. Millimetre
2. centimetre.

Question 4.
What is meant by parallax?
Answer:
Parallax is a displacement or difference in the apparent position of an object viewed along two different lines of sight.

Question 5.
What are the clock used by ancient people to measure day time?
Answer:

1. sand clock
2. sun clock.

Question 6.
Where are the electronic balances used?
Answer:
Electronic balances are used in grocery shops and jeweleries.

Question 7.
What is odometer?
Answer:
It is a device used for indicating distance travelled by automobile.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Globe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Textual Evaluation

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. The line of latitude which is known as the Great Circle is __________
2. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth from the West to East are called __________
3. The 90° lines of latitude on the Earth are called __________
4. The Prime Meridian is also called __________
5. The world is divided into time zones __________ time zone

Answer:

1. Equator
2. Parallels of latitude
3. North Pole and South Pole
4. Greenwich Meridian
5. 24

II. Choose the best answer :

1. The shape of the Earth is _______.
(a) Square
(b) Rectangle
(c) Geoid
(d) Circle
Answer:
(c) Geoid

Question 2.
The North Pole is ……………..
(a) 90° N Latitude
(b) 90° S latitude
(c) 90° W Longitude
(d) 90° E longitude
Answer:
(a) 90° N Latitude

Question 3.
The area found between 0° and 180° E lines of longitude is called _______.
(a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Western Hemisphere
(c) Northern Hemisphere
(d) Eastern Hemisphere
Answer:
(d) Eastern Hemisphere

Question 4.
The 23 1/2° N line of latitude is called ……………..
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle
Answer:
(b) Tropic of Cancer

Question 5.
180° line of longitude is _______.
(a) Equator
(b) International Date Line
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) North Pole
Answer:
(b) International Date Line

Question 6.
The Sun is found overhead the Greenwich Meridian at ……………..
(a) 12 midnight
(b) 12 noon
(c) 1 p.m.
(d) 11 a.m.
Answer:
(b) 12 noon

Question 7.
A day has _____.
(a) 1240 minutes
(b) 1340 minutes
(c) 1440 minutes
(d) 1140 minutes
Answer:
(c) 1440 minutes

Question 8.
Which of the following lines of longitude is considered for the Indian Standard Time?
(a) 82 1/2° E
(b) 82 1/2° W
(c) 81 1/2° WE
(d) 81 1/2° W
Answer:
(a) 82 1/2° E

Question 9.
The total number of lines of latitude are ________
(a) 171
(b) 161
(c) 181
(d) 191
Answer:
(c) 181

Question 10.
The total number of lines of longitude are ……………
(a) 370
(b) 380
(c) 360
(d) 390
Answer:
(c) 360

III. Circle the odd one

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

V. Examine the following statements :

1. The Earth is spherical in shape.
2. The shape of the Earth is called a geoid.
3. The Earth is flat.

Look at the options given below and choose the correct answer.
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(c) 1 and 2 are correct

VI. Examine the following statements :

Statement I : The lines of latitude on Earth are used to find the location of a place and define the heat zones on Earth.
Statement II: The lines of longitudes on Earth are used to find the location of a place and to calculate time.
Choose the correct option :
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

VII. Name the following :

1. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth.
2. The imaginary lines drawn vertically on Earth.
3. The three dimensional model of the Earth.
4. India is located in this hemisphere based on lines of longitude.
5. The network of lines of latitude and longitude.

Answer:

1. Latitudes
2. Longitudes
3. globe
4. Eastern hemisphere
5. Earth grid

VIII. Answer Briefly :

Question 1.
What is a geoid?
Answer:

1. The Earth cannot be compared with any other geometrical shape as it has a very unique shape.
2. Hence, its shape is called a geoid (earth shaped).

Question 2.
What is local time?
Answer:

1. The time in a particular region or area expressed, with reference to the meridian passing through it. (or)
2. When the sun is overhead on a particular line of longitude, it is 12 noon at all the places located on that line of longitude. This is called local time.

Question 3.
How many times would the sun pass overhead a line of longitude?
Answer:
The sun is overhead on a line of longitude only once a day.

Question 4.
What are lines of latitude and longitude?
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines that run east and west direction on the Earth are called lines or parallels of latitude
2. The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North pole and the south pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.

Question 5.
Name the four hemispheres of the Earth.
Answer:

1. Northern Hemisphere,
2. Southern Hemisphere,
3. Eastern Hemisphere and
4. Western Hemisphere.

IX. Give Reasons :

Question 1.
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:

1. All nations of the world agreed to have the Greenwich Meridian as the international Standard Meridian (0°).
2. This line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian and it is also known as the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 V20) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone
Answer:
This region receives very slanting rays of the sun. The temperature is very low. Hence, this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:

1. The International Date line is not straight.
2. If the line is drawn straight, two places in the same country world have different dates.
3. So the International Date line is found zigzag in certain places to avoid confusion.

IX. Give reason:

Question 1.
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:

1. All nations of the world agreed to have the Greenwich Meridian as the international Standard Meridian (0°).
2. This line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian and it is also known as the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 Vi°) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone.
Answer:

1. From the Arctic circle (66 ‘A° N) to the North Pole (90° N) and from the Antarctic circle (66 Vi0 S) to the South Pole (90° S) the sun’s rays full further inclined, through „ out the year.
2. The temperature is very low.
3. Hence this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:

1. The International Date line is not straight.
2. If the line is drawn straight, two places in the same country world have different dates.
3. So the International Date line is found zigzag in certain places to avoid confusion.

X. Answer in detail :

Question 1
What are the uses of globe?
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is huge and we live on a very area, we are not able to see the Earth as a whole.
2. But when we travel to space, we can see the Earth as a whole.
3. So, in order to see the shape of the Earth as a whole and to know its unique features, a three dimensional model of the Earth was created with a specific scale in the name of globe.

Question 2.
How are the hemispheres divided on the basis of lines of latitude and longitude?
Explain with diagrams.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the significant lines of latitude? Explain the zones found between them,
Answer:
The significant lines of latitude are
(a) Equator – 0°
(b) Tropic of Cancer – 23 1/2°N
(c) Tropic of Capricorn – 23 1/2°S
(d) Antarctic Circle – 66 1/2°S
(e) Arctic Circle – 66 1/2°N
(f) North Pole – 90°N
(g) South Pole – 90°S.

(i) Torrid zone:
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer (231A°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 40S) is called the Torrid Zone.

(ii) Temperate zone:
From the Tropic of Cancer (23!/2°N) to the Arctic Circle (661/2°N) and from the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 0S) to the Antarctic Circle (661/2°S), the Sun’s rays fall slantingly. Moderate temperature prevails in this region. Hence, this region is called Temperate Zone.

(iii) Frigid zone:
From the Arctic Circle (66 1/2°N) to the North Pole (90°N) and from the Antarctic Circle (66 1/2 0S) to the South Pole (90°S), the Sun’s rays fall further inclined, throughout the year. Hence, this region is called Frigid Zone.

Question 4.
Explain; Indian Standard Time.
Answer:

1.  The longitudinal extend of India is from 68° 7’E to 97° 25’E
2. As many as twenty nine lines of longitude pass through India.
3. Having 29 standard time is not logical.
4. Hence 821/2° E line of longitude is observed as the prime meridian to calculate the Indian standard Time.

XI. Activity :

Question 1.
There are five positions marked on the grid given below. Look at them carefully and fill the blanks with reference to the lines of latitude and longitude. The first one is done for you.

1. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point A 40° N 30° W
   
2. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point B 2Q°N 1Q° W.
3. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point C 10° N 20° E.
4. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point D 40° S 50° E,
5. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point E 20° S 20°. W.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe IntextActivities

Question 1.
What is the difference in time between the GMT and 1ST?
Answer:
Indian Standard Time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
Eg: 7:15 a.m. GMT is 12:45 p.m. 1ST (that is GMT + 5 hrs and 30 min.

Question 2.
If it is 5 a.m. at New York City, USA. what would be the time at New Delhi, the capital of India?
Answer:
If it is 5 a.m. at New York City, USA., then the time at New Delhi would be 3:30 p.m. (India time is 10 hours and 30 minutes ahead New York, United States).

Question 3.
If it is 12 Midnight at London, what would be the time in India?
Answer:
If it is 12 Midnight at London, then the time in India would be 5:30 a.m.

Question 4.
The standard time of Sydney city in Australia is found to be at a difference of _____ hours from that of the GMT.
Answer:
10 Hours. It is according to Australian Eastern Standard Time, (GMT+10). But during Summer, it will be 11 Hours. (GMT+11).

Question 5.
Mr. Senthamizh travels by flight from Chennai to London. He boarded the aeroplane at 9a.m After 12 hours of travel, at what time (GMT) would he have reach London?
Answer:
He would reach London at 3.30 p.m. GMT.

Question 6.
Based on the longitudinal extent, in which hemisphere is our country located? Look at the globe and answer.
Answer:
Based on the longitudinal extent, our country is located in Eastern hemisphere

HOTS

Question 1.
Based on the latitudinal extent, in which hemisphere is India located?
Answer:
Based on the latitudinal extent, our country is located in Northern hemisphere

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Additional Questions:

I. Fill In the blanks:

1. When we travel to space, we can see the ______ as Whole
2. The Earth is ______ at the poles.
3. The Earth bulges at the ______
4. The Earth moves around the ______
5. The Earth rotates from the ______
6. The Earth is inclined on its axis at an inclination of ______
7. The first globe was created by the ______
8. Aryabhatta wrote ______
9. The first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude was ______
10. Geographia’ was written by ______
11. The latitudinal extent between 1° line of latitude on Earth is ______
12. The sun’s rays ______ equally on all parts of the earth.
13. The lines of longitude converge at the ______
14. Two opposite meridians form a ______
15. Based on the longitudinal extent, India is located in the ______
16. The Royal Astronomical observatory is located in ______
17. The sun is overhead on a line of longitude a day ______
18. The word meridian is derived from the Latin word ______
19. Local time is calculated when the sun is ______
20. Russia has time zones ______

Answer:

1. Earth
2. Flat
3. Equator
4. Sun
5. West to East
6. 23 1/2°
7. Greeks
8. Aryabhatta Siddhanta
9. Ptolemy
10. 111 km
11. do not fall
12. Poles
13. Great-circle
14. hemisphere.
15. Eastern
16. England
17. only once
18. Meridianus
19. Overhead at noon
20. 7

II. Choose the best answer :

Question 1.
The Earth is ____
(a) Oval shaped
(b) Flat
(c) Spherical shaped
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(c) Spherical shaped

Question 2.
The latitude which divides the Earth into two halves
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Equator
Answer:
(d) Equator

Question 3.
Tropic of Cancer is Otherwise called as ……………..
(a) Kadagavari
(b) Nilanaduvarai
(c) Magaravarai
Answer:
(a) Kadagavari

Question 4.
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer, is known as .
(a) Torrid Zone
(b) Temperate Zone
(c) Frigid Zone
(d) Heat Zone
Answer:
(a) Torrid Zone

Question 5.
The International Meridian Conference (1884) was held in ……………..
(a) Canada
(b) Mexico
(c) Washington DC
Answer:
(c) Washington DC

III. Circle the odd one :

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

1. iv
2. v
3. i
4. ii
5. iii

V. Examine the following statements :

a.When you move towards the East from any meridian the time increases.
b.When you move towards the West from any meridian the line decreases.
c.The earth rotates from West to East on its own axis.

Look at the options given below and ehoose the correct answer,

1. a and c are correct
2. b and c are correct
3. a and b are correct
4. a, b, c are correct

Answer:
(4) a, b, c are correct

VI. Examine the following statements :
Statement I : The 180° line of longitude has been fixed as the International Date of Line, drawn on the Pacific Ocean between Alaska and Russia through Bering Strait.
Statement II : The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and the 180° East line of longitude is known as Western Hemisphere.
Choose the correct option :
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II is correct
(c) Both the statements are wrong
(d) Both the statements are correct
Answer:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong

VII. Name the following :

1. 0° latitude.
2. 23 1/2°S latitude.
3. 23 1/2°N latitude.
4. 66 1/2°S latitude.
5. 66 1/2°N latitude.

Answer:

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Capricorn
3. Tropic of Cancer
4. Antarctic Circle
5. Arctic Circle

VIII. Answer Briefly:

Question 1.
What was mentioned by Aryabhatta in his book?
Answer:
In his ‘Aryabhatta Sidhanta’ Aryabhatta mentioned that the stars in the sky seems to move towards the West because of the Earth’s rotation on its axis.

Question 2.
Who was Ptolemy?
Answer:

1. Ptolemy was a Greco – Roman mathematician, astronomer and geographer.
2. He was the first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude on a map.

Question 3.
Mention about ‘Geographia’.
Answer:

1. Geographia was authored by Ptolemy.
2. He gave a detailed description about the Earth’s surface to size and circumference.
3. He also mentioned about many locations based on the lines of latitude and longitude

Question 4.
How many parallels are found on the Earth?
Answer:

1. The lines of latitude consist of 89 parallels in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. There are 89 parallels in the Southern Hemisphere.
3. One at the Equal and the two poles are found as points.
4. Totally there are 181 parallels found on earth.

Question 5.
What are called meridians of longitude?
Answer:
The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North Pole and the South Pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.

Question 6.
What is a Prime Meridian?
Answer:
The 0° line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian.

Question 7.
What are Western Longitudes?
Answer:
The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian (0°) and 180° West line of longitude are called Western longitude.

Question 8.
What is known as Eastern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longtitude and the 180° East line of longtitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.

Question 9.
What is GMT?
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time : GMT is the mean solar time at the Royal observatory in Greenwich, London, reckoned from midnight.

Question 10.
How many time zones are there in the USA?
Answer:
The United States is spread across six time zones. From west to east, they are Hawaii, Alaska, Pacific, Mountain, Central and Eastern.

Question 11.
How many time zones in Europe, Africa, Australia and Asia.
Answer:

1. Europe – 11 time zones
2. Africa – 6 times zones
3. Australia – 3 time zones
4. Asia – 11 time zones

Question 12.
What is the time difference between

1. India and Greenwich Mean Time
2. India and U.S.A
3. India and Dubai
4. India and Australia.

Answer:

1. India is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
2. India is 10 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Washington, DC, U.S.A.
3. India is 1 hour and 30 minutes a head of Dubai.
4. Australia is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of India. (Canberra Act)

IX. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
The length of the lines of latitude decreases from the equator.
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is geoid shaped, the length of the lines of latitude decreases from the Equator towards the South and North Poles.
2. The 90° North and South Poles are not found as lines but as points.

Question 2.
All the places on earth do not have the same amount of temperature.
Answer:

1. The Sun’s rays do not fall equally on all parts of the earth.
2. They fall vertically over the equator and slanting towards the poles.
3. Thus all the places on earth do not have the same amount of temperature

Question 3.
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer (23‘/2°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23!4°S) is called Torrid Zone.
Answer:

1. The Sun’s rays fall vertically over this region and the average temperature is very high.
2. Hence this region is known as the Torrid Zone.

X. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note an Latitudes.
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines which are drawn horizontally on East – West direction on the Earth are called the lines or parallels of latitudes.
2. The 0° line of latitude which divides the Earth into two halves is known as the Equator.
3. From the equator, parallel lines are drawn towards the North and South Poles at equal intervals.
4. The latitudinal extent between 1° line of latitude on Earth is 111 km.
5. Since the Earth is geoid shaped, the length of the lines of latitude decreases from the equator towards the south and North poles.
6. The lines of latitude that are drawn horizontally between the equator and the North Pole are called Northern latitudes.
7. Those which are found between the equator and the South Pole are called Southern Latitudes.
8. The area of the Earth found between the Equator (0°) and the North Pole (90°N) is called the Northern Hemisphere.
9. The area of the Earth from the equator (0°) to the South Pole (90°S) is called the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
Write a note on Longitudes.
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North Pole and the South Pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.
2. These lines of longitude are seen as semi circles.
3. The 09 line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian.
4. There are 180 lines of longitude towards the East and West from the Prime Meridian.
5. So there are totally 360 lines of longitude.
6. These lines converge at the poles. The 180°W and 180°E line of longitude are the same line.
7. The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian and the 180° East line of longitude are called Eastern Longitudes.
8. The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian (0°) and the 180° West line of longitude are called Western Longitudes.
9. The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and the 180° East line of longitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.
10. The part of the Earth from 09 line of longitude to 180° West line of longitude is called Western Hemisphere.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 The Post-Mauryan India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Post-Mauryan India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The last Mauryan emperor was killed by
(a) Pushyamitra
(b) Agnimitra
(c) Vasudeva
(d) Narayana
Answer:
(a) Pushyamitra

Question 2.
…………… was the founder of Satavahana dynasty.
(a) Simuka
(b) Satakarani
(c) Kanha
(d) Sivasvati
Answer:
(a) Simuka

Question 3.
was the greatest of all the Kushana emperors.
(a) Kanishka
(c) Kadphises II
(b) Kadphises I
(d) Pan-Chiang
Answer:
(a) Kanishka

Question 4.
The Kantara School of Sanskrit flourished in the …………… during 2nd century BC.
(a) Deccan
(b) north-west India
(c) Punjab
(d) Gangetic Valley
Answer:
(b) north-west India

Question 5.
Sakas ruled over Gandhara region
(a) Sirkap
(b) Taxila
(c) Mathura
(d) Purushpura
Answer:
(a) Sirkap

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Colonies of Indo-Greeks and Indo-Parthians were established along the north-western part of India.
Reason (R) : The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually intermarried anti intermixed with the indigenous population.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Indo-Greek rulers introduced die system and produced coins with
inscription and symbols, engraving figures on them.
Statement II : Indo-Greek rule was ended by the Kushanas.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b.Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong, but a statement I is correct

Question 3.
Circle the odd one
Pushyamitra, Vasudeva, Simuka, Kanishka
Reason:

1. All of the three generals assassinated their kings.
2. Kanishka followed Buddhism, whereas the other three rulers were not followers of Buddhism.

Question 4.
Answer the following in a word

1. Who was the last Sunga ruler?
2. Who was the most important and famous king of Sakas?
3. Who established Kanva dynasty in Magadha?
4. Who converted Gondophemes into Christianity?

Answer:

1. Devabhtu
2. Vasudeva
3. Vasudeva
4. St.Thomas

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. was the founder of Indo-Parthian Kingdom.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after death.
3. Hala is famous as the author of
4. was the last ruler of Kanva dynasty
5. Kushana’s later capital was

Answer:

1. Gonduphres
2. Asokas
3. Sattasai
4. Susarma
5. Peshavar or Purushpura

IV. State whether True or False

1. Magadha continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture even after the fall of the Mauryan Empire.
2. We get much information about Kharavela from Hathigumba inscription.
3. Simuka waged a successful war against Magadha.
4. Buddhacharita was written by Asvaghosha.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

V. Match the following :

1. Patanjali -1.Kalinga
2. Agnimitra – 2. Indo-Greek
3. King Kharavela – 3.Indo-Parthians
4. Demetrius – 4. Second grammarian
5. Gondophemes – 5. Malavikagnimitra

Answer:

1. 4
2. 5
3. 1
4. 2
5. 3

VI. Find out the wrong statement from the following

1. The Kushanas formed a section of the yueh-chi tribes who inhabited north-western China.
2. Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.
3. The Great Stupa of Sanchi and the railings which enclose it belong to the Sunga period.
4. Pan-Chiang was the Chinese general defeated by Kanishka.

Answer:

2. Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.

VII. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What happened to the last Mauryan emperor?
Answer:

1. The last Mauryan emperor, Brihadratha, was assassinated by his own general, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. He established his Sunga dynasty in Magadha.

Question 2.
Write a note on Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
Answer:
Agnimitra is said to be the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra (Agnimitra was the son of Pushyamitra)

Question 3.
Name the ruler of Kanva dynasty.
Answer:

1. The Kanva dynasty produced four kings and their rule lasted only for 45 years.
2. The Kanvas rulers were
   • Vasudeva
   • Bhumi Mitra
   • Narayana
   • Susarman

Question 4.
Highlight the literary achievements of Satavahanas.
Answer:

1. The Satavahana king Hala was himself a great scholar of Sanskrit.
2. Hala is famous as the author of Sattasai (Saptasati) 700 stanzas in Prakrit.

Question 5.
Name the places where Satavahana’s monuments are situated.
Answer:

1. Gandhara, Mathura, Amaravati, Bodha Gaya, Sanchi and Bharhut were known for splendid monuments and art.
2. The Mathura School of Sculpture produced images and life-size statues of the Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain deities.

Question 6.
Give an account of the achievements of Kadphises I.
Answer:

1. Kadphises I was the first military and political leader of the Kushanas.
2. He overthrew the Indo-Greek and Indo-Parthian rulers.
3. He established himself as a sovereign ruler of Bactria.
4. He extended his power in Kabul, Gandhara and upto Indus.

Question 7.
Name the Buddhist saints and scholars who adorned the court of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka was an ardent Buddhist.
2. His court was adorned with a number of Buddhist saints and scholars, like Asvaghosha, Vasumitra and Nagarjuna.

VIII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Who invaded India after the decline of the Mauryan empire?
Answer:

1. The break-up of Mauiyan empire resulted in the invasions of Sakas, Scythians, Parthians, Indo-Greeks or Bactria Greeks and Kushanas from the north-west.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after Asoka’s death.
3. There were Sunga and Kanvas in the north before the emergence of Gupta dynasty.
4. Chedis (Kalinga) declared t heir independence.
5. Though Magadha ceased to be the premier state of India, it continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture.

Question 2.
Give an account of the conquests of Pushyamitra Sunga.
Answer:

1. Pushyamitra Sunga established his Sunga dynasty in Magadha.
2. He extended his kingdom westward to include Ujjain and Vidisha.
3. He successfully repulsed the invasion of Bactria king.
4. He thwarted an attack from the Kalinga king, Kharavela.
5. He also conquered Vidarbha.

Question 3.
Write a note on GautamiputraSatakarni.
Answer:

1. GautamiputraSatakarni was the greatest ruler of the family .
2. In the Nasik prashasti, published by his mother GautamiBalasri, Gautamiputra Satakami is described as the destroyer of Sakas, Yavanas (Greeks) and Pahlavas (Parthians).
3. The extent of the empire is also mentioned in the record.
4. Their domain included Maharashtra, north Konkan, Berar, Gujarat, Kathiawar and Malwa.
5. His ship coins are suggestive of Andhras’ skill in seafaring and their naval power.
6. The Bogor inscriptions suggest that South India played an important role in the process of early state formation in Southeast Asia.

Question 4.
What do you know of Gondopharid dynasty?
Answer:

1. Indo – Parthian kingdom or Gondopharid dynasty was founded by Gondophernes.
2. The domain of Indo-Parthians comprised Kabul and Gandhara.
3. The name of Gondophernes is associated with the Christian apostle St. Thomas.
4. According to Christian tradition, St.Thomas visited the court of Gondophernes
5. St. Thomas converted Gondophernes to Christianity.

Question 5.
Who was considered the best known Indo-Greek King. Why?
Answer:

1. Menander was one of the best known Indo-Greek kings.
2. He is said to have ruled a large kingdom in the north-west of the country.
3. His coins were found over an extensive area ranging from Kabul valley and Indus river to western Uttar Pradesh.
4. MilindaPanha, a Buddhist text, is a discourse between Bactrian king Milinda and the learned Buddhist scholar Nagasena.
5. This Milinda is identifed with Menander.
6. Menander is believed to have become a Buddhist and promoted Buddhism.

Question 6.
Who was Sakas?
Answer:

1. Sakas as nomads came in huge number and spread all over northern and western India.
2. They were against the tribe of Turki normads.
3. They were Scthians, nomadic ancient Iranians.
4. They were known as Sakas in Sanskrit.
5. The Indo – Greek rule in India was ended by them.

Question 7.
Give an account of the religious policy of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka was an ardent Buddhist.
2. His empire was a Buddhist empire.
3. He adopted Buddhism under the influence of Asvaghosha, a celebrated monk from Pataliputra.
4. He was as equal as the exponent and champion of Mahayanism.
5. He made Buddhism as the state religion.
6. He built many stupas and monasteries in Mathura, Taxila and many other parts of his kingdom.
7. He sent Buddhist missionaries to Tibet, China and many countries of Central Asia for the propagation of Buddha’s gospel.
8. He organised the fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana near Srinagar to sort out the differences between the various schools of Buddhism. It was only in this council that Buddhism was split into Hinayanism and Mahayanism.

IX. HOTS :

Question 1.
The importance of Gandhara School of Art.
Answer:

1. The Gandhara School of Art had developed in the first century A.D along with Mathura School during the reign of Kushana emperor Kanishka.
2. Both Sakas and Kushanas were patrons of Gandhara school which is known for the first sculpture representations of the Buddha in human form.
3. The art of the Gandhara school was primarily Mahayana.
4. The Gandhara school of Indian Art is heavily indebted to Greek influence.
5. The Greeks were good cave builders. The Mahayana Buddhist learnt the art of carving out caves from them and became skilled in rock cut architecture.

Question 2.
Provide an account of trade and commerce during the post – Mauryan period in South India..
Answer:

1. Kadphises II maintained a friendly relationship with the emperors of China and Rome.
2. He encouraged trade and commerce with foreign countries.
3. His coins contained the inscribed figures of Lord Siva and his imperial titles.
4. The inscriptions in the coins were in the Kharosthi language.

X. Activity :

Question 1.
Prepare an album with centres of archaeological monuments of Satavahanas and Kushanas.
Answer:
Satavahanas :

1. Several metal figurines and unique bronze objects were found from Bramhapuri.
2. A bronze statue of the standing Buddha discovered in Oc-Eo (an archaeological site in Vietnam) resembles the Amaravati
3. The later Satavahana kings issued lead or bronze coins depicting ships with two masts.
4. A stone seal discovered in NakhonPattom in Thailand has the same design.
5. Gandhara, Madhura, Amaravati, Bodh Gaya, Sanchi and Bharhut were known for splendid monuments and art.
6. The Mathura School of Sculputre produced images and life-size statues of the Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain deities.

Kushanas :

1. Kanishka’s coins portray images of Indian, Greek, Iranians divinities.
2. He encouraged Gandhara school of art as well as Mathura school of art.
3. His greatest contribution to Buddhist architecture was the Kanishka stupa at Peshawar, Pakistan.
4. Several Buddhist statues are directly connected to the reign of Kanishka like Bodhisattra statues.

Question 2.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the cultural contribution of Indo-Greeks Sakas and Kushanas
Answer:
Indo-Greeks:

1. Indo-Greek rulers introduced a die system and produced properly shaped coins with inscription, symbols and engraved figures on Indo-greeks.
2. Indians learnt this art from Indo-greeks.
3. The Gandhara school of Indian art is heavily indebted to Greek influence.
4. The Greeks were good cave builders. The Mahayana Buddhist learnt the art of carving out caves from them and became skilled in rock-cut architecture.

Sakas:

1. Rudradaman’s Junagadh/Gimar inscription was the first inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
2. In India, the Sakas were assimilated into Indian society.
3. They began to adopt Indian names and practice Indian religious beliefs.

Kushanas :

1. Kanishka was a great patron of art and literature. His court was adorned with a number of Buddhist saints and scholars, like Asvaghosha, Vasumitra and Nagarajuna.
2. He founded the town of Kanishkapura in Kashmir and furnished the capital of Puiushapura with magnificent public buildings.
3. The Gandhara school of the art flourished during this time.
4. The most favourable subject of the Gandhara artists was the carving of sculptures of Buddha.
5. Buddhist learning and culture was taken to China and Mongolia from Takshashila.
6. The great Asiatic culture mingled with Indian Buddhist culture during the Kushana time.

XI. Answer Grid

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Mauryan India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In the of India Satavahanas became independent after Asoka’s death.
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Answer:
(b) South

Question 2.
Pushyamitra made ……………. as his capital.
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Peshavar
(c) Kundalavana
(d) Bharhut
Answer:
(a) Pataliputra

Question 3.
Simuka, the founder of the Satavahana dynasty ruled for
(a) 20 yrs
(c) 22 yrs
(b) 21 yrs
(d) 23 yrs
Answer:
(d) 23 yrs

Question 4.
The world-famous life-size statue of Buddha was at ……………. Valley.
(a) Bamyan
(b) Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) Kenyan
Answer:
(a) Bamyan

Question 5.
Hala belonged to dynasty.
(a) Indogreek
(b) Kushana
(c) Sunga
(d) Satavahana
Answer:
(d) Satavahana

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :Gautamiputra Satakarni was the greatest ruler of the family.
Reason (R) :He is described as the destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas and Pahlavas.
a. A is correct but R is not correct.
b. A is not correct but R is correct.
c. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I :Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese Buddhist monk and traveller is one of the sources of the Post Mauryan period.
Statement II :Saka rule was founded by Maos or Mogain in the Gandhara region.
a. Both the statements are correct.
b. Both the statements are wrong.
c. Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.
d. Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are correct

Question 3.
Circle the odd one.
Bhumi Mitra, Nagaijuna, Susarman, Krishna.
Answer:
Krishna
Reason : Krishna was a ruler from Satavahana dynasty. Other three were from Kanva  dynasty.

Question 4.

1. Answer the following in one word.
2. Mention the other term of Satavahanas.
3. Name the second grammarian in Sanskrit.
4. Name the Sunga ruler who performed two AsvamedhaYagnas.
5. Whose work was Sattasai?

Answer:

1. Andhras
2. Patanjali
3. Pushyamitra
4. Hala

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The author of Harshacharita was _______
2. Patanjali wrote _______
3. Nagarjuna’s work was _______
4. Agnimitra’s son was _______
5. Pushyamitra’s capital was _______
6. Under the Sungas _______ became the court language.
7. The great stupa of sanchi and railings belong to the _______ period.
8. The Sakas appointed _______ as provicial governor
9. Initially the Kushana capital was _______
10. Kanishka defeated the Chinese general _______

Answer:

1. Banabhatte
2. Mahabhasya
3. Madhyamikasutra
4. Vasumitra
5. Pataiiputra
6. Sanskrit
7. Sunga
8. Kshatrapas / Satraps
9. Kabul
10. Pan-Chiang

IV. True or False :

1. Agminitra is said to be the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
2. The Satavahanas played an important role in defending the Gangetic valley.
3. The last Kanva ruler was Satakami.
4. Bactria became independent under Diodotus I.
5. Menander promoted Jainism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Match

1. Sungas – i. Narayana
2. Kanvas – ii. Sirkap
3. Satavahanas – iii. Pahlavas
4. Sakas – iv. Vasumitra
5. Indo Parthians – v. Simuka

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – v
4. – ii
5. – iii

VI. Find out the wrong statement from the following :

1. The Sunga dynasty lasted for about one hundred years.
2.  The Sungas promoted Shaivism.
3. The Kanva dynasty produced four Kings.
4. Yavanas were Greeks.

Answer:
2. The Sungas promoted Shaivism

VII. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention the importance of the Sunga period.
Answer:

1. The Sungas played an important role in defending the Gangetic Valley from the encroachments of the Bactrian Greeks.
2. Pushyamitra, and then his successors, revived Vedic religious practices and promoted Vaishnavism.
3. Sanskrit gradually gained ascendancy and became the court language.

Question 2.
Name the domain of Satavahanas.
Answer:

1. Maharashtra
2. North Konkan
3. Berar
4. Gujarat
5. Kathiawar
6. Malda.

Question 3.
Who published Nasik Prashasti?
Answer:
Nasik Prashasti was published by Gautami Balasri, mother of Gautamiputra Satakami.

Question 4.
Where was Buddhist learning and culture taken to?
Answer:
Buddhist learning and culture was taken to China and Mongolia from Takshashila.

Question 5.
What facilitated the establishment oflndo-Greek and Indo-Parthian colonies along the north western part of India?
Answer:

1. The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually inter-married and inter-mixed with the indigenous population.
2. This facilitated the establishment oflndo-Greek and Indo-Parthian colonies along the north western part of India.

Question 6.
What was the change brought in by the Sunga period in the railings and gateways of the Buddhist Stupas?
Answer:
During the Sunga period, stone was replaced by wood in the railings and the gateways of the Buddhist stupas as seen in Bharhut and Sanchi.

Question 7.
Who was Kaharavela?
Answer:

1. King Kharavela of Kalinga was a contemporary of the Sungas.
2. We get information about Kharavela from the Hathigumba inscription.

Question 8.
Write about the Buddhist Statue at Bamyan Valley.
Answer:

1. The world famous life-size statue of Buddha at Bamyan valley on the mountains is located in the northwestern frontiers of ancient India.
2. They were carved out of the solid rocks by the dedicated artists of the Gandhara School of Art during the Post-Mauryan period.

Question 9.
Write a note on Kadphises
Answer:

1. Kadphises II maintained friendly relationship with the emperors of China and Rome.
2. He encouraged trade and commerce with the foreign countries.
3. Some of his coins contained the inscribed figures of Lord Siva and his imperial titles were inscribed in the Kharosthi language.

VIII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Mention about the archaeological sources and literary source of the Post-Mauryan Period.
Archaeological Sources of the Post-Mauryan period :
Answer:

1. Ayodhya Inscription of Dana Deva
2. Persepolis, Nakshi Rustam Inscriptions
3. Moga (Taxila copper plate)
4. Junagadh/Gimar Inscription
5. Nasik Prasasti
6. Inscription of Darius I
7. Coins of Satavahanas
8. Coins of Kadphises II
9. Roman Coins

Literary Sources:

1. Puranas
2. Gargi Samhita
3. Harshacharita of Banabhatta
4. Mahabhasyaof Patanjali
5. Brihastkatha of Gunadhya
6. Madhyamika Sutra of Nagaijuna
7. Buddhacharita of Asvaghosha
8. Malavikagnimitra of Kalidasa

Question 2.
Write a note on Demetrius
Answer:

1. Demetrius was the son of Greco-Bactrian ruler Euthydemus.
2. He was king of Macedonia from 294 to 288 BC.
3. Numismatic evidence proves that Demetrius issued bi-lingual square coins with Greek on the obverse and Kharosthi on the reverse.
4. Scholars are not able to decide which of the three, named Demetrius, was the initiator of the Yavana era, commencing for second century BC in India..

Question 3.
Who were Kushanas?
Answer:

1. The Kushanas formed a section of the Yueh-chi tribes, who inhabited north western China in the remote past.
2. In the first century BC, the Yueh-chi tribes were composed of five major sections of which the Kushanas attained political ascendancy over others.
3. By the beginning of Christian era, all the yueh-chi tribes had acknowledged the supremacy of the Kushanas.
4. They settled down in the Bactrian and Parthian lands.
5. The Kushanas gradually overran Bactria and Parthia and established themselves in northern India.
6. Their concentration was mostly in the Punjab, Rajaputana and Kathiawar.
7. Kushana rulers were Buddhists.
8. Takshashila and Mathura continued to be great centres of Buddhist learning, attracting students from China and western Asia.

Question 4.
Write about the Conquests of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka conquered and annexed Kashmir
2. He waged a successful war against Magadha.
3. He also waged a war against a ruler of Parthia to maintain safety and integrity in his vast empire on the western and south-western border.
4. After the conquest of Kashmir and Gandhara, he turned his attention towards China.
5. He defeated the Chinese general Pan-Chiang and safeguarded the northern borders of India from Chinese intrusion.
6. His empire extended form Kashmir down to Benaras, and the Vindhya mountain in the south. It included Kashgar, Yarkhand touching the borders of Persia and Parthia.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Democracy

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Early man settled near________and practiced agriculture.
(a) plains
(b) bank of rivers
(c) mountains
(d) hills
Answer:
(b) bank of rivers

Question 2.
The birth place of democracy is ………………..
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Greece
(d) Rome
Answer:
(c) Greece

Question 3.
________ is celebrated as the International Democracy Day.
(a) September 15
(b) October 15
(c) November 15
(d) December 15
Answer:
(a) September 15

Question 4.
Who has the right to work in a direct Democracy?
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Representatives
d) All eligible voters
Answer:
(d) All eligible voters

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Direct Democracy is practiced in ________
2. The definition of democracy is defined by________
3. People choose their representatives by giving their________
4. In our country________democracy is in practice.

Answer:

1. Switzerland
2. Abraham Lincoln
3. Votes
4. Representative

III. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What is Democracy?
Answer:

1. The citizens of a country select their representatives through elections.
2. Thus they take part in the direct governance of a country. This is termed democracy.

Question 2.
What are the types of democracy?
Answer:
Direct democracy and Representative democracy

Question 3.
Define Direct Democracy.
Answer:

1. In a direct democracy, only the citizens can make laws.
2. All changes have to be approved by the citizens.
3. The politicians only rule over parliamentary procedure. Eg. Switzerland.

Question 4.
Define: Representative Democracy
Answer:
Representative democracy is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected officials representing a group of people.

Question 5.
What are the salient features of our constitution that you have understood?
Answer:

1. Constitution of India guides the Indians in all aspects and maintains law and order.
2. It ensures freedom, equality and justice to everyone.
3. It defines the political principles, the structure of government, the powers and responsibilities.
4. It fixes the Rights and Duties and Directive Principles of the Citizens.
5. It is the longest written constitution in the world.

IV. HOTS:

Question 1.
Compare and contrast direct democracy and representative democracy.
a. Direct Democracy Vs Representative Democracy :
Answer:

(i) A direct democracy or pure democracy is a form of government wherein the citizens have a direct say in the formation of laws and issues that affect them. In a representative democracy form of government, the citizens vote for or elect a representative to represent them in Congress or Senate.

(ii) In a direct democracy the decisions are always upheld. In a representative democracy, the representative may or may not consider their decisions and act on his own.

(iii) Direct democracy in suitable for small communities or countries while most countries with large population opt for a representative government.

(iv) In a direct democracy, citizens are more actively involved in their government. The citizens of a representative democracy often let their representatives decide on issues for them.

VI. Activity:

Question 1.
Discuss about the merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
The merits of democracy are :

1. A democratic government is better form of government because it is more accountable form of government.
2. Democracy improves the quality of decision making,
3. Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.
4. Poor and least educated has the same status as the rich and educated.
5. Democracy allows us to correct own mistake.

Demerits:

1. Leaders keep on changing leading to instability.
2. Democracy in all about political competition and power play and there is no scope for mortality.
3. So many people have to be consulted in a democracy that it lead to delays.
4. Democracy leads to corruption for it is based on electoral competition.
5. Ordinary people do not know what is good for them, they should not decide anything

HOTS

Question 1.
Is it possible to practise Direct Democracy in India?
Answer:

1. Direct democracy is not possible in India, because of its large population. It is not possible to sit together and make decisions.
2. All Indians are not literate. So India has representative democracy.
3. India cannot practice direct democracy. Some people might lack interest in decision making process. Unavailability of proper resources, heavy work load might cause the whole system to slow down.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In a direct democracy the politicians only rule over ______
(a) Parliamentary procedure
(b) Group decision
(c) Single man’s ideas
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Parliamentary procedure

Question 2.
The Earliest written constitution still in effect is ………………
(a) Greek Democracy
(b) Sanmerinos Democracy
(c) Roman Democracy
Answer:
(b)Sanmerinos Democracy

Question 3.
In India we follow representative democracy because
(a) People like it
(b) Vast population
(c) Financially weak
(d) Do not have enough resources
Answer:
(b) Vast Population

Question 4.
In a Direct Democracy, only the ……………… can make laws
(a) President
(b) Prime minister
(c) Citizens
Answer:
(c) Citizens

Question 5.
A Law and order is maintained in India by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Ministers
(c) Constitution
(d) Assembly
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 6.
Chief architect of Indian Constitution is
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajaji
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Patel
Answer:
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambekar

Question 7.
Indian constitution defines
(a) Political Principles
(b) Rules and Regulations
(c) Directive Principles
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8
In a democracy the power is vested in the hands of the .
(a) Ministers
(b) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
(c) People
Answer:
(c) People

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In the beginning, the early men were ________
2. India adopted democracy after it achieved its ________
3. Representative democracy is also known as ________
4. In India we follow parliamentary________
5. Indian constitution ensures freedom, equality and to everyone ________
6. Indian constitution was drafted by the ________ committee
7. The first among the democratic countries of the world is ________
8. The first country to allow women to vote is ________
9. In India all the people above ________ years of age enjoy Universal Adult Franchise.
10. One of our leaders who insisted on voting rights was ________

Answer:

1. hunters
2. Independence
3. Indirect democracy
4. Democracy
5. Justice
6. Drafting
7. India
8. New Zealand
9. 18
10. Mahatma Gandhi

III. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
How were the empires formed?
Answer:

1. When man lived in groups, tribes were formed.
2. The victorious tribes formed kingdoms by uniting the other tribal groups.
3. These kingdoms later integrated to form empires.

Question 2.
What is an Election?
Answer:
A process by which a representative is chosen is called election.

Question 3.
Mention the two types of representative democracy,
Answer:
Representative democracy can be either Parliamentary democracy as followed in India and England or Presidential democracy as followed in the USA and Canada.

Question 4.
What is meant by democratic decision making?
Answer:

1. In the system of democracy, the power to take decisions does not lie with the head.
2. In the contrary, a group holds the power but adheres of the rules and regulations.
3. All the members of the group hold open discussions and take final decisions only when everyone is convinced. .
4. This is called democratic way of decision making.

Question 5
Mention about the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution,
Answer:

1. Indian Constitution was drafted by the Drafting Committee of the Constitution Assembly.
2. It was headed by Dr. B.R. Ambadkar.
3. That is why we call him the Chief architect of our constitution.

Question 6.
Explain the aims of democracy.
Answer:

1. In a democracy the power is vested in the hands of the people.
2. For that the people should have rights to take decisions.
3. So the representative government elected by the people to form a democratic system, all those above the age of 18 are given voting rights to elect representatives.
4. At the same time the representatives have the responsibility to protect the welfare

Questions 7.
When did the women get voting rights in the world?
Answer:

1. New Zealand was the first country to allow women to vote in 1893.
2. Voting rights to women were given in 1918 and 1920 in the UK and USA respectively.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant pollinator
(a) Duck
(b) Parrot
(c) Humming bird
(d) Dove
Answer:
(c) Humming bird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
a. Nutmag
b. Bamboo
c. Ginger
d. Neem
Answer:
d. Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
(a) Potato
(b) Carrot
(c) Radish
(d) Turnip
Answer:
(a) Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anticancer properties?
a. Amla
b. Tulasi
c. Turmeric
d. Aloe
Answer:
a. Amla

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
(a) Neem tree
(b) Jack tree
(c) Banyan tree
(d) Mango tree
Answer:
(c) Banyan tree

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. In every year October _______ is celebrated as world food day.
2. _______ is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I _______ ?
4. The juice of the leaves of _______ plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called _______

Answers:

1. Sixteenth
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulasi
5. Pulses

III. True or False – If False, give the correct answer :

Question 1.
Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
Answer:
False. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called Ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
Answer:
False. Jasmine is used for ornamental purpose.

Question 4.
Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
Answer:
False. Cotton cloth is suitable for summer season.

Question 5.
Sugarcane is used as bio fuel.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Fibre yielding plant – Chloramine
2. Hardwood – Spice
3. Neem – Hemp
4. Clove – Cereals
5. Millet – Teakwood

Answer:

1. Fibre yielding plant – Hemp
2. Hardwood – Teakwood
3. Neem – Chloramine
4. Clove – Spice
5. Millet – Cereals

V. Analogy :

Question 1.
mango : fruit:: maize : _______
Answer:
cereals.

Question 2.
coconut: fibre :: rose : _______
Answer:
ornamental.

Question 3.
Bees: Polinate insect:: earthworms : _______
Answer:
Natural manure

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Plants that have ingredients which can be used in drug preparation are known as medicinal plants. (Eg.) Tulsi, Neem etc.

Question 3.
How hardwoods differ from softwoods?
Answer:
Hardwoods:

1. Present in angiosperms (flowering plants)
2. It is used to prepare furniture, decks, flooring and wooden construction.
3. Example: Teak, Jackfruit.

Softwoods:

1. Present in gymnosperm (non-flowering plants)
2. It is used to produce plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.
3. Example: Katampu, Pine

Question 4.
What is spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plant traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:
Neem tree, Tulsi tree, Amla tree are the medicinal plants.

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of neem?
Answer:

1. Neem leaf is used for leprosy, eye disorders, intestinal worms, stomach upset, skin ulcer, diseases of heart and blood vessels, fever, diabetes and liver problem.
2. Neem flowers can be used to treat intestinal worm.
3. Neem oil is rich in vitamin E and fatty acid. It helps to improve skin elasticity.

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Write short notes on – Timber yielding plants.
Answer:

1. The wood needed for the construction of buildings and making of furniture are obtained from certain plants.
2. We use wood for these purposes due to their features like durability, stylish finishing and resistance to temperature changes.
3. All commercial timbers are classified into two classes as Hardwoods and softwoods based essentially on their structure.

i. Hardwoods:
Hardwoods are angiosperms (flowering plants), the largest group of land plants. High-quality furniture, decks, flooring and wooden construction are being made only using hardwood. Example: Teak, Jackffuit.

ii. Softwoods:
Softwoods come from gymnosperm (non-flowering plants) trees. Certain angiosperms also yield softwood.
Softwoods have a wide range of applications such as making plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density Fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.
Example: Katampu, Pine.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
Animal – Plant interactions :

1. Animals and birds play an important role in spreading seeds of various plants.
2. The digestive enzymes in the digestive system of the birds soften the protective layer of the seeds and make it easier to germinate.
3. If this natural relationship between animals and plants are affected, it shows its impact on the economy too.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason?
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement (or) not? Explain Why?
Answer:
No. I don’t agree with her statement.

1. Palm tree is technically neither hardwood nor softwood.
2. It comes from a separate family known as Arecaceae.
3. It has significantly different cellular structure from either soft or hardwoods

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions,
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria. How?

Answer:
Bacteria like Pseudomonas are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil for agriculture. So they increase the soil fertility.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants. Why?

Answer:

1. Bees are the best pollinators. Bright colour of flower, smell and honey attract honey bees.
2. The bees go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their legs.
3. It results in cross pollination takes place and the formation of vegetable and fruit. So honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Tabulate the names of vegetables, Cereals and pulses you know.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2

Question 1.
How do Rava, Maida, Sago and Vermicelli are made? Discuss with your friends.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 3

Question 1.
Ask your parents about the medicinal uses of plants such as Phylanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vettiver, Thuthuvalai and make a write up. What are the other plants used for medicinal purpose in your area?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 4

Question 1.
Take a small quantity of cotton swap. Hold in between your thumb and fore finger. Now, gently Start pulling out the cotton, while continuously twisting the Fibres.
Are you able to make a yam?

The process of making yam from Fibres is called Spinning.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
From the earliest time ______ have been the staple food of India.
i. Rice
ii. Millet
iii. Oats
iv. Pulses.
(a) i and ii
(c) i and iv
(b) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Answer:
(a) i and ii

Question 2.
Rava uppuma is made of
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Millet
(d) Sorghum
Answer:
(b) Wheat

Question 3.
For making rope, fibres are obtained from _______ free.
(a) Neem
(b) Mango
(c) Coconut
(d) Jack fruit
Answer:
(c) Coconut

Question 4.
The wealth of any country largely depends upon its
(a) Educational development
(b) Agricultural development
(c) Industrial development
(d) Political development
Answer:
(b) Agricultural development

Question 5.
________ are the best for pollinations.
(a) Housefly
(b) Mosquito
(c) Birds
(d) Honeybees
Answer:
(d) Honeybees

Question 6.
Carpentry works depend on
(a) Medicinal plants
(b) Fibre plants
c) Ornamental plants
(d) Timber plants
Answer:
(d) Timber plants

Question 7.
We obtain _______ from plants for making tyre, seats etc.
(a) Plastic
(b) Rubber
(c) Pencil
(d) Wood
Answer:
(b) Rubber

Question 8.
Neem coated urea releases _______ gradually and helps the plants.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(c) Nitrogen

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Plants, based on their economic values and uses, may be broadly classified into _______ categories.
2. The heartbeat of an Indian kitchen is _______
3. We get food from roots is _______
4. _______ are secured in Pods.
5. India is the _______ largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
6. Some medicinal plants like _______ are used to produce medicines.
7. For making mattresses _______ is used.
8. _______ alone accounts for over 50% of raw jute production.
9. Hardwoods are _______ the largest group of land plants.
10. To decorate houses we are planting climber plant like _______
11. _______ are economically useful for us in silk production.
12. _______ are used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
13. Indian scientists have made a _______ formulation from the Palak to cure Osteoarthritis.

Answers:

1. six
2. Spices
3. Carrot
4. Pulses
5. Second
6. Fungi
7. Silk cotton
8. West Bengal
9. Angiosperms
10. Mullai
11. Silkworms
12. Blue gree algae
13. Nano

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
The useful Hardwoods and Softwoods are given by fibre plants.
Answer:
False. The useful hardwoods and softwoods are given by timber plants.

Question 2.
In the cabbage the edible part is leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Cardamom and black pepper are pulses.
Answer:
False. Cardamom and black pepper are spices.

Question 5.
In turmeric, the Rhizome part is used to help body to fight foreign invaders.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The process of making yam from fibres is called yam production.
Answer:
False. The process of making yam from fibres is called spinning.

Question 7.
Hibiscus trees are used to decorate houses.
Answer:
False. Hibiscus shrubs are used to decorate houses.

Question 8.
Plants and algae living in coral reefs are the food for variety of fishes.
Answer:
True.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Tomato : Vegetable :: Wheat: _______
Answer:
Pulses

Question 2.
Roots as food : Beetroot:: Stem as food : _______
Answer:
Potato

Question 3.
Spices : Cardamom :: Medicinal plant: _______
Answer:
Amla

Question 4.
Protect from scurvy : Amla :: Bronchitis, expectorant: _______
Answer:
Tulsi

Question 5.
Leaf fibres : Agave :: Husk fibres : _______
Answer:
Coconut.

Question 6.
Hardwoods: angiosperm
Soft woods : _______
Answer:
Gymnosperm.

Question 7.
Shrubs : Crape Jasmine :: Climbers : _______
Answer:
Allamanda.

Question 8.
Fix nitrogen in the soil: Pseudomonas :: Produce bio-fuel: _______
Answer:
Jatropha.

V. Match the following :

A.

Answer:
i – c
ii – a
iii – b
iv – e
v – d.

B.

Answer:
i – d
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – c.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define – Economic botany.
Answer:
Economic botany is the study of the relationship between people and plants and the uses of plants in the economy.

Question 2.
Name the plant from which we get cordage or rope?
Answer:
Fibres got from coconut stem, stalk of the compound leaf and husk fibres of the coconut are the sources from which cordage or rope is processed.

Question 3.
Define – Cereals.
Answer:
Cereals are edible components of grain of cultivated grass.
Example : Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

Question 4.
Why do we consider cotton as cash crop?
Answer:

1. Cotton give textile fibres used for making garments or dress materials or fabric.
2. 80% cotton is used in making fabrics or cotton mixed fabrics.
3. Because of its large scale cultivation, manufacture and industry if is a commercially very important plant. So known as cash crop.

Question 5.
Name some medicinal plants.
Answer:
The medicinal plants are Phyllanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vetiver, Thuthuvalai, Neem and Tulsi.

Question 6.
What are the specialities of Teak Wood?
Answer:

1. Teak is a hardwood, durable and strong.
2. Teak central wood is deposited with gum, resin oil etc and so strong that it can’t be destroyed by termites and other insects.
3. Doors, windows, roof and railway sleeper wood and cots are made out of it.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding parts based on the plant parts.
Answer:

1. Plant Fibres include seed hairs – Cotton.
2. Stem Fibres – Flax, jute.
3. Leaf Fibres – Agave.
4. Husk Fibres – Coconut.

Question 8.
Name some states in which jute crop is grown.
Answer:
Jute crop is grown in seven states – West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, Bihar, UttarPradesh, Tripura and Meghalaya.

Question 9.
Classify the Ornamental plants.
Answer:

1. Shrubs – Hibiscus, Crape Jasmine and Crotons
2. Climbers – Mullai, Allamanda and Bougainvilleam
3. Trees – Golden shower tree, Mandarai, Delonix tree

Question 10.
How pollination takes place by insects?
Answer:
Bright colured flowers, smell and honey attract insects. As the insects go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their body. This results in cross pollination.

Question 11.
Define – Osteoarthritis.
Answer:
Osteoarthritis is a joint disease affecting joints and knee in old age and any age people. Pala spinach is used to cure the disease.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Classify the plants as food with example.
1. Vegetables
2. Cereals
3. Pulses
Plants also give us coffee, tea, sugar and raw materials for oil.

1. Vegetables: We get vegetables from different parts of the plants.
Roots : eg : Beetroot, Carrot.
Leaves : eg : Curry Leaves, Cabbage.
Stems : eg : Potato, Yam.
Flowers : eg : Banana flower, Cauliflower.
Fruits : eg : Amla, Guava.

2. Cereals : Cereals are edible components of grain of cultivated grass.
Example : Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

3. Pulses : (i) Pulses are edible seeds of plants legume family. Pulses are secured in pods.
(ii) Example : Bengal gram, Green mung bean.

4. Spices : Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food. Spices come from the bark1 or roots of certain plants, leaves, flowers, or stems of plants primarily used for flavoring, coloring or preserving food.

Spices used in India : Following spices are included in a variety of Indian dishes Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 2.
Give any five medicinal plants and their medicinal use.
Answer:
Here is a list of plants that have the highest medicinal value.

Question 3.
Give other uses of plants.
Answer:

1. Maintain soil fertility – Plants maintain soil fertility. Plants like blue green algae and bacteria like Pseudomonas are also extensively used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
2. Prevent soil erosion – Plants when grown in dense will prevent soil erosion. This is prevented by plants if grown around.
3. Bio-fuels – Some plants are also grown for the sake of bio-fules. Plant fuel is less toxic as it does not emit harmful gases and also less expensive. Ex : Jatropha. Even the plant waste is used to generate electricity. Ex : Sugar mills.
4. Rubber and Natural Plastic – Natural plastics and rubber are also produced from plants.
5. Neem oil coated Urea – Neem coated urea releases nitrogen gradually and helps the plants to absorb maximum nitrogen. It reduces the impact of urea on the environment.