Category: Class 6

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.5

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The difference between the smallest natural number and the smallest whole number is _____
(ii) 17 × ___ = 34 × 17
(iii) When _____ is added to a number, it remains the same.
(iv) Division by ____ is not defined.
(v) Multiplication by ____ leaves a number unchanged.
Solution:
(i) 1
Hint: 1 – 0 = 1
(ii) 34
(iii) 0
(iv) 0
(v) 1

Question 2.

Say True or False.

1. 0 is the identity for multiplication of whole numbers.
2. Sum of two whole numbers is always less than their product.
3. Both addition and multiplication are associative for whole numbers.
4. Both addition and multiplication are commutative for whole numbers.
5. Multiplication is distributive over addition for whole numbers.

Solution:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

Question 3.
Name the property being illustrated in each of the cases given below:

1. 75 + 34 = 34 + 75
2. (12 × 4) × 8 = 12 × (4 × 8)
3. 50 + 0 = 50
4. 50 × 1 = 50
5. 50 × 42 = 50 × 40 + 50 × 2

Solution:

1. Addition is commutative
2. Multiplication is associative
3. 0 is the additive identity
4. 1 is the multiplicative identity.
5. Distributivity of multiplication over addition

Question 4.
Use the properties of whole numbers and simplify.
(i) 50 × 102
(ii) 500 × 689 – 500 × 89
(iii) 4 × 132 × 25
(iv) 196 + 34 + 104
Solution:
(i) 50 × 102
= 50 × (100 + 2)
= (50 × 100) + (50 × 2)
= 5000 + 100 = 5100

(ii) 500 × 689 – 500 × 89
= 500 × (689 – 89)
= 344500 – 44500
= 300000
= 500 × (689 – 89)
= 500 × 600
= 3,00000

(iii) (4 × 132) × 25
= 4 × (132 × 25)
= (4 × 132) × 25
= 528 × 25
= 13200
= 4 × (132 × 25)
= 4 × 3300
= 13200

(iv) (196 + 34) + 104 = 196 + (34 + 104)
(196 + 34) + 104 = 230 + 104 = 334
196 + (34 + 104) = 196 + 138 = 334

Objective Type Questions

Question 5.
(53 + 49) × 0 is
(a) 102
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 53 + 49 + 0
Solution:
(b) 0
53 × 0 + 49 × 0 = 0 + 0 = 0

Question 6.
\(\frac{59}{1}\) is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) \(\frac{1}{59}\)
(d) 59
Solution:
(d) 59

Question 7.
The product of a non-zero whole number and its successor is always
(a) an even number
(b) an odd number
(c) zero
(d) none of these
Solution:
(a) an even number

Question 8.
The whole number that does not have a predecessor is
(a) 10
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) none of these
Solution:
(b) 0
0 is the smallest whole number

Question 9.
Which of the following expressions is not zero?
(a) 0 × 0
(b) 0 + 0
(c) 2/0
(d) 0/2
Solution:
(c) 2/0

Question 10.
Which of the following is not true?
(a) (4237 + 5498) + 3439 = 4237 + (5498 + 3439)
(b) (4237 × 5498) × 3439 = 4237 × (5498 × 3439)
(c) 4237 + 5498 × 3439 = (4237 + 5498) × 3439
(d) 4237 × (5498 + 3439) = (4237 × 5498) + (4237 × 3439)
Solution:
(c) 4237 + 5498 × 3439 = (4237 + 5498) × 3439

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Introduction to Algebra Ex 2.2

Question 1.
Find in the blanks.
(i) The algebraic statement of ‘f’ decreased by 5 is _______
(ii) The algebraic statement of ‘s’ divided by 5 is _______
(iii) The verbal statement of ‘2m – 10’ is _______
(iv) If A’s age is ‘n’ years now, 7 years ago A’s age was ______
(v) If ‘p – 5’ gives 12 then ‘p’ is ______
Solution:
(i) f – 5
(ii) \(\frac { s }{ 5 }\)
(iii) 10 less than 2 times m (or) Take away 10 from the product of 2 and m
(iv) n – 7
(v) 17
Hint: n – 5 = 12⇒ n = 12 + 5 = 17

Question 2.
Say True or False.
(i) 10 more to three times ‘c’ is ‘3c + 13’.
(ii) If the cost of 10 rice bags is Rs ‘t’, then the cost of 1 rice bag is Rs \(\frac{t}{10}\)
(iii) The statements ‘x’ divided by 3 and 3 divided by ‘x’ are the same.
(iv) The product of ‘q’ and 20 is ‘20q’.
(v) 7 less to 7 times ‘y’ is ‘7 – 7y’.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) False
(iv) True
(v) False

Question 3.
Express the following verbal statement to algebraic statement.
(i) ‘t’ is added to 100
(ii) 4 times ‘q’
(iii) 8 is reduced by ‘y’
(iv) 56 added to 2 times ‘x’
(v) 4 less to 9 times of ‘y’
Solution:
(i) t + 100
(ii) 4q
(iii) 8 – y
(iv) 2x + 56
(v) 9y – 4

Question 4.
Express the following algebraic statement to verbal statement.
(i) x ÷ 3
(ii) 5n – 12
(iii) 11 + 10x
(iv) 70s
Solution:
(i) x divided by 3
(ii) 12 less to 5 times n
(iii) 11 added to 10 times x
(iv) 70 times s

Question 5.
The teacher asked two students to write the algebraic statement for the verbal statement “8 more than a number” on the board. Vetri wrote ‘8 + x’ but Maran wrote ‘8x’. Who gave the correct answer?
Solution:
Let the number be x; 8 more than the number = 8 + x.
Vetri gave the correct answer as 8 + x.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions:
(i) If ‘n’ takes the value 3 then find the value of ‘n + 10’
(ii) If ‘g’ is equal to 300. What is the value of ‘g – 1’ and ‘g + 1’?
(iii) What is the value of s; if ‘2s – 6’ gives 30?
Solution:
(i) Given n = 3
then n + 10 = 3 + 10 = 13
n + 10 = 13

(ii) Given g = 300
g – 1 = 300 – 1 = 299
g + 1 = 300 + 1 = 301
g – 1 = 299; g + 1 = 301

(iii) Given 2s – 6 = 30
From the table:
2 × 18 – 6 = 30
s = 18

Question 7.
Complete the table and find the value of ‘k’ for which \(\frac { k }{ 3 }\) gives 5.
Solution:
Given: k ÷ 3 = 5 From the above table we find that
15 ÷ 3 = 5
k = 5

Objective Type Questions

Question 8.
The value of ‘y’ in y + 7 = 13 is
(a) y = 5
(b) y = 6
(c) y = 7
(d) y = 8
Solution:
(b) y = 6

Question 9.
6 less to ‘n’ gives 8 is represented as
(a) n – 6 = 8
(b) 6 – n = 8
(c) 8 – n = 6
(d) n – 8 = 6
Solution:
(a) n – 6 = 8

Question 10.
The value of ‘c’ for which \(\frac{3c}{4}\) gives 18 is
(a) c = 15
(b) c = 21
(c) c = 24
(d) c = 27
Solution:
(c) c = 24

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.4

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The nearest 100 of 843 is _____
(ii) The nearest 1000 of 756 is ______
(iii) The nearest 10,000 of 85654 is ______
Solution:
(i) 800.
The digit in tens place is 4 < 5
(ii) 1000.
The digit in hundred places is 7 ≥ 5
(iii) 90,000.
The digit in a thousand places is 5 ≥ 5

Question 2.
Say True or False.
(i) 8567 is rounded off as 8600 to the nearest 10.
(ii) 139 is rounded off as 100 to the nearest 100.
(iii) 1,70,51,972 is rounded off as 1,70,00,000 to the nearest lakh.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) False

Question 3.
Round off the following to the given nearest place.
(i) 4065; hundred
(ii) 44,555; thousand
(iii) 86943; ten thousand
(iv) 50,81,739; lakh
(v) 33,75,98,482; Ten crore
Solution:
(i) We have to round off 4065 to hundreds
The place value is a hundred
The digit in hundreds place is 0
The digit to the right is 6 > 5
Adding 1 to 0 ⇒ 0 + 1 = 1
Changing the digits to the right of 41 to zeros
4065 \(\simeq\) 4100 ⇒ 4100

(ii) To round off 44555 to thousands
The digit in the thousands place is 4
digit to the right is 5 = 5.
Adding 1 to the thousand place value digit 4 ⇒ 4 + 1 = 5
Changing the digits to the right of 45 to zeros we get 45000
44555 \(\simeq\) 45000

(iii) To round off 86,943 to ten thousand
The digit in ten thousand places is 8
The digit to the right is 6 > 5
Adding 1 to 8 ⇒ 8 + 1 = 9.
Changing the digits to the right of 9 to zeroes we get 90,000
86943 \(\simeq\) 90,000

(iv) To round off 5081739 to lakhs
The digit in the lakhs place is 0
The digit to the right is 8 > 5
Adding 1 to 0 ⇒ 1 + 0 = 1
Changing the digits right off 51 to zeros
We get 51,00,000
5081739 \(\simeq\) 51,00,000

(v) To round off 337598482 to ten crore
The digit in the ten crores place is 3
The digit to the right is 3 < 0
The digit in ten crore place remains the same 3.
Changing the digit to the right of 3 zeros we get 30,00,00,000
33,75,98,482 \(\simeq\) 30,00,00,000

Question 4.
Estimate the sum of 157826 and 32469 rounded off to the nearest ten thousand.
Solution:

Question 5.
Estimate by rounding off each number to the nearest hundred.
(i) 8074 + 4178
(ii) 1768977 + 130589
Solution:

Question 6.
The population of a city was 43,43,645 in the year 2001 and 46,81,087 in the year 2011. Estimate the increase in population by rounding off to the nearest thousand.
Solution:
Population in 2001 = 43,43,645
Population in 2011 = 46,81,087
Increase in population = 46,81,087 – 43,43,645 = 3,37,442
When rounded off to the nearest thousand = 3,37,000

Objective Type Questions

Question 7.
The number which on rounding off to nearest thousands given 11000 is
(a) 10345
(b) 10855
(c) 11799
(d) 10056
Solution:
(b) 10855
In 10855, the digit in a hundred places is 8 ≥ 5. So 11000

Question 8.
The estimation to the nearest hundred of 76812 is
(a) 77000
(b) 76000
(c) 76800
(d) 76900
Solution:
(c) 76800

Question 9.
The number 9785764 is rounded off to nearest lakh as
(a) 9800000
(b) 9786000
(c) 9795600
(d) 9795000
Solution:
(a) 9800000
In ten thousand places, the digit is 8 5. So 9800000

Question 10.
The estimated difference of 167826 and 2765 rounded off to the nearest thousand is
(a) 180000
(b) 165000
(c) 140000
(d) 155000
Solution:
(b) 165000

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Information Processing Ex 5.1

Question 1.
Study and complete the following pattern.

Solution:

Question 2.
Find next three numbers in the following number patterns,
i) 50, 51, 53, 56, 60,…
ii) 77, 69, 61, 53,…
iii) 10, 20, 40, 80, …..
iv) \(\frac{21}{33}, \frac{321}{444}, \frac{4321}{5555}\)
Solution:
i) The pattern generating these numbers is
50, 50 + 1, 51 + 2, 53 + 3, 56 + 4, 60 + 5, 65 + 6, 71 + 7,
∴ 50, 51, 53, 56, 60, 65, 71, 78, ……
∴ The next three numbers will be 65, 71, 78

ii) The pattern generating these numbers is
77, 77 – 8, 69 – 8, 61 – 8, 53 – 8, 45 – 8, 37 – 8, 29
77, 69, 61, 53, 45, 37, 29, 21,
∴ The next three numbers will be 45, 37, 29.

iii) The pattern generating these numbers is
10, 10 + 10, 20 + 20, 40 + 40, 80 + 80, 160 + 160, 320 + 320,….
10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 320, 640,….
∴ The next three numbers will be 160, 320, 640.

iv) The pattern generating these numbers is

Question 3.
Consider the Fibonacci sequence 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55,… Observe and complete the following table by understanding the number pattern followed. After filling the table discuss the pattern followed in addition and subtraction of the numbers of the sequence.

Solution:

Question 4.
Complete the following patterns.

Solution:

Rotate the figure 90°C clockwise to get the next figure.

Solution:

* Move the circled arrow to each comer clockwise and place the square to the opposite comer of the arrow, in first row.
* Copy the first row in the second row.

Solution:

Rotate the arrow inside the square 90° anticlockwise direction so that the arrow pointing each comer anticlockwise.

Question 5.
Find HCF of the following pair of numbers by Euclid’s game.
(i) 25 and 35
(ii) 36 and 12
(iii) 15 and 29
Solution:
(i) HCF of (25, 35 – 25)
25 = 5 × 5
10 = 2 × 5
HCF of (25, 10) = 5

(ii) HCF of (36, 36 – 12)
36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
HCF of (36, 24) = 2 × 2 × 3 = 12

(iii) HCF of (15, 29 -15)
15 = 3 × 5 × 1
14 = 2 × 7 × 1
HCF of (15, 14) = 1

Question 6.
Find HCF of 48 and 28. Also find the HCF of 48 and the number Obtained by finding their difference.
Solution:

Question 7.
Give instructions to fill in a bank withdrawal form issued in a bank.
Solution:

• The name should be written in capital letters from left to right.
• Write the date of withdrawal on the right top comer of the form.
• Write the amount (in words) to be withdrawn in the space provided.
• Write the amount (in figures) to be withdrawn in the box provided.
• Put your signature at the right bottom above the ‘signature of the depositor’.

Question 8.
Arrange the name of your classmates alphabetically.
Solution:
Name of my classmates is given below.

1. Akila
2. Akshaya
3. Bharathi
4. Divya
5. Ezhil
6. Fathima
7. Gayathri
8. Hlelen
9. Irusammal
10. Joy
11. Kaviya
12. Lakshmi
13. Monika
14. Nisha
15. Olin
16. Patsy
17. Queenlin
18. Ratha
19. Sindhu
20. Vidhya

Question 9.
Follow and execute the instructions given below?
i) Write the number 10 in the place common to the three figures
ii) Write the number 5 in the place common for square and circle only.
iii) Write the number 7 in the place common for triangle and circle only.
iv) Write the number 2 in the place common for triangle and square only.
v) Write the numbers 12,14 and 8 only in square, circle and triangle respectively.

Solution:

Question 10.
Fill in the following information.

Solution:

Objective Type Questions

Question 11.
The next term in the sequence 15, 17, 20, 22, 25, is
(a) 28
(b) 29
(c) 27
(d) 26
Solution:
(c) 27

Question 12.
What will be the 25th letter in the pattern? ABCAABBCCAAABBBCCC
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
Hint:
Write A, B, C with increasing number of A, B, and C
Solution:
(a) B

Question 13.
The difference between 6th term and 5th term in the Fibonacci sequence is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 3
Solution:
(d) 3

Question 14.
The 11^th term in the Lucas sequence 1, 3, 4, 7,… is
(a) 199
(b) 76
(c) 123
(d) 47
Solution:
(a) 199

Question 15.
If the Highest Common Factor of 26 and 54 is 2, then HCF of 54 and 28 is
(a) 26
(b) 2
(c) 54
(d) 1
Solution:
(b) 2

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Statistics Ex 5.3

Question 1.
Read the given Bar Graph which shows the percentage of marks obtained by Brinda in different subjects in an assessment test.

Observe the bar graph and answer the following questions.
(i) 1 unit = ___ % of marks on vertical line.
(ii) Brinda has scored maximum marks in _____ subject.
(iii) Brinda has scored minimum marks in ______ subject.
(iv) The percentage of marks scored by Brinda in Science is _____
(v) Brinda scored 60% marks in the subject ______
(vi) Brinda scored 20% more in _______ subject than _____ subject.
Solution:
(i) 10
(ii) Mathematics
(iii) Language
(iv) 65%
(v) English
(vi) Mathematics, English

Question 2.
Chitra has to buy Laddus in order to distribute to her friends as follows:

Draw a Bar Graph for this data.
Solution:

Question 3.
The fruits liked by the students of a class are as follows:

Draw a Bar Graph for this data.
Solution:

Question 4.
The pictograph below gives the number of absentees on different days of the week in class six. Draw the Bar graph for the same.

Solution:

Objective Type Questions

Question 5.
A bar graph can be drawn using
(a) Horizontal bars only
(b) Vertical bars only
(c) Both horizontal bars and Vertical bars
(d) Either horizontal bars or vertical bars
Solution:
(d) Either horizontal bars or vertical bars

Question 6.
The spaces between any two bars in a bar graph _____
(a) can be different
(b) are the same
(c) are not the same
(d) all of these
Solution:
(b) are the same

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.3

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Every even number greater than 2 can be expressed as the sum of two prime numbers. Verify this statement for every even number up to 16.
Solution:
Even numbers greater then 2 upto 16 are 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14 and 16
4 = 2 + 2
6 = 3 + 3
8 = 3 + 5
10 = 3 + 7 (or) 5 + 5
12 = 5 + 7
14 = 7 + 7 (or) 3 + 11
16 = 5 + 11 (or) 3 + 13

Question 2.
Is 173 a prime? Why?
Solution:
yes, because it has two factors.

Question 3.
For which of the numbers, from n = 2 to 8, is 2n – 1 a prime?
Solution:

For n = 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7 it is prime.

Question 4.
Explain your answer with the reason for the following statements.
(i) A number is divisible by 9, if it is divisible by 3.
(ii) A number is divisible by 6, if it is divisible by 12.
Solution:
(i) False 42 is divisible by 3 but it is not divisible by 9
(ii) True 36 is divisible by 12. Also divisible by 6.

Question 5.
Find A as required
(i) The greatest 2 digit number 9A is divisible by 2.
(ii) The least number 567A is divisible by 3.
(iii) The greatest 3 digit number 9A6 is divisible by 6.
(iv) The number A08 is divisible by 4 and 9.
(v) The number 225A85 is divisible by 11.
Solution:
(i) A number is divisible by 2 if it is an even number.
Greatest 2 digit even number is 98.
∴ A = 8

(ii) A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3
Sum of digits of 567A = 5 + 6 + 7+ A = 18 + A
∴ 18 is divisible by 3
∴ A maybe 0
The number will be 5670

(iii) A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 2 and 3
9A6 is even and so divisible by 2
If A = 9 then the sum of digits will be = 24 which is divisible by 3.
The number will be 996 and A = 9

(iv) 08 is divisible by 4, so A08 is divisible by 4.
If A = 1 then the sum of digits will be 9 which is divisible by 9.
The number will be 108 and A = 1

(v) 5 + A + 2 – (8 + 5 + 2) = 7 + A – 15 = -8 + A
∴ A = 8

Question 6.
Numbers divisible by 4 and 6 are divisible by 24. Verify this statement and support your answer with an example.
Solution:
False 12 is divisible by both 4 and 6. But not divisible by 24

Question 7.
The sum of any two successive odd numbers ir always divisible by 4. Justify this statement with an example.
Solution:
True.
The sum of any two consecutive odd numbers is divisible by 4
For example 11 + 13 = 24, divisible by 4
Also, all the consecutive odd numbers are of the form 4n + 1 or 4n + 3
Their sum = 4x + 4 which is divisible by 4.

Question 8.
Find the length of the longest rope that can be used to measure exactly the ropes of length lm 20 cm, 3m 60 cm and 4 m.
Solution:
Length of ropes are 4 m, 3 m 60 cm and lm 20 cm = 400 cm, 360 cm, 120 cm
Finding HCF (400, 360, 120)
10, 9 and 3 has no common divisor
HCF (400, 360, 120) = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 = 40
The length of the rope will be 40 cm

Challenge Problems

Question 9.
The sum of three prime numbers is 80. The difference of two of them is 4. Find the numbers.
Solution:
Three prime numbers 2, 37, 41
Sum 2 + 37+ 41 = 80
The difference between two of them 41 – 37 = 4

Question 10.
Find the sum of all the prime numbers between 10 and 20 and check whether that sum is divisible by all the single-digit numbers.
Solution:
Prime numbers between 10 and 20 are 11, 13, 17 and 19
Sum = 11 + 13 + 17 + 19 = 60
60 is divisible by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

Question 11.
Find the smallest number which is exactly divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 9.
Solution:
To find the smallest number we have to Find the LCM (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9)
LCM is 2 × 3 × 2 × 5 × 7 × 2 × 3 = 2520
The required number is 2520

Question 12.
The product of any three consecutive number is always divisible by 6. Justify this statement with an example.
Solution:
2 × 3 × 4 = 24 is divisible by 6.

Question 13.
Malarvizhi, Karthiga and Anjali are friends and natives of the same village. They work in different places. Malarvizhi comes to her home once in 5 days. Similarly, Karthiga and Anjali come to their homes once in 6 days and 10 days respectively. Assuming that they met each other on the 1st of October, when will all the three again?
Solution:
Find the LCM (5, 6, 10)
LCM (15, 25, 30) = 5 × 6 = 30
They meet again after 30 days
∴ They met on 1st October
They will meet again on 31st October

Question 14.
In an apartment consisting of 108 floors, two lifts A & B starting from the ground floor, stop at every 3rd and 5 th floors respectively. On which floors, will both of them stop together?
Solution:
LCM of 3 and 5 = 3 × 5 = 15
The lifts stop together at floors 15, 30, 45, 60, 75, 90 and 105.

Question 15.
The product of 2 two-digit numbers is 300 and their HCF is 5. What are the numbers?
Solution:
Given that HCF of 2 numbers is 5
The numbers may like 5x and 5y
Also given their product = 300
5x × 5y = 300
⇒ 25xy = 300
⇒ \(x y=\frac{300}{25}\)
⇒ xy = 12
The possible values of x andy be (1, 12) (2, 6) (3, 4)
The numbers will be (5x, 5y)
⇒ (5 × 1, 5 × 12) = (5, 60)
⇒ (5 × 2, 5 × 6) = (10, 30)
⇒ (5 × 3, 5 × 4) = (15, 20)
(5, 60) is impossible because the given the numbers are two digit numbers.
The remaining numbers are (10, 30) and (15, 20)
But given that HCF is 5
(10, 30) is impossible, because its HCF = 10
The numbers are 15, 20

Question 16.
Find whether the number 564872 is divisible by 88?
Solution:
564872 Divisibility by 8
564872 It is divisible by 8
Divisibility by 11
5 + 4 + 7 = 16
6 + 8 + 2 = 16
16 – 16 = 0
It is divisible by both 8 and 11 and hence divisible by 88.

Question 17.
Wilson, Mathan and Guna can complete one round of a circular track in 10, 15 and 20 minutes respectively. If they start together at 7 a.m from the starting point, at what time will they meet together again at the starting point?
Solution:
LCM (10, 15, 20) = 60
∴ They will meet at 8 a.m

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Perimeter and Area Ex 3.1

Question 1.
The table given below contains some measures of the rectangle. Find the unknown values.

Solution:
(i) Area of the rectangle = (length × breadth) sq unit.
Perimeter of a rectangle = 2(1 + b) units.
l = 5 cm
b = 8 cm
∴ p = 2 (l + b) cm = 2 (5 + 8) cm = 2 × 13 cm
p = 26 cm
Area = (l × b) cm² = (5 × 8) cm²
A = 40 cm²

(ii) l = 13 cm
p = 54 cm
Perimeter = 2 (l + b) units
54 = 2 (13 + b) cm
\(\frac{54}{2}\) = 13 + b
27 = 13 + b
b = 27 – 13
b = 14 cm
Area = l × b sq. unit = 13 × 14 cm²
A = 182 cm²

(iii) b = 15 cm
p = 60 cm
p = 2 (l + b) units
60 = 2 (l + 15) cm
\(\frac{60}{2}\) = l + 15
30 = l + 15
l = 30 – 15 .
l = 15 cm
Area = l × b unit² = 15 × 15 cm² = 225 cm²
A = 225 cm²

(iv) l = 10 m
Area = 120 sq metre
Area = l × b sq.m
120 = 10 × 6
b = \(\frac{120}{10}\)
b = 12 m
Perimeter =2 (l + b) units = 2(10 + 12) units = 2 × 22 m
A = 44 m

(v) b = 4 feet.
Area = 20 sq. feet
Area = l × b sq .feet
20 = l × 4
l = \(\frac{20}{4}\) feet
l = 5 feet
Perimeter = 2 (l + b) units.
p = 2 (5 + 4) feet = 2 × 9
p = 18 feet
Completing the unknown values in the table.

Question 2.
The table given below contains some measures of the square. Find the unknown values.

Solution:
Perimeter of a square = (4 × side) units
Area of a square = (side × side) unit²
(i) s = 6 cm
Perimeter = 4s units = 4 × 6 cm = 24 cm
P = 24 cm
Area = s × s unit² = 6 × 6 cm² = 36 cm²
A = 36 cm²

(ii) Perimeter = 4 × s unit
100 = (4 × s) m
\(\frac{100}{4}\) = s
s = 25 m
Area = s × s unit²= 25 × 25 m² = 625m²
A = 625m²

(iii) Area = s × s unit²
49 = s × s square feet
s² = 7²
s = 7 feet
Perimeter = 4 × s unit = 4 × 7 feet = 28 feet
Perimeter = 28 feet
Completing the unknown values in the table

Question 3.
The table given below contains some measures of the triangle. Find the unknown values.

Solution:
Area of the right triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (base × height) unit²
(i) b = 20 cm
h = 40 cm
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (b × h) cm² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 20 × 40 = 400 cm²
A = 400 cm²

(ii) b = 5 feet
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × b × h unit²
= 20 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 5 × h sq. feet
\(\frac{20 \times 2}{5}\) = h
h = 8 feet

(iii) Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (base × height) unit²
24 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × b × 12 m²
base = \(\frac{24 \times 2}{12}\) m = 4 m
Base = 4m
Tabulating the unknown values

Question 4.
The table given below contains some measures of the triangles. Find the unknown values.

Solution:
Perimeter of a triangle = sum of three sides.
(i) Perimeter = 6 + 5 + 2 cm = 13 cm
p = 13 cm

(ii) Perimeter = (side 1 + side 2 + side 3) m
17 = (side 1 + 8 + 3) m
17 m = (side 1 + 11) m
side 1 = 17 – 11 = 6m

(iii) Perimeter = side 1 + side 2 + side 3
28 feet = 11 feet + side 2 + 9 feet
28 ft = 20 feet + side 2
28 – 20 = side 2
side = 8 feet
Tabulating the unknowns.

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks.
i) 5 cm² = mm²
Hint: 1 cm² = 100 mm²
ii) 26 m² = cm²
Hint: 1 m² = 10000
iii) 8 km² = m²
Hint 4 1 km²– 1000000 m²
Solution:
(i) 500
(ii) 2,60,000
(iii) 80,00,000

Question 6.
Find the perimeter and area of the following shapes.

Solution:
(i) Perimeter = (4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4) cm = 48 cm
Perimeter = 48 cm
Area of 5 squares of side 4 cm
Area of a square = (side × side) unit²
∴ A = 5 × (4 × 4) cm² = 5 × 16 cm2 = 80 cm²
80 cm²

(ii) Perimeter = (4 + 5 + 4 + 5 + 4 + 5 + 4 + 5)cm = 36cm
Perimeter = 36 cm
Area of a square of side 3cm + Area of 4 right triangles
= (3 × 3) + [4 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 4 × 3] cm² = (9 + 24) cm² = 33 cm²
Area = 33 cm²

(iii) Perimeter = (50 + 12 + 13 + 40 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 5) cm = 150 cm
Perimeter = 150 cm
Area = Area of a rectangle + Area of a square + Area of a right triangle.
= (l × b) + (s × s) + ( \(\frac{1}{2}\) × b × h) cm²
= (50 × 5) + (10 × 10) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12 × 5) cm²
= (250 + 100 + 30) cm² = 380 cm²
Area = 380 cm²

Question 7.
Find the perimeter and area of the rectangle whose length is 6 m and breadth 4 m.
Solution:
l = 6 m, b = 4 m Perimeter of the rectangle
= 2 (l + b) units
= 2 (6 + 4) m
= 2 (10) m
= 20 m
Area of the rectangle = l × b sq units
= 4 × 6 m²
= 24 m²

Question 8.
Find the perimeter and the area of the square whose side is 8 cm.
Solution:
Perimeter of a square = (4 × side) units
Side = 8 cm
∴ Perimeter = 4 × 8 cm = 32 cm
Perimeter = 32 cm
Area of a square = (side × side) unit² = (8 × 8) cm² = 64 cm²
Area = 64 cm²

Question 9.
Find the perimeter and area of the right angled triangle whose sides are 6 feet, 8 feet and 10 feet.
Solution:
Perimeter of the triangle
= (a + b + c) units
= (6 + 8 + 10) feet
= 24 feet
Area of the triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × b × h sq units
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 6³× 8 feet square
= 24 sq. feet

Question 10.
Find the perimeter of
i) A scalene triangle with sides 7 m, 8 m, 10 m
ii) An isosceles triangle with equal sides 10 cm each and third side is 7 cm.
iii) An Equilateral triangle with side 6 cm.
Solution:
i) Perimeter of a scalene triangle = (7 + 8 + 10) m = 25 m
ii) The three sides of the isosceles triangle are 10 cm, 10 cm and 7 cm
∴ Perimeter = (10 + 10 + 7) cm = 27 cm
iii) An equilateral triangle with side 6 cm.
The sides of equilateral triangle are 6 cm, 6 cm and 6 cm
∴ Perimeter = (6 + 6 + 6) cm = 18 cm

Question 11.
The area of a rectangular shaped photo is 820 sq. cm. and its width is 20 cm. What is its length? Also find its perimeter.
Solution:
Given Area = 820 cm²
Width = 20 cm
Area of the rectangle
= l × b sq. units
820 = l × 20
\(\frac{820}{20}\) = l
41 = l
length l = 41 cm
Perimeter = 2(l + b) units
= 2(41 + 20) cm
= 2(61) cm
= 122 cm

Question 12.
A square park has 40 m as its perimeter. What is the length of its side? Also find its area.
Solution:
Given perimeter = 40 m
Perimeter of a square = 4 × Length of a side
40 = 4 × Length of a side
∴ Length of its side = \(\frac{40}{4}\) m = 0 m
∴ Side of the park = 10m
Area of a square = (Side × side) unit² = (10 × 10) m² = 100 m²
∴ Area of the Park = 100 m²

Question 13.
The scalene triangle has 40 cm as its perimeter and whose two sides are 13 cm and 15 cm, find the third side.
Solution:
Let the third side be C
perimeter = (a + b + c) units
40 = 13 + 15 + C
40 = 28 + C
C = 40 – 28
C = 12 units
C = 12 cm

Question 14.
A field is in the shape of right angled triangle whose base is 25 m and height 20 m. Find the cost of levelling the field at the rate of ₹ 45/- per sq. m.
Solution:
Area of a right angled triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (base × height) unit²
base = 25 m
height = 20 m
∴ Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (25 × 20)
Area = 250 m²
Cost of levelling per m² = ₹ 45.
∴ Cost of levelling 250 m² = 250 × 45 = ₹ 11,250
Cost of levelling = ₹ 11,250

Question 15.
A square of side 2 cm is joined with a rectangle of length 15 cm and breadth 10 cm. Find the perimeter of the combined shape.
Solution:
Perimeter of the combined shape = Lengths of the outer boundaries
= (15 + 10 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 13 + 10) cm = 54 cm
Perimeter = 54 cm

Objective Type Questions

Question 16.
The following figures are of equal area. Which figure has the least perimeter?

Solution:

Hint:
(a) 12 units
(b) 10 units
(c) 12 units
(d) 12 units

Question 17.
If two identical rectangles of perimeter 30 cm are joined together, then the perimeter of the new shape will be
(a) equal to 60 cm
(b) less than 60 cm
(c) greater than 60 cm
(d) equal to 45 cm
Solution:
(b) less than 60 cm
Hint:

Question 18.
If every side of a rectangle is doubled, then its area becomes times.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Solution:
(c) 4

Question 19.
The side of a square is 10 cm. If its side is tripled, then by how many times will its perimeter increase?
(a) 2 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 6 times
(d) 3 times
SolutionL
(d) 3 times
30 × 4 = 120 = 3 × 40

Question 20.
The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet of a paper are 15 cm and 12 cm respectively. A rectangular piece is cut from one of its corners. Which of the following statement is correct for the remaining sheet?
(a) Perimeter remains the same but the area changes
(b) Area remains the same but the perimeter changes
(c) There will be a change in both area and perimeter
(d) Both the area and perimeter remains the same
Solution:
(c) There will be a change in both area and perimeter
Hint:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Globe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Textual Evaluation

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. The line of latitude which is known as the Great Circle is __________
2. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth from the West to East are called __________
3. The 90° lines of latitude on the Earth are called __________
4. The Prime Meridian is also called __________
5. The world is divided into time zones __________ time zone

Answer:

1. Equator
2. Parallels of latitude
3. North Pole and South Pole
4. Greenwich Meridian
5. 24

II. Choose the best answer :

1. The shape of the Earth is _______.
(a) Square
(b) Rectangle
(c) Geoid
(d) Circle
Answer:
(c) Geoid

Question 2.
The North Pole is ……………..
(a) 90° N Latitude
(b) 90° S latitude
(c) 90° W Longitude
(d) 90° E longitude
Answer:
(a) 90° N Latitude

Question 3.
The area found between 0° and 180° E lines of longitude is called _______.
(a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Western Hemisphere
(c) Northern Hemisphere
(d) Eastern Hemisphere
Answer:
(d) Eastern Hemisphere

Question 4.
The 23 1/2° N line of latitude is called ……………..
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle
Answer:
(b) Tropic of Cancer

Question 5.
180° line of longitude is _______.
(a) Equator
(b) International Date Line
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) North Pole
Answer:
(b) International Date Line

Question 6.
The Sun is found overhead the Greenwich Meridian at ……………..
(a) 12 midnight
(b) 12 noon
(c) 1 p.m.
(d) 11 a.m.
Answer:
(b) 12 noon

Question 7.
A day has _____.
(a) 1240 minutes
(b) 1340 minutes
(c) 1440 minutes
(d) 1140 minutes
Answer:
(c) 1440 minutes

Question 8.
Which of the following lines of longitude is considered for the Indian Standard Time?
(a) 82 1/2° E
(b) 82 1/2° W
(c) 81 1/2° WE
(d) 81 1/2° W
Answer:
(a) 82 1/2° E

Question 9.
The total number of lines of latitude are ________
(a) 171
(b) 161
(c) 181
(d) 191
Answer:
(c) 181

Question 10.
The total number of lines of longitude are ……………
(a) 370
(b) 380
(c) 360
(d) 390
Answer:
(c) 360

III. Circle the odd one

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

V. Examine the following statements :

1. The Earth is spherical in shape.
2. The shape of the Earth is called a geoid.
3. The Earth is flat.

Look at the options given below and choose the correct answer.
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(c) 1 and 2 are correct

VI. Examine the following statements :

Statement I : The lines of latitude on Earth are used to find the location of a place and define the heat zones on Earth.
Statement II: The lines of longitudes on Earth are used to find the location of a place and to calculate time.
Choose the correct option :
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

VII. Name the following :

1. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth.
2. The imaginary lines drawn vertically on Earth.
3. The three dimensional model of the Earth.
4. India is located in this hemisphere based on lines of longitude.
5. The network of lines of latitude and longitude.

Answer:

1. Latitudes
2. Longitudes
3. globe
4. Eastern hemisphere
5. Earth grid

VIII. Answer Briefly :

Question 1.
What is a geoid?
Answer:

1. The Earth cannot be compared with any other geometrical shape as it has a very unique shape.
2. Hence, its shape is called a geoid (earth shaped).

Question 2.
What is local time?
Answer:

1. The time in a particular region or area expressed, with reference to the meridian passing through it. (or)
2. When the sun is overhead on a particular line of longitude, it is 12 noon at all the places located on that line of longitude. This is called local time.

Question 3.
How many times would the sun pass overhead a line of longitude?
Answer:
The sun is overhead on a line of longitude only once a day.

Question 4.
What are lines of latitude and longitude?
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines that run east and west direction on the Earth are called lines or parallels of latitude
2. The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North pole and the south pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.

Question 5.
Name the four hemispheres of the Earth.
Answer:

1. Northern Hemisphere,
2. Southern Hemisphere,
3. Eastern Hemisphere and
4. Western Hemisphere.

IX. Give Reasons :

Question 1.
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:

1. All nations of the world agreed to have the Greenwich Meridian as the international Standard Meridian (0°).
2. This line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian and it is also known as the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 V20) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone
Answer:
This region receives very slanting rays of the sun. The temperature is very low. Hence, this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:

1. The International Date line is not straight.
2. If the line is drawn straight, two places in the same country world have different dates.
3. So the International Date line is found zigzag in certain places to avoid confusion.

IX. Give reason:

Question 1.
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:

1. All nations of the world agreed to have the Greenwich Meridian as the international Standard Meridian (0°).
2. This line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian and it is also known as the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 Vi°) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone.
Answer:

1. From the Arctic circle (66 ‘A° N) to the North Pole (90° N) and from the Antarctic circle (66 Vi0 S) to the South Pole (90° S) the sun’s rays full further inclined, through „ out the year.
2. The temperature is very low.
3. Hence this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:

1. The International Date line is not straight.
2. If the line is drawn straight, two places in the same country world have different dates.
3. So the International Date line is found zigzag in certain places to avoid confusion.

X. Answer in detail :

Question 1
What are the uses of globe?
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is huge and we live on a very area, we are not able to see the Earth as a whole.
2. But when we travel to space, we can see the Earth as a whole.
3. So, in order to see the shape of the Earth as a whole and to know its unique features, a three dimensional model of the Earth was created with a specific scale in the name of globe.

Question 2.
How are the hemispheres divided on the basis of lines of latitude and longitude?
Explain with diagrams.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the significant lines of latitude? Explain the zones found between them,
Answer:
The significant lines of latitude are
(a) Equator – 0°
(b) Tropic of Cancer – 23 1/2°N
(c) Tropic of Capricorn – 23 1/2°S
(d) Antarctic Circle – 66 1/2°S
(e) Arctic Circle – 66 1/2°N
(f) North Pole – 90°N
(g) South Pole – 90°S.

(i) Torrid zone:
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer (231A°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 40S) is called the Torrid Zone.

(ii) Temperate zone:
From the Tropic of Cancer (23!/2°N) to the Arctic Circle (661/2°N) and from the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 0S) to the Antarctic Circle (661/2°S), the Sun’s rays fall slantingly. Moderate temperature prevails in this region. Hence, this region is called Temperate Zone.

(iii) Frigid zone:
From the Arctic Circle (66 1/2°N) to the North Pole (90°N) and from the Antarctic Circle (66 1/2 0S) to the South Pole (90°S), the Sun’s rays fall further inclined, throughout the year. Hence, this region is called Frigid Zone.

Question 4.
Explain; Indian Standard Time.
Answer:

1.  The longitudinal extend of India is from 68° 7’E to 97° 25’E
2. As many as twenty nine lines of longitude pass through India.
3. Having 29 standard time is not logical.
4. Hence 821/2° E line of longitude is observed as the prime meridian to calculate the Indian standard Time.

XI. Activity :

Question 1.
There are five positions marked on the grid given below. Look at them carefully and fill the blanks with reference to the lines of latitude and longitude. The first one is done for you.

1. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point A 40° N 30° W
   
2. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point B 2Q°N 1Q° W.
3. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point C 10° N 20° E.
4. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point D 40° S 50° E,
5. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point E 20° S 20°. W.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe IntextActivities

Question 1.
What is the difference in time between the GMT and 1ST?
Answer:
Indian Standard Time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
Eg: 7:15 a.m. GMT is 12:45 p.m. 1ST (that is GMT + 5 hrs and 30 min.

Question 2.
If it is 5 a.m. at New York City, USA. what would be the time at New Delhi, the capital of India?
Answer:
If it is 5 a.m. at New York City, USA., then the time at New Delhi would be 3:30 p.m. (India time is 10 hours and 30 minutes ahead New York, United States).

Question 3.
If it is 12 Midnight at London, what would be the time in India?
Answer:
If it is 12 Midnight at London, then the time in India would be 5:30 a.m.

Question 4.
The standard time of Sydney city in Australia is found to be at a difference of _____ hours from that of the GMT.
Answer:
10 Hours. It is according to Australian Eastern Standard Time, (GMT+10). But during Summer, it will be 11 Hours. (GMT+11).

Question 5.
Mr. Senthamizh travels by flight from Chennai to London. He boarded the aeroplane at 9a.m After 12 hours of travel, at what time (GMT) would he have reach London?
Answer:
He would reach London at 3.30 p.m. GMT.

Question 6.
Based on the longitudinal extent, in which hemisphere is our country located? Look at the globe and answer.
Answer:
Based on the longitudinal extent, our country is located in Eastern hemisphere

HOTS

Question 1.
Based on the latitudinal extent, in which hemisphere is India located?
Answer:
Based on the latitudinal extent, our country is located in Northern hemisphere

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Additional Questions:

I. Fill In the blanks:

1. When we travel to space, we can see the ______ as Whole
2. The Earth is ______ at the poles.
3. The Earth bulges at the ______
4. The Earth moves around the ______
5. The Earth rotates from the ______
6. The Earth is inclined on its axis at an inclination of ______
7. The first globe was created by the ______
8. Aryabhatta wrote ______
9. The first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude was ______
10. Geographia’ was written by ______
11. The latitudinal extent between 1° line of latitude on Earth is ______
12. The sun’s rays ______ equally on all parts of the earth.
13. The lines of longitude converge at the ______
14. Two opposite meridians form a ______
15. Based on the longitudinal extent, India is located in the ______
16. The Royal Astronomical observatory is located in ______
17. The sun is overhead on a line of longitude a day ______
18. The word meridian is derived from the Latin word ______
19. Local time is calculated when the sun is ______
20. Russia has time zones ______

Answer:

1. Earth
2. Flat
3. Equator
4. Sun
5. West to East
6. 23 1/2°
7. Greeks
8. Aryabhatta Siddhanta
9. Ptolemy
10. 111 km
11. do not fall
12. Poles
13. Great-circle
14. hemisphere.
15. Eastern
16. England
17. only once
18. Meridianus
19. Overhead at noon
20. 7

II. Choose the best answer :

Question 1.
The Earth is ____
(a) Oval shaped
(b) Flat
(c) Spherical shaped
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(c) Spherical shaped

Question 2.
The latitude which divides the Earth into two halves
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Equator
Answer:
(d) Equator

Question 3.
Tropic of Cancer is Otherwise called as ……………..
(a) Kadagavari
(b) Nilanaduvarai
(c) Magaravarai
Answer:
(a) Kadagavari

Question 4.
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer, is known as .
(a) Torrid Zone
(b) Temperate Zone
(c) Frigid Zone
(d) Heat Zone
Answer:
(a) Torrid Zone

Question 5.
The International Meridian Conference (1884) was held in ……………..
(a) Canada
(b) Mexico
(c) Washington DC
Answer:
(c) Washington DC

III. Circle the odd one :

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

1. iv
2. v
3. i
4. ii
5. iii

V. Examine the following statements :

a.When you move towards the East from any meridian the time increases.
b.When you move towards the West from any meridian the line decreases.
c.The earth rotates from West to East on its own axis.

Look at the options given below and ehoose the correct answer,

1. a and c are correct
2. b and c are correct
3. a and b are correct
4. a, b, c are correct

Answer:
(4) a, b, c are correct

VI. Examine the following statements :
Statement I : The 180° line of longitude has been fixed as the International Date of Line, drawn on the Pacific Ocean between Alaska and Russia through Bering Strait.
Statement II : The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and the 180° East line of longitude is known as Western Hemisphere.
Choose the correct option :
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II is correct
(c) Both the statements are wrong
(d) Both the statements are correct
Answer:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong

VII. Name the following :

1. 0° latitude.
2. 23 1/2°S latitude.
3. 23 1/2°N latitude.
4. 66 1/2°S latitude.
5. 66 1/2°N latitude.

Answer:

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Capricorn
3. Tropic of Cancer
4. Antarctic Circle
5. Arctic Circle

VIII. Answer Briefly:

Question 1.
What was mentioned by Aryabhatta in his book?
Answer:
In his ‘Aryabhatta Sidhanta’ Aryabhatta mentioned that the stars in the sky seems to move towards the West because of the Earth’s rotation on its axis.

Question 2.
Who was Ptolemy?
Answer:

1. Ptolemy was a Greco – Roman mathematician, astronomer and geographer.
2. He was the first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude on a map.

Question 3.
Mention about ‘Geographia’.
Answer:

1. Geographia was authored by Ptolemy.
2. He gave a detailed description about the Earth’s surface to size and circumference.
3. He also mentioned about many locations based on the lines of latitude and longitude

Question 4.
How many parallels are found on the Earth?
Answer:

1. The lines of latitude consist of 89 parallels in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. There are 89 parallels in the Southern Hemisphere.
3. One at the Equal and the two poles are found as points.
4. Totally there are 181 parallels found on earth.

Question 5.
What are called meridians of longitude?
Answer:
The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North Pole and the South Pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.

Question 6.
What is a Prime Meridian?
Answer:
The 0° line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian.

Question 7.
What are Western Longitudes?
Answer:
The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian (0°) and 180° West line of longitude are called Western longitude.

Question 8.
What is known as Eastern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longtitude and the 180° East line of longtitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.

Question 9.
What is GMT?
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time : GMT is the mean solar time at the Royal observatory in Greenwich, London, reckoned from midnight.

Question 10.
How many time zones are there in the USA?
Answer:
The United States is spread across six time zones. From west to east, they are Hawaii, Alaska, Pacific, Mountain, Central and Eastern.

Question 11.
How many time zones in Europe, Africa, Australia and Asia.
Answer:

1. Europe – 11 time zones
2. Africa – 6 times zones
3. Australia – 3 time zones
4. Asia – 11 time zones

Question 12.
What is the time difference between

1. India and Greenwich Mean Time
2. India and U.S.A
3. India and Dubai
4. India and Australia.

Answer:

1. India is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
2. India is 10 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Washington, DC, U.S.A.
3. India is 1 hour and 30 minutes a head of Dubai.
4. Australia is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of India. (Canberra Act)

IX. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
The length of the lines of latitude decreases from the equator.
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is geoid shaped, the length of the lines of latitude decreases from the Equator towards the South and North Poles.
2. The 90° North and South Poles are not found as lines but as points.

Question 2.
All the places on earth do not have the same amount of temperature.
Answer:

1. The Sun’s rays do not fall equally on all parts of the earth.
2. They fall vertically over the equator and slanting towards the poles.
3. Thus all the places on earth do not have the same amount of temperature

Question 3.
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer (23‘/2°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23!4°S) is called Torrid Zone.
Answer:

1. The Sun’s rays fall vertically over this region and the average temperature is very high.
2. Hence this region is known as the Torrid Zone.

X. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note an Latitudes.
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines which are drawn horizontally on East – West direction on the Earth are called the lines or parallels of latitudes.
2. The 0° line of latitude which divides the Earth into two halves is known as the Equator.
3. From the equator, parallel lines are drawn towards the North and South Poles at equal intervals.
4. The latitudinal extent between 1° line of latitude on Earth is 111 km.
5. Since the Earth is geoid shaped, the length of the lines of latitude decreases from the equator towards the south and North poles.
6. The lines of latitude that are drawn horizontally between the equator and the North Pole are called Northern latitudes.
7. Those which are found between the equator and the South Pole are called Southern Latitudes.
8. The area of the Earth found between the Equator (0°) and the North Pole (90°N) is called the Northern Hemisphere.
9. The area of the Earth from the equator (0°) to the South Pole (90°S) is called the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
Write a note on Longitudes.
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North Pole and the South Pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.
2. These lines of longitude are seen as semi circles.
3. The 09 line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian.
4. There are 180 lines of longitude towards the East and West from the Prime Meridian.
5. So there are totally 360 lines of longitude.
6. These lines converge at the poles. The 180°W and 180°E line of longitude are the same line.
7. The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian and the 180° East line of longitude are called Eastern Longitudes.
8. The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian (0°) and the 180° West line of longitude are called Western Longitudes.
9. The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and the 180° East line of longitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.
10. The part of the Earth from 09 line of longitude to 180° West line of longitude is called Western Hemisphere.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 The Post-Mauryan India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Post-Mauryan India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The last Mauryan emperor was killed by
(a) Pushyamitra
(b) Agnimitra
(c) Vasudeva
(d) Narayana
Answer:
(a) Pushyamitra

Question 2.
…………… was the founder of Satavahana dynasty.
(a) Simuka
(b) Satakarani
(c) Kanha
(d) Sivasvati
Answer:
(a) Simuka

Question 3.
was the greatest of all the Kushana emperors.
(a) Kanishka
(c) Kadphises II
(b) Kadphises I
(d) Pan-Chiang
Answer:
(a) Kanishka

Question 4.
The Kantara School of Sanskrit flourished in the …………… during 2nd century BC.
(a) Deccan
(b) north-west India
(c) Punjab
(d) Gangetic Valley
Answer:
(b) north-west India

Question 5.
Sakas ruled over Gandhara region
(a) Sirkap
(b) Taxila
(c) Mathura
(d) Purushpura
Answer:
(a) Sirkap

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Colonies of Indo-Greeks and Indo-Parthians were established along the north-western part of India.
Reason (R) : The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually intermarried anti intermixed with the indigenous population.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Indo-Greek rulers introduced die system and produced coins with
inscription and symbols, engraving figures on them.
Statement II : Indo-Greek rule was ended by the Kushanas.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b.Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong, but a statement I is correct

Question 3.
Circle the odd one
Pushyamitra, Vasudeva, Simuka, Kanishka
Reason:

1. All of the three generals assassinated their kings.
2. Kanishka followed Buddhism, whereas the other three rulers were not followers of Buddhism.

Question 4.
Answer the following in a word

1. Who was the last Sunga ruler?
2. Who was the most important and famous king of Sakas?
3. Who established Kanva dynasty in Magadha?
4. Who converted Gondophemes into Christianity?

Answer:

1. Devabhtu
2. Vasudeva
3. Vasudeva
4. St.Thomas

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. was the founder of Indo-Parthian Kingdom.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after death.
3. Hala is famous as the author of
4. was the last ruler of Kanva dynasty
5. Kushana’s later capital was

Answer:

1. Gonduphres
2. Asokas
3. Sattasai
4. Susarma
5. Peshavar or Purushpura

IV. State whether True or False

1. Magadha continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture even after the fall of the Mauryan Empire.
2. We get much information about Kharavela from Hathigumba inscription.
3. Simuka waged a successful war against Magadha.
4. Buddhacharita was written by Asvaghosha.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

V. Match the following :

1. Patanjali -1.Kalinga
2. Agnimitra – 2. Indo-Greek
3. King Kharavela – 3.Indo-Parthians
4. Demetrius – 4. Second grammarian
5. Gondophemes – 5. Malavikagnimitra

Answer:

1. 4
2. 5
3. 1
4. 2
5. 3

VI. Find out the wrong statement from the following

1. The Kushanas formed a section of the yueh-chi tribes who inhabited north-western China.
2. Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.
3. The Great Stupa of Sanchi and the railings which enclose it belong to the Sunga period.
4. Pan-Chiang was the Chinese general defeated by Kanishka.

Answer:

2. Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.

VII. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What happened to the last Mauryan emperor?
Answer:

1. The last Mauryan emperor, Brihadratha, was assassinated by his own general, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. He established his Sunga dynasty in Magadha.

Question 2.
Write a note on Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
Answer:
Agnimitra is said to be the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra (Agnimitra was the son of Pushyamitra)

Question 3.
Name the ruler of Kanva dynasty.
Answer:

1. The Kanva dynasty produced four kings and their rule lasted only for 45 years.
2. The Kanvas rulers were
   • Vasudeva
   • Bhumi Mitra
   • Narayana
   • Susarman

Question 4.
Highlight the literary achievements of Satavahanas.
Answer:

1. The Satavahana king Hala was himself a great scholar of Sanskrit.
2. Hala is famous as the author of Sattasai (Saptasati) 700 stanzas in Prakrit.

Question 5.
Name the places where Satavahana’s monuments are situated.
Answer:

1. Gandhara, Mathura, Amaravati, Bodha Gaya, Sanchi and Bharhut were known for splendid monuments and art.
2. The Mathura School of Sculpture produced images and life-size statues of the Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain deities.

Question 6.
Give an account of the achievements of Kadphises I.
Answer:

1. Kadphises I was the first military and political leader of the Kushanas.
2. He overthrew the Indo-Greek and Indo-Parthian rulers.
3. He established himself as a sovereign ruler of Bactria.
4. He extended his power in Kabul, Gandhara and upto Indus.

Question 7.
Name the Buddhist saints and scholars who adorned the court of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka was an ardent Buddhist.
2. His court was adorned with a number of Buddhist saints and scholars, like Asvaghosha, Vasumitra and Nagarjuna.

VIII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Who invaded India after the decline of the Mauryan empire?
Answer:

1. The break-up of Mauiyan empire resulted in the invasions of Sakas, Scythians, Parthians, Indo-Greeks or Bactria Greeks and Kushanas from the north-west.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after Asoka’s death.
3. There were Sunga and Kanvas in the north before the emergence of Gupta dynasty.
4. Chedis (Kalinga) declared t heir independence.
5. Though Magadha ceased to be the premier state of India, it continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture.

Question 2.
Give an account of the conquests of Pushyamitra Sunga.
Answer:

1. Pushyamitra Sunga established his Sunga dynasty in Magadha.
2. He extended his kingdom westward to include Ujjain and Vidisha.
3. He successfully repulsed the invasion of Bactria king.
4. He thwarted an attack from the Kalinga king, Kharavela.
5. He also conquered Vidarbha.

Question 3.
Write a note on GautamiputraSatakarni.
Answer:

1. GautamiputraSatakarni was the greatest ruler of the family .
2. In the Nasik prashasti, published by his mother GautamiBalasri, Gautamiputra Satakami is described as the destroyer of Sakas, Yavanas (Greeks) and Pahlavas (Parthians).
3. The extent of the empire is also mentioned in the record.
4. Their domain included Maharashtra, north Konkan, Berar, Gujarat, Kathiawar and Malwa.
5. His ship coins are suggestive of Andhras’ skill in seafaring and their naval power.
6. The Bogor inscriptions suggest that South India played an important role in the process of early state formation in Southeast Asia.

Question 4.
What do you know of Gondopharid dynasty?
Answer:

1. Indo – Parthian kingdom or Gondopharid dynasty was founded by Gondophernes.
2. The domain of Indo-Parthians comprised Kabul and Gandhara.
3. The name of Gondophernes is associated with the Christian apostle St. Thomas.
4. According to Christian tradition, St.Thomas visited the court of Gondophernes
5. St. Thomas converted Gondophernes to Christianity.

Question 5.
Who was considered the best known Indo-Greek King. Why?
Answer:

1. Menander was one of the best known Indo-Greek kings.
2. He is said to have ruled a large kingdom in the north-west of the country.
3. His coins were found over an extensive area ranging from Kabul valley and Indus river to western Uttar Pradesh.
4. MilindaPanha, a Buddhist text, is a discourse between Bactrian king Milinda and the learned Buddhist scholar Nagasena.
5. This Milinda is identifed with Menander.
6. Menander is believed to have become a Buddhist and promoted Buddhism.

Question 6.
Who was Sakas?
Answer:

1. Sakas as nomads came in huge number and spread all over northern and western India.
2. They were against the tribe of Turki normads.
3. They were Scthians, nomadic ancient Iranians.
4. They were known as Sakas in Sanskrit.
5. The Indo – Greek rule in India was ended by them.

Question 7.
Give an account of the religious policy of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka was an ardent Buddhist.
2. His empire was a Buddhist empire.
3. He adopted Buddhism under the influence of Asvaghosha, a celebrated monk from Pataliputra.
4. He was as equal as the exponent and champion of Mahayanism.
5. He made Buddhism as the state religion.
6. He built many stupas and monasteries in Mathura, Taxila and many other parts of his kingdom.
7. He sent Buddhist missionaries to Tibet, China and many countries of Central Asia for the propagation of Buddha’s gospel.
8. He organised the fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana near Srinagar to sort out the differences between the various schools of Buddhism. It was only in this council that Buddhism was split into Hinayanism and Mahayanism.

IX. HOTS :

Question 1.
The importance of Gandhara School of Art.
Answer:

1. The Gandhara School of Art had developed in the first century A.D along with Mathura School during the reign of Kushana emperor Kanishka.
2. Both Sakas and Kushanas were patrons of Gandhara school which is known for the first sculpture representations of the Buddha in human form.
3. The art of the Gandhara school was primarily Mahayana.
4. The Gandhara school of Indian Art is heavily indebted to Greek influence.
5. The Greeks were good cave builders. The Mahayana Buddhist learnt the art of carving out caves from them and became skilled in rock cut architecture.

Question 2.
Provide an account of trade and commerce during the post – Mauryan period in South India..
Answer:

1. Kadphises II maintained a friendly relationship with the emperors of China and Rome.
2. He encouraged trade and commerce with foreign countries.
3. His coins contained the inscribed figures of Lord Siva and his imperial titles.
4. The inscriptions in the coins were in the Kharosthi language.

X. Activity :

Question 1.
Prepare an album with centres of archaeological monuments of Satavahanas and Kushanas.
Answer:
Satavahanas :

1. Several metal figurines and unique bronze objects were found from Bramhapuri.
2. A bronze statue of the standing Buddha discovered in Oc-Eo (an archaeological site in Vietnam) resembles the Amaravati
3. The later Satavahana kings issued lead or bronze coins depicting ships with two masts.
4. A stone seal discovered in NakhonPattom in Thailand has the same design.
5. Gandhara, Madhura, Amaravati, Bodh Gaya, Sanchi and Bharhut were known for splendid monuments and art.
6. The Mathura School of Sculputre produced images and life-size statues of the Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain deities.

Kushanas :

1. Kanishka’s coins portray images of Indian, Greek, Iranians divinities.
2. He encouraged Gandhara school of art as well as Mathura school of art.
3. His greatest contribution to Buddhist architecture was the Kanishka stupa at Peshawar, Pakistan.
4. Several Buddhist statues are directly connected to the reign of Kanishka like Bodhisattra statues.

Question 2.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the cultural contribution of Indo-Greeks Sakas and Kushanas
Answer:
Indo-Greeks:

1. Indo-Greek rulers introduced a die system and produced properly shaped coins with inscription, symbols and engraved figures on Indo-greeks.
2. Indians learnt this art from Indo-greeks.
3. The Gandhara school of Indian art is heavily indebted to Greek influence.
4. The Greeks were good cave builders. The Mahayana Buddhist learnt the art of carving out caves from them and became skilled in rock-cut architecture.

Sakas:

1. Rudradaman’s Junagadh/Gimar inscription was the first inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
2. In India, the Sakas were assimilated into Indian society.
3. They began to adopt Indian names and practice Indian religious beliefs.

Kushanas :

1. Kanishka was a great patron of art and literature. His court was adorned with a number of Buddhist saints and scholars, like Asvaghosha, Vasumitra and Nagarajuna.
2. He founded the town of Kanishkapura in Kashmir and furnished the capital of Puiushapura with magnificent public buildings.
3. The Gandhara school of the art flourished during this time.
4. The most favourable subject of the Gandhara artists was the carving of sculptures of Buddha.
5. Buddhist learning and culture was taken to China and Mongolia from Takshashila.
6. The great Asiatic culture mingled with Indian Buddhist culture during the Kushana time.

XI. Answer Grid

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Mauryan India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In the of India Satavahanas became independent after Asoka’s death.
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Answer:
(b) South

Question 2.
Pushyamitra made ……………. as his capital.
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Peshavar
(c) Kundalavana
(d) Bharhut
Answer:
(a) Pataliputra

Question 3.
Simuka, the founder of the Satavahana dynasty ruled for
(a) 20 yrs
(c) 22 yrs
(b) 21 yrs
(d) 23 yrs
Answer:
(d) 23 yrs

Question 4.
The world-famous life-size statue of Buddha was at ……………. Valley.
(a) Bamyan
(b) Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) Kenyan
Answer:
(a) Bamyan

Question 5.
Hala belonged to dynasty.
(a) Indogreek
(b) Kushana
(c) Sunga
(d) Satavahana
Answer:
(d) Satavahana

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :Gautamiputra Satakarni was the greatest ruler of the family.
Reason (R) :He is described as the destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas and Pahlavas.
a. A is correct but R is not correct.
b. A is not correct but R is correct.
c. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I :Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese Buddhist monk and traveller is one of the sources of the Post Mauryan period.
Statement II :Saka rule was founded by Maos or Mogain in the Gandhara region.
a. Both the statements are correct.
b. Both the statements are wrong.
c. Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.
d. Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are correct

Question 3.
Circle the odd one.
Bhumi Mitra, Nagaijuna, Susarman, Krishna.
Answer:
Krishna
Reason : Krishna was a ruler from Satavahana dynasty. Other three were from Kanva  dynasty.

Question 4.

1. Answer the following in one word.
2. Mention the other term of Satavahanas.
3. Name the second grammarian in Sanskrit.
4. Name the Sunga ruler who performed two AsvamedhaYagnas.
5. Whose work was Sattasai?

Answer:

1. Andhras
2. Patanjali
3. Pushyamitra
4. Hala

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The author of Harshacharita was _______
2. Patanjali wrote _______
3. Nagarjuna’s work was _______
4. Agnimitra’s son was _______
5. Pushyamitra’s capital was _______
6. Under the Sungas _______ became the court language.
7. The great stupa of sanchi and railings belong to the _______ period.
8. The Sakas appointed _______ as provicial governor
9. Initially the Kushana capital was _______
10. Kanishka defeated the Chinese general _______

Answer:

1. Banabhatte
2. Mahabhasya
3. Madhyamikasutra
4. Vasumitra
5. Pataiiputra
6. Sanskrit
7. Sunga
8. Kshatrapas / Satraps
9. Kabul
10. Pan-Chiang

IV. True or False :

1. Agminitra is said to be the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
2. The Satavahanas played an important role in defending the Gangetic valley.
3. The last Kanva ruler was Satakami.
4. Bactria became independent under Diodotus I.
5. Menander promoted Jainism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Match

1. Sungas – i. Narayana
2. Kanvas – ii. Sirkap
3. Satavahanas – iii. Pahlavas
4. Sakas – iv. Vasumitra
5. Indo Parthians – v. Simuka

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – v
4. – ii
5. – iii

VI. Find out the wrong statement from the following :

1. The Sunga dynasty lasted for about one hundred years.
2.  The Sungas promoted Shaivism.
3. The Kanva dynasty produced four Kings.
4. Yavanas were Greeks.

Answer:
2. The Sungas promoted Shaivism

VII. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention the importance of the Sunga period.
Answer:

1. The Sungas played an important role in defending the Gangetic Valley from the encroachments of the Bactrian Greeks.
2. Pushyamitra, and then his successors, revived Vedic religious practices and promoted Vaishnavism.
3. Sanskrit gradually gained ascendancy and became the court language.

Question 2.
Name the domain of Satavahanas.
Answer:

1. Maharashtra
2. North Konkan
3. Berar
4. Gujarat
5. Kathiawar
6. Malda.

Question 3.
Who published Nasik Prashasti?
Answer:
Nasik Prashasti was published by Gautami Balasri, mother of Gautamiputra Satakami.

Question 4.
Where was Buddhist learning and culture taken to?
Answer:
Buddhist learning and culture was taken to China and Mongolia from Takshashila.

Question 5.
What facilitated the establishment oflndo-Greek and Indo-Parthian colonies along the north western part of India?
Answer:

1. The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually inter-married and inter-mixed with the indigenous population.
2. This facilitated the establishment oflndo-Greek and Indo-Parthian colonies along the north western part of India.

Question 6.
What was the change brought in by the Sunga period in the railings and gateways of the Buddhist Stupas?
Answer:
During the Sunga period, stone was replaced by wood in the railings and the gateways of the Buddhist stupas as seen in Bharhut and Sanchi.

Question 7.
Who was Kaharavela?
Answer:

1. King Kharavela of Kalinga was a contemporary of the Sungas.
2. We get information about Kharavela from the Hathigumba inscription.

Question 8.
Write about the Buddhist Statue at Bamyan Valley.
Answer:

1. The world famous life-size statue of Buddha at Bamyan valley on the mountains is located in the northwestern frontiers of ancient India.
2. They were carved out of the solid rocks by the dedicated artists of the Gandhara School of Art during the Post-Mauryan period.

Question 9.
Write a note on Kadphises
Answer:

1. Kadphises II maintained friendly relationship with the emperors of China and Rome.
2. He encouraged trade and commerce with the foreign countries.
3. Some of his coins contained the inscribed figures of Lord Siva and his imperial titles were inscribed in the Kharosthi language.

VIII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Mention about the archaeological sources and literary source of the Post-Mauryan Period.
Archaeological Sources of the Post-Mauryan period :
Answer:

1. Ayodhya Inscription of Dana Deva
2. Persepolis, Nakshi Rustam Inscriptions
3. Moga (Taxila copper plate)
4. Junagadh/Gimar Inscription
5. Nasik Prasasti
6. Inscription of Darius I
7. Coins of Satavahanas
8. Coins of Kadphises II
9. Roman Coins

Literary Sources:

1. Puranas
2. Gargi Samhita
3. Harshacharita of Banabhatta
4. Mahabhasyaof Patanjali
5. Brihastkatha of Gunadhya
6. Madhyamika Sutra of Nagaijuna
7. Buddhacharita of Asvaghosha
8. Malavikagnimitra of Kalidasa

Question 2.
Write a note on Demetrius
Answer:

1. Demetrius was the son of Greco-Bactrian ruler Euthydemus.
2. He was king of Macedonia from 294 to 288 BC.
3. Numismatic evidence proves that Demetrius issued bi-lingual square coins with Greek on the obverse and Kharosthi on the reverse.
4. Scholars are not able to decide which of the three, named Demetrius, was the initiator of the Yavana era, commencing for second century BC in India..

Question 3.
Who were Kushanas?
Answer:

1. The Kushanas formed a section of the Yueh-chi tribes, who inhabited north western China in the remote past.
2. In the first century BC, the Yueh-chi tribes were composed of five major sections of which the Kushanas attained political ascendancy over others.
3. By the beginning of Christian era, all the yueh-chi tribes had acknowledged the supremacy of the Kushanas.
4. They settled down in the Bactrian and Parthian lands.
5. The Kushanas gradually overran Bactria and Parthia and established themselves in northern India.
6. Their concentration was mostly in the Punjab, Rajaputana and Kathiawar.
7. Kushana rulers were Buddhists.
8. Takshashila and Mathura continued to be great centres of Buddhist learning, attracting students from China and western Asia.

Question 4.
Write about the Conquests of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka conquered and annexed Kashmir
2. He waged a successful war against Magadha.
3. He also waged a war against a ruler of Parthia to maintain safety and integrity in his vast empire on the western and south-western border.
4. After the conquest of Kashmir and Gandhara, he turned his attention towards China.
5. He defeated the Chinese general Pan-Chiang and safeguarded the northern borders of India from Chinese intrusion.
6. His empire extended form Kashmir down to Benaras, and the Vindhya mountain in the south. It included Kashgar, Yarkhand touching the borders of Persia and Parthia.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Democracy

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Early man settled near________and practiced agriculture.
(a) plains
(b) bank of rivers
(c) mountains
(d) hills
Answer:
(b) bank of rivers

Question 2.
The birth place of democracy is ………………..
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Greece
(d) Rome
Answer:
(c) Greece

Question 3.
________ is celebrated as the International Democracy Day.
(a) September 15
(b) October 15
(c) November 15
(d) December 15
Answer:
(a) September 15

Question 4.
Who has the right to work in a direct Democracy?
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Representatives
d) All eligible voters
Answer:
(d) All eligible voters

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Direct Democracy is practiced in ________
2. The definition of democracy is defined by________
3. People choose their representatives by giving their________
4. In our country________democracy is in practice.

Answer:

1. Switzerland
2. Abraham Lincoln
3. Votes
4. Representative

III. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What is Democracy?
Answer:

1. The citizens of a country select their representatives through elections.
2. Thus they take part in the direct governance of a country. This is termed democracy.

Question 2.
What are the types of democracy?
Answer:
Direct democracy and Representative democracy

Question 3.
Define Direct Democracy.
Answer:

1. In a direct democracy, only the citizens can make laws.
2. All changes have to be approved by the citizens.
3. The politicians only rule over parliamentary procedure. Eg. Switzerland.

Question 4.
Define: Representative Democracy
Answer:
Representative democracy is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected officials representing a group of people.

Question 5.
What are the salient features of our constitution that you have understood?
Answer:

1. Constitution of India guides the Indians in all aspects and maintains law and order.
2. It ensures freedom, equality and justice to everyone.
3. It defines the political principles, the structure of government, the powers and responsibilities.
4. It fixes the Rights and Duties and Directive Principles of the Citizens.
5. It is the longest written constitution in the world.

IV. HOTS:

Question 1.
Compare and contrast direct democracy and representative democracy.
a. Direct Democracy Vs Representative Democracy :
Answer:

(i) A direct democracy or pure democracy is a form of government wherein the citizens have a direct say in the formation of laws and issues that affect them. In a representative democracy form of government, the citizens vote for or elect a representative to represent them in Congress or Senate.

(ii) In a direct democracy the decisions are always upheld. In a representative democracy, the representative may or may not consider their decisions and act on his own.

(iii) Direct democracy in suitable for small communities or countries while most countries with large population opt for a representative government.

(iv) In a direct democracy, citizens are more actively involved in their government. The citizens of a representative democracy often let their representatives decide on issues for them.

VI. Activity:

Question 1.
Discuss about the merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
The merits of democracy are :

1. A democratic government is better form of government because it is more accountable form of government.
2. Democracy improves the quality of decision making,
3. Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.
4. Poor and least educated has the same status as the rich and educated.
5. Democracy allows us to correct own mistake.

Demerits:

1. Leaders keep on changing leading to instability.
2. Democracy in all about political competition and power play and there is no scope for mortality.
3. So many people have to be consulted in a democracy that it lead to delays.
4. Democracy leads to corruption for it is based on electoral competition.
5. Ordinary people do not know what is good for them, they should not decide anything

HOTS

Question 1.
Is it possible to practise Direct Democracy in India?
Answer:

1. Direct democracy is not possible in India, because of its large population. It is not possible to sit together and make decisions.
2. All Indians are not literate. So India has representative democracy.
3. India cannot practice direct democracy. Some people might lack interest in decision making process. Unavailability of proper resources, heavy work load might cause the whole system to slow down.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In a direct democracy the politicians only rule over ______
(a) Parliamentary procedure
(b) Group decision
(c) Single man’s ideas
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Parliamentary procedure

Question 2.
The Earliest written constitution still in effect is ………………
(a) Greek Democracy
(b) Sanmerinos Democracy
(c) Roman Democracy
Answer:
(b)Sanmerinos Democracy

Question 3.
In India we follow representative democracy because
(a) People like it
(b) Vast population
(c) Financially weak
(d) Do not have enough resources
Answer:
(b) Vast Population

Question 4.
In a Direct Democracy, only the ……………… can make laws
(a) President
(b) Prime minister
(c) Citizens
Answer:
(c) Citizens

Question 5.
A Law and order is maintained in India by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Ministers
(c) Constitution
(d) Assembly
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 6.
Chief architect of Indian Constitution is
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajaji
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Patel
Answer:
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambekar

Question 7.
Indian constitution defines
(a) Political Principles
(b) Rules and Regulations
(c) Directive Principles
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8
In a democracy the power is vested in the hands of the .
(a) Ministers
(b) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
(c) People
Answer:
(c) People

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In the beginning, the early men were ________
2. India adopted democracy after it achieved its ________
3. Representative democracy is also known as ________
4. In India we follow parliamentary________
5. Indian constitution ensures freedom, equality and to everyone ________
6. Indian constitution was drafted by the ________ committee
7. The first among the democratic countries of the world is ________
8. The first country to allow women to vote is ________
9. In India all the people above ________ years of age enjoy Universal Adult Franchise.
10. One of our leaders who insisted on voting rights was ________

Answer:

1. hunters
2. Independence
3. Indirect democracy
4. Democracy
5. Justice
6. Drafting
7. India
8. New Zealand
9. 18
10. Mahatma Gandhi

III. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
How were the empires formed?
Answer:

1. When man lived in groups, tribes were formed.
2. The victorious tribes formed kingdoms by uniting the other tribal groups.
3. These kingdoms later integrated to form empires.

Question 2.
What is an Election?
Answer:
A process by which a representative is chosen is called election.

Question 3.
Mention the two types of representative democracy,
Answer:
Representative democracy can be either Parliamentary democracy as followed in India and England or Presidential democracy as followed in the USA and Canada.

Question 4.
What is meant by democratic decision making?
Answer:

1. In the system of democracy, the power to take decisions does not lie with the head.
2. In the contrary, a group holds the power but adheres of the rules and regulations.
3. All the members of the group hold open discussions and take final decisions only when everyone is convinced. .
4. This is called democratic way of decision making.

Question 5
Mention about the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution,
Answer:

1. Indian Constitution was drafted by the Drafting Committee of the Constitution Assembly.
2. It was headed by Dr. B.R. Ambadkar.
3. That is why we call him the Chief architect of our constitution.

Question 6.
Explain the aims of democracy.
Answer:

1. In a democracy the power is vested in the hands of the people.
2. For that the people should have rights to take decisions.
3. So the representative government elected by the people to form a democratic system, all those above the age of 18 are given voting rights to elect representatives.
4. At the same time the representatives have the responsibility to protect the welfare

Questions 7.
When did the women get voting rights in the world?
Answer:

1. New Zealand was the first country to allow women to vote in 1893.
2. Voting rights to women were given in 1918 and 1920 in the UK and USA respectively.