Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.3

10th Maths Exercise 3.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the LCM and GCD for the following and verify that f(x) × g(x) = LCM × GCD.
(i) 21x²y, 35xy²
(ii) (x³ – 1)(x + 1), x³ + 1
(ii) (x³ – 1) (x + 1), (x³ – 1)
(iii) (x²y + xy²), (x² + xy)
Solution:
(i) f(x) = 21x²y = 3 × 7x²y
g(x) = 35xy² = 7 × 5xy²
G.C.D. = 7xy
L.C.M. = 7 × 3 × 5 × x²y² = 105x² × y²
L.C.M × G.C.D = f(x) × g(x)
105x²y² × 7xy = 21x²y × 35xy²
735x³y³ = 735x³y³
Hence verified.

(ii) (x³ – 1)(x + 1) = (x – 1)(x² + x + 1)(x + 1)
x³ + 1 = (x + 1) (x² – x + 1)
G.C.D = (x+ 1)
L.C.M = (x – 1)(x + 1)(x² + x + 1)(x² – x + 1)
∴ L.C.M. × G.C.D = f(x) × g(x)
(x – 1)(x + 1)(x² + x + 1) (x² – x + 1) = (x – 1)
(x² + x + 1) × (x + 1) (x² – x + 1)
(x³ – 1)(x + 1)(x³ + 1) = (x³ – 1)(x + 1)(x³ + 1)
∴ Hence verified.

(iii) f(x) = x²y + xy² = xy(x + y)
g(x) = x² + xy = x(x + y)
L.C.M. = x y (x + y)
G.C.D. = x (x + y)
To verify:
L.C.M. × G.C.D. = xy(x + y) × (x + y)
= x²y (x + y)² ……….. (1)
f(x) × g (x) = (x²y + xy²)(x² + xy)
= x²y (x + y)² …………… (2)
∴ L.C.M. × G.C.D = f(x) × g{x).
Hence verified.

Ex 3.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the LCM of each pair of the following polynomials
(i) a² + 4a – 12, a² – 5a + 6 whose GCD is a – 2
(ii) x⁴ – 27a³x, (x – 3a)² whose GCD is (x – 3a)
Solution:
(i) f(x) = a² + 4a – 12 = (a + 6)(a – 2)

(ii) f(x) = x⁴ – 27a³x = x(x³ – (3a)³)
g(x) = (x – 3a)²
G.C.D = (x – 3a)
L.C.M. × G.C.D = f(x) × g(x)
L. C.M = \(\frac{x\left(x^{3}-(3 a)^{3}\right) \times(x-3 a)^{2}}{(x-3 a)}\)
L.C.M = x(x³ – (3a)³) . (x – 3a)
= x(x – 3a)² (x² + 3ax + 9a²)

10th Maths Exercise 3.3 Question 3.
Find the GCD of each pair of the following polynomials
(i) 12(x⁴ – x³), 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²) whose LCM is 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)
(ii) (x³ + y³), (x⁴ + x²y² + y⁴) whose LCM is (x³ + y³) (x² + xy + y²)
Solution:
(i) f(x)= 12(x⁴ – x³)
g(x) = 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²)
L.C.M = 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)

(ii) (x³ + y³), (x⁴ + x²y² + y⁴)
L.C.M. = (x³ + y³)(x² + xy + y²)

Exercise 3.3 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 4.
Given the LCM and GCD of the two polynomials p(x) and q(x) find the unknown polynomial in the following table

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 4 Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes

Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Intellectual Awakening And Socio Political Changes Question 1.
Identify the founder of a new sect who exemplified simplicity and self-denial.
(a) Buddha
(b) Lao-tze
(c) Confucius
(d) Zoroaster
Answer:
(a) Buddha

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 2.
The Magadha king influenced by the teachings of Mahavira.
(a) Dhananandha
(b) Chandragupta
(c) Bimbisara
(d) Shishunaga
Answer:
(b) Chandragupta

Intellectual Awakening Meaning In Tamil Question 3.
The northern India extended from the Kabul Valley in the north to the Godavari in the south witnessed the rise of Sixteen States.
(a) Mahajanapadas
(b) Gana-sanghas
(c) Dravida
(d) Dakshinapatha
Answer:
(a) Mahajanapadas

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Question 4.
Tri-ratnas are the three priniciples taught by ……………..
(a) Buddha
(b) Mahavira
(c) Lao-tze
(d) Confucius
Answer:
(b) Mahavira

Samacheer Guru 9th Social Question 5.
The account which throws light on Mauryan polity and society …………..
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Fahien
(c) Megasthanes
(d) Seleucus
Answer:
(c) Megasthanes

Samacheer Kalvi 9th History Book Question 6.
(i) Under the Magadha king the mahamatriyas functioned as secretaries to the ministers.
(ii) Accounts of Megasthanes titled Indica is a useful record about Mauryan polity and society.
(iii) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka who founded the Mauryan kingdom.
(iv) According to tradition, towards the end of his life Chandragupta became an ardent follower of Buddhism.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. is a collection of sacred literature of different epochs, containing prayers, confessions and myths.
2. In the Gangetic plain …………… agriculture required the use of bullocks.
3. Jains believe that …………….. came in a long line of Tirthankaras and he was the twenty – fourth and the last.
4. The place where Buddha attained enlightenment has been built into the Mahabodhi temple that still exists in ……………..
5. The rock edicts form the reliable source to know about the Mauryan empire in particular the Dharmic rule of ……………….
Answer:
1. ZendAvesta
2. Iron plough
3. Mahavira
4. Bodh Gaya
5. Ashoka

III. Find out the correct statement.

9th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
(a) The introduction of Bronze tools made easy the removal of dense forest cover from the banks of the Ganges.
(b) Ajivikas had a small presence in western India.
(c) The clusters where particular clansmen were dominant came to be known were Pre-Maury an states.
(d) Of the kingdoms mentioned in the literature .of the period Kashi, Kosala and Magadha are considered to be powerful.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) incorrect
(c) incorrect
(d) correct

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 2.
(a) Ajatashatru was the first important king of Magadha.
(b) Bimbisara succeeded in establishing a comprehensive structure of administration.
(c) The Mauryas were the first of non-Kshatriya dynasties to rule in northern India.
(d) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 1.
The invention of smelting of Iron transformed both production and warfare. Justify.
Answer:

1. The invention of smelting of iron transformed both production and warfare.
2. Before iron, copper and its alloy, bronze which were expensive were employed in production.
3. The weapons (or) ploughs made of copper (of) bronze edges became blunt quickly.
   1. Iron ore in contrast was available in abundance.
4. The “weapons made of iron was in usage.
5. The iron axe enabled cultivators to clear the jungles and the iron plough was used to’ break the hardest soil.

Question 2.
Elaborate the term “Tri-ratnas”.
Answer:
The three principles of Jainism also known as Tri-ratnas are the following.

1. Right faith: Belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge: Acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world existed without a creator.
3. Right Action: It refers to the Mahavira’s observance of the five great vows.
   (a) ahimsa (b) honesty (c) kindness (d) truthfulness and (e) not coveting (or) desiring things belonging to others.

Question 3.
What do you know of Ajatasatru?
Answer:

• Ajatashatru, the son of Bimbisara is said to have murdered his father and ascended the throne in 493 BCE.
• He continued his father’s policy of expansion through military conquests.
• He strengthened the Rajagriha fort and also built another fort at Pataligrama on the Ganges. It served as the exchange centre for the local produce and late became Mauryan capital of Pataliputra.
• Ajatasatru died in 461 BCE.

Question 4.
What does the Edict of Kalinga convey?
Answer:

• In one of his Kalinga edicts, he tells his horror and sorrow over the deaths which the war and conquest caused.
• In yet another edict, he makes it known that Ashoka would not tolerate any longer the death (or) captivity of even hundredth (or) thousandth part of the number killed and captive in Kalinga.

Question 5.
Highlight the steps taken by Ashoka to spread Buddhism.
Answer:
Steps taken by Ashoka to spread Buddhism:

1. Ashoka became an ardent Buddhist after meeting the Buddhist monk Upagupta and propounded his Dharma.
2. He issued edicts, which were carved out in the rock.
3. He protected the animals.
4. Hospitals were constructed for them and animal sacrifice was forbidden.
5. Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and his daughter Sanghamitra to Ceylon to spread his message of Dharma there. Ashoka died after ruling for 38 years.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Zoroastrianism
(a) Who was the founder?
Answer:
Zoroaster of Persia is the founder of Zoroastrianism.

(b) Name the God he proclaimed.
Answer:
Ahura Mazda (the Lord of lights)

(c) What did Zoroaster teach?
Answer:
Zoroaster taught that the great object of religion state or society is the cultivation of morality.

(d) What was the highest form of worship?
Answer:
Fire was worshipped as a symbol of the deity and considered the highest form of worship.

Question 2.
Gautama Buddha
(a) What was the original name of Buddha?
Answer:
The original name of Buddha was Siddhartha.

(b) Name the birth place of Buddha.
Answer:
The birth place of Buddha is Lumbini Garden near Kapilavasthu in 567 BCE.

(c) Where did he get enlightenment?
Answer:
He got enlightenment in the Mahabodhi temple, still exists in Bodh Gaya (Bihar).

(d) Mention the place of his first sermon.
Answer:
The place of his first sermon was Samath.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the five cardinal principles of Confucius.
Answer:
Five Cardinal Principles of Confucius’ Ethics
1. Humaneness
2. Righteousness
3. Propriety;
4. Wisdom
5. Trustworthiness
(i) Confucius said that wisdom grows from the family, and that the foundation of society is the disciplined individual in an orderly family.

(ii) The superior man, according to him, is not merely intelligent or scholarly, but his character should be exemplary.

(iii) The superior man of Confucius possesses three virtues: intelligence, courage and goodwill

(iv) Though Confucius insisted on children obeying parents and wife her husband, he also clearly proposed that “when the command is wrong a son should resist his father and a minister should resist the prince.’’

(v) When asked about government, he said that there are three requisites for it: “That there should be sufficiency of food, sufficiency of military equipment and confidence of the people in their ruler.”

(vi) The philosophy of Confucius gave the Chinese people an awareness about their political rights. ‘

(vii) It also clearly listed the government’s duty towards the people. Confucius felt that the government should work with an ideal.

(viii) In matters of national life, Confucius felt that the people in the nation are the actual and proper source of political sovereignty. He advised that the ruler must appoint persons of character in the government to govern the people impartially.

(ix) Confucianism is often characterized as a system of social and ethical philosophy rather than as a religion.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the principles of Jainism and Buddhism.
Answer:

1. The founders of Jainism and Buddhism did not prescribe killing as a religious rite.
2. They secured their livelihood mostly by alms. Celibacy and abstinence from holding property made the new teachers much more acceptable than the Brahman priests.
3. The people’s resentment about the expensive and elaborate Vedic rituals, animal sacrifice and the desire for wealth eventually took them towards Jainism and Buddhism.
4. Mahavira and Buddha lived a life of purity and exemplified simplicity and self-denial. They lived in the times of Bimbisara and Ajatashatru, the famous kings of Magadha.
5. The commercial development of the northern cities like Kaushambi, Kushinagar, Benaras, Vaishali and Rajgir added importance to the Vaishyas who turned to Buddhism and Jainism in their eagerness to improve their social status.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a case study of Asoka’s Edicts.
Answer:
“There are 33 edicts, including 14 Major Rock edicts, 7 Pillar edicts and 2 Kalinga edicts apart from Minor Rock edicts and Minor Pillar inscriptions”.
(i) The students can be divided into three groups in the class. Each group will be assigned a particular work, such as Major Rock Edicts, Pillar Edicts and Kalinga Edicts.
(ii) They can refer History Books, from the library (or) download from the Internet.
(iii) The teacher will be there to motivate the students.

Question 2.
Enact a drama about the life and teachings of Buddha.
Answer:
(i) You can prepare the script with the assistance of your teacher.
(ii) The drama can be enacted as a recreational activity in the class.

Assignment with teacher’s guidance

(i) List out the countries where Buddhism exists in the world and mark on the world map. Some of the Buddhist countries are: Cambodia, Thailand, Myanmar, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Laos, Mongolia, Japan, Taiwan, Singapore, South Korea, Malaysia, China and Vietnam. The students can mark these places on the world map.
(ii) Prepare a clay model of Sjanchi Stupa, Darmachakra.
You can do this activity in groups with the help of your teacher.

Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The discovery of ………….. marked the beginning of the second phase in the history of civilisations.
(a) Iron
(b) Gold
(c) Copper
(d) Bronze
Answer:
(a) Iron

Question 2.
…………… said that wisdom grows from the family.
(a) Lao-Tse
(b) Zoroaster
(c) Confucius
(d) Buddha
Answer:
(c) Confucius

Question 3.
The doctrines and rituals of the Zoroastrians have much similarity to those of the ……………
(a) Buddhism
(b) Vedas
(c) Jainism
(d) Taoism
Answer:
(b) Vedas

Question 4.
Buddhism was preached in people’s language ……………….
(a) Pali
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Hindi
(d) Chinese
Answer:
(a) Pali

Question 5.
Chandragupta’s son was ……………
(a) Bimbisara
(b) Bindusara
(c) Ajatasatru
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Bindusara

Question 6.
(i) Monastries and temples served the purpose imparting education.
(ii) Nalanda was a great monastry built by the Magadha empire.
(iii) Nalanda became the most renowned seat of learning.
(iv) Fees were charged to the students.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct (iv) is incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The philosophy of confucius gave the Chinese people an awareness about their ……………..
2. ………….. was pained to find his people worshipping primitive deities.
3. Mahavira and Buddha lived a life of purity and exemplified …………… and …………….
4. The statue of Bahubali at …………… in Karnataka is the tallest jain statue ever carved out in India.
5. Buddha belonged to the Sakya class he was also known as ……………….
6. Buddhism was split into two as ………….. and ……………
7. …………… succeeded in establishing a comprehensive structure of administration.
8. Alexander’s death, however, cleared the way for the founding of a great empire …………….. empire in India.
9. The envoy of Seleucus’s was …………….
10. Chandragupta’s minister Chanakya is credited with a book titled …………..
Answer:
1. Political rights
2. Zoroaster
3. Simplicity, Self-denial
4. Shravanabelgola
5. Sakya Muni
6. Hinayana & Mahayana
7. Bimbisara
8. Mauryan
9. Megasthenes
10. Arthasastra

III. Match the following.

Answer:
(a)
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Who were the two great thinkers in the sixth century BCE?
Answer:
Confucius and Lao-Tse were the two great thinkers in the sixth century BCE.

Question 2.
Mention the five important works of Confucius.
Answer:

1. The Book of Records
2. The Book of odes
3. The Book of changes
4. The spring and Autumn Annals
5. The Book of History.

Question 3.
Name the seven qualities of Ahura Mazda.
Answer:

1. light
2. good mind
3. right
4. dominion
5. piety
6. well-being
7. immortality.

Question 4.
What kind of life Mahavira and Buddha live?
Answer:
Mahavira and Buddha lived a life of purity and exemplified simplicity and self-denial.

Question 5.
Write a short note on “split in Jainism”.
Answer:

• In course of time, Jainism split into two branches namely the Digambaras (Sky-clad) and the Svetambaras (White-clad)
• The Digambaras were the Orthodox followers of Mahavira. They rejected clothes altogether. The Svetambaras wore a white dress from head to toe.

Question 6.
What did Buddha do to establish Buddhism?
Answer:

• Buddha in order to carry his message to different parts of India, established the Buddhist Sangha (or) the Holy order of Monks.
• The bikshus (monks) and the bikshunis (nuns) were enlisted for spreading the faith and they were required to lead a life of purity and poverty.

Question 7.
What do you know about Nanda dynasty?
Answer:

1. Mahapadma Nanda founded the Nanda dynasty.
2. The Nandas were the first of non-Kshatriya dynasties to rule in North India.
3. Nandas gave importance to irrigation with the canals, they built touching even the Kalinga kingdom.

Question 8.
Mention the Educational centres of Mauryan Administration.
Answer:

1. Monastries and temples served the purpose of imparting education.
2. Nalanda was a great monastry built by the Magadha Empire.
3. Educational centres offered Buddhist and Vedic literature, logic, grammar, medicine, philosophy and astronomy.
4. Even the science of war was taught.
5. Nalanda became the most renowned seat of learning in course of time.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Confucius.
(a) When was confucius born?
Answer:
Confucius was bom in the Shantung province of China in 551 BCE.

(b) Mention the five important works of Confucius.
Answer:

1. The Book of Records
2. The Book of odes
3. The Book of changes
4. The spring and Autumn Annals
5. The Book of History.

(c) What are the five cardinal principles of “Confucius” Ethics?
Answer:

1. Humaneness
2. Righteousness
3. Propriety
4. Wisdom
5. Trustworthiness.

(d) Mention the three virtues to be possessed by a superior man.
Answer:
Intelligence, courage and good will.

Question 2.
Jainism.
(a) When was Mahavira born?
Answer:
Vardhamana Mahavira was bom in 599 BCE at Kundagrama near Vaishali.

(b) Mention the three principles of Jainism.
Answer:

1. Right faith
2. Right knowledge
3. Right Action.

(c) Name the rulers who patronised Jainism.
Answer:
Dhana Nanda, Chandra Gupta Maurya and Kharavela.

(d) What are the two branches of Jainism?
Answer:
The two branches are Digambaras and Svetambaras.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the teachings of Lao-Tse (Taoism).
Answer:

1. The cause of human unhappiness in the world is human selfishness. Selfishness creates unlimited human desires, which can never be satisfied.
2. In nature, all the things act in a natural way. The law of human conduct must correspond . with nature.
3. Humans live a life under the regulation of someone. This is because they have acquired knowledge and have not remained innocent. On the basis of their acquired knowledge, they have built up an urban civilisation and have made themselves unhappy.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the decline of Buddhism.
Answer:
Buddhism declined in India due to the following reasons:

1. Buddhism was popular in the beginning because it was preached in people’s language (Pali). The later texts were written in Sanskrit, which was difficult for the common people to understand.
2. The split in Buddhism into Hinayana and Mahayana was another vital reason. Image worship in Mahayana made no difference between Hinduism and Buddhism.
3. Buddhism lost its royal patronage during the reign of Guptas.
4. Further, the invasions of Huns and Turks almost wiped out Buddhism.

Students can Download Tamil Chapter 2.3 வாழ்விக்கும் கல்வி Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2.3 வாழ்விக்கும் கல்வி

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
காலத்தின் அருமையைக் கூறும் திருக்குறள் அதிகாரம் …
அ) கல்வி
ஆ) காலம் அறிதல்
இ) வினையறிதல்
ஈ) மடியின்மை
Answer:
ஆ) காலம் அறிதல்

Question 2.
கல்வியில்லாத நாடு ……………………… வீடு.
அ) விளக்கில்லாத
ஆ) பொருளில்லாத
இ) கதவில்லாத
ஈ) வாசலில்லாத
Answer:
அ) விளக்கில்லாத

Question 3.
பள்ளித் தலமனைத்தும் கோயில் செய்குவோம்’ என்று பாடியவர் ………….
அ) திருக்குறளார்
ஆ) திருவள்ளுவர்
இ) பாரதியார்
ஈ) பாரதிதாசன்
விடை:
இ) பாரதியார்

Question 4.
‘உயர்வடைவோம்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது … ……
அ) உயர் + வடைவோம்
ஆ) உயர் + அடைவோம்
இ) உயர்வு + வடைவோம்
ஈ) உயர்வு + அடைவோம்
Answer:
ஈ) உயர்வு + அடைவோம்

Question 5.
இவை + எல்லாம் என்பதனைச் சேர்த்தெழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல் ……………….
அ) இவை எல்லாம்
ஆ) இவையெல்லாம்
இ) இதுயெல்லாம்
ஈ) இவயெல்லாம்
Answer:
ஆ) இவையெல்லாம்

சொற்றொடரில் அமைத்து எழுதுக

1. செல்வம் – கல்விச் செல்வமே ஒருவன் பெற வேண்டிய சிறந்த செல்வம்.
2. இளமைப்பருவம் – கல்வி கற்பதற்கு ஏற்ற பருவம் இளமைப்பருவம்.
3. தேர்ந்தெடுத்து – நல்ல நூல்களைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துப் படித்திட வேண்டும்.

குறுவினா

Question 1.
மனிதப் பிறவிக்கும் பிற உயிரினங்களுக்கும் இடையே உள்ள வேறுபாடு யாது?
Answer:

• உலகிலுள்ள உயிரினங்களுள் மனிதப் பிறவிக்கு மட்டுமே தனித்தன்மை உண்டு
• ஏனெனில் எதிர்காலத்தைப் பற்றி அறிய இயலாத அருமையான பிறவியே மனிதப் பிறவி
• மற்ற உயிரினங்கள் எதிர்காலத்தில் இவ்வாறுதான் இருக்கும் என்பதில் எந்த மாற்றமும் ஏற்படாது. ஆனால் மனிதனின் நிலையோ மாற்றம் நிறைந்தது

Question 2.
கல்வி அறிவு இல்லாதவர்கள் பற்றி வள்ளுவர் கூறுவது யாது?
Answer:

• கல்வி அறிவு இல்லாதவர்களை விலங்கோடு ஒப்பிடுகிறார் வள்ளுவர்.
• விலங்குகள் நல்ல செயல்களைத் தாமாகச் செய்வதில்லை.
• அதுபோல கல்வியறிவு இல்லாதவர்கள் நல்லனவற்றைச் செய்வதில்லை என்கிறார்.

Question 3.
நூல்களை எவ்வாறு படிக்க வேண்டும்?
Answer:
படிக்க வேண்டிய நூல்களை ஆழ்ந்து ஆராய்ந்து படிக்க வேண்டும் என்பதே வள்ளுவர் கூறும் கருத்தாகும்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
கல்வியே அழியாத செல்வம் என்பதை விளக்குக.
Answer:
கல்வியே அழியாத செல்வம் :

• இவ்வுலகில் உள்ள செல்வங்கள் அனைத்து அழியும் தன்மையுடையன்: என்றுமே அழியாத செல்வம் கல்விச் செல்வம் ஆகும்.
• அள்ள அள்ளக் குறையாதது, அழிக்கவே முடியாதது அழியாப்புகழைத் தருவது கல்விச் செல்வமே.
• கல்விச் செல்வம் கற்கும் போது கசக்கும்; கற்ற பின் கரும்பாய் இனிக்கும். வாழ்வில் ஏற்றத்தைக் கொடுக்கும்.
• இத்தகைய செல்வத்தை என்றும் போற்றிக் காத்திடக் கசடறக் கற்றிடுவோம்.

Question 2.
கல்வியையும் விளக்கையும் திருக்குறளார் எவ்வாறு ஒப்பிடுகிறார்?
Answer:

• விளக்கானது தன்னையும் தன்னைச் சுற்றியுள்ள இடத்தையும் ஒளி வீசச் செய்கிறது.
• அதுபோல கல்வி ஓர் ஒளி விளக்கு , அவ்விளக்கானது; தான் இருக்கும் இடத்தை ஒளிமயமாக மாற்றுகிறது. எனவே ஒருவன் கற்ற கல்வி பலருக்கும் பயன்தர வேண்டும்.
• கல்வியில்லாத நாடு விளக்கில்லா வீடு போன்றது. விளக்கில்லா வீட்டில் குடியிருக்க யாரும் விரும்பாததைப் போலவே, கல்வியில்லாத குடும்பத்தை யாரும் மதிப்பதில்லை.
• நன்மதிப்பைத் தந்து நல்வழியில் வாழச் செய்யும் கல்வியைக் கற்று, கலங்காமல் வாழ்வோம்

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
நல்ல நூலின் இயல்புகளாக நீங்கள் கருதுவன யாவை?
Answer:
நல்ல நூலின் இயல்புகள் :

• கருத்துகளை எளிய நடையில் எடுத்துரைத்தல்.
• கூற வந்த செய்தியைச் சுருக்கமாகக் கூறி விளங்க வைத்தல்.
• படிப்பவர்கள் விரும்பிப் படிக்கும் வண்ண ம் இனிய நடையில் இருத்தல்.
• கருத்தாழம் மிக்கதாக இருத்தல் வேண்டும்.
• பயனற்றதை விடுத்து பயனுள்ள கருத்தைத் தருதல்.
• சிறு சிறு கதைகள், எடுத்துக்காட்டுகள் அளித்தல்.
• சான்றோர்களின் கருத்தை மேற்கோள் காட்டுதல்.
• சமுதாயத்திற்கேற்றபடி இருத்தல்.
• இன்றைய சூழலுக்குத் தக்கபடி கருத்தளித்தல்.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
கல்வி தொடர்பான பாடல் வரிகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
– (எ.கா.) கல்வி கரையில ; கற்பவர் நாள் சில.
(i) மூதுரை
மன்னனும் மாசறக் கற்றோனும் சீர்தூக்கின்
மன்னனின் கற்றோன் சிறப்புடையன் – மன்னற்குத்
தன்தேசம் அல்லால் சிறப்பில்லை கற்றோர்க்குச்
சென்ற இடமெல்லாம் சிறப்பு. ………. – ஔவையார்

(ii) சிறுபஞ்சமூலம்
பூவாது காய்க்கும் மரம் உள; நன்று அறிவார்,
மூவாது மூத்தவர், நூல் வல்லார்; தாவா,
விதையாமை நாறுவ வித்து உள; மேதைக்கு
உரையாமை செல்லும் உணர்வு. …………….. – காரியாசான்

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.2

11th Maths Exercise 7.2 Question 1.
Without expanding the determinant, prove that
Solution:

11th Maths Exercise 7.2 Answers Question 2.
Show that
Solution:

Matrices And Determinants Class 11 Solutions Pdf Question 3.
Prove that
Solution:
LHS
Taking a from C₁, b from C₂ and c from C₃ we get

Expanding along R₁ we get
(2c) (abc) (1) [ab + ab] = abc (2c) (2ab)
1 = (abc) (4abc) = 4a²b²c²
= RHS

Matrices And Determinants Class 11 State Board Solutions Question 4.

Solution:

11th Maths Matrices And Determinants Solutions Question 5.
Prove that
Solution:

11th Maths Exercise 7.2 In Tamil Question 6.
Show that
Solution:

11th Maths Determinants Solutions Question 7.
Write the general form of a 3 × 3 skew-symmetric matrix and prove that its determinant is 0.
Solution:

11th Maths Exercise 7.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.

Solution:

we get – (aα² + 2bα + c) [ac – b²]
So Δ = 0 ⇒ (aα² + 2bα + c) (ac -b²) = – 0 = 0
⇒ aα² + 2bα + c = 0 or ac – b² = 0
(i.e.) a is a root of ax² + 2bx + c = 0
or ac = b²
⇒ a, b, c are in G.P.

11th Maths Matrix Solutions Question 9.
Prove that
Solution:

Exercise 7.2 Class 11 Maths Solutions State Board Question 10.
If a, b, c are p^th, q^th and r^th terms of an A.P., find the value of
Solution:
We are given a = t_p,b = t_q and c = t_r
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference

11th Maths Matrix And Determinants Question 11.
Show that is divisible by x⁴
Solution:

Multiplying R₁ by a, R₂ by b and R₃ by c and
taking out a from C₁ b from C₂ and c from C₃ we get
==

11th Maths Ex 7.2 Question 12.
If a, b, c are all positive, and are p^th, q^th and r^th terms of a G.P., show that

Solution:

Exercise 7.2 Class 11 Maths Solutions Question 13.
Find the value of if x, y, z ≠ 1.
Solution:
Expanding the determinant along R₁

11th Std Maths Determinants Solutions Question 14.

Solution:

11th Maths Book Volume 2 Chapter 7 Question 15.
Without expanding, evaluate the following determinants:

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 7.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 16.
If A is a square matrix and |A| = 2, find the value of |AA^T|.
Solution:
|A| = 2 (Given) |A^T| = 2
Now |AA^T| = |A| |A^T| = 2 × 2 = 4.

12th Maths Exercise 7.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 17.
If A and B are square matrices of order 3 such that |A| = -1 and |B| = 3, find the value of |3AB|.
Solution:
Given |A| = -1 : |B| = 3
Given A and B are square matrices of order 3.
∴ |kAB| = k³ |AB|
Here k = 3 ∴ |3AB| = 3³ |AB|
= 27 |AB|
= 27 (-1) (3)
= -81

Class 11 Maths Exercise 7.2 Solutions Question 18.
If λ = -2, determine the value of
Solution:
Given λ = -2
∴ 2λ = -4; λ² = (-2)²; 3λ² + 1 = 3 (4) + 1 = 13
6λ – 1 = 6(-2) – 1 = -13

expanding along R₁
0(0) + 4 (0 + 13) + 1 (-52 + 0) = 52 – 52 = 0
Aliter: The determinant value of a skew-symmetric matrix is zero

Matrices And Determinants Class 11 Solutions Question 19.
Determine the roots of the equation
Solution:

Given the determinant value is 0
⇒ 30(1 + x) (2 – x) = 0
⇒ 1 + x = 0 or 2 – x = 0
⇒ x = -1 or x = 2
So, x = -1 or 2.

Matrices And Determinants Class 11 Exercise Question 20.
Verify that det (AB) = (det A) (det B) for
Solution:


{(-20)(52) (-19) + (10)(38)(—49) + (2)(64)(-17)} – {(-49)(52) (2) + (-17)(38)(-20) + (-19)(64)(10)}
= (19760 – 18620 – 2176) – (-5096 + 12920 – 12160)
= (19760 + 5096 + 12160) – (18620 + 2176 + 12920)
= 37016 – 33716 = 3300 ….(3)
Now (1) × (2) = (3)
(i.e.,) (-33) (-100) = 3300
⇒ det (AB) = (det A), (det B)

Determinants Class 11 State Board Solutions Question 21.
Using cofactors of elements of second row, evaluate |A|, where
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.2 Additional Problems

Exercise 7.2 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.

Solution:

11th Maths Matrices And Determinants Pdf Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.

Solution:

Question 7.

Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture

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Components of Agriculture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Components Of Agriculture Question 1.
The soil which is rich in iron oxides is …………
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Alkaline
Answer:
(c) Red

3 Components Of Agriculture Question 2.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Social Science Question 3.
The soils formed by the rivers are: ……….
(a) Red soils
(b) Black soils
(c) Desert soils
(d) Alluvial soils
Answer:
(d) Alluvial soils

Two Characteristics Of Black Soil Question 4.
……………… is the highest gravity dam in india
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
Answer:
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam

Define Ploughing Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
……… is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 6.
Black soils are also called as:
(a) Arid solis
(b) Saline soils
(c) Regur soils
(d) Mountain soils
Answer:
(c) Regur soils

Question 7.
The longest dam in the world is ……..
(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
Answer:
(c) Hirakud dam

Question 8.
The leading producer of rice in India is:
(a) Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(d) West Bengal

Question 9.
Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 10.
The state which leads in the production of coffee is:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Odisha
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Horticulture involves the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(a) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials brought by the rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(d) (A) is false (R) is true

III. Pick the odd one out.

Question 1.
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Millets
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(d) Coffee

Question 2.
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Black soil
Answer:
(d) Black soil

Question 3.
(a) Inundational canals
(b) Perennial canals
(c) Tanks
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Tanks

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
2. (c) Karnataka
3. (e) Highest dam in the India
4. (a) Mahanadi
5. (b) Golden revolution

V. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Define soil.
Answer:

1. Soil is the upper most layer of the land surface.
2. It is composed of minerals, organic matter, living organisms, air and water.

Question 2.
Name the types of soil found in India.
Answer:

1. Alluvial Soils
2. Black soils
3. Red soils
4. Laterite soils
5. Forest and mountain soils
6. Arid and desert soils
7. Saline and alkaline soils
8. Peaty and marshy soils.

Question 3.
State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.
Answer:

1. Black cotton soil are sticky (clayey) when wet and develops cracks when dry.
2. Has high degree of moisture retentivity.

Question 4.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multi purpose project”.

Question 5.
Define Agriculture.
Answer:
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fibre and many other desired products by cultivation and raising of animals (livestock).

Question 6.
State the types of agriculture practices in India.
Answer:

1. Subsistence Farming
2. Shifting Agriculture
3. Intensive Farming
4. Dry Farming
5. Mixed Farming Agriculture
6. Terrace Cultivation

Question 7.
Name the seasons of agriculture in India?
Answer:
Seasons of agriculture in India:

1. Kharif season (June – September)
2. Zaid season (April – June)
3. Rabi season (October – March)

Question 8.
Mention the plantation crops of India.
Answer:
Plantation crops are cultivated for the purpose of exports. These are cultivated in large estates on hilly slopes.
Tea, coffee, rubber and spices are the major plantation crops of India.

Question 9.
What do you mean by livestock?
Answer:

1. Livestock consists of Cattle, goats, buffaloes, sheeps and pigs. It also includes poultry.
2. It is an integral component of the farming system in India due to its multi-functional outputs and contribution to socio-cultural security.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the categories of fisheries in India.
Answer:
Fisheries in India are a very important economic activity and a flourishing sector with varied resources and potentials. In India, fishing is categorised into two types: they are
1. Marine or Sea Fisheries
2. Inland or Fresh Water Fisheries

1. Marine or Sea Fisheries: It includes coastal, off-shore and deep sea fisheries mainly on the continental shelf upto a depth of 200 m. Among the coastal states, Kerala leads in the marine fish production in India.

2. Inland or Fresh Water Fisheries: Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds, tanks etc. are the sources of fresh water and provide fresh water fisheries. About 50 percent of the country’s total fish production comes from the inland fisheries and Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer in India.

VI. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Agriculture is the backbone of India.
Answer:
More than 50% of Indian population is engaged in agriculture and its allied • industries. 25% of our National Income is from agricultural sector. It is the livelihood for the Indian population. Hence Agriculture is the backbone of India.

Question 2.
Rain water harvesting is necessary.
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is an activity of direct collection and storage of water for our purpose or it can be reached into the ground for withdrawal later.

India experience Tropical monsoon type of climate. It gives a seasonal rainfall. It is not uniform and is highly erratic. Most of the time the rainfall is scanty. Hence it is necessary to save the available rain water.

Question 3.
Small farms are predominant in India.
Answer:
Most of the farmers in India has only small land holdings and fragmented land due to ancestral property share. Mainly in densely populated areas of intensively cultivated states.

VII. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Rabi and Kharif crop seasons.
Answer:

S.No.	Rabi	Kharif
1.	Rabi crops are sown in the beginning of the winter (i.e.) in November.	Kharif crops are sown in the beginning of monsoon (i.e.) in June.
2.	The crops are harvested in the beginning of summer (i.e) in March.	The crops are harvested in the early days of November.
3.	Major crops are wheat, tobacco, mustard, pulses, linseed and grains.	Major crops are paddy, maize, cotton, millets, jute and sugarcane.

Question 2.
Inundational canal and perennial canal.
Answer:

S.No.	Inundational canal	perennial canal
1.	In this, water is taken out directly from the rivers without making any kind of barrage or dam.	These are developed from perennial rivers by constructing barrage to regulate the flow of water.
2.	These canals are not useful for irrigation.	These canals are useful for irrigation
3.	Punjab has got a large numbers of inundation canals drawing water from sutlej river.	These canals are found in Punjab, Haryana and UP.

Question 3.
Marine fishing and Inland fishing.
Answer:

S.No.	Marine fishing	Inland fishing
1.	It includes coastal off-shore and deep sea fisheries mainly on the continent shelf.	Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds, tanks etc.
2.	Kerala leads in the marine fish production in India.	Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer in India.

Question 4.
Alluvial soils and Black soils.
Answer:

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write about any two Multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:

1. Multipurpose project is a scinetific management of water resources in our country.
2. Construction of dam across rivers is aimed to serve many purposes such as irrigation, hydro power generation, floods control, water supply for drinking and industrial purpose, development of fisheries, navigation etc.
3. In India we have many multipurpose River valley projects.

Bhakra Nangal Project:

1. Bhakra Nangal project is the largest and the most important river valley project named after two dams built at Bhakra and Nangal to harness the water of the Sutlej river.
2. This dam is the highest gravity dam in the world and forms the Gobmd Sagar Reservoir.
3. It irrigates an area of about 52,609 sq.km in the states of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. This project generates about 1500 megawatt of Hydropower electricity.
5. It is the second tallest dam in Asia with a height of 226 m.

Mettur Dam:

1. Mettur Dam has been constructed on the river Kaveri at Salem. The Reservoir behind this dam has been called Stanley Reservoir with a height of 176 ft.
2. This project irrigates about 16.5 lakh acres of land in 12 districts of TamilNadu in Kaveri delta basin.
3. 40 megawatts hydro power is being produced from this project.

Question 3.
Bring out the characteristics of Intensive and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Intensive farming:

1. It involves various types of agriculture with higher levels of input, such as capital and labour, per unit of agricultural land area.
2. It aims to maximize yields from available land through various means, such as heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers.
3. Intensive farming is practiced in Punjab, parts of Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh in India.

Plantation farming:

1. It is a single crop farming, practised on a large area.
2. Crops are mainly grown for the market.
3. It is both labour intensive and capital intensive.
4. It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
5. Developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation processing industries and markets play an important role in the development of plants. Example-tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, etc.

Question 4.
Examine the geographical conditions favourable for the cultivation of rice and wheat.
Answer:
Soil: Deep fertile clayey or loamy soils are suited.
Temperature and Rainfall: Require mean temperatures of 24°C and annual rainfall of 150 cm.
Rice is mainly a tropical crop.
Wheat: Wheat is a temperate or sub-tropical crop. Fertile alluvial soil or mixed soil is ideal for wheat cultivation.
Rainfall: Moderate 50cm – 100cm rainfall.
Temperature: It requires 10°-15°C at the time of sowing and 20°-25°C at the time of ripening.

IX. HOTS Questions.

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without agriculture?
Answer:

1. No, it fs impossible to imagine a world without agriculture.
2. Agriculture satisfy the basic need of food to millions of people and live stocks.
3. It provide raw materials for agro based industries.
4. Export of agricultural produces help in the development of Country’s economy.

Question 2.
Can you give solutions for the prevailing water disputes in South India (construction of dams / raising of dams / cleaning of tanks)?
Answer:
Dams are meant to mitigate flood and drought by containing water and releasing it as per demand and supply. These days, dams are seen more as hydropower generators. However, in some cases, the price paid to construct a dam, especially in social and environmental terms, becomes too high. Instead of building new dams, we should attend to underperformance of existing ones. For irrigation purposes, we can revive traditional community-managed networks and recharge underground aquifers through rainwater.

We can use technology and develop adaptive farming techniques. Mathematical models can be developed to estimate the water availability in the river based on the rain estimation of the particular year. For example, if estimation says that there won’t be much rain in the particular year then the farmers can be advised to grow oil seeds, millets, etc. If good rains are predicted then the farmers can grow sugarcane, paddy, etc.

The improper use and management of water also add to the water crisis. Pollution and mining of riverbeds are irreversibly transforming riverine ecosystems. In many regions, excessive groundwater pumping has lowered water tables and worsened the problems. The solution lies in reversing environmental degradation, ensuring equitable allocation of water, and minimising disputes on the use of rivers. The health of any waterscape is fundamental to the well-being, lives and livelihoods of communities that depend on it.

X. Map exercise
1. Demarcate the major tracts of alluvial soils.
2. Delineate the main regions of black soil.
6. Demarcate the regions of desert soil.

4. Shade the regions of jute cultivation.
5. Mark any three tea and coffee growing areas.

3. Locate the Hirakud dam, Mettur dam and Damodar dam.
7. Locate the fishing hubs: Tuticorin, Chennai, Cochin, Mumbai, Machilipatnam
8. Demarcate: Cauvery delta, Godavari delta

Components of Agriculture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Paddy is grown well in the ……….
(a) black soil
(b) laterite soil
(c) alluvial soil
Answer:
(c) alluvial soil

Question 2.
……………… soils are formed due to ill drainage.
(a) Mountain
(b) Saline and alkaline
(c) Peaty
(d) Desert
Answer:
(b) Saline and alkaline

Question 3.
The predominant types of Indian agriculture is …….
(a) commercial agriculture
(b) subsistence agriculture.
(c) primitive agriculture
Answer:
(b) subsistence agriculture.

Question 4.
The effective source of irrigation in areas of low level relief is ……………… irrigation.
(a) Canal
(b) Tank
(c) Well
(d) Lakes
Answer:
(a) Canal

Question 5.
Black soils are ideal for the cultivation of
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Cotton
Answer:
(c) Cotton

Question 6.
……………… is the leading state in tank irrigation.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
The staple food of South Indian is ………
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Millets
Answer:
(a) Rice

Question 8.
……………… River valley project is a joint venture between Bihar and Nepal.
(a) Kosi
(b) Damodhar
(c) Bhakranangal
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Kosi

Question 9.
One of the important Kharif crops is ………..
(a) Barley
(b) Cotton
(c) Vegetables
Answer:
(b) Cotton

Question 10.
The name of the shifting agriculture followed by the tribals of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh is:
(a) Jhum
(b) Podu
(c) Poonam
(d) Penda
Answer:
(b) Podu

Question 11.
In Kerala ………….. has many coffee estates.
(a) Kochi
(b) Wynad
(c) Trivandrum
Answer:
(b) Wynad

Question 12.
The leading state in wool production is ……………… with 32.9%
(a) Karnataka
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Rajasthan
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(c) Rajasthan

Question 13.
The ……… is known as Sorrow of Bihar.
(a) Krishna
(b) Damodar
(c) Kosi
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 14.
The Periyar river has its source in the state of ……..
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 15.
There is demand for additional farm labour due to ……….
(a) irrigation
(b) rainfall
(c) electrification
Answer:
(a) irrigation

Question 16.
To areas of small holidays …….. irrigation is well suited.
(a) well
(b) tubewell
(c) canal
Answer:
(b) tubewell

Question 17.
The ……… dam is constructed on the river Beas.
(a) Bakra Nangal
(b) Pong
(c) Mettur
Answer:
(b) Pong

Question 18.
The Kosi project in Bihar has been taken up in co-operation with ………
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Thailand
Answer:
(a) Nepal

Question 19.
The Mettur dam irrigates Coimbatore and ………. district.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Tiruchy
(c) Salem
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 20.
Lower Bhavani project is located in ………….. district.
(a) coimbatore
(b) Tiruchy
(c) Salem
Answer:
(a) coimbatore

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Prime source of water is ……….
2. Canals taken out from reverse without regulating system are called ……… canals.
3. Shifting agriculture is performed by ……… people.
4. The most widely distributed source of irrigation in India is ……….
5. The highest gravity dam in the world is the ……..
6. The longest irrigation canal in the world is ………..
7. The longest dam in the world is the ………. dam.
8. The Cauvery delta canal system belongs to the …….. era.
9. The Bhavani river is one of the tributaries of the ………
10. The two important fibre crops are …….. and ………..
11. A Coffee research center is located at ……….
12. Topography of India favours ………. type of climate.
13. Dry farming mainly depends on ………..
14. Dual cropping is otherwise known as ………
15. As an impact of ………. the production of wheat has been increased in Punjab and Haryana.
16. The major cash crop is ………..
17. Coffee is a ……… crop.
18. Rubber plantation were first established in ……… in 1902.
19. ………. is the leading state in the wool production.
20. At the time of natural calamities farmers are helped by …….. scheme.
Answers:
1. rainfall
2. inundation
3. tribal
4. wells
5. Bhakra Nangal dam
6. Rajasthan canal
7. Hirakud
8. Pre-christian
9. cauvery
10. cotton, jute
11. Yercaud
12. monsoon
13. irrigation
14. double cropping
15. Green revolution
16. sugar cane
17. beverage
18. Kerala
19. Rajasthan
20. crop insurance

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5 .(b)

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (c)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
What are the determinant factors of agriculture?
Answer:

1. Physical factor
2. Institutional factors
3. Infrastructural factors
4. Technological factors

Question 2.
Name the types of farming.
Answer:

1. Subsistence farming
2. Shifting agriculture
3. Intensive farming
4. Dry farming
5. Mixed fanning agriculture
6. Terrace cultivation

Question 3.
Why and where millets are cultivated?
Answer:
Millets are cultivated in poor soils. They are rich in nutritional content higher when wheat or rice. They also provide fodder for cattle. They grown in almost all the states in India.

Question 4.
Name the Cotton growing areas of India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana.

Question 5.
What are plantation crops?
Answer:

1. Tea
2. Coffee
3. Rubber

Question 6.
Name the oil seeds of India.
Answer:
Ground nut, sesamum, rape seed, mustard, sunflower seed, castor seed, coconut, soyabean etc.

Question 7.
What are the natural conditional required for the cultivation of cotton?
Answer:

1. Cotton grows well in tropical and subtropical climate.
2. Black soil is the most suitable soil for cotton cultivation.

Question 8.
What are the crops grown in rabi for cotton cultivation?
Answer:
Wheat, barley, gram and oil seeds.

Question 9.
Name the jute producing states in India.
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa and Meghalaya.

Question 10.
Mention the different methods of rice cultivation.
Answer:
Drilling, dibbling and transplanting.

Question 11.
What is ginning?
Answer:
The seeds are separated from the cotton fibre by means of a process called ginning.

Question 12.
Why is jute called the “ Golden fibre” of India?
Answer:
Jute is called the Golden fibre of India because India earns valuable foreign exchange by exporting jute.

Question 13.
How is Bio-Technology useful in agriculture?
Answer:
Adopting Bio-Technology is environmentally safe and sustainable, cost of production of the farmers will be decreased.

Question 14.
Name the major crops of India.
Answer:

1. Food crops
2. Cash crops
3. Plantation crops
4. Horticulture

Question 15.
Who is the largest production of rice in the world?
Answer:
China

Question 16.
What are the two types of canals?
Answer:

1. Inundation canals
2. Perennial canals

Question 17.
What is Animal husbandry?
Answer:
It is the art of rearing animals for milk, skin, hide and horns and farm works.

Question 18.
Name the leading wool production areas in India.
Answer:

1. Rajasthan
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Karnataka

Question 19.
Name some important varieties of fishes.
Answer:
Cat fish, Herrings, Mackerels, Perches, Eels, Mullets etc.

Question 20.
Name the top five fish producing states of India.
Answer:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. West Bengal
3. Gujarat
4. Kerala
5. Tamil Nadu

Question 21.
Name the important multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:

1. Damodar valley project
2. Bhakra-Nangal project
3. Hirakud project

V. Distinguish Between:

Question 1.
The Khadar and Bhangar
Answer:

S.No.	Khadar	Bhangar
1.	Khadar is the newer alluvium.	Bhangar is the older alluvium.
2.	It is sandy.	It is light coloured soil. It is clayey in nature.

Question 2.
Well irrigation and Tube well irrigation.
Answer:

Question 3.
Unicropping and Dual cropping
Answer:

Question 4.
Food crops and Cash crops
Answer:

Question 5.
Wet farming and Dry farming
Answer:

Question 6.
Horticulture and Animal husbandry.
Answer:

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name the crops that are grown in alluvial soil.
Answer:
Rice, Wheat, Sugarcane and Oilseeds are mainly grown in alluvial soil.

Question 2.
Explain how land forms influence the pattern of agricultural.
Answer:
The major relief features are mountains, plateaus and plains. Among them, the plains with abundant alluvial soil determines the agricultural productivity. Ex: North Indian Plain, Coastal plains and deltaic plains of South India favour agriculture activity paddy and wheat are the main crops cultivated this region.

Question 3.
Name the factors on which the sources of irrigation depend?
Answer:
Sources of Irrigation depend upon the following factors: Topography, soil, rainfall, availability of surface or ground water, nature of river and requirements of crops.

Question 4.
Write about drip system.
Answer:
Drip system is used to watering like drops at near the root of plant. It will cover a tiny area at plant, but suitable for big trees and horticulture plant too which used to grow bigger.

Question 5.
What is a tank?
Answer:
A tank is a natural or man-made hollow on the surface developed by constructing a small bund around it across a stream.

Question 6.
What is mixed farming agriculture?
Answer:
Mixed farming is defined as a system of farm which includes crops production, raising, livestock, poultry, fisheries, bee keeping etc. to sustain and satisfy as many needs of the farmer as possible.

Question 7.
What are the three methods of sowing rice in India?
Answer:
Rice in India is sown in three ways namely:

1. Broadcasting
2. Ploughing or drilling
3. Transplanting

Question 8.
Name the different breeds of Indian cattle.
Answer:

1. Milch Breed
2. Draught breed and
3. Mixed or General breed.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What are the main problems faced by the Indian soils? How can we conserve soil?
Solution:

1. Soil degradation is an acute problem in India.
2. The main reasons are:
   • Soil erosion
   • Waterlogging
   • Saline and Alkaline due to dry climate.
3. Deforestation and use of excessive fertilizers.

Methods of Conservation and Management of soil:

In order to retain the fertility and to prevent soil from erosion the following conservation methods can be useful.

1. Afforestation
2. Constructing Dams and Barrages
3. Prevention of overgrazing
4. Improved methods of Agricultural practices namely:
   • Contour ploughing
   • Rotation of crops
   • Strip cropping
   • Planting shelterbelts
   • Adopting techniques of sustainable agriculture for better soil management.

Question 2.
Write a brief account on Damodar valley project.
Answer:
Damodar valley project sets an example towards managing our water resources on scientific lines. Damodar though a small river, was called the “river of sorrow’’ owing to devastating floods it caused. It flows from Chotanagpur in south Bihar, to West Bengal. This project consists of series of small dams on the tributaries of Damodar. There are few hydel power stations st Tilaya, Konar Naithon and Panchet. They have been integrated in a common grid for the growing industrial complexes around South East Bihar and West Bengal. It irrigates half a million hectares of land in parts of South Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 3.
Name the oil seeds grown in India and its areas of production. How oil seeds are commercially important?
Answer:
Oil seeds are the vital source of fat in Indian diet obtained from number of crops like ground nut, linseed, mustard, grape seed, sesame, sunflower, castor seeds, cotton seeds etc.

Uses: They are commercially important too. Since they provide oil and oil cakes which are used for making lubricants, varnish, medicine, perfume, candles, soap, manure and cattle feed.

Areas of production: Gujarat is the largest producer of oil seeds. Other major producer of oil seeds are Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 4.
Write about the Cash crops in India.
Answer:
The crops which are cultivated for commercial purposes are called Cash crops. These crops include sugarcane, tobacco, fibre crops (cotton jute and mesta) and oil seeds.

1. Sugar cane:
Sugar cane is the most important cash of India and is the second largest producer in the world. It provides raw materials for the sugar industry which is the second largest industrial category of our country. Besides providing sugar, gur and Khandsari, it supplies molasses for alcohol industry and bagasse for paper industry. India is ranked Cuba and Brazil. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of sugar cane followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Gujarat.

2. Cotton:
Cotton is the most important cash crop of India. It provides raw material to the largest industry of India. India ranks second next to China in the production of cotton. 79% of the total area and production in the country were contributes by Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra pradesh and Punjab.

3. Jute:
It is a tropical crops, grows well in the alluvial soil. It provides raw material for jute industry. It is used for manufacturing of gunny bags, carpets, lessian, ropes and strings, rugs, clothes, tarpaulins, upholstery etc. West Bengal is the leading state both in cultivation and production. Oil seeds

4. Oil seeds:
Oil seeds, the premier source of fat in the Indian diet are derived from number of crops like groundnut, grapes seed, mustard, sesame, linseed, sunflower, castor seed, cotton seed, nigar seed etc. Gujarat is India’s largest oilseeds producing state. Others are Rajasthan, MP, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh. In groundnut production, India is the second largest producer in the world after China.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 3 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.6

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the sum of the following
(i) 3, 7, 11, …….. up to 40 terms.
(ii) 102, 97, 92, ……… up to 27 terms.
(iii) 6 + 13 + 20 + ……… + 97
Solution:
(i) 3, 7, 11,. . . upto 40 terms.
a = 3, d = t₂ – t₁ = 7 – 3 = 4
n = 40
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) (2a + (n – 1)d)
S₄₀ = \(\frac{20}{2}\) (2× 3 + 39d)
= 20(6 + 39 × 4)
= 20(6 + 156)
= 20 × 162
= 3240

(ii) 102, 97, 952,… up to 27 terms
a = 102,
d = t₂ – t₁
= 97 – 102 = -5
n = 27

(iii) 6 + 13 + 20 + … + 97
a = 6,d = 7, l = 97

Ex 2.6 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
How many consecutive odd integers beginning with 5 will sum to 480?
Answer:
5,7,9, 11, 13,…
S_n = 480
a = 5, d = 2, S_n = 480

2n² + 8n – 960 = 0
⇒ n² + 4n – 480 = 0
⇒ n² + 24n – 20n – 480 = 0
⇒ n(n + 24) – 20(n + 24) = 0
⇒ (n – 20)(n + 24) = 0
⇒ n = 20,-24
No. of terms cannot be -ve.
∴ No. of consecutive odd integers beginning with 5 will sum to 480 is 20.

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 Solution Question 3.
Find the sum of first 28 terms of an A.P. whose n^th term is 4n – 3.
Answer:
Number of terns (n) = 28
t_n = 4n – 3
t₁ = 4(1) – 3 = 4 – 3 = 1
t₂ = 4(2) – 3 = 8 – 3 = 5
t₃ = 4(3) – 3 = 12 – 3 = 9
Here a = 1, d = 5 – 1 = 4
S₂₈ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1)d]
= \(\frac { 28 }{ 2 } \) [2 + (27) (4)]
= 14 [2 + 108]
= 14 × 110
= 1540
Sum of 28 terms = 1540

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 Question 4.
The sum of first n terms of a certain series is given as 2n2 – 3n. Show that the series is an A.P.
Solution:
Given S_n = 2n² – 3n
S₁ = 2(1)² – 3(1) = 2 – 3 = – 1
⇒ t₁ = a = – 1
S₂ = 2(2²) – 3(2) = 8 – 6 = 2
t₂ = S₂ – S₁ = 2 – (-1) = 3
∴ d = t₂ – t₁ = 3 – (-1) = 4
Consider a, a + d, a + 2d, ….….
-1, -1 + 4, -1 + 2(4), …..…
-1, 3, 7,….
Clearly this is an A.P with a = – 1, and d = 4.

Exercise 2.6 Class 10 Maths Question 5.
The 104^th term and 4th term of an A.P are 125 and 0. Find the sum of first 35 terms.
Solution:
t₁₀₄ = 125
t₄ = 0
a + (n – 1)d = t_n

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 In Tamil Question 6.
Find the sum of all odd positive integers less than 450.
Solution:
Sum of all odd positive integers less than 450 is given by
1 + 3 + 5 + … + 449
a = 1
d = 2
l = 449


= 50625
Another method:
Sum of all +ve odd integers = n².
We can use the formula n² = 225²
= 50625

Ex 2.6 Class 10 Question 7.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4.
Answer:
Natural numbers between 602 and 902
603,604, …, 901
a = 603, l = 901, d = 1,

Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4.
= Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902
= Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are divisible by 4.
l = 902 – 2 = 900
To make 602 divisible by 4 we have to add 2 to 602.
∴ 602 + 2 = 604 which is divisible by 4.
To make 902 divisible by 4, subtract 2 from 902.
∴ 900 is the last number divisible by 4.

Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible 4.
= 224848 – 56400
= 168448

Exercise 2.6 Class 10 Maths Solution Question 8.
Raghu wish to buy a Laptop. He can buy it by paying ₹40,000 cash or by making 10 installments as ₹4800 in the first month, ₹4750 in the second month, ₹4700 in the third month and so on. If he pays the money in this fashion, Find
(i) Total amount paid in 10 installments.
(ii) How much extra amount that he pay in installments.
Answer:
(i) Amount paid in 10 installments
4800 + 4750 + 4700 + ……………. 10
Here a = 4800; d = – 50 ; n = 10
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a +(n – 1)d]
S₁₀ = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 4800 +9(-50)]
= \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [9600 – 450]
= 5 [9150]
= 45750
Amount paid in 10 installments
= ₹45750
(ii) Extra amount paid = amount paid in 10
installment – cost of the laptop
= ₹45750 – 40,000
= ₹ 5750
(i) Amount paid in 10 installments = ₹ 45750
(ii) Difference in payment = ₹ 5750

Class 10 Maths Exercise 2.6 Solution Question 9.
A man repays a loan of ₹65,000 by paying ₹400 in the first month and then increasing the payment by ₹300 every month. How long will it take for him to clear the loan?
Solution:
Loan Amount = ₹ 65,000
Repayment through installments
400 + 700 + 1000 + 1300 + …
a = 400
d = 300
S_n = 65000
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) (2a + (n – 1)d)
= 65000
\(\frac{n}{2}\)(2 × 400 + (n – 1)300) = 65000
n(800 + 300n – 300) = 130000
n(500 + 300n) = 130000
500n + 300n² = 130000

Number of terms should be (+ve) and cannot be (-ve) or fractional number.
∴ He will take 20 months to clear the loans.

2.6 Maths Class 10 Question 10.
A brick staircase has a total of 30 steps. The bottom step requires 100 bricks. Each successive step requires two bricks less than the previous step.
(i) How many bricks are required for the top most step?
(ii) How many bricks are required to build the stair case?
Answer:
Total number of steps = 30
∴ n = 30
Number of bricks for the bottom = 100
a = 100
2 bricks is less for each step

(i) Number of bricks required for the top most step
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
t₃₀ = 100 + 29 (-2)
= 100 – 58
= 42

(ii) Number of bricks required
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n-1) d]
S₃₀ = \(\frac { 30 }{ 2 } \) [200 + 29 (-2)]
= 15[200 – 58]
= 2130
(i) Number of bricks required for the top most step = 42 bricks
(ii) Number of bricks required = 2130

Exercise 2.6 Class 10 Question 11.
If S₁,S₂,S₃ , …. , S_m are the sums of n terms of m A.P.’s whose first terms are 1,2,3,…,m and whose common differences are 1, 3, 5,…, (2m – 1) respectively, then show that
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …. + Sm = \(\frac{1}{2}\)  mn(mn + 1).
Solution:

Question 12.
Find the sum

Solution:

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Plant And Animal Hormones Class 10 Question 1.
Gibberellins cause _____.
(a) Shortening of genetically tall plants
(b) Elongation of dwarf plants
(c) Promotion of rooting
(d) Yellowing of young leaves.
Answer:
(c) Promotion of rooting

10th Science Plant And Animal Hormones Question 2.
The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Plant And Animal Hormones Class 10 Book Back Answers Question 3.
Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants?
(a) 2, 4 – D
(b) GA3
(c) Gibberellin
(d) IAA.
Answer:
(a) 2, 4 – D

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 4.
Avena coleoptile test was conducted by:
(a) Darwin
(b) N. Smit
(c) Paal
(d) F.W. Went
Answer:
(d) F.W. Went

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 5.
To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are sprayed with _____.
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Ethylene.
Answer:
(d) Ethylene.

Animal Hormones Class 10 Question 6.
LH is secreted by:
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Anterior pituitary
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer:
(c) Anterior pituitary

Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 7.
Identify the exocrine gland _____.
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Salivary gland
(d) Thyroid gland.
Answer:
(c) Salivary gland

Plant And Animal Hormones Question 8.
Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Plant Hormones And Animal Hormones Class 10 Question 9.
Which one is referred to as “Master Gland”?
(a) Pineal gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Adrenal gland.
Answer:
(b) Pituitary gland

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
______ causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 2.
______ is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit ripening.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 3.
____ causes stomatal closure.
Answer:
Abscisic acid.

Question 4.
Gibberellins induce stem elongation in _____ plants.
Answer:
Corn and Pea.

Question 5.
The hormone which has a negative effect on apical dominance is _____.
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 6.
Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by _____.
Answer:
Parathormone.

Question 7.
In the Islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete _____.
Answer:
Insulin.

Question 8.
The growth and functions of the thyroid gland are controlled by _____.
Answer:
Hormone T₃ and T₄

Question 9.
Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to _____.
Answer:
Cretinism.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.
(a) Match the Column I with Columns II and III.

Column I	Column II	Column III
Auxin	Gibberella fujikuroi	Abscission
Ethylene	Coconut milk	Intermodal elongation
Abscisic acid	Coleoptile tip	Apical dominance
Cytokinin	Chloroplast	Ripening
Gibberellins	Fruits	Cell division

(b) Match the following hormones with their deficiency states.

Hormones	Disorders
1. Thyroxine	(a) Acromegaly
2. Insulin	(b) Tetany
3. Parathormone	(c) Simple goitre
4. Growth hormone	(d) Diabetes insipidus
5. ADH	(e) Diabetes mellitus

Answer:
(a)

Column I	Column II	Column III
Auxin	Coleoptile tip	Apical dominance
Ethylene	Fruits	Ripening
Abscisic acid	Chloroplast	Abscission
Cytokinin	Coconut milk	Cell division
Gibberellins	Gibberella fujikuroi	Intermodal elongation

(b)
1. (c) Simple goitre
2. (e) Diabetes mellitus
3. (b) Tetany
4. (a) Acromegaly
5. (d) Diabetes insipidus

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement.

Question 1.
A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division and promotion of nutrient mobilization is cytokinin.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.

Question 4.
Exophthalmic goitre is due to the over secretion of thyroxine.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The pituitary gland is divided into four lobes.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The Pituitary gland is composed of two lobes and performs different functions.

Question 6.
Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Estrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.

V. Assertion and Reasoning Questions

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of Reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as,
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: Application of cytokinin to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days.
Reason: Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred to as “Master gland”.
Reason (R): It controls the functioning of other endocrine glands.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus increases blood sugar levels.
Reason (R): Insulin decreases blood sugar levels.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
Answer:
Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in Cucurbits.

Question 2.
Write the name of synthetic auxin.
Answer:
2, 4 Dichloro phenoxy Acetic Acid is the synthetic hormone.

Question 3.
Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes?
Answer:
Gibberellins are efficient in the formation of seedless fruit, inducing parthenocarpy in tomatoes.

Question 4.
What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in female after child birth?
Answer:
Prolactin stimulates the secretion of milk in female after child birth.

Question 5.
Name the hormones which regulate water and mineral metabolism in man.
Answer:
Antidiuretic or vasopressin hormone regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.

Question 6.
Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man?
Answer:
Adrenaline and Noradrenaline is secreted during emergency situation in man.

Question 7.
Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones?
Answer:
The pancreas is exocrine and endocrine in nature. The exocrine pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which plays a role in digestion. The endocrine portion (Islets of Langerhans) secrete hormones.

Question 8.
Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys.
Answer:
Adrenal gland is associated with kidneys.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially synthesized auxins, which have the properties like auxins are called as synthetic auxins, eg. 2, 4-D (2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy Acetic acid, Indole-3-Propionic Acid, alpha – Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA), 2, 4, 5-T (2, 4, 5-Trichlorophenoxy Acetic acid) are some of the synthetic auxins.

Question 2.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Rosette plant (genetic dwarfism) plant exhibit excessive intermodal growth when they are treated with gibberellins. This sudden elongation of a stem followed by flowering is called bolting.

Question 3.
Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
Answer:

• During water stress and drought conditions, Abscisic acid causes stomatal closure.
• ABA induces bud dormancy towards the approach of winter in trees like birch.

Question 4.
What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
Answer:
Artificially synthesized auxin to be sprayed to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop as Auxin prevent the formation of abscission layer.

Question 5.
What are chemical messengers?
Answer:
A chemical messenger is any compound that serves to transmit a message. A chemical messenger refers to hormones.

Question 6.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:
The exocrine gland secretes juices, which plays a role in digestion. An endocrine portion is made up of endocrine glands, which secrete hormones. The pancreas is exocrine and endocrine in nature.

Question 7.
What is the role of parathormone?
Answer:
Parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorous metabolism in the body. They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.

Question 8.
What are the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Answer:

• Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone.
• Oxytocin is the two hormones of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

In kidney tubules, the vasopressin hormone increases the reabsorption of water. It reduces the loss of water through urine.
Oxytocin helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus at the time of childbirth and ” milk ejection from the mammary gland after childbirth.

Question 9.
Why are thyroid hormones refered as personality hormone?
Answer:
Thyroid hormones are essential for normal, physical, mental and personality development. So, it is called as personality hormone.

Question 10.
Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if the intake of iodine in our diet is low?
Answer:
The hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are:

• Triiodothyronine (T₃)1
• Tetraiodothyronine or Thyroxin (T₄), which need an amino acid tyrosine and Iodine for its formation.

If the intake of Iodine in our diet is low or due to the inadequate supply of iodine in our diet leads to the enlargement of the thyroid gland, which protrudes, as swelling in the neck and is called as goitre.

VIII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in plants.
Answer:
Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone.

1. Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits. Eg: Tomato, Apple, Mango, Banana, etc.
2. Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
3. Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.

(b) Which hormone is known as a stress hormone in plants? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called a stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

Question 2.
Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth-stimulating hormone is produced at the tip of the coleoptile?
Answer:
Went’s experiment was done by Frits warm out. This experiment demonstrates the growth-stimulating hormone Auxin is produced at the tip of the coleoptile.

He did a series of experiments in Avena Coleoptiles. In his first experiment, he removed the tips of Avena coleoptiles. The cut tips did not grow, indicating that the tips produced something essential for growth.
In his second experiment, he placed the agar blocks on the decapitated coleoptile tips. The coleoptile tips did not show any response.

In his third experiment, he placed the detached coleoptile tips on agar blocks. After an hour, the tips were discarded and placed this agar block on the decapitated coleoptile. It grew straight up, indicating that some chemical had diffused from the cut coleoptile tips into the agar block, which stimulated the growth.

From these experiments, Went concluded that, the chemical diffusing from the tip of coleoptile was responsible for the growth and he named it as “Auxin”.

Question 3.
Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
Answer:

1. Application of gibberellins on plants stimulate extraordinary elongation of intemode. Eg: Com and Pea.
2. Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering. This is called bolting.
3. Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants (Cucurbits).
4. Gibberellins break dormancy of potato tubers.
5. Gibberellins are efficient than. auxins in inducing the formation of seedless fruit – Parthenocarpic fruits (Development of fruits without fertilization) Eg: Tomato.

Question 4.
Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
Answer:
Estrogen, the female sex hormone is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Role of estrogen:

• It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
• It initiates the process of oogenesis.
• It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
• It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development and high pitched voice, etc).

Question 5.
What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the conditions different from one another?
Answer:
ADH:
Deficiency of ADH causes a disorder called diabetes insipidus.
Deficiency of ADH reduces the reabsorption of water and causes an increase in urea output (polyuria). This deficiency disorder is called Diabetes insipidus.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What would be expected to happen if,

1. Gibberellin is applied to rice seedlings?
2. A rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits.
3. When cytokinin is not added to the culture medium.

Answer:

1. When gibberellins are applied, it stimulates, the extraordinary elongation of internodes.
2. The mass of undifferentiated cell is called callus. If the rotten fruits get mixed with unripe fruits, then the ethylene produced from the rotten fruits will hasten the ripening of the unripe fruits.
3. If cytokinin is not added to the culture medium, then the cell division, growth and differentiation will not be observed.

Question 2.
A plant hormone was first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from Bakanae disease caused by Gibberella fujikoroi. Based on this information answer the following questions:
(a) Identify the hormone involved in this process.
Answer:
Gibberellin is involved in this process.

(b) Which property of this hormone causes the disease?
Answer:
It stimulates extraordinary elongation of intemode.

(c) Give two functions of this hormone.
Answer:

1. Gibberellin break dormancy of potato tubers.
2. Gibberellin promotes the production of male flower in monoecious plant (Cucurbits).

Question 3.
Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded eyeball and increased body temperature. Name the endocrine gland involved and hormone secretion responsible for this condition.
Answer:
The endocrine gland is Thyroid gland, and the hormones secreted are Triiodothyronine (T₃) and Tetraiodothyronine or Thyroxine (T₄). The excess secretion of the Thyroid hormone leads to Grave’s disease. The symptoms are protrusion of eyeballs (exophthalmia), increased metabolic rate, high body temperature, profuse sweating, loss of body weight and nervousness.

Question 4.
Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with increased rate of heart beat. Why does this condition occur?
Answer:
It is due to secretion of Epinephrine and Norepinephrine as it produced during conditions of stress and emotion. They are called as “Emergency hormones” or flight, fright and fight hormone.

Question 5.
Susan’s father feels very tired and frequently urinates. After clinical diagnosis, he was advised to take an injection daily to maintain his blood glucose level. What would be the possible cause for this? Suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
The deficiency of insulin causes Diabetes mellitus. He has Diabetes mellitus. Increase in blood sugar level (Hyperglycemia). He was advised to take an injection, Insulin, which helps in the conversion of glucose into glycogen, which is stored in the liver. It decreases the concentration of glucose in the blood.
Preventive measures:

• Manage the weight
• Exercise regularly
• Eat a balanced healthy diet
• Limit alcohol intake
• Quit smoking
• Control the blood pressure

Textbook Activities Solved

Activity 1.
Place two or three unripe tomatoes in a brown paper bag with a ripe banana and roll the top closed. In another bag place two or three unripe tomatoes only and roll the top closed, Observe what happens to the tomatoes? Why?
Answer:
As the banana continues to ripen in the first bag, it produces ethylene gas. The gas trapped in the bag will cause tomatoes to ripen. The tomatoes remain unripe in the second bag.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The chemical substances produced by plants are called _____.
Answer:
Hormones.

Question 2.
Tie two lobes of thyroid glands are connected by means of a narrow band of tissue called _____.
Answer:
Isthmus.

Question 3.
The chief cells of parathyroid glands are _____.
Answer:
Parathormone.

Question 4.
The other name for adrenal gland is _____.
Answer:
Supra Renal.

Question 5.
The hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex are _____.
Answer:
Corticosteroids

Question 6.
During water stress and drought conditions _______ causes stomatal closure.
Answer:
Abscisic acid.

Question 7.
Glucagon helps the break down of ______ to glucose in the liver.
Answer:
Glycogen.

Question 8.
The adrenal medulla is composed of ______ cells.
Answer:
Chromaffin.

Question 9.
The male sex hormone _______ is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters.
Answer:
Testosterone.

Question 10.
_______ is a gaseous plant hormone, mainly concerned with maturation and ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 11.
The other name for pituitary gland is _____.
Answer:
Hypophysis.

Question 12.
The glandular follicles of the thyroid gland are filled with colloid material called _____.
Answer:
Thyroglobulin.

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Morphogenesis	(a) Chromaffin cells
2. Bakanae disease	(b) Male sex hormone
3. Tetany	(c) Thymus
4. Testosterone	(d) Gibberella fujikuroi
5. Adrenal medulla	(e) Female sex hormone
6. Thymosin	(f) Callus in tissue culture
7. Estrogen	(g) Muscle spasm

Answer:

1. (f) Callus in tissue culture
2. (d) Gibberella fujikuroi
3. (g) Muscle spasm
4. (b) Male sex hormone
5. (a) Chromaffin cells
6. (c) Thymus
7. (e) Female sex hormone.

III. Choose the odd one out.

Question 1.
Auxins, Parthenocarpy, apical dominance, Parathormone?
Answer:
Parathormone.

Question 2.
Senescence, Dormancy, Estrogen, abscission?
Answer:
Estrogen.

Question 3.
Glucagon, Endocrine, Exocrine, Gibberellins?
Answer:
Gibberellins.

Question 4.
Norepinephrine, Isthmus, tyrosine, thyroglobulin?
Answer:
Norepinephrine.

Question 5.
Gonads, Thyroid, Cytokinin, Thymus?
Answer:
Cytokinin.

IV. Match the following endocrine glands with their location.

Question 1.

1. Pituitary gland	(a) Female sex gland
2. Thyroid gland	(b) Male sex gland
3. Parathyroid	(c) Above the kidney
4. Islets of Langerhans	(d) The posterior surface of the thyroid lobe
5. Adrenal gland	(e) The upper part of the chest, the lower end of the trachea
6. Testes	(f) Base of midbrain
7. Ovary	(g) Pancreas
8. Thymus	(h) Trachea

Answer:

1. (f) Base of midbrain
2. (h) Trachea
3. (d) The posterior surface of the thyroid lobe
4. (g) Pancreas
5. (c) Above the kidney
6. (b) Male sex gland
7. (a) Female sex gland
8. (e) The upper part of the chest, the lower end of Trachea.

V. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ for the following statements. Write the correct statement for false:

Question 1.
Auxins, cytokinins and gibberellins inhibit plant growth, while abscisic acid and Ethylene promote plant growth.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Auxins, cytokinins and gibberellins promote plant growth, while abscisic acid and ethylene inhibit plant growth.

Question 2.
Glucagon helps in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The thymus is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Leydig cells from the cells of a female. Gonads located in the pelvic cavity.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Leydig cells from the endocrine part of the testes.

Question 5.
Cretinism is caused due to increased secretion of the thyroid hormones in children.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Cretinism is caused due to decreased secretion of the thyroid hormones in children.

Question 6.
Cytokinin promotes the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical buds.
Answer:
True.

VI. Answer the following in a word or with a sentence.

Question 1.
Where are Auxins produced?
Answer:
Auxins are produced at the tip of stems and roots from where they migrate to the zone of elongation.

Question 2.
What is Richmond Lang effect?
Answer:
Delaying the process of ageing in plants with the application of cytokinin is called Richmond Lang effect.

Question 3.
What is Richmond Lang effect?
Answer:
Application of cytokinin delays the process of ageing in plants. This is called Richmond Lang effect.

Question 4.
Give the uses of progesterone.
Answer:
Progesterone maintains pregnancy and regulates the menstrual cycle.

Question 5.
What are the secretions of alpha and beta cells of Islets of Langerhans?
Answer:
Alpha cells secrete glucagon and beta cells secrete Insulin.

Question 6.
What is the main function of Glucogen.
Answer:
Glucogon converts excess amount of glycogen stored under the muscle and liver to glucose. Thus raising the blood glucose level.

Question 7.
Name the two types of sex glands.
Answer:
Testes and Ovaries.

Question 8.
Specify the symptoms of acromegaly.
Answer:
Acromegaly leads to abnormal enlargement of head, face, hand and feet.

Question 9.
Name the three layers of the adrenal cortex.
Answer:

• Zona glomerulosa
• Zona fasciculata
• Zona reticularis

Question 10.
What is Endocrinology?
Answer:
The branch of biology which deals with the study of the endocrine glands is called Endocrinology.

VII. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Name the types of plant hormones.
Answer:

• Auxins
• Cytokinins
• Gibberellins
• Abscisic acid
• Ethylene.

Question 2.
Growth hormone is important for normal growth. Explain.
Answer:
Growth hormone promotes the development and enlargement of all tissues •of the body. It stimulates the growth of muscles, cartilage and long bones. It controls cell metabolism.

Question 3.
What are Ductless glands? Why are they called so?
Answer:
Endocrine glands are called ductless glands because their secretions are diffused into the bloodstream, and are carried to the different parts of the body. They do not have specific ducts to carry the hormones.

Question 4.
Why pancreas is called as dual gland?
Answer:
The exocrine part of the pancreas produces pancreatic juice. The endocrine part produce islets of Langerhans, consists of two cells namely alpha cells that produce a hormone called glucagon and Beta cells that produce insulin. So, it is called as dual gland.

Question 5.
Write any three physiological effects of cytokinins.
Answer:

• Cytokinins induce cell division.
• Cytokinins promote the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical buds.
• Cytokinesis causes cell enlargement.

Question 6
Which gland is a link between endocrine and lymphoid gland.
Answer:
Thymus is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland. It is located in the upper part of the chest covering the lower end of trachea. Thymosin is the hormone secreted by the thymus.

Question 7.
What are the functions of thyroid hormones? Write any three points.
Answer:

• Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body.
• Helps to maintain normal body temperature.
• Influences the activity of the Central Nervous System.

Question 8.
What are plant hormones?
Answer:
Plant hormones are organic molecules that are produced at extremely low concentration in plants. These molecules control morphological, physiological and biochemical responses.

Question 9.
Explain any three functions of Testosterone.
Answer:

• It influences the process of spermatogenesis.
• It stimulates protein synthesis and controls muscular growth.
• Responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters (distribution of hair on body and face and deep voice pattern, etc.).

Question 10.
Write a short note on the thymus gland.
Answer:
The thymus gland is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland. It is located in the upper part of the chest covering the lower end of the trachea. Thymosin is the hormone secreted by Thymus.
Functions:

• It has a stimulatory effect on the immune function.
• It stimulates the production and differentiation of lymphocytes.

VIII. Draw a labelled diagram for the following.

Question 1.
Hormonal interaction in plant growth and development.
Answer:

Question 2.
Pancreas
Answer:

Question 3.
Adrenal gland
Answer:

IX. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
With a neat labelled diagram, explain the pituitary gland and the types of hormones.
Answer:

The pituitary gland is a pea-shaped compact mass of cells located at the base of the midbrain. As it regulates and controls the other endocrine glands, it is called “Master gland”

1. Hormones secreted by anterior pituitary:
(a) Growth Hormone (GH): It promotes the development and enlargement of all tissues. It stimulates the growth of muscles, cartilage and long bones. It controls cell metabolism. Decreased secretion of growth hormone leads to Dwarfism in children characterised by stunted growth, delayed skeletal formation and mental disability. Oversecretion of growth hormone leads to gigantism in children. Characterised by abnormal enlargement of head, face, hands and feet.

(b) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) – a growth of thyroid gland.

(c) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) – Protein synthesis in the adrenal cortex.

(d) Gonadotrophic hormones (GTH) – for the normal development of Gonads.
The other two hormones are Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH); Luteinizing Hormones (LH)

(e) Prolactin (PRL) Initiates the development of mammary glands during pregnancy and production of milk after childbirth.

2. Hormones secreted by the posterior lobe:
(a) Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) – It reduces the loss of water through urine. Deficiency of ADH reduces the reabsorption of water and causes an increase in urine output (polyuria). This deficiency disorder is called Diabetes insipidus.

(b) Oxytocin – It helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus at the time of childbirth and milk ejection from the mammary gland after childbirth.

Question 2.
With a neat labelled diagram, explain thyroid gland, functions of thyroid hormones and the thyroid dysfunction.
Answer:
The thyroid gland is composed of two distinct lobes lying one on either side of the trachea. The two lobes are connected by means of a narrow band of tissue called as the isthmus, the gland is composed of glandular follicles and lined by cuboidal epithelium. The follicles are filled with colloid material called thyroglobulin. An amino acid tyrosine and iodine are involved in the formation of thyroid hormone.
The hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are:

1. Triiodothyronine (T₃)
2. Tetraiodothyronine or Thyroxine (T₄)
   

Functions of Thyroid hormone:

• Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body.
• Helps to maintain normal body temperature.
• Influences the activity of the Central Nervous System.
• Controls growth of the body and bone formation.
• Essential for normal physical, mental and personality development. So it is called personality hormone.
• Regulates cell metabolism.

When the thyroid gland fails to secrete the normal level of hormone, the condition is called thyroid dysfunction. It leads to the following conditions:
1. Hypothyroidism: It is caused due to the decreased secretion of the thyroid hormones.

• Goitre: Goitre is caused due to the inadequate supply of iodine in our diet. It leads to the enlargement of the thyroid gland, protruded, marked swelling in the neck and is called goitre.
• Cretinism: It is caused due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone in children. The conditions are stunted growth, mental defect, lack of skeletal development and deformed bones. They are called as cretins.
• Myxoedema: It is caused by the deficiency of thyroid hormone in adults. They are mentally sluggish, increase in body weight, puffiness of the face, hand etc.

2. Hyperthyroidism: It is caused due to the excess secretion of the thyroid hormone, which leads to Grave’s disease. The symptoms are protrusion of the eyeballs (Exopthalmia), increased metabolic rate, high body temperature, sweating, loss of body weight and nervousness.

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Human Rights

Human Rights Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Human Rights Class 9 Question 1.
‘Apartheid’ was followed by
(a) South Sudan
(b) South Africa
(c) Nigeria
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(b) South Africa

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 2.
…….. right exercises in the formation and administration of a government.
(a) Social
(b) Economic
(c) Political
(d) Cultural
Answer:
(c) Political

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 3.
A 10 year old boy is working in a shop. Which right can you use to recover him?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against child labour exploitation
(d) Right to freedom of Religion
Answer:
(c) Right against child labour exploitation

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 4.
Which one of the following rights has increased the influence of the people over bureaucracy?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to information
(c) Right to education
(d) Right to freedom
Answer:
(b) Right to information

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Social Question 5.
What is the time limit to get the information from RTI Act 2005?
(a) 20 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 35 days
Answer:
(c) 30 days

9th Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Human Rights Question 6.
…….. right was removed from the fundamental Rights by the 44^th Amendment.
(a) Right to own (or) sell property
(b) Right to freedom of religion
(c) Child labour and right against exploitation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Child labour and right against exploitation

9th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The state Human Rights commission was established in 1993.
(ii) It has the power of a civil count.
(iii) It’s power extend beyond the state.
(iv) It can also recommend compensation to victims.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (i) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Solutions Question 8.
Consider the following statements.
Assertions (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): We have a right to freedom of religions. We have to promote harmony and the spirit of the people of other religions.
(a) both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is correct
Answer:
(a) both A and R are correct and R explains A

9th Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 9.
According to the UNO a child is a person who has not completed the age of …….. years.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(d) 18

9th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 10.
Kailash Satyarthi and Malala have been awarded Nobel Prize for
(a) Literature
(b) Peace
(c) Physics
(d) Economics
Answer:
(b) Peace

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted on ……….
2. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights Contains …….. articles.
3. The fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution by ……… Amendment Act.
4. The National Human Rights commission was established on ………..
5. ………. Act came into effect on 1st April 2010.
6. Indian state to implement women ancestral property Act in 1989 was ………..
7. The Civil Rights movement in the United State was initiated by ……….
Answers:
1. 10^th December 1948
2. 30
3. 42^nd
4. 12^th October 1993
5. Right to Education
6. Hindu Succession Act
7. Rosa Parks

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Give short answers.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Book Solutions Question 1.
What is Human Right?
Answer:
The U.N.O defines Human rights as “The right inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, gender, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion or any other status. Every one is entitled to these rights without discrimination”.

Samacheer Kalvi Social 9th Question 2.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against Exploitation
• Right to Freedom of Conscience and Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights for minorities
• Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 3.
What are the Child Rights define by the UNO?
Answer:

• Right to life
• Right to family environment
• Right to Education
• Right to benefit from Social security
• Right against sexual exploitation
• Right against sale or trafficking
• Right against other forms of exploitation like Child labour.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution. By this right, a person can adopt Constitutional means and approach a court if he is denied the Fundamental Rights. The court then issues orders which are called ‘Writs’ to the government to restore the rights to the citizen. The Constitutional Remedies put to right anything which may be wrong in terms of the Constitution. This right therefore protects and safeguards all other rights.

Question 5.
Define: POCSO
Answer:

1. The state should protect children from sexual exploitation and abuse, when they are forced or persuaded to take part in sexual activities physically or mentally.
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012.
3. Regards the best interest of the child as being of paramount importance at every stage.

Question 6.
Why do children need special attention?
Answer:

1. Children are considered to be the future citizens and an asset to a nation.
2. They should be brought up with warmth and by nurturing their interest.
3. The children when loved and appreciated, realizes their value.
4. This makes the child feel secured and develops self-esteem.
5. Eventually, the child is ready to face challenge in life with positive attitude.

Question 7.
What are the contributions to labourers by B.R. Ambedkar?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contribution to labourers.

• Reduction in Factory Working Hours (8 hours a day)
• Compulsory Recognition of Trade Unions
• Employment Exchange in India
• Employees State Insurance (ESI)
• Minimum Wages
• Coal and Mica Mines Provident Fund

Question 8.
‘All are equal before law’. But we have enacted a separate law for women – Justify.
Answer:

1. The National Commission for Women (NCW) is constituted in India to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
2. Recommends remedial measures.
3. Advises the government on all matters of policy affecting the welfare and development of women in the country.
4. Women’s rights under the Constitution of India mainly include equality, dignity, and freedom from discrimination.

Question 9.
Write about the Right against exploitation.
Answer:
It is against the law of employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories or other occupations. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against the their will.

Question 10.
Differentiate: Fundamental Rights and Human Rights.
Answer:

Fundamental Rights	Human Rights
The elemental rights of the citizens of a country, which are listed in the constitution and enforceable under the law is known as fundamental rights.	The rights that a human being deserves to survive with respect and freedoms.
Fundamental rights includes only those rights which are basic to a normal life.	Human rights include those rights which are basic to a real life and are absolute, i.e. it cannot be taken away.
Fundamental rights are guaranteed under the constitution of the country.	Human rights are recognised at international level.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph about UDHR.
Answer:

1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is a milestone document in the history of human rights.
2. The Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in Paris on 10th December 1948.
3. The first time it sets out the fundamental human rights to be universally protected and the UDHR has been translated into many languages.
4. There are 30 articles in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and it guarantees freedom of expression as well as civil, political, social, economic and cultural rights. These rights apply to all people, irrespective of their race, gender and nationality, as all people are born free and equal.

Question 2.
What are fundamental duties? How would you follow these in your school premises?
Answer:
These were incorporated in the Constitution by the 42^nd Amendment Act in 1976. The
Constitution states eleven Fundamental Duties as given below:

1. Respect for the Constitution and its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the
   National Anthem.
2. To follow and cherish the noble ideals which inspired our National Struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and have compassion on living creatures.
8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure from violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievements.
11. To provide opportunities for education by the parent and guardian to their child or ward upto the age of 14 years.

Question 3.
How does the National Human Rights Commission protect our rights?
Answer:

• To inquire into the violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant
• To intervene in court proceedings relating to human rights
• To undertake and promote research in the field of human rights
• To engage in human rights education among various sections of society
• To encourage the effects of NGOs and institutions working in the field of human rights.

Question 4.
What are the benefits for workers provided by labour law?
Answer:

• Reduction in Factory Working Hours (8 hours a day)
• Compulsory Recognition of Trade Unions
• Employment Exchange in India
• Employees State Insurance (ESI)
• Minimum Wages
• Coal and Mica Mines Provident Fund

Women Labourers’ Welfare and Ambedkar Dr. B.R. Ambedkar framed many laws for women workers in India such as the ‘Mines Maternity Benefit Act’, ‘Women Labour Welfare Fund’, ‘Women and Child Labour Protection Act’, ‘Maternity Benefit for Women Labour’, and ‘Restoration of Ban on Employment of Women . on Underground Work in Coal Mines’.

Question 5.
How do you enjoy the fundamental rights in your life?
Answer:
Right to Equality before law and equal protection of law. Prohibition or discrimination on the grounds of religion, caste, races, gender or place of birth is offensive and one can seek justice from court.
Right to Freedom: Six different types of freedom are mentioned in the Constitution. They are:
(a) Freedom of speech and expression.
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
(c) Freedom to form associations and unions.
(d) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.
(e) Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
(f) Freedom to practice any profession and carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Right against Exploitation

It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories or other occupations. Neither contractor nor an employer can force a worker to do a job against the their will.

VI. Project and Activity

Question 1.
How do you protect yourself from child abuse/sexual exploitation and trafficking.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Write an article titled “My country, My Rights”.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Human Rights Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
UDHR has played a crucial role in promoting
(a) Individual Rights
(b) Human Rights
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Human Rights

Question 2.
NCW was constituted to safeguard
(a) Students
(b) Women
(c) Labourers
(d) Children
Answer:
(b) Women

Question 3.
Fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in the year
(a) 1976
(b) 1980
(c) 1975
(d) 1950
Answer:
(a) 1976

Question 4.
Which of the following statements are true?
Answer:
(i) The general explanations of Human Rights by UDHR is not a legally binding document.
(ii) UDHR has a political and moral importance.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are wrong
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. In 1994 ……… became the President of South Africa.
2. UNO was established in the year ……
3. Political rights are given to the citizens by ………. .
4. Protection and promotion of human rights is India in the responsibility of ……….
5. The written order from the court or other legal authority is called a ………..
Answers:
1. Nelson Mandela
2. 1945
3. Law
4. NHRC
5. Writ

III. Match the following

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
What are Extended rights?
Answer:
The Child rights, SC and ST rights, Women rights, Right to information Act (RTI) and Labour laws come under Extended rights.

Question 2.
What is Apartheid?
Answer:
Apartheid means social discrimination. Apartheid was the highest form of discrimination that existed in South Africa. Places of residences were determined by racial classification. It was the governing policy in the country by the minority whites over the majority non-whites. The people of South Africa protested against racial discrimination.

Question 3.
Write a note on Nelson Mandela.
Answer:
Nelson Mandela raised his voice against Apartheid. When he organised defiant campaigns against the government, he was imprisoned. He was released in 1990 by the President F. W. de Klerk: The efforts taken by Mandela and de Klerk put an end to apartheid. In 1994, general election was held and Nelson Mandela, the leader of the African National Congress, became President.

Question 4.
What does the term Civil rights refer to?
Answer:
The term ‘ Civil rights’ refers to the basic rights afforded by laws of the government.
It is guaranteed to every person regardless of race, nationality, colour, gender, age, religion etc.

Question 5.
What is NHRC?
Answer:
The National Human Right Commission (NHRC) is an autonomous body constituted on 12th October 1993 under the protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It consists of a chairman and few other members. NHRC is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India. The Act defines the right relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are the functions of SHRC?
Answer:
The functions of SHRC are,

1. The SHRC shall enquire into violation of human rights in respect of matters specified in the state and concurrent lists.
2. Its objectives and duties are the same as NHRC, but confined only to the state. It has a chairman and two members.
3. It has the power of a civil court, and can take cognizance of cases if received.
4. It can also recommend compensation to victims.

Question 2.
Explain Child Rights.
Answer:
Child Rights are,

(a) Right to life:

1. A child has the right to survive even before its birth.
2. The right to survival also includes the right to be born, the right to basic needs of food, shelter and clothing and a dignified living.

(b) Right to Family Environment:

1. A child has the right to live a normal childhood in a family environment.
2. Children who have been left destitute, abandoned or orphaned also have the right to live.
3. These children can be given for adoption to caring families.

(c) Right to Education:
Right to Education Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 2009 for free and compulsory education for children from 6 to 14 years of age as under Article 21 A of the Constitution.

(d) Right against sale or trafficking:

1. Children should be treated as individuals with fundamental human rights.
2. Children are subj eCted to sale or trafficking for various reasons like economic exploitation, sexual exploitation, sexual abuse, drug trafficking and child labour.

(e) Right against sexual exploitation:

1. The state should protect children from sexual exploitation and abuse.
2. POCSO Act- Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act in 2012.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.12

10th Maths Exercise 3.12 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
If the difference between a number and its reciprocal is \(\frac{24}{5}\), find the number.
Solution:
Let a number be x.
Its reciprocal is \(\frac{1}{x}\)
\(x-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{24}{5}\)
\(\frac{x^{2}-1}{x}=\frac{24}{5}\)
5x² – 5 -24x = 0 ⇒ 5x² – 24x – 5 = 0
5x² – 25x + x – 5 = 0
5x(x – 5) + 1 (x – 5) = 0
(5x + 1)(x – 5) = 0
x = \(\frac{-1}{5}\), 5
∴ The number is \(\frac{-1}{5}\) or 5.

Ex 3.12 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
A garden measuring 12m by 16m is to have a pedestrian pathway that is ‘w’ meters wide installed all the way around so that it increases the total area to 285 m². What is the width of the pathway?
Solution:
Area of ABCD = 16 × 12 ²
= 192 m²
Area of A’B’C’D’ (12 + 2w)(16 + 2w)
192 + 32 w + 24 w + 4 w² = 285

4w² + 56w – 93 = 0
4w² + 62w – 6w – 93 = 0
2w(2w + 31) – 3(2w + 31) = 0
(2w – 3)(2w + 31) = 0
w = 1.5 or \(\frac{-31}{2}\) = 15.5
w = – 15.5 cannot possible 3
∴ w = \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 1.5 m
(w cannot be (-ve))
The width of the pathway = 1.5 m.

Exercise 3.12 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
A bus covers a distance of 90 km at a uniform speed. Had the speed been 15 km/hour more it would have taken 30 minutes less for the journey. Find the original speed of the bus.
Solution:
Let x km/hr be the constant speed of the bus.
The time taken to cover 90 km = \(\frac{90}{x}\) hrs.
When the speed is increased bus 15 km/hr.
= \(\frac{90}{x+15}\)
It is given that the time to cover 90 km is reduced by \(\frac{1}{2}\) hrs.


The speed of the bus cannot be -ve value.
∴ The original speed of the bus is 45 km/hr.

10th Maths Exercise 3.12 Question 4.
A girl is twice as old as her sister. Five years hence, the product of their ages (in years) will be 375. Find their present ages.
Solution:
Let the age of the girl be = 2y years
Her sister’s age is = y years
(2y + 5)(y + 5) = 375
2y² + 5y+ 10y + 25 – 375 = 0
2y² + 15y – 350 = 0

y = 10, y cannot be (-ve).
∴ Girls age is 2y = 20 years.
Her sister’s age = y = 10 years.

10th Maths Exercise 3.12 Solution Question 5.
A pole has to be erected at a point on the T boundary of a circular ground of diameter j 20 m in such a way that the difference of its i distances from two diametrically opposite j fixed gates P and Q on the boundary is 4 m. Is i it possible to do so? If answer is yes at what j distance from the two gates should the pole j be erected?
Solution:
PQ = 20 m
PX – XQ = 4 m …………… (1)

Squaring both sides,
PX² + XQ² – 2PX . QX = 16 (∵ ∠Q × p = 90°)
PQ² – 2P × QX = 16
400 – 16 = 2PX × QX
384 = 2PX – QX
PX . QX = 192
∴ (PX + QX)² = PX² + QX² + 2PX . QX
= 400 + 2 × 192
= 784 = 28²
∴ PX + QX = 28
From (1) & (2) 2PX = 32 ⇒ PX = 16 m QX = 12 m
∴Yes, the distance from the two gates to the pole PX and QX is 12 m, 16m.

Exercise 3.12 Question 6.
From a group of black bees 2x², square root of half of the group went to a tree. Again eight- ninth of the bees went to the same tree. The remaining two got caught up in a fragrant lotus. How many bees were there in total?
Solution:
Total no. of bees = 2x²

18x² – 9x – 16x² = 2 × 9
2x² – 9x – 18 = 0
(x – 6)(2x + 3) = 0
x = 6, x = \(\frac{-3}{2}\) (it is not possible)
No. of bees in total = 2x²
= 2 × 6² = 72

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Maths Question 7.
Music is been played in two opposite galleries with certain group of people. In the first gallery a group of 4 singers were singing and in the second gallery 9 singers were singing. The two galleries are separated by the distance of 70 m. Where should a person stand for hearing the same intensity of the singers voice? (Hint: The ratio of the sound intensity is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding distances).
Solution:
Let the person stand at a distance ‘d’ from 2nd gallery having 9 singers.

Given that ratio of sound intensity is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding distance.
∴ \(\frac{9}{4}=\frac{d^{2}}{(70-d)^{2}}\)
4d² = 9(70 – d)²
4d² = 9(70² – 140d + d²)
4d² = 9 × 70² – 9 × 140d + 9d²
∴ 5d² – 9 × 140d + 9 × 70² = 0
5d² = 1260d + 44100 = 0
d² – 252d + 8820 = 0

= \(\frac{420}{2} \text { or } \frac{84}{2}\)
= 120 or 42
∴ The person stand at a distance 28m from the first and 42 m from second gallery.

10th Maths Exercise 3.12 9th Sum Question 8.
There is a square field whose side is 10 m. A square flower bed is prepared in its centre leaving a gravel path all round the flower bed. The total cost of laying the flower bed and gravelling the path at ₹ 3 and ₹ 4 per square metre respectively is ₹364. Find the width of the gravel path.
Solution:

Area of the flower bed = a²
Area of the gravel path = 100 – a²
Area of total garden =100
given cost of flower bed + gravelling = ₹ 364
3a² + 4 (100 – a²) = ₹ 364
3a² + 400 – 4a² = 364
∴ a² = 400 – 364
= 36 ⇒ a = 6
width of gravel path =\(\frac{10-6}{2}=\frac{4}{2}\) = 2 cm

10th Maths Exercise 3.12 In Tamil Question 9.
Two women together took 100 eggs to a market, one had more than the other. Both sold them for the same sum of money. The first then said to the second: “If I had your eggs, I would have earned ₹ 15”, to which the second replied: “If I had your eggs, I would have earned ₹ 6 \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \)”. How many eggs did each had in the beginning? Answer:
Number of eggs for the first women be ‘x’
Let the selling price of each women be ‘y’
Selling price of one egg for the first women = \(\frac { y }{ 100-x } \)
By the given condition
(100 – x) \(\frac { y }{ x } \) = 15 (for first women)
y = \(\frac { 15 }{ 100-x } \) ……(1)
x × \(\frac { y }{ (100-x) } \) = \(\frac { 20 }{ 3 } \) [For second women]
y = \(\frac { 20(100-x) }{ 3x } \) ……..(2)
From (1) and (2) We get
\(\frac { 15 }{ 100-x } \) = \(\frac { 20(100-x) }{ 3x } \)
45x² = 20(100 – x)²
(100 – x)² = \(\frac{45 x^{2}}{20}\) = \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \) x²
∴ 100 – x = \(\sqrt{\frac{9}{4} x^{2}}\)
100 – x = \(\frac { 3x }{ 2 } \)
3x = 2(100 – x)
3x = 200 – 2x
3x + 2x = 200 ⇒ 5x = 200
x = \(\frac { 200 }{ 5 } \) ⇒ x = 40
Number of eggs with the first women = 40
Number of eggs with the second women = (100 – 40) = 60

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Maths Question 10.
The hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 25 cm and its perimeter 56 cm. Find the length of the smallest side.
Solution:

AB + BC + CA = 56 cm
AC = 25 cm
AB + BC = 56 – 25 = 31
AB² + BC² = AC²
(AB + BC)² – 2AB . BC = AC2 [∵ a² + b² = (a + b)² – 2ab]
31² – 2AB . BC = 25²
-2AB . BC = 625 – 961


∴ The length of the smallest side is 7 cm.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Thermal Physics

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 3 Thermal Physics Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 3 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 3 Thermal Physics solutions of Class 10th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Textual Solved Problems

Thermal Physics Class 10 Question 1.
A container whose capacity is 70 ml is filled with a liquid up to 50 ml. Then, the liquid in the container is heated. Initially, the level of the liquid falls from 50 ml to 48.5 ml. Then we heat more, the level of the liquid rises to 51.2 ml. Find the apparent and real expansion.
Answer:
Level of the liquid L₁ = 50 ml
Level of the liquid L₂ = 48.5 ml
Level of the liquid L₃ = 51.2 ml
Apparent expansion = L₃ – L₁ = 51.2 ml – 50 ml = 1.2 ml
Real expansion = L₃ – L₁ = 51.2 ml – 48.5 ml = 2.7 ml
So, Real expansion > apparent expansion.

10th Science Thermal Physics Question 2.
Keeping the temperature as constant, gas is compressed four times of its initial pressure. The volume of gas in the container changing from 20 cc (V₁ cc) to V₂ cc. Find the final volume V₂.
Answer:
Initial pressure (P₁) = P
Final Pressure (P₂) = 4P
Initial volume (V₁) = 20 cc = 20 cm³
Final volume (V₂) = ?
Using Boyle’s Law, PV = constant
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂
\(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}} \times \mathrm{V}_{1}=\frac{\mathrm{P}}{4 \mathrm{P}} \times 20 \mathrm{cm}^{3}\)
V₂ = 5 cm³.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Thermal Physics Class 10 Book Back Answers Question 1.
The value of universal gas constant ______.
(a) 3.81 mol^-1 KJ^-1
(b) 8.03 J mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 1.38 mol^-1 KJ^-1
(d) 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.
Answer:
(d) 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.
Hint: Universal gas constant has a fixed value of 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.

Thermal Physics One Mark Questions And Answers Question 2.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is _____.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) zero
Hint: Mass is always conserved during any change as the transmission of heat either cooling or heating.

10th Science Thermal Physics Book Back Answers Question 3.
If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of:
(a) X or -X
(b) Y or -Y
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) (a) or (b)
Answer:
(a) X or -X

Science Solution Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Temperature is the average _____ of the molecules of a substance?
(a) the difference in K.E and P.E.
(b) the sum of P.E and K.E.
(c) the difference in T.E and P.E.
(d) the difference in K.E and T.E.
Answer:
(c) the difference in T.E and P.E.
Hint: As total energy of a substance is equal to the sum of the K.E, and P.E of atoms (or) molecules
Temperature is equal to the average KE of molecules
K.E = T.E – P.E.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solution Book Question 5.
In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is _____.

(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C
(b) A → B, A → C, B → C
(c) A → B, A ← C, B → C
(d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C.
Answer:
(a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C
Hint: Heat energy flows from a system of higher to lower temperature.
So the heat will flow towards lowest temperature A. i.e., B → A & C → A as the temperature of C is more than B.
The heat will flow C → B.

II. Fill in the blanks

Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Answers Question 1.
The value of Avogadro number _____.
Answer:
6.023 × 10²³ / mol.

Question 2.
The temperature and heat are _____ quantities.
Answer:
Scalar.

Question 3.
One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of _____ of water through ____.
Answer:
1 gram, 1°C.

Question 4.
According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of the volume is ______.
Answer:
Straight line.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. if false explain why?

Question 1.
For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: When the liquid is heated in a container, first heat is gained by container which expands and level of liquid goes down, but immediately liquid receives the heat from container so apparent expansion is liquid.
Real expansion = Expansion of container + Apparent expansion

Question 2.
Thermal energy always flows from a system at a higher temperature to a system at a lower temperature.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: According to Charle’s law at constant pressure (P), the volume of gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature.
V ∝ T
(or)
T ∝ V.

IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II

Question 1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Linear expansion	(a) change in volume
2. Superficial expansion	(b) hot body to cold body
3. Cubical expansion	(c) 1.381 × 10-23 JK-1
4. Heat transformation	(d) change in length
5. Boltzmann constant	(e) change in an area

Answer:
1. (d) change in length
2. (e) change in the area
3. (a) change in volume
4. (b) hot body to cold body
5. (c) 1.381 × 10^-23 JK^-1

V. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: There are no effects on other ends when the end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
Correct Reason: Heat always flows from a region of higher temperature to lower the temperature of the rod.

Question 2.
Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
Answer:
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Answer in Briefly

Question 1.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 2.
Distinguish between linear, cubical and superficial expansion.
Answer:

Linear expansion	Cubical expansion	Superficial expansion
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature.	If there is an increase in the volume of a solid body due to heating, it is called as cubical expansion.	If there is an increase in the area of a solid object due to heating, then the expansion is called superficial expansion.
The ratio of increase in the length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length.	The ratio of increase in the volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called a coefficient of cubical expansion.	The ratio of increase in the area of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit area is called a coefficient of superficial expansion.

Question 3.
What is co-efficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion. This is also measured in K^-1.

Question 4.
State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
\(\mathrm{P} \propto \frac{1}{\mathrm{V}}\).

Question 5.
State-the law of volume.
Answer:
According to this law, When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
V ∝ T
(OR)
\(\frac{V}{T}\) = constant

Question 6.
Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Answer:

Ideal Gas	Real Gas
If the atoms or molecules of gas do not interact with each other then it is called as an ideal or perfect gas.	If the atoms or molecules of a gases interact with each other with a definite amount of intermolecular (or) interatomic force, then it is called as real gas.
At very high temperature (or) low pressure, a real gas behaves as an ideal gas, because there is no interatomic (or) Intermolecular force of attraction.	At very high temperature (or) low pressure, the interatomic (or) Intermolecular forces of attraction are weak in an ideal gas.

Question 7.
What is the co – efficient of real expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of real expansion is defined as the ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume.
The SI unit of coefficient of real expansion is K^-1.

Question 8.
What is co-efficient of apparent expansion?
Answer:
Coefficient of apparent expansion is defined as the ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume. The SI unit of coefficient of apparent expansion is K^-1.

VII. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
Find the final temperature of a copper rod. Whose area of cross-section changes from 10 m² to 11 m² due to heating. The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 K)?
Solution:
Given:
Area of copper rod A₀ = A₁ = 10 m2
Changes of area cross-section ∆A = A₂ – A₁ = 11 – 10 = 1 m²
Initial temperature t₁ = 90 K
∆T = t₂ – t₁ = t₂ – 90
Coefficient of superficial expansion α_A = 0.0021 / K Then t₂ = ?

Question 2.
Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0. 25 m³ from 0.3 m³ due to the change in its temperature of 50 K?
Solution:
Given: α_v of Zn bar
Volume of zinc bar V₀ = V₁ = 0.3 m³
Change in volume ∆V = V₂ – V₁ = 0.25 – 0.30 = 0.05 m³
Change in temperature ∆T = 50K
Coefficient of cubical expansion α_v = ?
\(\alpha_{\mathrm{v}}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{o}} \Delta \mathrm{T}}=\frac{0.05}{0.3 \times 50}=\frac{0.05}{15}\)
α_v = 0.0033 K^-1

VIII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Derive the ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The ideal gas equation is an equation, which relates all the properties of an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’ law and Avogadro’s law.
According to Boyle’s law,
PV = constant ……. (1)
According to Charles’s law,
\(\frac { V }{ T }\) = constant ……. (2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
\(\frac { V }{ n }\) = constant ……. (3)
After combining equations (1), (2) and (3), you can get the following equation.
\(\frac { PV }{ nT }\) = constant ……. (4)
The above relation is called the combined law of gases. If you consider a gas, which contains μ moles of the gas, the number of atoms contained will be equal to p times the Avogadro number, NA
i.e. n = μN_A ……. (5)
Using equation (5), equation (4) can be written as
PV/ μN_AT = constant
The value of the constant in the above equation is taken to be k_B, which is called as Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 JK^-1).
Hence, we have the following equation:
PV / μN_AT = k_B
PV = μN_Ak_BT
Here, μN_Ak_B = R, which is termed as universal gas constant whose value is 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1.
PV = RT ……. (6)
The ideal gas equation is also called an equation of state because it gives the relation between the state variables and it is used to describe the state of any gas.

Question 2.
Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
Answer:
(i) To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L₁.
(ii) Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner as shown in the figure Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands.
(iii) As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L₂.

On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L₃. Now, the difference between the levels L₁ and L₃ is called apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L₂ and L₃ is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.
Real expansion = L₃ – L₂
Apparent expansion = L₃ – L₁.

IX. HOT Questions

Question 1.
If you keep ice at 0°C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?
Answer:
The hand having ice at 0°C will feel more chillness than of 0°C water.
Reason: The 0°C ice takes more heat from hand equal to mL, to convert 0°C Ice water, 0°C as compared to 0°C water of same mass. Hence m & L are the mass and latent heat of fusion of water respectively.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Thermal Physics Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
At constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure is _____.
(a) Charle’s law
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Avogadro’s law
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Boyle’s law
Hint: At constant temperature, only Boyle’s law is there.

Question 2.
The value of equivalent to 0°C on the absolute scale is:
(a) – 273 K
(b) OK
(c) 273 K
(d) 373 K
Answer:
(c) 273 K

Question 3.
At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of gas is proportional to _____.
(a) temperature
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) absolute temperature
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) temperature
Hint: Charle’s law gives the relation between V & T at constant pressure.

Question 4.
The value of absolute zero temperature is:
(a) 273° C
(b) 100° C
(c) 0° C
(d) -273° K
Answer:
(d) -273° K

Question 5.
The ratio of change in dimension to the original dimension per degree kelvin change in temperature is _____.
(a) coefficient of linear expansion
(b) coefficient of cubical expansion
(c) coefficient of thermal expansion
(d) coefficient of areal expansion.
Answer:
(c) coefficient of thermal expansion
Hint: Coefficient of linear expansion
\(=\frac{\text { Change in dimension }}{\text { Original dimension } \times \Delta \mathrm{T}}\).

Question 6.
The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales of temperature is:
(a) K = F × \(\frac{5}{9}\)
(b) K = F – C
(c) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{9}{5}\)
(d) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\)
Answer:
(d) K = (F + 460) × \(\frac{5}{9}\)

Question 7.
Increase in area per unit area at 0°C per degree rise in temperature is _____.
(a) coefficient of linear expansion.
(b) coefficient of superficial expansion.
(c) coefficient of cubical expansion.
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) coefficient of superficial expansion.
Hint: As the superficial expansion is directly proportional to the original area of sheet and rise in temperature.

Question 8.
Coefficient of linear expansion depends upon _____.
(a) pressure
(b) volume
(c) nature of material
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) nature of material
Hint: α of a material depend on nature of material of rod.

Question 9.
If the temperature is the effect then ……… is the cause.
(a) Energy
(b) Work
(c) Heat
(d) Mass
Answer:
(c) Heat

Question 10.
For the measurement heat in the body following one of these is used _____.
(a) thermometer
(b) calorimeter
(c) pressure gauge
(d) multimeter.
Answer:
(b) calorimeter
Hint: Heat of a body can be measured with the help of calorimeter.

Question 11.
Transfer of heat from the hot end to cold end with out-migration of a molecule of solid is called _____.
(a) convection
(b) conduction
(c) Radiation
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) conduction
Hint: Heat flows from without migration of particle is conduction.

Question 12.
Amount of heat required to convert 10 g of ice at 0°C, into water at same temperature is:
(a) 3000 J
(b) 336 J
(c) 300 J
(d) 3360 J
Answer:
(b) 336 J

Question 13.
Process of transfer of heat in the form of electromagnetic wave (light) for which material medium not necessary is _____.
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) radiation
Hint: Heat can flow even in a vacuum (without medium) by radiation of electromagnetic wave.

Question 14.
When ice melts its volume:
(a) Increases
(b) Changes
(c) Decreases
(d) Remains same
Answer:
(c) Decreases

Question 15.
When 1 kg of water at 100°C is mixed with 1 kg of water at 65°C, the temperature of the mixture is:
(a) Less than 100°C
(b) Less 100°C
(c) Equal to 100°C
(d) Less than 100°C but more than 65°C
Answer:
(d) Less than 100°C but more than 65°C

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
_____ is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of ____ water through 1 kelvin.
Answer:
one kilocalorie, one kg.

Question 2.
A thermometer is used to measure _____.
Answer:
Temperature.

Question 3.
In _____ scale of temperature no negative value of temperature.
Answer:
Kelvin.

Question 4.
_____ is the substance whose physical property is utilised for measuring temperature.
Answer:
Thermometric substance.

Question 5.
_____ is that temperature attained by two bodies when they are brought in thermal contact with each other are in thermal equilibrium, is attained.
Answer:
Equilibrium Temperature.

Question 6.
The lowest temperature attainable according to Charle’s law is _____.
Answer:
-273°C.

Question 7.
The P.E. of molecules in ideal gas to _____.
Answer:
Zero.

Question 8.
The nature of graph of P versus \(\left(\frac{1}{V}\right)\) for the given mass of gas at constant temperature is _____.
Answer:
Straight line.

Question 9.
As K.E. of the gas increases then the _____ increases.
Answer:
Temperature.

Question 10.
As pressure on a gas increases the P.E. between molecules of gas _____.
Answer:
decreases.

Question 11.
The relation between N (no. of molecules), P, V & T is _____.
Answer:
\(\mathrm{N}=\frac{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{B}} \mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{PV}}\).

Question 12.
H₂ gas can behave like an ideal gas at ______ pressure and _____ temperature.
Answer:
low, high.

III. True or False. If false correct it.

Question 1.
According to Avogadro’s law, equal volumes of all gases under same pressure have equal numbers of molecules.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Boltzmann’s constant k is equal to the product of universal gas constant R and Avogadro number (N_A)?
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: \(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

Question 3.
Number of molecules N in gas is equal to the product of the number of mole (n) of gas and Avogadro’s number (N_A)?
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
A gas which obeys the relation PV = nRT at all temperature and pressure is called real gas.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
If Q calorie heat is produced by spending mechanical work W then the mechanical equivalent of heat J = W × Q?
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: \(\mathrm{J}=\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{Q}}\).

Question 6.
The S.I. unit of coefficient of thermal expansion is per kelvin.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
The real expansion of a liquid is equal to the difference between apparent expansion and expansion of the vessel.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Real expansion = Apparent expansion + expansion of vessel.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Heat	(a) Joule
2. Thermometer	(b) Heating
3. The SI unit of heat	(c) Temperature
4. Cool a cup of coffee, adding cold milk	(d) Energy
5. gain by heat by a body	(e) thermal equilibrium

Answer:
1. (d) Energy
2. (c) Temperature
3. (a) Joule
4. (e) thermal equilibrium
5. (b) Heating

Question 2.

1. Boyle’s Law	(a) \(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{n}\)
2. Absolute Scale	(b) V ∝ t
3. Charle’s Law	(c) \(\mathrm{P} \propto \frac{1}{\mathrm{V}}\)
4. Boltzmann Constant	(d) V ∝ n
5. Avogadro’s Law	(e) 0 K (zero kelvin)

Answer:
1. (c) \(\mathrm{P} \propto \frac{1}{\mathrm{V}}\)
2. (e) 0 K (zero kelvin)
3. (b) V ∝ t
4. (a) \(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{B}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{n}\)
5. (d) V ∝ n

V. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: Good conductors of heat are also a good conductor of electricity and vice-versa
Reason: Mainly electrons are responsible for there conduction.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Air at some distance above the fire is hotter than the same distance sidewise.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire carries heat upward due to conventional current.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation: Quantity of heat by hot air due to hot conventional current upward is larger by heat side wise due to radiation.

Question 3.
Assertion: As the temperature of a gas increases the K.E of molecules increases, but P.E. decreases.
Reason: Due to the law of conservation of energy.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Real expansion in liquids is always larger than apparent expansion.
Reason: Vessel of liquid expands 1st then the expansion of liquid in the vessel.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 5.
Assertion: There are no effects on other ends when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of higher temperature to lower the temperature of the rod.
Answer:
(d) An assertion is false but the reason is true.
Explanation: There are small effects forms on another end when one end of the rod is only heated.

VI. Short Answers.

Question 1.
What do you mean by triple point of water? Why it is unique?
Answer:
It is the temperature at which the three phases of water and gas of water are equally stable.

Question 2.
State the commonly used units of Temperature.
Answer:
The commonly used units of temperature are Kelvin, degree Celsius (°C) and degree Fahrenheit (°F).

Question 3.
Can the temperature of a body be negative on the kelvin scale?
Answer:
The temperature of a body can never be negative on kelvin. Because the lowest temperature on the Kelvin scale is 0 kelvin.

Question 4.
Do all solids expand on heating? If not give an example.
Answer:
All solid bodies do not expand on heating, semiconductor and camphor contracts on heating.

Question 5.
When are two physical bodies said to be in thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Two or more physical systems or bodies are said to be in thermal equilibrium if there is no net flow of thermal energy between the systems.

Question 6.
Why does the solid expand on heating?
Answer:
When heat energy is supplied to a substance the E of molecule or atoms increases so the average distance between then increases. So the volume of matter (solid, liquid, gas) increases.

Question 7.
Why does a small gap is left between the iron rails on a railway track?
Answer:
Either due to temperature variation in summer and winter or due to frictional force between the wheel of train and rail, when the temperature increases the length of rail will increase and may bend in summer and the train may get derailed.

Question 8.
What is meant by Thermal energy?
Answer:
Thermal energy is a form of energy which is transferred between any two bodies due to the difference in their temperatures. Thermal energy is also known as ‘heat energy’ or simply ‘heat’.

Question 9.
Cooking gas containers are kept in lorry moving with uniform speed what will be the effect on the temperature of gas molecules?
Answer:
If the lorry is moving with uniform speed the speed of cooking gas molecules will also be uniform and the collisions will be least or loss of K.E will be least in turn increase in temperature will be less. If the lorry is not moving with uniform the cylinders and molecules collide more and more and their temperature may increase and can cause the fire in gas.

Question 10.
Define one Kilocalorie.
Answer:
One kilocalorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water through 1°C.

Question 11.
At what temperature does all molecular motion cease? Explain.
Answer:
If molecular motion ceases then KE become zero and absolute scale of temperature is directly proportional to KE
T ∝ KE
µ KE = 0, T = 0 K
So at 0 – kelvin temperature motion of all molecules ceases.

Question 12.
Mention different types of expansion.
Answer:

1. Linear expansion
2. Superficial expansion
3. Cubical expansion

Question 13.
Differentiate between conduction, convection and radiation.
Answer:

Conduction	Convection	Radiation
Material medium is required.	Material medium is required.	Material medium is required.
It is due to the temperature difference.	It is due to density difference.	It occurs from all bodies above 0 K.
Heat flows from higher to lower temperature.	Heat flows from lower to higher density.	Heat flows from higher to lower temperature.
It heats up the medium.	It also heats up the medium.	It does not heat up the medium.
It is a slow process.	It is also a slow process.	It propagates with speed of light.
It does not obey the laws of refraction and reflection.	It also does not obey the laws of refraction and reflection.	It obeys the law of refraction and reflection.

Question 14.
Define co-efficient of linear expansion. State its unit.
Answer:
The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion. The SI unit of Coefficient of Linear expansion is K^-1.

VII. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
At what temperature the value of Celcius and Fahrenheit scale coincide.
Solution:

Question 2.
A constant volume thermometer using the gas reads a pressure of 1.75 × 10⁴ Pa at normal freezing of water and reads 2.39 × 10⁴ pa at normal boiling point of water. Obtained from the observation the temperature of absolute zero on the Celcius scale.
Solution:
Let temperature on Kelvin scale of the freezing point of water = T₁K = 2.39 × 10⁴ Pa
Let temperature on Kelvin scale of a boiling point of water = T₂K = 1.75 × 10⁴ Pa
As volume is constant so by universal gas law.
PV = nRT as volume and mass of gas in thermometer constant,
so

Question 3.
Convert 323 K to °C.
Answer:
T = 323 K
T°C = 323 – 273
= 50°C
∴ 323 K = 50°C

Question 4.
If the volume of a block of metal changes by 12% when it is heated by 30°C. What is the coefficient of linear expansion, superficial expansion?
Solution:

Question 5.
If the volume of a metallic block increases by 0.12% when it is heated through 20°C, what is the coefficient of cubical expansion.
Answer:
\(\frac{ΔV}{V}\) = 0.12% = \(\frac{0.12}{100}\)
Change in temperature ΔT = 20°C
Coefficient of cubical expansion
α_V = \(\frac{ΔV}{VΔT}\)
= \(\frac{0.12}{100×20}\)
α_V = 6 × 10^-6/°C

VIII. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the characteristic feature of transfer of heat energy?
Answer:

1. Heat always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
2. The mass of a system is not altered when it is heated or cooled.
3. For any exchange of heat, the heat gained by the cold system is equal to heat lost by the hot system. Heat gained = Heat lost

Question 2.
In the upper atmosphere, the kinetic temperature of the air is of the order of 1000 K even then one feels severe cold in these places. Why?
Answer:
As we go at higher altitude the density of air decreases. So distances between molecules increases due to less number of collisions between them. Due to above reason speed of air molecules, the kinetic temperature is of order 1000 K but due to higher altitude, the temperature decreases as the radiation from earth takes longer distance.

IX. Conceptional or Hot Questions.

Question 1.
The earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably cold why?
Answer:
The earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably cold.

Question 2.
Why does the pendulum clock run slow in summer and fast in winter?
Answer:
As we know that time period of pendulum clock \(\mathrm{T}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{g}}}\) at a place g and 2π are constant. so \(\mathrm{T} \alpha \sqrt{\mathrm{L}}\)
The length of pendulum in summer increases so the time period of a pendulum is increased. So pendulum takes more time to complete one oscillation and the clock becomes slow in summer. Vice – versa in winter it becomes fast as a time period of a pendulum is decreased due to a decrease in length of a pendulum.

Question 3.
Can you boil water in a paper cup? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, we can boil water in the paper cup due to the following reason.

• Most type of paper bums at about 230°C.
• Water can pass at the bottom through pores of the paper.
• Hot water rises up due to hot conventional current and replaces the cold water.
• Water boils at 100°C.

The heat of bums warms the water which rises up in a cup, by replacing cold water so heat does not heat up the paper. So water boils in a cup of paper.

Question 4.
The surroundings above a fire is hotter than the surroundings below the fire. Why?
Answer:
Air surrounding the fire carries heat upwards.

Question 5.
Why do the ventilators provide near the ceiling of the classroom?
Answer:
The density of hot air is smaller than cold air, so it rises up near the ceiling where it passes out. through ventilators and the cold air from the window, orders fill up the place.
Like this cold and fresh air remain near the floor and hot air passes out from ventilators.

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