Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.18

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 Answers Question 1.
If A is of order p × q and B is of order q × r what is the order of AB and BA?
Solution:
If A is of order p × q [∵ p × q q × r = p × r]
the order of AB = p × r [∵ q × r p × q = r ≠ p]
Product of BA cannot be defined/found as the number of columns in B ≠. The number of rows in A.

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 Question 2.
If A is of order p × q and B is of order q × r what is the order of AB and BA?
Answer:
Order of A = a × (a + 3)
Order of B = b × (17 – b)
Given: Product of AB exist
a + 3 = b
a – b = – 3 ….(1)
Product of BA exist
17 – b = a
– a – b = -17
a + b = 17 ………(2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2a = 14
a = \(\frac { 14 }{ 2 } \) = 7
Substitute the value of a = 7 in (1)
7 – b = -3 ⇒ -b = -3 -7
-b = -10 ⇒ b = 10
The value of b = 7 and b = 10

Ex 3.18 Class 10 Question 3.
Find the order of the product matrix AB if

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {5} \\ {4} & {3}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {-3} \\ {2} & {5}\end{array}\right]\) find AB, BA and check if AB = BA?
Solution:

Exercise 3.18 Class 10 Question 5.

Solution:

Ex 3.18 Class 10 Samacheer Question 6.
Show that the matrices A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{1} & {2} \\ {3} & {1}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {-2} \\ {-3} & {1}\end{array}\right]\) satisfy commutative property AB = BA
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 In Tamil Question 7.

(i) A(BC) = (AB)C
(ii) (A – B)C = (AC – BC)
(iii) (A- B)^T = A^T – B^T
Solution:
(i) A(BC) = (AB)C

10th New Syllabus Maths Exercise 3.18 Question 8.

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 3rd Sum Question 9.

Solution:

10th Maths 3.18 Question 10.
Verify that A² = I when A = \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}{5} & {-4} \\ {6} & {-5}\end{array}\right)\)
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Graph Question 11.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Maths Question 12.

Solution:

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 10th Maths Question 13.
If A = \(\) show that A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0.
Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability

Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

9th Economics Samacheer Book Question 1.
Assertion (A): Development increases the quality of life.
Reason (R): People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less poverty. .
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Expand The Following Ppp And Hdi Question 2.
The term‘Human resources’ refers to ……
(a) investment on poor people
(b) expenditure on agriculture
(c) investment on assests
(d) collective abilities of people
Answer:
(d) collective abilities of people

Expand The Following Nnp And Pci Question 3.
For comparing development between countries, their …… is considered to be one of the
most important attributes.
(a) growth
(b) income
(c) expenditure
(d) savings
Answer:
(b) income

Expand The Following Hdi Question 4.
……. is considered a true measure of national income.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(c) NNP

Expand The Following Nnp Question 5.
The …… income is also called per capita income.
(a) average
(b) total
(c) people
(d) monthly
Answer:
(a) average

Expand Nnp And Pci Question 6.
Which one of the following country is not a G-8 country?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 Let’s Discuss Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bhutan
Answer:
(c) China

Class 9th Sst Economics Chapter 1 Question 8.
Assertion (A) : The Net Product (NNP) is considered as a true measure of national output.
Reason (R): It is also known as national income.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Sustainability Meaning In Tamil Question 9.
Assertion (A): Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
Reason (R): Investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns in the future for a country.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 10.
The Human Development Index (HDI) does not take into account the following dimension in its calculation.
(a) Gender
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) Income
Answer:
(a) Gender

Question 11.
Among the following states which state have the literacy rate (2011) higher than national average?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
Sex-ratio means …..
(a) the ratio between adult-male and adult female in a population
(b) the ratio between female and male in a population
(c) the relationship between male of female
(d) the number of females per thousand males
Answer:
(b) the ratio between female and male in a population

Question 13.
Inter-generational equality is ensured under the process of
(a) Industrial progress
(b) Economic development
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Economic growth
Answer:
(b) Economic development

Question 14.
Find the odd one.
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Paper
(d) Natural gas
Answer:
(c) Paper

Question 15.
……….. is the state with highest installed solar capacity in India.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 16.
……. resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
(a) Natural
(b) Renewable
(c) Non-Renewable
(d) New
Answer:
(c) Non-Renewable

Question 17.
Thermal plant emits large quantity of ……, which pollutes the environment.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(d) Carbon dioxide

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Economic progress of any country is known as ………
2. The head quarters of HRD Ministry is in ……..
3. The state having the highest literacy rate in India is ……….
4. Human Development Report of the world prepared and released by …….
5. Groundwater is an example of ……. resource.
6. The book An Uncertain Glory was written by ……..
Answers:
1. economic development
2. New Delhi
3. Kerala
4. UNDP
5. renewable
6. Prof. Amartya Sen

III. Match the following

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)

IV. Give Short answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by development?
Answer:

1. The word ‘development’ refers to the progress of a particular field (or) a particular person.
2. Similarly the economic progress of a country is known as ‘economic development’.
3. However, the interpretation of the concept development keeps On changing from time to time, from person to person.

Question 2.
What are the indicators of development?
Answer:
The major indicators to measure the level of economic development are Net National Product (NNP), Per Capita Income (PCI), Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) and Human Development
Index (HDI).

Question 3.
Why NNP is not considered as an useful measure to compare a country’s development with other countries?
Answer:

1. For measuring a country’s development, its income is considered to be one of the most
   important factors.
2. NNP is considered as a true measure of National output.
   So NNP is not considered as an useful measure to compare a country’s development with
   other countries.

Question 4.
Why human resources is considered as the foremost resource of any country?
Answer:

1. Human Resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
2. The ‘Human Resources’ refers to the collective abilities of people, which can be utilised in the production sector.

So human resource is considered as the foremost resource of any country.

Question 5.
Expand the following:
1. PPP
2. HDI
Answer:
1. PPI – Purchasing Power Parity
2. HD – Human Development Index.

Question 6.
Expand the following:
1. NNP
2. PCI.
Answer:
1. NNP – Net National Product
2. PCI – Per Capita Income

Question 7.
What is‘Solar Power’?
Answer:
Solar power is the conversion of energy from sunlight into electricity either directly using photovoltaic cells (or) indirectly using concentrated solar power.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the policies for sustainable development.
Answer:

1. India depends on thermal and hydro power plants to meet its power needs. Both these sources have an adverse environmental impact.
2. Thermal power plants emit large quantities of carbon dioxide, which pollute the
   environment.
3. Solar power is the conversion of energy from sunlight into electricity either directly
   using photovoltaic cells or indirectly using concentrated solar power.
4. Solar panels absorb the sunlight as a source of energy to generate electricity. A solar electric system can reliably produce electricity for our home and offices.
5. These distributed solar systems are often installed by home and business owners to reduce their electricity costs. Solar power in India is a fast-developing industry.
6. Tamil Nadu is the state with highest installed solar capacity in India.
7. Tamil Nadu is one of the leading solar power producing states in India. As on 31 July 2017, the total installed capacity in Tamil Nadu is 1,697 MW.

Question 2.
Describe in detail about environmental policies in India.
Answer:

1. Environmental policies in India have been evolved considerably over the past three decades.
2. These policies have covered a wide range of issues such as air, water pollution, waste management and biodiversity conservation.
3. India faces challenges in economic development, which has to be achieved with limited resources, minimum externalities and in the presence of an uncertain climate.
4. One of the approaches to overcome this challenge is through the path of sustainable development.
5. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted and introduced new changes in environmental protection through a series of directions and judgements.

Question 3.
Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Question 4.
Mention any five environmental acts and their action.
Answer:

VI. Projects and Activities.

List the various ways in which the problems of garbage and emissions are being dealt with around the world.
Plastic bags, broken glass, obsolete cell phone (or) used battery cells, they are all used products that require appropriate disposal to limit their harm to the environment.
The various ways in which the problem of garbage and emissions are being dealt:

1. Collection
2. transportation
3. dumping
4. recycling (or) sewage treatment.

Various waste disposal problems:

1. Production of too much waste.
2. Most of the waste is toxic.
3. Landfills are a problem as well.
4. Regulations are based on vested interests.
5. Reliance of dying technologies to reduce and recycle waste.
6. Some of the technologies marked as ‘green’ are not true in actual sense.

You can do this project with the help of your teacher.

VII. HOTS

Write in detail what kind of environmental problems you face in your locality.
Location: Velachery – Chennai.
Problem: “Despite being one of the fastest growing localities with several up market malls and hotels living in Velachery still face basic problems such as
(a) Overflowing sewage
(b) Poor drainage
(c) The under ground water-breeding grounds for mosquitoes.
(d) There is always fear of contamination of drinking water.
(e) Everytime it pours in the city, most of Velachery drowns.
The above mentioned problems are the dominant ones in Velachery.

VIII. Life Skill.

Question 1.
How is the Per Capita income calculated?
Answer:
The average income is calculated by dividing the country’s total income by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. Calculations on the per capita income of all countries are calculated only in the US dollar in order to compare International level.

Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The term ‘economic development’ refers to the overall growth of all sectors of
the economy.
Reason (R): By adoption of new technologies.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
This is also known as National Income.
(a) NNP
(b) GDP
(c) PCI
(d) PPP
Answer:
(a) NNP

Question 3.
This is not a G8 country.
(a) Russia
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(d) Nepal

Question 4.
This is one among the ‘BRICS’ countries.
(a) China
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) China

Question 5.
The enrolment for higher education in the highest in ……… in India.
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(e) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Question 6.
This is a renewable resource.
(a) Metals
(b) Glass
(c) Wind energy
(d) Diesel
Answer:
(c) Wind energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Every, human being has an ……… of his (or) her own to achieve progress in life.
2. Countries with higher income are considered to be ………
3. ………. became the third largest economy in terms of PPP.
4. ………. can be divided into renewable resources and non-renewable resources.
5. ……. absorb the sunlight as a source of energy to generate electricity.
Answers:
1. Ambition
2. More developed
3. India
4. Natural resources
5. Solar panels

III. Match the following

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
What leads to development?
Answer:
If our thinking turns towards progress and about the ways to achieve the many goals for progress, it leads to development.

Question 2.
For comparing the development of various countries, total income is not an useful measure. How?
Answer:
Since the countries have different populations comparing total income will not be suggestive of what an average person is likely to earn. So, for comparing the development of various countries total income is not an useful measure.

Question 3.
Define Purchasing Power Parity.
Answer:
Purchasing Power Parity is defined as the number of units of a country’s currency required to buy the same amount of goods and services in the domestic market as one dollar would buy in the U.S.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Human Resource Development?
Answer:
Human Resource Development means the development of a person’s physical and mental abilities through education, health care and training.

Question 5.
Why do we say that investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate
of returns?
Answer:
If a child is invested with good education and health, he or she may turn to be very productive in future in the form of higher earnings and greater contribution to the society. Therefore that, investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns

Question 6.
What is the end result of Development?
Answer:

1. Development increases the quality of life.
2. People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less poverty and more equality of opportunity.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe sustainability of Development.
Answer:
Sustainable economic development is taken to mean development without damaging the environment and not compromising with the needs of the future generation.

The consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. Sustainability of development is comparatively a new area of knowledge in which scientists, economists, philosophers and other social scientists are working together.

Natural resources can be divided into renewable resources and non-renewable resources.
Groundwater is an example of a renewable resource. The question arises as to how sustainable development is possible if the resources are over-used rather than getting replenished. Non-renewable resources get exhausted after certain number of years of extracting and using them and they cannot be replenished.

To achieve real sustainability, we need to balance economic, social and environmental sustainability in equal harmony.

In general, the question of development or progress is continuous. At all times, as a member of society and as individuals, we need to ask where we want to go, what we wish to become and what our goals are.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
பாடப்பகுதியில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள ஒரு பத்தியைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து, அதிலுள்ள வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் எடுத்து எழுதி வகைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:
இன்றைய கல்வி குறிப்பிட்ட பாடங்களை நெட்டுருச் செய்து தேர்வில் தேதி பட்டம் பெற்று ஒரு தொழிலில் நுழைவதற்குக் கல்வி ஒரு கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது. நாளடைவில் கல்விக்கும் வாழ்விற்கும் தொடர்பு இல்லாமல் போகிறது.

• பாடங்களை – ஐ – இரண்டாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு
• தேர்வில் – இல் – ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு
• தொழிலில் – இல் – ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு
• நுழைவதற்கு கு – நான்காம வேற்றுமை உருபு

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
பெயர்ச்சொல்லின் பொருளை வேறுபடுத்துவது ………………… ஆகும்
அ) எழுவாய்
ஆ) செயப்படுபொருள்
இ) பயனிலை
ஈ) வேற்றுமை
Answer:
ஈ) வேற்றுமை

Question 2.
எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை ……………………. வேற்றுமை என்று அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
அ) எழுவாய்
ஆ) செயப்படுபொருள்
இ) விளி
ஈ) பயனிலை
Answer:
இ) விளி

Question 3.
உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் ………………………….. வேற்றுமை வரும்.
அ) மூன்றாம்
ஆ) நான்காம்
இ) ஐந்தாம்
ஈ) ஆறாம்
Answer:
அ) மூன்றாம்

Question 4.
‘அறத்தான் வருவதே இன்பம்’ – இத்தொடரில் …………………….. வேற்றுமை பயின்று வந்துள்ளது.
அ) இரண்டாம்
ஆ) மூன்றாம்
இ) ஆறாம்
ஈ) ஏழாம்
Answer:
ஆ) மூன்றாம்

Question 5.
‘மலர் பானையை வனைந்தாள்’ – இத்தொடர் …………………….. பொருளைக் குறிக்கிறது.
அ) ஆக்கல்
ஆ) அழித்தல்
இ) கொடை
ஈ) அடைதல்
Answer:
அ) ஆக்கல்

பொருத்துக

1. மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை – அ) இராமனுக்குத் தம்பி இலக்குவன்
2. நான்காம் வேற்றுமை – ஆ) பாரியினது தேர்
3. ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை – இ) மண்ணால் குதிரை செய்தான்
4. ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை – ஈ) ஏவுதல் கலையில் சிறந்தவன் ஏகலைவன்
Answer:
1. இ
2. அ
3. ஈ
4. ஆ

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
எழுவாய் வேற்றுமையை விளக்குக.
Answer:

• எழுவாயுடன் வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் எதுவும் இணையாமல், எழுவாய் தனித்து நின்று, இயல்பான பொருளைத் தருவது எழுவாய் வேற்றுமை என்பர்.
• இதனை முதல் வேற்றுமை’ என்றும் கூறுவர்.
• எடுத்துக்காட்டு: பாவை வந்தாள்.

Question 2.
நான்காம் வேற்றுமை உணர்த்தும் பொருள்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
கொடை, பகை, நட்பு, தகுதி, அதுவாதல், பொருட்டு, முறை, எல்லை.

Question 3.
உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

• வினை கொண்டு முடிகிற பொருளைத் தன்னிடத்தும் உடன் நிகழ்கிறதாக உடையது உடனிகழ்ச்சி ஆகும்.
• ஒடு, ஓடு ஆகிய மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் வரும்.

எடுத்துக்காட்டு :

• தாயோடு குழந்தை சென்றது.
• அமைச்சரோடு அலுவலர்கள் சென்றனர்.

மொழியை ஆள்வோம்

கேட்க

Question 1.
கல்வியின் சிறப்புகளை விளக்கும் கதைகளைக் கேட்டு மகிழ்க.
Answer:
ஒரு ஊரில் வயதான பெரியவர் ஒருவர் இருந்தார். அவருக்கு இரண்டு மகன்கள். மூத்த மகன் படிப்பதே கிடையாது. அந்தப் பெரியவர் எவ்வளவு சொல்லியும் இளமைப்பருவத்தில் அவன் கேட்கவில்லை.

ஆனால் இளைய மகனோ, தந்தையின் சொல்லை மீறாமல் நன்கு படித்தான். தந்தையின் விருப்பப்படி விவசாயத்தைச் செய்தான். ஆனால் பெரிய மகனோ படிக்காமல், வேலைக்கும் செல்லாமல் ஊதாரித்தனமாக சுற்றிக் கொண்டிருப்பான்.

முதியவர் இறக்கும் போது ஒரு உயிலை எழுதி வைத்துச் சென்றார். வீட்டைச் சுற்றி உள்ள காலி இடத்தில் புதையல் இருக்கிறது என அதில் எழுதப்பட்டிருந்தது. அந்த முதியவர் இறந்தவுடன் காலியிடத்தை ஆளுக்குப் பாதியாகப் பிரித்துக் கொண்டனர்.

மூத்த மகன் தனக்குரிய பகுதியைத் தோண்டிப் பார்த்துவிட்டு புதையல் எதுவும் இல்லாததால், தன் தந்தை தன்னை ஏமாற்றி விட்டதாக சொல்லி குழிகளை மூடி விடுகிறான். ஆனால் இளையவனோ தோண்டிப் பார்த்துவிட்டு, அதனை மூட மனமில்லாமல் தென்னம் பிள்ளைகளை நட்டான்.

மூத்தவன் கல்வியறிவு இல்லாததால் சொத்தினை விற்று, பரம ஏழையாகப் போனான். இளையவனுக்கு, தென்னம் பிள்ளைகள் வளர்ந்து, பணத்தை அள்ளிக் கொடுத்தது.

கீழ்க்காணும் தலைப்பில் இரண்டு நிமிடம் பேசுக.

கல்வியே அழியாச் செல்வம்

தாயே! தமிழே! வணக்கம்.

தாய் பிள்ளை உறவு அம்மா உனக்கும் எனக்கும். பெருமைமிகு சபைக்கு முதற்கண் வணக்கம்.

கல்வியே அழியாச் செல்வம் என்னும் தலைப்பில் சில நிமிடங்கள் உங்கள் முன் பேசுகின்றேன். “தொட்டணைத் தூறும் மணற்கேணி மாந்தர்க்குக் கற்றனைத் தூறும் அறிவு” என்பார் திருவள்ளுவர். ஆம்! படிக்கப் படிக்கத்தான் நம் அறிவும் V பெருகும். அதுதான் அழியாத செல்வம். செல்வம் சேகரித்து வைத்திருந்தால் அது ஒருநாள் திருடு போகலாம். பொருட்கள் வாங்கி வைத்தால், அது ஒருநாள் வெள்ளத்தில் அடித்துச் செல்லலாம் அல்லது தீக்கு ஆளாகலாம். ஆனால் கல்விச் செல்வத்தைத் திருட முடியாது. எரிக்க முடியாது. வெள்ளத்தால் அடித்துச் செல்ல முடியாது.

மற்றவர் மனதில் அழியாமல் அது நிற்கும். அதனால் தான் அழியாத செல்வம் கல்விச் செல்வம் என்கின்றனர். எனவே அழியாத கல்விச் செல்வத்தை நாம் அனைவரும் கற்போம்.

நன்றி! வணக்கம்.

சொல்லக்கேட்டு எழுதுக.

தமிழ் மொழிக்கு வளம் சேர்த்த ஒரு நூல்; தமிழுக்கு வாழ்வியல் உண்மைகளை உணர்த்தும் ஒரு நூல்; தன் தோற்றத்தால் தமிழ்நாட்டுக்கு உலகப் பெரும் புகழைப் பெற்றுத் தந்த சிறந்த நூல் திருவள்ளுவரின் திருக்குறள். திருக்குறள் பற்றிப் பேசாத புலவர் இலர்; எழுதாத அறிஞர், எழுத்தாளர் இலர்.

பள்ளிப் பருவத்திலும் திருக்குறள் படிக்கப்படுகின்றது. பருவம் வளரவளர அதுவும் நுட்பமாகக் கற்கப்படுகின்றது. திருக்குறளுக்குரிய சிறப்பே அதுதான். அஃது எல்லாப் பருவத்தாருக்கும் வேண்டிய விழுமிய நூல். எனவே திருக்குறளில்லாத வீடும் இருக்கக் கூடாது! திருக்குறள் படிக்காத தமிழரும் இருக்கக் கூடாது!

கீழ்க்காண்பவற்றுள் ஒரு சொல்லை எடுத்து ஒன்றுக்கு மேற்பட்ட சொற்களுடன் இணைத்துப் புதிய சொற்களை உருவாக்குக.

மா – மாவிலை, மாமரம், மாங்காய்
தேன் – மலர்த்தேன், தேன்சிட்டு, தேன்கூடு
மலர் – தேன்மலர்
செம்மை – சேயிலை, செங்குருவி, செந்தேன்

சிட்டு – சிட்டுக்குருவி, தேன்சிட்டு
கனி – மாங்கனி, கனிமரம், தேன்கனி
குருவி – சிட்டுக்குருவி, குருவிக்கூடு
இலை – மாவிலை
காய் – மாங்காய், காய்கனி
கூடு – தேன்கூடு, குருவிக்கூடு
முட்டை – குருவிமுட்டை
மரம் – மாமரம், செம்மரம்

பின்வரும் தொடர்களில் உரிய இடங்களில் நிறுத்தக்குறிகளை இடுக.

1. பூக்கள் நிறைந்த இடம் சோலை ஆகும்.
2. திருக்குறள் அறம், பொருள், இன்பம் என்னும் முப்பால் பகுப்பு கொண்டது.
3. தமிழ்மொழி செம்மையானது, வலிமையானது, இளமையானது.
4. கபிலன், “தன் தந்தையிடம் இன்று மாலை விளையாடப் போகட்டுமா?” என்று கேட்டான்.
5. திரு. வி. க. எழுதிய ‘பெண்ணின் பெருமை‘ என்னும் நூல் புகழ்பெற்றது.

பின்வரும் பத்தியில் உரிய இடங்களில் நிறுத்தக்குறிகளை இடுக.

‘நூல் பல கல்‘ என்பர் பெரியோர். அறிவை வளர்க்கும் நூல்கள் அனைத்தையும் நம்மால் விலை கொடுத்து வாங்க முடியுமா? முடியாது. நூலகங்கள் இக்குறையை நீக்க உதவுகின்றன. பல்வேறு துறைகளைச் சேர்ந்த அனைத்து நூல்களும் நிறைந்த இடம் நூலகமாகும். நூலகத்தின் வகைகளாவன மைய நூலகம், மாவட்ட நூலகம், கிளை நூலகம், ஊர்ப்புற நூலகம். ‘எனக்கு பிடித்த நூல்களுடன் வாழ்நாள் முழுவதும் சிறையில் அடைத்தாலும் மகிழ்ச்சியடைவேன்‘ என்றார் நேரு. ஆகவே, நூலகத்தின் பயன் அறிவோம்! அறிவு வளம் பெறுவோம்!

கீழ்க்காணும் விளம்பரத்தைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை எழுதுக.

Question 1.
எந்த நாளை முன்னிட்டுப் புத்தகக் கண்காட்சி நடத்தப்படுகிறது?
Answer:
உலகப் புத்தக நாள்.

Question 2.
புத்தகக் கண்காட்சி எங்கு நடைபெறுகிறது?
Answer:
இராயப்பேட்டை ஒய்.எம்.சி.ஏ மைதானம்.

Question 3.
புத்தகக் கண்காட்சி எத்தனை நாள்கள் நடைபெறுகிறது?
Answer:
11 நாட்கள். (ஏப்ரல் 13 முதல் ஏப்ரல் 23 வரை)

Question 4.
புத்தகக் கண்காட்சிக்கான நுழைவுக் கட்டணம் எவ்வளவு?
Answer:
நுழைவுக் கட்டணம் இல்லை.

Question 5.
புத்தகம் வாங்குவோருக்கு வழங்கப்படும் சலுகை யாது?
Answer:
10 சதவீதக் கழிவு.

கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகளைக் கொண்டு கட்டுரை எழுதுக.

முன்னுரை – நூலகத்தின் தேவை – வகைகள் – நூலகத்திலுள்ளவை – படிக்கும் முறை – முடிவுரை

நூலகம்

முன்னுரை :
‘நூலகம் அறிவின் ஊற்று’
‘வீட்டிற்கு ஒரு நூலகம் அமைப்போம்’
என்றார் பேரறிஞர் அண்ணா . ஊரில் உள்ள ஒரு நூலகத்தையாவது, நாம் பயன்படுத்த வேண்டாமா? நூலகத்தைப் பயன்படுத்தும் முன் நூலகத்தைப் பற்றி தெரிந்து கொள்வோம்.

நூலகத்தின் தேவை :
‘சாதாரண மாணவர்களையும்
சாதனையாளர்களாக உயர்த்துவது நூலகம்’

• ஏழை மாணவர்களும் இளைஞர்களும் படிப்பதற்குத் தேவையான நூல்களை விலை கொடுத்து வாங்க முடிவதில்லை. சில நூல்களின் விலை மிகவும் அதிகமாக உள்ளது.
• அன்றாடச் செய்தித்தாள்களைக் கூட அவர்களால் வாங்க இயலாத நிலை உள்ளது.
• ஆகவே, இலவசமாக நூல்களைப் படிக்க நூலகம் தேவைப்படுகின்றது.

வகைகள் :
மாவட்ட மைய நூலகம், மாவட்ட கிளை நூலகம், ஊர்ப்புற நூலகம், தனியார் நூலகம், கல்லூரி நூலகம், பல்கலைக்கழக நூலகம், நடமாடும் நூலகம், மின் நூலகம் எனப் பலவகை நூலகங்கள் உள்ளன.

நூலகத்தில் உள்ளவை :
‘அறிவுப் பசிக்கு உணவு நூலகம்’
தமிழ் மற்றும் ஆங்கிலக் கதை, கவிதை, கட்டுரை, ஆய்வுநூல்கள், வரலாற்று நூல்கள், அறிவியல் நூல்கள், தொழில்நுட்ப நூல்கள், போட்டித் தேர்வு நூல்கள், நாளிதழ்கள், வார இதழ்கள், மாத இதழ்கள், அகராதிகள், களஞ்சியங்கள் ஆகியவை நூலகத்தில் உள்ளன.

படிக்கும் முறை :
நூலகத்தில் நூல்களை எடுத்து அமைதியாகப் படிப்பதற்காக ஒதுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள இடத்தில் அமர்ந்து படிக்க வேண்டும். நூல்களைக் கிழிக்கவோ, சேதப்படுத்துவதோ கூடாது. படித்து முடித்தவுடன் மீண்டும் உரிய அலமாரியில் நூலை வைக்க வேண்டும்.

முடிவுரை :
‘நம் அகம்
நூல் அகம்’
நாளும் நூல் பல கற்று சிறந்த மேதையாக வரவும், நூலகம் துணை செய்கிறது. நூலகம் தேடிச் சென்று, நூல்களைப் படிப்போம்! உயர்வோம்!!
‘நூலகம் அறிஞர்களின் வாழ்வில்லம்’

மொழியோடு விளையாடு

கீழ்க்காணும் வினாக்களுக்கு விடைகளைக் கட்டத்தில் நிரப்புக. வட்டத்தில் சிக்கிய எழுத்துகளை எடுத்து எழுதுக. எழுத்துகளை முறைப்படுத்தி கல்வி பற்றிய பழமொழியைக் கண்டறிக.

1. திரைப்படப் பாடலாசிரியர் சோமுவின் ஊர் …………………………
2. கேடில் விழுச்செல்வம் ……………………….
3. குமரகுருபரர் எழுதிய நூல்களுள் ஒன்று ……………………….
4. ‘கலன்’ என்னும் சொல்லின் பொருள் ……………………….
5. ஏட்டுக் கல்வியுடன் …………………………. கல்வியும் பயில வேண்டும்.
6. திரு. வி. க. எழுதிய நூல்களுள் ஒன்று ………………………
7. மா + பழம் என்பது …………………. விகாரம்.
Answer:


பழமொழி – அறிவே ஆற்றல்

நிற்க அதற்குத் தக…..

என் பொறுப்புகள்:

1. நாள்தோறும் ஒரு திருக்குறள் கற்பேன்.
2. அனைவரிடமும் அன்புகொண்டு வாழ்வேன்.

கலைச்சொல் அறிவோம்

1. நிறுத்தக்குறி – Punctuation
2. அணிகலன் – Ornament
3. திறமை – Talent
4. மொழிபெயர்ப்பு – Translation
5. விழிப்புணர்வு – Awareness
6. சீர்திருத்தம் – Reform

இணையத்தில் காண்க

Question 1.
திரு. வி. க. எழுதிய நூல்களின் விவரங்களை இணையத்தில் தேடி எழுதுக.
Answer:

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
வேற்றுமை வகை ……………….
அ) ஆறு
ஆ) ஏழு
இ) எட்டு
ஈ) மூன்று
Answer:
இ) எட்டு

Question 2.
இரண்டாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு ……………….
அ) கண்
ஆ) ஐ
இ) கண்
ஈ) ஓடு
Answer:
ஆ) ஐ

Question 3.
உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் வரும் வேற்றுமை ……………………
அ) நான்காம் வேற்றுமை
ஆ) ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை
இ) மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை
ஈ) ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை
Answer:
இ) மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை

Question 4.
‘முல்லைக்குத் தேர் கொடுத்தான்’ இதில் இடம்பெறும் நான்காம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள்
அ) தகுதி
ஆ) நட்பு
இ) பகை
ஈ) கொடை
Answer:
ஈ) கொடை

Question 5.
‘புகை மனிதனுக்குப் பகை’ – இதில் இடம்பெறும் நான்காம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள் ……………………
அ) தகுதி
ஆ) நட்பு
இ) பகை
ஈ) முறை
Answer:
இ) பகை

Question 6.
‘செங்குட்டுவனுக்குத் தம்பி இளங்கோ’ இதில் இடம்பெறும் நான்காம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள் ……………….
அ) அதுவாதல்
ஆ) பொருட்டு
இ) முறை
ஈ) எல்லை
Answer:
இ) முறை

Question 7.
‘தலையின் இழிந்த மயிர்’ – இதில் இடம்பெறும் ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள்
அ) நீங்கல்
ஆ) ஒப்பு
இ) எல்லை
ஈ) ஏது
Answer:
அ) நீங்கல்

Question 8.
உரிமைப் பொருளில் வரும் வேற்றுமை ……………………….
அ) முதல் வேற்றுமை
ஆ) ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை
இ) ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை
ஈ) எல்லை
Answer:
இ) ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை

குறுவினா

Question 1.
வேற்றுமை என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
பெயர்ச்சொல்லின் பொருளை வேறுபடுத்தும் முறைமையை வேற்றுமை என்பர்.

Question 2.
வேற்றுமை எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:

• வேற்றுமை எட்டு
• வகைப்படும்.
• முதல் வேற்றுமை
• ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை
• இரண்டாம் வேற்றுமை
• ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை
• மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை
• ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை
• நான்காம் வேற்றுமை
• எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை

Question 3.
வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
பெயர்ச்சொல்லுடன் இணைக்கப்படும் அசைகளை வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் என்பர்.

Question 4.
மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமைக்கு உரிய உருபுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
ஆல், ஆன், ஒடு, ஓடு.

Question 5.
ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமைக்குரிய உருபுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
இல், இன்.

Question 6.
ஆறாம் வேற்றுமைக்கு உருபுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
அது, ஆது, அ.

Question 7.
உருபு இல்லாத வேற்றுமைகள் எவை?
Answer:

• முதலாம் வேற்றுமை
• எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை

Question 8.
மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு எவ்வெவ் பொருள்களில் வரும்?
Answer:
கருப்பொருள், கருத்தா பொருள்.

Question 9.
சொல்லுருபுகள் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
சில இடங்களில் உறுப்புகளுக்குப் பதிலாக முழு சொற்களே வருவதும் உண்டு. அவற்றைச் சொல்லுருபுகள் என்பர்.

Question 10.
ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமையிலும் ஏழாம் வேற்றுமையிலும் வரும் உருபு எது?
Answer:
இல்.

Question 11.
முதல் வேற்றுமை, எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை ஆகியவற்றின் வேறு பெயர்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

• முதல் வேற்றுமையை எழுவாய் வேற்றுமை என்பர்.
• எட்டாம் வேற்றுமையை விளி வேற்றுமை என்பர்.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.2

10th Maths Exercise 7.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
A 14 m deep well with inner diameter 10 m is dug and the earth taken out is evenly spread all around the well to form an embankment of width 5 m. Find the height of the embankment.
Solution:
Inner diameter = 10 m
Inner radius = 5 m
Inner height = 14 m

Volume of the cylinder = πr²h cubic units
\(=\frac{22}{7} \times 5 \times 5 \times 14\)
= 1100 m³
Volume of the hollow = n(R² – r²)h cubic units
R = 10 m
r = 5 m
\(\Rightarrow \frac{22}{7} \times\left(10^{2}-5^{2}\right) h=1100 \mathrm{m}^{3}\)
(∵ the earth taken out = the earth spread all around)

Exercise 7.2 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
A cylindrical glass with diameter 20 cm has water to a height of 9 cm. A small cylindrical metal of radius 5 cm and height 4 cm is immersed it completely. Calculate the raise of the water in the glass?
Solution:
The volume of the water raised = Volume of the cylindrical metal.

∴ The height of the raised water in the glass = 1 cm.

Ex 7.2 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
If the circumference of a conical wooden piece is 484 cm then find its volume when its height is 105 cm.
Solution:
Circumference of the base of the cone = 484 cm
height = 105 cm
∴ 2πr = 484

\(r=484 \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{7}{22}\)
= 77 cm

10th Maths Mensuration Exercise 7.2 Question 4.
A conical container is fully filled with petrol. The radius is 10m and the height is 15 m. If the container can release the petrol through its bottom at the rate of 25 cu. meter per minute, in how many minutes the container will be emptied. Round off your answer to the nearest minute.
Solution:
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu. units.

Volume of the given conical container = \(\frac{1}{3} \times \pi \times 10 \times 10 \times 15\)
= 500π m³

10th Maths Exercise 7.2 Question 5.
A right angled triangle whose sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm is revolved about the sides containing the right angle in two ways. Find the difference in volumes of the two solids so formed.
Solution:
When the triangle ABC is rotated about AB, the

10th Maths Exercise 7.2 In Tamil Question 6.
The volumes of two cones of same base radius are 3600 cm³ and 5040 cm³. Find the ratio of heights.
Solution:

10th Maths 7.2 Exercise Question 7.
If the ratio of radii of two spheres is 4 : 7, find the ratio of their volumes.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Mensuration Question 8.
A solid sphere and a solid hemisphere have equal total surface area. Prove that the ratio of their volume is \(3 \sqrt{3} : 4\)
Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 7.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
The outer and the inner surface areas of a spherical copper shell are 576π cm² and 324π cm² respectively. Find the volume of the material required to make the shell.
Solution:

10th Class Maths Exercise 7.2 Question 10.
A container open at the top is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with radii of its lower and upper ends are 8 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find the cost of milk which can completely fill a container at the rate of ₹ 40 per litre.
Solution:
Volume of the frustum

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2

6th Maths Guide Term 2 Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The HCF of 45 and 75 is ______
(ii) The HCF of two successive even numbers is ______
(iii) If the LCM of 3 and 9 is 9, then their HCF is ______
(iv) The LCM of 26, 39 and 52 is ______
(v) The least number that should be added to 57 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 2, 3, 4 and 5 is ______
Solution:
(i) 15
(ii) 156
(iii) 2
(iv) 3
(v) 3

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Question 2.
Say True or False
(i) The numbers 57 and 69 are co-primes.
(ii) The HCF of 17 and 18 is 1.
(iii) The LCM of two successive numbers is the product of the numbers.
(iv) The LCM of two co-primes is the sum of the numbers.
(v) The HCF of two numbers is always a factor of their LCM.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) False
(v) True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Term 2 Question 3.
Find the HCF of each set of numbers using prime factorisation method.
(i) 18, 24
(ii) 51, 85
(iii) 61, 76
(iv) 84, 120
(v) 27, 45, 81
(vi) 45, 55, 95
Solution:
(i) 18, 24.
Prime factorisation of 18 = 2 × 3 × 3
Prime factorisation of 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
Common factors of 18 and 24 = 2 × 3 = 6
HCF (18, 24) = 6

(ii) 51, 85
Prime factorisation of 51 = 3 × 17
Prime factorisation of 85 = 5 × 17
Common factors of 51 and 85 = 17
HCF (51, 85) = 17

(iii) 61, 76
Prime factorisation of 61 = 1 × 61
Prime factorisation of 76 = 2 × 2 × 19 × 1
Common factors of 61 and 76 = 1
HCF (61, 76) = 1

(iv) 84, 120
Prime factorisation of 84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
Prime factorisation of 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Common factors of 84 and 120 = 2 × 2 × 3
HCF (84, 120) = 12

(v) 27, 45, 81
Prime factorisation of 27 = 3 × 3 × 3
Prime factorisation of 45 = 3 × 3 × 5
Prime factorisation of 81 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3
Common factors of 27, 45, 81 = 3 × 3 = 9
HCF (27, 45, 81) = 9

(vi) 45, 55, 95
Prime factorisation of 45 = 3 × 3 × 5
Prime factorisation of 55 = 5 × 11
Prime factorisation of 95 = 5 × 19
Common factors of 45, 55, 95 = 5
HCF (45, 55, 95) = 5

6th Maths Term 2 Exercise 1.2 Question 4.
Find the LCM of each set of numbers using prime factorisation method.
(i) 6, 9
(ii) 8, 12
(iii) 10, 15
(iv) 14, 42
(v) 30, 40, 60
(vi) 15, 25, 75
Solution:
(i) 6, 9
Prime factorisation of 6 = 2 × 3
Prime factorisation of 9 = 3 × 3
Product of common factors = 3
Product of other factors = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM (6, 9) = 3 × 6 = 18

(ii) 8, 12
8 = 2 × 4 = 2 × 2 × 2
12 = 2 × 6 = 2 × 2 × 3
Product of common factors = 2 × 2 = 4
Product of other factors = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 4 × 6 = 24
LCM (8, 12) = 24.

(iii) 10, 15
10 = 2 × 5
15 = 3 × 5
Product of common factors = 5
Product of other factors = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM (10, 15) = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 5 × 6 = 30

(iv) 14, 42
14 = 2 × 7
42 = 2 × 21 = 2 × 3 × 7
Product of common factors = 2 × 7
Product of other factor = 3
LCM (14, 42) = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 2 × 7 × 3 = 42
LCM (14, 42) = 42

(v) 30, 40, 60
30 = 3 × 2 × 5
40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5
60 = 2 × 3 × 2 × 5
Product of highest powers of the common factors = 3 × 2³ × 5 = 120
LCM (30, 40, 60) = 120

(vi) 15, 25, 75
15 = 5 × 3
25 = 5 × 5
75 = 5 × 5 × 3
Product of the highest powers of the common factors = 3 × 5² = 3 × 25 = 75
LCM (15, 25, 75) = 75

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Question 5.
Find the HCF and the LCM of the numbers 154,198 and 286.
Solution:
Prime factorisation of 154 = 2 × 7 × 11
Prime Factorisation of 198 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 11
Prime factorisation of 286 = 2 × 11 × 13

To find HCF
Product of common factors of 154, 198 and 286 = 2 × 11 = 22
HCF (154, 198, 286) = 22

To find LCM
Product of common factors of atleast two numbers = 2 × 11 = 22
Product of other factors = 7 × 3 × 3 × 13 = 819
LCM (154, 198, 286) = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 22 × 819 = 18,018
LCM (154, 198,286) = 18,018

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Maths Question 6.
What is the greatest possible volume of a vessel that can be used to measure exactly the volume of milk in cans (in full capacity) of 80 litres, 100 litres and 120 litres?
Solution:
This Problem is HCF related problem
Prime factorisation of 80 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5
Prime factorisation of 100 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 5
Prime factorisation of 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Product of common factors 80, 100 and 120 = 2 × 2 × 5 = 20
HCF (80, 100, 120) = 20
The volume of the vessel = 20 litres

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Term 2 Question 7.
The traffic lights at three different road junctions change after every 40 seconds, 60 seconds and 72 seconds respectively. If they changed simultaneously together at 8 a.m at the junctions, at what time will they simultaneously change together again?
Solution:
This is an LCM related problem
Finding the LCM of 40, 60 and 72
60 seconds = 1 min
360 min = 6 min

LCM (40, 60, 72) = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 2 × 3 = 360
After 360 seconds they will change again i.e after six minutes they will change again i.e at 8.06 am they will change again simultaneously.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Guide Question 8.
The LCM of two numbers is 210 and their HCF is 14. How many such pairs are possible?
Solution:
Let the numbers be 14x and 14y
14x × 14y = 14 × 210
⇒ \(x y=\frac{210}{14}=\frac{30}{2}=15\)
x = 1, y = 15; x = 3, y = 5
(14, 210), (42, 70) Two pairs

6th Maths Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
The LCM of two numbers is 6 times their HCF. If the HCF is 12 and one of the numbers is 36, then find the other number.
Solution:
HCF = 12
Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF
36 × other number = 72 × 12
Other number = \(\frac{72×12}{36}\)
Other number = 24

Objective Type Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Term 2 Question 10.
Which of the following pairs is co-prime?
(a) 51, 63
(b) 52, 91
(c) 71, 81
(d) 81, 99
Solution:
(c) 71, 81

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Maths Question 11.
The greatest 4 digit number which is exactly divisible by 8, 9 and 12 is
(a) 9999
(b) 9996
(c) 9696
(d) 9936
Solution:
(d) 9936

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Question 12.
The HCF of two numbers is 2 and their LCM is 154. If the difference between numbers is 8, then the sum is
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 46
(d) 56
Solution:
(b) 36

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Maths Guide Question 13.
Which of the following cannot be the HCF of two numbers whose LCM is 120?
(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 80
(d) 30
Solution:
(c) 80

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Hydrosphere

Hydrosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Hydrosphere 9th Class Question 1.
The Sunda Trench lies in the ……………… ocean.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Pacific
(c) Indian
(d) Antarctic
Answer:
(c) Indian

Hydrosphere Lesson Of 9th Class Pdf Question 2.
The temperature of the ocean waters generally ……………. at greater depth.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Hydrosphere Lesson Of 9th Class Question 3.
Ocean currents are produced due to ………………….
(a) due to rotation of earth
(b) due to variation in temperature
(c) due to earth’s movement
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

9th Class Social Hydrosphere Question 4.
Consider the following statements.
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
2. Fishing is well developed in warm tropical waters.
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents facilitates plant nutrients for fish.
4. Inland fishing became significant in India.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

Hydrosphere Class 9 Question 5.
The oceanic ridge comes into existence due to ……………….
(a) convergence of tectonic plates
(b) divergence of tectonic plates
(c) lateral movements of plates
(d) stearing of plates
Answer:
(b) divergence of tectonic plates

Hydrosphere Solutions Question 6.
Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of the topography beneath the surface of the sea?
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(b) Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(c) Sea plain-Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
(d) Continental slope-Sea plain-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
Answer:
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.

The Temperature Of The Ocean Waters Generally Question 7.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean
(b) Labrador current—North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea
(d) Mozambique current—Indian Ocehn.
Answer:
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean; (c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea

9th Class Social 4th Lesson Questions And Answers Question 8.
The amount of planktons to be found in the ocean is determined by
1. Depth of the water
2. Ocean currents
3. Temperature and Salinity
4. Length of day and night
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Questions 9 to 12 are of Assertion (A), Reason (R) type.
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is correct

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 9.
Assertion (A): Oceans are always shown in blue in maps.
Reason (R): It indicates the natural colour of the oceans.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 10.
Assertion (A): Flat topped seamounts are known as Guyots.
Reason (R): All guyot features are of volcanic origin.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor.
Reason (R): They are mainly restricted to continental shelf, slope and rise
Answer:
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Atolls are more common in the Atlantic ocean.
Reason (R): The marine population at the depth is less.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (f)
4. (g)
5. (a)
6. (b)
7. (e)

III. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term Hydrosphere?
Answer:
Hydrosphere, the third sphere of Earth is a collection of all forms of water on the earth.

Question 2.
What is the hydrological cycle?
Answer:
The continuous movement of water on, above and below the earth’s surface is called the Hydrological cycle.

Question 3.
Mention the various relief features of ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean basins are characterised by the following major relief features:

• Continental shelf
• Continental slope
• Continental rise
• Deep sea plain or Abyssal plain
• Oceanic deep
• Oceanic ridge.

Question 4.
What are the factors that generate the ocean currents?
Answer:
The factors that generate ocean currents are:

• Earth’s rotation
• Prevailing winds and
• Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on sea waves.
Answer:
Sea waves are ripples on water caused when winds blow over the sea. The height of these waves depends on the speed of wind, its duration and the direction from which they blow.

IV. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Spring tide and Neap tide.
Answer:

S.No.	Spring tide	Neap tide
(i)	When the Sun, Moon and Earth aligned in the same line, the collective gravitation pull of the Sun and Moon on earth’s water strengthens to form a high tide known as spring tide.	When the Sun and Moon are at right angles their gravitational forces work against each other causing a low tide called Neap tide.
(ii)	These tides always occur on Full moon and New moon days.	A Neap tide occurs between two spring tides, i.e., twice a month when the first and last quarter moon appears.

Question 2.
Abyssal plains and Ocean deeps.
Answer:

S. No.	Abyssal plain	Ocean deeps
(i)	Abyssal plains are under water plains found on the deep ocean floor.	These are the deepest part of the oceans.
(ii)	These plains extend from continental rise to the mid-oceanic ridges.	Trenches are the deepest part of the oceans. They occupy about 7% of the total relief of the ocean flour.
(iii)	Abyssal plains are usually covered by the thick layer of sediments composed of clay, silt and sand.	These are sediment free. So most trenches are V-shaped with steep sides.
(iv)	Abyssal hills, sea mounts, guyots, coral atoll, etc., are the characteristic features.	Epicentre of the great earthquakes is all found in the trenches.

Question 3.
Tidal power and Hydel power.
Answer:

S.No.	Tidal power	Hydel power
(i)	Tidal power (or) tidal energy is a form of Hydro power that converts the energy obtained from tides into useful forms of power mainly electricity.	Hydel power (or) water power is derived from the energy of falling water (or) fast running water which may be harnessed for useful purposes.
(ii)	Tidal energy has potential for future electricity generation. Tides are more predictable than the wind and the sun.	This is a renewable energy source because the water cycle is constantly renewed by the sun. Hydro power was used for mechanical milling such as grinding grains.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere are called land and water hemispheres respectively.
Answer:
The continents and oceans are however, not evenly distributed in the northern and the southern hemispheres. The northern hemisphere holds 61% of land whereas the southern hemisphere holds 81% of water. It is because of this pattern of land and water distribution, the northern hemisphere is called as the land hemisphere and the southern hemisphere is called the water . hemisphere.

Question 2.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the origin of oceans.
Answer:

1. The ocean is a continuous body of salt water that forms the major part of hydrosphere.
2. Geoscientists believe that the oceans were formed on Earth nearly three billion years ago.
3. It is difficult to believe that in the beginning there was no water on our planet.
4. In due course of time, when the Earth started cooling, steam escaped from the interior and entered the atmosphere to form clouds.
5. At first, the clouds brought incessant rains.
6. The rain water filled the depressions for tens of thousands of years and eventually a super ocean was formed.

Question 2.
Write a note on continental shelf and continental slope.
Answer:
Continental Shelf:

1. A shallow and gently sloping platform extending out from the adjoining continental land mass into the sea is called Continental Shelf.
2. It is almost a uniform zone of sea bed with a gentle gradient.
3. They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest . fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.
4. The continental shelves have extensive deposits of minerals and mineral fuels. Hence, this zone becomes accessible for oil drilling and mining activities: e.g. Mumbai High in Arabian Sea.

Continental Slope:

1. A steep slope which descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep ocean- bed is called continental slope.
2. It forms a boundary between the Continental Crust and the oceanic crust.
3. This zone is free from deposits as they are steep. The most important characteristic of . continental slope is the presence of deep canyons and trenches.
4. Due to the low penetration of sunlight, the slope has nearly freezing temperature.
   Hence aquatic life has very slow rate of metabolism. .

Question 3.
What do you mean by ocean currents? Explain its types.
Answer:
Oceans Currents: The movement of oceanic water on the surface and at the depths in a definite direction is called ocean current. Ocean currents are in clockwise motion in the northern hemisphere and in the anti-clockwise motion in the southern hemisphere.
The factors that generate ocean currents are:

• Earth’s rotation
• Prevailing winds and
• Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.

On the basis of temperature, ocean currents are classified as warm currents and cold currents. The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current, e.g. Gulf Stream in Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in Pacific Ocean.

The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes (temperate and polar regions) to low latitudes (tropical regions) is called cold currents, e.g. Labrador Current in Atlantic Ocean and Peruvian Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 4.
Explain the influences of the marine resources on mankind.
Answer:
The biotic and abiotic resources found in the oceanic water and at the bottoms are called marine resources. The ocean’s resources play a vital role in sustaining the needs of society.
A diverse array of marine organisms is used for food, medicine, cosmetics, and a wealth of • industrial applications. The world’s demand for energy,
minerals and water have become increasingly dependent on non-living marine resources.

Hydrosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ……………. is called the Blue Planet.
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(a) Earth

Question 2.
The …………… is the watery part of the earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(c) Hydrosphere

Question 3.
The land of thousand lakes is ……………
(a) Norway
(b) Finland
(c) Britain
(d) Swedwen
Answer:
(b) Finland

Question 4.
The purest form of water is …………….
(a) rain water
(b) well water
(c) river water
(d) sea water
Answer:
(a) rain water

Question 5.
Extensive deposits of Minerals and Mineral fuels are found in ……………
(a) Continental slope
(b) Continental shelf
(c) Continental rise
(d) Deep Sea Plains
Answer:
(b) Continental shelf

Question 6.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Submarine Fans which are similar to the alluvial fans found in water.
(ii) Aquatic life has very slow rate of metabolism.
(iii) Dragon Hole is the deepest known under water sink hole in the world.
(iv) Abyssal plains are usually covered by the thick layer of sediments. ,
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 7.
The humankind depends on the Marine resources for its …………….
(a) Agricultural purposes
(b) Survival
(c) Industrial purposes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Survival

Question 8.
Which of the following correctly matched?
(a) Pacific ocean and Green land
(b) Atlantic ocean and Mariana Trench
(c) Arctic ocean and Trinity Islands
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands
Answer:
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands

Questions 9 to 12 are Assertion (A) Reason (R) type.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Continental slope is free from deposits as they are steep.
Reason (R): Abyssal plains appear as a uniform flat and featureless plain.
Answer:
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Continental shelf is almost a uniform zone of sea bed with gentle gradient.
Reason (R): This enables sunlight to penetrate through the water.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Ocean currents are in clockwise motion in the Northern Hemisphere and in the anti-clockwise motion in the Southern hemisphere.
Reason (R): The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes to low latitudes is called warm currents.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): The ocean/sea water does not contains calcium in great quantities.
Reason (R): Many of the aquatic animals with shells use the dissolved calcium in the sea water to build their protective shells.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (f)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (d)

III. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the three major processes involved in the Hydrological cycle.
Answer:
The three major processes involved in the water cycle are evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 2.
Why do we consider the oceans and seas as resource bowl of the earth?
Answer:
Oceans and seas are considered as resource bowl of the earth because of the immense availability of food, minerals, etc.

Question 3.
What Is Hypsometric curve?
Answer:
A Hypsometric Curve is a graphic representation which shows the height of a certain place • found on land and the height of ocean features at sea. ‘Hypso’ means height in Greek.

Question 4.
What do you know about Water Table?
Answer:
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface,

Question 5.
What is Dragon Hole?
Answer:
Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sink hole in the world. The local fishermen call it the‘eye’of the South China Sea.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the movement of the ocean water.
Answer:
The ocean water is dynamic. Temperature, salinity, density, external forces of the sun, moon and the winds keep the ocean waters in movement, both horizontally and vertically. . Waves and currents are in horizontal motion while tides have vertical motion.

Question 7.
What is called continental rise?
Answer:
At the base of the continental slope is a gently sloping layer of sediments which merge into the deep-sea floor. This underwater feature found between continental slope and abyssal plains is called the continental rise.

Question 8.
How is the energy of the falling wave water used?
Answer:
The energy of the falling wave water is used to turn hydro turbines to generate power. Wave energy power plants have been installed at Vizhinjam in Kerala coast and Andaman and Nicobar islands of India.

Question 9.
When was the National Institute oceanography established? What do they do?
Answer:
NIO (National Institute of Oceanography) was established in 1st January 1966. The headquarters of NIO is located at Dona Paula, Goa. It Conducts research and observations to understand oceanic features, Ocean engineering, marine Archaeology etc.

Question 10.
What is Sea Mount?
Answer:
Sea mount is an underwater mountain that rise from the sea floor due to undersea volcanic

IV. Distinguish the following.

Question 1.
Warm current and Cold current.
Answer:

Warm current	Cold current
The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current, e.g. Gulf Stream in Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in Pacific Ocean.	The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes (temperate and polar regions) to low latitudes (tropical regions) is called cold currents, e.g. Labrador Current in Atlantic Ocean and Peruvian Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 2.
Water table and Aquifers.
Answer:

Water table	Aquifers
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface.	Aquifers are porous rock strata filled with water, found below the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
Isobath and Isohaline.
Answer:

Isobath	Isohaline
An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal depths.	An imaginary line on a map joining the points of equal salinity in oceans.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The earth is called the Blue Planet.
Answer:
The Earth is also called the Blue planet, as it holds water in abundance and thus stands unique among all other planets.

Question 2.
Oceans are the lifelines of Earth and Mankind.
Answer:
Oceans are the life blood of planet earth and mankind. The humankind depends on the marine resources’ for its survival. They are also essential for the economic prosperity, social wellbeing and quality of life.

Question 3.
Most of the Creek area get submerged.
Answer:
Most of the Creek area gets submerged due to high tide and at times of low tide, the creek emerges out along with poisonous creatures like snakes, scorpions.

Question 4.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
The Great Barrier Reef. Explain.
Answer:
The Great Barrier Reef: The Great Barrier reef is the world’s largest coral reef system composed of 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for about 2,000 kilometres. It covers an area of about 3,50,000 km. The reef is located in the Coral sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia. The Great Barrier Reef can be seen from the outer space. This sprawling coral reef system is one of the most biologically diverse places on the planet. .Coral reefs are built by billions of tiny organisms, known as Coral polyps.CNN labelled it as one of the seven natural wonders of the world.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
“71% of the earth is covered by water but very little can be used by humans. Why?
Answer:
“A little amount of fresh water which is suitable for human consumption is present on the earth. Rest of the water we find in oceans. Sea water is saline and not suitable for consumption.

Question 2.
The oceans are salty. Why?
Answer:

1. As the rain erodes the rock acids in the rain water break down the rock.
2. Ions (or) electrically charged atomic particles are created.
3. These ions are carried away in runoff to streams and rivers and ultimately to the ocean.
4. Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean are removed from the water.
5. Others are left for long periods time where their concentrations increased overtime.
6. Sodium and chloride are the most prevalent ions in Sea water, (about 90%) making sea water salty as it is salty.

Question 3.
Why is the salinity at the equator less even though it experiences high temperature.
Answer:
The salinity at the equator is less even though it experiences high temperature, because of heavy rainfall and high relative humidity as precipitation adds good amount of fresh water to ocean water.

Question 4.
“Though Caspian Sea is enclosed its salinity is just 14 to 17 parts per thousand. Why is it so?
Answer:

1. The Caspian Sea is a fresh water lake in its Northern portions due to the current inflow of fresh water, and is most saline on the Iranian shore where the catchment basin centributes little flow.
2. Currently the mean salinity of the Caspian sea is one third that of Earth’s oceans.

Question 5.
What will happen if the seas and oceans contain only fresh water?
Answer:

1. Marine organisms would die as they are capable of surviving only in sea water (salt water).
2. Coral formation could not take place as they are made up of calcareous minerals.
3. Salt is quite important in daily usage.
4. We would have to rely on artificial production without natural salt, which would incur a lot of monetary and infrastructural expenses.
5. Salt water can hold heat better.
6. Sea life is adapted to salt water.
7. Ocean currents would be completely disrupted.

VIII. Enrichment Activity.

Question 1.
A) Study the map of ocean currents and then complete the table given below:

Major Ocean currents
Oceans	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Pacific Ocean	Kurashio Current (Warm) Oyashio/Kurile Current (Cold) Alaska Current (Warm) California Current (Cold)	Peruvian/Humboldt Current (Cold)
Atlantic Ocean	Canaries (Cold) Gulf Stream (Warm) North Atlantic Drift (Warm) Labrador (Cold)	Benguela (Cold)
Indian Ocean	North East Monsoon Current (Warm) South West Monsoon Current (Warm)	West Australian Current (Cold)

B) Map Work:
Mark the cold currents in blue and the warm currents in red in a World outline map.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.2

10th Maths Exercise 1.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 7} and B = {3, 0, -1, 7}, which of the following are relation from A to B ?
(i) R₁ = {(2, 1), (7, 1)}
(ii) R₂ = {(-1, 1)}
(iii) R₃ = {(2, -1), (7, 7), (1, 3)}
(iv) R₄ = {(7,-1), (0, 3), (3, 3), (0, 7)}
(i) A = {1, 2, 3, 7}, B = {3, 0,-1, 7}
Solution:
R₁ = {(2,1), (7,1)}

It is not a relation there is no element as 1 in B.
(ii) R₂ = {(-1, 1)}
It is not [∵ -1 ∉ A, 1 ∉ B]
(iii) R₃ = {(2, -1), (7, 7), (1, 3)}
It is a relation.
R₄ = {(7,-1), (0, 3), (3, 3), (0, 7)}
It is also not a relation. [∵ 0 ∉ A]

Ex 1.2 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, ….., 45} and R be the relation defined as “is square of ” on A. Write R as a subset of A × A. Also, find the domain and range of R.
Answer:
A = {1,2, 3, 4 . . . . 45}
The relation is defined as “is square of’
R = {(1,1) (2, 4) (3, 9)
(4, 16) (5,25) (6, 36)}
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Range of R = {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36}

Exercise 1.2 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 3.
A Relation R is given by the set {(x, y) /y = x + 3, x ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}}. Determine its domain and range.
Solution:
x = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
y = x + 3

⇒ y = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
R = {(x, y)}
= {(0, 3),(1, 4),(2, 5),(3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8)}
Domain of R = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range of R = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

10th Maths Exercise 1.2 Question 4.
Represent each of the given relation by (a) an arrow diagram, (b) a graph and (c) a set in roster form, wherever possible.
(i) {(x, y)|x = 2y,x ∈ {2, 3, 4, 5},y ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4)
(ii) {(x, y)|y = x + 3, x, y are natural numbers <10}
Solution:
(i){(x, y)|x = 2y, x ∈ {2, 3, 4, 5},y ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4}} R = (x = 2y)
2 = 2 × 1 = 2
4 = 2 × 2 = 4

(c) {(2, 1), (4, 2)}
(ii) {(x, y)|y = x + 3, x,+ are natural numbers <10}
x = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} R = (y = x + 3)
y = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
R = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8), (6, 9)}


(c) R = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8), (6, 9)}

10th Maths Exercise 1.2 Answers Question 5.
A company has four categories of employees given by Assistants (A), Clerks (C), Managers (M) and an Executive Officer (E). The company provide ₹10,000, ₹25,000, ₹50,000 and ₹1,00,000 as salaries to the people who work in the categories A, C, M and E respectively. If A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄ and As were Assistants; C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄ were Clerks; M₁, M₂, M₃ were managers and E₁,E₂ were Executive officers and if the relation R is defined by xRy, where x is the salary given to person y, express the relation R through an ordered pair and an arrow diagram.
Solution:
A – Assistants → A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄, A₅
C – Clerks → C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄
D – Managers → M₁, M₂, M₃
E – Executive officer → E₁, E₂
(a) R = {(10,000, A₁), (10,000, A₂), (10,000, A₃),
(10,000, A₄), (10,000, A₅), (25,000, C₁),
(25,000, C₂), (25,000, C₃), (25,000, C₄),
(50,000, M₁), (50,000, M₂), (50,000, M₃),
(1,00,000, E₁), (1,00,000, E₂)}

(b)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 4.1 கல்வி அழகே அழகு Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.1 கல்வி அழகே அழகு

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
கல்வி குறித்து வழங்கப்படும் பழமொழிகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• கல்வி கரையில கற்பவர் நாள் சில.
• கல்வி அழகே அழகு.
• கத்த (கற்ற) வித்த(வித்தை) காலத்துக்கு உதவும்.
• நூறு நாள் கத்தது (கற்றது), ஆறு நாள் விடப்போகும்.
• கற்க கசடற.
• இளமையில் கல்.
• நூல் பல கல்.

Question 2.
கற்றோரின் சிறப்புகளைப் பற்றிப் பிற நூல்களில் இடம் பெற்ற பாடல்களைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
கண்ணுடையோர் என்பவர் கற்றோர் முகத்து இரண்டு
புண்ணுடையார் கல்லா தவர். – திருக்குறள்

நிறைகுடம் நீர்தளும்பல் இல். – பழமொழி

மன்னனும் மாசறக் கற்றோனும் சீர்தூக்கில்
மன்னனில் கற்றோன் சிறப்புடையன் – மன்னர்க்கு
தன்தேச மல்லால் சிறப்பில்லை
கற்றோர்க்குச் சென்ற இடமெல்லாம் சிறப்பு. – மூதுரை

Question 3.
பின்வரும் நாலடியார் பாடலைப் படித்துச் சுவைக்க.
Answer:
கல்வி கரையில கற்பவர் நாள் சில
மெல்ல நினைக்கின் பிணி பல – தெள்ளிதின்
ஆராய்ந் தமைவுடைய கற்பவே நீரொழியப்
பாலுண் குருகின் தெரிந்து.

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
கற்றவருக்கு அழகு தருவது ………………………….
அ) தங்கம்
ஆ) வெள்ளி
இ) வைரம்
ஈ) கல்வி
Answer:
ஈ) கல்வி

Question 2.
‘கலனல்லால்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ………………………..
அ) கலன் + லல்லால்
ஆ) கலம் + அல்லால்
இ) கலன் + அல்லால்
ஈ) கலன் + னல்லால்
Answer:
இ) கலன் + அல்லால்

சொற்றொடரில் அமைத்து எழுதுக.

1. அழகு – கல்வியே உண்மையான அழகு.
2. கற்றவர் – கல்வி கற்றவரே உலகில் உயர்ந்தவர்.
3. அணிகலன் – மனிதனுக்கு உண்மையான அணிகலன் கல்வி ஆகும்.

குறுவினா

Question 1.
யாருக்கு அழகு செய்ய வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை?
Answer:
கல்வி கற்றவருக்கு அழகு செய்ய வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கப்பாடல் கூறும் கருத்துகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• ஒளிவீசும் மணிகளால் செய்யப்பட்ட அணிகலன்களுக்கு மேலும் அழகுபடுத்த வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை.
• அதுபோலக் கல்வி கற்றவருக்கு அக்கல்வியே அழகு தரும்.
• அதனால் அழகுபடுத்தும் அணிகலன்கள் கற்றவருக்குத் தேவையில்லை.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
கல்வியின் பயன்களாக நீங்கள் கருதுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• நம்முள் புதைந்து கிடக்கும் ஆற்றலை வெளிக்கொண்டு வரும்.
• பகுத்து அறியும் அறிவைத் தரும்.
• துன்பம் வரும் முன் தடுத்து நிறுத்தும் அறிவைத் தரும்.
• மெய்ப்பொருள் காணும் அறிவினைத் தரும்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
குமரகுருபரரின் காலம் ……………………..
அ) கி.பி. 15
ஆ) கி.பி. 17
இ) கி.பி. 18
ஈ) கி.பி. 16
Answer:
ஆ) கி.பி. 17

Question 2.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கத்தில் உள்ள வெண்பாக்கள் ……………………
அ) 100
ஆ) 102
இ) 103
ஈ) 104
Answer:
ஆ) 102

குறுவினா

Question 1.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கம் – பெயர்க்காரணம் கூறுக.
Answer:
மக்களின் வாழ்வுக்குத் தேவையான நீதிகளைச் சுட்டிக்காட்டுவதால், இந்நூல் நீதிநெறி விளக்கம் எனப் பெயர்பெற்றது.

Question 2.
குமரகுருபரர் இயற்றிய நூல்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

• கந்தர் கலிவெண்பா
• கயிலைக் கலம்பகம்
• சகலகலாவல்லி மாலை
• மீனாட்சியம்மை பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்
• முத்துக்குமாரசுவாமி பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
குமரகுருபரர் பற்றி நீவிர் அறிந்தவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:
பெயர் : குமரகுருபரர்
பிறந்த ஊர் : ஸ்ரீவைகுண்டம்
பெற்றோர் : சண்முக சிகாமணி – சிவகாமசுந்தரி
காலம் : கி.பி. 17
இயற்றிய நூல்கள் : திருவாரூர் நான்மணிமாலை, கந்தர்கலிவெண்பா, கயிலைக் கலம்பகம், சகலகலாவல்லிமாலை, மீனாட்சியம்மை பிள்ளைத்தமிழ், முத்துக்குமாரசுவாமி பிள்ளைத்தமிழ் முதலியன.

சொல்லும் பொருளும்

1. கலன் – அணிகலன்
2. முற்ற – ஒளிர
3. வேண்டாவாம் – தேவையில்லை

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.5

Exercise 1.5 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 1
Using the functions f and g given below, find fog and gof. Check whether fog = gof.
(i) f(x) = x – 6, g(x) = x²
(ii) f(x) = \(\frac{2}{x}\), g(x) = 2x² – 1
(iii) f(x) = \(\frac{x+6}{3}\) g(x) = 3 – x
(iv) f(x) = 3 + x, g(x) = x – 4
(v) f(x) = 4x²– 1,g(x) = 1 + x
Solution:
(i) f(x) = x – 6, g(x) = x²
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x²) = x² – 6 …………….. (1)
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(x – 6) = (x – 6)²
= x² + 36 – 12x = x² – 12x + 36 ……………… (2)
(1) ≠ (2)
∴ fog(x) ≠ gof(x)

(iii) f(x) = \(\frac{x+6}{3}\) g(x) = 3 – x

(iv) f(x) = 3 + x, g(x) = x – 4
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x – 4) = 3 + x – 4
= x – 1 ………… (1)
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(3 + x) = 3 + x – 4
= x – 1 ……………… (2)
Here fog(x) = gof(x)

(v) f(x) = 4x² – 1, g(x) = 1 + x
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 + x) = 4(1 + x)² – 1
= 4(1 + x² + 2x) – 1 = 4 + 4x² + 8x – 1
= 4x² + 8x + 3 ……………. (1)
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(4x² – 1)
= 1 + 4x² – 1 = 4x² …………….. (2)
(1) ≠ (2)
∴ fog(x) ≠ gof(x)

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Find the value of k, such that f o g = g o f

(i) f(x) = 3x + 2, g(x) = 6x – k
Answer:
f(x) = 3x + 2 ;g(x) = 6x – k
fog = f[g(x)]
= f (6x – k)
= 3(6x – k) + 2
= 18x – 3K + 2
g0f= g [f(x)]
= g (3x + 2)
= 6(3x + 2) – k
= 18x + 12 – k
But given fog = gof.
18x – 3x + 2 = 18x + 12 – k
-3k + 2 = 12 – k
-3 k + k = 12-2
-2k = 10
k = \(\frac { -10 }{ 2 } \) = -5
The value of k = -5

(ii) f(x) = 2x – k, g(x) = 4x + 5
Answer:
f(x) = 2x – k ; g(x) = 4x + 5
fog = f[g(x)]
= f(4x + 5)
= 2(4x + 5) – k
= 8x + 10 – k
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(2x – k)
= 4(2x – k) + 5
= 8x – 4k + 5
But fog = gof
8x + 10 – k = 8x – 4k + 5
-k + 4k = 5 – 10
3k = -5
k = \(\frac { -5 }{ 3 } \)
The value of k = \(\frac { -5 }{ 3 } \)

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Answers Question 3.
if f(x) = 2x – 1, g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), show that fog = gof = x
Solution:
f(x) = 2x – 1, g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), fog = gof = x

Ex 1.5 Class 10 Samacheer Question 4.
(i) If f (x) = x² – 1, g(x) = x – 2 find a, if g o f(a) = 1.
(a) Find k, if f(k) = 2k -1 and
fof (k) = 5.
Answer:
(i) f(x) = x² – 1 ; g(x) = x – 2 .
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(x² – 1)
= x² – 1 – 2
= x² – 3
given gof (a) = 1
a² – 3 = 1 [But go f(x) = x² – 3]
a² = 4
a = \(\sqrt { 4 }\) = ± 2
The value of a = ± 2

(ii) f(k) = 2k – 1 ; fof(k) = 5
fof = f[f(k)]
= f(2k – 1)
= 2(2k – 1) – 1
= 4k – 2 – 1
= 4k – 3
fof (k) = 5
4k – 3 = 5
4k = 5 + 3
4k = 8
k = \(\frac { 8 }{ 4 } \) = 2
The value of k = 2

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Question 5.
Let A,B,C ⊂ N and a function f: A → B be defined by f(x) = 2x + 1 and g : B → C be defined by g(x) = x². Find the range of fog and gof
Solution:
f(x) = 2x + 1
g(x) = x²
fog(x) = fg(x)) = f(x²) = 2x² + 1
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(2x + 1) = (2x + 1)²
= 4x² + 4x + 1
Range of fog is
{y/y = 2x² + 1, x ∈ N}
Range of gof is
{y/y = (2x + 1)², x ∈ N}.

10th Maths 1.5 Exercise Question 6.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find (i) fof (ii) fofof
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 1
(i) fof = f[f{x)]
= f(x² – 1)
= (x² – 1)² – 1
= x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1
= x⁴ – 2x²

(ii) fofof = fof[f(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f(x² – 1)² – 1
= f(x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 In Tamil Question 7.
If f: R → R and g : R → R are defined by f(x) = x⁵ and g(x) = x⁴ then check if f,g are one-one and fog is one-one?
Solution:
f(x) = x⁵
g(x) = x⁴
fog = fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x⁴)
= (x⁴)⁵ = x²⁰
f is one-one, g is not one-one.
∵ g(1) = 1⁴ = 1
g(-1) = ( -1)⁴ = 1
Different elements have same images
fog is not one-one. [∵ fog (1) = fog (-1) = 1]

Exercise 1.5 Class 10 Maths Question 8.
Consider the functions f(x), g(x), h(x) as given below. Show that
(f o g) o h = f o(g o h) in each case.
(i) f(x) = x – 1, g(x) = 3x + 1 and h(x) = x²
(ii) f(x) = x², g(x) = 2x and h(x) = x + 4
(iii) f(x) = x – 4, g(x) = x² and h(x) = 3x – 5
Answer:
(i) f(x) = x – 1, g (x) = 3x + 1, h(x) = x²
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(3x + 1)
= 3x + 1 – 1
fog = 3x
(fog) o h(x) = fog [h(x)] ,
= fog (x²)
= 3(x²)
(fog) oh = 3x² …..(1)
goh (x) = g[h(x)]
= g(x²)
= 3(x²) + 1
= 3x² +1
fo(goh) x = f [goh(x)]
= f[3x² + 1]
= 3x² + 1 – 1
= 3x² ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
(fog) oh = fo (goh)
Hence it is verified

(ii) f(x) = x² ; g (x) = 2x and h(x) = x + 4
(fog) x = f[g(x)]
= f (2x)
= (2x)²
= 4x²
(fog) oh (x) = fog [h(x)]
= fog (x + 4)
= 4(x + 4)²
= 4[x² + 8x + 16]
= 4x² + 32x + 64 …. (1)
goh (x) = g[h(x)]
= g(x + 4)
= 2(x + 4)
= 2x + 8
fo(goh) x = fo [goh(x)]
= f[2x + 8]
= (2x + 8)²
= 4×2 + 32x + 64 …. (2)
From (1) and (2) we get
(fog) oh = fo(goh)

(iii) f(x) = x – 4 ; g (x) = x²; h(x) = 3x – 5
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(x²)
= x² – 4
(fog) oh (x) = fog [h(x)]
= fog (3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)² – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(1)
goh (x) = g[h(x)]
= g(3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)²
= 9x² + 25 – 30x
fo(goh)x = f[goh(x)]
= f[9x² – 30x + 25]
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
(fog) oh = fo(goh)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Question 9.
Let f ={(-1, 3),(0, -1),(2, -9)} be a linear function from Z into Z . Find f(x).
Solution:
f ={(-1, 3), (0, -1), 2, -9)
f(x) = (ax) + b ………… (1)
is the equation of all linear functions.
∴ f(-1) = 3
f(0) = -1
f(2) = -9
f(x) = ax + b
f(-1) = -a + b = 3 …………… (2)
f(0) = b = -1
-a – 1 = 3 [∵ substituting b = – 1 in (2)]
-a = 4
a = -4
The linear function is -4x – 1. [From (1)]

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Question 10.
In electrical circuit theory, a circuit C(t) is called a linear circuit if it satisfies the superposition principle given by C(at₁ + bt₂) = aC(t₁) + bC(t₂), where a, b are constants. Show that the circuit C(t) = 31 is linear.
Answer:
Given C(t) = 3t
C(at₁) = 3at₁ …. (1)
C(bt₂) = 3 bt₂ …. (2)
Add (1) and (2)
C(at₁) + C(bt₂) = 3at₁ + 3bt₂
C(at₁ + bt₂) = 3at₁ + 3bt₂
= Cat₁ + Cbt₂ [from (1) and (2)]
∴ C(at₁ + bt₂) = C(at₁ + bt₂)
Superposition principle is satisfied.
∴ C(t) = 3t is a linear function.

Students who are preparing for the Science exam can download this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 12 from here for free of cost. These Tamilnadu State Board Textbook Solutions PDF cover all 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Book Back Questions and Answers.

All these concepts of Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology are explained very conceptually by the subject teachers in Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF as per the prescribed Syllabus & guidelines. You can download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology State Board Pdf for free from the available links. Go ahead and get Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Solutions of Chapter 1 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 12th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 12 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 12th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology solutions of Class 12th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Pdf Question 1.
Casparian strips are present in the ______ of the root.
(a) cortex
(b) pith
(c) pericycle
(d) endodermis.
Answer:
(d) endodermis

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Question 2.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of:
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower
Answer:
(b) stem

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Question 3.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ______.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Notes Question 4.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate.
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 5.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in:
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) stomata
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer:
(b) mitochondrial matrix

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Question 6.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

II. Fill in the blanks

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Physiology Question 1.
Cortex lies between ______.
Answer:
Epidermis and endodermis.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 One Mark Questions Question 2.
Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle called ______.
Answer:
Conjoint.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Book Back Answers Question 3.
Glycolysis takes place in ______.
Answer:
The cytoplasm of the cell.

10th Science 12th Chapter 12 Question 4.
The source of O₂ liberated in photosynthesis is ______.
Answer:
Byproduct.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 In Tamil Question 5.
________ is ATP factory of the cells.
Answer:
Mitochondria.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Meaning In Tamil Question 1.
Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in a plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plants.

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Book Back Answers Question 2.
The waxy protective covering of a plant is called cuticle.
Answer:
True.

Plants Anatomy And Physiology Question 3.
In monocot, stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In monocot stem, the cambium is absent in between xylem and phloem.

Plant Anatomy And Physiology Question 4.
Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot root.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot leaf.

Plant Anatomy And Physiology Class 10 Pdf Question 5.
Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Amphicribal	(a) Dracaena
2. Cambium	(b) Translocation of food
3. Amphivasal	(c) Fern
4. Xylem	(d) Secondary growth
5. Phloem	(e) Conduction of water

Answer:
1. (c) Fem
2. (d) Secondary growth
3. (a) Dracaena
4. (e) Conduction of water
5. (b) Translocation of food.

V. Answer in a Sentence

Question 1.
What is the collateral vascular bundle?
Answer:
When xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery, it is called the collateral vascular bundle.

Question 2.
Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Answer:
Carbondioxide present in atmosphere.

Question 3.
What is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Answer:
Glycolysis is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway.

Question 4.
Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Fermentation (Anaerobic respiration)

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give an account on a vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
The vascular bundles of dicot stem are:

• Conjoint: Xylem and phloem lie on the same radius.
• Collateral: Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery.
• Endarch: Protoxylem lies towards the centre and metaxylem lies towards the periphery.
• Open: The cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.

The vascular bundles are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.

Question 2.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
Answer:
The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis in leaf is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

Question 3.
Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the three basic tissues system in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are:

1. Dermal or Epidermal tissue system
2. Ground tissue system
3. Vascular tissue system

Question 5.
What is photosynthesis and wherein a cell does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process in which the green plants use sunlight and the green pigment chlorophyll, to synthesize, nutrients from carbon dioxide from air and water. The photosynthesis occurs in green parts of the plant such as leaves, stems and floral buds.

Question 6.
What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)
\(\mathrm{R} . \mathrm{Q} .=\frac{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{CO}_{2} \text { liberated }}{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{O}_{2} \mathrm{consumed}}\)

Question 7.
Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
Answer:
During light dependent reaction photosynthesis pigment absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂.
During light independent CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of ATP and NADPH₂ produced during light dependent reaction.

Question 8.
Write the reaction for photosynthesis.
Answer:

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the following
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root

Dicot Root	Monocot Root
1. The Xylem is Tetrarch	1. The Xylem is Polyarch.
2. The conjunctive tissue is made up of parenchyma cells.	2. The conjunctive tissue is made up of sclerenchyma cells.
3. The young root contains a path, but in the old root, pith is absent.	3. Pith cells are made of parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces and contain abundant starch grains.
4. Cambium is present during secondary growth.	4. Cambium is absent.
5. Secondary growth is present.	5. Secondary growth is absent.

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic	Anaerobic
1. Occur in the presence of oxygen.	1. Occurs, when oxygen is absent.
2. Carbon dioxide, water and ATP are produced.	2. Lactic acid, Ethanol and ATP are produced.
3. It consists of 3 steps: Glycolysis Kreb’s cycle Electron transport chain	3. It consists of 2 steps: Glycolysis Fermentation (Ethyl alcohol or Lactic acid are produced)

Question 2.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
Answer:
The three stages of Aerobic respiration are:
(i) Glycolysis (Glucose splitting): It is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is the first step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

(ii) Krebs Cycle: This cycle occurs in the mitochondria matrix. At the end of glycolysis, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into CO₂ and water takes place through this cycle. It is also called the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA).

(iii) Electron Transport Chain: This is accomplished through a system of electron carrier complex called electron transport chain (ETC) located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during glycolysis and Krebs cycle are oxidised to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ to release the energy via electrons. As they move, the electron release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesis ATP. This is called oxidative phosphorylation. In this O₂ gets reduced to water.

Question 3.
How does the light – dependent reaction differ from the light – independent reaction? What are the end products and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light – dependent photosynthesis is called Hill reaction or Light reaction. The Light independent reactions are called Biosynthetic phase.

Light-dependent reaction	Light independent reaction
1. It is called Hill reaction or Light reaction.	1. It is called Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway or the Calvin cycle.
2. The reaction is carried out in Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast.	2. This reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.
3. Photosynthetic pigments absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH2.	3. CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH2.
4. It is carried out in the presence of light.	4. It is carried out in the absence of light.

In the light – dependent reaction, the chlorophyll absorbs the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂. In the light – independent reaction, CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂. The light – dependent reaction is carried out in the Grana of the chloroplast. The Light independent reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
(A) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions?
(B) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
Answer:
(a) Light reactions are carried out in the Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast which use water and energy from the Sun to produce NADPH, ATP and Oxygen. The Dark reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast. It uses NADPH, ATP and CO₂ and produces NADP + ADP + P and high energy sugars.

(b) The Light reactions use light to synthesize ATP and NADPH. The dark reaction or Calvin cycle uses these reactants to produce sugar from additional CO₂ molecule. This cycle then produces NAP + ADP + P; (inorganic phosphate) which is used in the light reactions, with water molecules to produce ATP and NADPH again.

Question 2.
Where do the light-dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light-dependent reaction takes place in the presence of light energy in thylakoid membranes (grana) of the chloroplast Calvin cycle occurs at the stroma of the chloroplast.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The father of Plant Anatomy is _____.
(a) Melvin Calvin
(b) C.N.R. Rao
(c) Robin Hill
(d) Nehemiah Grew.
Answer:
(d) Nehemiah Grew.

Question 2.
The passage cells are found in endodermis of:
(a) dicot stem
(b) monocot stem
(c) dicot root
(d) dicot leaf
Answer:
(c) dicot root

Question 3.
The vascular bundle consists of _____.
(a) Xylem and Phloem
(b) Hypodermis and Endodermis
(c) Cortex and Pericycle
(d) Pith and Stele.
Answer:
(a) Xylem and Phloem

Question 4.
The vascular bundles are skull shaped in:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

Question 5.
The protoxylem lacuna is present in the vascular bundles of:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The epidermis has many minute pores called _____.
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 2.
Epiblema, the outermost layer of the root is called ____ or _____ layer.
Answer:
Rhizodermis or Piliferous.

Question 3.
All the tissues, inner to Endodermis constitute _____.
Answer:
Stele.

Question 4.
______ provides mechanical support to plants.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma.

Question 5.
The barrel-shaped innermost layer of Dicot stem Endodermis is also called _____.
Answer:
Starch Sheath.

Question 6.
Each vascular bundle of monocot stem is surrounded by a few-layer of sclerenchyma cells called _____.
Answer:
Bundle Sheath

Question 7.
______ consists of sieve tubes and elements of companion cells.
Answer:
Phloem.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
Pith is differentiated in monocot stems.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Pith is not differentiated in monocot stems.

Question 2.
In monocot leaves, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Dicot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Monocot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.

Question 4.
The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the stele.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the pericycle.

Question 5.
Cuticle and Stomata are absent in Epiblema of Dicot root.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Leukoplast	(a) Photosystems
2. Accessory pigments	(b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
3. Chlorophyll	(c) Chlorophyll and Carotenoids
4. Cristae	(d) Colourless plastids
5. Chl.a and Accessory pigments	(e) Green pigment

Answer:
1. (d) Colourless plastids
2. (c) Chlorophyll and Carotenoids
3. (e) Green pigment
4. (b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
5. (a) Photosystems.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Where does the break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide, water and energy takes place?
Answer:
The break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide. water and energy takes place in Mitochondria.

Question 2.
Draw the overview of Hill and Calvin Cycle.
Answer:

Question 3.
Name the energy currency in the living organism. When and where it is produced?
Answer:
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is called the energy currency in the living organism. It is produced in mitochondria during the process of respiration.

Question 4.
What are Bulliform cells?
Answer:
Some of the upper epidermal cells of monocot leaves are large and thin-walled. So they are called Bulliform cells.

Question 5.
Label the parts of the transverse section of Dicot Root.
Answer:

Question 6.
Define conjuctive tissue.
Answer:
The tissue present between xylem and phloem is called conjuctive tissue. In monocot the conjuctive tissue is sclerenchymatous tissue and in dicot it is parenchymatous tissue.

Question 7.
List out the two important factors which affect photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Internal Factors:
   • Pigments
   • Leafage
   • Accumulation of carbohydrates
   • Hormones
2. External Factors:
   • Light
   • Carbon dioxide
   • Temperature
   • Water
   • Mineral elements

Question 8.
Mention the components and functions of different Tissue Systems.
Answer:

Tissue System	Components	Functions
Dermal Tissue System	Epidermis and Periderm (in older stems and roots)	Protection Prevention of water loss
Ground Tissue System	Parenchyma tissue Collenchyma tissue Sclerenchyma tissue	Photosynthesis Food storage Regeneration Support Protection
Vascular Tissue System	Vascular tissues Phloem tissue Xylem tissue	Transport of water and minerals Transport of food

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) Label the parts of the Transverse section of a monocot stem.
(b) Mention the differences between Dicot and Monocot stem.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Tissues	Dicot Stem	Monocot stem
1. Hypodermis	collenchymatous	Sclerenchymatous
2. Ground tissue	Differentiated into cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith	Undifferentiated
3. Vascular bundles	Less in number Uniform in size Arranged in a ring Open Bundle sheath absent	Numerous Smaller near periphery, bigger in the centre Scattered Closed Bundle sheath present
4. Secondary growth	Present	Mostly absent
5. Pith	Present	Absent
6. Medullary rays	Present	Absent

Question 2.
With a labelled diagram, explain the structure and function of mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondrial Membranes: It consists of two membranes called inner and outer membrane. Each membrane is 60 – 70 A° thick. The outer mitochondrial membrane is smooth and freely permeable to most small molecules. It contains enzymes, proteins and lipids. It has porin molecules (proteins) which form channels for passage of molecules through it.

The inner mitochondrial membrane is semi – permeable membrane and regulates the passage of materials into and out of the mitochondria. It is rich in enzymes and carrier proteins. It consists of 80% of proteins and lipids.

Cristae: The inner mitochondrial membrane gives rise to finger-like projections called cristae. These cristae increase the inner surface area (fold in the inner membrane) of the mitochondria to hold a variety of enzymes.

Oxysomes: The inner mitochondrial membrane bear minute regularly spaced tennis racket shaped particles known as oxysomes (F₁ particle). They involve in ATP synthesis.

Mitochondrial matrix: It is a complex mixture of proteins and lipids. The matrix contains enzymes for Krebs cycle, mitochondrial ribosomes(70 S), tRNAs and mitochondrial DNA.

Question 3.
(a) Draw and label the ultrastructure of a chloroplast.
(b) Write the structure and function of the chloroplast.
Answer:
(a) Ultra Structure of a Chloroplast.

(b) Structure and function of Chloroplast.
Chloroplasts are green plastids, containing the green pigment called Chlorophyll. It has the following structures:

1. Envelope: It has outer and inner membranes, which are separated by intermembrane space.
2. Stroma: Matrix present inside to the membrane is called stroma, which contains DNA, 70 S ribosomes and other molecules needed for protein synthesis.
3. Thylakoids: It consists of thylakoid membrane that encloses thylakoid lumen. Thylakoid forms a stack of disc – like structures called granum.
4. Grana: Some of the thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs, stacked one above the other called grana. These stacks are termed as grana, they are interconnected to each other by membranous lamellae called Fret channels.

Functions:

• Photosynthesis
• Storage of starch
• Synthesis of fatty acids
• Storage of lipids
• Formation of chloroplasts.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What are non – green plants? Give an example.
Answer:
The plants, which do not have the green pigment, Chlorophyll and so they cannot prepare their food independently are called non-green plants. Eg. Orchids lack Chlorophyll.

Question 2.
Protophloem is the first formed phloem. If the protophloem surrounds by xylem, what kind of arrangement of phloem would you call it Give example.
Answer:
If the protophloem is surrounded by xylem the vascular bundle is said to be Concentric Amphivasal Vascular bundles. Eg: Dracaena

Question 3.
How does photosynthesis take place on plants that have, red, brown and yellow leaves, and are not green? How do they prepare food?
Answer:
These leaves have a much larger concentration of chromoplasts, which synthesize and store pigments such as orange carotenes, yellow xanthophylls and other red pigments. But these leaves, still possess chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’ and can synthesize food. But these leaves have more chromoplasts and so the leaves do not appear green. Yet they can prepare food.

Question 4.
The cross-section of a plant material shown the following features on viewing under the microscope.
(a) Radially arranged Vascular bundles
(b) Xylem is exarch and polyarch
(c) Metaxylem is polygonal in shape.
Identify the slide.
Answer:
The given features are characters of dicot root.

Believing that the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 12th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers learning resource will definitely guide you at the time of preparation. For more details about Tamilnadu State Board Class 12th Science Chapter 12 textbook solutions, ask us in the below comments and we’ll revert back to you asap.