Category: Class 9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electric Charge and Electric Current

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Electric Charge And Electric Current Class 9 Question 1.
In current electricity, a positive charge refers to,………………
(a) presence of electron
(b) presence of proton
(c) absence of electron
(d) absence of proton
Answer:
(c) absence of electron

9th Science Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 2.
Rubbing of comb with hair ……………………
(a) creates electric charge
(b) transfers electric charge
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) either (a) or (b)

Chapter 4 Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 3.
Electric field lines ………….. from positive charge and ………. in negative charge.
(a) start; start
(b) start; end
(c) start: end
(d) end; end
Answer:
(b) start; end

Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 4.
Potential near a charge is the measure of its ………… to bring a positive charge at that point.
(a) force
(b) ability
(c) tendency
(d) work
Answer:
(d) work

9th Standard Science Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 5.
In an electrolyte the current is due to the flow of …………. .
(a) electrons
(b) positive ions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) electrons

9th Science Chapter 4 Solution Question 6.
Heating effect of current is called
(a) Joule heating
(b) Coulomb heating
(c) Voltage heating
(d) Ampere heating
Answer:
(a) Joule heating

Electric Charge Match The Following Question 7.
Electroplating is an example for
(a) heating effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) flowing effect
(d) magnetic effect
Answer:
(b) chemical effect

Question 8.
Resistance of a wire depends on
(a) temperature
(b) geometry
(c) nature of material
(d) all the above
Answer:
all the above

II. Match the following.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Electric Charge	(a) ohm
2. Potential difference	(b) ampere
3. Electric field	(c) coulomb
4. Resistance	(d) newton per coulomb
5. Electric current	(e) volt

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

III. True or False.

Question 1.
Electrically neutral means it is either zero or equal positive and negative charges
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Ammeter is connected in parallel in any electric circuit
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: An ammeter is connected in series with a device to measure its current.

Question 3.
The anode in electrolyte is negative
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The anode in electrolyte is positive.

Question 4.
Current can produce magnetic field
Answer:
True

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. Electrons move from ………….. potential to …………….. potential.
2. The direction opposite to the movement of electron is called ……………….. current.
3. The e.m.f of a cell is analogous to ……………. of a pipe line.
4. The domestic electricity in India is an ac with a frequency of ………… Hz.
5. Trip switch is an …………. safety device

Answer:

1. higher, lower
2. Conventional
3. a pump
4. 50
5. electromechanical

V. Conceptual questions.

Question 1.
A bird sitting on a high power electric line is still safe. How?
Answer:
Birds don’t get shocked when they sit on electrical wires because they are not good conductors of electricity. Electricity flowing through a single power line at 35,000 volts will continue along the path of least resistance and bypass birds, because there is no difference in electrical potential.

Question 2.
Does a solar cell always maintain the potential across its terminals constant? Discuss.
Answer:
The electro-chemical process inside a battery provides electrons at the negative terminal and draws electrons from the positive terminal to maintain the current being drawn. By providing energy to the electrons, the cell is capable of maintaining an electric potential difference across the two ends of the external circuit.

Question 3.
Can electroplating be possible with alternating current?
Answer:
Electroplating is a process where there is continuous flow of ions for the deposistion of copper, which is not possible in Alternating current. Therefore, electroplating is possible with DC only, for the sake of perfectness and homogeneity of the electroplating.

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
On what factors does the electrostatic force between two charges depend?
Answer:
The electrostatic force between two charges depend on the following factors;

• value of charges on them,
  
• distance between them, and
  
• nature of medium between them.

Question 2.
What are electric lines of force?
Answer:
The direction of the electric field is the direction of the force that would act on a small positive charge. Therefore the lines representing the electric field are called ‘electric lines of force’.

Question 3.
Define electric field.
Answer:
The electric lines of force are straight or curved paths along which a unit positive charge tends to move in the electric field.

Question 4.
Define electric current and give its unit.
Answer:
Current is the rate at which charges flow past a point on a circuit. Current (I) is represented as, I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\)
The standard SI unit for current is ampere with the symbol A.

Question 5.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
Ohm’s law states that electric potential difference across two points in an electrical circuit is directly proportional to the current passing through it. That is,
V~I
The proportionality constant is tne resistance (R) offered between the two points.
Hence, Ohm’s law is written as,
V = RI (or) V = IR
Where, V is the potential difference in volt (V), I is the current flow in ampere (A), R is the resistance in ohm (Ω)

Question 6.
Name any two appliances which work under the principle of heating effect of current.
Answer:
The principle of all electric heating appliances like iron box, water heater, toaster etc. work under the principle of heating effect of current.

Question 7.
How are the home appliances connected in general, in series or parallel. Give reasons.
Answer:
The home appliances are connected in parallel. This is because, when the appliances are connected in parallel, each of them can be switched on and off independently. This is a feature that is essential in a house wiring. Also, if the appliances were wired in series, the potential difference across each appliance would vary depending on the resistance of the appliance.

Question 8.
List the safety features while handling with electricity.
Safety features to be followed are:

• Ground connection
• Trip switch
• Fuse.

VII. Exercises.

Question 1.
Rubbing a comb on hair makes the comb get – 0.4C.
(a) Find which material has lost electron and which one gained it.
Answer:
The material is comb which gained electrons and the hair gained it.

(b) Find how many electrons are transferred in this process.
Answer:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
n = \(\frac { 0.4 }{ 1.6 }\) × 10^{– 19} = 0.25 × 10¹⁹ = 2.5 × 10¹⁸

Question 2.
Calculate the amount of charge that would flow in 2 hours through an element of an electric bulb drawing a current of 2.5A.
Answer:
Given: Time ‘t’ = 2 hours = 2 × 60 × 60s
t = 7200s
I = 2.5A
Amount of charge, Q = I × t
= 2.5 × 7200
Q = 18000C

Question 3.
The values of current I flowing through a resistor for various potential differences V across the resistor are given below. What is the value of resistor?
Answer:

I (ampere)	0.5	1.0	2.0	3.0	4.0
V (volt)	1.6	3.4	6.7	10.2	13.2

[Hint: plot V-I a graph and take slope].

Resistance(R) = \(\frac { ∆V }{ ∆I }\)
= 10.2 – \(\frac { 6.7 }{ 3 }\) – 2 = 3.5/1
R = 3.5Ω

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current In Text Problems

Question 1.
How many electrons will be there in one coulomb of charge?
Solution:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
number of electrons in 1 coulomb = \(\frac{1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

Question 2.
If, 25 C of charge is determined to pass through a wire of any cross-section in 50 s, what is the measure of current?

Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\) = \(\frac { (20C) }{50s}\) = 0.5 \(\frac { C }{ s }\) = 0.5 A

Question 3.
The current flowing through a lamp is 0.2A. If the lamp is switched on for one hour, what is the total electric charge that passes through the lamp?
Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\);q = I × t
1hr = 1 × 60 × 60 s = 3600 s
q = I × t = 0.2A × 3600s = 720C

Question 4.
The e.m.f of a cell is 1.5 V. What is the energy provided by the cell to drive 0.5 C of charge around the circuit?
Solution:
ℰ = 1.5V and q = 0.5C
ℰ = \(\frac { W }{ q }\); W= ℰ × q ; Therefore W = 1.5 × 0.5 = 0.75J

Question 5.
A charge of 2 × 10⁴ C flows through an electric heater. The amount of electrical energy converted into thermal energy is 5 MJ. Compute the potential difference across the ends of the heater.
Solution:
V = \(\frac { W }{ q }\) that is 5 × 10⁶ \(\frac { J }{ 2 }\) × 10⁴ C = 250 V

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
What is a positive and a negative ion?
Answer:
If an electron is removed from the atom, it becomes positively charged. Hence it is called . a positive ion. When an electron is added to an atom, it becomes negatively charged. Hence it is called a negative ion.

Question 2.
Define Electric potential.
Answer:
Electric potential is a measure of work done on unit positive charge to bring it to that point against all electrical forces. It is represented as ‘V’.

Question 3.
What are the effects of electric current?
Answer:
When current flows in a circuit, it exhibits various effects. The main effects are; heating, chemical and magnetic effects.

Question 4.
What is resistance?
Answer:
The resistance (R) is the measure of opposition offered by the component to the flow of electric current through it.

Question 5.
What is common to both direct and alternating current?
Answer:
Joule’s heating effect of current is common to both direct and alternating current.

Question 6.
What is a trip switch?
Answer:
It is an electromechanical device which does not allow a current beyond a particular value by automatically switching off the connection.

Question 7.
What are the advantages of AC over DC?
Answer:
Advantages of AC over DC are;

1.  The voltage of an AC can be varied easily using a transformer.
2.  The AC can be carried over long distances using step up transformers.
3.  The loss of energy while distributing current in the form of AC is negligible.
4.  DC cannot be transmitted as such, but AC can be easily converted to DC.
5.  Generating AC is easier than DC, AC can produce elctromagnetic induction which is useful in several ways.

Question 8.
What is ground connection?
Answer:
A ground connection is a safety feature. The metal bodies of all electrical appliances are connected to the ground by a third wire, apart from the two wires used for electrical connection. The ground connection wire is green in colour, All the ground wires from various electrical sockets are connected together finally to a thick copper wire, hurried deep in the ground, so that excess current flows down instead of entering our body.

Question 9.
Write a short note on different electrical circuit.
Answer:
There are two types of electrical circuits – Series circuit and Parallel circuit.

• Series circuit – A series circuit has only one path for electricity to flow from one point to another. The amount of electricity in the circuit is constant throughout the circuit. When electricity flows through the circuit, there will be no fluctuation in its speed.
•  Parallel circuit – A parallel circuit has multiple path for electricity to flow, horizontally and vertically. The components of parallel circuit will have the same voltage across their ends.

Question 10.
What is the difference between electromagnetic force and potential difference?
Answer:
The e.m.f. refers to the voltage developed across the terminals of an electrical source when it does not produce current in the circuit.

Potential difference refers to the voltage developed between any two points in an electric circuit when there is current in the circuit.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Draw and explain electric circuit diagram.
Answer:

To represent an electrical wiring or solve problem involving electric circuits, the circuit diagrams are made. The four main components of any circuits namely the,

1.  cell,
2.  connecting wire,
3.  switch and
4.  resistor or load are given above. In addition to the above many other electrical components are also used in an actual circuit. A uniform system of symbols has been evolved to describe them. It is like learning a sign language, but useful in understanding circuit diagrams.

Question 2.
What is the magnetic effect of electricity?
Answer:
A wire or a conductor carrying current develops a magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of the flow of current. This is called magnetic effect of current. The discovery of the scientist Oersted and the ‘right hand thumb rule’ are detailed in the chapter on Magnetism and Electromagnetism in this book. Direction of current is shown by the right hand thumb and the direction of magnetic field is shown by other fingers of the same right hand.

Question 3.
Explain fuse.
Answer:

A fuse is another safety mechanism which works on joule heating principle. Fuse is a wire made up of a Nickel and Chromium alloy which has a definite melting point. If current passes through the fuse beyond a particular desired value, the excess heat produced melts the fuse wire, thus the electrical connection is cut-off. Fuse has to be kept in tight a ceramic enclosure to avoid the melting heat from producing fire accidents.

Question 4.
Name any ten symbols with diagram.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Organ Systems in Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer:

Organ System In Animals Class 9 Question 1.
Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
(a) Sublingual
(b) Lachrymal
(c) Submaxillary
(d) Parotid
Answer:
(b) Lachrymal

Chapter 20 Organ Systems In Animals Question 2.
Stomach of human beings mainly digests
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fat
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(b) Proteins

9th Science Organ System In Animals Question 3.
To prevent the entry of food into the trachea, the opening is guarded by
(a) Epiglottis
(b) Glottis
(c) Hard palate
(d) Soft palate
Answer:
(a) Epiglottis

Organ System In Animals Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Bile helps in the digestion of
(a) Proteins
(b) Sugar
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates
Answer:
(c) Fats

Science Digest 9th Question 5.
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is
(a) Villi
(b) Liver
(c) Nephron
(d) Ureter

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 6.
Which one of the following substances is not a constituent of sweat?
(a) Urea
(b) Protein
(c) Water
(d) Salt
Answer:
(b) Protein

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 7.
The common passage meant for transporting urine and sperms in male is
(a) Ureter
(b) Urethra
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Scrotum
Answer:
(b) Urethra

Organ System In Animals Question 8.
Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive system?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Testes
(d) fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) testes

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The opening of the stomach into the intestine is called …………………
2. The muscular and sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with saliva is ………………….
3. Bile, secreted by liver is stored temporarily in ……………………
4. The longest part of alimentary canal is ………………
5. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about …………………..
6. The largest cell in the human body of a female is ……………………

Answer:

1. duodenum
2. tongue
3. the gall bladder
4. small intestine
5. 37°C
6. an ovum

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct the wrong statements:

1. Nitric acid in the stomach kills microorganisms in the food – False
   Correct Statement: Hydrochloric acid kills the bacteria swallowed along with food.
2. During digestion, proteins are broken down into amino acids – True
3. Glomerular filtrate consists of many substances like amino acids, vitamins, hormones, salts, glucose, and other essential substances – True

IV. Match the following:

Organ		Elimination
Skin	a.	Urine
Lungs	b.	Sweat
Intestine	c.	Carbon dioxide
Kidneys	d.	Undigested food

Answer:

1. b. Sweat
2. c. Carbon dioxide
3. d. Undigested food
4. a. Urine

V. Differentiate the following terms:

a. Excretion and Secretion
b. Absorption and Assimilation
c. Ingestion and Egestion
d. Diphyodont and Heterodont
e. Incisors and Canines
Answer:

a.

Excretion	Secretion
The process of eliminating or expelling waste matter.	a process by which substances are produced and discharged from a cell, gland, or organ for a particular function in the organism or for excretion.

b.

Absorption	Assimilation
Absorption is the process by which nutrients obtained after digestion are absorbed by villi and circulated throughout the body by blood and lymph and supplied to all body cells according to their requirements.	Assimilation means the incorporation of the absorbed food materials into the tissue cells as their internal and homogenous components.

c.

Ingestion	Egestion
The process of nutrition begins with intake of food, called ingestion.	The undigested or unassimilated portion of the ingested food material is thrown out from the body through the anal aperture as faecal matter. This is known as egestion.

d.

Diphyodont	Heterodont
In human beings two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their life time.	Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont).

e.

Incisors	Canines
Type of teeth used for cutting and biting foods.	Type of teeth used for tearing and piercing of food.

VI. Answer briefly:

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 1.
How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?
Answer:
Small intestine comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger like projections called villi where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

Organ Systems In Animals Question 2.
Why do we sweat?
Answer:
Sweat palys an important role in maintaining body temperature. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about 37°C. When it gets hot sweat glands start secreting sweat, which contains water with small amounts of other chemicals like ammonia, urea, lactic acid and salts. This helps in cooling the body.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Question 3.
Mention any two vital functions of the human kidney.
Answer:
Two vital functions of the kidneys are;

1. Maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance in our body.
2. Maintain the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.

Science Organ System Question 4.
What is micturition?
Answer:
When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition.

Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 5.
Name the types of teeth present in an adult human being. Mention the functions of each.
Answer:
Types of teeth and their functions

Types of teeth	Functions
Incisors	Cutting and biting
Canines	Tearing and piercing
Premolars	Crushing and grinding
Molars	Crushing, grinding and mastication

Question 6.
Explain the structure of nephron.
Answer:
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys. Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus.

Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles. The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hairpin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Alimentary canal (digestive tract/gastro-intestinal tract):
The glands associated with the digestive system are the salivary glands, gastric glands, pancreas, liver and intestinal glands.

Structure of the Alimentary Canal:
Alimentary canal is a muscular coiled, tubular structure. It consists of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine (consisting of duodenum, jejunum and ileum), large intestine (consisting of caecum, colon and rectum) and anus.

Mouth: The mouth leads into the buccal cavity. It is bound by two soft, movable upper and lower lips. The buccal cavity is a large space-bound above by the palate (which separates the windpipe and food tube), below by the throat and on the sides by the jaws. The jaws bear teeth.

Teeth: Teeth are hard structures meant for holding, cutting, grinding and crushing the food. In human beings, two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their lifetime. The first appearing set of 20 teeth called temporary or milk teeth are replaced by the second set of thirty-two permanent teeth, sixteen in each jaw. Each tooth has a root fitted in the gum (Theocodont). Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont), according to their structure and function namely incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.

Salivary glands: Three pairs of salivary glands are present in the mouth cavity. They are: parotid glands, sublingual glands and submaxillary or submandibular glands

• Parotid glands are the largest salivary glands, which lie in the cheeks in front of the ears (in Greek Par – near; otid – ear).
• Sublingual glands are the smallest glands and lie beneath the tongue.
• Submaxillary or Submandibular glands lie at the angles of the lower jaw.
  The salivary glands secrete a viscous fluid called saliva, approximately 1.5 liters per day. It digests starch by the action of the enzyme ptyalin (amylase) in the saliva which converts starch (polysaccharide) into maltose (disaccharide). Saliva also contain an antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme.

Tongue: The tongue is a muscular, sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with the saliva. The taste buds on the tongue help to recognize the taste of food.

The masticated food in the buccal cavity becomes a bolus which is rolled by the tongue and passed through pharynx into the oesophagus by swallowing. During swallowing, the epiglottis (a muscular flap-like structure at the tip of the glottis, beginning of trachea) closes and prevents the food from entering into trachea (wind pipe).

Pharynx is a membrane lined cavity behind the nose and mouth, connecting them to the oesophagus. It serves as a pathway for the movement of food from mouth to oesophagus.

Oesophagus or the food pipe is a muscular-membranous canal about 22 cm in length. It conducts food from pharynx to the stomach by peristalsis (wave-like movement) produced by the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscular walls of alimentary canal.

Stomach is a wide J-shaped muscular organ located between oesophagus and the small intestine. The gastric glands present in the inner walls of the stomach secrete gastric juice. The gastric juice is colourless, highly acidic, containing mucus, hydrochloric acid and enzymes rennin (in infants) and pepsin.

Small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal, which is a long coiled tube measuring about 5 – 7 m. It comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

1. Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from the pancreas).
2. Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region of the small intestine. The secretion of the small intestine is intestinal juice which contains enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
3. Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine and opens into the large intestine. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger-like projections called villi (one millimeter in length) where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

The small intestine serves both for digestion and absorption. It receives

• the bile from liver and
• the pancreatic juice from pancreas in the duodenum. The intestinal glands secrete the intestinal juices.

Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. The right lobe is larger than the left lobe. On the under surface of the liver, gall bladder is present. The liver cells secrete bile which is temporarily stored in the gall bladder.

Pancreas is a lobed, leaf shaped gland situated between the stomach and duodenum. Pancreas acts both as an exocrine gland and as an endocrine gland. The gland’s upper surface bears the islets of Langerhans which have endocrine cells and secrete hormones in which α (alpha) cells secrete glucagon and β (beta) cells secrete insulin.

The intestinal glands secrete intestinal juice called succusentericus which contains enzymes like maltase, lactase, sucrase and lipase which act in an alkaline medium. From the duodenum the food is slowly moved down to ileum, where the digested food gets absorbed

Large intestine
The unabsorbed and undigested food is passed into the large intestine. It extends from the ileum to the anus. It is about 1.5 meters in length. It has three parts- caecum, colon and rectum.

The caecum is a small blind pouch like structure situated at the junction of the small and large intestine. From its blind end a finger – like structure called vermiform appendix arises. It is a vestigeal (functionless) organ in human beings.

The colon is much broader than ileum. It passes up the abdomen on the right (ascending colon), crosses to the left just below the stomach (transverse colon) and down on the left side (descending colon).

The rectumis the last part which opens into the anus. It is kept closed by a ring of muscles called anal sphincter which opens when passing stools.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of kidney and the steps involved in the formation of urine.
Answer:

Kidneys are bean-shaped organs reddish brown in colour. The kidneys lie on either side of the vertebral column in the abdominal cavity attached to the dorsal body wall. The right kidney is placed lower than the left kidney as the liver takes up much space on the right side. Each kidney is about 11 cm long, 5 cm wide and 3 cm thick. The kidney is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue, the renal capsules, adipose capsule and a fibrous membrane.

Internally the kidney consists of an outer dark region, the cortex and an inner lighter region, the medulla. Both of these regions contain uriniferous tubules or nephrons. The medulla consists of multitubular conical masses called the medullary pyramids or renal pyramids whose bases are adjacent to cortex. On the inner concave side of each kidney, a notch called hilum is present through which blood vessels and nerves enter in and the urine leaves out.

Ureters are thin muscular tubes emerging out from the hilum. Urine enters the ureter from the renal pelvis and is conducted along the ureter by peristaltic movements of its walls. The ureters carry urine from kidney to urinary bladder.

Urinary bladder is a sac-like structure, which lies in the pelvic cavity of the abdomen. It stores urine temporarily.

Urethra is a membranous tube, which conducts urine to the exterior. The urethral sphincters keep the urethra closed and opens only at the time of micturition (urination).

Functions of kidney:

1. Maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance in our body.
2. Regulate acid-base balance of blood.
3. Maintain the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.
4. Help to retain important plasma constituents like glucose and amino acids.

Structure of Nephron
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys.
Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus. Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles.

The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hair pin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The nitrogenous wastes are drained into renal pelvis which leads to ureters and stored in the urinary bladder. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.

Mechanism of Urine Formation
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

• Glomerular filtration
• Tubular reabsorption and
• Tubular secretion

Glomerular filtration: Urine formation begins with the filtration of blood through epithelial walls of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule, The filtrate is called as the glomerular filtrate. Both essential and non-essential substances present in the blood are filtered.

Tubular reabsorption: The filtrate in the proximal tubule consists of essential substances such as glucose, amino acids, vitamins, sodium, potassium, bicarbonates, and water that are reabsorbed into the blood by a process of selective reabsorption.

Tubular secretion: Substances such as H+ or K+ ions are secreted into the tubule. Certain substances like potassium and a large number of drugs like penicillin and aspirin are passed into the filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule. This tubular filtrate is finally known as urine, which is hypertonic in man. Finally, the urine passes into collecting ducts to the pelvis and through the ureter into the urinary bladder by urethral peristalsis (waves of constriction in the ureters.

The relaxation of sphincter muscles located at the opening of the urinary bladder into the urethra. When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition. A healthy person excretes one to two litres of urine per day.

VIII. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct answer.
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
c. If Assertion is true but Reason is false
d. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 1.
Assertion: Urea is excreted out through the kidneys
Reason: Urea is a toxic substance.
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In both the sexes gonads perform dual function
Reason: Gonads are also called primary sex organs
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

XI. Match the parts of the given figure with the correct option.

Question 1.

1	2	3	4	5
a. Fallopian tube	Oviduct	Uterus	Cervix	Vagina
b. Oviduct	Cervix	Vagina	Ovary	Vas deferens
c. Ovary	Oviduct	Uterus	Vagina	Cervix
d. Fallopian tube	Ovary	Cervix	Uterus	Vagina

Answer:

1. a. Fallopian tube,
2. d. Ovary,
3. d. Cervix,
4. d. Uterus,
5. a. Vagina

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
If pepsin is lacking in gastric juice, then which event in the stomach will be affected?
a. digestion of starch into sugars.
b. breaking of proteins into peptides.
c. digestion of nucleic acids.
d. breaking of fats into glycerol and fatty acids.
Answer:
kidney

Question 2.
Name the blood vessel that
a. enter Malpighian capsule and
b. leaves the Malpighian capsule.
Answer:
urinary bladder

Question 3.
Why do you think that urine analysis is an important part of medical diagnosis?
Answer:
Urine is excreted from the human body which constitutes of mote than 95% water and other constituents like urea, chloride, sodium, potassium, creatinine and other dissolved ions, and inorganic and organic compounds. When there is an illness or disease, the constituents and its levels in urine also changes.

Therefore urinalysis is also an important diagnostic tool which may be used to screen for and/or help diagnose conditions such as a urinary tract infections, kidney disorders, liver problems, diabetes or other metabolic conditions.

Question 4.
Why your doctor advises you to drink plenty of water?
Answer:
The doctor advises to drink more water as;

• Water helps to maximize physical performance.
• Hydration has a major effect on energy levels and brain function.
• Drinking water may help to prevent and treat headaches.
• Drinking more water may help relieve constipation.

Question 5.
Can you guess why there are sweat glands on the palm of our hands and the soles of our feet?
Answer:
Sweating is important for thermal regulation. Sweat works as a defense against microbes to which our hands and feet are mostly exposed than the other parts of our body.

Activity

Question 1.
Look at the pictures given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Are the teeth of animals similar to ours?
2. How is the shape of their teeth related to their food habit?

Answer:

1. Not all the teeth are similar to ours.
2. The lion is a carnivore and hence canine teeths are predominant.
   The buffalo is a herbivorous animal and incissors are predominant in them.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
Write the function of the following organ systems: Muscular system, Endocrine system, Sensory system, Excretory system.
Answer:

• Muscular system: Involved in the contraction and relaxation resulting movement.
• Endocrine system: Co-ordinates the functions of all organ systems.
• Sensory system: This helps in sight, smell, hearing, taste, and touch.
• Excretory system: Elimination of nitrogenous waste products.

Question 2.
What are the three stages of urine formation?
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption and
3. Tubular secretion

Question 3.
What are the functions of liver?
Answer:
Functions of Liver

• Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
• Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
• Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
• Destroys red blood cells
• Stores iron, copper, vitamins A, and D.
• Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)
• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 4.
Draw the excretory system and label its parts.
Answer:

Question 5.
Draw a flow chart showing the route of urine flow.
Answer:

Question 6.
What is dialysis or artificial kidney?
Answer:
When kidneys lose their filtering efficiency, an excessive amounts of fluid and toxic waste accumulate in the body. This condition is known as kidney (renal) failure. For this, an artificial kidney is used to filter the blood of the patient. The patient is said to be put on dialysis and the process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney is called hemodialysis. When renal failure cannot be treated by drug or dialysis, the patients are advised for kidney transplantation.

Question 7.
What is spermatogenesis?
Answer:
The process of formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis.

Question 8.
Describe the three parts of small intestine.
Answer:
The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal. It comprises of 3 parts – duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

• Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from pancreas).
• Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region. It contains the enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
• Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine. It is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger like projections called villi. Absorption of food takes place here.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate the enzymes secreted by the digestive glands secrete in a human body.
Answer:

Digestive glands	Enzymes
Salivary glands	Ptyalin (Salivary amylase)
Gastric glands	Pepsin
	Rennin (in infants)
Pancreas	Pancreatic amylase
	Trypsin
	Chymotrypsin
	Pancreatic lipase
Intestinal glands	Maltase
	Lactase
	Sucrase
	Lipase

Question 2.
Describe the liver and list out its functions.
Answer:
Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. On the undeside of the liver, the gall bladder is present. It stores the bile which is secreted by the liver. The bile is secreted into the smll intestine when food enters it. Bile helps in the digestion of fats.

Functions of Liver:

• • Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
  • Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
  • Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
  • Destroys red blood cells
  • Stores iron, copper, vitamins A and D.
  • Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)

• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 3.
Draw a flowchart describing the process of digestion.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fluids

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Fluids 9th Science Question 1.
The size of an air bubble rising up in water ……………. .
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) may increase or decrease
Answer:
(a) decreases

Fluids Lesson 9th Class Question 2.
Clouds float in atmosphere because of their low ……………. .
(a) density
(b) pressure
(c) velocity
(d) mass
Answer:
(a) density

9th Science Fluids Question 3.
In a pressure cooker, the food is cooked faster because ……………. .
(a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point
(b) increased pressure raises the boiling point
(c) decreased pressure raises the boiling point
(d) increased pressure lowers the melting point
Answer:
(a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point

9th Science Fluids Book Back Answers Question 4.
An empty plastic bottle closed with an airtight stopper is pushed down into a bucket filled
with water. As the bottle is pushed down, there is an increasing force on the bottom as shown in graph. This is because

(a) more volume of liquid is displaced
(b) more weight of liquid is displaced
(c) pressure increases with depth
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

II. Fill in the blanks.

1.  The weight of the body immersed in a liquid appears to be ………….. than its actual weight
2.  The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is …………….. .
3.  The magnitude of buoyant force acting on an object immersed in a liquid depends on ………….. of the liquid.
4.  A drinking straw works on the existence of …………….. .

Answer:

1.  less
2.  barometer
3.  density
4. Pressure

III. True or False.

Chapter 3 Fluids Question 1.
The weight of fluid displaced determines the buoyant force on an object.
Answer:
True.

Fluids Class 9 Question 2.
The shape of an object helps to determine whether the object will float.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Question 3.
The foundations of high-rise buildings are kept wide so that they may exert more pressure on the ground.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Solutions Question 4.
Archimedes’ principle can also be applied to gases.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Archimedes’ principle is about fluid displacement which does not involve gases.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solution Question 5.
Hydraulic press is used in the extraction of oil from oil seeds.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following.

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Density	(i) hpg
(b) 1 gwt	(ii) Milk
(c) Pascal’s law	(iii) \(\frac { Mass }{ Volume }\)
(d) Pressure exerted by a fluid	(iv) Pressure
(e) Lactometer	(v) 980 dyne

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (v)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
(e) (ii)

V. Answer in brief.

Science Solution Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
On what factors the pressure exerted by the liquid depends on?
Answer:
Pressure exerted by a liquid at a point is determined by,

•  depth (h)
•  density of the liquid (p)
•  acceleration due to gravity (g).

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Question 2.
Why does a helium balloon float in air?
Answer:
Helium is much less denser than ordinary air which gives them buoyancy and thus float in air.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 3.
Why it is easy to swim in river water than in sea water?
Answer:
Due to the presence of dissolved salts in sea water is denser than river water which makes floating easier and hence swimming is easier.

Question 4.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by the atmospheric gases on its surroundings and on the surface of the earth is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 5.
State Pascal’s law.
Answer:
Pascal’s law states that an increase in pressure at any point inside a liquid at rest is transmitted equally and without any change, in all directions to every other point in the liquid.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
With an appropriate illustration prove that the force acting on a smaller area exerts a greater pressure.
Answer:
Consider standing on loose sand. Your feet go deep into the sand. Now, when you lie down on the sand, you will find that your body will not go that deep into the sand. In both the cases the force exerted on the sand is the weight of your body which is the same. This force acting perpendicular to the surface is called thrust. When you stand on loose sand, the force is acting on an area equal to the area of your feet.

When you lie down, the same force acts on an area of your whole body, which is larger than the area of your feet. Therefore the effect of thrust, that is, pressure depends on the area on which it acts. The effect of thrust on sand is larger while ‘ standing than lying.

Question 2.
Describe the construction and working of mercury barometer.
Answer:

The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called barometer. A mercury barometer, first designed by an Italian Physicist Torricelli, consists of a long glass tube (closed at one end, open at the other) filled with mercury and turned upside down into a container of mercury. This is done by closing the open end of the mercury filled tube with the thumb and then opening it after immersing it in to a trough of mercury. The barometer works by balancing the mercury in the glass tube against the outside air pressure.

If the air pressure increases, it pushes more of the mercury up into the tub and if the air pressure decreases, more of the mercury drains from the tube. As there is no air trapped in the space between mercury and the closed end, there is vacuum in that space. Vacuum cannot exert any pressure. So the level of mercury in the tube provides a precise measure of air pressure which is called atmospheric pressure. This type of instrument can be used in a lab or weather station.

Question 3.
How does an object’s density determine whether the object will sink or float in water?
Answer:
Whether an object will sink or float in a liquid is determined by the density of the object compared to the density of the liquid. If the density of a substance is less than the density of the liquid it will float. For example, a piece of wood which is less dense than water will float on it. Any substance having more density than water (for example, a stone), will sink into water.

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a hydrometer with diagram.
Answer:

A direct-reading instrument used for measuring the density or relative density of the liquid is called hydrometer. Hydrometer is based on the principle of flotation, i.e., the weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed portion of the hydrometer is equal to the weight of the hydrometer.

Hydrometer consists of a cylindrical stem having a spherical bulb at its lower end and a narrow tube at its upper end. The lower spherical bulb is partially filled with lead shots or mercury. This helps hydrometer to float or stand vertically in liquids. The narrow tube has markings so that relative density of a liquid can be read directly.

The liquid to be tested is poured into the glass jar. The hydrometer is gently lowered into the liquid until it floats freely. The reading against the level of liquid touching the tube gives the relative density of the liquid.

Question 5.
State the laws of flotation.
Answer:
Laws of flotation are,

1. The weight of a floating body in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
2. The centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy are in the same vertical line.

VII. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct answer as
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c ) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): To float, body must displace liquid whose weight is equal to the actual weight.
Reason (R): The body will experience no net downward force in that case.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pascal’s law is the working principle of a hydraulic lift.
Reason (R): Pressure is thrust per unit area.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

VIII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
A block of wood of weight 200 g floats on the surface of water. If the volume of block is 300 cm³ calculate the upthrust due to water.
Answer:
Upthrust of floating object = weight of the water displaced
Weight = mg
= 0.200Kg × \(\frac { 10m }{ s² }\)
= 2N

Question 2.
Density of mercury is 13600 kg m^{– 3}. Calculate the relative density.
Answer:
Relative Density = \(\frac { Density of Mercury }{ Density of water }\) at 4°C
R.D. = 13.6

Question 3.
The density of water is 1 g cm^{– 3}. What is its density in S.I. units?
Answer:
S.I. unit of density of water = \(\frac { 1000kg }{ m³ }\)

Question 4.
Calculate the apparent weight of wood floating on water if it weighs 100g in air.
Answer:
Apparent weight = Weight of the body – Weight of liquid
Since the body is floating the two are equal. So, apparent weight is zero.
100 – 100 = 0

IX. HOTS

Question 1.
How high does the mercury barometer stand on a day when atmospheric pressure is 98.6 kPa?
Answer:
H= \(\frac{P_{\max }}{P_{H_{g}}}\) = 98.6 × 10 × 10 × 10
= \(\frac{(\mathrm{N} / \mathrm{m})^{2}}{13.6 \times 10 \times 10 \times 10 \mathrm{Kg} / \mathrm{m}^{3}}\)
= \(\frac { 9.8m }{ s² }\) = 740mm

Question 2.
How does a fish manage to rise up and move down in water?
Answer:
Fish has an internal swim bladder which is filled with gas. When it needs to rise or descend, it changes the volume and its density by filling this bladder with oxygen collected from the surrounding water through gills. When the bladder is filled with oxygen gas, the fish has a greater volume, with minimal increase in weight. When the bladder is expanded, it displaces more water and so experiences a greater force of buoyancy.

When the bladder is completely inflated, the fish has maximum volume and is pushed to the surface. When the bladder is completely deflated, the fish has minimum volume and sinks to the ocean floor.

Question 3.
If you put one ice cube in a glass of water and another in a glass of alcohol, what would you observe? Explain your observations.
Answer:
Ice floats in water and not in alcohol. This is because the density of ice is \(\frac { 0.917g}{ cc }\) which is lower than that of water which is 1. Whereas, the density of ethanol (alcohol) is only \(\frac { 0.789g}{ cc }\) which is lesser than ice, hence it floats in alcohol.

Question 4.
Why does a boat with a hole in the bottom would eventually sink?
Answer:
A boat with a hole at the bottom allows water to enter it, thus increasing its weight and hence it sinks. As water starts entering the boat through the hole, the boat starts to get heavier, so it starts to sink, trying to displace more water. But the water keeps coming as the hydrostatic pressure at the hole is always higher than the atmospheric pressure pushing down on the surface of the water in the boat.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Take two identical flasks and fill one flask with water to 250 cm³ mark and the other with kerosene to the same 250 cm³ mark. Measure them in a balance. The flask filled with water will be heavier than the one filled with kerosene. Why? The answer is in finding the mass per unit volume of kerosene and water in respective flasks.
Answer:

To understand density better, let us assume that the mass of the flask be 80 g. So, the mass of the flask filled with water is 330 g and the mass of flask filled with kerosene is 280 g. Mass of water only is 250 g and kerosene only is 200 g.
Mass per unit volume of water = \(\frac { 250 }{ 250 }\) cm³
= \(\frac { 1 g }{ cm3 }\)
Mass per unit volume of kerosene = 200 g/250cm³
= \(\frac { 0.8 g }{ cm3 }\)
The result \(\frac { 1g }{ cm3 }\) and \(\frac { 0.8 g }{ cm3 }\) are the densities of water and kerosene respectively.
Therefore the density of a substance is the mass per unit volume of a given substance.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids In Text Problems

Question 1.
A man whose mass is 90 kg stands on his feet on a floor. The total area of contact of his two feet with the floor is 0.036 m² (Take, g = 10 ms^{– 2}). How much is the pressure exerted by him on the floor?
Solution:
The weight of the man (thrust),
F = mg = 90 kg × 10 ms^{– 2} = 900 N
Pressure, P = \(\frac{F}{A}=\frac{900 N}{0.036 m^{2}}\) = 25000 Pa

Question 2.
Calculate the pressure exerted by a column of water of height 0.85 m (density of water, p_w = 1000 kg m^{– 3}) and kerosene of same height (density of kerosene, p_k = 800 kg m^{– 3})
Solution:
Pressure due to water = hp_wg = 0.85 m × 1000 kg m^{– 3} × 10 ms^{– 2} = 8500 Pa.
Pressure due to kerosene = hp_kg = 0.85 m × 800 kg m^{– 3} × 10 ms^{– 2} = 6800 Pa.

Question 3.
A mercury barometer in a physics laboratory shows a 732 mm vertical column of mercury. Calculate the atmospheric pressure in pascal.
[Given density of mercury, p = 1.36 × 10⁴kg m^{– 3}, g = 9.8 ms^{– 2}]
Solution:
Atmospheric pressure in the laboratory,
P = hpg = 732 × 10^{– 3} × 1.36 × 1o⁴ × 9.8
= 9.76 × 10⁴ Pa (or) 0.976 × 10⁵ Pa

Question 4.
A hydraulic system is used to lift a 2000 kg vehicle in an auto garage. If the vehicle sits on a piston of area 0.5 m², and a force is applied to a piston of area 0.03 m², what is the minimum force that must be applied to lift the vehicle?
Given: Area covered by the vehicle on the piston A₁ = 0.5 m²
Weight of the vehicle, F₁ = 2000 kg × 9.8 m s^{– 2}
Area on which force F₂ is applied, A₂ = 0.03 m²
Solution:
P₁ = P₂ ;\(\frac{F_{1}}{A_{1}}=\frac{F_{2}}{A_{2}}\)and F₂ = \(\frac{F_{1}}{A_{1}}\)A₂ ;
F₂ = (2000 × 9.8)\(\frac{0.03}{0.5}\) = 1176 N

Question 5.
You have a block of a mystery material, 12 cm long, 11 cm wide and 3.5 cm thick. Its mass is 1155 grams.
(a) What is its density?
(b) Will it float in a tank of water, or sink?
Solution:
(a) Density = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}=\frac{1155 \mathrm{g}}{12 \mathrm{cm} \times 11 \mathrm{cm} \times 3.5 \mathrm{cm}}=\frac{1155 \mathrm{g}}{462 \mathrm{cm}^{3}}\) = 2.5g cm^{– 3}
(b) The mystery material is denser than the water, so it sinks

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids Additional Questions

I. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Give reasons why:
a. a single nail pricking the body is painful when compared to lying on a bed of nails.
b. cutting edges of knife and axes are sharpened.
c. heavy trucks are fitted with 6 to 8 wheels
Answer:
a. In a nail bed, the weight is evenly distributed among numerous nails, so that the pressure exerted by each nail is not enough to puncture a person’s skin. If its only a single nail, the entire force created by the weight of the body would be distributed over a very small area presented by the tip of one nail. In this case the force per unit area will be great and can puncture the skin.
b. Knives and axes are sharpened because when the area decreases the pressure increases. Hence a small force is enough to cut an object.
c. As area increases pressure decreases. So weight of the truck exerts less pressure on the road.

Question 2.
Define:

1. Thrust,
2. Pressure

Answer:

1. Force acting on a body perpendicular to the surface is called thrust.
2. The force per unit area acting on an object concerned is called pressure.

Question 3.
In petrol bunks, in what unit is tyre pressure measured?
Answer:
The tyre pressure is measured in units of psi. it stands for pascal per inch.

Question 4.
Stating Pascal’s law, explain its application in a hydraulic press.
Answer:

Pascal’s law states that-the external pressure applied on an incompressible liquid is transmitted uniformly throughout the liquid. Pascal’s law became the basis for one of the important machines ever developed, the hydraulic press. It consists of two cylinders of different cross-sectional areas. They are fitted with pistons of cross-sectional areas “a” and “A”. The object to be compressed is placed over the piston of large cross-sectional area A. The force Fj is applied on the piston of small cross-sectional area a.

The pressure P produced by small piston is transmitted equally to large piston and a force F₂ acts on A which is much larger than F₁ area ‘a’ is given by,
P = \(\frac { F₁}{ A₁}\) …………………….(1)
Applying Pascal’s law, the pressure on large piston of area A will be the same as that on small piston. Therefore, P = \(\frac { F₂ }{ A₂ }\) …………… (2)
Comparing equations (1) and (2),we get
\(\frac { F₁ }{ A₁ }\) = \(\frac { F₂ }{ A₂ }\) or F₂ = F₁ × \(\frac { A₂ }{ A₁ }\)
Since, the ratio \(\frac { A₂ }{ A₁ }\) is greater than 1, the force F₂ that acts on the larger piston is greater than the force F₁ acting on the smaller piston. Hydraulic systems working in this way are known as force multipliers.

Question 5.
What is Artisan aquifer?
Answer:
An artesian aquifer is a confined aquifer (an underground water bearing permeable rocks) containing groundwater that will flow upwards out of a well without the need for pumping. In recharging aquifers, this happens because the water table at its recharge zone is at a higher elevation than the head of the well.

Question 6.
What is relative density? Explain it mathematically.
Answer:
Density of any other substance with respect to the density of water at 4°C is called relative density. Mathematically,

Thus, the ratio of mass of a given volume of a substance to the mass of an equal volume of water at 4°C also denotes relative density.

Question 7.
What is lactometer? Explain its principle and working.
Answer:
One form of hydrometer is a lactometer, an instrument used to check the purity of milk. The lactometer works on the principle of gravity of milk. The lactometer consists of a long graduated test tube with a cylindrical bulb with the graduation ranging from 15 at the top to 45 at the bottom. The test tube is filled with air. This air chamber causes the instrument to float. The spherical bulb is filled with mercury to cause the lactometer to sink up to the proper level and to float in an upright position in the milk.

Inside the lactometer there may be a thermometer extending from the bulb up into the upper part of the test tube where the scale is located. The correct lactometer reading is obtained only at the temperature of 60°C. A lactometer measures the cream content of milk.

More the cream, lower the lactometer floats in the milk. The average reading of normal milk is 32. The lactometers are used highly at milk processing units and at dairies.

Question 8.
Why do petroleum based products float on surface of water?
Answer:
Petroleum based products float on water because their specific gravity is low.

Question 9.
State and explain Archimedes principle. Name the devices based on this principle.
Answer:

Archimedes principle is the consequence of Pascal’s law. It states that a body immersed in a fluid experiences a vertical upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the liquid it displaces.

When a body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid at rest, it experiences an upthrust which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it. Due to the upthrust acting on the body, it apparently loses a part of its weight and the apparent loss of weight is equal to upthrust.

Thus for a body either partially or completely immersed in a fluid,
upthrust = weight of the fluid displaced
= apparent loss of body weight
Apparent weight of an object = True weight of an object in air – upthrust (weight of water displaced)
Devices based on Archimedes principle are – hydrometers, lactometers, balloons, boats and ships, submarines, etc.

You can Download The Spider and the Fly Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Poem Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 4 The Spider and the Fly

The Spider and the Fly Warm Up:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 4 The Spider and the Fly

The Spider And The Fly Question Answer Question 1.
How will you make him or her eat them?
Answer:
I will explain the nutritious value of these vegetables and how ii helps in maintaining good health.

The Spider And The Fly Book Back Answers Question 2.
What are all the flattering or tempting words you might use to convince them?
Answer:
I will say that if they eat these vegetables, it will make them healthy and smart. I will convince them by explaining that eating vegetables is a good habit and that they will be called obedient and disciplined children if they listen to good advice.

3. Work in pairs and enact that moment in front of your classmates.

The Spider and the Fly Textual Questions

A. Read the following lines from the poem and answer the questions in a sentence or two.

1. “The way into my parlour is up a winding stair,
And I’ve many curious things to show when you are there ”

Spider And The Fly Question Answer Question (a).
How to reach the spider’s parlour.
Answer:
The spider’s parlour can be reached through a winding stair.

9th English Poem The Spider And The Fly Question (b).
What will the fly get to see in the parlour?
Answer:
The fly will get to see many curious things in the parlour.

2. “Oh no, no, ” said the little Fly, “kind Sir, that cannot be,
I’ve heard what s in your pantry, and I do not wish to see! ”

The Spider And The Fly Samacheer Kalvi Question (a).
Is the fly willing to enter the spider’s pantry?
Answer:
No. The fly is not willing to enter the spider’s pantry.

The Spider And The Fly 9th Std Question (b).
Can you guess what was in the pantry?
Answer:
Only remains of dead flies may be found in the pantry.

3. “Sweet creature! ” said the Spider, “you’re witty and you’re wise,
How handsome are your gauzy wings, how brilliant are your eyes!”

Spider And The Fly Book Back Answers Question (a).
List the words used by the spider to describe the fly.
Answer:
Sweet, witty, wise, handsome, gauzy, brilliant.

The Spider And The Fly Questions And Answers Question (b).
Why does the spider say that the fly is witty?
Answer:
The spider calls the fly witty because the fly is clever to avoid entering the web.

4. The Spider turned him round about, and went into his den,
For well he knew the silly Fly would soon come back again:

The Spider And The Fly Question And Answer Question (a).
Why is the poet using the word ‘den’ to describe the spider’s web?
Answer:
The spider is like a lion in its web. So the poet uses the word.

Spider And The Fly Questions And Answers Question (b).
Why was the spider sure that the fly would come back again?
Answer:
The spider has flattered the fly of its beauty, so he was sure it would come back again.

With buzzy wings, she hung aloft, then near and nearer drew,
Thinking only of her brilliant eyes, and green and purple hue-

The Spider And The Fly Summary In Tamil Question (a).
Who does’she’refer to? ON)
Answer:
She refers to the fly.

The Spider And The Fly Poem Questions And Answers Question (b).
What was’she’thinking of? 0
Answer:
She was thinking of her beautiful eyes and the colours of her wings.

6. And now dear little children, who may this story read,
To idle, silly flattering words, I pray you never give heed:

Question (a).
Who does ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
I refer to the poet.

Question (b).
What is the advice given to the readers?
Answer:
The poet advises us not to fall a prey to flattery and sweet words.

Additional Questions

1. “I’m sure you must be weary, dear, with soaring up so high;
Will you rest upon my little bed?” said the spider to the fly.

Question (a).
Why is the fly weary?
Answer:
The fly is weary because of the fact that it flies high up in the sky.

Question (b).
What does the spider ask the fly?
Answer:
The spider asks the fly if it will rest on his bed.

2. So he wove a subtle web, in a little corner sly,
And set his table ready to dine upon the fly.

Question (a).
What is meant by subtle?
Answer:
Subtle means delicate or faint or mysterious.

Question (b).
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
The rhyming words are ‘sly’ and ‘fly’.

3. “There are pretty curtains drawn around, the sheets are fine and thin,
And if you like to rest awhile, I’ll snugly tuck you in.”

Question (а).
What do you understand by the term, ‘snugly’?
Answer:
‘Snugly’ means to be secured or have a feel of comfort.

Question (b)
Mention the figure of speech in the above lines.
Answer:
Assonance is the figure of speech employed.

For example:
The sound of ‘aw’ in drawn and around.
The vowel sound in snugly and tuck.

4. I have within my pantry good store of all that’s nice;
I’m sure you’re very welcome; will you please to take a slice?”

Question (a).
What is a pantry?
Answer:
A pantry is a storeroom for foods or wines.

Question (b).
Give the rhyming word for nice.
Answer:
The rhyming word for nice is ‘slice’.

5. Alas, alas! how very soon this silly little fly,
Hearing his wily flattering words, came slowly flitting by;

Question (a).
Why is the little fly silly?
Answer:
The little fly is silly because it came back enticed by the spider’s flattering words.

Question (b).
What is ‘wily’?
Answer:
‘Wily’ is cunning.

B. Complete the summary by filling in the spaces with suitable words.

The poem begins with the spider’s (1) …………………. of the fly. He (2) …………….. to the fly to come into its home. The spider describes his parlor as the (3) …………………. one. The spider kindles the curiosity of the fly so that she may enter his home. Fortunately, the fly was (4) ………………… and refused to get into his home. Now the spider pretends to be a (5) …………………. and asks her to come and rest in his home. He offers her (6) ……………………. and a (7) ………………….. to rest. This time also the fly (8) ………………… the spider’s offer very politely. The next weapon that the spider uses is (9) …………………. The spider praises the (10) ……………….. and (11) …………………. of the fly and also praises her (12) …………………….. He invites her to look at herself in the (13) ………………………. which is in his parlour. The fly is (14) …………….. by the words of the spider and she falls a (15) …………………… to her (16) ………………… .
Answers

1. welcoming
2. reaches out
3. prettiest
4. wise/intelligent
5. friend
6. sheets
7. bed
8. declines
9. flattery
10. wings
11. eyes
12. crest
13. looking-glass
14. flattered
15. prey
16. enticement/invitation

C. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
Write a character sketch of the spider.
Answer:
This poem takes us through a spider’s ultimately successful attempts in enticing a fly into its web. The spider is cunning in capturing its victim. It ensnares the fly through the use of seduction and flattery. In stanza one, it does its best to trap the fly into its parlour with the promises of pretty things to see. Next, it tries a different tactics, offering the fly a pretty and a comfortable place to sleep, and lovely food. Finally, it tries to flatter the fly by praising its beauty and traps the fly into his den.

Question 2.
What happens if we fall a prey to flattery? Give instances from the poem ‘The Spider and the Fly’.
Answer:
If we fall a prey to flattery, we have to face evil consequences, just like the fly who falls a prey to the spider’s flattery and seduction. The spider uses different tactics to entice the fly into its web. It invites the fly into its parlour with the promises of pretty things to see. When the fly refuses, it entices him by offering a pretty, comfortable bed and lovely food. When the fly refuses again, finally it flatters the fly for its beautiful appearance. The fly gets flattered and gets trapped into its den. This poem teaches us that we should be cautious against those who use flattery and charm to disguise their true evil intentions.

Question 3.
In your own words, give a detailed description of:
(a) The Spider’s Parlour.
Answer:
The Spider’s Parlour had winding stairs. It is the prettiest parlour that had ever been seen by the fly. It has been filled with many pretty things, which would arouse the curiosity of the fly. There are also pretty curtains, whose sheets are fine and thin. It had a pretty and a comfortable bed.

(b) The Fly’s Appearance
Answer:
The fly had gauzy wings and brilliant eyes. But the spider flattered it saying that it had pearl and silver wings, green and purple body and its antenna is like a crown on him.

Additional Questions:

1. What are the four ways by which the spider lures the fly?
There are four ways by which the spider lures the fly:
(i) The spider invites the fly to his home.
(ii) The spider pretends to be concerned over the weary fly and offers his bed.
(iii) He tries to influence the fly to come and have a look into his pantry.
(iv) He compliments the fly’s intelligence, gauzy wings and bright eyes.
At last, the spider is successful in luring the fly.

Appreciate The Poem
Figures of speech

1. Consonance: Repetition of similar consonant sounds in the neighbouring words.
Ex: “T is the prettiest little parlour that ever you did spy;
Pick out one more instance of consonance from the poem.
Hearing his wily, flattering words, came slowly flitting by;
So he wove a subtle web, in a little corner sly.

2. Assonance: Repetition of similar vowel sounds in the neighbouring words.
Ex: “T is the prettiest little parlour that ever you did spy;
Pick out one more instance of consonance from the poem.
The spider tuned him round about and went into his den,
“I’m sure you must be weary, dear, with soaring up so high.”

3. Anaphora: Repetition of a word or a phrase at the beginning of a sequence of sentences, paragraphs and lines.
Ex: How handsome are your gauzy wings, how brilliant are your eyes!
Identify the figures of speech.
“Your eyes are like the diamond bright, but mine are dull as lead! ’’
Simile is the figure of speech.

4. Alliteration: Repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words.
Pick out the words in alliteration.
“Sweet creature! ” said the Spider, “you’re witty and you ’re wise,”
Sweet – Spider; and witty – wise are alliterated.

Listening

D. Listen to the passage and fill in the blanks with appropriate answers.

(For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.in) Trust is one of the most important things anyone can have in a relationship because trust is what makes the foundation of a relationship. Without trust there is no relationship at all because everything you do or make of the relationship will be based on truth. Trust is a very rare thing to find and if you are able to give it in return, your life is so much better and more fulfilling for everyone involved. Trusting people can hurt sometimes because they betray you, but you learn from the situation and move on to the next adventure in your life. Just don’t let small bumps in the road throw you back to not trusting and being cold. Simply keep moving forward and you will have a wonderfully fulfilling life that will be filled with good people that care and are trustworthy.

1. Without trust there is no………………
2. …………….. is a very rare thing to find in life.
3. When people betray you learn from the………………………
4. Don’t let ……………….. on the road…………………….
5. If we keep moving forward you will have a wonderfully……………………..

Answers

1. relationship
2. Truth
3. situation
4. small bumps; to make you cold
5. fulfilling life

Speaking:

E. The cunning spider was waiting for a chance to pull the fly into its web and it used all the possible ways to trap her. Have you ever been trapped by flattery to do something you did not want to do? Discuss in pairs and share your experience in the class.

A small token of appreciation definitely rejuvenates our energy. But the escalation of mood which flattery brings is quite different. It makes you land in cloud nine. Sadly one realizes the consequences at the end of all turmoil. As in the poem, it may also go to the level of costing one’s life. This kind of flattery has led me to take a wrong decision in my life once. I was born and brought up in a village. When I completed my 6th standard, my parents got an opportunity of moving to Chennai and I was all excited about it.

My cousin, who was not happy with this, came and persuaded me to stay in the village. She said that I was very brilliant and would be a role model to all other students, but in Chennai I wouldn’t be appreciated so much. She said I would be happier, healthier and would have more fun here rather than in the city since all the village people really liked me. Due to her influence, I asked my parents to leave me and go to Chennai.

Before 1 could realize that it was a trap, my parents had left and I had to stay in the village for another 2 years missing my parents and the luxuries of Chennai city. This poem reminded me of that experience from which I have learned my lesson, not to fall prey to flattery.

Writing:

F. The fly gives into flattery and becomes the spider’s prey. If you are asked to give a happy ending to the poem, how will you save the fly? Write in your own words.

Finally, the fly, mesmerized by the words spoken by the spider about her beauty, flies towards the web. But before she could enter it, the fly’s friend arrives and sees what a dreadful trap she is going .to fall into. She immediately comes in front of her and stops her from entering the web. The fly regaining her consciousness, realizes what a foolish thing she was going to do and thanks her friend for saving her life.

The Spider and the Fly by Mary Botham Howitt About The Poet:

Mary Botham Howitt (1799 – 1888) was an English poet. She was born at Coleford, in Gloucestershire. She was home-schooled and read widely. She commenced writing verses at an early age. In 1821, she married William Howitt and began a career of joint authorship with him. William and Mary were associated with many important literary figures of the day including Charles Dickens, Elizabeth Gaskell and Elizabeth Barrett Browning. In 1837, she started writing her well-known tales for children, a long series of books which met with signal success. She received a silver medal from the Literary Academy of Stockholm. Together with her husband William Howitt she wrote over 180 books.

The Spider and the Fly Summary:

‘The Spider and the Fly’ teaches the reader not to be misled by flattery and be trapped. Here a spider lures a fly to enter its web, upon which he can feast upon her. He invites the little fly to enter its pretty parlour using the winding stairs, since there are so many curious things to see there. The fly refuses by saying that whoever enters the parlour can never be freed.

The spider further persuades the fly saying that she must be tired by flying so high and that she can come and take rest in his bed. For this, the fly replies that she has heard that whoever sleeps in his bed never wakes up again. The spider then tries to tempt the fly asking her to come and see his pantry where all nice things are available for her to taste and see.

The fly answers the spider saying 1 have already heard what is available in your pantry and I am not willing to see them. When all the attempts failed, the spider praises the fly saying that she is very witty and wise, with her gauzy wings and brilliant eyes. He asks her to come and have a look in the mirror that he has in his parlour. For this the fly thanks him and says she will come some other day. The spider knowing that the fly has been flattered, and will surely come to his web, makes ready his table to dine upon the fly.

Then the spider comes out and starts to sing merrily describing the beautiful features of the fly once again comparing it with his. After hearing these words, the fly cannot resist herself from thinking about her beauty and falls into the spider’s web. The spider quickly grabs her and traps her in his den from where she never comes out. The poet now asks the little children not to fall a prey to such silly, flattering words and also, never listen to an evil counselor.

The Spider and the Fly Glossary:

Textual:
counsellor – a person who advises
flattering – to praise or compliment insincerely
pantry – a room where beverages, food, dishes are stored
parlour – a tidy room in a house used for entertaining guests
subtle – delicate or faint and mysterious
weary – very tired, especially from hard work
winding – a twisting movement or course

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes

Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Lithosphere 1 Endogenic Processes Question 1.
The ………….. is the rigid outer layer of the Earth.
(a) core
(b) mantle
(c) Crust
(d) inner core
Answer:
(c) Crust

Lithosphere Endogenic Process Question 2.
…………… layer is made up of liquid iron.
(a) Inner core
(b) Outer core
(c) Mantle
(d) Crust
Answer:
(b) Outer core

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 3.
Magma is found in the ……………
(a) crust
(b) mantle
(c) core
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) mantle

9th Social Guide Question 4.
Diastrophism is connected to ……………
(a) volcanism
(b) earthquakes
(c) tectonics
(d) fold/fault
Answer:
(c) tectonics

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Answers Question 5.
The movement of tectonic plates is induced by ………….. energy.
(a) hydel
(b) thermal
(c) wave
(d) tidal
Answer:
(b) thermal

Lithosphere 1 Endogenic Processes Answers Question 6.
In the ancient period, Gondwana land moved towards ………….. direction.
(a) north
(b) south
(c) east
(d) west
Answer:
(a) north

9th Social Science Guide Question 7.
Many million years ago, India was a part of the super continent ………….
(a) Gondwana
(b) Laurasia
(c) Panthalasa
(d) Pangea
Answer:
(a) Gondwana

Endogenetic Processes Match Question 8.
The movement of plates that creates stress and tension in the rocks causing them to stretch and cracks result in ………….
(a) fold
(b) fault
(c) mountain
(d) earthquake
Answer:
(b) fault

Social 9th Guide Question 9.
……………… refers to a bowl-shaped depression found at the top of the volcano.
(a) crater
(b) vent
(c) chamber
(d) volcanic cone
Answer:
(a) crater

9th Standard Social Guide Question 10.
The point of origin of an Earthquake is called the …………..
(a) epicentre
(b) focus
(c) seismic wave
(d) magnitude
Answer:
(a) epicentre

II. Match the following.

Answer:

III. Consider the given statements.

9 Social Guide Question 1.
(i) Mt. Fuji is a dormant Volcano.
(ii) Mt. Kilimanjaro is a dormant Volcano.
(iii) Mt. Tanzania is a dormant Volcano.
Which of the statement(s) is are true?
(a) (i) is true
(b) (ii) is true .
(c) (iii) is true
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are true
Answer:
(a) (i) is true

9th Std Social Science Guide Pdf Question 2.
Statement: Magma gushes out when it finds vents.
Reason: Interior of the Earth contains compressed hot magma.
Which of the statement(s) is are true?
(a) Statement & reason are true
(b) Statement is true, reason is false
(c) Statement is false reason is true
(d) Statement & reason are false
Answer:
(a) is true

9std Social Guide Question 3.
Statement I: Mountain ranges are formed by the collision of tectonic plates.
Statement II: The movement of tectonic plates is due to the thermal energy from the mantle.
(a) Statement I is false II is true
(b) Statement I and II are false
(c) Statement I is true II is false
(d) Statement I and II are true
Answer:
(d) is true

IV. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

9th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Question 1.
Write a brief note on the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
(i) The Earth is divided into Biotic and ABiotic Spheres.

(ii) Biotic sphere is the Biosphere
A Biotic sphere is further divided into Lithosphere, Atmosphere and Hydrosphere.

Social Guide For Class 9 Question 2.
Mention the layers of the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
The structure of the Earth’s interior is divided into three layers namely the crust, the mantle and the core.

Social Guide Question 3.
What is pedosphere?
Answer:
The ‘Pedosphere’ is part of the lithosphere made up of soil and dirt. It exists at the interface of lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere.

9th Social Book Back Answers Question 4.
Define Plate tectonics.
Answer:

1. The tectonic plates float independently.
2. Collisions of the tectonic plates produce mountain ranges and other irregular surface features both on land and the ocean floor. This phenomenon is called ‘Plate tectonics.’

9th Std Social Guide Question 5.
Write a note on Fold and fault?
Answer:
Folding: Due to lateral compressional forces, the plates are forced to move upwards and downwards. This is called‘Folding’.
Faulting: The movement of plates also create stress and tension in the rocks, causing them to stretch and crack. This called ‘faulting’.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 6.
What is Tsunami?
Answer:

• The word Tsunami is a Japanese term meaning harbour waves.
• It is adopted to describe large seismically generated sea waves caused by Earthquakes Submarine explosions and landslides.

Social Science 9th Guide Question 7.
What is a Volcano? Mention its major components.
Answer:
A volcano is a vent or an opening on the surface of the Earth’s crust through which hot solid, liquid and gaseous materials (Magma) erupt out to the surface from the Earth’s interior.

9th Guide Social Question 8.
What is an Earthquake and how it occurs?
Answer:
Earthquakes are generally caused by the sudden vibrations in the Earth’s crust which spreads outward in all directions as waves from the source of disturbance.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 9.
What are seismic waves and mention its types?
Answer:
Earthquakes generate seismic waves. The nature force and speed of these seismic waves depend on the nature of the medium through which it passes.
The major types are
(a) Primary (or) P waves
(b) Secondary (or) S waves
(c) Surface waves (or) L waves.

Question 10.
Write about the Pacific Ring of fire.
Answer:

• The Pacific Ring of fire is an arc around the Pacific Ocean where many volcanoes are found.
• The Pacific Ring of fire is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world.

V. Give Reasons for the following.

Question 1.
SIAL floats over SIMA.
Answer:

1. SIAL consists of Silica and Aluminium.
2. SIMA contains Silica and Magnesium.
3. SIAL is lighter than SIMA.
   Therefore SIAL floats over SIMA.

Question 2.
Igneous rocks are also called Primary Rocks or Mother rocks.
Answer:
Igneous rocks are also called Primary Rocks (or) Mother rocks because all other rocks are directly or indirectly formed from them.

VI. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Core and crust.
Answer:

S.No.	Core	Crust
(i)	The core is the innermost hottest layer of the earth and the true centre.	The crust is the outer layer of the earth.
(ii)	It is composed mainly of Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe). So it is termed as NIFE.	It is composed of Silica and Aluminium. So it is termed as SIAL.
(iii)	Denser materials exist within Earth’s core.	Lighter materials exist on the surface.

Question 2.
Epicentre and Hypocentre.
Answer:

S.No.	Epicentre	Hypocentre
(i)	Epicentre is a point on the Earth’s surface that lies directly above the focus.	It is a point within the earth where an earthquake rupture starts.
(ii)	The impact of the Earthquake is felt, the most at the centre.	It generates series of elastic waves.

Question 3.
Divergent and convergent boundaries.
Answer:

Divergent Boundary	Convergent Boundary
The plates pull away from each other as magma pushes up from the mantle.	The plate moves towards each other and sometimes a plate sinks under another.

Question 4.
Primary waves and Secondary waves.
Answer:

S.No.	Primary waves	Secondary waves
(i)	These waves are the fastest of all the Earthquake waves and the first to reach the epicentre.	Secondary waves travel less faster than the primary waves.
(ii)	These waves pass through solids, liquids and gases.	These waves travel only through solids.
(iii)	The average velocity of these waves is -5.3 k.m/sec to 10.6 k.m/second.	The average velocity of these waves is 1 k.m/sec to 8 k.m/second.

Question 5.
Shield Volcano and Volcanic Dome.
Answer:

S.No.	Shield Volcano	Volcanic Dome
(i)	Shield volcanoes are formed by intense viscous lava.	A lava dome (or) Volcanic dome is roughly circular mound formed due to the slow ejection of viscous lava from a volcano.
(ii)	As the lava is rich in silica with intense viscosity, it is prevented from flowing far from its vent, e.g., Paricutin, Mexico.	These are shallow depositions with gently sloping sides. Hence the lava flows out in all directions to create a shield, e.g., Mauna Loa, Hawai.

VII. Write answers in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the Earth.
Answer:
The outer surface and inner core of the Earth are totally different in their nature and structure. The structure of the Earth’s interior is divided into three layers namely the crust, the mantle and the core.

Crust: Crust is the outer layer of the Earth, where we live. It is the skin of our Earth, which ranges between 5 to 30 km. It is the solid and rigid layer of the Earth. The thickness of the crust is greater below the continents than the ocean floor. The crust is classified as continental crust and oceanic crust. The major elements of crust are Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al) and thus, it is termed as SIAL.

Mantle: The interior part beneath the crust is called mantle, which is about 2,900 km thick. The major elements of the mantle are Silica (Si) and Magnesium (Mg) and hence it is also termed as SIMA. In the upper part of the mantle, the rock remains solid, whereas in the lower part of the mantle, rocks are in molten form. This molten rock inside the Earth is called ‘magma’.

Core: The core is the innermost and hottest layer of the Earth which lies below the mantle.
It is composed mainly of Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe). Hence it is called NIFE. The core is divided into Solid inner core and Liquid outer core. The presence of large quantities of iron in the core is responsible for the Earth’s gravitational force. As the Earth rotates on its axis, the liquid outer core spins over the solid inner core and generates the Earth’s magnetic field.
This is responsible for the functioning of the magnetic compass. Due to high pressure, the materials in the inner core are unable to move and hence remain solid.

Question 2.
Write a note on the internal and external processes of Earth.
Answer:
The formation and deformation of landforms on the surface of the Earth is a continuous activity of two broad processes i.e. internal and external. These processes cause stress and deformation on Earth materials and finally bring changes on the surface of the Earth. These are referred as Geomorphic Processes.

The forces that act from the Earth’s interior towards the Earth’s surface are called Internal processes or Endogenetic processes. These forces build the landscape and create topographic relief.

The forces that act on the surface of the Earth due to natural agents like running water, glacier, wind, waves etc. are called External processes or Exogenetic processes. These external processes tear the landscape down into relatively low elevated plains.

Question 3.
How are volcanoes classified based on the periodicity of their eruptions?
Answer:
Based on the periodicity of eruptions, volcanoes are classified into
(i) Active volcano,
(ii) Dormant volcano
(iii) Extinct volcano.
(i) Active Volcano: Active volcanoes are those which constantly eject volcanic lava, gases and fragmented materials. (e.g.) Mount St. Helens in the United States.

(ii) Dormant Volcano: Volcanoes that do not show any sign of volcanic activity for a long period of time are known as dormant volcanoes. Sometimes there may be a sudden explosion. which may cause unimaginable loss to life and property (e.g. ) Mt. Fuji, Japan.

(iii) Extinct or Dead Volcano: When a volcano permanently stops its volcanic activity, then it is called as extinct or dead volcano (e.g.) Mt. Kilimanjaro, Tanzania.
Volcanoes can also be classified based on their structure and composition as composite volcano, shield volcano and dome volcano.

Question 4.
Explain the effects of Volcanoes.
Answer:
Constructive Effects: Volcanic materials enrich the soil fertility that promotes agricultural activities. The hot volcanic region helps in generating geothermal energy. Many dormant and active volcanoes are the most attractive tourist spots of the world. Most of the volcanic materials are used as building materials.

Destructive Effects: Volcanic eruption causes Earthquakes, fast floods, mud slide and rock fall. Lava can travel very far and bum, bury, or damage anything in its path. The large amount of dust and ash makes breathing hard and irritable. Volcanic emptions can alter the weather conditions and disrupt transport (Iceland volcanic eruption) in and around the volcanic region.

VIII. Map Skill.

On the given outline map of the world, mark the following:
(a) Pacific Ring of fire
(b) Earthquake-prone zones (any two)
(c) Locate any two active volcanoes of the world
(d) Himalayas and Alps ranges
(e) Rift valley of East Africa
Answer:
(a) Pacific Ring of fire: It is a major area and an arc in the basin of the Pacific ocean where many earthquakes and volcanic emptions occur.

(b) Earthquake prone zones (any two): Turkey, Indonesia

(c) Locate any two active volcanoes of the world: Hawaii, Mount Fujji

(d) Himalayas and Alps ranges

(e) Rift valley of East Africa

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions.

Question 1.
Consider the various sources of information related to the Earth’s Interior. Classify the above as DIRECT & INDIRECT sources of information. Give reasons.
Answer:
• Seismic activity
• Earth’s magnetism
• Volcanoes
• Mined rocks
• Gravitational force
• Meteors

• Seismic Activity: Frequency and size of earthquake.
• Earth’s magnetism: Due to the movement of molten material under the earth’s crust.
• Volcanoes: A rupture in the crust of a planetary mass object such as Earth, that allows hot lava, volcanic ash & gases to escape.
• Mined Rocks: Excavating hard minerals:
• Gravitational force: A natural phenomenon.
• Meteors: A bright streak of light.

Question 2.
Scientists use GPS to measure the rate of Tectonic Plate movements. Discuss.
Answer:
GPS works by sending radio signals from satellites to ground stations. The distance between the satellites and station is recorded. Over time, these distances change slightly. Scientists can measure the rate of Tectonic Plate movements by recording the time it takes for ground stations to move a given distance.

In-text HOTs Question

Question 1.
Pacific Ring of Fire — Most seismically and volcanically active. Why?
Answer:
The Pacific Ring of fire is an arc around the Pacific Ocean. It is associated with a nearly continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, and volcanic belts and plate movements. It has 452 volcanoes (more than 75% of the world’s active and dormant volcanoes). The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics: the movement and collisions of lithospheric plates. That is why it is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world.

X. Life Skills

Imagine that you feel tremors or shocks in your locality. What will be your role in saving • lives from destruction? List out the Do’s and Don’ts.
Dos and don’ts during an earthquake
Do’s

1. Be aware that some earthquakes are actually foreshocks and a larger earthquake might occur.
2. If indoors, drop to the ground; cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
3. Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall, (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
4. Be aware that the electricity may go out or the sprinkler systems or fire alarms may turn on.
5. If outdoors, avoid moving. However, move away from buildings, trees, streetlights, and utility wires.
6. If you are in open space, stay there until the shaking stops.
7. If in a moving vehicle, stop as quickly as safety permits and stay in the vehicle. Avoid stopping near or under buildings, trees, overpasses, and utility wires.
8. If caught under debris, tap on a pipe or wall so rescuers can locate you. Shout if needed.

Don’ts

1. Do not light a match.
2. Do not move about or kick up dust.
3. Cover your mouth with a handkerchief or clothing.
4. Do not touch electrical switches.
5. Do not operate electrical appliances.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Collect a few rock samples from your area and classify them on the basis of what you have learnt.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Narrate the processes involved in the given rock cycle diagram in your own words.
Answer:

Rocks are continually changing from one type to another and back again. Rock Cycle is the geologic process that describes the transition of rocks between the three rock types: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic. The forces inside the earth bring the rocks closer to the surface. Here the rocks are weathered, eroded and compacted. Then the forces on the earth sink the rocks. Back down, the rocks are heated, pressed and melted. So the elements that create rocks are constantly being recycled.

Question 3.
Here is a list of a few mountains.
• Ural Mountains, Andes Mountains, Vindhya Range, Alps mountains
• Satpura range, Rocky Mountains, Sierra Nevada.
• Identify and Locate with help of atlas
Answer:
You can identify and locate the above mentioned mountains with the help of an atlas or Internet.

Question 4.
(a) Arrange a few books one above the other on a table. Just shake the table and observe what happens.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

(b) Ask two students to hold two ends of a rope. Instruct one of them to shake the rope, while the other holds it lightly and then firmly. What do you observe?
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 5.
Take a bottle filled with soda. Give it a few shakes. Now twist the cap open. What do you observe?
Answer:
A capped bottle is under a uniform pressure. The molecules of carbon dioxide gas and liquid are at an equilibrium (due to a uniform pressure). When we shake the bottle, the contents are pressurized. So when the cap is opened, the liquid comes out with a force and fizz.

Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is the solid outer part of the Earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(a) Lithosphere

Question 2.
The presence of large quantities of …………… in the core is responsible for the Earth’s Gravitational force.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Silica
Answer:
(c) Iron

Question 3.
This is the store house of rocks.
(a) crust
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) crust

Question 4.
The word ‘Igneous’ is derived from the …………… word.
(a) Arabic
(b) Roman
(c) Latin
(d) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Latin

Question 5.
The movement of tectonic plates is due to …………… energy from the mantle.
(a) Atomic energy
(b) Hydro energy
(c) Wind energy
(d) Thermal energy
Answer:
(d) Thermal energy

Question 6.
These waves are the fastest of all the Earthquake waves.
(a) P – waves
(b) S – waves
(c) L- waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) P – waves

Question 7.
The sixth deadliest natural disaster due to Tsunami caused in the year …………..
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2000
(d) 2004
Answer:
(d) 2004

Question 8.
…………… is a vent (or) and opening on the surface of the Earth crust.
(a) Volcano
(b) Tsunami
(c) Earthquake
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Volcano

Question 9.
This is a dead volcano.
(a) Mt. St. Helens
(b) Mt. Kilimanjaro
(c) Mt. Fuji
(d) Paricutin
Answer:
(b) Mt. Kilimanjaro

Question 10.
Composite volcanoes are commonly found in the ………….. ocean.
(a) Pacific
(b) Southern
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(a) Pacific

II. Match the following.
(a)

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (d)

b.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

III. Consider the given statements

Question 1.
(i) When magnia reaches this Earth’s surface, it is referred to as ‘Lava’. (True)
(ii) The interior of the earth contains very hot molten material called ‘Magma’. (True)
(iii) Sedimentary are also called Primary (or) Mother rocks. (False)
(a) (i) is true
(b) (i) & (ii) are true (iii) false
(c) (iii) is true
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) are true
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are true (iii) false

Question 2.
(i) The plates move vertically in convergent Boundary. (False)
(ii) The plates pull away from each other in Transform boundary. (False)
(iii) The plates slide horizontally past each other in Transform Boundary. (True)
(a) (i) is false
(b) (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (ii) false (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) (ii) are false (iii) true
Answer:
(i) (ii) are false (iii) true

IV. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The Hydrosphere is the watery part of the Earth’s surface including oceans, rivers, lakes and water vapour.

Question 2.
What are fossils?
Answer:
The bodies of plants and animals that fall on the sedimentary rock deposits get embedded in the layers and form fossils.

Question 3.
What do you know about the Active Volcano?
Answer:
Active volcanoes are those which constantly eject volcanic lava, gases and fragmented materials, e g., Mount St. Helens in the United states.

Question 4.
What is Geology?
Answer:
The science that deals with the physical structure and substances of the earth their history and the processes which act on them.

Question 5.
What do the internal processes generate?
Answer:

• The internal processes generate heat and eject materials from deep below the Earth’s crust.
• Internal radio activity in the principal source of power for this process.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
Why did Tsunami occur on 26th December 2004?
Answer:

• It was the result of the Indo-Australian plate subducting below the Eurasian plate.
• It was caused by an Earthquake measuring a magnitude of above 9 in the Richter scale.
  Hence the sea floor was uplifted, displacing the sea water above.

Question 2.
Why does the lava flow out in all directions in shield volcano?
Answer:

• Shield volcanoes are formed by intense viscous, lava.
• These are shallow depositions with gently sloping sides.
• Hence the lava flows out in all directions to create a shield.

VI. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Internal Processes and External processes.
Answer:

S.No.	Internal Processes	External processes
(i)	The forces that act from the Earth’s interior toward the Earth’s surface are called Internal processes.	The forces that act on the surface of the Earth due to natural agents like running water, glacier, wind, waves etc., are called External processes.
(ii)	These forces build the landscape and create topographic relief.	These external processes tear the landscape down into relatively low elevated plains.

Question 2.
Seismology and Geology.
Answer:

Seismology	Geology
The science that deals with Earthquakes is called‘Seismology’	The science that deals with the physical structure and substance of the earth their history and the processes which act on them.

Question 3.
Atmosphere and Biosphere.
Answer:

Atmosphere	Biosphere
The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases that surround the Earth.	The Biosphere is the layer of Earth where life exists.

VII. Write answers in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Give an account of‘Tsunami’
Answer:
The word ‘Tsunami’ is a Japanese term, meaning harbour waves. It is adopted to describe large seismically generated sea waves caused by Earthquakes, submarine explosions and landslides. These waves travel at a great speed (more than 500 km per hour) and the length of the waves exceeds 600 km. These waves reach to a height of more than 15 m near the sea shore and are capable of causing destruction along the coastal area.

The 2004 Indian Ocean Earthquake that caused tsunami is the sixth-deadliest natural disaster which travelled at a speed of 600 km per hour with an estimated death toll of 2,80,000. The Earthquake which occurred near Indonesia at 00.58 hours took nearly 7 hours to reach Chennai.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

9th Maths Coordinate Geometry Exercise 5.2 Question 1.
Find the distance between the following pairs of points.
(i) (1, 2) and (4, 3)
(ii) (3, 4) and (- 7, 2)
(ii) (a, b) and (c, b)
(iv) (3, -9) and (-2, 3)
Solution:
We know that distance,

9th Samacheer Maths Solution Ex 5.2 Question 2.
Determine whether the given set of points in each case are collinear or not.
(i) (7, -2), (5, 1), (3, 4)
(ii) (a, -2), (a, 3), (a, 0)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (7, -2), B (5, 1) and C (3, 4). By the distance formula.

∴ Hence the points are collinear.

(ii) Let the points be A (a, -2), B (a, 3) and C (a, 0).

∴ Hence the points are collinear.

Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Answers Question 3.
Show that the following points taken in order form an isosceles triangle.
(i) A (5, 4), B(2, 0), C (-2, 3)
(ii) A (6, -4),B (-2, -4), C (2, 10)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (5, 4), B (2, 0) and C (-2, 3)


Here AB + BC > CA and AB = BC. ∴ ∆ ABC is an isosceles triangle.

(ii) Let the points be A (6, -4), B (-2, -4) and C (2, 10).

Here BC + BA > CA and BC = CA. Two sides are equal, so ∆ ABC is an isosceles triangle

Coordinate Geometry Solutions Ex 5.2 Question 4.
Show that the following points taken in order form an equilateral triangle in each case.
(i) A(2, 2), B(-2, -2), C(\(-2 \sqrt{3}\), \(2 \sqrt{3}\))
(ii) A(\(\sqrt{3}\) ,2), B (0, 1), C(0, 3)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (2, 2) B (-2, -2) and C(\(-2 \sqrt{3}\), \(2 \sqrt{3}\))

All the 3 sides of ∆ABC are equal, Hence ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.

(ii) Let the points be A (\(\sqrt{3}\), 2), B (0, 1) and C (0, 3).
All the 3 sides of ∆ABC are equal. Hence ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.

Question 5.
Show that the following points taken in order form the vertices of a parallelogram.
(i) A(-3, 1), B(-6, -7), C (3, -9) and D(6, -1)
(ii) A (-7, -3), B(5, 10), C(15, 8) and D(3, -5)
Solution:
(i) Let A, B, C and D represent the points (-3, 1), (-6, -7) (3, -9) and (6, -1) respectively.

The opposite sides are equal. Hence ABCD is a parallelogram.

(ii) Let A, B, C and D represent the points (-7, -3), (5, 10) (15, 8) and (3, -5)

The opposite sides are equal. Hence ABCD is a parallelogram.

Form 3 Maths Exercise Question 6.
Verify that the following points taken in order form the vertices of a rhombus.
(i) A(3, -2), B (7, 6),C (-1, 2) and D (-5, -6)
(ii) A (1, 1), B(2, 1),C (2, 2) and D(1, 2)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A(3, -2), B (7, 6), C (-1, 2) and D (-5, -6)

∴ All the four sides of quadrilateral ABCD are equal. Hence ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 7.
If A(-1, 1), B(1, 3) and C(3, a) are points and if AB = BC, then find ‘a’
Solution:

Maths Solutions For Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Ex 5.2 Question 8.
The abscissa of a point A is equal to its ordinate, and its distance from the point B(1, 3) is 10 units, what are the coordinates of A?
Solution:


Co-ordinates of A are (-5, -5) or (9, 9)

9th Maths Book Ex 5.2 Question 9.
The point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (3, 4) and (-5, 6). Find a relation between x and y.
Solution:
P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(3, 4) and B(-5, 6)

Geometry 5.2  9th Maths Ex 5.2 Question 10.
Let A(2, 3) and B(2, -4) be two points. If P lies on the x-axis, such that AP = \(\frac{3}{7}\)AB, find the coordinates of P.
Solution:

9th Maths Guide Ex 5.2 Question 11.
Show that the point (11, 2) is the centre of the circle passing through the points (1, 2), (3, -4) and (5, -6)
Solution:


Therefore S is the centre of the circle, passing through A, B and C.

5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 Question 12.
The radius of a circle with centre at origin is 30 units. Write the coordinates of the points where the circle intersects the axes. Find the distance between any two such points.
Solution:

You can Download The Comet Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Poem Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 6 The Comet

The Comet Poem Line By Line Explanation

The Comet Warm Up:

Fill in the crossword puzzle using the clues given below.

Across:
2. Earth’s only natural satellite
3. Morning star
6. Titan is the largest moon of
9. Smaller bodies in orbit around the Sun
10. The star at the centre of solar system
11. The Blue planet
12. Largest planet in the solar system

Down:
1. Smallest planet in the Solar system
2. Our Galaxy
4. Seventh planet from the sun
5. Distance travelled by light in a vacuum in one tropical year
7. Farthest planet in the Solar system
8. The Red planet

Answers:

The Comet And The Moon Poem Questions And Answers

A. Memories the first three stanzas of the poem.
B. Read the following lines from the poem and answer the questions in a sentence or two.

1. “Rampaging through the heavens Never stopping day or night, ”

The Comet Poem Summary Question (a).
How does the comet travel?
Answer:
The comet travels through the sky, making a lot of noise and causing damage.

The Comet Poem Stanza Wise Explanation Question (b).
Which word could you replace ‘rampaging’ with?
a. charging b. rolling c. speeding d. flying
Answer:
Rampaging can be replaced with charging.

2. “Faster than a cheetah With a tail that’s miles long.”

The Comet Poem Question (a)
Why is the comet compared to a cheetah?
Answer:
Comet is compared with the cheetah due to its speed.

The Comet Poem Questions And Answers Question (b).
Whose tail is compared here?
Answer:
Comet’s tail is compared here.

3. “With shockwave reaching to the ground Causing the land to quake”

Comet Poem 9th Class Question (a).
What is reaching to the ground?
Answer:
The shockwave produced by the comet reaches the ground.

The Comet Poem Line By Line Explanation Question (b).
What is causing the land to quake?
Answer:
The shockwave causes the earth to quake.

4. “In the dust they leave behind,
Could have started life on the earth Which resulted in mankind”

Comet Poem Summary Question (a).
What does the word ‘they’ refer to?
Answer:
They refers to the comet.

The Comet Poem 9th Standard Question (b).
According to scientists, how did life start on earth?
Answer:
According to scientists, life started on earth by the dust left behind by these comets.

5. “But I know no better spectacle Than a comet in full flight”

The Comet Poem Explanation Question (a).
Who does ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
‘I’ refers to the poet, Norman Little ford.

The Comet Poem Figures Of Speech Question (b).
What is the best spectacle mentioned in the above lines?
Answer:
The best spectacle is the comet in full flight.

The Comet And The Moon Poem Questions And Answers Additional Questions

1. “A spectacle of a lifetime A comet in full flight.”

9th English The Comet Poem Question (a).
Why is it considered a ‘spectacle of a life time’?
Answer:
The word spectacle indicates an unusual event that attracts attention. Hence it is considered a spectacle of a life time.

The Comet Poem Lines Question (b).
Describe a comet?
Answer:
Comets are small, fragile, irregularly shaped bodies composed of a mixture of frozen gases.

2. “The outer ice is melting Causing vapor from the force, ”

The Comet Poem Stanza Wise Summary Question (a).
Why is the outer ice melting?
Answer:
The outer ice is found around the comet and it is melting because it speeds past the sun.

The Comet Poem Summary In English Question (b).
Why is the vapor spelt without an ‘u’?
Answer:
‘Vapor’ is spelt without an ‘u’ since the poet Norman Littleford is an American.

3. “Rampaging through the heavens Never stopping day or night,
A spectacle of a lifetime A comet in full flight. ”

Comet Poem Question (a).
Pick out the rhyming words in the above lines.
Answer:
The rhyming words are night and flight.

9th Std English Poem The Comet Question (b).
Give the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
Answer:
‘abcb’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.

The Comet Poem Question Answers Question (c).
Mention the poetic device employed in the last line.
Answer:
The poetic device employed in the last line is Alliteration.

4. “If one should come too close to earth
The atmosphere will shake,
With shockwave reaching to the ground .
Causing the land to quake.”

The Comet Poem Figure Of Speech Question (a).
What does ‘one’ refer to?
Answer:
‘One’ refers to the comet in full flight.

The Comet Poem Rhyme Scheme Question (b).
Why shouldn’t a comet come too close to earth?
Answer:
A comet shouldn’t come too close to the earth since it will shake the atmosphere.

The Comet Poem By Norman Littleford Question (c).
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
‘shake’ and ‘quake’ are the rhyming words.

5. “Scientists say the chemicals In the dust they leave behind,
Could have started life on the earth Which resulted in mankind.”

The Comet By Norman Littleford Summary Question (a).
What do the scientist feel?
Answer:
The scientists feel that the mankind started to emerge in this earth only from the chemicals left behind in the dust caused by the comets, when they fell on the earth.

9th English Poem The Comet Question (b)
Give the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
Answer:
‘abcb’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.

Question (c).
Give the rhyming word for behind.
Answer:
The rhyming word for behind is mankind.

C. Complete the summary by filling in the given spaces with suitable words/phrases given below.

The poet describes a moving comet which speeds through the heavens and never takes a break
by (1) ……………………When a comet is in full flight, it gives a (2) ………………….. which can never be compared to anything else for a lifetime. The comet is compared to (3) …………………….. for its speed and a mountain as it is (4) ………………. The (5) ………………… melts which causes a vapour from the force and leaves behind (6) ………………… as it travels on its way. If it comes very close to the atmosphere, it causes a shake which in turn produces a (7) ………………… that reach the Earth’s surface. According to the (8) ………………. the comets leave behind chemicals in the form of dust which resulted in the (9) ……………….. on earth and mankind came into existence. But the poet is not sure whether this principle is true. or not but he knows for sure that whatever the truth may be, the sight of the comet in full flight is the (10) …………………….. .
Answers

1. day or night
2. spectacular scene
3. a cheetah
4. powerful and strong
5. outer ice
6. a trail
7. shockwave
8. scientists
9. emerging of life
10. best spectacular

D. Poem appreciation

If one should come too close to earth
The atmosphere will shake,
With shock wave reaching to the ground
Causing the land to quake.

Question 1.

Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
Shake and quake are the rhyming words.

Question 2.
Mention the rhyme scheme of the stanza.
Answer:
‘abcb’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.

Question 3.
When you read the poem aloud, you can feel/hear a rhythm. What according to you gives rhythm to the poem- the rhymes or the words in a line. Support your answer with examples from the poem.
Answer:
When I read the poem aloud, I feel a musical rhythm and feel a regular pattern of sound. This is due to the number of syllables in lines 1 and 3 which is similar to the number of syllables in lines 2 and 4.

Additional:

Question 4.
What will happen when a comet will fall on the earth?
Answer:
If the comet were to hit the Earth, it would cause a huge explosion.

E. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
Narrate how the poet describes the comet.
Answer:
According to the poet, Norman Little ford, the comet is a remarkable scene for the generation to see when it is in full speed. It speeds past through the blue skies day and night without stopping. The poet says that the cheetah is not as fast as the comet. He instills the fact that the comet has a long tail which is more than a mile. The poet speaks about the strength of the comet and says that it is like a mountain, strong and powerful. The outer covering of ice melts when the comet goes near the sun.

Question 2.
Give a detailed account of the various effects caused by the comet to the earth.
Answer:
As the comet speeds past, the poet says the outer ice covering melts, causing steam from the energy. It leaves a trail behind it as it travels on its course. If a comet comes close to the earth, the atmosphere will vibrate, sending shockwave to the ground. It will also cause the land on earth to tremor. Scientists feel that the comets leave behind chemicals in the dust. This could have been the reason for life on the earth resulting in mankind.

Listening Activity:

F. Listen to the passage on ‘Comet’ and fill in the blanks by choosing the correct answer.

(For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation. in) Comets, meteors and asteroids have several things in common. First, they are believed to be remnants of the materials that created the Sun and the planets. Basically, they’re leftovers. Comets, meteors and asteroids are too small to be planets. Some are only a few feet in size, while others are a mile or more long.
Comets are mostly made of ice. They are very old. As comets travel close to the Sun, some of the ice melts off and becomes a gas. This melting process causes bits of dust and debris to trail behind the comet. This tail can be seen in the night sky as a bright, quickly-moving light. Comets orbit at the very edge of the galaxy, past Pluto.

1. Comets are believed to be remnants of the materials created by the ………………….. .
(a) Moon
(b) Sun
(c) Star
(d) Asteroids
Answer:
(b) Sun

2. Comets are mostly made of ………………….. .
(a) dust
(b) ice
(c) sand
(d) snow
Answer:
(b) ice

3. The ………………. can be seen in the night sky as a bright, quickly-moving light.
(a) head
(b) star
(c) tail
(d) wings
Answer:
(c) tail

4. Comets orbit at the very edge of the galaxy, past the …………………… .
(a) Earth
(b) Neptune
(c) Pluto
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(c) Pluto

5. State whether the statement is true or false
The melting process causes bits of dust and debris to trail behind the comet.
Answer:
True

Speaking:

G. Imagine you are interviewing an astronaut about his/her experiences in space. Select a partner to be an astronaut and present the interview as a role-play in front of the class.

Interviewer: How does it feel to be the first Indian to have accomplished this feat?
Astronaut: I feel unfortunate for the scientific community. I feel that my flight was before its time since our country’s space programme was not mature enough at that point to launch a space shuttle.
Interviewer: What was the reaction of your parents at this news?
Astronaut: It is indeed a moment of pride to represent the country, however they too knew the dangers behind it. Hence it was mixed verifications.
Interviewer: Is it different to travel in a space shuttle and an aeroplane?
Astronaut: There is immense difference. The environment of space cannot be duplicated on the earth. Hence training isn’t practical when it comes to the gravitational force. It’s tough to manage but you know you have no other go and your focus is on the achievement.
Interviewer: What are the qualities that you would credit your success to?
Astronaut: When you are in Rome be a Roman is the most important quality you need. Be bold, be optimistic and realize that you are the chosen one to create opportunities and make history.
Interviewer: How did your parents influence your personality and your choice of career?
Astronaut: They never forced me into a career of their choice. They allowed me to go after my passion and stood by my side to explore the unknown world.
Interviewer: Thank you so much for taking time off your busy schedule.

Writing:

H. Imagine that you and your friend get a chance to visit another planet. There you befriend an alien who takes you around the planet. After reaching the earth, write a letter thanking him for all the help he did.

02-01-2019
Earth

Dear Alien,
‘I am glad that Jack and myself met you at Mars. I am sure we would have been lost without you. You were such a great moral and physical strength. Thanks for being a constant support to us. We are so glad to have found a friend in you. You made our journey memorable. We reached Earth safely last week and we felt we should thank you for all that you did for us when we were in Mars. Hope you too miss us just as we keep talking about you often and miss you so much. Do visit us in our planet Earth. Mother Earth is filled with greenery because of the water resources which is more than the land here.
Thank you for taking us around in Mars. It was great learning about the red planet, the fourth planet from the sun. I am surprised that there are high mountains and the deep, long valleys in the solar system.
I hope to come again though it’s impossible. I seem to be dreaming of dwelling there and I keep imagining myself to be in conversation with you. Jack sends his wishes to you and feels the same for your friendship. Hoping to see you soon and take care.

Yours lovingly,
Chandran

The Comet by Norman Littleford About The Poet:

Norman Littleford (18 May 1889 – 20 May 1947) was an American poet, born in Maryland, USA. Most of his works focused on life and nature. His poems are simple but deep in thought and provoke the readers to absorb the ideas beyond the usual.

The Comet Poem Summary In English By Norman Littleford

The poet here speaks about the spectacular sight of a comet in full speed. The poet observes how the comet rampages through heavens continuously day and night. It moves faster than a cheetah with a tail that is miles long. It is as powerful and strong like a mountain. The outer ice melts, whose vapour leaves a long trail on its course. In case a comet approaches the Earth, it will shake the atmosphere and the shockwave will lead to an earthquake. Scientists believe that the chemicals left behind by the comet have given rise to life on Earth. The poet is not sure if that is true. However, he is well aware of the fact, that the passage of a comet is the best spectacular sight ever seen in his life.

The Comet Glossary:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 19 Plant Physiology

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Plant Physiology Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Plant Physiology Class 9 Question 1.
A big tree falls in a forest but its roots are still in contact with the soil. The branches of this
fallen tree straight up. This happens in response to ……………………
(a) water and light
(b) water and minerals
(c) gravity and water
(d) light and gravity
Answer:
(d) light and gravity

Chapter 19 Plant Physiology Question 2.
The tropic movement that helps the climbing vines to find suitable support is ……………………..
(a) phototropism
(b) geotropism
(c) thigmotropism
(d) chemotropism
Answer:
(c) thigmotropism

9th Science Plant Physiology Question 3.
The chemical reaction occurs during photosynthesis is ……………………….
(a) CO₂ is reduced and water is oxidized
(b) water is reduced and CO₂ is oxidized
(c) both CO₂ and water are oxidized
(d) both CO₂ and water are produced
Answer:
(a) CO₂ is reduced and water is oxidized

9th Plant Physiology Book Back Answers Question 4.
The bending of root of a plant in response to water is called ……………………….
(a) Thigmonasty
(b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Photonasty
Answer:
(c) Hydrotropism

Plant Physiology Class 9 Book Back Answers Question 5.
A growing seedling is kept in the dark room. A burning candle is placed near it for a few days. The tip part of the seedling bends towards the burning candle. This is an example of ……………….
(a) chemotropism
(b) thigmotropism
(c) phototropism
(d) geotropism
Answer:
(c) phototropism

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Practical Question 6.
The root of the plant is …………….
(i) positively phototropic but negatively geotropic
(ii) positively geotropic but negatively phototropic
(iii) negatively phototropic but positively hydrotropic
(iv) negatively hydrotropic but positively phototropic
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii)

Phototropism Diagram Question 7.
The non-directional movement of a plant part in response to temperature is called ………………
(a) thermotropism
(b) term nasty
(c) chemotropism
(d) thigmonasty
Answer:
(b) term nasty

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 8.
Chlorophyllin a leaf is required for ……………………..
(a) photosynthesis
(b) transpiration
(c) tropic movement
(d) nastic movement
Answer:
(a) photosynthesis

Question 9.
A plant is kept in a dark room for about 24 hours before conducting any experiment on photosynthesis in order to ……………….
(a) remove chlorophyll from the leaf
(b) remove starch from the leaves
(c) ensure that photosynthesis occurred
(d) to prove transpiration
Answer:
(b) remove starch from the leaves

Question 10.
Transpiration takes place through …………….
(a) fruit
(b) seed
(c) flower
(d) stomata
Answer:
(d) stomata

II. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, write the correct statement.

1. The response of a plant part to the chemical stimulus is called phototropism – False.
   Correct Statement: The response of a plant part to the chemical stimulus is called chemotropism.
2. Shoot is positively phototropic and negatively geotropic – True
3. When the weather is hot water evaporates lesser which is due to opening of stomata – False.
   Correct Statement: When the weather is hot, water evaporates faster which is due to opening of stomata.
4. Photosynthesis produces glucose and carbon dioxide – False.
   Correct Statement: Photosynthesis produces glucose and oxygen.
5. Photosynthesis is important in releasing oxygen to keep the atmosphere in balance – True
6. Plants lose water when the stomata on leaves are closed – False.
   Correct Statement: Plants lose water, when the stomata on leaves are opened.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. The shoot system grows upward in response to ……………..
2. …………….. is positively hydrotropic as well as positively geotropic.
3. The green pigment present in the plant is ………………
4. The solar tracking of sunflower in accordance with the path of sun is due to …………………
5. The response of a plant part towards gravity is ………………..
6. Plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis but need ……………. for their living.

Answer:

1. negative geotropism.
2. Root
3. chlorophyll
4. tropism
5. geotropism
6. oxygen

IV. (a) Match column A with column B

	Column A	Column B
1.	Roots growing downwards into soil	(a) Positive phototropism
2.	Shoots growing towards the light	(b) Negative geotropism
3.	Shoots growing upward	(c) Negative phototropism
4.	Roots growing downwards away from light	(id) Positive geotropism

Answer:

1. (d) Positive geotropism
2. (a) Positive phototropism
3. (b) Negative geotropism
4. (c) Negative phototropism

(b)

S.No.	Column A	Column B	Column C
1.	Photonasty	Response to temperature	Tulipa sp
2.	Thigmonasty	Response to light	Mimosa pudica
3.	Thermonasty	Response to touch	Moon flower

Answer:

S.No.	Column A	Column B	Column C
1.	Photonasty	Response to light	Moon flower
2.	Thigmonasty	Response to touch	Mimosa pudica
3.	Thermonasty	Response to temperature	Tulipa sp

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is nastic movement?
Answer:
Non-directional response to the stimulus is called Nastic movements.

Question 2.
Name the plant part

1. Which bends in the direction of gravity but away from the light.
2. Which bends towards light but away from the force of gravity.

Answer:

1. Roots
2. Stem.

Question 3.
Differentiate phototropism from photo nasty.
Answer:

Phototropism	Photonasty
The unidirectional movement of a plant part to light stimulus is called phototropism. It is slow and irreversible.	The non-directional movement of a plant part in response to light is called photo nasty. It is immediate, temporary and reversible.

Question 4.
Photosynthesis converts energy X into energy Y.
(a) What are X and Y?
Answer:
X is light energy. Y is chemical energy. During photosynthesis, the light energy is converted into chemical energy.

(b) Green plants are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition. Why?
Answer:
Green plants are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition because they prepare their food, through a process called photosynthesis by using water, carbon dioxide, chlorophyll and sunlight.

Question 5.
Define transpiration.
Answer:
The loss of water in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant body is called Transpiration.

Question 6.
Name the cell that surrounds the stoma.
Answer:
Each stomata is surrounded by guard cells.

VI. Short answer questions.

Question 1.
Give the technical terms for the following:
Answer:
(a) Growth dependent movement in plants.
Trophic movements
(b) Growth independent movement in plants.
Nastic Movements.

Question 2.
Explain the movement seen in Pneumatophores of Avicennia.
Answer:
Negatively Geotropic movement.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks:
Answer:

Question 4.
What is chlorophyll?
Answer:
Green pigments present in leaves.

Question 5.
Name the part of plant which shows positive geotropism. Why?
Answer:
Root shows positive geotropism because of the unidirectional movement in response to gravity.

Question 6.
What is the difference between movement of flower in sunflower plant and closing of the leaves in the Mimosa pudical?
Answer:
The stem of sunflower follows the path of sun from dawn to dusk (from east to west) due to light stimulus. But at night, it moves from west to east. The leaves of mimosa pudica closes on touching stimulus.

Question 7.
Suppose you have a rose plant growing in a pot, how will you demonstrate transpiration in it?
Answer:
Tie a plastic bag over leaves of rose plant and place in sunlight. After a few hours, we see water condensing inside the plastic bag. This is due to loss of water in the form of water vapour, which condenses into water. This is due to transpiration.

Question 8.
In the given photosynthetic experiment, what will happen to the leaf closed with black paper in starch test? Why?
Answer:

The part of leaf closed with black paper does not turn blue – black, when it is tested with iodine solution for the presence of starch. The leaf closed with black paper did not receive the sunlight and was unable to manufacture starch.

Question 9.
Mention the differences between stomatal and lenticular transpiration.
Answer:

	Stomatal Transpiration	Lenticular Transpiration
1.	Loss of water in the form of water vapour through minute pore called stomata.	Loss of water in the form of water vapour through lenticels.
2.	Stomata are confined to epidermis of green shoot and leaves.	Lenticels are confined in woody stem and fruits.
3.	It amounts for 90% to 95% of the water transpired from leaves.	It amounts for 1% to 5% of the total water loss by the plants.

Question 10.
To which directional stimuli do (a) roots respond (b) shoots respond?
Answer:

1. Roots respond positively geostrophic and negatively phototrophic.
2. Shoots respond negatively geostrophic and positively phototrophic.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between tropic and nastic movements
Answer:

Trophic Movements	Nastic Movements
Unidirectional response to the stimulus	Non-directional response to the stimulus
Growth dependent movements	Growth independent movements
More or less permanent and irreversible	Temporary and reversible
Found in all plants	Found only in a few specialized plants
Slow action	Immediate action

Question 2.
How will you differentiate the different types of transpiration?
Answer:
There are three types of transpiration:
Stomatal transpiration: Loss of water from plants through stomata. It accounts for 90- 95% of the water transpired from leaves.
Cuticular transpiration: Loss of water in plants through the cuticle.
Lenticular transpiration: Loss of water from plants as vapour through the lenticels. The lenticels are tiny openings that protrude from the barks in woody stems and twigs as well as in other plant organs.
But transpiration is necessary for the following reasons.

1. It creates a pull in leaf and stem.
2. It creates an absorption force in roots.
3. It is necessary for continuous supply of minerals.
4. It regulates the temperature of the plant.

Activity

Question 1.
A glass trough is taken and is filled with sand. A flower pot containing water, plugged at the bottom is kept at the centre of the glass trough. Soaked pea or bean seeds are placed around the pot in the sand. What do you observe aft er 6 or 7 days? Record your observation.
Answer:
Experiment to demonstrate Hydrotropism:

Take a glass trough and fill it with sand. Keep a Pea seedling at the centre. A porous pot with water is kept at the Trough, as shown in the diagram. Keep it for six or seven days. The Radicle has grown towards the porous pot and moisture, instead of growing vertically downward. It proves that primary root is positively Hydrotrophic and that hydrotropism is stronger than Geotropism.

Question 2.
Take pea seeds soaked in water overnight. Wait for the pea seeds to germinate. Once the seedling has grown put it in a box with an opening for light on one side. After few hours, you can clearly see how the stem has bent and grown towards the light.
Answer:
Take pea seeds soaked in water.overnight. Wait for the pea seeds to germinate. Once the seedling has grown put it in a box with an opening for light on one side. After a few days, we can clearly see that the stem has bent and grown towards the light. This experiment demonstrates Phototropism.

Question 3.
Variegated leaf is plucked from Coleus plant kept in sunlight. It is de-starched by keeping in dark room for 24 hours. The picture of this leaf is draw n and the patches of cholorphyll on the leaf are marked. After immersing the leaf in boiling water follow ed by alcohol it is tested for starch using iodine solution. Record your observation.

Answer:
Experiment to show that Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis:
Aim: To show that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
We need Coleus (croton) plant with variegated leaves, boiling water, alcohol and iodine solution.

Take coleus (croton) plant with variegated leaves. Destarch the leaves of the plant, by keeping the plant in dark room for 24 hours. Then keep the plant in the sunlight for four to six hours for photosynthesis. Pluck a leaf and draw the picture of the leaf. Mark the patches of chlorophyll on the leaf. After immersing the leaf in boiling water and then in alcohol, it is tested for starch with iodine solution. The patches of the leaf with chlorophyll turn blue – black. The other portions remain colourless. This experiment shows that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.

Question 4.
A potted plant is placed in a dark room for about 2 days to de-starch its leaves. One of its leaves is covered with the thin strip of black paper as shown in the picture, make sure that the leaf is covered on both sides.

The potted plant is kept in bright sunlight for 4 to 6 hours. The selected covered leaf is plucked and the black paper is removed.
The leaf is immersed in boiling water for a few minutes and then in alcohol to remove chlorophyll. The leaf is now tested with iodine solution for the presence of starch. The covered part of the leaf does not turn blue-black whereas the uncovered part of the leaf turns blue-black colour.
Why are the changes in colour noted in the covered and uncovered part of the leaf?
Answer:
Experiment to that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis:
Aim: To show that sunlight is necessary’ for photosynthesis.
Material required: potted plant, black paper, boiling water, alcohol and iodine solution.
Procedure:
A potted plant is placed in a darkroom for about 2 days to de-starch its leaves. One of its leaves is covered with the thin strip of black paper as shown in the picture, make sure that the leaf is covered on both sides.

The potted plant is kept in bright sunlight for 4 to 6 hours. The selected covered leaf is plucked and the black paper is removed. The leaf is immersed in boiling water for a few minutes and then in alcohol to remove chlorophyll. The leaf is now tested with iodine solution for the presence of starch. The covered part of the leaf does not turn blue-black whereas the uncovered part of the leaf turns blue-black colour. The covered part of the leaf which did not receive the sunlight was unable to synthesize starch. Hence it does not turn blue-black colour. But the uncovered part of the leaf which received sunlight was able to synthesise starch and so it turns blue-black in colour.

Question 5.
If you tie a plastic bag over a leaf and place the plant in light, you will be able to see water condensing inside the plastic bag. The water is let out by the leaves. Why does this occur?

Answer:
Experiment:
If you tie a plastic bag over a leaf and place the plant in light, you will be able to see water condensing inside the plastic bag. The water is let out by the leaves.

The leaves have tiny, microscopic holes called stomata. Water evaporates through these stomata. Each stomata is surrounded by guard cells. These guard cells help in regulating the rate of transpiration by opening and closing of stomata.

Typically, only 0.1 percent of water taken up by the plant is used by the plant for producing carbohydrates. That is, if a plant absorbs one litre of water, only one millilitre will be used to produce carbohydrate. The remaining 999 millilitres evaporates from the leaf.
You will be able to see how much water a plant releases in the air.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Plant Physiology Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
In response to light, the Auxin the cells of a stem. So that the plant bends towards
the light.
(a) condenses
(b) solidifies
(c) moves
(d) elongates
Answer:
(d) elongates

Question 2.
The end products of Photosynthesis is ………….. , which will be converted into …………….
(a) Nitrogen, Amino acids
(b) Glucose, Starch
(c) Vitamins, Minerals
(d) Fats, Fatty acids
Answer:
(b) Glucose, Starch

Question 3.
The green leaves, in the presence of light, which manufacture Starch, after removing the
chlorophyll, if Iodine is added, the leaves turn into
(a) Blue-black
(b) Blue orange
(c) Black White
(d) Blue-violet
Answer:
(a) Blue-black

Question 4.
During respiration plants inhale …………. and exhale ……………
(a) Nitrogen and Oxygen
(b) Oxygen and Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon dioxide and Oxygen
Answer:
(c) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The plants respond to gravity and are termed as ……………..
2. One of the plant hormones is ………………
3. ………….. is evolved during photosynthesis.
4. The dead plants and animals are decomposed by ………………..
5. The first leaf of monocot plants is called ……………….
6. The plumule is covered by a protective sheath called …………………
7. The other name for Geotropism is …………………
8. The other name for Thigmonasty is …………………
9. The process of ………….. will not take place in green plants at night.
10. During fertilization, pollen tube grows down the Style, in response to the sugars, in the style is
    an example of …………………

Answer:

1. geotropism
2. Auxin
3. Oxygen
4. microorganisms
5. Cotyledon
6. Coleoptile
7. Gravitropism
8. Seismonasty
9. Photosynthesis
10. Chemotropism

III. Match the column “A” with the Column “B”.

Column A	Column B
1. Embryonic shoot	(a) Micronutrients
2. Minerals needed in substantial quantities	(b) Plants
3. Tiny holes in leaves	(c) Plumule
4. Primary producers	(d) Macronutrients
5. Minerals needed in minute	(e) Stomata quantities.

Answer:

1. (c) Plumule
2. (d) Macronutrients
3. (e) Stomata
4. (b) Plants
5. (a) Micronutrients

IV. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Name the four important things needed by plants for photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Chlorophyll
2. Water
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Sunlight

Question 2.
Why is transpiration a necessary evil?
Answer:

1. Creates a pull in leaf.
2. Creates a pull in stem.
3. Creates an absorption force in roots to take more water.
   So the minerals are supplied continuously.
4. Regulates the temperature of the plant.

Question 3.
What is a food chain?
Answer:
The link in the cycle of relationship between plants, animals and micro organisms are called Food chain.

Question 4.
How are Photosynthesis by plants and gas exchange by animals interrelated?
Answer:
The oxygen released by the plants is inhaled by the animals. Animals exhale Carbon dioxide, which is taken up by the green plants for photosynthesis. Thus the photosynthesis by plants and the gas exchanges by animals are interrelated.

Question 5.
What are Nastic movements?
Answer:
When the movements are not directed towards stimuli it is called Nastic movements.

Question 6.
Match the following with the types of Nastic movements in plants

Answer:

1. (c) Touch
2. (d) Darkness
3. (a) Temperature
4. (b) Change in light intensity

Question 7.
What is Tropism?
Answer:
Tropism is a growth movement and the direction of which is determined by the direction of the
stimulus.

Question 8.
Match the following with the types of Tropisms in plants.
Answer:

Answer:

1. (d) Phototropism
2. (e) Geotropism
3. (a) Hydrotropism
4. (b) Thigmotropism
5. (c) Chemotropism

Question 9.
What are the differences between Trophic and Nastic movements?
Answer:

Trophic Movements	Nastic Movements
Unidirectional response to the stimulus	Non-directional response to the stimulus
Growth dependent movements	Growth independent movements
More or less permanent and irreversible	Temporary and reversible
Found in all plants	Found only in a few specialized plants
Slow action	Immediate action

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Matter Around Us Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Matter Around Us Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
The separation of denser particles from lighter particles done by rotation at high speed is called ………………..
(a) Filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) centrifugation
Answer:
(d) centrifugation

9th Science Matter Around Us Question 2.
Among the following ………………… is a mixture.
(a) Common salt
(b) Juice
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Pure silver
Answer:
(b) Juice

9th Science Matter Around Us Book Back Answers Question 3.
When we mix a drop of ink in water we get a …………………..
(a) Heterogeneous Mixture
(b) Homogeneous Mixture
(c) Compound
(d) Suspension
Answer:
(b) Homogeneous Mixture

9th Matter Around Us Answers Question 4.
…………… is essential to perform separation by solvent extraction method.
(a) Separating funnel
(b) Centrifuge machine
(c) Filter paper
(d) Sieves
Answer:
(a) Separating funnel

9th Science Matter Around Us Answers Question 5
…………… has the same properties throughout the sample.
(a) Pure substance
(b) Mixture
(c) Colloid
(d) Suspension
Answer:
(a) Pure substance

II. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false give the correct statement.

1. Oil and water immiscible in each other – True
2. A compound cannot be broken, into simpler substances chemically – False.
   Correct Statement: A compound can be broken into simpler substances chemically.
3. Liquid – liquid colloids are called gels – False
   Correct Statement: Liquid – solid colloids are called gels.
4. Buttermilk is an example of heterogeneous mixture – True
5. Aspirin is composed of 60% Carbon, 4.5% Hydrogen and 35.5% Oxygen by mass. Aspirin is a mixture – False.
   Correct Statement: The constituents of Aspirin are present in a fixed ratio by mass. So it is a Compound.

III. Match the following.

S.No.	A	B
1.	Element	(a) Settles down on standing
2.	Compound	(b) Impure substance
3.	Colloid	(c) Made up of molecules
4.	Suspension	(d) Pure substances
5.	Mixture	(e) Made up of atoms

(e) Made up of atomsAnswer:

1. (c) Made up of molecules
2. (b) Impure substance
3. (a) Settles down on standing
4. (d) Pure substances

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. A mixture has no distinguishable boundary between its components.
2. An example of a substance that sublimes is
3. Alcohol can be separated from water by
4. In petroleum refining, the method of separation used is
5. Chromatography is based on the principle of

Answer:

1. homogeneous
2. Naphthalene
3. distillation
4. fractional distillation
5. absorptions

V. Very short answers.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solution Chapter 10 Matter Around Us Question 1.
Differentiate between absorption and adsorption.

Absorption	Adsorption
It is the process by which atoms, molecules, or ions enter a bulk phase (liquid, gas, solid)	It is the adhesion of atoms, ions or molecules from a gas, liquid or dissolved solid to a surface

Answer:
Absorption Adsorption
It is the process by which atoms, molecules, or ions enter a bulk phase (liquid, gas, solid) It is the adhesion of atoms, ions or molecules from a gas, liquid or dissolved solid to a surface

Matter Around Us Book Back Answers Question 2.
Define sublimation.
Answer:
Certain solids change directly to a gas without passing through the liquid is called sublimation.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Matter Question 3.
A few drops of ‘Dettol’ when added to water the mixture turns turbid. Why?
Answer:
The mixture turns turbid, because of emulsion,
(Disperse phase and Dispersion medium are liquid).

9th Class Matter Around Us Lesson Question 4.
Name the apparatus that you will use of separate the components of mixtures containing two,

1. Miscible liquids,
2. Immiscible liquids

Answer:

1. Miscible liquids – Fractional distillation (Fractionating column and Liebig) Condenser
2. Immiscible liquids – Separating funnel

Matter Around Us 9th Class Question 5.
Name the components in each of the following mixtures.

1. Ice cream
2. Lemonade
3. Air
4. Soil

Answer:

1. The main constituents of ice cream are fat, milk solids (skim-milk powder), sugar, gelatin, egg and flavouring.
2. Lemonade is a mixture of lemon juice, sugar and water.
3. Air is a mixture of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, water vapour and other gases.
4. Soil is a mixture of clay, sand and various salts.

VI. Short answers.

Matter Around Us Class 9 Book Back Answers Question 1.
Which of the following are pure substances? Ice, Milk, Iron, Hydrochloric acid, Mercury, Brick and Water.
Answer:
Ice, Iron, Hydrochloric acid, Mercury and water are pure substances.

Chapter 10 Matter Around Us Question 2.
Oxygen is very essential for us to live. It forms 21% of air by volume. Is it an element or compound?
Answer:
Oxygen is an element. It contains the atoms of oxygen of the same kind.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Science 9th Question 3.
You have just won a medal made of 22-carat gold. Have you just procured a pure substance or impure substance?
Answer:
I have procured an impure substance. It is made of 22 parts of pure gold and 2 parts of copper or silver.

Matter Around Us Lesson Question 4.
How will you separate a mixture containing saw dust, naphthalene and iron filings?
Answer:
When a magnet is brought near the mixture containing saw dust naphthalene and iron filings, it attracts the iron filings. Thus iron filings are separated.

The mixture of naphthalene and saw dust are put in a china dish and covered with a perforated asbestos sheet. An inverted funnel is placed over the asbestos sheet.

The open end of the stem of the funnel is closed, using cotton wool. The china dish is heated. The pure vapours of naphthalene solid pass through the holes in the asbestos sheet and condense on the inner side of the funnel. The saw dust is left in the china dish.

Matter Around Us Class 9 Question 5.
How are homogenous solutions different from heterogeneous solution? Explain with examples.
Answer:

S.No.	Homogeneous solutions	Heterogeneous solutions
1.	Components are uniformly mixed.	Components arc not uniformly mixed.
2.	It has single phase.	It has two or more distinct phases.
3.	No boundaries of separation between the components.	There are visible boundaries between the components.
4.	Components are invisible to naked eye.	Components are visible to naked eye.
5.	Examples of Homogeneous solutions are salt solution, lemonade, petrol etc.	Examples of Heterogeneous solutions are chalk in water, petrol in water, and sand in water.

VII. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Write the differences between elements and compounds and give an example for each.
Answer:

S.No.	Elements	Compounds
1.	Contains only one kind of atoms.	Contains more than one kind of atoms.
2.	It is a pure substance.	It is not a pure substance.
3	Elements cannot be broken down further into simpler substances by chemical methods.	Compounds can be broken down further into simpler substances by chemical methods.
4	Elements have definite physical and chemical properties.	Compounds have definite physical and chemical properties.
5	Examples for elements: oxygen 07, hydrogen H7, sodium Na.	Examples for compounds, water H70, cane sugar Cp

Question 2.
Explain Tyndall effect and Brownian movement with suitable diagram.
A. Tyndall Effect:

When a strong beam of light is focused on a colloidal solution the path of the beam becomes visible.
This phenomenon is called as Tyndall effect. The illuminated path is called Tyndall cone. This phenomenon is due to scattering of light by colloidal particles.

B. Brownian movement:

It is a kinetic property. When colloidal solution are viewed under powerful microscope, it can be seen that colloidal particles are moving constantly and rapidly in zig-zag directions. The Brownian movement of particles is due to the unbalanced bombardment of the particles by the molecules of dispersion medium.

Question 3.
How is a mixture of common salt, oil and water separated?
You can use a combination of different methods.
Answer:
The mixture of common salt, oil and water are taken in a beaker. The salt dissolves in water. Allow it to stand for a few minutes. The mixture of two immiscible liquids is separated by a separating funnel. The oil floats on top. The water can carefully be separated by opening the stopcock in the separating funnel. The oil is left behind in the separating funnel.

The salt water is heated slowly, in a distillation flask with a water condenser. The pure water vapour passes through the inner tube of the condenser.

The vapours on cooling condense into pure water and are collected in a receiver. The salt is left behind in the flask as a residue.

Activity

Question 1.
Make models of the molecules of compounds by using match sticks and clay balls as shown below,

Items for identification	Matters	Non matters
Flowers, bee, cloud, rainbow, leaf, fire, baby, torchlight, sky, smoke, heat coming from glowing coals, fog, the sound coming from a drum, a laser beam

Answer:

Items for identification	Matters	Non matters
Flowers, bee, cloud, rainbow, leaf, fire, baby, torch light, sky, smoke, heat coming from glowing coals, fog, sound coming from a drum, laser beam	Flowers	rainbow
	bee	torch light
	cloud,	sound coming from a drum
	leaf	laser beam
	baby	heat coming from glowing coals
	fog
	fire

Question 2.
Take some powdered iron filings and mix it with sulphur.

1. Divide the mixture into two equal halves.
2. Keep the first half of the mixture as it is, but heat the second half of the mixture.
3. You will get a grey brittle compound.

Answer:
Iron + Sulphur \(\stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow}\) Iron sulphide
We cannot separate iron from iron sulphide. So, it is a compound, whereas Iron and Sulphur are mixtures. We can separate it by magnetic separation method.

Question 3.
Identify whether the given substance is mixture or compound and justify your answer.

S.No.	Substance	Mixture / Compound
1.	Sand and water
2.	Sand and iron filings
3.	Concrete
4.	Water and oil
5.	Salad
6.	Water
7.	Carbon dioxide
8.	Cement
9.	Alcohol

Answer:

S.No.	Substance	Mixture / Compound	Justification
1.	Sand and water	Mixture	Can be separated by filtration.
2.	Sand and iron filings	Mixture	Can be separated by a magnet.
3.	Concrete	Mixture	Ingredients are mixed together and it can be separated.
4.	Water and oil	Mixture	Oil is less dense. So floats in water and it can be separated.
5.	Salad	Mixture	Vegetable are mixed. Can be separated easily.
6.	Water	Compound	Hydrogen and oxygen are combined chemically in a fixed proportion.
7.	Carbon dioxide	Compound	Two oxygen atoms are bonded or chemically combine with carbon atom.
8.	Cement	Compound	Different elements are combined together in a fixed proportion.
9.	Alcohol	Mixture	Two or more liquids, whose proportion can be altered by distillation.

II. Match the following.

Answer:

1. (c) Hidden heat
2. (f) Colloid
3. (g) Flows freely
4. (e) Homogenous mixture
5. (b) Heterogeneous mixture
6. (d) Fractional distillation
7. (a) Separating funnel

III. State which the following statements are true or false. If false give the correct statement.

1. Supernatant denotes the heterogeneous mixture, lying above a solid residue, after crystallization, precipitation, centrifugation or other process – False.
   Correct Statement: Supernatant denotes the liquid lying above a solid residue after crystallization, precipitation, centrifugation or other process.
2. Liquids cannot be compressed and they have fixed volume – True
3. The intensity of scattered light depends on the type of colloidal solution and the size of the colloidal particles – True
4. In Aerosol the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is gas – False.
   Correct Statement: In Aerosol, The dispersed phase is solid and the dispersion medium is gas.
5. When the solid (Solute) dissolves in a liquid (Solvent), it become a solution – True
6. Solids possess very high kinetic energy – False.
   Correct Statement: Gases possess very high kinetic energy.
7. Celsius scale is a scale of temperature in which zero represents the melting point of ice and 100 represents the boiling point of water – True

IV. Answer very shortly.

Question 1.
What is a matter?
Answer:
Anything which has mass and occupies space (volume) is called matter.

Question 2.
What is dry ice or cardice?
Answer:
Frozen carbon dioxide, is dry ice or cardice.

Question 3.
What are the uses of dry ice?
Answer:

1. Act as a cooling agent
2. Industrial refrigeration
3. Transporting frozen food.
4. It does not leave any liquid behind, as it directly changes into gas.

Question 4.
When does the pressure of the gas increase?
Answer:
When the volume of the gas decreases, the gas gets compressed. The particles of the gas have only lesser space to move around. So the particles start hitting on the walls of the container and the pressure of the gas increases.

Question 5.
Complete the following table:

S.No.	CELSIUS	KELVIN
1.	90°C	363 K
2.	?	283 K
3.	63 °C	?
4.	250°C	?
5.	?	303 K

Solution:

S.No.	CELSIUS	KELVIN
1.	90°C	363 K
2.	9.85°C	283 K
3.	63 °C	336.15K
4.	250°C	523.15 K
5.	29.85°C	303 K

Question 6.
What does the LPG (Liquefied petroleum gas) contain?
Answer:
LPG is a highly inflammable hydrocarbon. It contains a mixture of butane and propane gases.

Question 7.
What are pure substances? Give examples.
Answer:
Pure substances contain only one kind of particles.
Eg: 1. Element (Sodium, Bromine, and Hydrogen)
2. Compound (Sodium chloride, water, carbon dioxide)

Question 8.
What are impure substances? Give examples.
Answer:
Impure substances contain more than one kind of particles.
Eg: Mixtures (Gun powder, which is a mixture of sulphur potassium nitrate and charcoal)

Question 9.
Classify the pure substance on the basis of chemical composition.
Answer:

Question 10.
Classify the types of mixtures.
Answer:

Question 11.
Write a few examples for the following colloids.
Answer:

1. Gels – Hair cream, tooth paste
2. Foam – Soap bubbles, carbonated beverages.
3. Solid foam – Bread, Mattresses
4. Emulsion – Milk, butter, paints, facial cream, pesticides

Question 12.
Name the two phases in separation of the mixtures in chromatography.
Answer:

1. Mobile phase
2. Stationary phase

Question 13.
What is absorption? Give example.
Answer:
Absorption is the process in which the substance is dissolved throughout the bulk of another substance.
Eg: Paper soaks up or absorbs water.

Question 14.
What is adsorption? Give example.
Answer:
Adsorption is the process in which particles of a substances, adhere to a surface of another substance.
Eg: Charcoal adsorbs gases on its surface.

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the factors, which will affect the rate of evaporation, taking examples from our daily life experiences.
Answer:

1. Temperature: Warmer the evaporation surface, the higher the rate of evaporation. In ponds, lakes and rivers, the rate of evaporation is more in sunny days.
2. Surface area: The evaporation increase, with the increase of surface area. Eg: The water kept in a saucer evaporates faster than the water kept in a glass.
3. Humidity: The amount of water vapour is high during rainy season. The air can hold little water. So it slows down the evaporation. So we sweat and perspire.
4. Wind: The evaporation is slow at low wind. Evaporation is faster at high wind. The particles of water move away, along with the particles of air at high wind. So the wet clothes dry faster on a windy day.

Question 2.
Compare boiling and evaporation.
Answer:

S.No.	Boiling	Evaporation
1.	Vaporization process.	Natural process.
2.	Turns liquid into gas when it is heated.	The liquid changes into gas without heating.
3.	Fast process.	Slow process.
4.	Occurs only at boiling point.	Occurs at any temperature.
5.	It forms bubbles.	It does not form bubbles.
6.	Energy is required.	Energy is supplied by surrounding.
7.	Temperature of the liquid remains constant.	Temperature of liquid decreases.

Question 3.
Classify colloids based on physical state of dispersed phase and dispersion medium.
Answer:

S.No.	Dispersed Phase	Dispersion Medium	Name	Examples
1.	Solid	Solid	Solid Sol	Alloys, gems, coloured glass
2.	Solid	Liquid	•Sol	Paints, inks, eggs white
3.	Solid	Gas	Aerosol	Smoke, dust
4.	Liquid	Solid	Gel	Curd, Cheese, Jelly
5.	Liquid	Liquid	Emulsion	Milk, Butter, oil in water
6.	Liquid	Gas	Aerosol	Mist, fog, clouds
7.	Gas	Solid	Solid foam	Cake, bread
8.	Gas	Liquid	Foam ‘	Soap lather, Aerated water

Question 4.
Write the methods of separation for the following:
Answer:

• Separation of insoluble solids from liquids
  Filtration and Decantation
• The separation of fine and tiny particles of solid which do not settle at the bottom.
  Centrifugation
• Separation of soluble solids from liquids
  Evaporation and crystallization
• Separation of miscible liquids which do not differ much in their boiling points
  Fractional distillation
• Separation of two immiscible liquids
  Separating funnel
• Separation of different fractions of petroleum
  Fractional distillation with fractionating column
• Separation of mixture containing volatile and non-volatile solids.
  Sublimation.

Question 5.
Write the differences between mixture and compounds.
Answer:

S. No.	MIXTURE	COMPOUND	Name	Examples
1.	Mixture can be separated into its constituents by physical process.	Compounds can be separated into its constituents by chemical process.	Solid Sol	Alloys, gems, coloured glass
2.	Mixture shows the properties of its constituents.	The properties of a compound are entirely different from its constituent elements .	Sol	Paints, inks, eggs white
3.	Energy in the form of heat and light is neither given out nor absorbed in.	Energy in the form of heat and light is given out or absorbed.	Aerosol	Smoke, dust
4.	The composition or proportion of a mixture does not have a definite formula.	The composition of a compound is fixed. The constituents have a fixed ratio by mass.	Gel .	Curd, Cheese, Jelly
5.	A mixture does not have fixed boiling point or melting point.	A compound has a fixed boiling or melting point.	Emulsion	Milk, Butter, oil in water

You can Download Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Poem Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 1 Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening

Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening Warm Up:

Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Questions And Answers Class 9 Question 1.
Have you ever travelled through a forest? How did you feel?
Answer:
Yes. Recently, I had an opportunity to pass by a dense forest at the outskirts of my native place. I wanted to have a feel of it and so I entered a few meters into the forest. The silence and the darkness was both comforting and disturbing at the same time.

9th English Poem Question 2.
Did you have any time to stop and enjoy the beauty of the forest?
Answer:
I was on my way to hometown. Even though, I didn’t have much time to stop by the forest, I enjoyed the limitless beauty for a moment. When I entered into the forest, the long grown trees made a canopy over my head. The leaves almost covered the sky. The gentle breeze spread the refreshing smell of damp soil. Every now and then there was a sound of birds chirping. I left the forest soon but it was an unforgettable experience.

Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening Textual Questions

B. Read the following lines and answer the following questions.

1. He will not see me stopping here
To watch his woods fill up with snow.

9th English Unit 1 Poem Question Answer Question (a).
Who does ‘he refer to?
Answer:
‘He’ refers to the owner of the woods.

Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Book Back Answers Question (b).
Identify the season with these lines.
Answer:
It is winter season.

2. My little horse must think it queer
To stop without a farmhouse near

Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Samacheer Kalvi Question(a).
Who Is the speaker?
Question:
The poet Robert Frost is the speaker.

9th English Memory Poem Question (b).
Why should the horse think It queer?
Answer:
There is no farm house near and it is night time, the woods are dark. So the horse might think it strange to stop there.

9th English Guide Poem Question (c).
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
queer – near

3. He gives his harness bells a shake
To ask if there is some mistake.

9th English Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Question (a).
Whom does ‘he’ refer to in these lines?
Answer:
‘He’ refers to the horse.

9th English Poem Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Question (b).
Why does ‘he’ give his harness bells a shake?
Answer:
He shakes the harness bells as if he is asking the poet whether there was any mistake in stopping at the wrong place.

9th Standard English Poem Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Question (c).
How does the horse communicate with the poet?
Answer:
The horse communicates with the poet by shaking his harness bells.

4. The woods are lovely, dark and deep,
But I have promises to keep,

Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Questions And Answers Question (a).
How are the woods?
Answer:
The woods are lovely, dark and dense.

Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Question Answer Question (b).
Who does ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
I refers to the poet, Robert Frost.

9th English Memory Poem Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Question (c).
What are the promises the speaker is talking about?
Answer:
Duties and responsibilities in life are referred to as promises.

5. And miles to go before I sleep,
And miles to go before I sleep.

9th Standard English Memory Poem New Syllabus Question (a).
Why the poet has used the same line twice?
Answer:
In order to emphasize the fact that he has to fulfill his duties and responsibilities before his death, the poet has used the same line twice.

9th Standard English Poem Question (b).
Explain miles to go before I sleep.
Question:
Miles to go refers to leading the rest of his life until his death.

Additional Questions

1. Whose woods these are I think I know.
His house is in the village though;

(i) Is the poet familiar about the ownership of the woods?
(ii) Where is the owner’s house?
(iii) Pick out the rhyming words.
Answers:
(i) Yes
(ii) The owner’s house is in the village.
(iii) know; though

2. Between the woods and frozen lake The darkest evening of the year.

(i) Which night is referred here as the darkest evening of the year?
(ii) What were the two sides of the road filled with?
(iii) Identify the rhyme scheme.
Answers:
(i) December 21 is referred to as the darkest evening of the year.
(ii) The two sides of the road were filled with woods and frozen lake.
(ii) a, b

3. The only other sound’s the sweep Of easy wind and downy flake.

(i) Was the place noisy?
(ii) Which were the sounds he could hear?
Answers:
(i) No
(ii) The only sounds that the poet could hear were of wind and fall of snowflakes.

C. Complete the summary of the poem by filling in the blanks.

After a long travel the poet entered a (1) …………………. He wondered to whom the wood (2) …………………. ! He realized that the owner of the wood lived in a (3) ………………….. He thought that the owner would not be able to (4) ……………….. him stopping in his woods to watch (5) ……………… fill the woods. The poet felt that the horse would think it very (6) ……………….. to stop near the woods as he had never (7) …………… He was actually standing between the woods and (8) …………………. The time was (9) ……………. The horse indicated that the poet has made a (10) ………………… by shaking its head. The poet felt that the woods are lovely, (11) ………………. and (12) …………….. He suddenly realized that he had worldly (13) ……………………. which would not allow him to (14) …………………….. in the woods for a long time.
Answers:

1. wood
2. belonged
3. village
4. see
5. snow
6. strange
7. done
8. frozen lake
9. late evening
10. mistake
11. dark
12. deep
13. commitments
14. stay

D. Answer the questions in two or three sentences.

9th Stopping By Woods On A Snowy Evening Question 1.
What information does the poet highlight about the season and the time of the day in the poem?
Answer:
The darkest evening of the year refers to December 21, the longest night of the year, when there is biting cold. The winter season had its spell on Nature. By using the symbol of darkness in the second stanza, the poet brings forth a sense of sadness and peace.

9th Memory Poem In English Question 2.
In which way is the reaction of the speaker different from that of the horse? What does it convey?
Answer:
The speaker is spellbound by the beauty of the place. He forgets his purpose and dwells deep into Nature’s beauty. Completely mesmerised, the speaker who stops for a while, fails to return to his duties. On the other hand, the horse seems to be responsible and more duty-conscious. The horse does not get attracted to the beauty but wants to complete the task. The difference in the attitude displayed by the man and his horse conveys the struggle between human responsibility and one’s pull towards the worldly desires.

9th Poem Question 3.
What are the sounds heard by the poet?
Answer:
Shaking of harness bells and sound of the wind are heard by the poet.

9th English Book Poem Question 4.
The poet is aware of two choices. What are they? What choice does he make ultimately?
Answer:
The two choices are – either to stop and enjoy the nature standing between the woods and frozen in the darkest evening of a winter season or get back to work. Though the poet is attracted by the beauty, he understands his responsibilities and so continues his journey.

9th Poem English Question 5.
Answer:
Pick out words from the poem that bring to mind peace and quiet. Some words that bring to mind peace and quiet are: deep; easy wind; woods; snow; frozen lake; And miles to go before I sleep.

E. Identify the rhyme scheme used in each stanza. One example has been done for you.

Answers:
2. b b c a
3. c c d c
4. d d d d

F. Complete the table b identifying lines, against the poetic deices from the poem. One example is done for you.

Answers:

1. sound’s the sweep;
2. My little horse must think it queer To stop without a farmhouse near;
3. And miles to go before I sleep;
4. dark and beautiful

Writing:

G. Answer the following questions in a paragraph about 80-100 words.

(a) It is said that, “the choices made by one, shapes one’s destiny”. Ponder on the thought and write a paragraph.
Answer:
The choices made by one, shapes one’s destiny. This is the theme of the poem ‘Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening’ by Robert Frost. The biggest choice that he wrestles with is whether to return to the warmth and safety of the village or to stay and watch the woods fill up with snow. The poet finds it hard to decide. He ultimately decides to return home, but it seems to take all of his will power.

H. Work in pairs and discuss the factors that contribute towards making a choice and make a presentation to the class.
Answer:
Choices are tough and there can be many factors that contribute towards making a choice. Some choices can be based on emotion, while others can be well thought-of and taken with our mind and wisdom. Some choices can even be based on our instinct rather than logic. Say for example an opportunity is brought upon us and we have to make an instant choice. We might decide by just thinking what is right at that moment. But that choice could have the power of deciding the future course of our life. So we must think carefully before making our choices.

The following factors may contribute towards making a choice:

1. 1. Personal likes or dislikes
   2. Good or bad experiences of our past
   3. Social customs and beliefs
   4. Individual level of intellect and wisdom
   5. Differences in age and education
   6. Conscience and sincerity

Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening by Robert Lee Frost About The Poet:

Robert Lee Frost (1874 – 1968) was an American poet famous for his realistic depictions of rural life and his command of American colloquial speech. He frequently wrote about settings from rural life in New England in the early twentieth century, using them to examine complex social and philosophical themes. During his lifetime, he received four Pulitzer Prizes for Poetry and was awarded the Congressional Gold Medal in 1960 for his poetic works. Some of his famous works are The Road Not Taken, Fire and Ice, The Oven Bird, West Running Brook, Mending Wall, After Apple-Picking, etc.

Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening Summary:

The poet Robert Frost stopped by some woods on a snowy evening. He knew the owner of the woods and where he resided. He knew the owner lived in the village and so he won’t worry about the poet stopping there. He continued watching the natural beauty of the snow covered woods. The horse must have thought it as a strange act to stop there between the woods and the frozen lake in the dark evening. The horse was puzzled that there was no farmhouse nearby so the journey is not complete.

The horse was shaking its head, ringing the bell attached to its harness, as if he was asking his master whether there was any problem as it was unusual for him to stop by the woods in the darkness. Frost enjoyed the woods and wanted to stay there for a long time. But he had other responsibilities in life. He had to go a long way before he slept. So, he could not admire the lovely, dark and deep woods.

He had to move on. The last line of the poem is repeated to attract the attention of the readers. In the very last line lies the allegorical interpretation – sleep may refer to death. We in our real life have many things to look at with awe, many things to enjoy, but in most cases we cannot, simply because we have other things to do in our short lifespan. So we have to move on.

Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening Glossary:

Textual:
downy – soft and fluffy
flake – a small piece of snowflake
frozen – in ice form
harness – straps and fittings by which a horse is fastened to a cart or carriage
queer – strange, odd
sweep – to move swiftly and smoothly
woods – an area of land covered with a thick growth of trees.

Additional:
farmhouse – a house attached to a farm
lovely – beautiful
miles – a measurement equal to 1,760 yards
promise – a verbal commitment by one person to another agreeing to do (or not to do) something in the future
snow – soft hail