Category: Class 9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Chemical Bonding

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Chemical Bonding Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Chemical Bonding Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Number of valence electrons in carbon is …………….
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4

9th Science Chemical Bonding Question 2.
Sodium having atomic number 11, ready to ………….. electron/ electrons to attain the
nearest Noble gas electronic configuration.
(a) gain one
(b) gain two
(c) lose one
(d) lose two
Answer:
(c) lose one

Chemical Bonding 9th Class Question 3.
The element that would form anion by gaining electrons in a chemical reaction is …………………
(a) Potassium
(b) Calcium
(c) Fluorine
(d) Iron
Answer:
(c) Fluorine

Chemical Bonding Class 9 Question 4.
Bond formed between a metal and non metal atom is usually ……………..
(a) ionic bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) coordinate bond
Answer:
(a) ionic bond

Chapter 13 Chemical Bonding Question 5.
…………….. compounds have high melting and boiling points
(a) Covalent
(b) Coordinate
(c) Ionic
Answer:
(c) Ionic

Chemical Bonding Questions And Answers Class 9 Question 6.
Covalent bond is formed by …………………
Answer:
(a) transfer of electrons
(b) sharing of electrons
(c) sharing a pair of electrons
Answer:
(b) sharing of electrons

Chemical Bonding Class 9 Pdf Question 7.
Oxidising agents are also called as …………….. because they remove electrons from other
substances.
(a) electron donors
(b) electron acceptors
Answer:
(b) electron acceptors

Chemical Bonding Questions And Answers Pdf Class 9 Question 8.
Elements with stable electronic configurations have eight electrons in their valence shell.
They are ………………..
(a) halogens
(b) metals
(c) noble gases
(d) non metals
Answer:
(c) noble gases

II. Answer in brief.

Chemical Bonding Answer Key Question 1.
How do atoms attain Noble gas electronic configuration?
Answer:
Atoms of all elements, other than inert gases, combine to form molecules because they have incomplete valence shell and tend to attain a stable electronic configuration similar to noble gases. Atoms can combine either by transfer of valence electrons from one atom to another or by sharing of valence electrons in order to achieve the stable outer shell of eight electrons.

Chemical Bonding Notes Class 9 Question 2.
NaCl is insoluble in carbon tetrachloride but soluble in water. Give reason.
Answer:
NaCl is an ionic compound that is soluble in polar solvents like water and insoluble in non-polar solvents like benzene (C₆H₆), carbon tetra chloride (CCl₄). Whereas, CCl₄ is an organic compound, hence it is insoluble m water

Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Chemical Change And Chemical Bond Question Answer Question 3.
Explain Octet rule with an example.
Answer:
The tendency of atoms to have eight electrons in the valence shell is known as the ‘Octet rule’ or the ‘Rule of eight’.
Example: Sodium with atomic number 11 will readily loose one electron to attain Neon’s stable electronic configuration.

Chemical Bond Class 9 Question 4.
Write a note on different types of bonds.
Answer:
All the elements differ with each other in their valence shell electronic configuration. So the way in which they combine to form compounds also differs. Hence, there are different types of chemical bonding possible between atoms which make the molecules. Depending on the type of bond they show different characteristics or properties. Such types of bonding that are considered to exist in molecules are categorized as the Ionic bond, Covalent bond and Coordinate bond.

Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Question Answer Question 5.
Correct the wrong statements.

1. Ionic compounds dissolve in non-polar solvents
2. Covalent compounds conduct electricity in molten or solution state

Answer:

1. Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvents like water. They are insoluble in non-polar solvents like benzene (C₆H₆), carbon tetra chloride (CCl₄).
2. Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten or solution state.Covalent compounds are non-conductors of electricity.

Class 9 Chemical Bonding Question 6.
Complete the table given below.

Element	Atomic number	Electron distribution	Valence electrons	Lewis dot structure
Lithium	3
Boron	5
Oxygen	8

Answer:

Question 7.
Draw the electron distribution diagram for the formation of Carbon dioxide (CO₂) molecule
Answer:

Question 8.
Fill in the following table according to the type of bonds formed in the given molecule CaCl₂, H₂O, CaO, CO, KBr, HCl, CCl₄, HF, C0₂, Al₂Cl₆
Answer:

Ionic bond	Covalent bond	Coordinate covalent bond
CaO	H2O, HF	CO
CaCl2	CO2
KBr	CCl4, Al2Cl6

Question 9.
Choose the correct answer from the choices given below.
The property which is characteristics of an Ionic compound is that

1. it often exists as gas at room temperature
2. it is hard and brittle
3. it undergoes molecular reactions
4. it has low melting point
5. it is hard and brittle

Answer:
2. it is hard and brittle

Question 10.
Identify the following reactions as oxidation or reduction

1. Na ➝ Na+ + e^–
2. Fe³⁺ + 2 e^– ➝ Fe⁺

Answer:
1. It is an Oxidation reaction.
Oxidation: A chemical reaction which involves addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen or loss of electrons is called oxidation.

2. It is a Reduction reaction.
Reduction: A chemical reaction which involves addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen or gain of electrons is called reduction.

Question 11.
Identify the compounds as Ionic/Covalent/Coordinate based on the given characteristics.

1. Soluble in non-polar solvents
2. undergoes faster/instantaneous reactions
3. Non-conductors of electricity
4. Solids at room temperature

Answer:

1. Covalent compounds
2. Ionic compounds
3. Covalent compounds
4. Ionic compounds

Question 12.
An atom X with atomic number 20 combines with atom Y with atomic number 8. Draw the dot structure for the formation of the molecule XY.
Answer:
Atom X is Calcium with atomic number 20 and atom Y is Oxygen with atomic number 8.

Question 13.
Considering MgCl₂ as ionic compound and CH₄ as covalent compound give any two differences between these two compounds.
Answer:

MgCl2	CH4
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids at room temperature	It occurs in gaseous state
It has high melting and boiling point	Have relatively low melting point
Soluble in polar solvents and insoluble in non-polar solvent	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents

Question 14.
Why are Noble gases inert in nature?
Answer:
Noble gases are inert in nature due to the completely filled subshells and thus have stable electronic structures which is very difficult to change. The elements Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Xenon and Radon of group 18 in the periodic table are Noble gases.

III. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
List down the differences between Ionic and Covalent compounds.
Answer:

Ionic Compound	Covalent Compound
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids at room temperature	It occurs in gaseous state
They are poor conductors of electricity in solid state. However, in molten state and their aqueous solutions conduct electricity.	They are bad conductors of electricity
It has high melting and boiling point	Have relatively low melting point
Soluble in polar solvents and insoluble in non-polar solvent	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents
They have high density and they are quite hard because of the strong electrostatic force between the ions. But they are highly brittle	They are neither hard nor brittle. But they are soft and waxy
Undergoes ionic reactions which are practically rapid and instantaneous	Undergo molecular reactions in solutions and these reactions are slow

Question 2.
Give an example for each of the following statements.
a. a compound in which two Covalent bonds are formed
b. a compound in which one ionic bond is formed
c. a compound in which two Covalent and one Coordinate bonds are formed
d. a compound in which three covalent bonds are formed
e. a compound in which Coordinate bond is formed
Answer:
a. Formation of oxygen molecule (O₂)
Each oxygen atom has six valence electrons (2, 6). These two atoms achieve a stable electronic configuration (octet) by sharing two pair of electrons. Hence a double bond is formed in between the two atoms.

b. Formation of Magnesium Chloride (MgCl₂)
Magnesium Chloride (MgCl₂) is an ionic compound formed when the magnesium ion loses two electrons to gain the noble state which is accepted by chloride ion.

c. Formation of coordinate covalent bond between NH₃ ➝ BF₃ molecules
Answer:
NH₃ ➝ BF₃ is a compound formed by coordinate covalent bonding. Here one pair of electrons from ammonia molecule is shared with electron deficit boron trifluoride. This type of bonding is also known as Dative bond.

d. Formation of nitrogen molecule (N₂)
Nitrogen molecule (N₂) is formed by three covalent bonds where three pairs of electrons are shared between the two to achieve a stable configuration.

e. Formation of coordinate covalent bond in ammonium ion (NH₄₊)
In ammonia molecule the central nitrogen atom has five valence electrons (2,5) among which three electrons are shared with three hydrogen atoms and still it has an unshared lone pair of electrons. This lone pair electrons are donated to a Hydrogen ion and thus a N ➝ H coordinate covalent bond is formed in ammonium ion molecule (NH₄₊).

Question 3.
Identify the incorrect statement and correct them.

1. Like covalent compounds, Coordinate compounds also contain charged particles (ions), so they are good conductors of electricity
2. Ionic bond is a weak bond when compared to Hydrogen bond.
3. Ionic or electrovalent bonds are formed by mutual sharing of electrons between atoms.
4. Loss of electrons is called Oxidation and Gain of electron is called Reduction.
5. The electrons which are not involved in bonding are called valence electrons.

Answer:

1. Like covalent compounds, coordinate compounds also do not contain charged particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity
2. An ionic bond is formed by the electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions. Hence it is stronger than Hydrogen bonding which is formed by electronegativity.
3. The ionic bond is formed between two atoms when one or more electrons are transferred from the valence shell of one atom to the valence shell of the other atom. The atom that loses electrons will form a cation (positive ion) and the atom that gains electrons will form an anion (negative ion).
4. Loss of electrons is called Oxidation and Gain of electron is called Reduction.
5. The electrons which are involved in bonding are called valence electrons.

Question 4.
Discuss in brief about the properties of Coordinate covalent compounds.
Answer:
The compounds containing coordinate covalent bonds are called coordinate covalent compounds.

1. Physical state – These compounds exist as gases, liquids or solids.
2. Electrical conductivity – Like covalent compounds, coordinate compounds also do not contain charged particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity.
3. Melting point – These compounds have melting and boiling points higher than those of purely covalent compounds but lower than those of purely Ionic compounds.
4. Solubility – Insoluble in polar solvents like water but are soluble in non-polar solvents like benzene, CCl₄, and toluene.
5. Reactions – Coordinate covalent compounds undergo molecular reactions which are
   slow.

Question 5.
Find the oxidation number of the elements in the following compounds,

1. C in CO₂
2. Mn in MnSO₄
3. N in HNO₃

Answer:

1. Oxidation number of C in CO₂ is +4
2. Oxidation number of Mn in MnSO₄ is +2
3. Oxidation number of N in HNO₃ is +5

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Chemical Bonding In Text Problems

Question 1.
Find the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄
Solution:
+ 7.
Since manganese atom is attached to four oxygen atoms through three double bonds and one single bond.

Question 2.
Find the oxidation number of Cr in Na₂Cr₂O₇.
Solution:
+ 6.

Question 3.
Find the oxidation number of Cu in CuS04.
Solution:
+ 2

Question 4.
Find the oxidation number of Fe in FeO.
Solution:
+ 2

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Chemical Bonding Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
What is an ionic or electrovalent bond?
Answer:
The oppositely charged ions are held together by electrostatic force of attraction which is called Ionic or Electrovalent bond.

Question 2.
What is electrovalency?
Answer:
The number of electrons that an atom of an element loses or gains to form an electrovalent bond is called electrovalency.

Question 3.
Write a short note on oxidizing and reducing agents.

1. Substances that have the ability to oxidize other substances are called oxidizing agents. These are also known as electron acceptors as they remove electrons from other substances. Example H202, Mn04, Cr03, Cr20?
2. The substances that have the ability to reduce other substances are called reducing agents. These are also called as electron donors as they donate electrons to other substances. Example – NaBEl₄, LiAlH₂ and metals like palladium and platinum

Question 4.
What is a redox reaction?
Answer:
Generally, the oxidation and reduction occurs in the same reaction (simultaneously). If one reactant gets oxidised, the other gets reduced. Such reactions are called oxidation-reduction ‘ reactions or Redox reactions.
Ex: 2 PbO + C ➝ 2Pb + C0₂

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Mention some oxidation reactions that occur in daily life.
Answer:
In nature the oxygen present in atmospheric air oxidises many things, starting from metals to living tissues.

• The shining surface of metals tarnishes due to the formation of respective metal oxides on their surfaces. This is called corrosion.
• The freshly cut surfaces of vegetables and fruits turns brown after some time because of the oxidation of organic compounds present in them.
• The oxidation reaction in food materials that were left open for a long period is responsible for spoiling of food. This is called Rancidity.

Question 2.
What is Fajan’s rule? Discuss.
Answer:
As we know, a metal combine with a nonmetal through ionic bond. The compounds so formed are called ionic compounds. A compound is said to be ionic when the charge of the cation and anion are completely separated. But in 1923, Kazimierz Fajans found, through his X-Ray Crystallographic studies, that some of the ionic compounds show covalent character. Based on this, he formulated a set rules to predict whether a chemical bond is ionic or covalent. Fajan’s rules are formulated by considering the charge of the cation and the relative size of the cation and anion.

• When the size of the cation is small and that of anion is large, the bond is of more covalent character.
• Greater the charge of the cation, greater will be the covalent character.

Question 3.
What are the differences between ionic, covalent and coordinate covalent bond?
Answer:

Ionic Compound	Covalent Compound	Coordinate covalent bond
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids at room temperature	It occurs in gaseous state	It can exist as gases, liquids or solids
They are poor conductors of electricity in solid state. However, in molten state and their aqueous solutions conduct electricity.	They are bad conductors of electricity	Coordinate compounds also do not contain charged particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity
It has high melting and boiling point	Have relatively low melting point	Have melting and boiling points higher than that of purely covalent compounds but lower than those of purely Ionic compounds
Soluble in polar solvents and insoluble in non-polar solvent	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents
They have high density and they are quite hard because of the strong electrostatic force between the ions. But they are highly brittle	They are neither hard nor brittle. But they are soft and waxy
Undergoes ionic reactions which are practically rapid and instantaneous	Undergo molecular reactions in solutions and these reactions are slow	Undergoes slow molecular reactions which are slow.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 3 Early Tamil Society and Culture

Early Tamil Society and Culture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Early Tamil Society And Culture Question 1.
The name of the script used in the Sangam Age ………….
(a) English
(b) Devanagari
(c) Tamil-Brahmi
(d) Granta
Answer:
(c) Tamil-Brahmi

Early Tamil Society And Culture Class 9 Question 2.
The Sri Lankan chronicle composed in the Pali language mentioning about merchants and horse traders from Tamil Nadu
(a) Deepa vamsa
(b) Arthasastra
(c) Mahavamsa
(d) Indica
Answer:
(c) Mahavamsa

Early Tamil Society And Culture Book Back Answers Question 3.
The notable Chola king credited with bringing forest lands under the plough and developing irrigational facilities.
(a) Karikalan
(b) Rajarajari I
(c) Kulothungan
(d) Rajendran I
Answer:
(a) Karikalan

Early Tamil Society And Culture Pdf Question 4.
Inscription that mentions the Cheras …………..
(a) Pugalur
(b) Gimar
(c) Pulimankombai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Pugalur

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 5.
The famous Venetian traveller who described Kayal as a great and noble city.
(a) Vasco da gama
(b) Alberuni
(c) Marco Polo
(d) Megasthenes
Answer:
(c) Marco Polo

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 6.
(i) Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age.
(ii) Prakrit was the language used by the common people in Northern India during the Mauryan period.
(iii) Vienna Papyrus, a Roman document, mentions trade related to Muziri.
(iv) The concept of Thinai is presented in the Tamil grammar work of Pathupaattu.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i) is correct
(ii) is correct
(iii) is correct
(iv) incorrect

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Solutions Question 7.
(i) Pathitrupathu speaks about the Pandya kings and their territory.
(ii) The Akanaanuru describes the trading activities at Kaveripoompattinum.
(iii) The Chola Emblem was the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of a tiger.
(iv) Neythal is a sandy desert region.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i) incorrect
(ii) incorrect
(iii) is correct
(iv) incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. are documents scripted on stones, copper plates, coins and rings.
2. ………….. refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring societies of the past.
3. ……………. the classic work on economy and statecraft authored by Kautilya during the Mauryan period.
4. …………… is a poetic theme which means a class or category and refers to a habitat or ecozone with specific physiographical characteristics.
5. ………….referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Romans and West Asian people.
Answers:
1. Epigraphy
2. Archeological excavations
3. Arthasastra
4. Sangam poems
5. Yavanar

III. Find out the correct statement.

9th Social Early Tamil Society And Culture Question 1.
(a) Evidence of iron smelting has been found in Kodumanal and Guttur.
(b) Periplus of Erythren Sea mentions about the pepper trade with India.
(c) Punch marked coins are the earliest coins used in India mostly made of gold.
(d) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

Question 2.
(a) The Cheras ruled over Kaveri delta and their capital was Uraiyur.
(b) The Maangulam Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions mention the King Karikalan.
(c) The terms Vanikan and Nigama appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions were different types of merchants.
(d) Salt merchants were called Vanikars and they travelled in bullock carts along with their family.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

V. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Archaeological sites provide evidence of past history – Discuss.
Answer:

• Archaeological sites have mounds which are an accumulation of soil, pottery, building and organic remains and objects.
• Archaeological excavation refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring and interpreting societies of the past.

Question 2.
How important are coins as a source of evidence for the study of Sangam Age?
Answer:

• Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age.
• The coins of.the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas, punch-marked coins, and Roman coins form another important source of evidence from the Sangam Age.
• They were used as bullion for their metal value and as ornaments.

Question 3.
The Tamil rulers were independent of Mauryan authority. What explanation would you offer.
Answer:

1. The Tamil rulers were independent of Mauryan authority because Ashokan inscriptions found in present day Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are not seen in Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
2. So we can conclude the status of Tamil rulers.

Question 4.
Agriculture was one of the main sources of subsistence in Sangam Age. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Crops like paddy, sugarcane, millets were cultivated. Both wet and dry land farming were practiced.
2. In the riverine and tank irrigated areas paddy was cultivated.
3. Millets were cultivated in the dry lands.
   So Agriculture was one of the main sources of subsistence in Sangam Age.

Question 5.
Overseas interactions brought glory to ancient Tamilagam. Give examples in support.
Answer:

• Tamil country had connections with countries overseas both in the east and west.
• Roman ships used monsoon winds to cross the Western Sea or the Arabian Sea to connect Tamilagam with the Western world.
• Spices including pepper, ivory, and precious stones were exported. Metal including gold, silver and copper and precious stones were imported.
• Yavanar referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Romans and West Asian people. Yavana derives from the Greek region of Ionia.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Hero Stones:
(a) What was the common practice in a pastoral society?
Answer:
As cattle were considered an important source of wealth, raiding cattle owned by adjoining tribes and clans was common practice in a pastoral society.

(b) Who plundered the cattle wealth of enemies?
Answer:
Tribal chieftains plundered the cattle wealth of enemies whose warriors fought to protect their cattle.

(c) How were the dead warriors remembered?
Answer:

1. Many warriors died in such battles and were remembered as martyrs.
2. Memorial stones were erected in their honour.

(d) Which Tamil text describes the procedures for erecting hero stones?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam describes the procedures for erecting hero stones.

Question 2.
Non-Tamil Sources (Foreign Accounts):
(a) What does the presence of the non-Tamil sources reveal?
Answer:
The presence of the non-Tamil sources reveals the extensive contacts and interactions of the early Tamil society with the outside world.

(b) Name the classic work of the Mauryan period that makes a mention that the pearl and shells came from Pandya country.
Answer:
Arthasastra the classic work of the Mauryan period makes a mention that the pearl and shells came from the Pandya country.

(c) What is a chronicle?
Answer:
Chronicle is a narrative text presenting the important historical events in chronological order.

(d) Who speaks about the pepper trade between Roman empire and India?
Answer:
Pliny speaks about the pepper trade with India and he states that it took 40 days to reach India.

Question 3.
Industries and Crafts of the Sangam Age:
(a) What were the important aspects of urbanisation?
Answer:
Craft production and craft specialization were important aspects of urbanisation.

(b) What is the Tamil name for a potter?
Answer:
“Kuyavar” is the Tamil name for potter.

(c) What were the different types of pottery used by the peopla?
Answer:
Black ware, russet-coated painted ware, black and red ware potteries were the different types of pottery used.

(d) Identify the Iron implements required for agriculture and warfare.
Answer:
Swords, daggers and spears were the iron implements required for agriculture and warfare.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
To what extent do you think the political powers of Tamilagam influenced Sangam Age polity?
Answer:

• Sangam Age has its roots in the Iron Age.
• In the Iron Age people were organised into chiefdoms.
• From such communities of Iron-Age emerged the Vendhars of the early historic period and the Velirs of the Sangam Age were chieftains.
• Tamil rulers were independent of the Mauryan authority.
• Among the political powers of the Sangam Age, the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas occupied pre-eminent positions. They were known as Muvendhar (the three kings).
• The Muvendhar controlled the major towns and ports of the Sangam period.
• The Cheras controlled the region of present-day Kerala and also the Western parts of TamilNadu.
• Vanci was the capital, Muciri and Thondi were their Port towns.
• The Cholas ruled over the Kaveri delta and Northern parts of TamilNadu. Uraiyur was their capital, Kaveripoompattinam was the Port town.
• The Pandyas who ruled the Southern part of TamilNadu are referred to the Ashokan inscriptions.
  Madurai was the capital.
  Apart from the Vendhars, there were Velirs and numerous chieftains who occupied territories on the margins of the muvendhar.
• The Sangam Age society was a society in transition from a tribal community ruled by a chief to a larger kingdom ruled by a king.
  Social stratification had begun to take root in Tamil society by the Sangam times.
  Thus the political powers of Tamilagam influenced Sangam society.

Question 2.
Indicate how the industries and crafts of the Sangam Age contribute to their economy.
Answer:
Craft production and craft specialization were important aspects of urbanization.

• In the Sangam Age there were professional groups that produced various commodities.
  The system of production of commodities is called industry.
• Pottery was practised in many settlements.
• Iron manufacturing was an important artisanal activity. Iron implements were required for agriculture and Warfare.
• The Sangam Age people had the knowledge of Stone ornaments, Gold jewellery, Glass beads, etc.
• The Pamban coast is famous for pearl fishery. Sangam literature describes women wearing shell bangles.
• Textile production was another important occupation. Periplus mentions the fine variety of textiles produced in the Tamil region.
• Trade and exchange was important for people to have access to different commodities. Specialised groups called Vanikars travelled in groups trading goods and commodities between regions.
• Akanaanuru poem 149 describes the trading at the port of Muciri as follows: “the well crafted ships of the Yavana came with gold returned with pepper at the wealthy port of Muciri”
• Barter was the primary mode of exchange. For instance, rice was exchanged for fish.
• Salt was precious and a handful of it would fetch an equal amount of rice.
  Thus the industries and crafts of Sangam Age contributed to their economy.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark on the map of south India, the ancient Tamilagam and the territories of Tamil kingdoms.
Answer:
You can take guidance from your teacher and reference from the internet to mark the ancient Tamilagam and the territories of Tamil Kingdoms on the map of South India.

Question 2.
Visit a museum and collect information about inscriptions, coins and instruments used by the ancient people.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a visit to the museum for the students. The students can collect information about inscriptions, coins, and instruments used by the ancient people.

Question 3.
Visit the early historic sites of Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, Keezhadi etc.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a visit to the early historic sites of Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, Keezhadi, etc.

Question 4.
Conduct a study on materials excavated from prehistoric sites and on Tamil-Brahmi script.
Answer:
You can do this activity with the help of your teacher.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance
1. A power-point presentation on the origin of human life.
Refer the Books, Internet to collect the points.

Early Tamil Society and Culture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The earliest written work on Tamil Grammar is ………………..
(a) Thirukural
(b) Tholkappiam
(c) Pathinen Melkanakku
(d) Pathinen Kilkanakku
Answer:
(b) Tholkappiam

Question 2.
This is an Epic …………..
(a) Silappathikaaram
(b) Pattinapallai
(c) Mullai pathu
(d) Madurai Kanchi
Answer:
(a) Silappathikaaram

Question 3.
During the Sangam Age …………… landscape followed the pastoral way of life.
(a) Marutham
(b) Neithal
(c) Mullai
(d) Palai
Answer:
(c) Mullai

Question 4.
……………… is an ornament made in precious stone where images are carved on the surface.
(a) Cameo
(b) Intagliol
(c) Chronicle
(d) Papyrus
Answer:
(a) Cameo

Question 5.
The roots of the Sangam Age is in ……………
(a) Bronze Age
(b) Mesolithic Age
(c) Iron Age
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Iron Age

Question 6.
(i) Bullion means precious metal available in the form of ingots, (correct)
(ii) Punch-marked coins are the earliest coins used in India, (correct)
(iii) Non-Tamil literary sources also offer information on early Tamil society, (correct)
(iv) Millets were cultivated in the wet lands, (incorrect)
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct

Question 7.
(i) Barter was the primary mode of exchange.
(ii) Spices including pepper and precious stones were exported.
(iii) The Sangam Age saw the first urbanization in Tamilagam.
(iv) People in the Sangam Age had no faith in religion.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) is correct (ii) incorrect
(c) (i) is correct (iv) incorrect
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) correct (iv) incorrect
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) correct (iv) incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. collection includes ten long songs.
2. Act of destruction of heritage property (or) property belonging to others are called ……………..
3. …………… is the study of the past by interpretation of the material cultural remains.
4. ………….. Geography is a gazetteer and atlas of Roman times.
5. ………… table is an illustrated map of the Roman Roads.
6. A paper produced out of the papyrus plant used extensively for writing purposes in ancient …………..
7. The Silappathikaram speaks about ………………. who built a temple for Kannagi.
8. ………….. is a long poem about Kaveripoompattinam.
9. The Pamban coast is famous for ……………..
10. Spices including …………. …………. and ………. were exported.
Answers:
1. Pathupattu
2. Vandalism
3. Archaeology
4. Ptolemy’s
5. Pentingerian
6. Egypt
7. Gheran Senguttuvan
8. Pattinappalai
9. Pearl fishery
10. pepper, ivory, precious stones

III. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss about the Tamil Traders and Sailors.
Answer:
As seafaring people, Tamil traders and sailors established commercial and cultural links across the seas and merchants from foreign territories also visited the Tamil region.

Question 2.
What does the third section of the Tholkappiyam describe?
Answer:
The third section of Tholkappiyam describes poetic conventions that provide information on Tamil social life.

Question 3.
What does the development of Script mark?
Answer:

1. The development of script marks the beginning of the historical period.
2. The period before the use of written script is called prehistoric period.

Question 4.
What do you know about the Hero stones of the Post-Sangam Age?
Answer:

1. Hero stones of the Post-Sangam Age and the Pallava period occur in large numbers in pastoral regions especially around the Chengam region near Thiruvannamalai district.
2. These hero stones have inscriptions and the images of warriors and names of heroes.

Question 5.
What does Erythrean sea refer to?
Answer:

1. Erythrean sea refers to the waters around the red sea.
2. It makes references to the Sangam Age, Ports of Muciri, Thondi, Korkai and Kumari as well as the Gheras and the Pandyas.

Question 6.
What is Ptolemy’s Geography?
Answer:
Ptolemy’s Geography is a Gazetteer and atlas of Roman times providing geographical details of the Roman Empire in the Second Century CE.

Question 7.
What do you know about Muvendhar?
Answer:
Among the political powers of the Sangam Age, the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas occupied pre-eminent positions. They were known as Muvendhar (the three kings). The muvendhar controlled the major towns and ports of the Sangam period.

Question 8.
What is the Urban centre?
Answer:
A planned town with brick architecture and a proper layout. Urban centres have a larger population involved in non-agrarian, commercial and political occuptations. Various industrial activities are seen in these towns.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.
Question 1.
Tholkappiam.
(i) What is the earliest written work on Tamil grammar?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam.

(ii) To whom did it attribute?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam attributed to Tholkappiyar.

(iii) What does the third section of Tholkappiam describe?
Answer:
The third section describes the poetic conventions that provide information on Tamil social life.

(iv) Mention the oldest among the Tamil Texts.
Answer:
Pathupattu and Ettuthogai.

Question 2.
Pearl fishery and shell bangle.
(i) Which place is famous for pearl fishery?
Answer:
The Parpban coast is famous for pearl fishery.

(ii) What were very common in the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Shell bangles were very common in the Sangam Age.

(iii) Who collected conch shells from the Pamban Island?
Answer:
The Parathavers collected conch shells from the Pamban Island.

(iv) What does Sangam literature describe?
Answer:
Sangam literature describes women wearing shell bangles.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the “Archaeological sites”.
Answer:
(i) Archaeological excavation refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring and interpreting societies of the past.

(ii) Archaeological excavations at the early historic sites are the source of evidence of the activities of the Sangam Age people.

(iii) Excavations at Arikkamedu, Azhagankulam, Uraiyur, Kanchipuram, Kaveripoom pattinam, Korkai, Vasavasamudram, Keezhadi, Kodumanal in Tamil Nadu, and Pattanam in Kerala provide the evidence we have of this period.

(iv) Arikkamedu, near Puducherry, is a Sangam Age port, excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). British archaeologist, Robert Eric Mortimer Wheeler, French Archaeologist, J.M. Casal, and Indian archaeologists, A. Ghosh and Krishna Deva, excavated this site. They found evidence of a planned town, warehouse, streets, tanks and ring wells.

Question 2.
Give an account of “Emergence of towns and ports”.
Answer:

1. The Sangam Age saw the first urbanization in Tamilagam.
2. Cities developed and they had brick buildings, roof tiles, ring wells and planned towns, streets, and store houses.
3. The towns worked as ports and artisanal centres. Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, , Azhagankulam and Korkai on the east coast and Pattanam in Kerala were port centres. Kanchipuram, Uraiyur, Karur, Madurai and Kodumanal were inland trade centres.
4. Many goods and commodities were produced in these centres and were exported to various regions.
5. Though few in number, large towns appeared in the Sangam Age.
6. Small villages however were found in many areas. Bronze vessels, beads, shell bangles, glass beads, pottery with names of people written in Tamil-Brahmi script were found at these sites.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.1

9th Maths Algebra Exercise 3.1 Question 1.
Which of the following expressions are polynomials. If not give reason:
(i) \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) + 3x – 4
(ii) x² (x – 1)
(iii) \(\frac{1}{x}\) (x + 5)
(iv) \(\frac{1}{x^{-2}}+\frac{1}{x^{-1}}\) + 7
(v) \(\sqrt{5} x^{2}+\sqrt{3} x+\sqrt{2}\)
(vi) \(m^{2}-\sqrt[3]{m}+7 m-10\)
Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 Question 2.
Write the coefficient of x² and x in each of the following polynomials,
(i) 4 + \(\frac{2}{5} x^{2}\) – 3x
(ii) 6 – 2x² + 3x³ – \(\sqrt{7} x\)
(iii) πx² – x + 2
(iv) \(\sqrt{3} x^{2}+\sqrt{2} x\) + 0.5
(v) x² – \(\frac{7}{2} x\) + 8
Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 Solutions Question 3.
Find the degree of the following polynomials.

Solution:

9th Maths 3.1 Question 4.
Rewrite the following polynomial in standard form.

Solution:

9th Maths Algebra Exercise 3.1 Solutions Question 5.
Add the following polynomials and find the degree of the resultant polynomial.
(i) p(x) = 6x² – 7x+ 2 q(x) = 6x³ – 7x + 15
(ii) h(x) = 7x³ – 6x + 1 f(x) = 7x² + 17x – 9
(iii) f(x) = 16x⁴ – 5x² + 9 g(x) = -6x³ + 7x – 15
Solution:

9th Maths Algebra Question 6.
Subtract the second polynomial from the first polynomial and find the degree of the resultant polynomial.
(i) p(x) = 7x² + 6x – 1 q(x) = 6x – 9
(ii) f(y) = 6y² – 7y + 2 g(y) = 7y + y³
(iii) h(z) = z⁵ – 6z⁴ + z f(z) = 6z² + 10z – 7
Solution:

9th Standard Maths Exercise 3.1 Question 7.
What should be added to 2x³ + 6x² – 5x + 8 to get 3x³ – 2x² + 6x + 15?
Solution:
(2x³ + 6x² – 5x + 8) + Q(x) = 3x³ – 2x² + 6x + 15
∴ Q(x) = (3x³ – 2x² + 6x + 15) – (2x³ + 6x² – 5x + 8)

The required polynomial is x³ – 8x² + 11x + 7

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
What must be subtracted from 2x²⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7 to get 3x³ – x² + 2x + 1 ?
Solution:
(2x⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7) – Q(x) = 3x³ – x² + 2x + 1
Q(x) = (2x⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7) – 3x³ – x² + 2x + 1
The required polynomial = 2x⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7 – 3x³ + x² – 2x – 1
= 2x⁴ – 3x³ + 5x² – 5x + 6

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 3 Question 9.
Multiply the following polynomials and find the degree of the resultant polynomial:
(i) p(x) = x² – 9 q(x) = 6x² + 7x – 2
(ii) f(x) = 7x + 2 g(x) = 15x – 9
(iii) h(x) = 6x² – 7x + 1 f(x) = 5x – 7
Solution:
(i) p(x) = x² – 9 q(x) = 6x² + 7x – 2
p(x) × q(x) = (x² – 9) (6x² + 7x – 2)

The required polynomial is 6x⁴ + 7x³ – 56x² – 63x + 18, degree 4.

(ii) f(x) = 7x + 2 g(x) = 15x – 9
f(x) × g(x) = (7x + 2) (15x – 9)

The required polynomial is 105x² – 33x – 18, degree 2.

(iii) h(x) = 6x² – 7x + 1 f(x) = 5x – 7
h(x) × f(x) = (6x² – 7x + 1) (5x – 7)

The required polynomial is 30x³ – 77x² + 54x – 7, degree 3.

Class 9 Maths Exercise 3.1 Solutions Question 10.
The cost of chocolate is Rs. (x + y) and Amir bought (x + y) chocolates. Find the total amount paid by him in terms of x andy. If x = 10, y = 5 find the amount paid by him.
Solution:
Amount paid = Number of chocolates × Cost of a chocolate
= (x + y) (x + y) = (x + y)² = x² + 2xy + y²
If x = 10, y = 5
The total amount paid by him
= 10² + 2 × 10 × 5 + 5² = 100 + 100 + 25 = Rs. 225

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Maths Question 11.
The length of a rectangle is (3x + 2) units and it’s breadth is (3x – 2) units. Find its area in terms of x. What will be the area if x = 20 units.
Solution:
Area of a rectangle = length × breadth
= (3x + 2) × (3x – 2) = (3x)² – 2² = [9x² – 4] Sq. units
If x = 20, Area = 9 × 20² – 4 = 9 × 400 – 4
= 3600 – 4 = 3596 Sq. units

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 In Tamil Question 12.
p(x) is a polynomial of degree 1 and q(x) is a polynomial of degree 2. What kind of the polynomial p(x) × q(x) is ?
Solution:
p(x) is a polynomial of degree 1. q(x) is a polynomial of degree 2.
Then the p(x) × q(x) will be the polynomial of degree (1 + 2) = 3 (or)
Cubic polynomial

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Atmosphere

Atmosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the Best Answer.

9th Class Social Atmosphere Lesson Question 1.
…………… is the most important gas for the survival of living
(a) Helium
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) oxygen
(d) methane
Answer:
(c) oxygen

Atmosphere 9th Class Lesson Question 2.
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is ……………
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Mesosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

Atmosphere Lesson For 9th Class Question 3.
…………. reflects radio waves.
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(c) Mesosphere

Define Atmosphere Class 9 Question 4.
The average global surface temperature is …………….
(a) 12°c
(b) 13°c
(c) 14°c
(d) 15°c
Answer:
(b) 13°c

Chapter 3 Atmosphere Question 5.
The process of change of state of water from gaseous to liquid state is called ……………..
(a) Precipitation
(b) evaporation
(c) transpiration
(d) condensation
Answer:
(d) condensation

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Question 6.
The …………… is the chief energy source of the Earth.
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Stars
(d) clouds
Answer:
(a) Sun

9th Social Guide Geography Question 7.
All types of clouds are found in the ……………….
(a) Troposphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere.
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

9th Class Social 4th Lesson Atmosphere Question 8.
…………….. clouds are called ‘Sheep clouds’.
(a) Alto-cumulus
(b) Alto-Stratus
(c) Nimbo-stratus
(d) Cirro-cumulus
Answer:
(a) Alto-cumulus

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 9.
The Monsoons are ……………
(a) Prevailing winds
(b) Periodic winds
(c) local winds
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Periodic winds

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 10.
Dew in the form of ice crystals is called ………….
(a) frost
(b) fog
(c) mist
(d) sleet
Answer:
(d) sleet

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Geography Book Question 11.
………………. is called the eye of the storm.
(a) Pressure
(b) wind
(c) cyclones
(d) snow
Answer:
(c) cyclones

9th Social Geography Question 12.
The vertical movement of air is called ……………
(a) Wind
(b) storm
(c) Air current
(d) drift
Answer:
(c) Air current

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (g)
7. (f)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Social Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 1.
Define the atmosphere.
Answer:
The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 2.
Name the different atmospheric layers.
Answer:
The different atmospheric layers are Troposphere* Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Question 3.
Mention the factors that affect the climate.
Answer:
The factors that affect the climate are

• Distance from the equator
• Altitude
• Nearness to the sea
• Nature of the prevailing winds
• Mountain barrier
• Cloud cover
• Ocean currents
• Natural vegetation

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 4.
What is insulation?
Answer:
The amount of heat received from the sun in the form of short waves is called insulation (or) incoming Solar Radiation.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 9th Std Question 5.
What are isotherms?
Answer:

• Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on maps, connecting points that have equal temperatures. .
• Temperature varies from place to place, season to season and continent to continent.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Books Social Science Question 6.
Write short note on ‘Lapse rate’.
Answer:

• Altitude refers to the height above sea level.
• The temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C far every 165 mts of height. This is called “Normal Lapse rate”.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Social Question 7.
What are the processes responsible for heating the atmosphere?
Answer:
The processes responsible for heating the atmosphere are Radiation, Conduction, Convection and Advection.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 8.
Mention the planetary wind system of the earth.
Answer:
The winds which constantly blow in the same direction throughout the year are called the planetary winds. They are also called as permanent winds (or) the prevailing winds.

Question 9.
Write short note on:
(a) Trade winds (b) Roaring Forties
Answer:
(a) Trade winds:

1. Trade winds blow from the subtropical high pressure belt to the Equatorial low pressure belt in both the hemispheres.
2. They blow with great regularity, force and in a constant direction throughout the year. They are very helpful to the traders.

(b) Roaring forties:

1. Westerlies are the permanent winds.
2. They blow from South West to North East in the Northern hemisphere and North West to South East in the Southern hemisphere.
3. The velocity of westerlies become so vigourous and fast to be called Roaring forties at 40°.

Question 10.
How are clouds formed?
Answer:

1. Large amount of water evaporates each day from the surface of the Sea.
2. This is the principal source of atmospheric moisture.
3. Cool moisture laden air, gets collected around particles like dust, salt content from the sea, smoke, etc, and forms clouds.
4. Sometimes mixing warmer and cooler air also produces clouds.

Question 11.
What are the different types of rainfall?
Answer:
Based on the mechanisms of raising the air, there are three types of rainfall.

1. Convectional rainfall
2. Frontal (or) cyclonic rainfall
3. Orographic rainfall

Question 12.
What is Precipitation? What are the different forms of precipitation?
Answer:

1. Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation.
2. The main forms of precipitation are Drizzle, rain, sleet, snow, hail, etc.

Question 13.
Write short notes on:
a. Drizzle b. rain c. sleet d. snow e. heat
Answer:
a. Drizzle:

1. Falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with diameter of less than 0.5 is called a drizzle mm from low clouds.
2. Sometimes drizzles are combined with fog and hence reduce visibility.

b. Rain:

1. Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperatures above the freezing point.
2. It occurs only when there is abundant moisture in the air. The diameter of a rain drop is more than 5 mm.

c. Sleet:

1. Sleet refers to precipitation in the form of pellets made up of transparent and translucent ice.
2. This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.

d. Snow:

1. Snow is formed when condensation occurs below freezing point.
2. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi opaque ice crystals.
3. When these ice crystals collide and stick together, it becomes snowflakes. ‘

e. Heat:

1. Is the energy which makes objects hot, while temperature measures the intensity of heat.

Question 14.
How are Cyclones classified?
Answer:
Cyclones Can be classified into

1. Tropical cyclones
2. Temperate cyclones
3. Extra Tropical cyclones.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Weather and climate.
Answer:

S.No.	Weather	Climate
(i)	Weather is the study of atmospheric conditions for short duration over small areas.	It is the study of the average weather condition observed over a long period of time for a larger area.
(ii)	The weather changes very often; hour to hour and day to day.	Climate is more (or) less permanent and remains the same always.
(iii)	Study of weather is called meteorology.	Study of climate is called climatology.

Question 2.
Land breeze and sea breeze.
Answer:

S.No.	Land Breeze	Sea Breeze
(i)	During the night the land cools more rapidly than the ocean. Cool air sinks and forms high pressure.	During the day the land masses get heated more rapidly than the oceans.
(ii)	The wind blows from land to sea during the night is called land breeze.	Heated air ascends and this causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean, therefore the wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon. This is called sea breeze.

Question 3.
Windward side and Leeward side.
Answer:

S.No.	Windward side	Leeward side
(i)	The windward side of a mountain which faces the prevailing wind.	The Leeward side of the mountain is the side sheltered from the wind.
(ii)	It receives heavy rainfall.	It receives very less rainfall.

Question 4.
Tropical cyclone and Temperate cyclones
Answer:

S.No.	Tropical cyclones	Temperate cyclones
(i)	Tropical cyclone develop in the Inter tropical convergent zone. They are formed due to the differential heating of land & Sea.	Temperate cyclones are formed along a front, where hot and cold air masses meet.
(ii)	They often cause heavy loss of life and properly on the coasts and become weak after reaching the land masses.	Temperate cyclones do not become weak like the Tropical cyclones on reaching the land.
(iii)	Tropical cyclones are known as ‘cyclones’ in Indian ocean.	Temperate cyclones are called western disturbances in India.

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Cyclones cause huge loss of life and property.
Answer:

• Because they are formed due to the diffetential heating of land and sea.
• Due to heavy rain, strong wind & large storm.
• The destruction depends mainly on its intensity, its size and its location,
• After the cyclone the devastation continues.

Question 2.
Cloudy days are warmer than cloudless days.
Answer:
On a cloudy day some energy from the sun gets into the atmosphere through the clouds but can’t get out again, when this happens the heat builds up during the day, so it gets warmer outside.

Question 3.
Fog is dangerous for traffic.
Answer:

1. Fog is a cloud form at the surface of the earth made of tiny water droplets suspended in the air.
2. Visibility is the greatest problem with fog.
3. Fog creates dangerous driving conditions and so it is dangerous for traffic.

Question 4.
Convectional rainfall is also called 4 O’ clock rain.
Answer:

1. The convectional rainfall occurs regularly in the equatorial region in the evenings.
2. The ascending moist air cools, condenses and results in convectional rainfall. So it is called 4 O’ clock rainfall.

Question 5.
Polar Easterlies are cold and dry. Why it is so?
Answer:

• Polar Easterlies blow form the high pressure areas of the Polar highs at the North and South Poles towards low pressure areas within westerlies at high altitudes.
• When air moves near the poles, cold temperatures shrink the air. So Polar Easterlies are cold and dry.

VI. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph about the structure of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere. The five atmospheric layers are Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Troposphere: The lowest layer of the atmosphere is the troposphere. The Greek word ‘tropos’ means ‘turn’ or change. The layer extends up to 8 kms at the poles and up to 18 kms at the Equator. The temperature decreases with increasing height. Almost all weather phenomenon take place in this layer. Hence it is called weather making layer. The upper limit of the troposphere is called as tropopause.

Stratosphere: Stratosphere lies above the troposphere. It extends to a height of about 50 km above earth surface. Since this layer is a concentration of ozone molecules, it is also referred as ozonosphere. The temperature increases with increase in height in this layer. Large jet planes normally fly here. The upper limit of the stratosphere is called as stratopause. Mesosphere: Mesosphere extends between 50km and 80km. The temperature increases with increasing height. Radio waves transmitted from earth are reflected back to earth from this layer. Most of the meteors nearing the earth, get burned here. The uppermost limit of the mesosphere is the mesopause.

Thermosphere: Thermosphere exists above the mesosphere. It extends to about 600 km. The composition of gases in the lower thermosphere is more or less uniform, hence it is called ‘‘Homosphere”. The upper portion of the thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”. Here the temperature increases with increasing height. Ionosphere is a layer of the thermosphere that contains Ions and free electrons.

Exosphere: The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is called exosphere. This layer is extremely rarefied with gases and gradually merges with the outer space. This zone is characterized by aurora Australis and aurora borealis.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of permanent winds.
Answer:
Westerlies are the permanent Winds that blow from the tropical high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt in both the hemispheres. They blow from South West to North East . in the northern hemisphere and North West to South East in the southern hemisphere. The velocity of westerlies become so vigorous and fast to be called Roaring Forties at 40°, Furious Fifties at 50° and Screaming Sixties at 60° latitudes.

Question 3.
How are clouds classified? Explain them.
Answer:
According to their height, clouds are classified into the following types
• High clouds (6 – 20 km Height)
• Middle clouds (2.5 km – 6 km Height)
• Low clouds (ground surface to 25 km height)
These major types of clouds are further divided into different types on the basis of shape and structure.

1. High clouds
   • Cirrus: Detached clouds in the form of white delicate fibrous silky filaments formed at the high sky (8000 meters to 12000 meters) are called Cirrus clouds. These clouds are dry and do not give rainfall.
   • Cirro-cumulus: White patched, sheet or layer like clouds composed of ice crystals. Cirro-stratus: Smooth milky transparent whitish clouds composed of tiny ice crystals.
2. Middle clouds
   • Alto-stratus: Thin sheets of grey or blue coloured clouds in uniform appearance, consisting of frozen water droplets.
   • Alto-cumulus: clouds fitted closely together in parallel bands, called as ‘Sheep clouds’ or wool pack clouds.
   • Nimbo stratus: These are clouds of dark colour very close to the ground surface associated with rain, snow or sleet.
3. Low clouds
   • Strato-cumulus: Grey or whitish layer of non-fibrous low clouds found in rounded patches at an height of 2500 to 3000 metres, associated with fair or clear weather.
   • Stratus: Dense, low lying fog-like clouds associated with rain or snow.
   • Cumulus: Dome-shaped with a flat base often resembling a cauliflower, associated with fair weather.
   • Cumulo-nimbus: Fluffy thick towering thunderstorm cloud capable of producing heavy rain, snow, hailstorm or tornadoes.

Question 4.
How are cyclones formed? How are they classified?
Answer:
The term cyclone is a Greek word meaning “coil of a snake”. Cyclones are centres of low pressure where, winds from the surrounding high pressure area converge towards the centre in a spiral form. Due to the rotation of the earth, the cyclonic winds in the northern hemisphere move in anti clock wise direction, where as they move in clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
Cyclones can be classified into

Tropical cyclones, Temperate cyclones and Extra tropical cyclones . Tropical cyclones: Tropical cyclones develop in the Inter tropical convergence zone [ITCZ], They are formed due to the differential heating of land and sea.
Tropical cyclones are known as ‘cyclones’ in Indian ocean, ‘typhoons’ in the western pacific ocean, ‘hurricanes’ in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific ocean, ‘baguios’ in Phillipines and ‘willy willy’ in Australia. Tropical cyclones often cause heavy .loss of life and property on the coasts and become weak after reaching the landmasses.

Temperate cyclones: Temperate cyclones are formed along a front where hot and cold air masses meet in mid-latitudes between 35° and 65°N and S. Temperate cyclones do not become weak like the tropical cyclones on reaching the land. Temperate cyclone commonly occurs over the North Atlantic Ocean, North West Europe, Mediterranean basin. Mediterranean basin’s temperate cyclones extend up to Russia and India in winter. In India it is as called western disturbances.

Extra tropical cyclones: Extra tropical cyclones occur in the latitudes between 30° and 60° in both the.hemispheres. They are also called as mid-latitude cyclones. They collect energy from temperature differences which are found in higher latitudes. Extra tropical cyclones produce mild showers to heavy gales, thunderstorms, blizzards, and tornadoes.

Question 5.
Explain the different forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Precipitation
Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation. When the dew point is reached in the cloud water droplets become saturated and start to fall. Hence, they fall on the earth as precipitation.
The climatic conditions/ factors influencing the forms of precipitation mainly are:
• Temperature.
• Altitude
• Cloud type
• Atmospheric conditions.
• Precipitation process.
The main forms of precipitation include drizzle, rain, sleet, snow, hail, etc.
Drizzle: Falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with diameter of less than 0. 5 is called a drizzle.mm from low clouds. Sometimes drizzles are combined with fog and hence reduce visibility.

Rain: Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperature above the freezing point. It occurs only when there is abundant moisture in the air. The diameter of a rain drop is more than 5 mm.

Sleet: Sleet refers to a precipitation, in the form of pellets made up of transparent and translucent ice. This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.

Snow: Snow is formed when condensation occurs below freezing point. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi opaque ice crystals. When these ice crystals collide and stick together, it becomes snowflakes.

Hails: Hails are chunks of ice (greater than 2 cm in diameter) falling from the sky, during a rainstorm or thunderstorm.
Hailstones are a form of solid precipitation where small pieces of ice fall downwards. These . are destructive and dreaded forms of solid precipitation because they destroy agricultural crops and human lives.

VII. Activity:

1. Preparing chart of clouds at various atmospheric levels. – Individual Activity.
2. Collecting proverbs clouds and rain related proverbs. – Individual Activity.
3. Poem on ‘clouds’ and ‘rain’. – Individual Activity.
4. Report writing observe the clouds for a week. Write your report about the shape and colours of the clouds. – Group Activity.
5. Working models (a) Rain Gauge (b) Wind vane – Group Activity.
   • The teacher takes initiative to complete the following activities.
   • The students get the assistance of the teacher to complete the given task.
6. Preparing bar diagram:
   (a) Collect the data of temperature of Kanyakumari, Delhi, Allahabad, and Itanagar for a day.
   (b) Also collect the data of rainfall received by Jaisalmer (Rajasthan), Mawsynram (Meghalaya), Nagapattinam, Coimbatore for a day. – Group Activity.
7. Become a budding Meteorologist:
   Record the local weather condition of your place for a week. – Group Activity.
   

Answer:
You can do this activity in groups under the guidance of your teacher.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called as weather making layer?
Answer:
The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere. It is also known as the weather-making zone because all physical processes of weather, like wind, clouds, storms, rainfall, mist, fog and hail, occur here.

Atmosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is a permanent gas of the atmosphere.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Argon
(c) Methane
(d) Helium
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 2.
This gas helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) Ozone

Question 3.
The upper most layer of the atmosphere is …………….
(a) Statrosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer:
(c) Exosphere

Question 4.
This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.
(a) Sleet
(b) Snow
(c) Hail
(d) Hailstones
Answer:
(a) Sleet

Question 5.
Humidity of the atmosphere is measured by the wet and dry bulb thermometer called ………….
(a) Anemometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Barometer
Answer:
(c) Hygrometer

Question 6.
This is one of the most feared weather phenomenon.
(a) Snow
(b) Hailstones
(c) Sleet
(d) Hails
Answer:
(b) Hailstones

Question 7.
Tropical cyclones in India is known as ……………
(a) baguios
(b) willy willy
(c) hurricanes
(d) Cyclones
Answer:
(d) Cyclones

Question 8.
The wind blowing from the east is ……………
(a) Planetary winds
(b) Easterly winds
(c) Variable winds
(d) Local winds
Answer:
(b) Easterly winds

Question 9.
This is the wettest place of India.
(a) Mawsynram
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Shillong
(d) Pune
Answer:
(a) Mawsynram

Question 10.
This is the earth’s magnetic belt ………………
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Magnetosphere
Answer:
(d) Magnetosphere

II. Match the following.
(a)

Answer:
(a)
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (c)

(b)

Answer:
(b)
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Who discovered Nitrogen in Atmosphere? When?
Answer:
In 1772 CE Daniel Rutherford discovered Nitrogen in atmosphere.

Question 2.
What are Auroras?
Answer:
Auroras are cosmic glowing lights produced by a stream of electrons discharged from the Sun’s surface due to magnetic storms that are seen as unique multicolored fire works hanging in the polar sky during mid night.

Question 3.
What are mountain barriers?
Answer:

• The location of the mountains influence the climate of a place.
• The mountain chains act as natural barrier for the wind.
• Sometimes they prevent the entry of cold winds into the country (or) the’escape of monsoon winds, thus having a great influence over the climate.

Question 4.
What happens to atmospheric pressure with altitude?
Answer:

• Air pressure decreases with altitude.
• The air molecules became scattered and more widely spaced at higher altitudes.
• The air pressure develops by 34 millibars per 300 metres increase in height.

Question 5.
What do you call the winds of a particular area?
Answer:

• The winds that are blown in a particular locality for a short period of time are called the local winds.
• The effects of these local winds are experienced only in that particular area.

Question 6.
Define the terms (a) Absolute humidity (b) Relative humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity: The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is called Absolute Humidity.
Relative Humidity: The ratio between the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere and the amount of water vapour it can hold is Relative humidity.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Conduction and Convection.
Answer:

Conduction	Convection
Conduction is the transfer of heat from hot body to a cold body through contact.	Convection is transfer of heat by movement or circulation of air in a mass.

Question 2.
Isobar and Isotherm.
Answer:

Isobar	Isotherm
An Isobar is an imaginary line drawn through places having equal atmospheric pressure reduced to sea level.	An imaginary line on a map connecting points having the same temperature

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Thermosphere is also referred as “Heterosphere”.
Answer:
The upper portion of the Thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”.

Question 2.
The wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon. Why?
Answer:

1. During the day the land masses get heated more rapidly than the oceans.
2. Heated air ascends and causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean.
3. Therefore the wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon.

Question 3.
The sub-tropical high pressure are called “horse latitudes”. Why?
Answer:

1. With little Water and food left for humans, sailors used to throw the horses into the sea in order to make the vessels lighter.
2. Henceforth these belts (or) latitudes are called as “horse latitudes”.

Question 4.
“Water droplets fall on the earth as precipitation”. Why?
Answer:

1. When the dew point is reached in the cloud, water droplets become saturated and start to fall.
2. Hence they fall on the earth as precipitation.

VI. Paragraph questions.

Question 1.
Describe the “composition of the atniosphere”.
Answer:
(i) Atmosphere is a mixture of gases, water vapour and dust particles in different proportions.

(ii) Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%) are permanent gases of the atmosphere. They constitute 99% of the total composition and their percentages always remain the same without any change.

(iii) The remaining one percentage is occupied by Argon (0.93%), Carbon-di-oxide, (0.03%), Neon (0.0018%), Helium (0.0005%), Ozone (0.00006%) and Hydrogen (0.00005%). Krypton, Xenon and Methane are also present in trace. Water vapour (0 – 0.4%) is also found in the atmosphere, which plays an important role in predicting weather phenomenon.

(iv) The other solid particles present in the atmosphere includes dust particles, salt particles, pollen grains, smoke, soot, volcanic ashes etc.,
(v) Oxygen is most important for living organisms.
(vi) CO₂ absorbs heat and keeps the atmosphere warm by insulation and radiation.
(vii) Nitrogen acts as a diluent and is chemically inactive.
(viii) Ozone helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(ix) The solid particles in the atmosphere acts as nuclei on which water vapour condense to form precipitation.

Question 2.
How is the Orographic rainfall caused?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall, also called relief rainfall, is caused when air is forced to rise against a high mountain. The mountain barriers lying across the direction of air flow, force the moisture laden air rise along the mountain slope. This results in the cooling of the air, which leads to the formation of clouds and rain. This rainfall is called Orographic rainfall. The side of the ‘ mountain facing the wind is called the windward side and receives heavy rainfall. It is called the rainfed region. The other side of the mountain that does not face the wind is called the leeward side and receives less rainfall becomes rain shadow region.

VII. HOTs (Higher Order Thinking skills) Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called as weather making layer?
Answer:
‘Tropos’ means ‘turn’ (or) change. Almost all weather phenomenon takes place in this layer. Hence Troposphere is called as weather making layer.

Question 2.
Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are always affected by cyclones. Why?
Answer:

1. Coastal zone is exposed to natural forces including cyclones and Tsunamis.
2. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are situated on the Sea-Shore.
3. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are vulnerable to storms.
4. During Summer Bay of Bengal subject to intense heat cause to raise the humid and unstable air masses that produce cyclone.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.5

9th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Question 1.
Construct the ∆LMN such that LM = 7.5 cm, MN = 5 cm and LN = 8 cm. Locate its centroid.
Solution:
In ∆LMN
LM = 7.5 cm,
MN = 5 cm,
LN = 8 cm

Construction :
Step 1 : Draw ∆LMN with LNM = 8 cm, MN = 5 cm, LM = 7.5 cm
Step 2 : Construct perpendicular bisectors for any two sides (LN and MN) to find the mid points of LM and MN.
Step 3 : Draw the medians LD, ME. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the triangle LMN.

9th Maths Geometry Question 2.
Draw and locate the centroid of the triangle ABC where right angle at A, AB = 4 cm and AC = 3 cm.
Solution:
In ∆ABC,
AB = 4 cm,
AC = 3 cm,
∠A = 90°

Construction:
Step 1 : Draw ∆ABC with AB = 4 cm, AC = 3 cm, ∠A = 90°
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (AB and AC) to find the mid points of AB and AC.
Step 3 : Draw the medians CD and BE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given triangle.

9th Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 3.
Draw the ∆ABC , where AB = 6 cm, ∠B = 110° and AC = 9 cm and construct the centroid.
Solution:
In ∆ABC,
AB = 6 cm,
∠B = 110°
AC = 9 cm

Construction:
Step 1 : Draw ∆ABC with AB = 6 cm, ∠B =110°, AC = 9 cm
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (BC and AB) to find the mid points of BC and AB.
Step 3 : Construct medians AD and CE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given ∆ABC.

9th Geometry 4.5 Question 4.
Construct the ∆PQR such that PQ = 5 cm, PR = 6 cm and ∠QPR = 60° and locate its centroid.
Solution:
In ∆PQR, PQ = 5 cm, PR = 6 cm, ∠QPR = 60°

Construction :
Step 1 : Draw ∆PQR with the given measurement
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (PQ and QR) to find the mid points of PQ and QR.
Step 3 : Draw medians PD and RE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given ∆PQR.

9th Standard Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 5.
Draw ∆PQR with sides PQ = 7 cm, QR = 8 cm and PR = 5 cm and construct its Orthocentre.
Solution:
∆PQR with sides PQ = 7 cm,
QR = 8 cm,
PR = 5 cm.

Construction:
(i) Draw the ∆PQR with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices (R and P) to their opposite sides (PQ and QR) respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection of the altitude H is the Orthocentre at the given ∆PQR.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 6.
Draw an equilateral triangle of sides 6.5 cm and locate its Orthocentre.

Solution:
Equilateral triangle at sides 6.5 cm.

Construction :
(i) Draw the ∆ABC with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices A and B, to their opposite sides BC and AC respectively.
(iii) The point intersection of the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆ABC.

9th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Solutions Question 7.
Draw ∆ABC, where AB = 6 cm, ∠B = 110° and BC = 5 cm and construct its Orthocentre.
Solution:
∆ABC, where AB = 6 cm,
B = 110° and
BC = 5 cm.

(i) Draw the ∆ABC with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices (A and B), to their opposite sides (BC and AC) respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆ABC.

9th Standard Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Question 8.
Draw and locate the Orthocentre of a right triangle PQR where PQ = 4.5 cm, QR = 6 cm and PR = 7.5 cm.
Solution:
Right triangle PQR where PQ = 4.5 cm, QR = 6 cm and PR = 7.5 cm.

Construction:
(i) Draw the ∆PQR with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices R and Q, to their opposite sides PQ and PR respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection of the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆PQR.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 1 Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Question 1.
………….. is genetically closest to humans.
(a) Gorilla
(b) Chimpanzee
(c) Orang-utan
(d) Great Apes
Answer:
(b) Chimpanzee

Evolution Of Human And Society Prehistoric Period Question 2.
The period called ……………. marks the beginning of agriculture and animal domestication.
(a) Palaeolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Megalithic
Answer:
(c) Neolithic

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Question Answer Question 3.
Direct ancestor of modem man was ……………..
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Neanderthal man
Answer:
(c) Homo sapiens

9th Social Guide Question 4.
………….. refers to the area covering Egypt, Israel-Palestine and Iraq.
(a) Great Rift Valley
(b) Fertile Crescent
(c) Solo river
(d) Neander Valley
Answer:
(b) Fertile Crescent

Evolution Of Human And Society-Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 5.
Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England first discovered the …………. tools at Pallavaram near Chennai.
(a) Stone Age
(b) Palaeolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Neolithic
Answer:
(b) Palaeolithic

9th Social History 1st Lesson Question 6.
(i) The period before the introduction of writing is called pre-history.
(ii) The pre-historic people developed language, made beautiful paintings and artefacts.
(iii) The pre-historic societies are treated as literate.
(iv) The pre-historic period is called ancient. .
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 7.
(i) The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called Celts.
(ii) Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Chennai district.
(iii) The cultural period that succeeded the Neolithic is called the Bronze Age.
(iv) The period that witnessed domestication .of animals and cultivation of crops is called Mesolithic.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 8.
Assertion (A): Many of the Mesolithic sites are found nearby rivers and tanks.
Reason (R): Irrigation management developed during Mesolithic period.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but R doesn’t explain A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A and R both are incorrect
Answer:
(d) A and R both are incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The primitive multi-cellular life first appeared in the age of ……………..
2. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the …………. culture.
3. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called ………………… technology.
4. ………………… is known as the Middle Stone Age, as it is placed between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic.
Answers:
1. Proterozoic
2. Low Palaeolithic
3. lithic
4. Mesolithic period

III. Find out the correct statement.

Evolution Of Human And Society Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 1.
(a) The concept ‘survival of the fittest’ contributed to the scientific understanding of human origins.
(b) The book “On the Origin of Species” was published by Herbert Spencer.
(c) Darwin’s theory of biological evolution connects with the process of natural selection.
(d) Geology is the study of lithic technology.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Answers Question 2.
(a) Among the great Apes Orangutan is genetically the closest to humans.
(b) The ancestors to humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(c) Flake is a small chip that has flaking on both sides.
(d) Acheulian is the main block of stone from which small1 chips are flaked by using a hammer stone.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

9th Social Book Back Answers Question 1.
Discuss how the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.
Answer:

1. Humans are the only species on earth concerned with understanding as well as explaining the World and Universe.
2. Humans became knowledgeable and conscious in the coarse of evolution.
3. They became curious and began to think and ask questions about nature, organisms and the world around them.
   e.g., At first they worshipped nature as God.
   Later on they developed their own understanding some of which is not scientific. Thus the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.

9th New Social Book Back Answers Question 2.
Write a note on the impact of pastoralism on the prehistoric people in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The people in the Age practiced agriculture, domesticated cattle and sheep.
2. Some of the groups were still hunting and gathering.
3. Millets & rice were cultivated.
4. Irrigation management developed in this period. In the deltaic regions irrigation as a technology had developed.
5. Evidences of rice is seen in Megalithic sites like Adidchanallur in Thoothukudi district and Porunthal near Palani.

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Meaning In Tamil Question 3.
List out the features of Megalithic Burial types.
Answer:

1. The Iron Age is also known as Megalithic since people created burials with large stones for the dead people.
2. Within these burials, the skeletons (or) a few bones of the dead persons were placed along with grave goods including iron objects, carnelian beads and bronze objects.
3. Some of the burials do not have human bones and they have only the grave goods.
4. They may be called memorial burials.

9th Social Science Guide Question 4.
Examine the tool making technical skills of lower Palaeolithic people.
Answer:

1. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the Lower palaeolithic period.
2. These tools were fitted with a wooden and bone handle. They were used for cutting, piercing and digging.
3. The people also used hammer stones and spheroids.
4. The quartzite pebbles and cobbles were chosen as raw materials.
   The tools are found in the soil deposits and also in the exposed river side.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Evolution Of Humans And Society – Prehistoric Period Notes Question 1.
Hominid and Hominins.
(a) Who are Hominids?
Answer:
Hominids refers to all the species of the modem and extinct great apes, which also includes humans.

(b) Who was the earliest human ancestor to make tools in Africa?
Answer:
Homo habilis (handy human) was the earliest known human ancestors to make tools in Africa about 2.6 million years ago.

(c) How are the modern humans known?
Answer:
Modem-humans are known as Homo sapiens.

(d) Name any one species of this tribe.
Answer:
Homo erectus – extinct Humans are the only living species.

9 Social Guide Question 2.
Earliest Lithic Assemblages of Human ancestors.
(a) Where are Acheulian tools reported to have been found in Karnataka and in Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Acheulian tools are reported to have been found in Isampur in Karnataka and Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh.

(b) What is meant by Lithic Technology?
Answer:
‘Lith’ means stone. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called lithic technology.

(c) What are Biface tools?
Answer:
Bifaces are tools that have flaking on both sides (bi = two, face = side).

(d) Name a few stone tools used by the human ancestors.
Answer:
Core is the main block of stone. Flake is a small chip removed from a large stone block. Levalloisian tools includes long blades and burins. Burin is a stone-made chisel with a sharp cutting edge.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Social Science Class 9 Guide Question 1.
The developments in the fields of agriculture, pottery and metal tools are considered a landmark in the life of Megalithic period- Substantiate.
Answer:

• As the name suggests, people used iron technology.
• An exchange relationship developed among the people.
• The people of this age had knowledge of metallurgy and pottery making.
• The Iron Age is also known as Megalithic period since people created burials with large stones for the dead people.
• Weapons such as swords and daggers, axes, chiesels, lamps and tripod stands are also found.
• The Iron tools were used for agriculture, hunting, gathering and in battles.
• Bronze bowls, vessels with stylish finials decorated with animals and birds, bronze mirrors and bells have also been found. So these developments are considered a landmark in the life of Megalithic period.

Question 2.
The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth. Elucidate.
Answer:

• The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.
• The earth contains geological, archaeological and biological records of historical times in its upper layers.
• They are important for reconstructing the history of the earth and various living organisms.
• The fossil bones of the human ancestors are embedded in the earth’s layers.
• Palaeoanthropologists and archaeologists excavate the soil and rock layers on the earth and extract evidence about human ancestors.
• These layers and the fossils are scientifically dated to study the various stages in human evolution and prehistory.
• Through the gathered evidence they attempt to understand the evolution of human history and developments in a chronological order.
• The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
• Gradually conditions emerged for the growth of organisms. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras, periods and epochs by the Geologists. Thus the history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark the prehistoric sites on the world map.
Answer:
(i) The ancestors to humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(ii) You can draw the Prehistoric sites of human ancestors in Africa with the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance.
Answer:
A power-point presentation on the origin of human life.
A power-point presentation on the pre-historic tools.
A power-point presentation on the scripts of the ancient.

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. …………….. is the study of the human past through the analysis and interpretation of material remains.
(a) Geology
(b) Archaeology
(c) History
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Archaeology

Question 2.
The beginning of history writing can be traced to the ancient ……………..
(a) Greeks
(b) Egyptians
(c) Romans
(d) Africans
Answer:
(a) Greeks

Question 3.
The DNA of a Chimpanzee is ……………. identical to that of a human being.
(a) 95%
(b) 96%
(c) 97%
(d) 98%
Answer:
(d) 98%

Question 4.
………….. are stone artefacts of small size.
(a) Microliths
(b) Bifaces
(c) Acheulian
(d) core
Answer:
(a) Microliths

Question 5.
Evidence of Neolithic village is found at …………… in Vellore district.
(a) Gudiam
(b) Athirampakkam
(c) Payyampalli
(d) Salem
Answer:
(c) Payyampalli

Question 6.
The ……………. was a formative period and the foundation for the Sangam Age.
(a) Iron Age
(b) Bronze Age
(c) Stone Age
(d) Age of Information Technology
Answer:
(a) Iron Age

Question 7.
(i) We live in the age of Information Technology.
(ii) The internet has literally put the world on our finger tips.
(iii) The Prehistoric people were the pioneers of literacy.
(iv) Powerful Technology developed all of a sudden.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) & (iv) are correct
(d) (i) & (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 8.
(i) The chimpanzee is genetically the closest to humans.
(ii) Hominins & their origin have been traced to Asia.
(iii) The Hominins emerged around 6 to 5 million years ago.
(iv) The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites for the Prehistoric period.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct and (c) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 9.
……………… are tools used for scraping the surfaces.
(a) Lunates
(b) Triangles
(c) Scrapers
(d) Cists
Answer:
(c) Scrapers

Question 10.
…………… are pottery jars and were used for burying the dead.
(a) Urns
(b) Cists
(c) Dolmens
(d) Menheirs
Answer:
(a) Urns

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Prehistoric people were the pioneers of ……………..
2. …………… were the apes from which modem humans evolved.
3. Prehistoric animal (or) plant that turns to stone over a period of time …………….
4. The earliest tools made by human ancestors are found in ……………. in Kenya.
5. …………….. people buried the dead people systematically.
6. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around …………… (or) even earlier.
7. Oxen were used in ………….. civilisation for tilling the land.
8. ……………. discovered the first Palaeolithic tools in India at Pallavaram.
9. ………….. people perhaps devised the first pottery.
10. The black and Red colour pottery were used by ……………. and people.
Answers:
1. Creative Knowledge
2. Australopithecines
3. Fossil
4. Lomekwi
5. Neanderthals
6. 7000 BCE
7. Sumerian
8. Sir Robert Bruce Foote
9. Neolithic
10. Iron Age & Sangam Age

III. Match the following

a.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

b.

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss when the earth was formed.
Answer:

1. The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
2. Gradually, conditions emerged for the growth of organisms.
3. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans.
4. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras periods and epochs by the geologists.

Question 2.
Who proposed the idea of the Three Age system?
Answer:

1. The idea of the Three Age system proposed by CJ. Thomsen became the basis for understanding early human history.
2. He classified the artefacts in the Danish National Museum, Copenhagen, into Stone Age, Bronze Age and Iron Age.

Question 3.
The Great Rift valley in Africa has evidence for the Prehistoric period. Discuss.
Answer:

• The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites that have evidence for the prehistoric period.
• The Great Rift valley is a valley – like formation that run for about 6,400 km from the Northern part of Syria to Central Mozambique in East Africa.
• This geographical feature is visible even from the space, and many prehistoric sites are found in Africa.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Prehistoric cultures”.
Answer:
While the fossil bones are classified as various species such as Homo habilis, Homo erectus and Neanderthalensis, based on the lithic tools, cultures are assigned names such as Earliest Lithic, Assemblages, Oldowan Technology, Lower, Middle and Upper Palaeolithic and Mesolithic cultures.

Question 5.
Why were the Levalloisian tools called so?
Answer:

1. The lithic tool – making tradition of the Levalloisian belonged to this period.
2. Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core.
3. These tools are found in Europe and Central and Western Asia.
4. The Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core. It was named after the town of Levallois in France.

Question 6.
What was the main factor for the development of early civilisations?
Answer:

1. As a result of domestication and cultivating plants, there was an excess food production.
2. The surplus food production was a main factor for the development of early civilizations.

Question 7.
Describe the burials in the Sangam Age.
Answer:

1. The Sangam literature mentions the various burial practices of the people.
2. The Megalithic burials are classified as dolmens, cists, menheirs, rock-cut caves, um burials and sarcophagus.
3. The burial types of Kodakkal (umbrella stone), Toppikkal (hatstone) and Paththikal (hood stone) are found in Kerala.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

(A) Oldest Museum.
Question 1.
Name the oldest museum, in the world.
Answer:
The museum of Ennigaldi Nanna in Mesopotamia.

Question 2.
When was it established?
Answer:
It was established in 530 BCE.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest surviving museum at present?
Answer:
The Capitoline museum in Italy is perhaps the oldest surviving museum at present (1471 CE).

Question 4.
Name the bldest university museum in the world.
Answer:
Ashmolean Museum at Oxford University is the oldest University Museum in the world.

(B) Mesolithic culture.
Question 1.
Mention the evidence for the existence of Mesolithic hunt-gatherers.
Answers:
They are found at Chennai, North Arcot, Dharmapuri, Salem, Coimbatore, Ariyalur, Trichi, Pudukottai, Madurai, Sivagangai, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari.

Question 2.
What type of artefacts were used by the people of this period?
Answer:
The people of this period used small artefacts made of Chert and Quartz. .

Question 3.
What are the tool types used by them?
Answer:
The tool types are scrapers, lunates and triangles.

Question 4.
What did they do for their subsistence?
Answer:
These people hunted wild animals and gathered fruits, nuts and roots for their subsistence.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the Neolithic culture in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

• The culture that domesticated animals and cultivated crops is called Neolithic.
• It is known as the New Stone Age. The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called celts.
• Cattle rearing was their main occupation. They lived in small villages with houses made of thatched roof and walls plastered with clay.
• Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Vellore district and a few sites in the Dharmapuri region.
• Payyampalli is a village in Vellore district of Tamil Nadu. The earliest evidence for the domestication of animals and the cultivation of plants is found at this site, which was excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• Evidence for pottery making and cultivation of horse gram and green gram has been found in this village.
• These Neolithic sites were part of the Southern Neolithic Culture of India. They are mainly concentrated in the Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka regions.
• The Neolithic people used stone axes fitted on a wooden handle.
• These polished stone axes are worshipped in many village temples of Tamil Nadu even today.

Question 2.
Domestication of Animals and plants. A milestone in Human History. Explain.
Answer:

1. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around 7000 BCE or even earlier.
2. Wheat and barley were cultivated at Mehrgarh in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent (Pakistan) before 6000 BCE.
3. Animal domestication developed as part of symbiotic life.
4. Dogs may have been domesticated first. Friendly animals were gradually domesticated. Sheep and goat were domesticated around 10,000 BCE in Southwest Asia.
5. Oxen were used in Sumerian civilization for tilling the land. Mehrgarh in Pakistan has evidence of sheep, goat and cattle domestication in the Neolithic period.

You can Download A Poison Tree Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Poem Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 2 A Poison Tree

A Poison Tree Warm Up:

A. Choose the option that suits your own behaviour in the given situations. Compare your answers with a partner’s answers. (You can do the activity yourself)
1. You overhear a friend talking badly about you. How angry does that make you feel?

• I don’t feel angry at all.
• I feel moderately angry.
• I feel slightly annoyed.
• I feel very angry.
• I feel a little angry.
• I feel furious.

2. Your friend persuades you to take help to prepare for the Maths board examination, from a close friend. That person does not turn up at all, as agreed. How angry does that make you feel?

• I don’t feel angry at all.
• I feel moderately angry.
• I feel slightly annoyed.
• I feel very angry.
• I feel a little angry.
• I feel furious.

3. You have agreed to pick up some friends at the train station. They are coming to stay with you for a few days. You’ve arranged with your elder brother/sister to drive the car for the day. You are about to leave the house when you realise the car is outside but your brother/sister has gone to work, taking the keys! How angry does that make you feel?

• I don’t feel angry at all.
• 1 feel moderately angry.
• I feel slightly annoyed.
• I feel very angry.
• I feel a little angry.
• I feel furious.

4. During a get together, your friend makes fun of your singing in front of your friends. You thought your singing was fine, but your friend thinks you really need to practice much more. How angry does that make you feel?

• I don’t feel angry at all.
• I feel moderately angry.
• I feel slightly annoyed.
• I feel very angry.
• I feel a little angry.
• I feel furious.

B. Answer the following questions. Share your views with the class.

A Poison Tree Book Back Answers Question 1.
Do you argue often with your classmates?
Answer:
I do argue but not regarding personal matters and my arguments get over very soon.

A Poison Tree Question And Answer Question 2.
Do you forgive them or choose to remain enemies forever?
Answer:
Not instant forgiveness; it stays for some time. How long we remain enemies depends on the friend and the issue.

A Poison Tree Questions And Answers Question 3.
How long does your anger last?
Answer:
My anger lasts for an hour roughly.

A Poison Tree Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

1. I was angry with my friend
I told my wrath ‘my wrath did end.

Poison Tree Question And Answer Question (a).
Who does ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
‘I’ refers to the poet, William Blake.

The Poison Tree Question And Answer Question (b).
How did the anger of poet come to an end?
Answer:
The poet told the reason of his anger to his friend. The anger came to an end.

Additional:

A Poison Tree Questions Question (c).
Write a synonym for ‘wrath’.
Answer:
A synonym for ‘wrath’ is ‘anger’.

2. And I watered it in fears
Night and morning with my tears;

A Poison Tree 9th Standard Question (a).
What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
‘It’ refers to anger.

A Poison Tree Notes Pdf Question (b).
How is ‘it’ watered?
Answer:
It is watered with fears and tears and tears of the poet.

3. In the morning glad I see
My foe outstretched beneath the tree

A Poison Tree Answer Question (a).
How did the poet feel in the morning?
Answer:
He felt glad in the morning.

A Poison Tree Summary In Tamil Question (b).
Who is the ‘foe’ referred to here?
Answer:
The person on whom the poet is angry with.

A Poison Tree Questions And Answers Pdf Question (c).
Why was the ‘foe’ found lying outstretched beneath the tree?
Answer:
The ‘foe’ ate the apple from the poison tree of anger. So he fell below the tree.

4. And it grew both day and night,
Till it bore an apple bright

The Poison Tree Poem Questions And Answers Question (a).
Who does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
It refers to anger, that is personified to the ‘poison tree’.

Poison Tree Poem Questions And Answers Question (b).
What does ‘apple’ signify?
Answer:
Apple indicates anger.

A Poison Tree Notes Question (c).
What grew both day and night?
Answer:
Anger that is personified to the ‘poison tree’ grew both day and night.

B. Complete the summary by filling in the given spaces with suitable words.

Once the poet was angry with his friend. He expressed his _________(i)__________ and it ended. They became friendly but when he grew angry with his foe, he ________(ii)________it and allowed his anger to grow. Day and night he watered it with his tears allowing it to grow. He ____(iii)______ his foe with false smiles and cunning tricks. The tree kept growing and yielded a bright apple which _______(iv)______ his foe to eating it stealthily during the night. The next morning the poet was happy to see his foe lying ______(v)______  under the tree.
Answers:
(i) anger
(ii) suppressed
(iii) faced
(iv) attracted
(v) outstretched

C. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Poison Tree Notes Question 1.
How did the poet’s anger with his friend end?
Answer:
The poet expressed his anger towards his friend as well as his enemy. But he specified the difference between two types of anger. He told that when he was angry with a friend, he convinced his own heart to forgive his friend. He sorted out the differences with his friend by expressing his anger to him and by discussing his own points of view with him. Even if he was hurt and he knew that his friend had done injustice to him, he would have tried his best to forget the past and end the feeling of vengeance in his heart. In this way, the poet’s anger, with his friend, came to an end.

A Poison Tree Poem Answer Key Question 2.
Describe how his anger kept growing?
Answer:
The poet confessed that when he was angry with his enemy, he did not reveal his anger to his enemy. He feared that if he expressed his anger to him, his enemy would do harm to him. So he suppressed his anger. Day and night he shed tears thinking about the ill or the injustice that had been caused by his enemy to him. Thus, he watered the tree of anger with his tears, allowing the anger to grow. He also aroused his anger with his false smiles and cunning tricks towards his enemy. Since the poet kept his anger within himself and had his own fear and tears, his anger kept growing every day.

Question 3.
Describe the effect of the poisonous fruit on the’enemy’.
Answer:
The poet, William Blake, revealed his anger to his friend and the anger ended. But when the poet concealed his anger from his enemy, the anger grew. It grew like a tree that bore a bright apple. His enemy saw the shining apple. Even though he knew that the apple belonged to the poet, he wanted to have it. So the enemy came secretly into the garden when it was night and ate the apple. In the morning, the ‘ poet’s anger changed into gladness when he found the enemy outstretched under the poison tree. The apple in the tree of anger symbolizes the poisonous effect.

D. Poem Appreciation: Figures of speech.

Question.
Pick out at least two Instances of alliteration from the poem.
Answer:

1. I was angry with my foe.
2. Night and morning with my tears.
3. And I sunned it with smiles.
4. Till it bore an apple bright.

E. Read the following lines from the poem and answer the questions that follow.

1. I was angry with my friend;
I told my wrath, my wrath did end.
I was angry with my foe:
I told it not, my wrath did grow.

Question 1.
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
friend – end; foe – grow

Question 2.
What is the rhyme scheme of the stanza?
Answer:
a a b b

Question 3.
Identify the figure of speech in the title of the poem.
Answer:
Personification

2. And I watered it in fears
Night and morning with my tears;

Question 1.
What figure of speech is used in ‘watered it in fears’?
Answer:
Personification.

Additional Questions

1. And I sunned it with smiles And with soft deceitful wiles

(i) Explain the phrase deceitful wiles.
(ii) Identify the rhyming words
Answers:
(i) The poet deceived or fooled his enemy by his tricks.
(ii) rhyming words – smiles, wiles

2. And it grew both day and night,
Till it bore an apple bright

(i) What does it mean?
(ii) Identify the rhyme scheme,
Answers:
(i) If refers to ‘A Poison Tree’.
(ii) rhyming scheme – a, a

3. In the morning glad I see
My foe outstretched beneath the tree.

(i) Which scene makes the poet happy?
(ii) When does the poet see his enemy dead?
Answers:
(i) In the morning when he saw the enemy dead under the poison tree.
(ii) In the morning, the next day after the enemy consumed the apple.

Listening Activity:

F. Listen to the passage on ‘anger management’ and match the sentence parts by drawing a line. The recording can be played more than once if needed.
(For listening to the script refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.in)

Answers:
1. (c), 2. (e), 3. (b), 4. (a), 5. (d).

G. Answer the following in about 80-100 words. Take ideas from the poem and also use your own ideas.

1. Recall a recent situation when you became angry. What were the consequences of your anger? After listening to the guidelines on anger management, find out how well you could have handled the situation. Write your findings.
Answer:
“ When you squeeze an orange, orange juice comes out – because that s what is inside. When you are squeezed, what comes out is what is inside. ” – Wayne Dyer
I don’t remember what the specific dates were of the incident but I do remember it involved my supervisor at the time. I think she had reacted in a way that I didn’t like.

2. What might have caused the conflict which led to the poet becoming angry with his enemy? Think of one such situation that you have experienced. Describe how you felt and how the enmity grew and things became worse.
Answer:
For the poet, it must have been quite personal life changing issue like lover, parents, cousins, etc., than professional conflict. When my father was taken to hospital for jaundice, he was detected of pancreatic cancer. At that time my elder sister who had always projected herself as a decision maker kept silent because of the fear of deadly disease. She did not play her part well. I naturally became very angry with her and stopped talking. When our father died, she did not play her role in the ceremonial practices but brought a whole lot of her friends to be sympathised. I will never forgive her. Anger has grown to a level where both familes have stopped talking to each other.

H. Discuss and Write.

(a) Identify five to six qualities which make an ordinary person, loved and respected by all. Work in groups of five or six. Each group has to take up one quality and discuss the methods for imbibing that quality’ and identify the challenges that need to be faced.
Answer:
Six qualities that make an ordinary person, loved and respected by all are:
(i) Friendliness and congeniality
(ii) Good personality
(iii) Deep knowledge
(iv) Effective communicator
(v) Good listener .
(vi) Sense of humour
(vii) Kindness
My group will now discuss the methods of imbibing the quality ‘kindness’.
“Kindness is the language which the deaf can hear and the blind can see.”

(b) Adolescents are often distracted by feelings like anger, disappointment and general helplessness when they face challenges at school or at home. Suggest way to turn such feelings into positive ones.
Answer:
Adolescents face lots of challenges and stressful time. It is a period when boundaries are tested, doors are slammed, and voices often raised. When they express their frustrations in anger, that anger can be unsettling. Disappointment and general helplessness stems from a teen’s desire to be more independent from his/her parents and the frustration that he/she can’t yet enjoy the freedoms of an adult.

That frustration is sometimes expressed as anger and striking out verbally at parents. They will teeter between being engaged with the family and wanting to retreat by themselves or with friends for several hours at a time. Frustration is unrealized potential. Frustration drives ineffective leaders backward, inward and downward. To turn such negative traits into positive, let us understand that we must respond and not react. Remember the cockroach theory reiterated by Sundar Pichai, CEO, Google.

At a restaurant, a cockroach suddenly flew from somewhere and sat on a lady. She started screaming out of fear. With a panic stricken face and trembling voice, she started jumping with both her hands desperately trying to get rid of cockroach. Her reaction was contagious as everyone in her group started panicking. The lady finally managed to push the cockroach away but… it landed on another lady in the group. Now it was turn of the other lady in the group to continue the drama. The waiter rushed forward to their rescue.

In the relay of throwing, the cockroach next fell upon the waiter. The waiter stood firm, composed himself and observed the behaviour of the cockroach on his shirt. When he was confident enough, he grabbed it with his fingers and threw it out of the restaurant. Sipping my coffee and watching the amusement, the antenna of my mind picked up a few thoughts and started wondering, was the cockroach responsible for their histrionic behaviour? If so then why was the waiter not disturbed? He handled it near to perfection without any chaos.

It is not the cockroach but the inability of those people to handle the disturbance caused by the cockroach. Similarly situation will make us angry, but if we could stop, think and then respond, anger can be controlled.

Additional Questions:

Question 1.
What is the consequence of anger? How is it explained in the poem ‘A Poison Tree’ by Blake?
Answer:
A Poison Tree is a poem that focuses on the emotion of anger and the consequences of it. It deals with the darker side of the human psyche. The poet expressed his anger, everything was fine, but when he kept it inside, it began to grow, eventually becoming a metaphorical tree with poison fruit. The foe ends up under the tree, destroyed by the speaker’s pent up anger. Poet advises the readers to express the anger rather than holding it to oneself. Anger sustained damages both.

Question 2.
What motivated the poet to write on anger?
Answer:
William Blake wrote this poem in 1794 and it first appeared in his book Songs of Experience. Society at that time was encouraged to bottle up emotions and to present a polite and unruffled person to the world. Blake thought this approach unhealthy and advocated a more expressive mode of being, especially with regards to potentially festering emotion. His ideas were against the prevailing attitudes of the church and state. The original title Blake had for this poem, Christian Forbearance, reflects this.

Question 3.
Has the figure of speech been used effectively in the poem? Justify
Answer:
A Poison Tree uses metaphor, antithesis and biblical associations to highlight the self-damage that can proceed from suppressing anger. The emphasis is on letting go on negative emotions and moving on with life before this energy impacts on the health and wellbeing of others.

The worth of the speaker becomes a metaphorical tree bearing a poison apple. This allusion to the book of genesis chapter 3 is a clear one. The tree of knowledge of good and evil is the poem’s tree. The serpent is the speaker, both tempting and deceitful, Adam and Eve are the foe, both guilty of disobedience.

The poem carries with it a potent message, anger management which is the focal issue for many in society. Blakes’s prescient poem hits the nail on the head with its antithetical argument for letting go of negative energy.

A Poison Tree by William Blake About The Poet:

William Blake was an English poet, painter and printmaker. His thoughts and art were a depiction of his bold imagination. He is held in high regard by later critics for his expressiveness and creativity and for the philosophical and mystical undercurrents within his work. Notable works of Blake are ‘Songs of Innocence and of Experience’, ‘The Marriage of heaven and Hell’, ‘The Four Zoas’, ‘Jerusalem’, etc.

In the history of the poetry and visual arts of the Romantic Age, Blake is considered as a seminal figure. Blake lived and worked in the teeming metropolis of London at a time of great social and political change that profoundly influenced his writing. Blake worked to bring about a change both in the social order and in the minds of men.

A Poison Tree Summary:

In ‘A Poison Tree’ William Blake describes how to handle anger both with a friend and an enemy. The poet has given the readers a very valuable lesson how to handle conflict. Blake also helps the readers by clearly explaining the ill effects of holding malice inside oneself.

The first stanza speaks about two types of anger. One that was against a friend and one against an enemy. When the anger was against a friend, he took pain to explain his feelings and so the conflict was resolved. The anger ended. The other was against his enemy. He did not like him. He held the anger inside and did not express it. He also did not try to express it to others and find a solution. Resentment began to grow inside.

The second stanza talks about the anger which grew as a poison tree. The poet cultivated his anger, watered his budding tree with fear and tears every day and night. The enemy did not know of this growing fury. Deceptively the poet employed his smiles as though it was sun to this toxic tree.

With charm he cleverly did not allow interjection or awareness of his wrath. Third stanza tells how he nurtured the tree. Anger poisoned the human spirit, furthermore, it endangered the ability to use logical reasoning. Finally the tree bore the fruit of fury in the form of a beautiful, appealing apple. The enemy of the poet planned to stealthily eat the fruit of the tree.

In the final stanza, the enemy was lured by the fruit of that poison tree. Without the knowledge of the poet, the enemy ate the fruit of fury and was found dead the next day under the tree. The poet does not seem to worry about the loss. Blake uses the poem as a warning to those who harbour grudges and allow the feelings of resentment to stay inside without dealing with them. Expressing the feelings is the only Way to avoid the fruit of poison tree.

A Poison Tree Glossary:

deceitful – cunning, treacherous
foe – enemy
veiled – covered
wiles – tricks
wrath – anger

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 21 Nutrition and Health

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Nutrition and Health Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the best answer.

Nutrition And Health 9th Class Question 1.
The nutrient required in trace amounts to accomplish various body functions is ………………
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Vitamin
(d) Fat
Answer:
(c) Vitamin

Chapter 21 Nutrition And Health Question 2.
The physician who discovered that Scurvy can be cured by ingestion of citrus fruit is …………….
(a) James Lind
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Isaac Newton
Answer:
(a) James Lind

9th Science Nutrition And Health Question 3.
The sprouting of onion and potatoes can be delayed by the process of ………………
(a) Freezing
(b) Irradiation
(c) Salting
(d) Canning
Answer:
(b) Irradiation

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 4.
Food and Adulteration Act was enacted by the Government of India in the year ………………..
(a) 1964
(b) 1954
(c) 1950
(d) 1963
Answer:
(b) 1954

Samacheer Kalvi. Guru 9th Question 5.
An internal factor responsible for spoilage of food is ………………..
(a) Wax coating
(b) Contaminated utensils
(c) Moisture content in food
(d) Synthetic preservatives
Answer:
(c) Moisture content in food

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Deficiency diseases can be prevented by taking ………………. diet.
2. The process of affecting the natural composition and the quality of food substance is known as …………………
3. Vitamin D is called as …………….. vitamin as it can be synthesised by the body from the rays
   of the sunlight.
4. Dehydration is based on the principle of removal of ………………..
5. Food should not be purchased beyond the date of ………………..
6. AGMARK is used to certify ……………. and ……………. products on India.

Answer:

1. balanced
2. Food spoilage
3. Calciferol
4. water
5. expiry
6. Livestock, Agricultural products

III. Mention whether the following statements are true or false. If false, write the correct statement.

1. Iron is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland – False.
   Correct Statement: Iodine is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland.
2. Vitamins are required in large quantities for normal functioning of the body – False.
   Correct Statement: Vitamins are required in small quantities for normal functioning of the body.
3. Vitamin C is a water-soluble Vitamin – True
4. Lack of adequate fats in the diet may result in low body weight – True
5. ISI mark is mandatory to certify agricultural products – False.
   Correct Statement: AGMARK is mandatory to certify Agricultural products.

IV. Match column A with column B.

Calcium – (a) Muscular fatigue
Sodium – (b) Anaemia
Potassium – (c) Osteoporosis
Iron – (d) Goitre
Iodine – (e) Muscular cramps
Answer:

1. (c) Osteoporosis
2. (e) Muscular cramps
3. (a) Muscular fatigue
4. (b) Anaemia
5. (d) Goitre

V. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers.

Class 9 Science Questions And Answers Question 1.

Vitamin	Rich Source	Deficiency Disease
Calciferol	–	Rickets
–	papaya	Night blindness
Ascorbic acid	–	–
–	whole grains	Beriberi

Answer:

Vitamin	Rich Source	Deficiency Disease
Calciferol	liver	Rickets
Retinol	papaya	Night blindness
Ascorbic acid	Citrus fruits	Scurvy
Thiamine	whole grains	Beriberi

VI. Give abbreviations for the following food standards.

1. ISI – Indian Standards Institution.
2. FPO – Fruit Process Order.
3. AGMARK – Agricultural Marking.
4. FCI – Food Corporation of India.
5. FSSAI – Food Safety and Standard Authority of India.

VII. Assertion and reason.

Direction: In the following question, a statement of a Assertion is given and a corresponding Reason is given just below it. Of the statements given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason is false.
Question 1.
Assertion: Haemoglobin contains iron.
Reason: Iron deficiency leads to anaemia.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Question 2.
Assertion: AGMARK is a quality control agency.
Reason: ISI is a symbol of quality.
Answer:
(d) If both Assertion and Reason is false.

VIII. Very short answers questions.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 9th Question 1.
Differentiate
Answer:
(a) Kwashiorkor from Marasmus

Kwashiorkor		Marasmus
1.	It affects children between 1 to 5 years.	It affects infants, below the age of one year.
2.	Occurs due to the diet mainly consists of carbohydrates, but poor in proteins.	Occurs, when the diet is poor in carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

(b) Macronutrients from micronutrients

Macronutrients		Micronutrients
1.	Nutrients required in large amount for the proper functions of the cells.	Nutrients required in very amount for the proper functions of the cells.
2.	Calcium, potassium, sodium etc, are  some macronutrients.	Iron, iodine etc are some micro-nutrients.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Question 2.
Why salt is used as a preservative in food.
Answer:

1. It removes the moisture content in the food.
2. Prevents the growth of bacteria.
3. Reduces the activity of microbial enzymes.+

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 3.
What is an adulterant?
Answer:
An adulterant is an undesirable substance added to the food against the food safety standards.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science 9th Question 4.
A doctor advises an adolescent girl who is suffering from anaemia to include more of leafy vegetables and dates in her diet. Why so?
Answer:
The disease Anaemia occurs due to the deficiency of the mineral iron. Iron is an important component of haemoglobin. Haemoglobin in the blood carries oxygen from the lungs to the body, so the doctor advises the girl to take leafy vegetables as they are the sources of itpn.

9th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Name any two naturally occurring toxic substances in food.
Answer:
Alkaloids and Aflatoxin.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Standard Question 6.
What factors are required for the absorption of Vitamin D from the food by the body?
Answer:
The factor that regulates the absorption of Vitamin D is the presence of dietary fat (Egg, Liver, Dairy products, Fish, etc). When our body absorbs this fat, it also absorbs the dissolved Vitamin D. When the sun rays fall on the skin, the fat is converted into Vitamin D.

IX. Short answers.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Standard Science Question 1.
Write any one function of of the following minerals.

1. Calcium
2. Sodium
3. Iron
4. Iodine

Answer:

1. Calcium: Enamel of teeth.
2. Sodium: Maintains fluid balance.
3. Iron: Important component of Haemoglobin, which carries Oxygen from Lungs to body.
4. Iodine: Formation of Thyroid hormone.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Question 2.
Explain the two methods of food preservation.
Answer:

• SMOKING:
  Food products like Meat and Fish are exposed to smoke. The drying action of the smoke tends to preserve the food.
• Use of Inert gas:
  Nitrogen gas is filled in air tight packets of Potato wafers and other products. It prevents the growth of fungus and insects in them.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
What are the effects of consuming adulterated food?
Answer:

• Increases the impurity in the food items
• Lack of Nutritional value
• Leads to various diseases

X. Give one reason for the following statements.

(a) Salt is added as a preservative in Pickles.
Answer:
Addition of salt removes the moisture content in the food by the process of Osmosis.

(b) We should not eat food items beyond the expiry date.
Answer:
Toxins are produced by the Bacteria (or) by the enzymes.

(c) Deficiency of Calcium in diet leads to poor skeletal growth
Answer:
Deficiency of Calcium in diet leads to poor skeletal growth because of bone deformities and Osteoporosis in adults.

XI. Long answer questions.

Question 1.
How are Vitamins useful to us? Tabulate the source, deficiency diseases and symptoms of fat soluble Vitamins.
Answer:
Vitamins boost the immune system, support normal growth and development.

 

Vitamins	Sources	Deficiency disorders	Symptoms
Fat Soluble Vitamins                                                                                        .
Vitamin A (Retinol)	Carrot, papaya, leafy vegetables, fish liver oil, egg yolk, liver, dairy products	Xerophthalmia Nyctalopia (Night blindness)	Dryness of Cornea Unable to see in the night (dim light) Scaly Skin
Vitamin D (Calciferol)	Egg, liver, dairy products, fish synthesized by the skin in sunlight	Rickets (in children)	Bowlegs, defective ribs, development of pigeon chest
Vitamin E (Tocopherol)	Whole wheat, meat, vegetable oil, milk	Sterility in rats, reproductive abnormalities	Sterility
Vitamin K (Derivative of Quinone)	Leafy vegetables, soya beans, milk	Blood clotting is prevented	Excessive bleeding due to delayed blood clotting

Question 2.

Explain the role of food control agencies in India.
Answer:

1. ISI (Indian Standards Institution) known as Bureau of Indian Standard. It Certifies Industrial products like Electrical appliances like switches, wiring cables, water heater, electric motor, kitchen appliances etc.
2. AGMARK (Agricultural Marking) certifies Agricultural and Livestock products like cereals/essential oils, pulses, honey, butter etc.
3. FPO (Fruit Process Order) certifies the Fruit products like Juice, jams, sauce, canned fruits and vegetables, pickles etc.
4. FSSAI ( Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) responsible for protecting and promoting public health through regulation and supervision of food safety.

XII. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
The doctor advises an adolescent girl who is suffering from anaemia to include more of leafy vegetables and dates in her diet. Why so?
Answer:
Iron deficiency is the most common nutrient deficiency in adolescent girls. Insufficient iron can lead to anaemia. Leafy vegetables and dates are rich in iron and other minerals. So the doctor advises to include more of these in the diet.

Question 2.
Sanjana wants to buy a jam bottle in a grocery shop. What are the things she should observe on the label before purchasing it?
Answer:

1. Name of the product
2. Manufacturer’s details, Contents/Ingredients
3. Net Weight
4. Maximum Retail Price (MRP)
5. Date of Manufacture
6. Date of Expiry
7. Date of best before use

Activity

Question 1.
Let each of the student bring any food packet (jam, juice, pickle, bread, biscuit, etc). Note down the details like name of the product, manufacturer’s details, contents/ ingredients, net weight, Maximum Retail Price (MRP), date of manufacture, date of expiry/best before twelve months from the date of manufacture and standardized marks like ISI, AGMARK or FPO printed on the label for each of the items to create awareness.
Answer:

• Name of the product – Thenkuzhal.
• Manufacturer’s details – Sri Krishna Sweets. Handmade to provide authentic taste.
• Ingredients – Rice flour, Refined vegetable oil, Urud dhal, Butter, Iodized salt, Cumin, Asafoetida.
• Net weight – 500 gms.
• Maximum Retail Prize – (MRP) ? 100.
• Date of Manufacture – 09.04.2018.
• Date of Expiry – Best before 30 days from the date of manufacture.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Nutrition and Health Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. Carbohydrates are the chief source of …………………
2. …………… also known as Triglycerides are the Esters of free fatty acid chains and Glycerol.
3. ………………. are the constituents of teeth, bones, tissues, blood, muscle and nerve cells.
4. Vitamin Bl, B2, B3, B6, B12 and Vitamin C are ……………… soluble vitamins.
5. In ………………, the food materials are kept inside a cold room in a temperature range of 23°C to 30°C.
6. …………….. is declared as Global Iodine Deficiency Day.
7. ………………… regulates the nerve and muscle activity.
8. ……………. are the enzymes involved in the breakdown of fats in the small intestine during the process of digestion.
9. ……………….. is found in Honey, Sugarcane and fruits.
10. ……………… is stored in our liver and muscles.

Answer:

1. energy
2. Fats
3. Calcium
4. Water
5. Deep freezing
6. October 21st
7. Potassium
8. Lipase
9. Sucrose
10. Glycogen

II. Mention whether the following statements are True or False. If False give the correct statements.

1. Carbohydrates are inorganic compounds composed of Nitrogen, Sulphur and Potassium – False.
   Correct Statement: Carbohydrates are Organic compounds, composed of Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen.
2. Proteins are polymer chains made of Amino acids linked together by Peptide bonds. – True
3. Goitre is the swelling of the region below the neck, due to the enlargement of Thyroid gland, due to Calcium deficiency – False.
   Correct Statement: Goitre is the swelling of the region below the neck, due to the enlargement of Thyroid gland, due to Iodine deficiency.
4. Addition of oil in pickles prevents the contact of air with the pickle – True
5. The synthetic preservatives do not delay the microbial growth and do not keep the food safe for long duration – False.
   Correct Statement: The synthetic preservatives delay the microbial growth and keep the food safe for long duration.
6. Dried Neem leaves and turmeric are used to store food grains in our home to protect the grain from insects and Beetles – True
7. Food should be pure, nutritious and free from any adulteration for proper maintenance of human health – True

III. Answer shortly.

Question 1.
What is Malnutrition?
Answer:
Absence of certain nutrients in our daily diet over a long period of time leads to deficiency diseases. This condition is called Malnutrition.

Question 2.
Name any two Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM) diseases.
Answer:

1. Kwashiorkor.
2. Marasmus.

Question 3.
Define Vitaminosis. Give an example.
Answer:
Any disease caused by the presence of an excess of Vitamin is called as Vitaminosis.
Example. An excess of Vitamin A is called Hyper Vitaminosis A.

Question 4.
What is a balanced diet?
Answer:
A diet containing essential nutrients in right proportion for normal growth and development and to prevent Malnutrition is called Balanced diet.

Question 5.
What are the signs of the food spoilage?
Answer:
Change in the appearance of food, its colour, texture, odour and taste are some of the signs of food spoilage.

Question 6.
Why is food preserved?
Answer:

1. To increase the shelf life of food.
2. To retain the colour, texture, flavour and nutritive value.
3. To increase the food supply.
4. Decrease the wastage of food.

Question 7.
How does microbial contamination occur?
Answer:
Microbial contamination occurs due to the presence of pathogens like Escherichia coli, Salmonella in fruits, vegetables, and ready-to-eat meat and poultry products.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Potassium	Dermatitis
Vitamin B6	Pellagra
Omega – 3	A vital solvent
Vitamin B3	Muscular fatigue
Water	Essential fatty acid

Answer:

1. (d) Muscular fatigue
2. (a) Dermatitis
3. (e) Essential fatty acid
4. (b) Pellagra
5. (c) a Vital solvent

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What is food spoilage? What are the factors responsible for food spoilage?
Answer:
Food spoilage is an undesirable change in the food’s normal state and is not suitable for eating is called food spoilage. There are two factors responsible for food spoilage.

1. Internal Factors: Internal factors include enzymatic activities and moisture content of the food.
2. External Factors: External factors like adulterants in food, lack of storage facilities, Unhygienic cooking area, microorganisms etc are responsible for food spoilage.

Question 2.
Explain the types of adulterants.
Answer:

There are three types of Adulterants. They are as follows.

1. Natural Adulterants:
   Natural toxic substances occur in poisonous Mushrooms, Prussic acid in seeds of apples, cherry etc, marine toxins, fish oil poisoning etc, Pollutants in air, water and land are also Natural pollutants.
2. Unintentional Adulterants:
   Some adulterants are added unknowingly by Pesticide residues, Droppings of Rodents, Insects, rodent bites and larva in food during its storage.
3. Intentional Adulterants:
   • Addition of preservatives like Vinegar, Citric acid, Sodium bicarbonate, Hydrogen peroxide in milk, food flavors, Artificial sweeteners etc,
   • Addition of chemicals like Calcium Carbide to ripen the bananas and Mangoes.
   • Food colour like Metallic Lead is used to give colours for vegetables like Bitter Gourd, Peas etc.
   • Edible synthetic wax like Shellac or Camauba wax is coated on fruits like Apple and pear.

Question 3.
Explain some simple techniques used to detect adulterants at home.
Answer:

1. Milk:
   Place a drop of milk on a polished surface. Pure milk flows slowly, leaving a trail behind. Milk with water will flow fast, without leaving a trail.
2. Honey:
   Dip a cotton wick in Honey and light it with a match stick. Pure Honey bums, but adulterated honey gives a cracking sound.
3. Sugar:
   Dissolve sugar. If chalk powder is added as an adulterant, it will settle down.
4. Coffee Powder:
   Sprinkle a few pinches of Coffee powder in a glass of water. Coffee powder floats. If it is adulterated with Tamarind powder, it settles down.
5. Food Grains:
   Foodgrains are mixed with stones, sand grit, marble, etc. They are removed by Sorting, handpicking, and washing.

You can Download On Killing a Tree Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Poem Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 3 On Killing a Tree

On Killing a Tree Warm Up:

On Killing A Tree Poem Questions And Answers Pdf Question 1.
What is a tree ?
Answer:
A tree is a tall plant that has a wooden trunk with branches, leaves, flowers and fruits.

On Killing A Tree Book Back Answers Question 2.
Why trees are important for our survival ?
Answer:
Trees are important for our survival because it is the primary source of oxygen we breathe. Apart from that, various parts of a tree are used in making things that we use in our day-to-day lives.

On Killing A Tree Question Answers Question 3.
How long does it take a tree to grow to its full size?
Answer:
It takes around seven to ten years and more for a tree to attain its full size.

On Killing A Tree Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
How much time does it take to cut down a tree?
Answer:
With modem equipments a tree can be cut down within an hour.

On Killing a Tree Textual Questions

A. Memorize the first two stanzas of the poem.

B. Read the following lines from the poem and answer the questions in a sentence or two.

1. It takes much time to kill a tree,
Not a simple jab of the knife
Will do it.

On Killing A Tree Questions And Answers Question (i).
Can a ‘simple jab of the knife’ kill a tree?
Answer:
No.

9th English On Killing A Tree Question (ii).
Why does it take much time to kill a tree?
Answer:
It takes much time to kill a tree as it has grown strong all through the years.

2. It has grown
Slowly consuming the earth,
Rising out of it, feeding
Upon its crust, absorbing

On Killing A Tree Poem 9th Standard Question (i).
How has the tree grown?
Answer:
The tree has grown Slowly consuming the earth, rising out of it, feeding upon its crust.

9th English Poem On Killing A Tree Question (ii).
What does the tree feed from the crust?
Answer:
The tree feeds sunlight, air, water from the crust.

3. And out of its leprous hide
Sprouting leaves.

9th Standard English On Killing A Tree Question (i).
What does the phrase ‘leprous hide’ mean?
Answer:
‘Leprous hide’ means the discolored bark of the tree.

On Killing A Tree Poem Book Back Answers Question (ii).
What comes out of the leprous hide?
Answer:
Sprouting leaves come out of the leprous hide.

4. The bleeding bark will heal
And from close to the ground
Will rise curled green twigs,
Miniature boughs

On Killing A Tree Question Answer Question (i).
What will happen to the bleeding bark?
Answer:
The bleeding bark will heal.

9th English Memory Poem On Killing A Tree Question (ii).
What will rise from close to the ground?
Answer:
Curled green twigs and miniature boughs will rise from close to the ground.

5. The root is to be pulled out
One of the anchoring earth;

9th On Killing A Tree Poem Question (i).
Why should the root be pulled out?
Answer:
The root should be pulled out to kill the tree.

9th Standard On Killing A Tree Poem Question (ii).
What does ‘anchoring earth’ mean?
Answer:
Anchoring earth means that the roots fixed to the earth strongly like an anchor.

Additional Questions

1. “ Which if unchecked will expand again To former size”

On Killing A Tree Poem Question (i).
What does ‘which’ refer to? ,
Answer:
Which refers to the bleeding bark.

2. “The root is to be pulled out-One of the anchoring earth”

On Killing A Tree Poem In Tamil Question (i).
What has to be pulled out?
Answer:
The root has to be pulled out.

On Killing A Tree Poem Questions And Answers Question (ii).
What is anchoring earth?
The root is anchoring earth.

3. “Or pulled out entirely,
Out from the earth-cave”

On Killing A Tree Solutions Question (i).
From where should the root be pulled out?
Answer:
The root should be out of the earth-cave.

9th Std English Poem On Killing A Tree Question (ii).
What is an earth-cave?
Answer:
Earth-cave is the surface of the earth where the root is hidden.

4. “The source, white and wet.”

Question (i).
What is the source referred to?
Answer:
The source is referred as ‘white and wet’.

Question (ii).
What does ‘white and wet’ indicate?
Answer:
White and wet indicates life.

5. “Of scorching and choking In sun and air”

Question (i).
How is the source scorched and choked?
Answer:
The source is scorched and choked in sun and air.

Question (ii).
Why is it scorched and choked?
It is scorched and choked to kill.

6. “And then it is done”

Question (i).
Explain ‘it is done’.
Answer:
It is done implies that the tree is dead and that there is no chance of regrowth since its root has been completely pulled out.

C. Based on the understanding of the poem, write down the summary of the poem by filling in the blanks.

The poet explains the process of ______(1)______. A lot of work has to be done in order to ______(2)______ completely. It cannot be accomplished by merely cutting it with ______(3)_____ . The tree has grown strong with the help of ______(4)______for a countless years. Even the ______(5)______ of the tree gives rise to______(6)______. The______(7)______ sprouts new twigs and leaves. In a short period, they grow into a new tree. So, to ______(8)______ completely, one should take out its roots completely from the soil. Then they should be exposed to ______(9)______. Only then the tree will be completely killed.
Answers:

1. killing a tree
2. root it out
3. a knife
4. sunlight, water and nutrients of the soil
5. bark
6. leaves
7. boughs
8. kill it
9. sunlight and heat

D. Based on the understanding of the poem, answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

Question 1.
What is the poem about?
Answer:
The poem is about killing a tree.

Question 2.
What are the lessons to be learnt from the poem?
Answer:
The poet teaches us about nature and the sturdiness and longevity of the tree. To kill the tree or anything else, the heart of the thing has to be destroyed.

Question 3.
What are the life sources needed for a tree to grow?
Answer:
Soil, Water, Oxygen and Sunlight.

Question 4.
What does the poet mean by ‘bleeding bark’?
Answer:
The cut in the bark oozes sap. The poet compares the fluid to blood.

Question 5.
Why the poet says ‘No’ in the beginning of the third stanza?
Answer:
He wants to emphasize that it is not so easy to kill a tree.

Question 6.
How should the root be pulled out?
Answer:
The root must be roped, tied, pulled out, snapped out, and exposed.

Question 7.
What is hidden inside the earth for years?
Answer:
Life and legacy is hidden inside the earth.

Question 8.
What finally happens to the tree in this poem?
Answer:
The tree is killed.

E. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
How well does the post bring out the pain of the tree?
Answer:
Give Patel spins a very visual tale of pain where the reader can almost feel the hacks made at a tree. The ‘bleeding bark’ is the visual representation of the pain, Patel envisions the tree going through. The tone of the poem is sarcastic and filled with caustic remarks. The poet, Gieve Patel, takes this ironic stance to propose his actual view on cutting down trees, which is according to him, not short of committing an act of murder. The cutting down of trees is equated with death. Every time Patel talks of cutting down a tree, he portrays it as killing it. The death the poet incorporates in this poem is both natural and spiritual.

Question 2.
‘A tree doesn’t grow in a day.’ Explain it with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Give Patel tells us that killing a tree is not easy. It is very time-consuming. Ajab of a knife is not enough. A tree grows straight out the earth, nourishing itself on the nutrients found in the earth, along with years of sunlight, water, and air. And even though the bark looks irregular and scaly, leaves and branches sprout of it. The lines

“It has grown
Slowly consuming the earth,
Rising out of it, feeding
Upon its crust, absorbing
Years of sunlight, air, water”

justify the longevity of the tree.

Question 3.
Why do you think the poet describes the act of cutting a tree? What effect does it have on you as a reader?
Answer:
The poet wants to highlight the harmful effects of deforestation in a sarcastic style. Therefore, Deforestation is another major theme of this poem. Deforestation has become a problem, especially in the modem times, where forests are cleared to make roads, or for furniture or for fossil fuel. It is incredibly harmful to the ecosystem and the imminent danger is felt throughout the poem. I feel we should grow more trees.

F. Complete the table by identifying lines, against the poetic devices from the poem.

Listening:

G. Listen to the passage about Nammazhwar, an environmental crusader from Tamil Nadu. As you listen, answer the following questions. The listening act can be repeated if required. (For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.in)
Nammazhwar was born in 1938 in Elangadu, Thanjavur District, and he graduated from Annamalai University with a B.Sc. degree in Agriculture. In 1963, he began working for the Agricultural Regional Research Station, a government organisation in Kovilpatti, as a scientist, conducting trials on spacing and use of various chemical fertilizers in cotton and millet crops. During his tenure there, the government had conducted various experiments in rain-fed land, he left the institute in 1969. should rely only minimally on external inputs.

All inputs using expensive inputs like hybrid seeds, chemical fertilizers and chemical pesticides which Nammazhwar considered futile as the farmers were resource poor. Based on his experience, he felt very-strongly that it was imperative to totally reorient the research work being undertaken. But his peers at the institute paid little attention to his advice. Fmstrated, he left the institute in 1969. For the next 10 years, he was an agronomist for Island of Peace, an organisation founded by the Nobel Laureate Dominique Pire. His focus was on improving the standard of living through agricultural development in the Kalakad block of Tirunelveli District, Tamil Nadu.

It was at this time that he realised that to get optimal results in farming, farmers should rely only minimally on external inputs. All inputs should come from within the farm. So called waste should be recycled and used as input. This revelation was a turning point in his life. He completely lost trust in conventional farming practices and began experimenting with sustainable agricultural methods. Vegetables have a short lifespan compared to fruit crops.

By making use of modem technologies and inputs, their lifespan can perhaps be extended to say about a year. But if there is a simple method of growing vegetables throughout the year, without any costly gadgets, modem technologies, or costly inputs, it is definitely worth a try for the farmers. He advocated the ‘Bread sandwich’ method. In this method once the soil is made ready and the suggested practices followed, one need not work on the soil for the second time. They can go on sowing and reaping, all through the year.

He always said it was no use trying to teach a farmer. Instead, one should make the farmer understand the issue. He never stopped learning from them himself and had become a vast repository of farming practices and knowledge that he shared with whoever was interested. He never pushed ideas down anyone’s throat. Each farm is unique according to the farmers’ understanding and the conditions, Nammazhwar would say. He would keep experimenting with what he learned from the farmers, refi ned this knowledge and then gave it back to them.

He often said “Farming is not a way of producing crops to make money. It is a way of living, and a way of living that is possible even in the 21st century.” He trained hundreds of farm youths as trainers and helped any farmers to be master trainers-all this without the support of the government.

Question 1.
Who is Nammazhwar? What is his contribution to farmers and farming?
Answer:
Nammazhwar was an agricultural scientist. He conducted trials on spacing and use of various fertilizers in cotton and millet crops.

Question 2.
In 1963 he worked for the ______ as _______.
Answer:
Agricultural Regional Research Station in Kovilpatti as a scientist.

Question 3.
What was the turning point in the life of Nammazhwar?
Answer:
During his period as agronomist, he realised that farmers should rely minimally on external inputs. All inputs should come from within the farm. Waste should be recycled and used as input. This revelation was a turning point in his life.

Question 4.
How is the “Bread sandwich method” a boon to the farmers?
Answer:
In this method, once the soil is made ready and the suggested practices followed,
one need not work for the second time. They can go on sowing and reaping all through the year.

Question 5.
Pick out ideas from the passage to show that he learnt first and then shared with farmers.
Answer:
He said that it was no use trying to teach a farmer. He never stopped learning from them and had become a vast repository of farming practices and knowledge that he shared with whoever was interested.

Question 6.
Explain in your own words the meaning of “Farming __________ even in the 21st Century”.
Answer:
Farming is not only for making money. It is necessary to do farming to live even in the 21st century.

Question 7.
Give the synonyms of ‘rely’ and ‘sustainable’.
Answer:
Rely – depend
Sustainable – maintainable

Question 8.
“He never pushed ideas down anyone’s throat” means
(a) favoured
(b) compelled
(c) opposed
Answer:
(b) compelled

Writing:

H. Based on the iding of the poem, complete the web chart given below.

Answer:

1. 1. Killing a tree is killing a life
   2. Trees too feel the pain and bleed
   3. Deforestation is the result of man’s greed

I. Look at the two trees. One is a green flourishing tree and the other, a brown withering tree.

The class will now be divided into two groups. Group A will list down the agents that support a tree’s growth. Group B will list down those that prevent it. Once the groups are ready with their lists, a few representatives from each group will write down the lists on the blackboard.

Taking clues from the lists on the board, complete the following chart.

Answers:

J. Work in par Create three slogans on ‘Saving Trees’

Use catchy, meaningful phrases. Do not write complete sentences. Ensure that the words at the end rhyme. Read this example: Save a Tree
Get Oxygen for free
Answers:
1. If You Don’t Care
Trees Might Become Rare

2. Save Trees, Save Nature
Give Your Kids a Better Future

3. Trees Give Good Look
Don’t Destroy Them from Earth Book

Speaking:

K. Deliver a short speech for about five minutes on the following.

Question 1.
Imagine what will happen if all the trees in the earth disappear. Discuss with your friends and share it with your classmates.
Answer:
Life will not exist on Earth if trees disappear. Trees produce most of the oxygen that humans and wildlife need to live. Trees absorb Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen using the process of photosynthesis. Lack of rain will be a major concern. If there is no rain, there will be no forests. Forests act as giant air filters in the world. They also prevent soil erosion. They break the force of wind and rain on soil helping their roots bind the soil. The decayed, leaves absorbed by the earth enrich the soil.

Question 2.
Think of a situation where all the trees can speak. What will they talk about?
Answer:
If trees talk they will complain to one another about their bitter enemy, man. They will express regret about the countless murders of their friends and relatives. They may even feel angry against the abuse they are faced with every day and the fear they have to survive each day due to road development projects and modem lifestyle. They will discuss mockingly, mankind’s thoughtlessness in cutting them down for more and more houses. I think they will express their sadness. They will also express their anger and their disappointment.

The trees will surely discuss about their forgiving friends and relatives and their sacrificial nature. Trees will cry and express grief when they see their fellow friends being cut down. Surely, they will weep. Perhaps that is what happens during autumn. Perhaps when the trees shed their leaves, they are weeping for all that they have lost during illegal felling and plundering.

They will discuss with one another how people are destroyers at heart. If trees speak, if they move, they will riot and campaign against the atrocities done to them. Broken shrieks of despair and fury will erupt from their throats. They will say that they inhabited the land even before the first man was created. They will create an awareness about the pride and greed which blind human-beings.

They will express and regret about the green monsters dwelling in a man’s brain, demanding for more, more, more. Despite all that a human does the trees will express compassion. Trees speak about their warmth and how they give us shade when human beings feel the heat and weary.

Let us laugh together:

1. How do trees access the internet?
They simply login.

2. What will the tree do, if the banks are closed?
It will start its own branch.

3. What type of tree fits in your hand?
A palm tree.

On Killing a Tree by Gieve Patel About The Poet:

Dr. Gieve Patel is one of the prominent Indian poets. His famous works include Evening, Forensic Medicine, and From Bombay Central. He has also penned three plays. He belongs to the group of writers who have subscribed themselves to the ‘Green Movement’ involving in an effort to protect the environment. His poems address deep concerns for nature and expose man’s cruelty to it. He has been conducting a poetry workshop in Rishi Valley School for more than a decade. This poem is taken from his poetry collection ‘Poems’ published in 1966.

On Killing a Tree Summary:

The poet observes how much time is required to kill a tree. A simple cut with a knife cannot kill a huge tree. A tree has roots deep down the earth, absorbing nutrients and using the sunlight, water and air around for years, sprouting out leaves from it’s disfigured bark. Although the tree is hacked and chopped, it isn’t enough for killing a tree. The tree can withstand the pain. These injuries will heal and once again the new green twig will rise from the ground which will grow to bigger branches.

If this growth is unchecked, the tree will regain its original size. So in order to kill a tree, the roots which are anchored inside the ground has to be pulled out. To pull out the roots, it has to be roped and forced out of the earth with all the might. This leads to the exposure of the most sensitive region of the tree, which had been hidden and supporting the tree since its birth. Then when the roots are exposed to sunlight and air, it dies slowly by browning, hardening, twisting and withering. Only then the tree is said to have perished.

On Killing a Tree Glossary:

Textual:
crust – the brown, hard outer portion or surface
jab – to poke, or thrust abruptly or sharply with a short, quick blow
hide – the strong thick outer skin
leprous – covered with scales
miniature – very small

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Forms of Government and Democracy

Forms of Government and Democracy Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Forms Of Government And Democracy Class 9 Question 1.
A system of government in which one person reigns supreme, usually a king or queen, is called ……..
(a) autocracy
(b) monarchy
(c) democracy
(d) republic
Answer:
(b) monarchy

Mention The Forms Of Democracy Class 9 Question 2.
A system of government by one person with absolute power.
(a) Aristocracy
(b) Theocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Autocracy
Answer:
(d) Autocracy

Forms Of Government And Democracy Book Back Answers Question 3.
When a country is governed by a few privileged, the form of government is called ……
(a) Aristocracy
(b) Parliamentary
(c) Democracy
(d) Republic
Answer:
(a) Aristocracy

9th Social Civics Guide Question 4.
Former Soviet Union is an example for ……
(a) aristocracy
(b) theocracy
(c) oligarchy
(d) republic
Answer:
(c) oligarchy

Forms Of Government Class 9 Question 5.
Select the odd one ……
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) Vatican
Answer:
(d) Vatican

9th Social Guide Civics Question 6.
Abraham Lincoln was the President of the
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA

Forms Of Government And Democracy Question 7.
Kudavolai system was followed by ……….
(a) Gheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Cholas
(d) Kalabhras
Answer:
(c) Cholas

Give Abraham Lincoln’s Definition For Democracy Question 8.
Direct Democracy in olden times existed ………
(a) In the republics of ancient India
(b) Among the USA
(c) In the city-state of ancient Athens
(d) Among the UK
Answer:
(c) In the city-state of ancient Athens

9th Social Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
In which country has democracy originated? .
(a) India
(b) Switzerland
(c) USA
(d) Athens
Answer:
(d) Athens

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Book Solutions Question 10.
From which language was the term “Democracy” derived?
(a) Greek
(b) Latin
(c) Persian
(d) Arabic
Answer:
(a) Greek

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 11.
In democracy the final authority rests with ………
(a) The Parliament
(b) The People
(c) The council of Ministers
(d) The President
Answer:
(b) The People

Question 12.
Which one of the country has Presidential form of government?
(a) India
(b) Britain
(c) Canada
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Question 13.
The largest democratic country in the world is ……..
(a) Canada
(b) India
(c) USA
(d) China
Answer:
(b) India

Question 14.
Assertion (A): Direct democracy is practised in Switzerland.
Reason (R): People directly participates in decision making.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 15.
Assertion (A): India has parliamentary form of democracy.
Reason (R): Indian parliament comprises two houses.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 16.
The meaning of Franchise is ………
(a) Right to elect
(b) Right to vote for the poor
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to vote for the rich
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Question 17.
The grant of universal franchise creates ………….
(a) Social equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Political equality
(d) Legal equality
Answer:
(c) Political equality

Question 18.
Prime Minister of India is appointed by …….
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker
(d) President
Answer:
(d) President

Question 19.
The President of India can nominate ……….
(a) 12 members to Lok Sabha
(b) 2 members of Rajya Sabha
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
(d) 14 members of Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha

Question 20.
The First general elections after independence in India were held in …………
(a) 1948
(b) 1952
(c) 1957
(d) 1947
Answer:
(b) 1952

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Constitution of India was finally adopted on ………
2. The two types of democracy are …….. and ……….
3. An example for direct democracy is ………
4. India has a …….. form of democracy.
5. …….. was the first Prime Minister of independent India.
6. The first general elections were held in British India in the year …….
7. The Parliament House in India was designed by …… and ……….
Answers:
1. 26th November 1949
2. Direct and Indirect
3. Switzerland
4. Parliamentary
5. Jawaharlal Nehru
6. 1920
7. Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Give Abraham Lincoln’s definition for democracy.
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln defines democracy as a government of the people, by the people and for the people.

Question 2.
Mention the forms of democracy.
Answer:

Question 3.
Distinguish between direct and indirect democracy.
Answer:

Direct democracy	Indirect democracy
When the people themselves directly express their will on public affairs, the type of government is called pure or direct democracy. e.g., Ancient Greek city-states, Switzerland	When the people express their will on public affairs, through their elected representatives, the type of government is called indirect or representative democracy. e.g., The prevailing system of democracy in India, USA and UK

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are the challenges to democracy? Explain.
Answer:
Democracy is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world. It has not faced a serious challenge or a rival so far. In the last hundred years, there has been an expansion of democracy all over the world. The various aspects of democracy and its challenges are:

1. Illiteracy
2. Poverty
3. Gender discrimination
4. Regionalism
5. Casteism, communalism and religious fundamentalism
6. Corruption
7. Criminalisation of politics.
8. Political violence

Question 2.
Explain the conditions necessary for the success of democracy in India.
Answer:

1. Empowerment of the poor and illiterates to enjoy the goodness of democracy.
2. Willingness among the elected people not to misuse their powerful position and public wealth.
3. Eradication of social evils and dangers from which democracy suffers.
4. An impartial and efficient press to form public opinion.
5. Presence of strong public opinion.
6. Feeling of tolerance and communal harmony among the people.
7. Awareness among the people of the fundamental rights that they are entitled to enjoy.
8. Conscious check and vigilance on the working of the elected representatives.
9. Powerful and responsible opposition.

Question 3.
What is your opinion about democracy in India?
Answer:
India has a parliamentary form of democracy. The Indian Parliament comprises the elected representatives of people and makes the laws for the Country. The participation of people in the decision making and the consent of citizens are the two important elements of the parliamentary form of government in India.

India is the largest democratic country in the world. Democracy in India works on five basic principles. These are sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic.

Every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than 18 years of age can exercise their right to vote in India, based on universal adult suffrage. There is no discrimination based on a person’s caste, creed, religion, region, gender and education when it comes to providing the right to vote.

VI. Project and Activity.

Question 1.
Discuss in the class what is universal adult franchise? Why is it important?
Answer:

1. The teacher arranges a discussion session.
2. The students will be divided into two groups to discuss on the above content.

Universal Adult Franchise: The Article 326 of the Indian Constitution grants universal adult suffrage, according to which every adult citizen is entitled to cast his/her vote in all state elections unless that citizen is convicted of certain criminal offences (or) deemed unsound of mind.

Why is it important?

1. It has nothing to do with economic growth, or staying ahead, of the competition. Under this system a government is elected that is accountable to the people it governs.
2. Because every vote counts, issues in a society receive their appropriate weight in terms of importance and urgency. ,

Question 2.
“Democracy is the power of majority which respects minority.” Discuss.
Answer:

1. Democracy requires, minority rights equally as it does majority rule.
2. Indeed, as democracy is understood today the minority’s rights must be protected no matter how alienated a minority is from the majority society. Otherwise the minority rights lose their meaning.

Question 3.
Conduct a mock election in your class.
Answer:
Election activities in the class room

1. Campaigning
2. Voting Booth
3. Voter Registration form
4. Campaign posters
5. Cast your Ballot
6. Reward your voters
7. Tally up the votes
8. Graph the votes.

• Before beginning, think of issues, students enjoy voting on, make up copies of a short voter registration form for each student.
• Have a ballot box.
• After the election issue is chosen you will need to make up a ballot for each student.

Question 4.
A group discussion on the merits and demerits of democracy of India in the classroom.
Answer:
Merits and Demerits of Democracy:
Merits

1. Responsible and accountable government.
2. Equality and fraternity.
3. Sense of responsibility among common people.
4. Local self-government.
5. Development and prosperity for all.
6. Popular sovereignty.
7. Sense of cooperation and fraternal feeling

Demerits

1. Indirect or representative nature of democracy.
2. Lack of interest in democratic process and hence lower turnout in elections.
3. Instability in governance due to fractured mandate.
4. Delay in decision – making process.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Will you have the right to equality under dictatorship? What would be the attitude regarding public opinion in such a country?
Answer:
No; well, a dictatorship is when a country is run by a minority of people and the citizens of that country don’t have a choice of who runs it. If one person has to make all the decisions for a country, they might use their power badly because they have too much responsibility.

Question 2.
How does democracy lead to a peaceful and a harmonious life among the citizens? Explain.
Answer:
Democracy safeguards the fundamental rights which are defined as basic human freedoms which every Indian citizen has the right to enjoy for a proper and harmonious development of personality.

The students can refer and download from the Internet.

VIII. Life Skills

Select a group of countries, Research each country and tell what type of government it has: Aristoracy, Monarchy, Autocracy, Oligarchy, Theocracy, Democracy, Republic. Then, provide characteristics of this country that helped you determine the type of government.

Country name	Type of Government	Characterstics of the country’s government

The teacher can assign this as a Project & Group Activity for the students.

Forms of Government and Democracy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A system of government by one person with absolute power is ……
(a) Autocracy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Oligarchy
Answer:
(a) Autocracy

Question 2.
Democracy as a government of the people, by the people and for the people defined by ……..
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Abraham Lincoln
(d) Herbert Baker
Answer:
(c) Abraham Lincoln

Question 3.
Democracy began ………. years ago.
(a) 2000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 3200
Answer:
(b) 2500

Question 4.
Kudavolai system was a very notable and unique feature of the village administration of …….
(a) Cheras
(b) Cholas
(c) Pandyas
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(b) Cholas

Question 5.
This is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world.
(a) Oligarchy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Theocracy
(d) Democracy
Answer:
(d) Democracy

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The term ‘democracy’ is derived from two Greek words demos meaning people and cratia meaning power.
Reason (R): Literally democracy means “the power of the people”.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (A) explains (R)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 7.
Assertion (A): India has a parliamentary form of democracy.
Reason (R): The Indian Parliament comprises the elected representatives of people.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (A) explains (R)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 8.
Indian citizen above years of age can exercise the right to vote in India.
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
Answer:
(c) 18

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The modern world prefers ……….
2. The democratic institutions existed in India as early as the …….. period.
3. An example for Indirect Democracy is ……….
4. India has a …….. government with elected representatives at the federal, state and local
levels.
5. The two houses of our Parliament are ………. and ………
6. A group of people living in the same place of having particular characteristics in common is ………
Answers:
1. Democracy
2. Vedic
3. India
4. Democracy Quasi Federal
5. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
6. Community

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
What do you mean by “Republic”?
Answer:
A state in which supreme power is held by the people and their elected representatives and which has an elected (or) nominated President rather than a Monarch. e.g., India, Australia.

Question 2.
What is Democracy?
Answer:

1. Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.
2. Only leaders elected by people should rule the country.
3. People have freedom to express views, freedom to organise and freedom to protest.

Question 3.
Mention the salient features of Democracy.
Answer:

1. Elected representatives of people and final decision-making power to the representatives.
2. Free and fair elections.
3. Universal adult franchise with each vote having equal value.
4. Fundamental rights and protection of individual freedom.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Though democracy in India has been appreciated worldwide for its working there is still a lot of scope for improvement – Discuss.
Answer:
Though democracy in India has been appreciated worldwide for its working, there is still a lot of scope for improvement. The above-mentioned steps must be taken to ensure smooth functioning of democracy in the country.

Indian democracy can be successful and vibrant only when its citizens imbibe and reflect in their behavior the basic democratic values like equality, freedom, social justice, accountability and respect for all. Their mindset, thinking and behavior are expected to be in tune with the essential conditions of democracy. They have to appreciate the opportunities for their desired roles like participation, making the system accountable, fulfilling obligations, and playing proactive roles to actualize the goals of democracy.