Category: Class 9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Real Numbers Ex 2.6

Ex 2.6 Class 9 Question 1.
Simplify the following using addition and subtraction properties of surds:
(i) 5\(\sqrt { 3 }\) + 18\(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 2\(\sqrt{3}\)
(ii) 4\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 2 ]{ 5 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\)
(iii) 3\(\sqrt { 75 }\) + 5\(\sqrt { 48 }\) – \(\sqrt { 243 }\)
(iv) 5\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 40 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 625 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 320 }\)
Solution:
(i) 5\(\sqrt { 3 }\) + 18\(\sqrt { 3 }\) – 2\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = (5 + 18 – 2)\(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 21\(\sqrt { 3 }\)
(ii) 4\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 2 ]{ 5 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) = (4 + 2 – 3)\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\) = 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 5 }\)
(iii) 3\(\sqrt { 75 }\) + 5\(\sqrt { 48 }\) – \(\sqrt { 243 }\)

(iv) 5\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 40 }\) + 2\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 625 }\) – 3\(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 320 }\)

2.6 9th Class Math Question 2.
Simplify the following using multiplication and division properties of surds :
(i) \(\sqrt{3} \times \sqrt{5} \times \sqrt{2}\)
(ii) \(\sqrt { 35 }\) ÷ \(\sqrt { 7 }\)
(iii) \( \sqrt[3]{27} \times \sqrt[3]{8} \times \sqrt[3]{125}\)
(iv) (7\(\sqrt { a }\) – 5\(\sqrt { b }\))(7\(\sqrt { a }\) + 5\(\sqrt { b }\))
(v) \([\sqrt{\frac{225}{729}}-\sqrt{\frac{25}{144}}] \div \sqrt{\frac{16}{81}}\)
Solution:

Maths Class 9 Exercise 2.6 Solutions Question 3.
If \(\sqrt { 7 }\) =1.414, \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.732, \(\sqrt { 5 }\) = 2.236, \(\sqrt { 10 }\) = 3.162, then find the values of the following correct to 3 places of decimals.
(i) \(\sqrt{40}-\sqrt{20}\)
(ii) \(\sqrt{300}+\sqrt{90}-\sqrt{8}\)
Solution:

9th Class Maths Exercise 2.6 Solution Question 4.
Arrange surds in descending order :
(i) \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\)
(ii) \(\sqrt[2]{\sqrt[3]{5}}, \sqrt[3]{\sqrt[4]{7}}, \sqrt{\sqrt{3}}\)
Solution:
(i) \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\)
5^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)}
∴ The order of the surds \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\) are 3, 9, 6.
4^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\)}
3^{\(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)} l.c.m of 3, 9, 6 is 18

∴ The descending order of \(\sqrt[3]{5}, \sqrt[9]{4}, \sqrt[6]{3}\) is \((15625)^{\frac{1}{18}}>(27)^ {\frac{1}{18}} >16^{\frac{1}{18}} \text { i.e. } \sqrt[3]{5}>\sqrt[6]{3}>\sqrt[9]{4}\)

(ii) \(\sqrt[2]{\sqrt[3]{5}}, \sqrt[3]{\sqrt[4]{7}}, \sqrt{\sqrt{3}}\)
The order of the surds \(\sqrt[2]{\sqrt[3]{5}}, \sqrt[3]{\sqrt[4]{7}}, \sqrt{\sqrt{3}}\) are 6, 12, 4
l.c.m of 6, 12, 4 is 12

Class 9 Maths Ex 2.6 Solution Question 5.
Can you get a pure surd when you find
(i) the sum of two surds
(ii) the difference of two surds
(iii) the product of two surds
(iv) the quotient of two surds
Justify each answer with an example.
Solution:

Exercise 2.6 Class 9 Maths Question 6.
Can you get a rational number when you compute
(i) the sum of two surds
(ii) the difference of two surds
(iii) the product of two surds
(iv) the quotient of two surds
Justify each answer with an example.
Solution:
(i) Yes (5 – \(\sqrt{3}\)) + (5 + \(\sqrt{3}\)) = 10, a rational number
(ii) Yes \((5+\sqrt[3]{7})-(-6+\sqrt[3]{7})=11\), a rational number
(iii) Yes (5 + \(\sqrt{3}\) ) (5 – \(\sqrt{3}\) ) = 25 – 3 = 22, a rational number
(iv) Yes \(\frac{5 \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}=5\) ,a rational number

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Real Numbers Ex 2.1

9th Maths Exercise 2.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Which arrow best shows the position of \(\frac { 11 }{ 3 }\) on the number line?

Solution:
\(\frac { 11 }{ 3 }\) = 3.666….. = 3.7 (nearly)
∴ D arrow best shows the position of \(\frac { 11 }{ 3 }\) on the number line.

9th Maths Real Numbers Exercise 2.1 Question 2.
Find any three rational numbers between \(\frac { -7 }{ 11 }\) and \(\frac { 2 }{ 11 }\).
Solution:
Three rational numbers between \(\frac { -7 }{ 11 }\) and \(\frac { 2 }{ 11 }\) are \(\frac { -6 }{ 11 }\), \(\frac { -5 }{ 11 }\), \(\frac { -4 }{ 11 }\), ……, \(\frac { -1 }{ 11 }\)

9th Maths Exercise 2.1 Question 3.
Find any five rational numbers between
(i) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) and \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)
(ii) 0.1 and 0.11
(iii) -1 and -2
Solution:
(i) a = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\), b = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)
Let q₁, q₂, q₃, q₄ and q₅ be five rational numbers, q₁ = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(a + b)

(ii) The rational numbers between 0.1 and 0.11 are 0.101, 0.102, 0.103, …..0.109.
(iii) -1 and -2
Let q₁, q₂, q₃, q₄ and q₅ be five rational numbers.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.2

9th Maths Exercise 6.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Verify the following equalities:
(i) sin² 60° + cos² 60° = 1
(ii) 1 + tan² 30° = sec² 30°
(iii) cos 90° = 1 – 2 sin² 45° = 2 cos² 45° – 1
(iv) sin 30° cos 60° + cos 30° sin 60° = sin 90

Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 6.2 Question 2.
Find the value of the following:

Solution:

9th Maths Trigonometry Exercise 6.2 Question 3.
Verify cos 3A = 4 cos³A – 3 cos A, when A = 30°
Solution:
L.H.S = cos 3A = cos 3(30°) = cos 90° = 0
R.H.S = 4 cos³A – 3 cos A = 4 cos³30° – cos 30°

(1) = (2). Hence it is verified.

9th Maths 6.2 Question 4.
Find the value of 8 sin 2x cos 4x sin 6x, when x = 15°
Solution:
8 sin 2(15°).cos 4(15°).sin 6(15°)

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.8

9th Maths Exercise 3.8 Question 1.
Factorise each of the following polynomials using synthetic division:
(i) x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24
(ii) 2x³ – 3x² – 3x + 2
(iii) -7x + 3 + 4x³
(iv) x³ + x² – 14x – 24
(v) x³ – 7x + 6
(vi) x³ – 10x² – x + 10
Solution:
(i) x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24
Let p(x) = x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24
Sum of all the co-efficients = 1 – 3 – 10 + 24 = 25 – 13 = 12 ≠ 0
Hence (x – 1) is not a factor.
Sum of co-efficient of even powers with constant = -3 + 24 = 21
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers = 1 – 10 = – 9
21 ≠ -9
Hence (x + 1) is not a factor.
p (2) = 2³ – 3 (2²) – 10 × 2 + 24 = 8 – 12 – 20 + 24
= 32 – 32 = 0 ∴ (x – 2) is a factor.
Now we use synthetic division to find other factor

Thqs (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 4) are the factors.
∴ x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24 = (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 4)

(ii) 2x² – 3x² – 3x + 2
Let p (x) = 2x³ – 3x² – 3x + 2
Sum of all the co-efficients are
2 – 3 – 3 + 2 = 4 – 6 = -2 ≠ 0
∴ (x – 1) is not a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = -3 + 2 = – 1
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of x = 2- 3= -1
(-1) = (-1)
∴ (x + 1) is a factor
Let us find the other factors using synthetic division

Quotient is 2x² – 5x + 2 = 2x – 4x – x + 2 = 2x (x – 2) – 1 (x – 2)
= (x – 2) (2x – 1)
∴ 2x³ – 3x² – 3x + 2 = (x + 1) (x – 2) (2x – 1)

(iii) -7x + 3 + 4x³
Let p(x) = 4x³ + 0x² – 7x + 3
Sum of the co-efficients are = 4 + 0 – 7 + 3
= 7 – 7 = 0
∴ (x- 1) is a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = 0 + 3 = 3
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of x with constant = 4 – 7 = -3
-3 ≠ -3
∴ (x + 1) is not a factor
Using synthetic division, let us find the other factors.


Quotient is 4x² + 4x – 3
= 4x² + 6x – 2x – 3
= 2x (2x + 3) – 1 (2x + 3)
= (2x + 3) (2x – 1)
∴ The factors are (x – 1), (2x + 3) and (2x – 1)
∴ -7x + 3 + 4x³ = (x + 1) (2x + 3) (2x – 1)

(iv) x³ + x² – 14x – 24
Let p (x) = x³ + x² – 14x – 24
Sum of the co-efficients are = 1 + 1 – 14 – 24 = -36 ≠ 0
∴ (x – 1) is not a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = 1 – 24 = -23
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of x = 1 – 14 = -3
-23 ≠ -13
∴ (x + 1) is also not a factor
p(2) = 2³ + 2² – 14 (2) – 24 = 8 + 4 – 28 – 24
= 12 – 52 ≠ 0, (x – 2) is a not a factor
p (-2) = (-2)³ + (-2)² – 14 (-2) – 24
= -8 + 4 + 28 – 24 = 32 – 32 = 0
∴ (x + 2) is a factor
To find the other factors let us use synthetic division.

∴ The factors are (x + 2), (x + 3), (x + 4)
∴ x³ + x² – 14x – 24 = (x + 2) (x + 3) (x – 4)

(v) x³ – 7x + 6
Let p (x) = x³ + 0x² – 7x + 6
Sum of the co-efficients are = 1 + 0 – 7 + 6 = 7 – 7 = 0
∴(x- 1) is a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = 0 + 6 = 6
Sum of coefficient of odd powers of x = 1 – 7 = -7
6 ≠ -7
∴ (x + 1) is not a factor
To find the other factors, let us use synthetic division.

∴ The factors are (x – 1), (x – 2), (x + 3)
∴ x³ + 0x² – 7x + 6 = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x + 3)

(vi) x³ – 10x² – x + 10
Let p (x) = x³ – 10x² – x + 10
Sum of the co-efficients = 1 – 0 – 1 + 10
= 11 – 11 = 0
∴ (x – 1) is a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = -10 + 10 = 0
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of = 1 – 1 = 0
∴(x + 1) is a factor
Synthetic division

∴ x³ + 10x² – x + 10 = (x – 1) (x + 1) (x – 10)

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 4 Tamilnadu Agriculture

Tamilnadu Agriculture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer:

Agriculture In Tamil Nadu 9th Class Question 1.
Irrigated land surface out of cultivable land is
(a) 27%
(b) 57%
(c) 28%
(d) 49%
Answer:
(b) 57%

9th Class Social Agriculture In India Lesson Question 2.
Out of the following which is not a food crop?
(a) Bajra
(b) Ragi
(c) Maize
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(d) Coconut

Agriculture 9th Class Question 3.
The productivity of paddy during the year 2014-2015
(a) 3,039 kg
(b) 4,429 kg
(c) 2,775 kg
(d) 3,519 kg
Answer:
(b) 4429 kilogram

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 4.
Both agricultural productivity and food productivity has ……..
(a) decreased
(b) not stable
(c) remained stable
(d) increased
Answer:
(d) Increased

Social Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 5.
The North-East monsoon period in Tamilnadu ………
(a) August – October
(b) September – November
(c) October – December
(d) November – January
Answer:
(c) October – December

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The major occupation of people in Tamilnadu is ……..
2. Tamilnadu receives rainfall from the ……. monsoon.
3. The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is …….. hectares.
Answers:
1. Agriculture
2. Northeast
3. 30 lakh and 33 thousand

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Give short Answers

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Question 1.
Give two examples for each food crop and non-food crops.
Answer:
Example for food crops: Paddy, Maize Example for non-food crops: Coconut, Cotton.

9th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
What are the factors responsible for the changes in cropping area?
Answer:
The size of the total cropping land in Tamil Nadu is 4,544 thousand hectare and this keeps on changing every year. Sufficient rains at the proper period will increase this extent of land. Failure or shortage in rainfall leads to the reduction of land usage for cultivation. .

Social Science 9th Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Who monitors the quantity and quality of ground water?
Answer:
The Union Ground Water Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of ground water. This continuous monitoring has categorized the Panchayat Union (blocks) in terms of the amount of groundwater used. 139 blocks in Tamilnadu are identified as excessive users of groundwater and 100 blocks as nearing the stage of excessive usage of groundwater. 11 blocks have been identified with reduced water quality. Only 136 blocks have enough quantity and quality water for usage.

Samacheer Kalvi 9 Social Question 4.
Tabulate the productivity of paddy from 1965 to 2015.
Answer:

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 5.
On what factors does crop cultivation depend? List out the factors on which crop cultivation depend.
Answer:
Crop cultivation depends on – rainfall, availability of water, weather and market prices.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Question 6.
Differentiate small and marginal farmers.
Answer:

Small Farmers	Marginal Farmers
Small farmers cultivate in lands ranging from 1 -2 hectares.	Marginal farmers cultivate in lands within 1 hectare.

V. Answer in Detail

Social Science Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Give a note oh water resources Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Northeast monsoon (Oct-Dec) is a major source of water for Tamil Nadu. The Northeast monsoon rains are stored in reservoirs, lakes, pond and wells for cultivation. Conventional water bodies like lakes, ponds and canals provide water for agriculture in Tamil Nadu. 2,239 canals run through Tamil Nadu covering a length of 9,750 km. There are 7,985 small lakes, 33,142 large lakes, 15 lakh open wells and there are 3,54,000 borewells in the state where agriculture is carried out with the help of these water resources.

The area of land that is irrigated using water from lakes is very low. Nearly 3.68 lakh hectares of land obtain water from lakes. The canals provide water to 6.68 lakh hectares. Borewells irrigate 4.93 lakh hectares and open wells provide water to 1L91 lakh hectares of land.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Standard Social Question 2.
What are the problems faced by using ground water for agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture in Tamil Nadu is dependent mostly on groundwater. Use of ground water for agriculture creates many hardships too. There would be no sufferings if the amount of water taken from the underground and the amount of water that goes into the underground during the rainy season are equal. On the contrary, as the amount of water taken increases, the ground water goes down resulting in complete dryness or change into unusable water.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Question 3.
Discuss about the source of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:
There are no perennial rivers in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu receives the required water from the Northeast and Southwest monsoons. When the South West monsoon rains are high in the catchment areas of the Cauvery River in Karnataka dams get filled and in turn the Cauvery river in Tamil Nadu gets water.

Northeast monsoon (Oct-Dec) is a major source of water for Tamil Nadu. The Northeast monsoon rains are’ stored in reservoirs, lakes, ponds and wells for cultivation. Conventional water bodies like lakes, ponds and canals provide water for agriculture in Tamil Nadu. 2,239 canals run through Tamil Nadu covering a length of 9,750 km. There are 7,985 small lakes, 33,142 large lakes, 15 lakh open wells and there are 3,54,000 borewells in the state where agriculture is carried out with the help of these water resources.

The area of land that is irrigated using water from lakes is very low. Nearly 3.68 lakh hectares of land obtain water from lakes. The canals provide water to 6.68 lakh hectares. Borewells irrigate 4.93 lakh hectares and open wells provide water to 11.91 lakh hectares of land.

Question 4.
Tabulate the crops grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Crops grown in Tamil Nadu are:

1. Paddy
2. Black gram
3. Maize
4. Coconut
5. Corn
6. Sugarcane
7. Millets

VI Activity

Question 1.
Analyse the cultivation of food crops and non-food crops of your village / area.
Answer:

Question 2.
Thanjavur is famous for which crop? Why is it so? Research.
Answer:
(a) The Principal crops in Thanjavur District are paddy, green gram, black gram, sugarcane,
cotton, groundnut, gingelly, coconut, fruits and vegetables in the areas where irrigation facility is available.
In the rainfed area cholam, kumbu, ragi, maize, some edible oil seeds, non-edible oil seeds, fodder crops etc.
(b) The land is ideal for growing crops like Rice. The major portion of Thanjavur land consists of alluvial deposits. Thanjavur is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
(c) Soil and Water Management Research Institute Kalluthottam was established in 1972. They conduct research on the improved methods of water conveyance, application and utilization on rice and other crops grown in the Cauvery Delta zone.

Question 3.
Collect statistical data, where paddy is being cultivated at Thanjavur District, which is called the Nerkalanjium of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Thanjavur is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
(b) Samba cultivation has picked up in Thanjavur District.
(c) In Tiruvarur district direct sowing has been done on 70,000 hectares of land, while transplantation has been completed on 11,500 hectares.
(d) High concentration of rice production are found in taluks of Orathanadu, Thiruvaiyaru, Kumbakonam, Pabanasam, Thiruvidaimarudur, etc.

Tamilnadu Agriculture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is the total employee population engaged in agriculture according to 2001 census.
(a) 48.3%
(b) 49.3%
(c) 47.3%
(d) 46.3%
Answer:
(b) 49.3%

Question 2.
The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is
(a) one crore thirty lakh and thirty three thousand hectares
(b) one crore twenty lakh and thirty two thousand hectares
(c) one crore forty lakh and thirty three thousand hectares
(d) one crore twenty five lakh and thirty thousand hectares
Answer:
(a) one crore thirty lakh and thirty three thousand hectares

Question 3.
The number of blocks identified as excessive users of ground water are
(a) 140
(b) 141
(c) 139
(d) 138
Answer:
(c) 139

Question 4.
……… cultivation is carried out at a large scale of 30 percent cultivated land area.
(a) Paddy
(b) Varagu
(c) Cholam
(d) Kambu
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 5.
Production capacity of rice in Tamil Nadu was …….. Kg per hectare in 2014 – 2015.
(a) 4420
(b) 4422
(c) 4425
(d) 4427
Answer:
(d) 4427

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The agricultural workers in Tamil Nadu in 2011 were ……..
2. A major portion of the workers involved in agricultural activities are ……… labourers.
3. Most of the cultivators in Tamil Nadu are …….. farmers.
4. There are no …….. rivers in Tamil Nadu.
5. The ……… Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of ground water.
6. Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on ……….
7. Crops are divided into ……. and ……….
Answers:
1. 96 lakhs
2. landless
3. marginal
4. Perennial
5. Union Ground Water
6. ground water
7. food, non-food

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

IV. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What happened to the number of workers engaged in Agriculture in the past ten years?
Answer:
It has been noticed that the number of farmers in Tamilnadu has got reduced during the last 10 years according to the 2011 census data. Similarly the number of agricultural workers also reduced during the same period.

Question 2.
What type of employees are involved in agricultural acitivities?
Answer:
A major portion of the workers involved in agricultural activities are landless labourers. All the land holders do not have the same amount of land. Many have very little land and very few people hold large areas of land.

Question 3.
“The total area of land under agriculture is shrinking fast.” What does it show?
Answer:
The total land area under agriculture is shrinking fast not only in Tamilnadu, but also throughout India. The number of marginal farmers has increased in India. In contrast, the number of marginal farmers is decreasing in Tamil Nadu. This shows that the farmers are doing other occupations.

Question 4.
Comment on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
There are no perennial rivers in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu receives the required water from the Northeast and Southwest monsoons. When the South West monsoon rains are high in the catchment areas of the Cauvery River in Karnataka dams get filled and in turn the Cauvery river in Tamil Nadu gets water.

Question 5.
How is the productivity of crops?
Answer:
The productivity of crops continues to increase. For example the productivity of paddy in 1965 – 66 was 1,409 kg. It increased to 2,029 kg in 1975-76 and 2,372 kg in 1985-86. It . increased to 2,712 kg after a decade. The production was 4,429 kg in the year 2014-15. In the past fifty years, the productivity of paddy has increased more than three times.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain irrigation and croptypes.
Answer:
All cultivated crops can be classified as food crops and non-food crops. 57 percentage of the total land under food grain cultivation is irrigated. In 2014-15, 59 percentage of food crops and 50 percentage of non food crops were irrigated in Tamilnadu.

The total area of land cultivated in Tamil Nadu was 59 lakh and 94 thousand hectares in 2014—2015. Out of this non-food crops were 76%.

Paddy cultivation is carried out at a large scale of 30 percent cultivated land area and other food crops in 12 percent area. Millets are cultivated in a very low percentage of area. Sorghum(Cholam) cultivation in 7 per cent land area, cumbu in one percent and ragi in 1.7 per cent. Other millets occupy 6 per cent in the year 2014-2015.

The area cultivatable land changes every year as a result of many factors such as rainfall, availability of water, weather and market prices.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Set Language Ex 1.4

Exercise 1.4 Class 9 Maths Samacheer Question 1.
If P= {1, 2, 5, 7, 9}, Q = {2, 3, 5, 9, 11}, R = {3, 4, 5, 7, 9} and S = {2, 3, 4, 5, 8}, then find
(i) (P ∪ Q) ∪ R
(ii) (P ∩ Q) ∩ S
(iii) (Q ∩ S) ∩ R
Solution:
(i) (P ∪ Q) ∪ R
(P ∪ Q) = {1, 2, 5, 7, 9} ∪ {2, 3, 5, 9, 11} = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11}
(P ∪ Q) ∪ R = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 7, 9} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 11}

(ii)(P ∩ Q) ∩ S
(P ∩ Q) = {1, 2, 5, 7, 9} ∩ {2, 3, 5, 9, 11} = {2, 5, 9}
(P ∩ Q) ∩ S = {2, 5, 9} ∩ {2, 3, 4, 5, 8} = {2, 5}

(iii) (Q ∩ S) ∩ R
(Q ∩ S) = {2, 3, 5, 9, 11} ∩ {2, 3, 4, 5, 8} = {2, 3, 5}
(Q ∩ S) ∩ R = {2, 3, 5} ∩ {3, 4, 5, 7, 9} = {3, 5}

Exercise 1.4 Class 9 Maths Solution Samacheer Question 2.
Test for the commutative property of union and intersection of the sets
P = {x : x is a real number between 2 and 7} and
Q = {x : x is an irrational number between 2 and 7}
Solution:
Commutative Property of union of sets
(A ∪ B)’ = (B ∪ A)
Here P = {3, 4, 5, 6}, Q = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)}
P ∪ Q = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} = {3, 4, 5, 6, \(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} …………. (1)
Q ∪ P = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6}= {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\), 3, 4, 5, 6} ………… (2)
(1) = (2)
∴ P ∪ Q = Q ∪ P
∴ It is verified that union of sets is commutative.
Commutative Property of intersection of sets (P ∩ Q) = (Q ∩ P)
P ∩ Q = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∩ {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} = { } ………. (1)
Q ∩ P = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} ∩ {3, 4, 5, 6} = { } …………. (2)
From (1) and (2)
P ∩ Q = Q ∩ P
∴ It is verified that intersection of sets is commutative.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Exercise 1.4 Question 3.
If A = {p, q, r, s}, B = {m, n, q, s, t} and C = {m, n, p, q, s}, then verify the associative property of union of sets.
Solution:
Associative Property of union of sets
A ∪ (B ∪ C) = (A ∪ B) ∪ C)
B ∪ C = {m, n, q, s, t} ∪ {m, n,p, q, s}= {m, n, p, q, s, t}
A ∪ (B ∪ C) = {p, q, r, s} ∪ {m, n, p, q, s, t} = {m, n, p, q, r, s, t} ………..… (1)
(A ∪ B) = {p, q, r, s} ∪ {m, n, q, s, t} = {p, q, r, s, m, n, t}
(A ∪ B) ∪ C = {p, q, r, s, m, n, t} ∪ {m, n, p, q, s} = {p, q, r, s, m, n, t} …………… (2)
From (1) & (2)
It is verified that A ∪ (B ∪ C) = (A ∪ B) ∪ C

9th Standard Maths Exercise 1.4 Question 4.
Verify the associative property of intersection of sets for A = {-11, \(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{5}\) ,7}, B = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}\), 6, 13} and C = {\(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}\), 9}.
Solution:
Associative Property of intersection of sets A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C)

From (1) and (2), it is verified that A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C

9th Maths Exercise 1.4 Question 5.
If A = {x : x = 2ⁿ, n ∈ W and n < 4}, B = {x: x = 2 n, n ∈ N and n ≤ 4} and C = {0, 1, 2, 5, 6}, then verify the associative property of intersection of sets.
Solution:
A = {x : x = 2ⁿ, n ∈ W, n < 4}
⇒ x = 2°= 1
x = 2¹ = 2
x = 2² = 4
x = 2³ = 8
∴ A = {1, 2, 4, 8}

B = {x : x = 2n, n ∈ N and n ≤ 4}
⇒ x = 2 × 1 = 2
x = 2 × 2 = 4
x = 2 × 3 = 6
x = 2 × 4 = 8
∴ B = {2, 4, 6, 8}
C = {0, 1, 2, 5, 6}
Associative property of intersection of sets
A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C
B ∩ C = {2, 6}
A ∩ (B ∩ C) = {1, 2, 4, 8} ∩ {2, 6} = {2} ………..… (1)
A ∩ B = {1, 2, 4, 8} ∩ {2, 4, 6, 8} = {2, 4, 8}
(A ∩ B) ∩ C = {2, 4, 8} ∩ {0, 1, 2, 5, 6} = {2} …………….. (2)
From (1) and (2), It is verified that A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Grammar Tenses

Tenses of verbs are used to express time. They indicate the time and state of the action.

Singular	Plural
Verb +’s’	Verb
e.g. Writes	Write

Verbs end with ‘s’ when subject is singular and do not end with ‘s’ when subject is plural in the present tense.

Present Tense

Simple Present : (verb+s/es)

• True in, the present :
• He works in a studio.
• She is sixty years old.
• We live in Chennai.

Habits :

• I always drink coffee at work.
• He wakes up at 7 a.m. every day.
• They usually eat dinner at home.

General facts/truths :

• The Earth revolves around the Sun.
• The Sun rises in the East.
• Water boils at 100°C.

Future timetables/schedules :

• My train arrives tomorrow.
• We fi y to Paris on Monday.
• Classes begin next week.

Present Continuous: (am/is/are+verb+ing)

Happening now :
It is raining.
I’m eating lunch now.

Fixed plans :
I am meeting my friends after work.’

Temporary actions :
I’m working in New York this week.

Trends :
More and more people arc using cell phones to access the Internet.

Longer actions in progress now :
She is studying to become a doctor.
He is training for a marathon.

PRESENT PERFECT : (haslhave+past participle)
Action completed in tue immediate past :
We have planned the meeting for next week.
I have joined the duty.
She has completed the home work.

Event in the past at an unspecified time :
She has been to Paris.
I’ve seen that movie.

Duration from the past until now :
He has been a teacher since 2002.

Change over time :
Your English has improved since the last time we met.
My niece has grown a lot in the past year.

Repeated events in the past until now :
We have had four exams so far in this semester.
I’ve been to this restaurant many times since I moved next door.

Past Tense
Simple Past

Series of completed actions :
He sat down, took out a notebook and pen, and started writing.
He entered the room, turned in my direction, and smiled at me.

Habits ¡n the past :
John played the piano when he was a child.
I was good at dancing when I was a teenager.

Complete action in the past :
Sarah baked a cake yesterday.
I went to bed at 10 last night.
We ordered pizza on Friday.

Duration in the past :
He stayed up all night.
We lived in Chicago for a year.
We played baseball all day.

Past Continuous (was/were+verb+ing)
Action before and after a specific time : Yesterday at noon, I was eating lunch.
Interrupted continuous past action : I was watching a movie when she called.
To start a story / create an atmosphere : While I was driving to work yesterday.
Repeated action (often with “always”) : Mutest roommate was always leaving dirty dishes in the sink.
Parallel actions : I was reading while my brother was playing guitar.

Past Perfect (had + past participle)
An action completed before a past action : When we arrived, the class had already begun.
Reported speech : My student said that he hadn’t done his homework.
In the Third Conditional of “if” : If it had rained, I would have bought an umbrella.
A period of time before an event in the : We had owned our house for twenty years before we sold it

Past Perfect Continuous (had+been+verb+ing)
Continued action in the past. before an : He had been waiting for an hour when she finally action in the past arrived.
Cause of something in the past : He went on a diet because he had been eating too much.
“If”- impossible condition : If I had been paying attention, I wouldn’t have got into an accident.
Reported speech : She said that John had been helping her study for months.

Future Tense
Simple Future (shall/will + verb)
wilIingness: (will + verb) :
Someone is at the door. I’ll see who it is. (at the present moment)
I will help you with your homework tonight. (prom Lye/offer)
She won’t tell me her password. (refusal)

Future Fact: (will + verb) : My Mother will get a Foot BaLl today
Plan or Intention (be going to + verb) (Immediate future / Decided future) :
I’m going to watch a movie tonight.
He’s going to have a party this weekend.

Prediction :
It is cloudy. It’s going to rain. (evidence)
You’ll go abroad someday. (opinion)

Future Perfect (shall/will + have been + verb+ing)
Action in progr0ess at a time in the future : She will be taking an exam at 2 p.m. tomorrow, so don’t call her then.
Emphasis of future plans and intentions : They’ll be coming to visit us next week.
interrupted action in the future : I will be waiting for you when you arrive tonight.
Parallel actions ¡n the future :
She will be watching TV, and he will be cooking dinner.
While he cooks dinner, she will be watching TV.

Atmosphere in the future :
When I enter the class, the teacher will be teaching, some students will be taking notes, and my best friend will be trying to stay awake.

Future Perfect (shaHIwiII+ have + past participle)
A completed action before something :
By the time you arrive, I will have finished the in the future project.
By next summer, she will have graduated from college.

Duration before something in the future :
By Friday, she will have had my car for a whole week!
She will have been in Paris for six months by the time she leaves.

Question form :
Do you think you will have finished the project before 1 arrive?
Will she have graduated from college by then?
What will you have done by the end of your time here?

Negati’e statcrnents :
By this time tomorrow, she won’t have had enough time to finish the essay.
By 2020, I won’t have completed my PhD.

Future Perfect Continuous (shaLIJwill + have been + verb+ing)
Cause of something in the future :
Her English will be excellent by the time she visits the U.S. because she will have been studying it for five years.
He will be tired by the time he arrives because he will have been travelling all day.

Duration before something in the future :
He will have been waiting for an hour when she finally arrives.
She will have been working at the company for ten years by the time I retire.

Thus, in English we have twelve different Tenses.
They are —
1. Present Simple – She writes letters.
2. Past Simple – She wrote letters.
3. Future Simple – She will write letters.
4. Present Continuous – She is writing letters.
5. Past Continuous – She was writing letters.
6. Future Continuous – She will be writing letters.
7. Present Perfect – She has written letters.
8. Past Perfect – She had written letters.
9. Future Perfect – She will have written letters.
10. Present Perfect Continuous – She has been writing letters.
11. Past Perfect Continuous – She had been writing letters.
12. Future Perfect Continuous – She will have been writing letters.

List Of Irregular Verbs:

1. Simple Present Tense
The Simple Present Tense is used to express a universal truth or habitual action; as —
1. I like bread.
2. We do our duty.
3. Rahul speaks the truth.
4. The sun rises in the east.
The underlined verbs are all in the Present Simple Tense.

Positive Statements In This Tense :
We use V₁ for I, You and a Plural subject; as—
1. We learn our lessons.
2. You pray to God daily. ,
3. They buy milk from this dairy.

We use V₁ + s/es for a Singular subject; as—
1. She tells lies.
2. Meena cooks delicious food.
3. Ms Madhu teaches us English.

Negative Statements – do not / does not + V₁ verb
You do not obey the rules.
He does not attend the meeting.
She does not dance well.
They do not play now.
Hint: I, we, you, they – do not
He, she, it, singular – does not

Positive Questions – Do / Does + Sub + verb

Do you ask your doubts?
Does he recommend you?
Do they speak English?
Does she prepare meals?

Negative Questions–Do/Does + Sub + not+ V₁ verb

Do you not know him?
Do they not participate the program?
Does he not read correctly?
Does she not go to temple today?

2. Past Simple Tense
Past Simple Tense is used to express an action which took place in the past or was completed before the time of speaking; as —
1. Simi liked ice cream.
2. Rohan went to the market.
We use V₂ with all subjects (singular as well as plural); as—
1. He worked honestly.
2. They took milk for breakfast.
3. I bought this book last month.

Negative Statement–Did not + V₂ verb
1. He did not play Yesterday.
2. They did not buy fruits.
3. She did not go to school.
4. You did not tell the correct answer.

Positive Questions – Did + Sub + V₁ Verb
1. Did you attend the meeting?
2. Did they arrange the tour?
3. Did he draw the picture?
4. Did she take part in the fancy dress competition?

Negative Questions–Did + Sub + not+ V₂ Verb
1. Did you not sleep well yesterday?
2. Did they not go to their native place?
3. Did she not speak to him?
4. Did he not bring the flowers?

3. Present Continuous Tense
Present Continuous Tense is used to express an action that is going on at the time of speaking; as–
1. Radha is doing her homework.
2. Mona is cooking food in the kitchen.

The underlined words denote an action that is going on at present.
So we can say these sentences are in the Present Continuous Tense.

Positive Statements

In this tense, we use is/am/are + Vj–ing :
1. I am going there.
2. He is doing his work.
3. They are digging a well.

Negative Statements,
We use is/am/are + not + Vj–ing :
1. I am not going there.
2. He is not doing his work.
3. They are not digging a well.

Positive Questions,
We put the helping verb before the Subject; as —
1. Am I going there?
2. Is he doing his work?
3. Are they digging a well?

Negative Questions,
we can put ‘not’ before the main verb or in short form after the helping verb, as—
1. Is he not doing his work?
Isn’t he doing his work?
2. Am I not going there?
Ain’t I going there?
(We use ain’t in spoken language only.)
3. Are they not digging a well?
Aren’t they digging a well?

4. Past Continuous Tense
The Past Continuous Tense is used to express an action which was actually taking place at some particular moment in the past.

Positive Statements,
We use was/were + V₁–ing; as —
1. He was reading a book.
2. They were going to the market.

Negative Statements,
We use was/were + not + V₁–ing; as —
1. He was not reading a book.
2. They were not going to the market.

Positive Questions,
We put the helping verb before the subject; as —
1. Was he reading a book?
2. Were they going to the market?

Negative Questions,
we can put ‘not’ before the main verb or in short form after the helping verb; as —
1. Was he not reading a book?
Wasn’t he reading a book?
2. Were they not going to the market?
Weren’t they going to the market?

Exercises
(i) Rewrite each sentence using the Past form of the given verbs :

1. Rahul ______________ (want) a shirt.
Answer:
Rahul wanted a shirt.

2. Deepa ______________ (eat) an ice cream.
Answer:
Deepa ate ice cream.

3. Nancy ______________ (wear) simple clothes.
Answer:
Nancy wore simple clothes.

4. Raj ______________ (come) to India in March.
Answer:
Raj came to India in March.

5. They ______________ (build) a house in Delhi.
Answer:
They built a house in Delhi.

6. The boys ______________ (laugh) at the beggar.
Answer:
The boys laughed at the beggar.

7. I ______________ (go) to the market with my friend.
Answer:
I went to the market with ni find.

8. My mother ______________ (buy) a new dress for me.
Answer:
Ms mother bought a new dress for ‘NC.

(ii) Rewrite each sentence as a Negative

1. Misha told the truth.
Answer:
Aisha did not tell the truth.

2. He took my pen.
Answer:
He did not take ms pen.

3. Tony polished his shoes’’
Answer:
Tony did not polish his shoes,

4. She cooked food for me.
Answer:
She did not cook food for me,

5. Rohan respected his friends.
Answer:
Rohan did not respect his friends.

6. They finished their work in time.
Answer:
They did not finish their work in time.

7. The naughty boys broke the glass.
Answer:
The naughty boys did not break the glass.

8. Ranjan and his friends went for a picnic.
Answer:
Ranjan and his friends did not go for a picnic.

(iii) Use the Present Continuous Tense to complete each sentence :

1. Mona ______________ (take) a test.
Answer:
Mona is taking a test

2. I ______________ (have) my breakfast.
Answer:
I am having my breakfast.

3. The hunter ______________ (kill) the lion.
Answer:
The hunter is killing the lion.

4. The trees ________ (shed) their leaves.
Answer:
The trees are shedding their lines.

5. The farmers ______________ (water) their fields.
Answer:
The farmers are wtering their fields.

6. The pain in my arm ________ (get) worse.
Answer:
The pain in an arm is getting worse.

7. The tailors (not stitch) the uniforms.
Answer:
The tailors are not stitching the uniforms.

(iv) Complete each sentence using the Past Continuous Tense :
1. Children ______________ (hide) in the bushes.
Answer:
Children were hiding in the bushes.

2. They ______________ (walk) through the zoo.
Answer:
They were walking through the zoo.

3. The waiter ______________ (server) the people.
Answer:
The waiter was serving the people.

4. Meera ______________ (not play) with her friends.
Answer:
Meera was not playing with her friends.

5. The baby ______________ (not cry) all the morning.
Answer:
The baby was not crying all the morning.

6. The dancers ______________ (not perform) on the stage.
Answer:
The dancers were not performing on the stage.

(v) Use Simple Past form of the given verb to complete each sentence:

1. Did you ______________ (enjoy) this film?
Answer:
Did you enjoy this film?

2. Did Rama ______________ (paint) this picture?
Answer:
Did Rama paint this picture?

3. Columbus ______________ (discover) America in 1492.
Answer:
Columbus discovered America in 1492.

4. She ______________ (go) to her village last month.
Answer:
She went to her village last month.

5. The peon ______________ (not ring) the bell in time.
Answer:
The peon did not ring the bell in time.

6. The fool didn’t (learn) from experience.
Answer:
The fool didn’t learn from experience.

(vi) Use Simple Present form of the given verbs to complete each sentence :

1. I ______________ (go) for a walk daily.
Answer:
I go for a walk daily.

2. The sun ______________ (rise) in the east.
Answer:
The sun rises in the east.

3. They ______________ (not like) bad workers.
Answer:
They don’t like bad workers.

4. Kusha ______________ (not obey) her parents.
Answer:
Kusha doesn’t obey her parents.

5. Teachers ______________ (love) good students.
Answer:
Teachers love good students.

6. We ______________ (take) milk and eggs for breakfast.
Answer:
We take milk and eggs for breakfast.

(vii) Rewrite each sentence in Simple Past Tense :

1. The bird flies to its nest.
Answer:
The bird flew to its nest.

2. They drink coffee every day.
Answer:
They drank coffee every day.

3. Does he pay his fees regularly?
Answer:
Did he pay his fees regularly?

4. Do you have milk for breakfast?
Answer:
Did you have milk for breakfast?

5. Do we not fall ill by over–eating?
Answer:
Did we not fall ill by over–eating?

6. You do not finish your work in time.
Answer:
You did not finish your work in time.

7. Kusha does not wear simple clothes.
Answer:
Kusha did not wear simple clothes.

8. poes he not help his friends in need?
Answer:
Did he not help his friends in need?

(viii) Rewrite each sentence in Past Continuous Tense :

1. Isn’t it raining heavily?
Answer:
Wasn’t it raining heavily?

2. We are waiting for the bus.
Answer:
We were waiting for the –bus.

3. The teacher is teaching the children.
Answer:
The teacher was teaching ‘ the children.

4. I am not living with my aunt these days.
Answer:
I was not living with my aunt these days.

5. They are not going home in the evening.
Answer:
They were not going home in the evening.

6. Is the lady knitting a sweater for her son?
Answer:
Was the lady knitting a sweater for her son?

7. Aren’t Anu and Manu playing in the street?
Answer:
Weren’t Anu and Manu playing in the street?

8. Am I wasting my time in watching Discovery Channel?
Answer:
Was I wasting my time in watching Discovery Channel?

(ix) Rewrite each sentence in Present Continuous Tense :

1. Do you not speak the truth?
Answer:
Are you not speaking the truth?

2. The students ask many questions.
Answer:
The students are asking many questions.

3. I sit on the front bench in my class.
Answer:
I am sitting on the front bench in my class.

4. Does Kamala teach dance and music?
Answer:
Is Kamala teaching dance and music?

5. These boys do not respect their elders.
Answer:
These boys are not respecting their elders.

6. She does not. play with the poor children.
Answer:
She is not playing with the poor children.

(x) Rewrite each sentence in Past Continuous Tense :

1. The girls did not pluck flowers.
Answer:
The girls were not plucking flowers.

2. Did the peon not ring the bell?
Answer:
Was the peon not ringing the bell?

3. Did Ram break the windowpanes?
Answer:
Was Rain breaking the windowpanes?

4. My friends talked to me in English.
Answer:
My friends were talking to me in English.

5. The watchman did not open the gate.
Answer:
The watchman was not opening the gate.

6. He spent all his money in good deeds.
Answer:
He was spending all his money in good deeds

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Grammar Degrees of Comparison

A comparison can be made using the three forms of an adjective.
The adjective is a word that describes or qualifies a noun. It gives more information about a noun.
(e.g.) The tiger is a strong animal.

There are three degrees of comparison :

1. Positive (e.g.) Kumar is a kind man.
2. Comparative (e.g.) A tsunami is more destructive than a cyclone.
3. Superlative (e.g.) Mount Everest is the highest peak in the world.

Read The Following Example

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
No other girl in the class is as tall as Ramya.	Ramya is taller than any other girl in the class.	Ramya is the tallest girl in the class.
Very few girls in the class are as tall as Ramya.	Ramya is taller than most other girls in the class.	Ramya is one of the tallest girls in the class.
Positive	Comparative	Superlative
good	better	best
bad	worse	worst
little	less	least
much, many, some	more	most
far	further	furthest

The Positive Degree is used to express or describe a quality.
The Positive Degree of an adjective states the characteristic of the noun.
(e.g.) It is a tall building.
(e.g.) Mango is sweet to taste.

The Comparative Degree is used when two things (or two sets of things) are compared.
(e.g.) This building is taller than any other building.
(e.g.) Mango is sweeter than pineapple.

The Superlative Degree is used when more than two things are compared.
(e.g.) This is the tallest building.
(e.g.) Mango is the sweetest fruit.

Examples :
Prabhu is young. (Positive Degree)
Prabhu is younger than Amirtha. (Comparative Degree)
Prabhu is the youngest of all. (Superlative Degree)

Hint-
For adjectives of the multi syllabus we add
MORE (or LESS) for the comparatives and MOST (or LEAST) for the superlatives.

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
useful	more useful	most useful
unfortunate	more unfortunate	most unfortunate
expensive	more expensive	most expensive
important	more important	most important

Exercises
(i) Complete the following sentences.
1. She is from her sister.
(a) pretty (b) prettier (c) prettiest
Ans:
(b) prettier

2. Priyaisa girl.
(a) nice (b) nicer (c) nicest
Answer:
(a) nice

3. Supriyaisthe girl in the class.
(a) intelligent (b) more intelligent (c) most intelligent
Answer:
(c) most intelligent

4. Martin speaks English
(a) well (b) better (c)best
Answer:
(a) well

5. Nile is the river in the world.
(a) long (b) longer (c) longest
Answer:
(c) longest

6. India is a country.
(a) big (b) bigger (c) biggest
Answer:
(a) big

7. China is than India.
(a) big (b) bigger (c) biggest
Answer:
(b) bigger

8. This is the book I have ever read.
(a) interesting (b) more interesting (c) most interesting
Answer:
(c) most interesting

9. I am than you.
(a) smart (b) smarter (c) smartest
Answer:
(b) smarter

10. Take the of the two routes.
(a) short (b) shorter (d) shortest
Answer:
(b) shorter

(ii) Complete the following sentences using the correct degree of the adjective given in the brackets.
1. My brother’s handwriting is (bad) mine.
Answer:
worse than

2. Health is wealth, (important)
Answer:
more important than

3. Blood is water, (thick)
Answer:
thicker than

4. Everest is peak in the world, (high)
Answer:
the highest peak

5. This is play I have ever heard on the radio, (interesting)
Answer:
the most interesting

6. Sushila is of all the four sisters, (beautiful)
Answer:
the most beautiful

7. The planet Mars is from the earth than the satellite Moon, (far)
Answer:
farther

8. The elephant is animal in the world, (large)
Answer:
the largest

9. An ocean is certainly a sea. (big)
Answer:
bigger than

10. Iam in cricket than in football, (interested)
Answer:
more interested

(iii) Write the words in your own sentences using any one of the degrees of comparison.
1. famous
Answer:
Mr. Ravi is more famous than his friends. (Comparative degree)

2. happy
Answer:
She is as happy as a lark. (Positive degree)

3. good
Answer:
Mahesh is the best student in the class. (Superlative degree)

4. sincere
Answer:
You should be more sincere in your work. (Comparative degree)

5. strong
Answer:
The lion is the strongest animal in this jungle. (Superlative degree)

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 7 State and Society in Medieval India

State and Society in Medieval India Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

State And Society In Medieval India Class 9 Question 1.
……………… was the second stronghold of Ala-ud-din Khalji’s expanding Kingdom.
(a) Dauladabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Madurai
(d) Bidar
Answer:
(a) Dauladabad

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 2.
The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by ………………
(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(b) Ala-ud-din Bahman- shah
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Malik Kaffir
Answer:
(c) Aurangzeb

State And Society In Medieval India Question 3.
The establishment of ……………… empire changed the administrative and institutional structures of South India.
(a) Bahmani
(b) Vijayanagar
(c) Mughal
(d) Nayak
Answer:
(b) Vijayanagar

Question 4.
Krishnadeva Raya was a contemporary of …………………
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Aihole
Answer:
(d) Aihole

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The establishment of the Vijayanagar Kingdom witnessed the most momentous . development in the history of South India.
(ii) The Saluva dynasty ruled for a longer period.
(iii) The rulers of Vijayanagara had smooth relations with the Bahmani Sultanate.
(iv) Rajput kingdoms attracted migrants from Persia and Arabia.
Answer:
(i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Nayak Kingdom came up in Senji.
(ii) The appointment of Telugu Nayaks resulted in the migration of Telugu-speaking people from Madurai.
(iii) Mughal Empire started declining from the time of Jahangir.
(iv) The Europeans came to India in search of slaves.
Answer:
(i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Mythical geneologies were collected by Col. Mackenzie.
(ii) Indigo was the most important beverage crop in India.
(iii) Mahmud Gawan was the minister in Alauddin Khalji’s kingdom.
(iv) The Portuguese built their first fort in Goa.
Answer:
(i) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India was an integral part of maritime trade, extending from China in the east to Africa in the west.
Reason (R): Geographical location of India in the middle of Indian Ocean.
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A
(b) (ii) A is wrong; R is correct
(c) (iii) A and R are wrong
(d) (iv) A is correct; R does not explains about A.
Answer:
(a) (i) A is correct; R explains about A

Question 5.
(i) Gold images of great beauty and artistry were made by Cholas.
(ii) The best example for Chola architecture is Siva asNataraja performing the cosmic dance.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.
Answer:
(d) (i) is wrong, (ii) is correct.

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………………. were Europeans who arrived on the west coast of India.
2. The combined forces of the five Deccan Sultanates defeated Vijayanagar army in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the battle of ……………
3. Vijayanagara evolved as a ………………
4. The tempo of urbanization increased during ……………… period.
5. ……………… was the enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu.
Answers:
1. Portuguese
2. Talikota
3. Militaristic State
4. Vijayanagar
5. The Chola period

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The arrival of the Europeans
(a) Who controlled the spice trade from India?
Answer:
Muslims controlled the Spice trade from India.

(b) What enabled the Portuguese to have control over maritime trade over the entire region?
Answer:
The Naval superiority enabled the Portuguese to have control over the Maritime trade over the entire region.

(c) How were the trading activities of the Europeans carried on in India?
Answer:
The trading activities of the Europeans carried on through the respective East India Companies in India. ‘

(d) Mention the enclaves of the Dutch, the English, the French and the Danes in India.
Answer:
The Dutch were in Pulicat (and later Nagapatnam)
the English in Madras
the French in Pondicherry and
the Danes in Tarangampadi (Tranquebar).

Question 2.
Society, Religion and Culture.
(а) Which is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society?
Answer:
Caste is the most distinctive aspect of Indian Society.

(b) What is a guild?
Answer:
The occupational caste groups are referred to as guilds.

(c) Mention some Saivite movements.
Answer:
Saiva Siddhanta in TamilNadu
Virasaivas in Karnataka
Varkarisampradaya in Maharashtra.

(d) Name the court musician of Akbar.
Answer:
Tansen was the court musician of Akbar.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Write about the military expeditions of Malik Kafur.
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji’s slave and commander, Malik Kafur, was sent on military expeditions further south in the first decade of the 1300s A.D. (C.E.).

Question 2.
Who founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom? Mention the dynasties that ruled over the kingdom.
Answer:
Harihara and Bukka, two brothers founded the Vijayanagar Kingdom.
Sangama Dynasty, Saluva Dynasty and Tuluva Dynasties ruled over the Kingdom.

Question 3.
Mention the two natural advantages that India had in cotton weaving.
Answer:
India had two natural advantages in cotton weaving. The first was that cotton grew in almost all parts of India, so that the basic raw material was easily available. Second, the technology of producing a permanent colour on cotton using vegetable dyes was known from very early times in India.

Question 4.
What were the factors which facilitated urbanization?
Answer:

1. It has been observed that cities and towns fulfilled diverse and overlapping roles in the economy.
2. The large cities were centres of manufacturing and marketing, banking and financial services.
3. They were usually located at the intersection of an extensive network of roads which connected them to other parts of the country.
4. Smaller towns were marketing centres in local trade connecting the immediate rural hinterland.
5. Cities also served as political and administrative centres, both in the capital region (for instance, Agra and Delhi) and in the provinces.

Question 5.
What is sericulture?
Answer:

1. Silk production by breeding the mulberry silkworm is Sericulture.
2. Sericulture was introduced in the 14th and 15th centuries.
3. Bengal had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the political changes during 1526-1707 A.D.*(C.E.).
Answer:
(i) The Mughal empire was founded by Babur in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) after he defeated Ibrahim Lodi at Panipat.

(ii) The first six Mughal emperors are referred to as the ‘Great Mughals’. Aurangzeb was the last of the great Mughals.

(iii) Akbar consolidated the Mughal empire through conquests and through a policy of conciliation with the Religious based kingdoms of Rajasthan.

(iv) The Mughal empire through began to disintegrate after Aurangzeb, continued to exist nominally till 1857 A.D. (C.E.) when the British finally ended the virtually non-existent empire.

(v) A new power centre rose in Maharashtra in the seventeenth century, and the Marathas
under the leadership of Shivaji seriously undermined the authority of the Mughals in western India.

(vi) At its height, the empire stretched over most of the Indian sub-continent.

(vii) Only the south-western region of Kerala and southern Tamilnadu were not directly under Mughal rule.

Question 2.
Explain the commercial developments in Medieval India.
Answer:

• The large manufacturing sector essentially produced goods for exchange.
• India had an extensive network of trade for marketing the goods.
• At the next level the producer was de-linked from marketing, the trade was undertaken by merchant intermediaries.
• Big cities were usually major commercial centres with bazzars and shops.
• Major parts were the nodal points in international, maritime trade.
• Maritime trade across the Indian ocean, extending from China in the east to Africa in the West had flourished for many centuries.
• Merchants operated at different levels.
• Trade on a large scale could function only with the availability of financial and banking services.
• The European trading companies realized that they could not function in India without the services of the rich and influential merchants. They entered into contracts.
• The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.
• Political disturbances disrupted the economic activity.

Question 3.
“Chola Period was a enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu” – Elucidate.
Answer:
(i) The CHOLA PERIOD was an enterprising period when trade and the economy expanded, accompanied by urbanization.

(ii) The administrative machinery was re-organised during Chola rule.

(iii) The basic unit of local administration was the village (ur), followed by the sub-region (nadu) and district (kottam). Tax-free villages granted to Brahmins were known as brahmadeya. Marketing centres and towns were known as nagaram.

(iv) The ur, nadu, brahmadeya and nagaram each had its own assembly.

(v) They were responsible for the maintenance and management of the water resources and land; the local temples; resolving local issues and disputes; and for collecting the taxes due to the government.

(vi) While the Chola state did not intervene in this fundamental system of local administration, they introduced innovations in revenue administration by creating new revenue divisions (mandalam and valanadu). Several new taxes on agriculture and commerce were also introduced.

(vii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temples. This had two dimensions: new temples were constructed, and existing temples became multi-functional social and economic institutions.

(viii) The construction of great temples also was a reflection of the growing prosperity in the kingdom, since the activity involved great expenditure.

Student Activities

Question 1.
On the outline map of India mark the important places of medieval India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Collect pictures of architectural importance of the Cholas.
Answer:
You can collect the pictures of architectural importance of the Cholas and paste it in the Album.

IX Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia.
Answer:
You can collect the pictures of Angkor Wat in Cambodia. You can do this as Home Assignment.

Question 2.
Arrange a debate in the class on the advantages and disadvantages of urbanization.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a debate on the advantages and disadvantages of Urbanization.

State and Society in Medieval India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by …………..
(a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Mahmud Gawan
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(a) Muhammad Ghori

Question 2.
……………… was sent on military expeditions further south in the first decade of the 1300 AD.
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(b) Alauddin Bahman Shah
(c) Malik Kafur
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Malik Kafur

Question 3.
Maritime trade with South East Asia and China expanded greatly during the ………….. period.
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(b) Chola

Question 4.
The last of the great Mughal was …………….
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(d) Aurangazeb

Question 5.
…………… period was an enterprising period.
(a) The Chola
(b) The Chera
(c) The Pandya
(d) The Pallava
Answer:
(a) The Chola

Question 6.
The most distinctive aspect of Indian society is ……………….
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Culture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Caste

Question 7.
…………….. is a pilgrimage centre.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Varanasi
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(c) Varanasi

Question 8.
………….. was introduced in the 14th century.
(a) Sericulture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Agriculture
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sericulture

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Mughal era from 15th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem period.
(ii) Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century.
(iii) Arab Muslims had been trading in the ports of the west coast.
(iv) The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Malik Kafur.
Answer:
(ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Europeans were pre-occupied with trying a find a dirrect sea route to India.
(ii) The spice trade from India was controlled by Muslims.
(iii) The second notable feature was the great increase in the construction of temple.
(iv) The Chola period was an enterprising peirod.
Answer:
(iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Textiles accounted for nearly 90% of the total exports from India.
(ii) Ainnurruvar had their headquarters in Aihole.
(iii) Coromandel merchants operated from Persian Gulf and Red sea.
(iv) The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans.
Answer:
(ii) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Sikhism was founded by Guru Nanak.
Reason (R): He lived during 15th and 16th century.
(a) A is correct R explains about A
(b) A is wrong R is correct
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct R does not explains about A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R does not explains about A

Question 5.
(i) India was predominantly an agricultural country.
(ii) A very large population lived in Rural area and depends on agriculture.
(a) (i) is correct (ii) is wrong
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
(d) (i) is wrong (ii) is correct
Answer:
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (g)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (f)
6. (c)
7. (d)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Mughal era from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the …………….
2. The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of ……………
3. Maritime trade with South-east Asia and China expanded greatly during the …………….
4. The last known Chola empiror was ………………
5. The Mughal empire was founded by ……………. in 1526 A.D.
6. In 1498 A.D Vasco da Gama landed on the …………… coast.
7. The …………….. empire transformed the economy and society of North India.
8. ……………. took roots when the Portuguese arrived in Kerala and set themselves up in Goa.
9. In ……………. India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.
10. …………… had become one of the largest silk-producing regions in the world.
Answers:
1. early modem period
2. Alauddin Khalji
3. Chola period
4. Rajendralll
5. Babur
6. Kerala
7. Mughal
8. Christianity
9. South
10. Bengal

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
The Advent of Islam.
(a) When was Muslim rule established in Delhi? By whom?
Answer:
Muslim rule was established in Delhi at the end of the 12th century by Muhammad Ghori.

(b) Who were trading in the ports of the west coast?
Answer:
Arab Muslim merchants had been trading in the ports of the west coast especially Kerala.

(c) When was the impact of Muslim rule felt?
Answer:
The impact of Muslim rule was felt during the reign of Alauddin Khalji.

(d) What was his primary objective?
Answer:
His primary objective was to plunder the wealth, rather than to expand his territory.

Question 2.
The Chola empire in the south.
(a) Who began the territorial expansion?
Answer:
The territorial expansion of the Chola empire began under Rajaraj a I.

(b) What do you know about Rajendra I?
Answer:
The Chola empire expanded further under Rajendra I.
He had successfully taken his armies as far to the north east up to the river Ganges.

(c) In whose period Maritime trade expanded?
Answer:
Maritime trade expanded with South-east Asia and China greatly during the Chola period.

(d) Against whom did the Naval expeditions sent?
Answer:
The Naval expeditions had been sent against the Sailendra Kingdom of Sri Vijaya, Kadarand and Ceylon. .

(e) What did he earn from this war?
Answer:
This war earned him the title of “the Chola who had conquered the Ganga and Kadaram”.

Question 3.
Urbanization in South India.
(a) Comment on South Indian temples.
Answer:
In South India especially the Tamil region urbanization went hand in hand with temples.

(b) How were the temples?
Answer:
Temples were large economic enterprises requiring a variety of goods and services to function.

(c) In whose period did the pace of urbanization increase?
Answer:
The pace of urbanization increased during the Vijayanagar period.

(d) How were the Urban centres?
Answer:
Most Urban centres displayed rural characteristics.
For instance, it was not uncommon to find fields with crops within the city.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did the historian ‘Burton Stein describe the different periods of Indian History?
Answer:
The historian Burton Stein, uses the term ‘classical’ to describe the period up to the Gupta empire, and dates the ‘medieval’ period from the 7th century A.D.(CE) till the beginning of Mughal rule in the 16th century. The Mughal era, from the 16th to 18th century is referred to as the early modem peroid.

Question 2.
Who brought out the isolated southern parts into the orbit of the rulers of the North?
Answer:
The Tughlaq kings who came after Alauddin also sent their armies to the south. As a result, the generally more isolated southern part of the country came into the orbit of the rulers of the north. Governors were appointed in various provinces in the Deccan region, and a Sultanate was even established in Madurai.

Question 3.
Mention the five Sultanates who came up in Deccan in the 15th century.
Answer:
By the end of the fifteenth century, five sultanates came up in the Deccan: Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahftiednagar, Berar and Bidar. Bijapur and Golkonda were the largest of these sultanates and the region entered a phase of considerable economic growth and expansion of trade.

Question 4.
How did the Vijayanagar empire wither away?
Answer:

• The rulers of Vijayanagar were almost continuously at war with the Bahmani sultanate as well as with the religion-based kingdoms of Kondavidu and Orissa.
• Finally, the combined forces of the five Deccani Sultanates defeated Vijayanagar in 1565 A.D. (C.E.) at the Battle of Talikota.
• The Vijayanagar emperors then shifted their capital further south to Penugonda, and eventually to Chandragiri near Tirupati.
• The empire (or what remained of it) finally withered away in the middle of the seventeenth century.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Islamic rule on Indian society?
Answer:
The establishment of Islamic Rule in Delhi made a big impact on Indian society. Initially, Islam did not cause any social tension. Arab merchants, for instance, when they came and settled on Kerala coast, married local women and led a peaceful life. The situation changed when Islam became a state power. For a medieval ruler one way of asserting imperial authority was to demolish the place of worship of the enemies. Otherwise Islam as a monotheistic religion had its positive impact in Indian society. It played a decisive role in the evolution of a composite culture.

Question 6.
Why did the Europeans come to India?
Answer:
The Europeans came to India primarily in search of spices. But soon there was an explosion in the demand for Indian textiles in the European markets, often referred to as the ‘Indian craze’. This led to a significant expansion of textile production in India, which was accompanied by an expansion of the production of commercial crops like cotton and indigo and other dyes.

Question 7.
Give an account of genealogies collected by Colin Mackenzie.
Answer:
(i) Caste groups often petitioned the local ruler for permission to use various symbols of higher status, like the right to wear footw ear, the right to carry umbrellas, the right to use certain decorations at funerals and so on.

(ii) Each caste also created a mythical genealogy to establish its origins; this was used to justify the claim for the right to a higher status in the hierarchy.

(iii) These genealogies are found in many of the manuscripts collected by Colin Mackenzie.

Question 8.
Write a short note on the literary works of the Chola period.
Answer:

• The Chola period was an era of remarkable cultural activity. These were the centuries when major literary works were written.
• The best known classical poet, Kamban, wrote Ramayana in Tamil which was formally
  presented (Arangetram) in the temple at Srirangam. Sekkilar’s Periyapuranam, similarly was presented at the temple in Chidambaram.
• Among the other great works of the period is Kalingattup-parani and Muvarula.
• It was also a period when great religio-philosophical treatises like the Sankara-bhashyam and Sri-bhashyam were produced.

Question 9.
Explain the Art and Architecture of the Mughal period.
Answer:
The Mughals were well-known for their aesthetic values, and were great patrons of the arts. They left behind numerous monuments, in addition to constructing entire cities like Shahjahanabad (Delhi) and Fatehpur Sikri, gardens, mosques and forts. Decorative arts – especially jewellery set with precious and semi-precious gems for items of personal use – flourished under the patronage of the royal household and urban elites. The art of painting also flourished in the Mughal period. Primarily known as Mughal miniatures, they were generally intended as book illustrations or were single works to be kept in albums.

Question 10.
What happened in the business scenario in the beginning of the 18th century in India?
Answer:

• The Indian merchants benefitted from the business opportunities offered by the European companies. .
• But this scenario began to change from the beginning of the eighteenth century.
• The Indian merchants were under contract to the Europeans to supply textiles and other goods.
• But by then the local resources were not enough to produce the quantities required and political disturbances also disrupted all economic activity.
• This resulted in most merchants being bankrupted diminishing the economic vitality of the merchant community.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the major political changes.
Answer:
(i) The expansion of the Chola empire from the time of Rajaraja which eclipsed the Pandyan and Pallava kingdoms, extending north till Orissa.

(ii) From the twelfth century, the beginning of several centuries of Muslim rule in Delhi, extending throughout North India and the spread of Islam to different parts of the country.

(iii) By the end of the 13th century the eclipse of the great empire of the Cholas and the consequent rise of many religious kingdoms in South India. This ultimately culminated in the rise of the Vijayanagar empire which exercised authority over all of South India and came to be considered the bastion of religious rule in the south.

(iv) The consolidation of Muslim rule under the Mughals in the north, beginning in 1526 A.D. (C.E.) with the defeat of the Ibrahim Lodi by Babur. At its height, the Mughal empire stretched from Kabul to Gujarat to Bengal, from Kashmir to South India.

(v) The coming of the Europeans, beginning with the Portuguese who arrived on the west coast of India in 1498.

Question 2.
Explain the important feature of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
An important feature of Indian agriculture was the large number of crops that were cultivated. The peasant in India was more knowledgeable about many crops as compared to peasants in most of the world at the time. A variety of food grains like wheat, rice, and millets were grown apart from lentils and oilseeds. Many other commercial crops were also grown such as sugarcane, cotton and indigo. Other than the general food crops, south India had a regional specialization in pepper, cinnamon, spices and coconut.

In general, two different crops were grown in the different seasons, which protected the productivity of the soil. Maize and tobacco were two new crops which were introduced after the arrival of the Europeans. Many new varieties of fruit or horticultural crops like papaya, pineapple, guava and cashew nut were also introduced which came from the west, especially America. Potatoes, chillies and tomatoes also became an integral part of Indian food.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Carbon and its Compounds

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Carbon and its Compounds Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Chapter 15 Carbon And Its Compounds Question 1.
A phenomenon in which an element exists in different modification in same physical state is called ……………….
(a) isomerism
(b) allotropy
(c) catenation
(d) crystallinity
Answer:
(b) allotropy

Carbon And Its Compounds 9th Class Question 2.
Number of free electron(s) in each carbon of graphite is ………………….
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 9 Samacheer Question 3.
Carbon forms large number of organic compounds due to ………………………
(a) Allotropy
(b) Isomerism
(c) Tetravalency
(d) Catenation
Answer:
(a) Allotropy

9th Science Carbon And Its Compounds Question 4.
Which of the following does not contain double bond?
(a) CO₂
(b) C₂H₄
(C) HCl
(d) O₂
Answer:
(C) HCl

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 9 Question 5.
Raagav brings his lunch every day to school in a plastic container which has resin code number 5. The container is made of …………….
(a) Polystyrene
(b) PVC
(c) Polypropylene
(d) LDPE
Answer:
(c) Polypropylene

Carbon And Its Compounds Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Plastics made of Polycarbonate (PC) and Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene (ABS) are made of resin code ………………
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Carbon And Its Compounds Question 7.
The lead pencil contains ………………
(a) graphite
(b) diamond
(c) lead
(d) charcoal
Answer:
(a) Graphite

Carbon And Its Compounds Solutions Question 8.
Graphene is one atom thick layer of carbon obtained from ……………..
(a) diamond
(b) fullerene
(c) graphite
(d) gas carbon
Answer:
(c) graphite

Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Notes Question 9.
The legal measures to prevent plastic pollution come under the ……………….. Protection Act 1988.
(a) forest
(b) wildlife
(c) environment
(d) human rights
Answer:
(c) Environment

II. Fill in the blanks.

1.  ………….. named carbon.
2. Buckminster Fullerene contains ……………. carbon atoms.
3. Compounds with same molecular formula and different structural formula are known as ………………
4. Different methods of formation of carbon is the main reason for its ………………..
5. There are …………….. plastic resin codes.

Answer:

1. Antoine Lavoisier
2. 60
3. isomer
4. Allotropy
5. 7

III. Match the following.

S.No.	A	B
1.	Alkyne	(a) Bucky Ball
2.	Andre Geim	(b) Oxidation
3.	C60	(c) Graphene
4.	Thermocol	(d) Triple bond
5.	Burning	(e) Polystyrene

Answer:

1. (d) Triple bond
2. (c) Graphene
3. (a) Bucky Ball
4. (e) Polystyrene
5. (b) Oxidation

IV. Answer in brief.

Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Exercise Questions And Answers Question 1.
Differentiate graphite and diamond.
Answer:

Graphite	Diamond
Each carbon has three covalent bonds.	Each carbon has four covalent bonds
Soft, slippery to touch and opaque.	Hard, heavy and transparent.
It has tetrahedral units linked in three dimensions.	It has planar layers of hexagon units.
It is a non-conductor of heat and electricity.	It is conductor of heat and electricity.

Science Chapter 15 Class 9 Question 2.
What are saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:
Saturated carbon compounds are called alkanes as they have single bond between carbon atoms. Unsaturated carbon compounds are called alkenes as they have one or more double bonds between carbon atoms.

Question 3.
Carbon do not form ionic compounds. Why?
Answer:
Carbon shares electrons only through covalent bonding, hence it does not form ionic compounds.

Question 4.
What is the valency of carbon in carbon monoxide?
Answer:
Valency of carbon in carbon monoxide is 2.

Question 5.
Why are one-time use and throwaway plastics harmful?
Answer:
Use and throwaway plastics cause short and long-term environmental damage as they are difficult to recycle. They stay in an environment for over 1000 years.

These block drains and pollute water bodies. One-time use plastic causes health problems for humans, plants and animals. Some examples are plastic carry bags, cups, etc.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is catenation? How does carbon form catenated compounds?
Answer:
Catenation is the binding of an element to itself or with other elements through covalent bonds to form open chain or closed chain compounds. .
Carbon is the most common element which undergoes catenation and forms long chain compounds. Carbon atom links repeatedly to itself through covalent bond to form linear chain, branched chain or ring structure. This property of carbon itself is the reason for the presence of large number of organic carbon compounds. So organic chemistry essentially deals with catenated carbon compounds.

Question 2.
What are the chemical reactions of carbon?
Answer:
Elemental carbon undergoes no reaction at room temperature and limited number of reactions at elevated temperatures. But its compounds undergo large number of reactions even at room temperature.
Oxidation – (Reaction with oxygen)
Carbon combines with oxygen to form its oxides like carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) with evolution of heat. Organic carbon compounds like hydrocarbon also undergo oxidation to form oxides and steam with evolution of heat and flame. This is otherwise called Burning,
2C_(s) + O_2(g) ➝ 2CO_(g) + heat
C_(s) + O_2(g) ➝ CO_2(g) + heat

• Reaction with steam
  Carbon reacts with steam to form carbon monoxide and hydrogen. This mixture is called water gas.
  C_(s) + H_(s)O_(g) ➝ CO_(g) + H_2(g)
• Reaction with sulphur
  With sulphur, carbon forms its disulphide at high temperature.
  C_(s) + S_(s) ➝ CS_2(g)
• Reaction with metals
  At elevated temperatures, carbon reacts with some metals like iron, tungsten, Titanium, etc. to form their carbides.
  W_(s) + C_(g) ➝ WC_(s)

Question 3.
Name the three safer resin codes of plastics and describe their features.
Answer:

Resin code 2 (PEHD)	It is light, strong and can be recycled
Resin code 4 (PELD, LLDPE)	It is very flexible, soft but strong
Resin code 5 (PP)	It feels waxy. It is light and hard but scratches easily.

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
Why do carbon exist mostly in combined state?
Answer:
Carbon is an element that can form many different compounds, as each carbon atom can form 4 chemical bonds with other atoms and because the carbon atom is just the right size to fit in comfortably as parts of very large molecules.

Question 2.
When a carbon fuel burns in less aerated room, it is dangerous to stay there. Why?
Answer:
When carbon fuel bums in less aerated room, carbon monoxide is formed. When people are exposed to CO, it enters into human body through breathing and affects the function of haemoglobin. CO displaces oxygen from haemoglobin thereby stops its function (supply of oxygen to the parts of body) leading to death.

Question 3.
Explain how dioxins are formed? Which plastic type they are linked to and why they are harmful to humans?
Answer:
Burning PVC plastic releases dioxins which are one of the most dangerous chemicals known to humans.

Question 4.
Yugaa wants to bdy a plastic water bottle. She goes to the shop and sees four different kinds of plastic bottles with resin codes 1, 3, 5 and 7. Which one should she buy? Why?
Answer:
Yuga should by plastic bottle with resin code 5, as it is considered to be more safer.

Activity

Question 1.
With the help of your teacher, try to classify the following compounds and materials and, . fill in the table accordingly. HCN, CO₂, Propane, PVC, CO, Kerosene, LPG, Coconut oil, Wood, Perfume, Alcohol, Na₂CO₃, CaCO₃, MgO, Cotton, Petrol.
Answer:

Inorganic	Organic
MgO	PVC
CO2	Alcohol
CO	Propane
CaCO3	HCN
Na2CO3	Kerosene
	LPG
	Petrol
	Coconut oil
	Perfume
	Wood
	Cotton

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Carbon and its Compounds Additional Questions

I. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Explain carbon cycle or biogeochemical cycle.
Answer:
The carbon cycle is a biogeochemical cycle by which carbon is exchanged among the biosphere, geosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere of the Earth. Carbon is the main component of biological compounds as well as major component of many minerals such as lime stone.

Steps in carbon cycle:

1. Carbon enters the atmosphere as CO₂ from respiration and combustion.
2. CO₂ is absorbed by producers to make carbohydrates in photosynthesis.
3. Animals feed on the plant passing the carbon compounds along the food chain. Most of the carbon they consume is exhaled as CO₂, formed during respiration. The animals and plants eventually die.
4. The dead organisms are eaten by decomposers and the carbon in their bodies is returned to the atmosphere as CO₂. The plant and animal material may then be available as fossil fuel in the future for combustion.

Question 2.
What is isomerism? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Isomerism is a special feature of catenated organic compounds.
For example, if we consider the molecular formula of an organic compound to be C₂H₆O, we will not be able to name the compound. This is because the molecular formula of an organic compound represents only the number of different atoms present in that compound. It does not indicate the way in which the atoms are arranged and hence its structure.

The phenomenon in which the same molecular formula may exhibit different structural arrangements is called isomerism.
The given formula C₂H₆O can be represented with two kinds of arrangements.

Both the compounds have same molecular but different kind of arrangement. In compound ‘a’ the oxygen atom is attached to a hydrogen and a carbon. It is an alcohol. Whereas, compound ‘b’ the oxygen atom is attached to two carbon atoms and it is an ether. Both these compounds have different physical and chemical properties.

Question 3.
Write a short note on graphene.
Answer:
Graphene is most recently produced allotrope of carbon which consists of honeycomb-shaped hexagonal ring repeatedly arranged in a plane. Graphene is the thinnest compound known to man at one atom thick. It is the lightest material known (with 1 square metre weighing around 0.77 milligrams) and the strongest compound discovered (100-300 times stronger than steel).

It is the best conductor of heat at room temperature. Layers of graphene are stacked on top of each other form graphite, with an interplanar spacing of 0.335 nanometres. The separate layers of graphene in graphite are held together by Vander Waals forces.

Question 4.
What is carbon monoxide? Why is it toxic?
Answer:
Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas of carbon. When fuels undergo incomplete combustion, it results in the formation of carbon monoxide. It is released into the atmosphere from various sources like vehicle fuels, domestic fuels, industries, furnaces, etc, cigarette smoking also is a source of carbon monoxide.

Carbon monoxide is an odorless toxic gas. When CO enters the human body through breathing, it affects the function of hemoglobin. CO displaces oxygen from hemoglobin thereby stopping its function, i.e., a supply of oxygen is blocked to the parts of the body, thereby leading to death.

Question 5.
What are the drawbacks of plastics?
Answer:
Drawbacks of plastics

• Plastics take a long time to fully break down in nature.
• The microbes that breakdown plastics are too few and the quantity of plastics we produce is too many.
• A lot of plastics does not get recycled and ends up polluting the environment.
• Some plastics contain harmful chemical additives that are not good for human health.
• Burning of plastics releases toxic gases that are harmful to health and environment
• One time use and throwaway plastics end up littering and polluting the environment.

Question 6.
What is a resin code? What is the need to display them on plastic articles?
Answer:
The resin code is a set of symbols appearing on plastic products that is helpful in the identification of the type of polymer used to make that product.

Platic needs to be recycled or disposed of safely. Each plastic is composed of a different polymer or set of molecules. Different molecules do not mix when plastics are recycled. For this reason, plastics need to be segregated before recycling. These resin codes help in easy segregation of plastic products to be recycled.

Question 7.
A survey showed that one time use plastic items were among the top 10 plastic items found in garbage washed up from oceans. Can this be true? Explain how.
Answer:
Use and throwaway plastics cause short and long time environmental damage. These items like plastic carry bags, straws, plates, spoons, pouches, etc., take a few seconds to be made in a factory, but can stay in the environment forever a 1000 years. These items block drains and pollute water bodies. These plastics break down into pieces that are smaller than 5mm in diameter. These microplastics pollute the ocean and harm the marine life, who mistake them as their food.

These one time use plastics when disposed carelessly are carried to the ocean by winds, cause harm to marine life and are brought back to the shore by waves.