Category: Class 7

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.5 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.5

Miscellaneous Practice problems

Question 1.
Malini bought three ribbon of lengths 13.92 m, 11.5 m and 10.64 m. Find the total length of the ribbons?
Solution:
Length of ribbon 1 = 13.92 m
Length of ribbon 2 = 11.50 m
Length of ribbon 3 = 10.64 m

Total Length of the ribbons = 13.92 m + 11.5 m + 10.64 m = 36.06 m
Totla length of the ribbons = 36.06 m

Question 2.
Chitra has bought 10 kg 35 g of ghee for preparing sweets. She used 8 kg 59 g of ghee. How much ghee will be left?
Solution:
Total weight of ghee bought = 10 kg 35 g
Weight of ghee used = 8 kg 59 g
Weight of ghee left = 10.35 kg – 8.59 kg = 1.76 kg

∴ Weight of ghee left= 1 kg 76 g = 1.76 kg

Question 3.
If the capacity of a milk can is 2.53 l, then how much milk is required to fill 8 such cans?
Solution:
Capacity of 1 milk can= 2.53 l
∴ Capacity of 8 milk cans= 2.53 l × 8 = 20.24 l

To fill 8 cans 20.24 l of milk is required.

Question 4.
A basket of orange weighs 22.5 kg. If each family requires 2.5 kg of orange, families can share?
Solution:
Total weight of orange = 22.5 kg
Weight of orange required for 1 family = 2.5 kg
∴ Number of families sharing orange = 22.5 kg ÷ 2.5 kg
= \(\frac { 22.5 }{ 2.5 } \) = \(\frac { 22.5 }{ 2.5 } \) × \(\frac { 10 }{ 10 } \) = \(\frac { 225 }{ 25 } \) = 9
∴ 9 families can share the oranges.

Question 5.
A baker uses 3.924 kg of sugar to bake 10 cakes of equal size. How much sugar is used in each cake?
Solution:
For 10 cakes sugar required = 3.924 kg
For 1 cake sugar required = 3.924 ÷ 10 = \(\frac { 3.924 }{ 10 } \) = 0.3924 kg
For 1 cake sugar required = 0.3924 kg.

Question 6.
Evaluate:
(i) 26.13 × 4.6
(ii) 3.628 + 31.73 – 2.1
Solution:
(i) 26.13 × 4.6
26.13 × 4.6 = 120.198

(ii) 3.628 + 31.73 – 2.1 = 33.258

Question 7.
Murugan bought some bags of vegetables. Each bag weighs 20.55 kg. If the total weight of all the bags is 308.25 kg, how many bags did he buy?
Solution:
Total weight of all bags = 308.25 kg
Weight of 1 bag = 20.55 kg

Question 8.
A man walks around a circular park of distance 23.761 m. How much distance will he cover in 100 rounds?
Solution:
In 1 round distance covered = 23.761 m
∴ In 100 rounds distance = 23.761 × 100
= 2376.1 m
∴ In 100 round he covers 2376.1 m.

Question 9.
How much 0.0543 is greater than 0.002?
Solution:

∴ Required answer is 0.0523

Question 10.
A printer can print 15 pages per minute. How many pages can it print in 4.6 minutes?
Solution.
In 1 minute the pages printed = 15
In 4.6 minutes the pages printed = 15 × 4.6
= 69

The printer prints 69 pages.

Challenge Problems

Question 1.
The distance travelled by Prabhu from home to Yoga centre is 102 m and from Yoga centre to school is 165 m. What is the total distance travelled by him in kilometres (in decimal form)?
Solution:

∴ 267 metres = \(\frac { 267 }{ 1000 } \) km = 0.267 km
∴ Total distance travelled = 0.267 km

Question 2.
Anbu and Mala travelled from A to C in two different routes. Anbu travelled from place A to place B and from there to place C. A is 8.3 km from B and B is 15.6 km from C. Mala travelled from place A to place D and from there to place C. D is 7.5 km from A and C is 16.9 km from D. Who travelled more and by how much distance?
Solution:
Distance travelled by Anbu:

From place A to place B = 8.3 km
Distance from place B to place C = 15.6 km
∴ Total distance travelled by Anbu = 8.3 + 15.6
= 23.9 km

Distance travlled by Mala:

Distance travelled place A to D = 7.5 km
Distance from place D to place C = 16.9 km
Total distance travelled by mala = (7.5 + 16.9) km = 24.4 km
24.4 > 23.9
∴ Mala travelled more distance. She travelled (24.4 – 23.9) km more i.e she travelled 0.5 km more

Question 3.
Ramesh paid ₹ 97.75 per hour for a taxi and he used 35 hours in a week. How much he has to pay totally as taxi fare for a week?
Solution:
Payment for the taxi for an hour = ₹ 97.75
Total hours the taxi was used = 35 hrs
∴ Total payment for the taxi for the week

= 97.75 × 35
= 3421.25
Total payment for a week = ₹ 3421.25

Question 4.
An Aeroplane travelled 2781.20 kms in 6 hours. Find the average speed of the aeroplane in Km/hr.
Solution:
In 6 hours the distance travelled = 2781.20 km
In 1 hour the distance travelled = \(\frac { 2781.20 }{ 6 } \) km

Average speed of the aroplane = 463.53 km/hr.

Question 5.
Kumar’s car gives 12.6 km mileage per litre. If his fuel tank holds 25.8 litres then how far can he travel?
Solution.
Distance travelled with 1 litre fuel = 12.6 km
∴ with 25.8 litres distance travelled = 12.6 × 25.8
= 325.08 km

The car can travel 325.08 km

Students can Download Maths Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Percentage and Simple Interest Ex 2.1

Question 1.
In each of the following grid, find the numbers of coloured squares and express it as a fraction, decimal and percentage.

Solution:
Number of coloured square = 58
Total number of squares = 100
∴ Fraction : \(\frac { 58 }{ 100 } \)
Decimal : 0.58
Percentage : 58%

(ii) Number of coloured square = 53
Total number of squares = 100
∴ Fraction : \(\frac { 53 }{ 100 } \)
Decimal : 0.53
Percentage : 53%

(iii) Number of coloured square = 25
Total number of squares = 50
∴ Fraction : \(\frac { 25 }{ 50 } \)

Decimal : \(\frac { 25 }{ 50 } \) × \(\frac { 2 }{ 2 } \)
= \(\frac { 50 }{ 100 } \)
= 0.50

Percentage : \(\frac { 25 }{ 50 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 25 }{ 50 } \) × 100% = 50%

(iv) Number of coloured square = 17
Total number of squares = 25
∴ Fraction : \(\frac { 17 }{ 25 } \)
Decimal : \(\frac { 17 }{ 25 } \) × \(\frac { 4 }{ 4 } \)
= \(\frac { 68 }{ 100 } \) = 0.68
Percentage : \(\frac { 17 }{ 25 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 17 }{ 25 } \) × 100%
= 68%

(v) Number of coloured square = 15
Total number of squares = 30
∴ Fraction : \(\frac { 15 }{ 30 } \)
Decimal : \(\frac { 15 }{ 30 } \)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) × \(\frac { 50 }{ 50 } \)
= \(\frac { 50 }{ 100 } \) = 0.50
Percentage : \(\frac { 15 }{ 30 } \)
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 30 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 30 } \) × 100%
= 50 %

Question 2.
A picture of chess board is given.
(i) Find the percentage of the white coloured squares
(ii) Find the percentage of gray coloured squares
(iii) Find the percentage of the squares that have the pieces and
(iv) The squares that do not have the pieces.

Solution:
(i) Total number of squares in the chess board = 64
Number of white coloured squares = 32
Percentage = \(\frac { 32 }{ 64 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 32 }{ 64 } \) × 100 %
= 50%

(ii) Grey coloured squares = 64
Percentage = \(\frac { 32 }{ 64 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 32 }{ 64 } \) } [/latex] × 100 %
= 50 %

(iii) Number of squares having pieces = 20
Total number of squares = 64

(iv) Number of squares do not have pieces = 44

Question 3.
A picture of dart board is given. Find the percentage of white coloured portion and black coloured portion.

Solution:
Total sector = 20
White coloured sector = 10
Black coloured sector = 10
Percentage of white : \(\frac { 10 }{ 20 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
Decimal : \(\frac { 10 }{ 20 } \) × 100 %
= 50 %
Percentage of black colour : \(\frac { 10 }{ 20 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
Decimal : \(\frac { 10 }{ 20 } \) × 100 %
= 50 %

Question 4.
Write each of the following fraction as percentage.
(i) \(\frac { 36 }{ 50 } \)
(ii) \(\frac { 81 }{ 30 } \)
(iii) \(\frac { 42 }{ 56 } \)
(iv) 2 \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
(v) 1 \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 } \)
Solution:
(i) \(\frac { 36 }{ 50 } \)
= \(\frac { 36 }{ 50 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 36 }{ 50 } \) × 100 %
= 72 %

(ii) \(\frac { 81 }{ 30 } \)
= \(\frac { 81 }{ 30 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 81 }{ 30 } \) × 100 %
= 270 %

(iii) \(\frac { 42 }{ 56 } \)
= \(\frac { 42 }{ 56 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 42 }{ 56 } \) × 100 %
= \(\frac { 21 }{ 28 } \) × 100 %
= 75 %

(iv) 2 \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
= \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \)
= \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \) × 100 %
= 225 %

(v) 1 \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 } \)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 5 } \)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 5 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 5 } \) × 100 %
= 160 %

Question 5.
Anbu scored 436 marks out of 500 in his exams. What was the percentage he scored?
Answer:
Total marks = 500
Anbu’s Score = 436
Percentage = \(\frac { 436 }{ 500 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 436 }{ 500 } \) × 100 %
= 87.2 %
Anbu’s Score = 87.2 %

Question 6.
Write each of the following percentage as fraction,
(i) 21%
(ii) 93.1 %
(iii) 151 %
(iv) 65 %
(v) 0.64 %
Solution:
(i) 21%
= \(\frac { 21 }{ 100 } \)

(ii) 93.1 %
= \(\frac { 93.1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac{93.1 \times 10}{100 \times 10}\)
= \(\frac { 931 }{ 1000 } \)

(iii) 151 %
= \(\frac { 151 }{ 100 } \)

(iv) 65 %
= \(\frac { 65 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 13 }{ 20 } \)

(v) 0.64 %
= \(\frac { 0.64 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac{0.64 \times 100}{100 \times 100}\)
= \(\frac { 64 }{ 10000 } \)
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 625 } \)

Question 7.
Iniyan bought 5 dozen eggs. Out of that 5 dozen eggs, 10 eggs are rotten. Express the number of good eggs as percentage.
Solution:
1 dozen eggs = 12
5 dozen = 5 × 12
Total eggs = 60 eggs
Rotten eggs = 10 Good
eggs = 60 – 10 = 50
Fraction of good eggs = \(\frac { 50 }{ 60 } \)
Percentage of good eggs = \(\frac { 50 }{ 60 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 50 }{ 60 } \) × 100 %
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 6 } \) × 100 %
= 83.33 %
Percentage of good eggs = 83.33 %

Question 8.
In an election, Candidate X secured 48% of votes. What fraction will represent his votes?
Solution:
Percentage of votes x secured = 48% = \(\frac { 48 }{ 100 } \)
Fraction of votes x secured = \(\frac { 12 }{ 25 } \)

Question 9.
Ranjith total income was ₹ 7,500. He saved 25% of his total income. Find the amount saved by him.
Solution:
Total income of Ranjith = ₹ 7500
His savings = 25 % of 7500
= \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 } \) of 7500
= \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 } \) × 7500
= ₹ 1,875
∴ Amount saved by Ranjith = ₹ 1,875

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Thendral saved one fourth of her salary. Her savings percentage is
(i) \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \)
(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) %
(iii) 25 %
(iv) 1 %
Hint: \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) × 100 %
= 25 %
Answer:
(iii) 25 %

Question 2.
Kavin scored 15 out of 25 in a test. The percentage of his marks is
(i) 60%
(ii) 15%
(iii) 25%
(iv) 15/25
Hint: \(\frac { 15 }{ 25 } \) × \(\frac { 100 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 25 } \) × 100 %
= 60 %
Answer:
(i) 60%

Question 3.
0.07% is
(i) \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 } \)
(ii) \(\frac { 7 }{ 100 } \)
(iii) \(\frac { 7 }{ 1000 } \)
(iv) \(\frac { 7 }{ 10,000 } \)
Hint: 0.07 %
= 0.07%
= \(\frac { 0.07 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac{7}{\frac{100}{100}}\)
= \(\frac{7}{100 \times 100}\)
= \(\frac { 7 }{ 10,000 } \)
Answer:
(iv) \(\frac { 7 }{ 10,000 } \)

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.4 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.4

Question 1.
Simplify the following
(i) 0.6 ÷ 3
(ii) 0.90 ÷ 5
(iii) 4.08 ÷ 4
(iv) 21.56 ÷ 7
(v) 0.564 ÷ 6
(vi) 41.36 ÷ 4
(vii) 298.2 ÷ 3
Solution:
(i) 0.6 ÷ 3
= \(\frac { 6 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \)
= \(\frac { 6 }{ 3 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= 2 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 } \)
= 0.2

(ii) 0.90 ÷ 5
= \(\frac { 90 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 } \)
= \(\frac { 90 }{ 5 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= 18 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \) = \(\frac { 18 }{ 100 } \)
= 0.18

(iii) 4.08 ÷ 4
= \(\frac { 408 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
= \(\frac { 408 }{ 4 } \) x \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= 102 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 102 }{ 100 } \)
= 1.02

(iv) 21.56 ÷ 7
= \(\frac { 2156 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 7 } \)
= \(\frac { 2156 }{ 7 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= 308 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 308 }{ 100 } \)
= 3.08

(v) 0.564 ÷ 6
= \(\frac { 564 }{ 1000 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
= \(\frac { 564 }{ 6 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \)
= \(\frac { 94 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.094

(vi) 41.36 ÷ 4
= \(\frac { 4136 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
= \(\frac { 4136 }{ 4 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 1034 }{ 100 } \)
= 10.34

(vii) 298.2 ÷ 3
= \(\frac { 2982 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \)
= \(\frac { 2982 }{ 3 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 994 }{ 10 } \)
= 99.4

Question 2.
Simplify the following.
(i) 5.7 ÷ 10
(ii) 93.7 ÷ 10
(iii) 0.9 ÷ 10
(iv) 301.301 ÷ 10
(v) 0.83 ÷ 10
(vi) 0.062 ÷ 10
Solution:
(i) 5.7 ÷ 10
= \(\frac { 57 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 57 }{ 100 } \)
= 0.57

(ii) 93.7 ÷ 10
= \(\frac { 937 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 937 }{ 100 } \)
= 9.37

(iii) 0.9 ÷ 10
= \(\frac { 9 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 9 }{ 100 } \)
= 0.09

(iv) 301.301 ÷ 10
= \(\frac { 301301 }{ 1000 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 301301 }{ 10000 } \)
= 30.1301

(v) 0.83 ÷ 10
= \(\frac { 83 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 83 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.083

(vi) 0.062 ÷ 10
= \(\frac { 62 }{ 1000 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \)
= \(\frac { 62 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.0062

Question 3.
Simplify the following.
(i) 0.7 ÷ 100
(ii) 3.8 ÷ 100
(iii) 49.3 ÷ 100
(iv) 463.85 ÷ 100
(v) 0.3 ÷ 100
(vi) 27.4 ÷ 100
Solution:
(i) 0.7 ÷ 100
= \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 7 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.007

(ii) 3.8 ÷ 100
= \(\frac { 38 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 38 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.038

(iii) 49.3 ÷ 100
= \(\frac { 493 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 493 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.493

(iv) 463.85 ÷ 100
= \(\frac { 46385 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 46385 }{ 1000 } \)
= 4.6385

(v) 0.3 ÷ 100
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 1000 } \)
= 4.6385

(vi) 27.4 ÷ 100
= \(\frac { 274 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 274 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.274

Question 4.
Simplify the following.
(i) 18.9 ÷ 1000
(ii) 0.87 ÷ 1000
(iii) 49.3 ÷ 1000
(iv) 0.3 ÷ 1000
(v) 382.4 ÷ 1000
(vi) 93.8 ÷ 1000
Solution:
(i) 18.9 ÷ 1000
= \(\frac { 189 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \)
= \(\frac { 189 }{ 10000 } \)
= 0.0189

(ii) 0.87 ÷ 1000
= \(\frac { 87 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \)
= \(\frac { 87 }{ 100000 } \)
= 0.00087

(iii) 49.3 ÷ 1000
= \(\frac { 493 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 493 }{ 1000 } \)
= 0.493

(iv) 0.3 ÷ 1000
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \)
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 10000 } \)
= 0.0003

(v) 382.4 ÷ 1000
= \(\frac { 3824 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \)
= \(\frac { 3824 }{ 10000 } \)
= 0.3824

(vi) 93.8 ÷ 1000
= \(\frac { 938 }{ 10 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 } \)
= \(\frac { 938 }{ 10000 } \)
= 0.0938

Question 5.
Simplify the following.
(i) 19.2 ÷ 2.4
(ii) 4.95 ÷ 0.5
(iii) 19.11 ÷ 1.3
(iv) 0.399 ÷ 2.1
(v) 5.4 ÷ 0.6
(vi) 2.197 ÷ 1.3
Solution:
(i) 19.2 ÷ 2.4

(ii) 4.95 ÷ 0.5

(iii) 19.11 ÷ 1.3

(iv) 0.399 ÷ 2.1

(v) 5.4 ÷ 0.6

(vi) 2.197 ÷ 1.3

Question 6.
Divide 9.55 kg of sweet among 5 children. How much will each child get?
Solution:
Weight of the sweet = 9.55 Kg
Weight of sweet for 5 children = \(\frac { 955 }{ 100 } \) Kg
Weight of sweet for 1 child = \(\frac{\left(\frac{955}{100}\right)}{5}\) = \(\frac { 955 }{ 100 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 955 }{ 5 } \) × \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 } \)
= \(\frac { 191 }{ 100 } \) = 1.91
Each child will get 1.91 kg sweet.

Question 7.
A vehicle covers a distance of 76.8 km for 1.2 litre of petrol. How much distance will it cover for one litre of petrol?
Solution:
For 1.2 litre of petrol the distance covered = 76.8 Km = \(\frac { 768 }{ 10 } \) Km

For 1 litre of petrol distance covered = 64 Km

Question 8.
Cost of levelling a land at the rate of ₹ 15.50 sq. ft is ₹ 10,075. Find the area of the land.
Solution:
Cost of levelling the entire land = ₹ 10,075
Cost of levelling 1 sq. ft = ₹ 15.50

∴ Area of the land = 650 sq.ft.

Question 9.
The cost of 28 books are ₹ 1506.4. Find the cost of one book.
Solution:
Cost of 28 books = ₹ 1506.4

Cost of 1 book = ₹ 53.80

Question 10.
The product of two numbers is 40.376. One number is 14.42. Find the other number.
Product of two numbers = 40.376
One number = 14.42

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
5.6 ÷ 0.5 = ?
(i) 11.4
(ii) 10.4
(iii) 0.14
(iv) 11.2
Answer:
(iv) 11.2
Hint:
\(\frac { 5.6 }{ 0.5 } \) = \(\frac { 56 }{ 5 } \)
= 11.2

Question 2.
2.01 ÷ 0.03 = ?
(i) 6.7
(ii) 67.0
(iii) 0.67
(iv) 0.067
Answer:
(ii) 67.0
Hint: \(\frac { 2.01 }{ 0.03 } \) = \(\frac { 201 }{ 3 } \)
= 67

Question 3.
0.05 ÷ 0.5 = ?
(i) 0.01
(ii) 0.1
(iii) 0.10
(iv) 1.0
Answer:
(ii) 0.1
Hint:

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.3

Question 1.
Find the product of the following
(i) 0.5 × 3
(ii) 3.75 × 6
(iii) 50.2 × 4
(iv) 0.03 × 9
(v) 453.03 × 7
(vi) 4 × 0.7
Solution:
(i) 0.5 × 3
5 × 3 = 15
∴ 0.5 × 3 = 1.5

(ii) 3.75 × 6

375 × 6 = 2250
3.75 × 6 = 22.50

(iii) 50.2 × 4

502 × 4 = 2008
50.2 × 4 = 200.8

(iv) 0.03 × 9
3 × 9 = 27
0.03 × 9 = 0.27

(v) 453.03 × 7

45303 × 7 = 317121
453.03 × 7 = 3171.21

(vi) 4 × 0.7
4 × 7 = 28
4 × 0.7 = 2.8

Question 2.
Find the area of the parallelogram whose base is 6.8 cm and height is 3.5 cm.
Solution:

Base of the parallelogram b = 6.8 cm
Height of the parallelogram h = 3.5 cm
Area of the parallelogram A = b × h sq.units = 6.8 × 3.5 cm²
Area of the parallelogram = 23.80 cm²

Question 3.
Find the area of the rectangle whose length is 23.7 cm and breadth is 15.2 cm.
Solution:

Length of the rectangle l = 23.7 cm
Breadth of the rectangle b= 15.2 cm
Area of the rectangle A = l × b sq.units
= 23.7 × 15.2 cm²
Area of the rectangle = 360.24 cm²

Question 4.
Multiply the following

1. 2.57 × 10
2. 0.51 × 10
3. 125.367 × 100
4. 34.51 × 100
5. 62.735 × 100
6. 0.7 × 10
7. 0.03 × 100
8. 0.4 × 1000

Solution:

1. 2.57 × 10 = 25.7
2. 0.51 × 10 = 5.1
3. 125.367 × 100 = 12536.7
4. 34.51 × 100 = 3451
5. 62.735 × 100 = 6273.5
6. 0.7 × 10 = 7.0
7. 0.03 × 100 = 3
8. 0.4 × 1000 = 400

Question 5.
A wheel of a baby cycle covers 49.7 cm in one rotation. Find the distance covered in 10 rotations.
Solution:
Length covered in 1 rotation = 49.7 cm
Length covered in 10 rotations = 49.7 × 10 cm = 497 cm

Question 6.
A picture chart costs ₹ 1.50. Radha wants to buy 20 charts to make an album. How much does she have to pay?
Solution:

Cost of 1 chart = ₹ 1.50
Cost of 20 charts = ₹ 1.50 × 20 = ₹ 30.00
Cost of 20 charts = ₹ 30

Question 7.
Find the product of the following.
(i) 3.6 × 0.3
(ii) 52.3 × 0.1
(iii) 537.4 × 0.2
(iv) 0.6 × 0.06
(v) 62.2 × 0.23
(vi) 1.02 × 0.05
(vii) 10.05 × 1.05
(viii) 101.01 × 0.01
(ix) 100.01 × 1.1
Solution:
(i) 3.6 × 0.3

36 × 3 = 108
3.6 × 0.3 = 1.08

(ii) 52.3 × 0.1
523 × 1 = 523
52.3 × 0.1 = 5.23

(iii) 537.4 × 0.2

5374 × 2 = 10748
537.4 × 0.2 = 107.48

(iv) 0.6 × 0.06
6 × 6 = 36
0.6 × 0.06 = 0.036

(v) 62.2 × 0.23

622 × 23 = 14306
62.2 × 0.23 = 14.306

(vi) 1.02 × 0.05
102 × 5 = 510
1.02 × 0.05 = 0.0510

(vii) 10.05 × 1.05

1005 × 105 = 105525
10.05 × 1.05 = 10.5525

(viii) 101.01 × 0.01
10101 × 1 = 10101
101.01 × 0.01 = 1.0101

(ix) 100.01 × 1.1
1001 × 11 = 110011
100.01 × 1.1 = 110.011

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
1.07 × 0.1 _______
(i) 1.070
(ii) 0.107
(iii) 10.70
(iv) 11.07
Answer:
(ii) 0.107
Hint:
107 × 1 = 107
1.07 × 0.1 = 0.107

Question 2.
2.08 × 10 = ______
(i) 20.8
(ii) 208.0
(iii) 0.208
(iv) 280.0
Answer:
(i) 20.8
Hint:
208 × 10 = 2080
2.08 × 10 = 20.80 = 20.8

Question 3.
A frog jumps 5.3 cm in one jump. The distance travelled by the frog in 10 jumps is _______
(i) 0.53 cm
(ii) 530 cm
(iii) 53.0 cm
(iv) 53.5 cm
Answer:
(iii) 53.0 cm
Hint:
53 × 10 = 530
5.3 × 10 = 53.0

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.2

Question 1.
Add by using grid 0.51 + 0.25.
Solution:
Here 0.51 = \(\frac { 51 }{ 100 } \) and 0.25 = \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 } \)

First we shade the region 0.51 and then 0.25.
The sum is the total shaded area. 0.51 + 0.25 = 0.76

Question 2.
Add the following by using place value grid.
(i) 25.8 + 18.53
(ii) 17.4 + 23.435
Solution:
(i) 25.8 + 18.53.
Using place value grid.

Therefore 25.8 + 18.53 = 44.33

(ii) 17.4 + 23.435
Lets use the place value grid.

Therefore 17.4 + 23.435 = 40.835

Question 3.
Find the value of 0.46 – 0.13 by grid model.
Solution:
Here 0.46 = \(\frac { 46 }{ 100 } \) and 0.13 = \(\frac { 13 }{ 100 } \)

Shading the region 0.46 and then crossing out 0.13 from the shaded area. The left out shaded region without cross marks is the difference. So 0.46 – 0.13 = 0.33

Question 4.
Subtract the following by using place value grid, (i) 6.567 from 9.231 (ii) 3.235 from 7
Solution:
(i) Let as use place value grid

Therefore 9.231 – 6.567 = 2.664

(ii) Let as use place value grid.

Therefore 7 – 3.235 = 3.765

Question 5.
Simplify: 23.5 – 27.89 + 35.4 – 17.
Solution:
23.5 – 27.89 + 35.4 – 17 = 14.01

Question 6.
Sulaiman bought 3.350 kg of Potato, 2.250 kg of Tomato and some onions. If the weight of the total items are 10.250 kg, then find the weight of onions?
Solution:
Weight of Potato = 3.350 kg
Weight of Tomato = 2.250 kg
Total weight of Potato and Tomato = (3.350 + 2.250 kg)
= 5.600 kg
Weight of potato, tomato and onions = 10.250
Weight of potato and tomato = 5.600
∴ Weight of onions = (10.250 – 5.600) Kg = 4.650 Kg
Weight of onions = 4.650 Kg

Question 7.
What should be subtracted from 7.1 to get 0.713?
Solution:
To get the number to be subtracted

We have 7.1 – 0.713 = 6.387
∴ The number to be subtracted = 6.387

Question 8.
How much is 35.6 km less than 53.7 km?
Solution:
To get the answer we must subtract 53.7km – 35.6 km = 18.1 km

So 35.6 km is 18.1 km less than 53.7 km.

Question 9.
Akilan purchased a geometry box for ₹ 25.75, a pencil for ₹ 3.75 and a pen for ₹ 17.90. He gave ₹ 50 to the shopkeeper. What amount did he get back?
Solution:
Cost of geometry box = ₹ 25.75 (+)
Cost of Pencil box = ₹ 3.75

Question 10.
Find the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with a side measuring 3.8 cm.
Solution:
Perimeter of an equilateral triangle = (Side + Side + Side) Sq. units.

Given side = 3.8
∴ Perimeter = 3.8 + 3.8 + 3.8
Perimeter of the triangle = 11.4 cm

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
1.0 + 0.83 = ?
(i) 0.17
(ii) 0.71
(iii) 1.83
(iv) 1.38
Answer:

(iii) 1.83

Question 2.
7.0 – 2.83 = ?
(i) 3.47
(ii) 4.17
(iii) 7.34
(iv) 4.73
Answer:

(ii) 4.17

Question 3.
Subtract 1.35 from 3.51
(i) 6.21
(ii) 4.86
(iii) 8.64
(iv) 2.16
Answer:

(iv) 2.16

Question 4.
Sum of two decimals is 4.78 and one decimal is 3.21 then the other one is
(i) 1.57
(ii) 1.75
(iii) 1.59
(iv) 1.58
Answer:

(i) 1.57

Question 15.
The difference of two decimals is 86.58 and one of the decimal is 42.31 Find the other one
(i) 128.89
(ii) 128.69
(iii) 128.36
(iv) 128.39
Answer:

(i) 128.89

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.1

Question 1.
Round each of the following decimals to the nearest whole number.
(i) 8.71
(ii) 26.01
(iii) 69.48
(iv) 103.72
(v) 49.84
(vi) 101.35
(vii) 39.814
(viii) 1.23
Solution.
(i) 8.71
Underlining the digit to be rounded 8.71. Since the digit next to the underlined digit, 7 which is greater than 5, adding 1 to the underlined digit.
Hence the nearest whole number 8.71 rounds to is 9.

(ii) 26.01
Underlining the digit to be rounded 26.01. Since the digit next to the underlined digit, 0 which is less than 5, the underlined digit 6 remains the same.
∴ The nearest whole number 26.01 rounds to is 26.

(iii) 69.48
Underlining the digit to be rounded 69.48. Since the digit next to the underlined digit, 4 which is less than 5, the underlined digit 9 remains the same.
∴ The whole number is 69.48 rounds to is 69.

(iv) 103.72
Underlining the digit to be rounded 103.72 since the digit next to the underlined digit, 7 which is greater than 5, we add 1 to the under lined digit.
Hence the nearest whole number 103.72 rounds to is 104.

(v) 49.84
Underlining the digit to be rounded 49.84. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 8 which is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit.
Hence the nearest whole number 49.84 rounds to 50.

(vi) 101.35
Underlining the digit to be rounded 101.35. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 3 is less than 5, the underlined digit 1 remains the same.
Hence the nearest whole number 101.35 rounds to is 101.

(vii) 39.814
Underlining the digit to be rounded 39.814. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 8 is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit.
Hence the nearest whole number 39.814 rounds to is 40.

(viii) 1.23
Underlining the digit to be rounded 1.23. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 2, is less than 5, the underlined digit 1 remains the same.
Hence the nearest whole number 1.23 rounds to is 1.

Question 2.
Round each decimal number to the given place value.
(i) 5.992; tenths place
(ii) 21.805; hundredth place
(iii) 35.0014; thousandth place
Solution:
(i) 992; tenths place
Underlining the digit to be rounded 5.992. Since the digit next to the underlined digit is 9 greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit.
Hence the rounded number is 6.0.

(ii) 21.805; hundredth place
Underlining the digit to be rounded 21.805 since the digit next to the underlined digit is 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit.
Hence the rounded number is 21.81.

(iii) 35.0014; thousandth place
Underlining the digit to be rounded 35.0014. Since the digit next to the underlined digit is 4 less than 5 the underlined digit remains the same.
Hence the rounded number is 35.001.

Question 3.
Round the following decimal numbers upto 1 places of decimal.
(i) 123.37
(ii) 19.99
(iii) 910.546
Solution:
(i) 123.37
Rounding 123.37 upto one places of decimal means round to the nearest tenths place. Underling the digit in the tenths place of 123.37 gives 123.37. Since the digit next to the tenth place value is 7 which is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit to get 123.4. Hence the rounded value of 123.37 upto one places of decimal is 123.4.

(ii) 19.99
Rounding 19.99 upto one places of decimal means round to the nearest tenth place. Underling the digit in the tenths place of 19.99 gives 19.99. Since the digit next to the tenth place value is 9 which is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit to get 20.
Hence the rounded value of 19.99 upto one places of decimal is 20.0.

(iii) 910.546
Rounding 910.546 upto one places of decimal means round to the nearest tenths place underlining the digit in the tenths place of 910.546 gives 910.546. Since the digit next to the tenth place value is 4, which is less than 5 the underlined digit remains the same. Hence the rounded value of 910.546 upto one places of decimal is 910.5.

Question 4.
Round the following decimal numbers upto 2 places of decimal.
(i) 87.755
(ii) 301.513
(iii) 79.997
Solution:
(i) 87.755
Rounding 87.755 upto 2 places of decimal means round to the nearest hundredths place. Underlining the digit in the hundredth place of 87.755 gives 87.755. Since the digit next to the hundredth place value is 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit.

Hence the rounded value of 87.755 upto two places of decimal is 87.76.

(ii) 301.513
Rounding 301.51 upto 2 places of decimal means round to the nearest hundredths place. Underlining the digit in the hundredth place of 301.513 gives 301.513. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 3 is less than 5, the underlined digit remains the same.

∴ The rounded value of 301.513 upto 2 places of decimal is 301.51.

(iii) 79.997
Rounding 79.997 upto 2 places of decimal means round to the nearest hundredths place. Underlining the digit in the hundredth place of 79.997 gives 79.997. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 7 is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined number.

Hence the rounded value of 79.997 upto 2 places of decimal is 80.00.

Question 5.
Round the following decimal numbers upto 3 place of decimal
(a) 24.4003
(b) 1251.2345
(c) 61.00203
Solution:
(a) 24.4003
Rounding 24.4003 upto 3 places of decimal means rounding to the nearest thousandths place. Underlining the digit in the thousandths place of 24.4003 gives 24.4003. In 24.4003 the digit next to the thousandths value is 3 which is less than 5.

∴ The underlined digit remains the same. So the rounded value of24.4003 upto 3 places of decimal is 24.400.

(b) 1251.2345
Rounding 1251.2345 upto 3 places of decimal means rounding to the nearest thousandths place. Underlining the digit in the thousandths place of 1251.2345 gives 1251.2345, the digit next to the thousandths place value is 5 and so we add 1 to the underlined digit. So the rounded value of 1251.2345 upto 3 places of decimal is 1251.235.

(c) 61.00203
Rounding 61.00203 upto 3 places of decimal means rounding to the nearest thousandths place. Underlining the digit in the thousandth place of 61.00203 gives 61.00203. In 61.00203, the digit next to the thousandths place value is 0, which is less than 5.

Hence the underlined digit remains the same. So the rounded value of 61.00203 upto 3 places of decimal is 61.002.

Students can Download Science Chapter 7 Visual Communication Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Visual Communication

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Visual Communication Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Which is the example for an Wimation ?
(a) sound communication
(b) visual communication
(c) vector communication
(d) raster communication
Answer:
(b) visual communication

Question 2.
Who uses the Photoshop software more?
(a) Teacher
(b) Doctor
(c) Painter
(d) Photographer
Answer:
(d) Photographer

Question 3.
Which option is used in the Microsoft Photostory to upload the photos?
(a) Begin a Story
(b) Import Pictures
(c) Settings
(d) View your Story
Answer:
(b) Import Pictures

Question 4.
Which technology shows the computer-drawn pictures as real picture.
(a) Inkscape
(b) Photo Story
(c) Virtual Reality
(d) Adobe Illustrator
Answer:
(c) Virtual Reality

Question 5.
Which technology uses pixels to create pictures
(a) Vector
(b) Raster
(c) both
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Raster

Question 6.
Which software is used to create symbols
(a) Photoshop
(b) Illustrator
(c) Vector Graphics
(d) Photostory
Answer:
(c) Vector Graphics

II. Match the following:

1.	Animations	(a)	3D
2.	Raster	(b)	Visual Communication
3.	Vector	(c)	Pixels
4.	Virtual Reality	(d)	Microsoft Photostory
5.	Video Story	(e)	Illustrator

Answer:

1. b
2. c
3. e
4. a
5. d

III. Answer the following Questions.

Question 1.
What is Raster Graphics?
Answer:

1. Raster Graphics are created on the basis of PIXELS.
2. The photos taken by camera and the photos scanned by a scanner are of the Raster type.
3. When we enlarge this type of photos we could see the pictures as rectangular layers or grids.

Question 2.
Write notes on 2D and 3D pictures.
Answer:
The two dimensional 2D images have only the two dimensions – length and height. But three dimensional images (3D) have length, height and width. 3D images appear in front of our eyes like it happens in the real world.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Raster and Vector
Answer:

S. No	Raster graphics	Vector graphics
1.	Raster graphics are created on the basis of Pixels	Vector graphics are created on the basis of Mathematics
2.	Raster File types are .png, .jpg, .gif, .tiff, .psd	Vector file types are .eps, .ai, .pdf, .svg, .sketch
3.	Software used to edit Raster Graphics is Adobe Photoshop	Software used for Vector Graphic Images – Adobe Illustrator, Sketch

Question 4.
With the help of Microsoft Photostory how will you create a video on a photostory?
Answer:
Microsoft Photostory can be used to make videos using photos. First we have to upload
the photos and then select music for the video.
Step 1: Open the application of ‘Microsoft Photostory’. In that select ‘Begin A New Story’ and click on Next.
Step 2: Click ‘Import Picture’ in the next screen. Now, the files in our computer will appear. Select Saved pictures for video.
Step 3: Now we can input small text which is apt to the pictures. Then click on ‘Next’ and give animation to the videos. We can give audio effect also to these images. After finishing this click on ‘Next”.
Step 4 : To provide background music, we can select a music file through “Select Music” and click on “Next”.
Step 5: Next select a title for the story and select the place where it has to be saved in your computer. Then, through SETTINGS, change the format of the video.
Step 6: Now our video is ready to view. Click ‘VIEW YOUR STORY’. You can see your video now.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Visual Communication Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Name the software which is used to beautify edit photos _________
(a) Photoshop
(b) paint
(c) Scratch
(d) Notepad
Answer:
(a) Photoshop

Question 2.
The output we get from any application is commonly referred as _________
(a) folder
(b) file
(c) Box
(d) Archive
Answer:
(b) file

Question 3.
_________ is a storage space that contains multiple files.
(a) Folder
(b) File
(c) Record
(d) Archire
Answer:
(a) Folder

Question 4.
_____ button at the left corner of the computer, it shows the list of all programs in the computer.
(a) Stop
(b) Start
(c) Begin
(d) New
Answer:
(b) Start

Question 5.
______ app used to draw and edit pictures.
(a) Paint
(b) Colout
(c) Art
(d) Picture
Answer:
(a) Paint

II. Match the following:

1.	Raster Graphics	(a)	Vector
2.	Picture	(b)	Real image
3.	Beautify photos	(c)	Operating system
4.	Virtual Reality in 3D	(d)	Photoshop
5.	LINUX	(e)	PIXELS

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. c

III. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What is ‘Photoshop’?
Answer:
Photoshop is a software used to beautify and edit the photos. It is used by photographers.

Question 2.
Write is difference between a file and a folder?
Answer:

S. No	Files	Folders
1.	The output from an application.	Storage space that contains multiple files.
2.	Files store data	Folders store files.

Question 3.
Write the types of vector Graphics files.
Answer:
Types of Vector Graphics Files

1. .eps (Encapsulated Post Script)
2. .ai (Adobe Illustrator Artwork)
3. .pdf (Portable Document Format)
4. .svg (Scalable Vector Graphics)
5. .sketch

Question 4.
Name the softwares used to edit the Vector Graphics Images.
Answer:

1. Adobe Illustrator
2. Sketch
3. Inkscape.

Question 5.
Name the types of pictures?
Answer:
Pictures are of two types

1. Vector
2. Raster

Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 3 Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Where was the first Jain Council held to codify the Jaina canon?
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Vallabhi
(c) Mathura
(d) Kanchipuram
Answer:
(a) Pataliputra

Question 2.
In which language was Agama sutras written?
(a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit
(b) Hindi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Pali
Answer:
(a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit

Question 3.
Which of the following was patronised by the Kalabhras?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Ajivikas
(d) Hinduism
Answer:
(b) Jainism

Question 4.
Where are the Rock beds found with no head-rests?
(a) Vellore
(b) Kanchipuram
(c) Sittanavasal
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Vellore

Question 5.
Who is believed to have built the Kazhugumalai Rock-Cut Temple?
(a) Mahendra Varman
(b) Parantaka Nedunchadayan
(c) Parantaka Veera Narayana Pandyan
(d) Harihara II
Answer:
(b) Parantaka Nedunchadayan

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The image of is considered to be the tallest Jain image in Tamil Nadu.
2. Buddhacharita was written by .
3. Chinese traveller Huein Tsang visited Pallava country in century.
4. describes Buddhism as a religion in decay.
5. The Mauryan emperor Asoka and his grandson Dasarata patronised .

Answer:

1. Neminatha
2. Asvaghosa
3. 7th
4. Mahendravarman’s Mattavilasa Prahasana
5. Ajivikas

III. Match the following

Kalpa sutra	–	Tiruthakkathevar
Jivaka Chintamani	–	Madurai
Neminatha	–	Nagasena
Milinda Panha	–	Bhadrabahu
Kizha Kuyil Kudi	–	22nd Tirthankara

Answer:

Kalpa sutra	–	Bhadrabahu
Jivaka Chintamani	–	Tiruthakkathevar
Neminatha	–	22nd Tirthankara
Milinda Panha	–	Nagasena
Kizha Kuyil Kudi	–	Madurai

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Find out the odd one
Tiruparuttikunram, Kizha Kuyil Kudi, Kazhugumalai, Nagapattinam, Sittanavasal.
Answer:
Nagapattinam

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Gautama found that he had nothing to learn from the teachers of the old religions.
Reason (R): The religions proclaimed that the only way to salvation was through living the life of an ascetic.
(a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong. (d) A is wrong. But R is correct.
Answer:
(a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement/s

1. During the 6th century B.C. as many as 62 religious schools flourished in India.
2. ‘Palli’ is an educational centre of Buddhists.
3. Royal patronage allowed pre-Muslim India to become a land of vihars.
4. The Ajivikas continued to exist till 15th century.

(a) i) and iii) are correct
(b) i), ii) and iv) are correct.
(c) i) and ii) are correct
(d) ii), iii) and iv) are correct.
Answer:
(a) i) and iii) are correct

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair/s

1. Parshvanatha – 22nd Tirthankara
2. Mahabashya – the Ceylonese Chroniclei
3. Visuddhimagga – Buddhagosha
4. Buddha – Eight-fold Path

Answer:

1. Parshvanatha – 22nd Tirthankara

V. True or False

1. The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.
2. Throughout history, Ajivikas had to face persecution everywhere.
3. Education was imparted in institutions of Jains irrespective of caste and creed.
4. Nalanda, Taxila and Vikramashila gained reputation as pilgrim centres.
5. Buddhism faced challenges from Saiva and Vaishnava sects from the Chola period onwards.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. False

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Make a list of the Five Great Vows of Jainism.
Answer:
Five Great Vows of Jainism:

1. Non-violence – Ahimsa
2. Truth – Satya
3. Non-stealing – Achaurya
4. Celibacy/Chastity – Brahmacharya
5. Non-possession – Aparigraha.

Question 2.
What are the four noble truths of Buddha?
Answer:

1. Life includes pain, getting old, disease, and ultimately death.
2. Suffering is caused by craving and aversion.
3. Suffering can be overcome and happiness attained.
4. True happiness and contentment are possible, if one pursues the eight-fold path.

Question 3.
Explain the three divisions of Tripitaka.
Answer:

1. The Pali canon Tripitaka has three divisions, also known as the Threefold Basket. They include Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
2. Vinaya Pitaka contains the rules of the order of Buddhist monks, which must be observed for achieving purity of conduct.
3. Sutta Pitaka lays down the principles of religion by citing discourses as evidence.
4. Abhidhamma Pitaka is the latest of the Tripitaka. It deals with ethics, philosophy and meta-physics.

Question 4.
Highlight the importance of Sittanavasal.
Answer:

1. Sittanavasal cave in Pudukkottai district is located on a prominent rock that stands 70 m above the ground.
2. It has a natural cavern, known as Eladipattam, at one end, and a rock-cut cave temple at the other.
3. The largest of these ascetic beds contains a Tamil-Brahmi inscription that dates to the 2nd century B.C.
4. The Sittanavasal cave temple, named Arivar Koil, lies on the west off the hillock. The facade of the temple is simple, with four rock-cut columns.
5. Constructed in the early Pandya period, in the 7th century A.D. , it has a hall in the front called the Ardha-mandapam.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the sources of study for Jainism and Buddhism.
Answer:

Sources of Jainism:

1. Mahaviras preaching was orally transmitted by his disciples over the course of about .one thousand years.
2. In the early period of Jainism, monks strictly followed the five great vows of Jainism. Even religious scriptures were considered possessions and therefore knowledge of the religion was never documented.
3. Two hundred years after the death of Mahavira, Jain scholars attempted to codify the canon by convening an assembly at Pataliputra, but it ended as a failure.
4. A second council held at Vallabhi, in the 5th century A.D., was, however, successful in
5. Over time, many learned monks, older in age and rich in wisdom, had compiled commentaries on various topics.

Sources of Buddhism:

1. Buddhas teachings for a long time were transmitted through the memory of teachers and disciples.
2. They were reduced to writing by 80 B.C. and were written in the Pali language.
3. The Pali canon Tripitaka has three divisions, also known as the Threefold Basket. They include Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.

Question 2.
Give an account of relics of Jainism and Buddhism that have come to light in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Jains in Kanchipuram:

1. Jainism flourished during the Pallava reign.
2. The two Jain temples in Kanchipuram are Trilokyanatha Jinaswamy Temple at Tiruparuttikunram and the Chandra Prabha temple dedicated to the Tirtankara named Chandra Prabha.
3. Mural paintings in the temples show scenes from the lives of Tirtankaras.
4. In the Kanchipuram district, Jain vestiges have been found over the years in many villages across the state.

Kazhugumalai Jain Rock-cut Temple:

1. The Kazhugumalai temple in Thoothukudi district marks the revival of Jainism in Tamil Nadu.
2. Polished rock-cut cave beds, popularly known as Panchavar Padukkai at Kazhugumalai cavern host the figures of Tirtankaras and also the figures of yakshas and yakshis. Jain temples have also been excavated in the districts of Vellore, Tiruvannamalai and Madurai.

Buddhism in Tamilzhakam:

1. Buddhism is believed to have spread to the Tamil country by the Ceylonese missionaries.
2. The monuments are in caverns known as Pancha Pandava Malai.
3. Chudamani Vihara of Nagapattinam was constructed by the Srivijaya king with the patronage of Rajaraja Chola.
4. In the field of education, Buddhist Sanghas and Viharas served as centers of education.
5. Nalanda, Taxila and Vikramshila gained reputation as great educational centres. They were originally Buddhist Viharas.
6. Excavations of Buddhist Vihara and a temple at Kaveripoompattinam and hundreds of stone and bronze sculptures by ASI from over 125 sites have proved the spread of the religion in the state.

Question 3.
Discuss the essence of Ajivika philosophy and its presence in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Ajivika Philosophy:

1. The Ajivikas believed in the doctrine of karma, transmigration of the soul and determinism.
2. The Ajivikas practiced asceticism of a severe type.
3. The Ajivika religious order and school of philosophy is known from the vedic hymns, the Brahmanas, the Aryankas and other ancient Sanskrit compilations.
4. Throughout history, Ajivikas had to face persecution everywhere.
5. Village communities under Pallavas, Cholas and Hoysalas imposed special taxes on them.
6. Despite such obstacles, Ajivikas continued to have influence along the Palar river in the modern states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (Vellore, Kanchipuramand Tiruvallur districts) till about the 14th century. In the end, they seemed to have been absorbed into Vaishnavism.

VIII. HOTS.

Question 1.
Analyse the commonalities and differences between heterodox religions and Vedic religion.
Answer:
Heterodox religions and Vedic religion commonalities:
Hinduism is a way of life, while heterodox religions like Buddhism and Jainism advocate a way of life. All the religions doctrines are codified into texts to be followed by their devotees and practitioners. All these religions share key concepts, which one interpreted differently by different individuals.
Differences:

Heterodox religions	Vedic religion
No rituals	Rituals and practices had become elaborate and expensive.
Ahimsa was preached.	Animal sacrifice existed.
Alternative basis of social order propagated.	Birth based social status was prevalent.

Question 2.
Why did these heterodox religions fail to become mainstream religion in India?
Answer:

1. As far as Buddhism was concerned, if declined due to the loss of patronage and donation after the end of the Gupta Empire.
2. Invasion of north India by Huns, Turco Mongols and Persians was yet-another reason.
3. In the case of Jainism Lack of Patronage, Lack of efforts to spread the religion. Jains adopted many Hindu faiths. Jains started to differentiate people in the name of castes and classes.
4. Role of Hindu teachers was also another reason for the failure of these religions in India.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Agama Sutras consists of many sacred books of the ______ religion
(a) Jain
(b) Buddhist
(c) Vedic
(d) Sikh
Answer:
(a) Jain

Question 2.
The______ Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.
(a) 3rd
(b) 8th
(c) 12th
(d) 10th
Answer:
(c) 12th

Question 3.
______ was the last and the 24th Tirthankara.
(a) Parshvanatha
(b) Mahavira
(c) Bhadrabahu
(d) Pushpasena
Answer:
(b) Mahavira

Question 4.
Jainism flourished during the ________ reign.
(a) Pandya
(b) Chera
(c) Chola
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(d) Pallava

Question 5.
The total population of jains in tamil nadu is _______ percent of the total population
(a) 1.2
(b) 0.50
(c) 0.12
(d) 0.26
Answer:
(c) 0.12

Question 6.
Tirumalai is a Jain temple in a cave complex located in ________ district.
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruvannamalai
(c) Salem
(d) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(b) Tiruvannamalai

Question 7.
Milindapanha was originally written in ________
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Pali
(c) Hindi
(d) Urdu
Answer:
(a) Sanskrit

Question 8.
Students from Tibet and China were influenced by ________
(a) Jainism
(b) Buddhism
(c) Hinduism
(d) Sikhism
Answer:
(b) Buddhism

Question 9.
Buddhist Viharas later transformed into ________
(a) temples
(b) hospital
(c) centres of learning
(d) forts
Answer:
(c) centres of learning

Question 10.
In the end, they seemed to have been absorbed into ________
(a) Jainism
(b) Sikhism
(c) Saivism
(d) Vishnavism
Answer:
(d) Vishnavism

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Both the Digambaras and the Swetambaras generally acknowledge the _______ to be their early literature.
2. The _______ of Kalpa Sutra is a Jain text containing the biographies of the Jain Tirtankaras
3. Tamils broadly come under ______ sects of jainism
4. The Sittanavasal cave temple has a natural cavern, known as ______
5. The Sittanavasal cave temple, named ______ lies on the west off the hillock.
6. The Chinese traveller ______ visited Tamil Nadu during the Pallava rule.
7. Polished rock-cut cave beds at Kazhugumalai were popularly known as ______
8. ______ is a Jain temple in a cave complex located near Arni town.
9. The sculptures at Kizha Kuyil Kudi are assigned to the period of ______
10. ______ is an educational centre of Jains.
11. Buddha’s original name ______
12. Gautama Buddha was a contemporary of ______
13. Buddha means the _______
14. Buddha preached his teachings in ______
15. Buddha’s teachings were written in the _____ Language
16. ______ is the first Buddhist Commentator.
17. The Tamil epic _____ was written by Kulavanigan Sithalai Sattanar.
18. A 1.03 metre Buddha statue in _______ pose in remote Tirunattiyattankudi village.
19. A ______ in Sanskrit means ‘dwelling’ or ‘house’.
20. The head of Ajivika sect was ______

Answer:

1. Agatna Sutras
2. Jainacharitha
3. Digambara
4. Eladipattam
5. Arivar Koil
6. Hieun Tsang
7. Panchavar Padukkai
8. Tirumalai
9. Prantaka veera Narayana Pandyan
10. Palli
11. Siddhartha Sakyamuni Gautama
12. Mahavira
13. Enlightened
14. Prakrit
15. Pali
16. Buddhagosha
17. Manimekalai
18. padmasana
19. Vihara
20. Gosala Mankhaliputta

III. Match the following:

Maha Bhasya	–	a) instructions manuals
Angas	–	b) rules of conduct for the monks
Upangas	–	c) great commentary
Chedas	–	d) basic doctrine of Jainism
Mulas	–	e) scriptures for Swetambaras

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. d

IV. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Find out the odd one out.
Jatakas, Mahavamsa, Jivaka Chintamani, Visuddhimagga
Answer:
Jivaka Chintamani

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A major split occurred in Jainism in the 1st century B.C. into two sects.
Reason (R): Both the sects acknowledge the Agama Sutras to be their early literature, but differed with their content and interpretation.
(a) A is correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong. (d) A is wrong. But R is correct.
Answer:
(b) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement/s
Answer:

1. The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.
2. Naladiyar is attributed to a Buddhist monk
3. Vajrabodhi was a Buddhist monk skilled in tantric rituals.
4. Emperor Asoka and his grandson Dasaratha patronised Jainism,

(a) i) and ii) are correct
(b) ii) and iii) are correct.
(c) i) and iii) are correct
(d) i), ii) and iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) i) and iii) are correct

Question 4.
Find out the wrong

Irugappa	–	Pushpasena
Thevaram	–	Azhwars
Nalayira Divyaprabandam	–	Saiva saints
Buddhacharita	–	Asvaghosa

Answer:
(2) Thevaram – Azhwars,
(3) Nalayira Divyaprabandam – Saiva saints

V. Write True or False

1. Buddhism split into two sects Digambaras and Swetambaras.
2. The Jainacharitha of Kalpa Sutra is ascribed to Bhadrabahu.
3. Thirukkural was composed by Tiruvalluvar, believed to be a Jain scholar.
4. The images of Rishab Nath, Mahavira, Parshvanath and Bahubali are found in Bhairavamalai.
5. Buddhavamsa contains a narration of the life and activities of the 24 Buddhas.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. True

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Why did the Jain monks decide to document the Jain literature known to them?
Answer:

1. The Jain acharyas (teachers) realised that it was extremely difficult to keep memorising the entire Jain literature complied by the many scholars of the past and present.
2. In fact, significant knowledge was already lost and the rest was tampered with modifications. Hence, they decided to document the Jain literature as known to them.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Agama Sutras.
Answer:

1. Agama Sutras consists of many sacred books of the Jain religion.
2. They have been written in the Ardha-magadhi Prakrit language.
3. Containing the direct preaching of Mahavira, consisting of 12 texts, they were originally compiled by immediate disciples of Mahavira.
4. The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.

Question 3.
Who are Tirthankaras?
Answer:
Tirthankaras are those who have attained nirvana and made a passage from this world to the next.

Question 4.
Who expanded the Trilokyanatha Temple and how?
Answer:
Irugappa, a disciple of Jaina-muni Pushpasena; and a minister of Vijayanagar King Harihara II (1377-1404), expanded the Trilokyanatha Temple by adding the Sangeetha mandapa. The grand murals were added only at this time.

Question 5.
How were the paintings at Trilokyanatha temple ruined?
Answer:
The paintings of the Trilokyanatha temple at Tiruparuttikunram have been ruined by overpainting done during renovation.

Question 6.
What literary work in Tamil provided evidence to the challenges Buddhism faced?
Answer:
The Thevaram hymns of Saiva saints and the Nalayira Divyaprabandam of Vaishnava Azhwars provided evidence to the challenges Buddhism faced in Tamil country.

Question 7.
What testify the presence of Buddhism in later period?
Answer:
The presence of Virasozhiyam, Later Chola period grammar text and the discovery of 13th century Buddhist bronzes in Nagapattinam testify to the presence of Buddhism in later periods. The sculptures of Buddha in Thiyaganur village in Salem district strengthen this conclusion.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Narrate the transition of Gautama Buddha.
Answer:

1. Buddha’s original name, Siddhartha Sakyamuni Gautama, if translated into English, would mean Gautama who belongs to the Sakya tribe and who has reached the goal of perfection.
2. Gautama Buddha was a contemporary of Mahavira.
3. His father ruled the tribe of Sakya in a region near the present-day Nepal.
4. Gautama found that he had nothing to learn from the teachers of the old religions.
5. The religions proclaimed that the only way to salvation was through living the life of an ascetic. But despite practicing asceticism, Gautama could not arrive anywhere near the truth. And one night, as he sat under a bodhi-tree struggling with his doubt and his loneliness, a great peace descended on him.
6. He was no longer Gautama, the sceptic, but became Buddha, the Enlightened.

Students can Download Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Exploring Continents – North America and South America Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ______ separates North America from Asia
(a) Bering Strait
(b) Palk Straits
(c) Malacca Strait
(d) Gibraltar straits
Answer:
(a) Bering Strait

Question 2.
__________ is known as the “sugar bowl of the world”
(a) Mexico
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Cuba
Answer:
(d) Cuba

Question 3.
__________ are the longest rivers in North America
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers
(b) The Mackenzieriver
(c) The St. Lawrence river
(d) The Colorado river
Answer:
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers

Question 4.
__________ is the longest mountain chain in the world.
(a) The Andes
(b) TheRockies
(c) The Himalayas
(d) The Alps
Answer:
(a) The Andes

Question 5.
__________ basin gets rainfall every day because of its equatorial location
(a) The Mackenzie
(b) The Orinoco
(c) The Amazon
(d) The Parana
Answer:
(c) The Amazon

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _______ 86 m below the sea level is the lowest part of the continent of North America.
2. _______ is one of the worlds best fishing grounds.
3. The highest peak in the Andes is ______ on the Chile – Argentina border.
4. _______ of the equatorial regions are called the “lungs of the world”.
5. _______ is also known as the “coffee pot” of the world.

Answer:

1. Death valley is
2. Grand Bank
3. Mt Aconcagua
4. The Selvas
5. Brazil

III. Match the following

Mount McKinley	–	Tropical forests
Grand Canyon	–	The flightless bird
Ebony	–	The Colorado River
4’O Clock Rains	–	6194 m
Rhea	–	The equatorial regions

Answer:

Mount McKinley	–	6194 m
Grand Canyon	–	The Colorado River
Ebony	–	The equatorial regions
4’O Clock Rains	–	Tropical forests
Rhea	–	The flightless bird

IV. Give Reasons.

Question 1.
The eastern coast of North America particularly USA enjoys mild climate.
Answer:
The South and east is usually warm all the year round and the regions around the mouth of the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow on-shore in summer.

Question 2.
United States of America is known as “Melting Pot”.
Answer:
United States of America is known as “Melting Pot” where hundreds of different cultures meet, blend and creating a new culture.

Question 3.
Though Quito and Amazon basin are in the same latitude Quito enjoys eternal Spring. Whereas Amazon basin is hot.
Answer:

1. The climate of the continent of South America has been closely influenced by the latitudes, attitudes and the proximity of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
2. It is hot in the Amazon basin as the equator passes through it whereas Quito, situated almost on the same latitude on the Andes, has “Eternal Spring”.
3. That is, it has a pleasant climate throughout the year because of its high altitude at 9,350 feet or2849.88 meter above the sea level.

Question 4.
Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tropical fish.
Answer:

1. Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tropical fish. Here the cool Humboldt Current helps in bring plankton, which is the main food for fishes.
2. Commercial deep sea fishing off of Peru’s coastal belt of over 3000 km.
3. Peruvian waters normally abound with sword fish, mackerel, yellow fin, pompano and shark.
4. More than 50 species are caught commercially. –
5. There are over 40 fishing ports on the Peruvian coast.
6. Paita and Callao are being the most important centers in Peru.

V. Distinguish between

Question 1.
The Rocky mountain and the Appalachian mountain.
Answer:

S.No.	Rocky mountain	Appalachian mountain
1.	The western part of North America is occupied by long ranges of young fold mountains known as Rocky mountains.	The eastern part of North America is formed of old fold Appalachian which are not continuous like Rockies.
2.	The width varies from 110 to 480 kms.	There are few peaks more than 1800m high.
3.	The Rocky mountains are west of the Mississippi River.	The Appalachian Mountains are east of the river.

Question 2.
The Prairies and the Pampas grassland.
Answer:

S.No.	Prairies grassland	Pampas grassland
1.	The temperate grasslands of North America are known as Prairies.	The temperate grasslands of South America are known as Pampas.
2.	Region – Central USA and Central Canada.	Region – North of Eastern part of Argentina, Uruguay and Southern most Brazil.
3.	Winter is very cold, Summer is hot and rainfall is moderate.	Summer is quite warm and winter is cold and moderate rainfall.
4.	Flora – Grasses	Flora – short grass.
5.	Fauna – Coyote, Gophers, Rabbits Prairie Dogs and Bison.	Fauna – Rhea, Pampas Deer, Jaguar, Camel, Stag etc.

Question 3.
Tundra and Taiga.
Answer:

S.No.	Thndra	Taiga
1.	Region – Northern coast of Canada and Northern Islands.	Region – The coniferous forests are found in Alaska and Canada, South Central Alaska and North Eastern Canada.
2.	Climate – Winter is long and severely cold, Summer is short and cool. Rainfall is scanty.	Climate – Winter is very cold, Summer is warm and short. Heavy snowfall in winter.
3.	Flora – Mosses, Lichens and Dwarf willows.	Flora – Pine, Fir, Cedar and Spruce.
4.	Fauna – Arctic fox, Reindeer, Musk ox, Polar bears, Sable and Blue fox.	Fauna – Beaver, Fox, Sable, Ermine, Skunk, Caribou and Grizzly Bears.

VI. Put (✓) for the correct option

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Cotton grows well in southern and western states of North America.
Reason (R): Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil which provide favourable condition.
(a) Both A and R is correct.
(b) A is correct and R is wrong,
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R is correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) industries in the South America has developed rapidly.
Reason (R) :The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) need for industrialization,
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct and R is wrong,
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(c) A is wrong and R is correct

VII. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Name the boundaries of North America.
Answer:

1. North America is surrounded by the Pacific Ocean in the West, the Atlantic Ocean in the east, Arctic Ocean in the north and South America in the south.
2. The North America is joined with the South America by the Isthmus of Panama.
3. The Bering Strait separates North America from Asia.

Question 2.
Write a note on Mackenzie River.
Answer:
The Mackenzie River is the second largest drainage basin of North America. It has it source from Great Slave Lake and drains into Arctic Ocean.

Question 3.
What type of fruits are cultivated in North America? Name some of them.
Answer:

1. Mainly Citrus Fruits are cultivated in Texas, California, Great Lakes regions and St. Lawrence Valley.
2. The important Fruits of North America are Cranberries, Blueberries, Concord Grapes, Strawberries, Gooseberries and the other fruits.

Question 4.
Give a short note about the lifestyle of an Eskimos.
Answer:

1. Eskimos live in the very cold and inhospitable region where plenty of fish varieties are available.
2. They were able to dress themselves in thick warm clothes made of fur, they live in igloos.
3. Their lives were very simple and they could not alter the environment to any extent.
4. They specially designed a house by ice and is known as igloos.

Question 5.
Which are the densely populated areas of North America?
Answer:
Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida, California, Mexico and Central America are the mostly densely populated areas.

Question 6.
Name the physiographic divisions of South America.
Answer:
On the basis of topographical features, the continent may be divided into the following physiographic divisions:

1. The Andes Mountains
2. The River Basin or Central Plains
3. The Eastern Highlands

Question 7.
What is called “4’O clock rains”?
Answer:
In equatorial regions convectional rain occurs almost daily in the afternoons. It generally occurs at 4pm that’s why it is known as 4’ O Clock Rain.

Question 8.
Name the flora and fauna of equatorial forest in South America.
Answer:

1. Flora: Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, Logwood, Brazil nuts and Ceiba.
2. Fauna: Anaconda, Armadillo, Piranha, Monkey, Snake, Crocodile and Parrots.

Question 9.
What is known as “Estancias”?
Answer:
The Breeds raised on large pasture lands is known as Estancias. These are divided into several paddocks. Besides this, there are small yards known as corrals where animals are sorted and branded. The owner is the Estanciera who has a number of gauchos.

Question 10.
Name the major export of South America.
Answer:
South Americas major exports are mostly primary commodities such as sugar, coffee, cocoa, tobacco, beef, corn, wheat, petroleum, natural gas, linseed, cotton, iron ore, tin and copper. South Americas products include mostly exported to North America and Europe.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the climate of North America.
Answer:

1. The vast latitudinal extent from the Tropics to the Polar Regions makes the climate of North America as varied as that of Asia.
2. Unlike the Himalayas, the Rockies run north to south which do not form climatic barrier and do not prevent the icy winds from the Arctic region and penetrating the central plains which therefore have a very long cold winter and very short hot summer.
3. Precipitation occurs due to cyclonic storms.
4. The Arctic region is cold and mostly dry and has a very short summers and a very long bitterly cold winter.
5. As one proceeds southwards the short summers become warm but the winters are very cold.
6. The central plains have extreme climate from freezing conditions in winter to tropical heat in summer.
7. The South is usually warm all the year round and the regions around the mouth of the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow on-shore in summer.
8. The warm moist South Westerlies not only bring rainfall to the North West coast and also keep it warm.
9. The warm Alaskan Current keeps the North West coast ice free.
10. The State of California in USA has a Mediterranean Climate with moist winter and dry summers.

Question 2.
Describe the Heavy Engineering Industries in North America.
Heavy Engineering Industries:
Answer:

1. Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power, involvement of huge investment and large transport costs are called heavy industries.
2. These industries depend heavily on the Iron and Steel industry.
3. The important Heavy Industries are automobile industries, aircraft industries, ship building industries, Railway Wagon industries and farm equipment industries.
4. USA is the largest producer of automobiles.
5. The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo, Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in USA and Windsor in Canada.

Question 3.
Describe the drainage system in South America.
Answer:

1. Owing to the position of the Andes all the great rivers of the continent drain into the Atlantic.
2. The Pacific streams are short and swift but along the coastlands of Peru their waters are used for irrigation and to some extent for hydro-electric power. Amazon is the longest river of South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world.
3. This river has over a thousand of tributaries.
4. The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos are important tributaries.
5. At the point where it enters the sea the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.
6. The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the Caribbean Sea.
7. The river Paraguay has the Parana and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which together form and known as the Platte River system.
8. All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.

Question 4.
Write briefly about the major races in South America.
Answer:

1. South America contains the world s most mixed population.
2. Many people in South America are descended from European, especially the Spanish and Portuguese, who begin to arrive during the 15th century.
3. The descendants of African slaves brought over by the Europeans. Native people still live in the mountain and the rainforests and keeping their own languages and traditions.
4. There are three major races found in South America and are
   • American Indian
   • European
   • Blacks.
     The mixed population of Native Indians and Europeans is known as ‘Mestizo’.
5. The mixed population of European and the Blacks is called ‘Mulato’ and the mixture of Native Indians and Blacks is called ‘Zambo’.
6. The current population of South America is 429, 115, 060 (42.25 cores). Population density of South America is 21 persons per square kilometer.
7. South America is positioned 5th rank in total population among the continents

IX. Map skill

Question 1.
With the help of the map given in the text and an atlas, name the seas and bays in North America
Answer:

Question 2.
Mark the rivers Amazon, Orinoco, Negro, Paraguay, Uruguay on a map of South America.
Answer:

X. Activity

Question 1.
Given below are some important cities with industries placed in brackets. Pick out the correct answer from them.
(a) Pittsburgh (Textile, Iron and steel, Shipping)
(b) Chicago (Meat Packing, Woolen textile, Heavy Engineering)
(c) Ontario (Automobile, Paper, Cement)
(d) Chile (Oil refinery, Sugar, Cotton textile)
(e) Uruguay (Leather processing, Copper smelting, Dairy products)
Answer:
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Meat Packing
(c) Paper
(d) Oil refinery
(e) Dairy products

Question 2.
Write down the answers to the question given in blocks:
(a) Name the highest peak in South America.

(b) An active volcano in South America

(c) The combined Parana and Paraguay river.

(d) The highest falls in the world.

(e) The largest river in the world.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Exploring Continents – North America and South America Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In _______ North America was discovered by Christopher Columbus.
(a) 1492
(b) 1491
(c) 1498
(d) 1496
Answer:
(a) 1492

Question 2.
The landmass was named America in _____ after Italian explorer America Vespucci.
(a) 1506
(b) 1507
(c) 1508
(d) 1509
Answer:
(b) 1507

Question 3.
North America is the __________ largest continent next to Asia and Africa
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(b) third

Question 4.
North America has _____ time zones
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 5.
The _____ small countries which lies to the south of Mexico are referred to as central America
(a) six
(b) seven
(c) eight
(d) nine
Answer:
(b) seven

Question 6.
Death Valley is about _______ m below the sea level and is the lowest part of the continent of North America.
(a) 86
(b) 90
(c) 95
(d) 100
Answer:
(a) 86

Question 7.
Mount McKinley is about m _______ above the sea level and is the highest peak of North America.
(a) 6194
(b) 6195
(c) 6180
(d) 6185
Answer:
(a) 6194

Question 8.
The width of Rocky mountains varies from _______ to _______ kms.
(a) 100 to 500
(b) 110 to 480
(c) 115 to 485
(d) 120 to 490
Answer:
(b) 110 to 480

Question 9.
Mississippi and Missouri together form the _______ longest river system in the world.
(a) sixth
(b) fourth
(c) fifth
(d) third
Answer:
(b) fourth

Question 10.
The warm Alaskan Current keeps the _______ coast ice free.
(a) Northwest
(b) Northeast
(c) Southwest
(d) Southeast
Answer:
(a) North West

Question 11.
Approximately _____ percentage of the total land area is under forest cover.
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 30

Question 12.
North America accounts for approximately ________ Percentage of the world’s production of timber
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50

Question 13.
Wheat was introduced by ________ settlers in North America.
(a) European
(b) Spanish
(c) Italian
(d) Dutch
Answer:
a) European

Question 14.
North America is the largest producer of meat and about ________ of the world production.
(a) one fourth
(b) one sixth
(c) half
(d) three fourth
Answer:
(a) one fourth

Question 15.
North America produces about ________ percent of the world total milk and dairy products.
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 25
(d) 40
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 16.
The New England region contains ________ % woolen textile industries.
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 50
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 70

Question 17.
North America is the ________ largest produce of synthetic fibres.
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(a) second

Question 18.
The population density in North America is about ________ present per sq.km.
(a) 20
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
Answer:
(a) 20

Question 19.
North America population is equivalent to ________ % of the world total population.
(a) 4.75
(b) 4.76
(c) 4.77
(d) 4.78
Answer:
(c) 4.77

Question 20.
________ has the biggest railway yard in the world.
(a) Chicago
(b) Vancouver
(c) Newyork
(d) San Francisco
Answer:
(a) Chicago

Question 21.
There are ________ great rivers in south America that drain into Atlantic Ocean.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) three

Question 22.
The ________ is grown extensively on the Pampas of Argentina.
(a) maize
(b) wheat
(c) millets
(d) sugarcane
Answer:
(b) wheat

Question 23.
Brazil stands ________ in the production of Coffee and in Cocoa in the world.
(a) first, third
(b) third, first
(c) fourth, sixth
(d) fifth, sixth
Answer:
(a) first, third

Question 24.
South America has ________ varieties of fish that inhabit this river.
(a) 750
(b) 850
(c) 950
(d) 550
Answer:
(a) 750

Question 25.
There are over ________ fishing ports on the Peruvian coast.
(a) 50
(b) 45
(c) 40
(d) 55
Answer:
(c) 40

Question 26.
River Amazon has ________ varieties of fish.
(a) 700
(b) 750
(c) 800
(d) 850
Answer:
(b) 750

Question 27.
South America contains ________ of the world’s iron ore reserves.
(a) one seventh
(b) one fifth
(c) one sixth
(d) one third
Answer:
(b) one fifth

Question 28.
Brazil and Chile both have massive deposits of ________
(a) iron ore
(b) copper
(c) coal
(d) gypsum
Answer:
(a) iron ore

Question 29.
Brazil is estimated to have about ________ % of the world export of iron ore.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 14
Answer:
(b) 15

Question 30.
South America is positioned ________ rank in totoal population among the continents
(a) 4th
(b) 3rd
(c) 5th
(d) 8th
Answer:
(c) 5th

Question 31.
Population density of south America is ________ personal per square kilometer.
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 21
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 21

Question 32.
Chile is the ________ largest producer of copper in the world.
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(b) third

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ is a continent of great physical diversity.
2. The _______ mountain range extends for about. the Panama Strait in the south.
3. The_______ and ______ rivers are the longest rivers in North America.
4. The ______ river is the second largest drainage basin of North America.
5. St. Lawrence has its origin in ______
6. The ______ river forms the boundary between USA and Mexico.
7. Lake ______ is the largest fresh water lake in the world.
8. ______ is a well developed industry particular in Canada.
9. Cuba is known as ______
10. Edible oil is extracted from ______ .
11. Cattle and pigs are fed with ______ and ______
12. The ______ current brings plenty of plankton which provides food for fish.
13. ______ is the largest producer and exporter of all kinds of paper in the world.
14. Rayon and other synthetic fibres are made up of cellulose obtained from ______
15. The important ports in west coast of North America are ______ and ______
16. The Great Lakes region along ______ waterway is the most important inland water wayin North America.
17. USA has the best laid ______ in the world.
18. The Andes are rich in minerals like ______ and ______
19. The longest river in south America is ______
20. The Geo-climatic condition of ______ are ideal for agriculture
21. Brazil is the largest producer of in ______ south america
22. Maize is also knows as ______
23. _____and_____ are the most imortant crops of south america
24. Barley is a member of the ______ family.
25. The extensive tropical grasslands of south America are ______ and ______
26. Quebracho tree yields ______
27. South America is rich in ______
28. Northern Chile has the world s only natural deposits of ______
29. Venezuela is rice in ______ products
30. Peru has some of biggest _____ mines of the world
31. The ______ and ______ river of south America Provide cheap water transport
32. The temperate grasslands South America are Knows as ______

Answer:

1. North America
2. Rocky,4800
3. Mississippi and Missouri
4. Mackenzie
5. Lake Ontario
6. Rio Grand
7. Superior
8. Lumbering
9. sugar bowl of the world”
10. Soya beans
11. Potato and Sugar beet
12. Cold labarador
13. Canada
14. Wood pulp
15. Vancouver and san francisco
16. St. Lawrence
17. roadways
18. Copper and Tin
19. Amazon
20. Pampas
21. Sugar
22. Corn
23. Coffee and Cocoa
24. grass
25. Lianos and Campos
26. tannis
27. Mineral
28. Sodium nitrate
29. Petroleum
30. copper
31. Amazon,la plate
32. Pampas

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Continent		Peaks
Asia	(a)	Mount Kilimanjaro
South America	(b)	Mount MCkinley
North America	(c)	Mount Elbrus
Africa	(d)	Mount Aconcagua
Europe	(e)	Mount Everest

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. a
5. c

Question 2.

Forest		Flora
Thundra	(a)	Grasses
Prairies	(b)	Mahogany
Desert	(c)	Pine
Tropical Rainforest	(d)	Cactus
Coniferous forest	(e)	Mosses

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. c

Question 3.

Mineral		Area
Irone ore	(a)	Appalachians
Copper	(b)	Mexico
Silver	(c)	Lake superior
Gold	(d)	Great lakes
Coal	(e)	California

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. e
5. a

Question 4.

Country		Population Density
USA	(a)	3 persons
Canada	(b)	51 persons
Mexica	(c)	30 persons
Central Highland	(d)	Densly Populated
Central America	(e)	Moderate Population

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. b
4. e
5. d

IV. Give reason.

Question 1.
Mississippi river has been given the nick name “The Big Muddy”.
Answer:

1. The Mississippi river has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy” because it erodesa lot of sand and mud as it rushes down the Mountains.
2. Some of the States of the United States are named after the tributaries of two mighty rivers the Mississippi and Missouri.

Question 2.
The Climate of North America is as varied as that of Asia.
Answer:
The vast latitudinal extent from the Tropics to the Polar Regions makes the climate of North America as varied as that of Asia.

Question 3.
South America is also known as Latin America.
Answer:
Together with the Central America, South America is also known as Latin America, having been discovered and colonized mostly by the Latins, i.e., The Spanish and the Portuguese.

Question 4.
Cordilleras come under pacific ring of fire.
Answer:
The Cordilleras are also part of the Fire Ring of the Pacific. Because there are a number of active volcanoes and this area is also subject to earthquakes.

Question 5.
The selvas of the equatorial regions are called the lungs of the world.
Answer:
They are thick forests and provide fresh oxygen so are known as lungs of the world.

V. Distinguish between,

Question 1.
Rocky Mountain and Andes Mountain.
Answer:

S.No.	Rocky Mountain	Andes Mountain
1.	Young fold mountains found in North America.	Young fold mountains found in South America.
2.	Highest peak is Mt. Mckinley.	Highest peak is Mt. Aconcagua.

Question 2.
Mississippi river and Amazon river.
Answer:

S.No.	Mississippi river	Amazon river
1.	The Source of Mississippi river is lake Itasca.	The Source of Amazon river is the high Andes mountains.
2.	The important tributaries are Arkansas, Illinois, Missouri etc.	The important tributaries Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos.
3.	The river drains into Gulf of Mexico.	The river drains into Atlantic ocean ore the North Eastern coast of Brazil.

Question 3.
Bear Lake and Lake Titicaca.
Answer:

S.No:	Bear Lake	Lake Titicaca
1.	Found in North America.	Found in South America.
2.	It is located in Rocky mountains.	It is located in High Andes Mountains.
3.	Found at an elevation of 1806m.	Highest lake in the world.

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the prominent intermontane plateaus of North America.
Answer:
There are high intermontane plateaus between the ranges. The prominent ones are the Mexican plateau, the Colorado Plateau and the Columbian plateau.

Question 2.
Name the fold mountains of North America.
Answer:
Rockies and Appalachians.

Question 3.
What are westerlies?
Answer:
The Westerlies or anti-trades are prevailing winds from the west toward the east in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude.

Question 4.
Write a note on Grand Banks.
Answer:
Grand Banks: The Grand Banks is among the worlds largest and richest resource areas, renowned for both their valuable fish stocks and petroleum reserves.

Question 5.
Write a note on heavy industries of North America.
Answer:
Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power, involvement of huge investment and large transport costs are called heavy industries.

Question 6.
Name the important centers of heavy engineering industries.
Answer:
The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo, Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in USA and Windsor in Canada.

Question 7.
Name the world’s important ports found in North America.
Answer:
Quebec City, Montreal, Boston, New York, Philadelphia, Charleston and New Orleans are . the Worlds largest ports.

Question 8.
Write a note on Panama canal.
Answer:

1. Panama Canal: In 1914 a Canal was cut across the Isthmus of Panama for 80 kms long which connects the Atlantic with Pacific Ocean.
2. It greatly reduced the distance between Europe and the West Coast of North and South America.

Question 9.
Name the busiest international airports of the world found in North America.
Answer:
New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Atlanta, Toronto, Montreal and Mexico City are some of the busiest international airports in the World.

Question 10.
Write about Trade in North America.
Answer:

1. North America trades mainly with Asia, Europe and Latin America.
2. Though Alaska belongs to the USA, it has to import practically every resource. It is being developed now due to its mineral wealth.
3. North Americas exports are mainly manufactured goods such as Industrial Machinery, Automobile, Paper, Fish, Arms and Ammunition, Aircraft, Telecom Equipments, Chemical, Plastics, Fertilizers, Wood Pulp, Timber, Crude Oil, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Aluminum, Nickel and Lead etc.,
4. The countries of North America Imports Tropical goods and Textiles from Asia and Africa. The countries of Europe, Japan, China and India are the major trading partners.

Question 11.
What are the main natural vegetation areas of south America?
Answer:
There are four main natural vegetation areas of South America and are the Amazon basin (the Selvas), the Eastern Highlands, the Gran Chaco and the slopes of the Andes.

Question 12.
Write a note on the coniferous forest of south America.
Answer:
The forests on the slopes of the Andes have coniferous such as pine, fir and spruce. These forests are also called Montana. They yield valuable softwood for the paper and pulp industry.

Question 13.
Write a note on Orinoco and Paraguay rivers.
Answer:

1. The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the Caribbean Sea.
2. The river Paraguay has the Parana and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which together form and known as the Platte River system.
3. All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.

Question 14.
Write a note on Amazon river.
Answer:

1. Amazon is the longest river of South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world. This river has over a thousand of tributaries.
2. The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos are important tributaries.
3. At the point where it enters the sea the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.

Question 15.
Define

1. Isthumus
2. Strait
3. Igloo
4. Selvas
5. Pampas.

Answer:

1. Isthumus – A narrow stretch of land joining two large land masses
2. Strait – A narrow stretch of water joining two large water bodies
3. Igloo – The specially designed a house by ice
4. Selvas – A tract of land covered by dense equatorial forest in the Amazon basin.
5. Pampas – A temperate grassland of South America.

VII. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain about Rocky mountains.
Answer:
The Rocky Mountains:

1. The western part of the continent is occupied by long ranges of young folded mountains interspersed with high plateaus, narrow valleys and broad interior basins.
2. This mountain range extends for about 4800 km from Alaska in the North to the Panama Strait in the South.
3. The width varies from 110 to 480 Kms.
4. They are parallel ranges and are known as the Rockies in the east and the Coast Range Mountains in the west.
5. In Mexico, they are called Sierra Madre.
6. The Rockies and the Coast Range are together called the “Western Cordilleras”.
7. There are high intermontane plateaus between the ranges.
8. The prominent ones are the Mexican plateau, the Colorado Plateau and the Columbian plateau.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the drainage of North America.
Answer:
Drainage:

1. Many rivers flow across this land and some of them following the valleys are formed by the glaciers.
2. The Mississippi and Missouri rivers are the longest rivers in North America.
3. The Mackenzie River is the second largest drainage basin of North America. It has it source from Great Slave Lake and drains into Arctic Ocean.
4. St. Lawrence has its origin in Lake Ontario which flows north east and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.
5. The plateau of the west has been cut deeply by the River Columbia and its tributary which forms many gorges called Canyons. ,
6. The most famous is the Grand Canyon cut by the River Colorado which all flows over the plateau of Columbia.
7. The River Yukon rising in the north-west of the Western mountain system is frozen for eight months in the year. .
8. The River Rio Grande flows into the Gulf of Mexico and forms the boundary between USA and Mexico.
9. The most important chain consists of five lakes. The biggest is Lake Superior and it is the largest freshwater lake in the world.
10. Lake Winnipeg, Great Bear Lake and Lake Athabasca are some of the other lakes in Canada.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the crops grown in North America.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture:
Though least proportion of the total workforce is engaged in agriculture Americas agriculture is most productive in the world. Wheat, Corn (Maize), Oats, Soybean, Barley and many other food crops are grown throughout the vast interior plains.

(ii) Wheat:
Wheat was introduced by European settlers in North America. It is grown extensively in the Prairies of North America. North America is the largest exporter of North America produces more than half of the world total Maize.

(iii) Barley and Oats:
These are temperate crops which withstand cold climate and need less water. The Barley is grown in the United States and are produced in Minnesota, North Dakota and Washington. Barley and Oats is used as cattle fodder.

(iv) Cotton:
Cotton grows well in Southern and Western States and it is dominated in Texas, California, Mississippi, South of the Prairies and the Mexico. Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil are favorable conditions for growth of cotton crop.

(v) Sugar cane:
Sugar cane is cultivated along the Gulf of Mexico, Parts of Central America and West Indies. It is an important Cash Crop of West Indies. Cuba is known as the “sugar bowl of the world” and it is the worlds largest exporter of sugar.

(vi) Soya beans:
It is raised in the same area where Maize is grown. It is used for extraction of edible ml.

(vii) Potatoes and Sugar beet:
Prairie Region, North Dakota and Minnesota are the producers of Sugar Beets and Potatoes. Sugar beet is used for making Sugar. Potato and Sugar Beet are used to feed cattle and pigs.

Question 4.
Write about population density in North America.
Answer:
Density of population in North America is 19 person/Sq. km.
Population and Density of North America

S. No	Country	Population (in Millions)	Density
1.	United States	327.16	30 persons
2.	Canada	36.95	3 persons
3.	Mexico	123.00	51 persons

1. Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida,
   California, Mexico and Central America are the mostly densely populated areas.
2. Moderate populated areas: Central part of United States, Central Highland, Highlands
   of Mexico, Central and western Canada are the Moderate populated areas.
3. Sparsely populated areas: Northern Canada, Alaska, Rocky Mountain regions and desert regions are sparsely populated areas.

Question 5.
Explain in detail about the physiographic divisions of south America.
Answer:
On the basis of topographical features, the continent may be divided into the following
physiographic divisions:
The Andes Mountains:

1. The Andes are Fold Mountains like the Himalayas.
2. The highest peak in the Andes is Mount Aconcagua (an extinct volcano) on the Chile- Argentina border which reaches at an elevation of 6,961 m. In Chile, the mountains run very close to the coast.
3. The slopes are steep on the western side and gentle on the eastern side like Rockies in North America.
4. There are some active volcanoes like Cotopaxi (5,991m) on the Andes range. The Andes are rich in minerals like Copper, Tin and Precious Gems including Emeralds.

The River Basins (or) the Central Plains:

1. Nearly half of the Continent is covered by the plains. Three great rivers drain into the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The biggest of them is the Amazon.
3. The Amazon basin consisting mainly of the alluvial deposits is the thickly forested
   part of the world.

The Eastern Highlands:

1. These are considerably older than the Andes and are mainly Plateau which is cut by many rivers.
2. They lie to the north and south of the Amazon River.
3. The Brazilian Highlands are found to the south of the Amazon basin.
4. They are gently rolling plateaus with steep cliffs along the east coast.

Question 6.
Explain about the mineral deposits of south America.
Answer:
Minerals:

1. South America is rich in minerals. These mineral deposits are unevenly distributed.
2. South America has many valuable deposits of minerals particularly of iron ore, manganese, petroleum, copper and bauxite. There are some active mines producing silver and gold.
3. Northern Chile has the world’s only natural deposits of sodium nitrate an important ingredient of fertilizers.

Iron ore:

1. South America contains about one fifth of the world s iron ore reserves.
2. Brazil and Chile both have massive deposits of iron ore.
3. Brazil has the second largest iron ore deposits in the world after Russia, Brazil is estimated to have about 15% of the world export of iron ore.

Manganese:

1. Brazil also has large deposits of Manganese.
2. Manganese ore is mined at Lafaiete, Minas Gerais and in the Northern State of Amapa.

Petroleum:

1. Venezuela is rich in petroleum deposits.
2. Argentina, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Chile and Bolivia are the other valuable oilfields. Petroleum is the only mineral produced in substantial quantity.

Copper:

1. Chile is the third largest producer of copper in the world.
2. Copper provides over 40% of exports by value. Some of the biggest copper mines of the world are located in Peru.
3. It is found in the Atacama Desert.

Bauxite:

1. Brazil is the third largest bauxite producing country.
2. An important bauxite mining centre is located near the mouth of the Amazon River. Bauxite is used for aluminum production.

Question 7.
Explain about the industries of South America.
Answer:
Industries:

1. Industries in South America have developed slowly Argentina, Brazil and Chile are the most highly developed industrial countries in this continent.
2. The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) which is an essential need for Industrialisation. Railways and the roads could not be developed sufficiently owing to a rugged terrain.
3. In spite of having an abundance of natural resources, industrialisation started quite late in South America.

S.no	Country	Industries
1.	Brazil	Iron and steel, cotton textiles, sugar, food processing, oil refining, chemicals and automobiles
2.	Argentina	Meat processing and Canning, dairy products, food processing, leather processing, woolen textiles, sugar and oil refining
3.	Chile	Oil refining, chemical fertilizers and copper smelting
4	Peru	Mining and the processing of minerals, chemicals, fertilizers, sugar, coffee and wool textiles
5.	Uruguay	Dairy products, meat processing and woolen textiles
6.	Venezuela	Oil refining, chemical fertilizers and copper smelting

Question 8.
Explain about the Transport of South America.
Answer:
Transport:
Unlike North America, South America still does not have an adequately integrated transportation network. Significant efforts have been made to improve both the connection within the countries and the linkages between them.

Roadways:

1. South America has an extensive and rapidly expanding network of roads.
2. A Road linking Venezuela and Brazil allows north to south movement through the Amazon Basin.
3. Brazil continues to have the largest network of roads belonging to the Pan American Highway System which extends throughout the Americas.

Railways:

1. In most South American countries, railways have lost their dominant position of the major mode of transportation and have been replaced by the road networks that have developed rapidly since the 1960 s.
2. Moreover, rail transport is plagued by operational problems as well as by obsolete equipment.
3. Many countries have two or more track gauges which impedes the efficient integration of the rails system.

Waterways:

1. Seaways have long been a vital component of the transport systems of South American countries.
2. Majority of imports and exports to and from the continent are moved by ship. South America has a number of outstanding natural harbours.
3. There are two inland waterways system of international importance. They are
   • The Paraguay – Uruguay basin which includes territory in four countries and
   • The Amazon basin which includes six countries. Each has several thousand miles of navigable waterways..

Airways:

1. Airways have developed rapidly since World War II.
2. The increase is particularly significant with respect to passenger traffic and also handling of bulky freights.
3. All the South America capitals and most of the large cities are linked by direct air services to the major traffic centres of the United States and Europe.

Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which is the oldest structural temple in south India?
(a) Shore Temple
(b) Mandagapattu
(c) Kailasanatha Temple
(d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
Answer:
(a) Shore Temple

Question 2.
In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO world Heritage site?
(a) 1964
(b) 1994
(c) 1974
(d) 1984
Answer:
(d) 1984

Question 3.
What was the special feature of the architecture of early Chola period?
(a) bas-reliefs
(b) vimanas
(c) corridors
(d) gopurams
Answer:
(b) vimanas

Question 4.
Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated?
(a) Tirukkurungudi
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirunelveli
(d) Srivilliputhur
Answer:
(a) Tirukkurungudi

Question 5.
Who built the Vaikuntha Perumal Temple?
(a) Mahendravarman
(b) Narasimhavarman
(c) Rajasimha
(d) Rajarajall
Answer:
(b) Narasimhavarman

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. _______ was the first rock-cut cave temple built by the Pallava king Mahendravarman.
2. The early Chola architecture followed the style of _______
3. The most celebrated mandapam in Madurai Meenakshiamman temple is the _______
4. Later Chola period was known for beautiful _______
5. Vijayanagar periods unique feature is the _______

Answer:

1. Mandagapattu temple
2. Sembian Mahadevi
3. Pudumandapam
4. gopurams
5. mandapam

III. Match the following.

Seven Pagodas	–	Madurai
Rathi mandapam	–	Darasuram
Iravatheswara temple	–	Tirukkurungudi
Adinatha Temple	–	Shore temple
Pudumandapam	–	Azhwar Tirunagari

Answer:

Seven Pagodas	–	Shore temple
Rathi mandapam	–	Tirukkurungudi
Iravatheswara temple	–	Darasuram
Adinatha Temple	–	Azhwar Tirunagari
Pudumandapam	–	Madurai

IV. Find out the wrong pair/pairs.

Question 1.
1. Krishnapuram Temple – Tirunelveli
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari
3. Sethupathis – Feudatories of Madurai Nayaks
4. Jalagandeshwara temple – Vellore
Answer:
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The predominance of corridors of Rameswaram Temple is striking.
Reason (R):The Temple has the largest set of corridors in the world.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find out the odd one out:
Srivilliputhur, Azhaharkoil, Srirangam, Kanchipuram, Tiruvannamalai.
Answer:
Kanchipuram

Question 4.
Name the epoch of the following:
(a) A.D. 600 to 850 – The Pallava Epoch
(b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – Early Chola Epoch
(c) A.D. 1100 to 1350 – Later Chola Epoch
(d) A.D. 1350 to 1600 – Vijayanagara / Nayak Epoch

Question 5.
Find out the correct statement/s:
1) The Arjunas Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
2) Meenakshi Amman temple in Madurai represents Pallava’s architectural style.
3) The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas.
4) The Sethupathis as feudatories of Madurai Nayaks contributed to Madurai Meenakshiamman Temple.
Answer:
(1) The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder
(3) The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas

V. State true or false:

1. Rajasimha built the Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
2. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of Later Cholas.
3. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant parts of the Pandya architecture.
4. Brihadeeshwara temple was built by Rajendra Chola.
5. Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at temple at Dadapuram.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False

VI. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Write a note on Pancha Pandava Rathas.
Answer:

1. The Tamil Dravida tradition is exemplified by rock-cut monuments such as Pancha Pandava Rathas, namely Draupadi ratha, Dharmaraja ratha, Bheema ratha, Arjuna ratha and Nagula- Sahadeva ratha.
2. The outer walls of the rathas, especially of Arjuna, Bhima and Dharmaraja, are decorated with niches and motifs.
3. The niches have the sculptures of gods, goddesses, monarchs and scenes from mythology.

Question 2.
Throw light on the paintings of Sittanavasal.
Answer:

1. Caves at Sittanavasal, have outstanding early Pandya paintings.
2. Sittanavasal was a residential cave of the Jain monks. They painted the walls with fresco painting.
3. The lotus pond is notable for its excellent execution of colours and exposition of the scene.
4. The image of lotus flowers, leaves spread all over the pond, animals, elephants, buffalos, swans and a man who plucks the flowers look brilliant.

Question 3.
Point out the special features of Thanjavur Big temple.
Answer:

1. At the time the Big Temple of Thanjavur was constructed, it was a huge temple complex.
2. The 216 feet vimana (structure over the garbhagriha) is notable as it is one among the tallest man-made shikaras of the world.
3. Due to its massive height, the shikara is called the Dakshina Meru.
4. The huge bull statue (Nandi) measures about 16 feet long and 13 feet height and is carved out of a single rock.

Question 4.
Highlight the striking features of Rameswaram Temple.

1. In the temple of Rameswaram, the predominance of corridors is striking.
2. This temple has the longest set of corridors in the world. The temple has three sets of corridors.
3. The outer set of the temples corridors has a height of almost 7 metres and stretches for about 120 metres in both the eastern and western directions.
4. The outer corridor is also remarkable for the number of pillars that support it, which is over 1200 in number.
5. Moreover, many of these pillars are decorated by ornate carvings.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1
The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples – Explain.
Answer:
Pallava Epoch:

1. The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples.
2. Rock-cut temples were initially built by carving a rock to the required design and then rocks were cut to build temples.
3. The Pallava king Mahendravarman was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture. Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
4. The rock-cut cave structure has two pillars in the front that hold it.
5. This cave architecture reached its decadent phase after A.D.700 and gave way to the large structural temples probably because the structural temples provided a wider scope to the sculptor to use his skill.
6. The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram, also called the Seven Pagodas, was built by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
7. The structural temples were built using blocks of rock instead of a whole block as earlier.
8. Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) is built of cut stones rather than carved out of caves.

Question 2.
Discuss how the architecture of Vijayanagara and Nayak period was different from the one of Pallavas and Later Cholas.
Answer:

S.No.	Vijayanagara and Nayak Period of architecture	Pallavas and Later cholas period of architecture
1.	The main features of Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated mandapas, ornamental pillars, life- size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars, floral works and stone windows during the 15th to 17th centuries.	The Pallava epoch withnessed a transition from rock-cut to free standing temples. The Shore temple at Mahabalipuram was built by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
2.	Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to temple are constructed from four directions with massive Gopurams.	The maturity attained by later chola architecture is reflected in the two magnificent temples of Thanjavur and Gangaikonda Cholapuram. Dharasuram is a later Chola period temple rich in architectural splendour, dedicated to Iravatheswara.

VIII. HOTS.

Question 1.
Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin – Explain.
Answer:

1. Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin. It advanced over time by a process of evolution. The earliest examples of the Tamil Dravidian architectural tradition were the 7th century rock-cut shrines at Mahabalipuram.
2. The absence of monuments in south India prior to the 7th century is attributed by scholar to temples ought to have been built in wood, which were eventually destroyed by forces of nature.
3. It consists primarily of Hindu temples where the main feature is the high gopura, large temples etc.
4. Mentioned as one of the three styles of temple building in the book. Vastu Shastra the majority of the structures are located in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telungana, Kerala, Tamil Nadu & Karnatada.
5. The Cholas, Cheras, Pandyas, Pallavas Kakatiyas, Kadambas, Chalukyas and the vijayanagar kings contributed to this architecture.

Question 2.
Temple art was at its best during the Nayak Period – Elucidate.
Answer:

1. The practice of fitting the niches with sculptures continued during the Nayak period,
2. There was an increased use of major sculpted figures (relief sculpture) as found at the Alakiya Nambi temple at Tirukkurungudi (Tirunelveli district) and the Gopalakrishna temple in the Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam.
3. The southern festival mandapam of Adinatha temple at Azhwar Tirunagari and the porch of the Nellaiyappar temple at Tirunelveli are other notable examples.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Narasimhavarman II, built the ______ temple at Kanchipuram.
(a) Vaikuntha Perumal
(b) Kailasanatha
(c) Meenakshi amman
(d) Nellaiappar
Answer:
(b) Kailasanatha

Question 2.
Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of the ______
(a) Cholas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cheras
(d) Nayaks
Answer:
(b) Pallavas

Question 3.
Tirumalai Nayakkar museum is located at ______
(a) Madurai
(b) Chennai
(c) Salem
(d) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Madurai

Question 4.
______ from where we get early Pandya paintings, are in a damaged condition.
(a) Tirunelveli
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirumalaipuram
(d) Anaimalai
Answer:
(c) Tirumalaipuram

Question 5.
For the Early Chola epoch, the temple at ______ near Tindivanam in TamilNadu, is worth mentioning.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Darasuram
(c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram
(d) Dadapuram
Answer:
(d) Dadapuram

Question 6.
Thanjavur Big temple was built by ______ chola.
(a) Rajaraja
(b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajendra
(d) Karikala
Answer:
(a) Rajaraja

Question 7.
______ near kumbakonam is a temple dedicated to Iravatheswara.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Darasuram
(c) Dadapuram
(d) Tiruparankundram
Answer:
(b) Darasuram

Question 8.
The Sethupathis, as the feudatories of Madurai Nayaks, ruled ______
(a) Tirunelveli
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 9.
_______ temple has the longest set of corridors in the world.
(a) Meenakshiamman
(b) Nellaiappar
(c) Ramanathaswamy
(d) Jalagandeshwarat
Answer:
(c) Ramanathaswamy

Question 10.
______ Pillars were the peculiar feature of the Vijayanagara and Nayak period.
(a) Cave
(b) Coin
(c) Musical
(d) Elephant
Answer:
(c) Musical

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Narasimhavarman II was also known as ______
2. In the siva temple of Pandyas, the ______ is carved out of the mother rock.
3. The ______ , is a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai.
4. The ______ paintings have similarities with the Ajantha paintings.
5. The Cholas came to limelight in A.D. 850 under ______
6. Temples with the increased number of ______ figures belong to the Sembiyan style.
7. ______ is an illustrious example of early temple that was re-fashioned in the days of Sembiyan Mahadevi.
8. ______ served as the Chola capital for about 250 years.
9. ______ constructed the Iravatheswara temple at Darasuram.
10. In the temple of Rameswaram. the ______ set of corridors is the oldest of the three.

Answer:

1. Rajasimha
2. linga
3. Vettuvankoil
4. Sittanavasal
5. Vijaylaya Chola
6. devakoshta
7. Tiruppurambiyam
8. Gangaikonda Cholapuram
9. Rajaraja II
10. innermost

III. Match the following:

Varadaraia Perumal temple	(a)	Vellore
Talagandeshwar temple	(b)	Tirunelveli
Vanamamalai temple	(c)	Rameswaran
Nellaiappar temple	(d)	Kanchipuran
Ramanathaswamv temple	(e)	Nansuneri

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

IV.
Asseration (A): The Pallava King Mahendravarman was a Pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
Reason (R): Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find the odd one out.
Vijayalaya, Rajasimha, Rajaraja, Rajendra.
Answer:
Rajasimha

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement/s.
1) The illustrious example for rock-cut style is unfinished Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
2) The lotus pond is notable for its execution of colours is found in Ajantha paintings.
3) Pillayarpatti is located near Vellore.
4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of Vijayanagara Period.
Answer:
(1) The illustrious example for rock-cut style is unfinished Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
(4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of Vijayanagara Period.

V. State true or false:

1. Dwarapalas mean Gatekeepers in temples.
2. Sittanavasal is famous for the tallest Vimanas in the world.
3. The Brihadeeshwara temple of Thanjavur has 55 metre high Vimana The
4. Pallava period featured sculptural rocks.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

VI. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Which are the most important Pandya cave temples found?
Answer:
The most important cave temples are found in Malaiyadikurichi, Anaimalai, Tiruparankundram and Trichirappali.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temples.
Answer:

1. The illustrious example for rock-cut style is Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
2. The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai, is hewn out of a huge boulder on four sides.
3. At the top of the temple, sculptures of Uma Maheswarar, Dakshinamoorthy, Vishnu and Brahma are found.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of the Dharasuram temple.
Answer:

1. Dharasuram, near Kumbakonam, is a Later Chola period temple, rich in architectural
   splendour, dedicated to Iravatheswara (Siva as god of lord Indiras elephant).
2. The Mahamandapam is an elaborate structure. The entire structure looks like a ratha because it has four wheels at the Mahamandapam. The sanctum and pillars have many sculptures, of various mythological figures.
3. A compound wall runs round the temple with a gopuram.

Question 4.
What is the significance of the figure of Ganesha at Pillayarpatti?
Answer:

1. At Pillayarpatti a beautiful Ganesha is carved facing the entrance.
2. The importance of the figure, referred to Desivinayaga in the cave inscription, is that there are two arms with the trunk turning to the right.

Question 5.
What is the new form of construction that emerged during the Vijayanagara epoch?
Answer:
Give examples.

1. During the Vijayanagara epoch, a new form of construction emerged. It is the mandapam (pavilion) to where the gods are carried every year.
2. Pillared outdoor mandapams are meant for public rituals with the ones in the east serving as the waiting room for devotees, which adorn the large temples.
3. The kalyana mandapam at Kanchipuram (Varadaraja Perumal temple) and at Vellore (Jalagandeshwar temple) are notable examples.

Question 6.
What are the main features of the Vijayanagara and Nayak architecture?
Answer:

1. The main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated mandapas, ornamental pillars, life-size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars, floral works and stone windows.
2. Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to temple are constructed from four directions with massive gopurams.

Question 7.
Describe the pillars of the Vijayanagar and Nayak period.
Answer:

1. The pillars of this period are more decorative than the previous period.
2. Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars, horse pillars with life-size portraits of mythological and royal family members, common folk, animals and floral works were made.
3. Musical pillars were the peculiar feature of this time.

Question 8.
In which temples are Vijayanagara and Nayak paintings seen?
Answer:
Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at Varadharaja Perumal temple at Kanchipuram, Kudalazhagar Temple at Madurai and the temples of Srivilliputhur, Tiruvellarai, Azhaharkoil, Tiruvannamalai and Srirangam.

Question 9.
What do the paintings in temples of the Vijayanagar and Nayak period depict?
Answer:
The paintings mostly have the stories from Ramayana, palace scenes and mythological stories.

Question 10.
Who contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture?
Answer:
The Sethupathis, as the feudatories of Madurai Nayaks, ruled Ramanathapuram and contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture.

VII. Answer in Detail :

Question 1.
Write a note on Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
Answer:

1. Gangaikonda Cholapuram served as the Chola capital for about 250 years.
2. The Brihadeeshwara temple of Gangaikonda Cholapuram, built by Rajendra Chola,’ is undoubtedly as worthy a successor to the Brihadeeshwara temple of Thanjavur.
3. The height of the temple is 55 metres.
4. The sanctum has two storeys as in the big temple at Thanjavur.
5. The outer wall has many projections with niches and recesses on three sides. In the niches there are the images of Siva, Vishnu and other gods.
6. This temple complex has the shrines of Chandeeswarar, Ganesa and Mahishasura Mardhini.