Category: Class 7

Students can Download Science Chapter 2 Universal and Space Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Universal and Space

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Universal and Space Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The Moon takes ________ days to complete one revolution around the Earth.
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
Answer:
(c) 27

Question 2.
If the Moon is appeaing in the sky today near the star Karthikai, the position of the Moon after 27 days is near the Star
(a) Bharani
(b) Karthikai
(c) Rohini
(d) Asvini
Answer:
(d) Asvini

Question 3.
Telescope was invented by
(a) Han Lippershey
(b) Galilio
(c) Nicolus Coppernicus
(d) Ptolomy
Answer:
(a) Han Lippershey

Question 4.
The galaxy containing young and hot stars is
(a) elliptical galaxy
(b) irregular galaxy
(c) cluster
(d) spiral galaxy
Answer:
(d) spiral galaxy

Question 5.
With the launch of this satellite, ISRO became capable of launching 4 ton heavy satellites
(a) GSAT- 13
(b) GSAT- 14
(c) GSAT-17
(d) Way par GSAT-19
Answer:
(d) Way par GSAT-19

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Waxing of Moon means _______
2. Heliocentric model is proposed by _______
3. _______ is the prevailing model of Evolution of the Universe.
4. _______ is a large constellation which covers a large part of the sky.
5. _______ is the first satellite launched by India

Answer:

1. growing or expanding
2. Nicolus copernicus
3. The Big Bang Theory
4. Ursa Major
5. Aryabhatta

III. True or False – If False give the correct answer

Question 1.
On a full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in the west, Moon rises in the West.
Answer:
False Correct statement: On a full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in the west, Moon rises in the East

Question 2.
The word crescent refers to the phases where the Moon is less than half illuminated.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Galilio accepted the Geo-centric model.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Galilio did nof accepted the Geo-centric model.

Question 4.
Our Milky Way galaxy is identified as an elliptical galaxy.
Answer:
False Correct statement: Our Milky Way galaxy is identified as an galaxy.

Question 5.
The planet Venus in our solar system doesn’t have a Moon.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

1.	Rohini	GSLV-Mark III
2.	GSAT-14	GSLV Mark III D l
3.	GSAT-19	SLV-3
4.	Chandrayaan-2	PSLV-XL C25
5.	Mangalyaan	GSLV-D5

Answer:

1.	Rohini	SLV-3
2.	GSAT-14	GSLV-D5
3.	GSAT-19	GSLV Mark III D1
4.	Chandrayaan-2	GSLV-Mark III
5.	Mangalyaan	PSLV-XL C25

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Older stars : elliptical galaxies :: younger stars : ___________
Answer:
Irregular galaxies.

Question 2.
Nearest galaxy: Andromeda :: Nearest star : ___________
Answer:
Alpha Centauri.

VI. Very short answer:

Question 1.
The word _______ refers to the phases where the Moon is less than half illuminated (cresent / gibbous)
Answer:
cresent.

Question 2.
___________ and ___________ planets never appear in the mid-night sky.
Answer:
Mercury, Venus.

Question 3.
Number of days taken by the Mars to orbit around the Sun.
Answer:
687 days.

Question 4.
In which phase does the size of the planet Venus is small?
Answer:
When it was in Gibbous phase.

Question 5.
The only evidence of the big bang theory is
Answer:
The only evidence of the big bang theory is a faint glow in space, called cosmic microwave background.

Question 6.
The galaxy which contains abundant amount of gas and dust is ___________ ?
Answer:
Spiral galaxy.

Question 7.
Which country launched the world’s first artificial launch vehicle?
Answer:
Russia launched the world’s first artificial launch vehicle.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is epicyclic model?
Answer:

1. To explain the puzzling phenomena astronomers in early times proposed a change in the simple geocentric model. This is called as epicycle model.
2. A small circle whose centre is on the circumference of a larger circle, in ptolemic astronomy.
3. It was seen as the basis of revolution of the seven plants, given a fixed central Earth.

Question 2.
Name the four different types of Galaxies.
Answer:

1. Spiral galaxy
2. Elliptical galaxy
3. Irregular galaxy
4. Barred spiral galaxy

Question 3.
What is constellation?
Answer:
A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky when viewed from the Earth.

Question 4.
Give the expansions of PSLV and GSLV.
Answer:
PSLV : Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.
GSLV : Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle.

VIII. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the waxing and waning phases in Venus.
Answer:

1. As the Venus went around the epicycle, as shown in the diagram Venus would exhibit phases.
2. Also at times the planet would be nearer, making the apparent size grow bigger and at times far making the apparent size smaller.
3. If the Venus was going around the Sun, and its orbit is inside that of Earth, Venus would appear always near the Sun in the sky.
4. It can never be seen in the midnight sky. Two when it is near the Earth, it would be brighter and bigger compared to when it is on the other side of the Sun.
5. Thirdly only if the Venus is revolving around the Sun, it can exhibit gibbous phase, and the size of the gibbous phase smaller than the crescent phase.
6. If the Venus was revolving around the Earth, we can never see the gibbous phase of the Venus and it would be seen only if it is orbiting the Sun.

Question 2.
Write short notes on constellations.
Answer:

1. A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky when viewed from the Earth.
2. International Astronomical Union has classified 88 constellations to cover the entire celestial sphere.
3. Many of the old constellations have Greek or Latin names and are often named after mythological characters.
4. Ursa Major (Saptha Rishi Mandalam) is a large constellation and it covers a large part of the sky.
5. The most striking feature of this constellation is a group of seven bright stars known as big dipper (seven Sages in Indian astronomy).
6. Ursa Minor in Lattin means ‘the little bear’ it lies in the northern sky.
7. The Pole star – Polaris (Dhrua) lies within this constellation.
8. The main group, ‘little dipper’, consists of seven stars and is quite similar to that found in Ursa Major.

IX. HOT Question:

Question 1.
Neelan and Mala are having a conversation about our Universe. Neelan is telling our Earth will be the only planet in the entire Universe to have a life with. But, Mala is opposing his view by citing certain points. What would be the argument of Mala? Do you support Mala? Justify your stand.
Answer:
I would like to support Neelan, because Life is possible only on the Earth due to presence of water, oxygen, various gases and suitable temperature, which enables us to live.
Mala opposed Neelan’s view based on the following points :

1. Like the Sun, there might be billions of other stars with their own planets revolving around them.
2. Thus there are many chances of any planet getting the suitable conditions for supporting life.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Universal and Space Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What type of galaxy is the milky way?
(a) Spherical
(b) Irregular
(c) Spiral
(d) Elliptical
Answer:
(c) Spiral

Question 2.
Stars mainly consists of ___________
(a) Oxygen and hydrogen
(b) hydrogen and helium
(c) Oxygen and nitrogen
(d) Carbon and helium
Answer:
(b) hydrogen and helium

Question 3.
The Great Bear or Saptha Rishi Mandalam are the names of
(a) The Ursa Major
(b) Orion
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) The Ursa Major

Question 4.
GSLV means ___________
(a) Global Satellite Locus Verification
(b) Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle
(c) German Satellite Launching Vehicle
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle

Question 5.
Parsec is equal to ___________
(a) 2 light years
(b) 5 light years
(c) 4.56 light years
(d) 3.26 light years
Answer:
(d) 3.26 light years

Question 6.
The hottest planet in the solar system is ___________
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Sun
(d) Mars
Answer:
(b) Venus

Question 7.
The first artificial satellite is ___________
(a) Sputnik -1
(b) Sputnik – II
(c) Apollo – II
(d) Vostok
Answer:
(a) Sputnik -1

Question 8.
The nearest galaxy to our Milky way is ___________
(a) Andromeda
(b) Proxima centauri
(c) Large megallanic cloud
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Andromeda

Question 9.
Earth orbit around Sun in ___________days.
(a) 465
(b) 365
(c) 687
(d) 24
Answer:
(b) 365

Question 10.
According to Big Bang theory, space and time emerged together about ___________billions of years ago.
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 14
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 14

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _______ is commonly defined as the totality of everything that exists or is known to exist.
2. At all times one half of _______ is illuminated by Sun and the opposite side is shroud in darkness.
3. The reversal of direction of planets is called as _______
4. Telescope was invented by _______ but Galilio used it for studying the sky for the first time.
5. To naked eye, _______ is just a gleaming bright spot.
6. The event when the matter confined in a single point and began to expand is called _______
7. The distance travelled by light in one year is called a _______
8. The average distance between the Earth and the Sun is called an _______
9. The diameter of Milky Way is over _______ light years.
10. The solar system travels at an average speed of _______
11. ISRO built India’s first satellite _______ which was launched by the Soviet Union on 19 April 1975.

Answer:

1. Universe
2. Moon
3. retrograde motion
4. Hans Lippershey
5. Venus
6. ‘big bang
7. light year
8. astronomical unit
9. 100,000
10. 828,000 km/h
11. Aryabhatta

III. True or False – If false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
On the full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in west, at the same time, Moon rises at the west.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: On the full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in west, at the same time, Moon rises at the same time

Question 2.
Moon going around Earth with 27 days period.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The word gibbous refers to phases where the Moon is more than half illuminated.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The word refers to phases where the Moon is more than half illuminated.

Question 4.
Kepler found that his observation of Venus gave the observational evidence to support the heliocentric theory.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: found that his observation of venus gave the observational evidence to support the heliocentric theory.

Question 5.
All the galaxies are appearing to move away from us.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Solar system is located, is classified as a barred spiral galaxy.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Unlike galaxy, constellations are more optical appearance and not real objects.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
All planets except mercury in our solar system have Moons.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: All planets except mercury and in our solar system have Moons.

Question 9.
The vision of ISRO is to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
NASA sent a lunar orbiter, Chandrayan -1 on 22 October- 2008.
Answer:
Correct statement: sent a lunar orbiter, Chandrayan -1 on 22 October-2008

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1.	Galileo Galilei	(a)	Earth is at the centre
2.	Heliocentric theory	(b)	Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
3.	Geo-centric theory	(c)	Jupiter – bound space probe
4.	‘ Missile man of India	(d)	Sun is at the centre

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 2.

1.	Ursa Minor	(a)	Hunter
2.	Ursa Major	(b)	Dhruva
3.	Orion	(c)	Big dipper
4.	Pole star	(d)	Little bear

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

Question 3.

1.	Spiral galaxy	(a)	Globular clusters
2.	Elliptical galaxy	(b)	Bar-shaped structure
3.	Irregular galaxy	(c)	Young, hot stars
4.	Barred spiral galaxy	(d)	Abundant amount of gas, dust

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

V. Very short Answers:

Question 1.
Name the planets which have no Moon.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus.

Question 2.
Name the galaxy in which we live.
Answer:
Milky way.

Question 3.
Name the star that appears to be stationary in the night sky.
Answer:
Pole star.

Question 4.
What is the Indian name of Ursa Minor?
Answer:
Laghu Saptarishi.

Question 5.
Name the planets which have more than 60 Moons.
Answer:
Jupiter and Saturn.

Question 6.
What is the distance of our solar system from the centre of the galaxy?
Answer:
27,000 light years.

Question 7.
What is the distance that light travels in one year called?
Answer:
Light year.

Question 8.
The constellation Big dipper is known by another name also. What is it?
Answer:
Ursa Major.

Question 9.
What are constellations?
Answer:
Constellations are stars that appear to form a pattern when viewed from the Earth.

VI. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Why does the Moon changes its shape daily?
Answer:
Moon changes its shape daily because, it revolves around the Earth and the light from the Sun continuously changes due to the presence of Earth between Moon and the Sun.

Question 2.
What is first quarter?
Answer:

1. When the Sun, Earth and Moon are in 90 degree angle.
2. Half if it illuminated and half is dark side.
3. The Moon will appear as half Moon.
4. The half Moon during the waxing period is called as first quarter

Question 3.
Write a note on planet.
Answer:

1. Planets are heavenly bodies that revolve around the Sun.
2. They do not give out light of their own.
3. Their surface reflects the light of the Sun to us.

Question 4.
Write a note on ISRO.
Answer:

1. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the space agency of the Government of India headquartered in the city of Bangalore.
2. Its vision is to “harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration.”

Question 5.
Why Earth is called a unique planet?
Answer:

1. Earth is unique because it is the only planet on which life is known to exist.
2. The presence of atmosphere, water and suitable temperature make life possible here.

Question 6.
Write a note on artificial satellites.
Answer:

1. Artificial satellites are man-made objects placed in an obit to rotate around a planet – usually the Earth.
2. The world’s first artificial satellite launched was Sputnik-lby Russia, Aryabhatta was the first satellite launched by India.
3. These satellites are used in television and radio transmission, studying agriculture yield, locating mineral resources, weather forecasting, locate different places on Earth.

Question 7.
Stars appear to twinkle. Give reason.
Answer:

1. The stars are remotely located and appear as tiny dots of light.
2. Their light travels long distances to reach us.
3. The atmosphere disturbances do not allow light to reach us in a straight line path.
4. Because of this the stars appear to twinkle.

VII. Long Answer:

Question 1.
Explain about the origin of the universe.
Answer:

1. All the galaxies were appearing to move away from us. Further, farther they are faster they appear to move.
2. Cosmologists, scientists who study the structure and evolution of universe that is cosmos, reason that this imply at one point of time in the past all matter was confined in a single point and since then it has started to expand.
3. The event when the matter confined in a single point and began to expand is called ‘big bang’.
4. This is considered as the origin of our universe as we know it.
5. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model of the evolution of the Universe.
6. Under this theory, space and time emerged together about 14 billions of years ago.
7. At that time, the entire Universe was inside a bubble that was thousands of times smaller than a pinhead.
8. It was hotter and denser than anything we can imagine.
9. Then it suddenly expanded. The present Universe emerged.
10. Time, space and matter all began with the Big Bang.

VIII. Creative questions: HOTS

Question 1.
It Do stars emit light only during night?
Answer:
No. Stars emit light all the time. But we are not able to see their light due to excess brightness of the Sun.

Question 2.
In the given picture out of the positions P, Q, R and S which will indicate the position of the Sun. Draw the Sun at the appropriate position.

Answer:
Sun will be at position R.

Question 3.
We never see the backside of the Moon from the Earth. Is it true?
Answer:
Yes, as the Moon revolves around the Earth facing one part of the Moon towards the Earth, then we never see back side of the Moon from the Earth.

Students can Download Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
_________ is a event which causes enormous physical damage to property, loss of life
and change in the environment.
(a) Hazard
(b) Disaster
(c) Recovery
(d) Mitigation
Answer:
(a) and (b)
(a) Hazard
(b) Disaster

Question 2.
Activities that reduce the effects of disaster
(a) Preparation
(b) Response
(c) Mitigation
(d) Recovery
Answer:
(c) Mitigation

Question 3.
A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s crust is called an _________
(a) Tsunami
(b) Earthquake
(c) Fire
(d) Cyclone
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 4.
A sudden overflow of water in a large amount caused due to heavy rainfall is called _________
(a) Flood
(b) Cyclone
(c) Drought
(d) Seasons
Answer:
(a) Flood

Question 5.
Road accidents can be avoided by permitting the persons who have is _________ allowed to drive vehicle
(a) Ration card
(b) License
(c) permission
(d) Documents
Answer:
(b) License

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A hazard is a ______ event that can causes harm or damage to human and his property
2. Activities taken during a disaster is called ______
3. Displacement of water can produce one or more huge destructive waves known as ______
4. In case of fire accidents call the nearby police station or the no ______ for the fire service.
5. Disaster management refers to ______ of lives and property during a natural or man-made disaster.

Answer:

1. dangerous
2. Disaster management
3. Tsunami
4. 101
5. conservation

III. Match the following

Earthquake	–	Gigantic waves
Cyclone	–	Creak / Fault
Tsunami	–	Uneven rainfall
Industrial accident	–	Eye of the storm
Drought	–	Carelessness

Answer:

Earthquake	–	Creak / Fault
Cyclone	–	Eye of the storm
Tsunami	–	Gigantic waves
Industrial accident	–	Carelessness
Drought	–	Uneven rainfall

IV. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Assertion (A) : In the modern world we can’t live happing everyday.
Reason (R) : Due to pollution and environmental degradation we are undergoing natural hazard and Disaster.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is not correct but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are in correct
Answer:
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s crust is called an Earthquake.
Reason (R) : Movement of the tectonic plates, mass wasting, surface fault all leads to earthquake
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is in correct but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are in correct
Answer:
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R

V. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Define Hazard.
Answer:
A hazard is a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause loss of life, injury, health impacts, property damage, loss of livelihoods, services, social and economic disruption or environmental damage.

Question 2.
What is disaster?
Answer:
A disaster can be generally defined as “A serious disruption in the society causing widespread material, economic, social or environmental losses which exceed the ability of the affected society to cope using its own resources”.

Question 3.
What are the six concepts of Disaster management cycle?
Answer:
Preparation, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery and Development are the six Disaster management cycles.

Question 4.
Name any two agency which involves in warring system in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. TNSDMA
2. DDMA
3. SDRF

Question 5.
Waite about any three effects of flood.’
Answer:
Effects:

1. Loss of life and property,
2. Displacement of people and
3. Spread of contagious diseases such as cholera and Malaria etc.,

Question 6.
Give any four Rail safety tips.
Answer:

1. Stay alert. Trains can come from either direction at any time,
2. Never sit on the edge of the Station Platform,
3. Cross the tracks safely.

Question 7.
Name any four different industry which goes under industrial disaster frequently.
Answer:
Defense, Energy, Food and Mining.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Earthquake and Tsunami.
Answer:

S. No	Earthquake	Tsunami
1.	A sudden movement or trembling of the earth’s crust is called as earthquake.	Huge destructive waves resulting in dis placement of water.
2.	It is caused due to movement of tectonic plates, mass wasting land slides, surface fault, etc.	It is caused due to under water earthquake.
3.	Its after math leads to loss of property, damage to buildings and loss of life.	It causes flooding and disrupts transportation power communication and water supply.

Question 2.
Flood and cyclone.
Answer:

S.No	Flood	Cyclone
1.	Sudden overflow of water in a large amount due to heavy rainfall, cyclone, melting of snow, Tsunami or cloud/ dam burst.	A low pressure area which is encircled by high pressure wind is called a cyclone.
2.	It causes loss of life and property and leads to spread of diseases such as cholera, malaria.	Effects include heavy rain strong wind, landfall leading to damage of life and properly.

Question 3.
Hazard and disaster
Answer:

S.No	Hazard	Disaster
1.	A dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause loss of life, injury, health impacts, social and economic disruption.	A disaster can be generally defined as “A serious disruption in the society causing widespread material, economic, social or environmental losses which exceed the ability of the affected society to cope using its own resources”.
2.	Hazards are geophysical and biological.	Disasters are Natural and man made.

VII. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Write about disaster management cycle.
Answer:
The six disaster management phases that have been used in the concept of disaster cycle are
as follows;
Pre-Disaster phase:
Prevention and Mitigation:

1. The term prevention is often used to embrace the wide diversity of measures to protect persons and property.
2. Mitigation embraces all measures taken to reduce both the effects of the hazard itself and the vulnerable conditions to it in order to reduce the scale of a future disaster.
3. Therefore, mitigation may incorporate addressing issues such as land ownership, tenancy rights, wealth distribution, implementation of earthquake resistant building codes, etc.

Preparedness:

1. The process includes various measures that enable governments, communities and individuals to respond rapidly to disaster situations to cope with them effectively.
2. Preparedness includes for example, the formulation of viable emergency plans, the development of warning systems, the maintenance of inventories, public awareness and education and the training of personnel.

Early Warning:

1. This is the process of monitoring the situation in communities or areas known to be vulnerable to slow onset hazards, and passing the knowledge of the pending hazard to people harmless way.
2. To be effective, warnings must be related to mass education and training of the population who know what actions they must take when warned.

The Disaster Impact:

1. This refers to the “real-time event of a hazard occurrence and affecting elements at risk.
2. The duration of the event will depend on the type of threat; ground shaking may only occur in a matter of seconds during an earthquake while flooding may take place over a longer sustained period.

During Disaster Phase:

Response: This refers to the first stage response to any calamity, which include for examples such as setting up control rooms, putting the contingency plan in action, issue warning, action for evacuation, taking people to safer areas, rendering medical aid to the needy etc., simultaneously rendering relief to the homeless, food, drinking water, clothing etc. to the needy, restoration of communication, disbursement of assistance in cash or kind.

The Post- Disaster Phase:

Recovery: Recovery is used to describe the activities that encompass the three overlapping phases of emergency relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction.

Rehabilitation: Rehabilitation includes the provision of temporary public utilities and housing as interim measures to assist long-term recovery.

Reconstruction: Reconstruction attempts to return communities with improved pre-disaster functioning. It includes replacement of buildings; infrastructure and lifeline facilities so that long-term development prospects are enhanced rather than reproducing the same conditions, which made an area or population vulnerable in the first place.

Development: In an evolving economy, the development process is an ongoing activity. Longterm prevention/disaster reduction measures. For examples like construction of embankments against flooding, irrigation facilities as drought proofing measures, increasing plant cover to reduce the occurrences of landslides, etc.

Question 2.
Write about flood its effects and the mitigation.
Answer.
Flood: Sudden overflow of water in a large amount caused due to heavy rainfall, cyclone, melting of snow, Tsunami or a dam burst.
Effects:

1. Loss of life and property
2. Displacement of people and
3. Spread of contagious diseases such as cholera and Malaria etc.,

Mitigation for flood:
They include flood walls / sea walls, flood gates, levees and evacuation routes. Non structural measures reduce damage by removing people and property out of risk areas. They induce elevated structures, property buyouts, permanent relocation, zoning, subdivision and building codes.

Question 3.
Write about any five general survival techniques.
Answer:
General Survival Techniques:

1. During the earthquake be under the table, chair, kneel to the floor and protect yourself. Go near a sturdy wall, sit on the floor and hold the floor strongly and protect yourself. Use only torch lights,
2. During flood forecast, store up necessary things like first aid etc. Listen to the local Radio/TV for instructions. Cut off all the electrical supplies during flood and earthquake,
3. In case of fire accidents call fire service (No. 101)
4. If clothes are on fire, “Don’t Run; Stop, Drop and Roll,”
5. Stay alert. Trains can come from either direction at any time,
6. Never sit on the edge of the Station Platform,
7. Cross the tracks safely.

Question 4.
Write about earthquake, its effects, and mitigation steps.
Answer:
Earthquake:
A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth crust is called as earthquake. The movement of the tectonic plates, mass wasting, landslides, surface fault, etc., causes earthquake.
Effects:
Due to a strong earthquake, loss of lives, buildings, roads, bridges and dams are damaged. Earthquake cause floods, tsunamis, landslides, fires, break down of water supply and electrical lines. It may change the course of a river too.
Mitigation steps:

1. Construct Earthquake resistant building.
2. Seek shelter under stable tables.
3. Move to open areas.
4. Secure your belonging.
5. Put latches on cabinet doors and file cabinets.
6. Store hazardous materials in a sturdy place.
7. Keep fire extinguishers.

VIII. Hots

Question 1.
Why should we know about the natural disasters? .
Answer:

1. To Prevent loss of life.
2. To Protect our belongings.
3. To create awareness among youngsters.
4. To be prepared with emergency phone nos.
5. To be stocked with food, water medicine.
6. For children and old age people.

Question 2.
Four places in India prone to landslider.
Answer:

1. Western ghats and Konkan hills.
2. Darjeeling and Sikkim (NE Himalayas)
3. North west Himalayas (Uttarakand, Himachal pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir)
4. Eastern ghats (Araku region in Andhra pradesh)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tsunami is derived from _____ word
(a) Japanese
(b) Chinese
(c) Arabic
(d) Persian
Answer:
(a) Japanese

Question 2.
______ is an earthquake prone area.
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil nadu
(c) Goa
(d) Tamil Nadu Assam
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

Question 3.
Fire involves _________ basic aspects.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 4.
A cyclone is are area of _________ pressure.
(a) high
(b) low
(c) medium
(d) none
Answer:
(b) low

Question 5.
Drought is an example for _________ hazard.
(a) fire
(b) flood
(c) natural
(d) earthquake
Answer:
(c) natural

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Natural hazards are the environment. phenomenon that might have negative impact on human or the environment
2. Natural hazards are classified into two broad categories
3. Hazards are termed as when they cause destruction to property and human lives.
4. A ________ pressure area circled by high pressure is called cyclone.
5. Hurricane is a ______ hazard.

Answer:

1. natural
2. Geophysical, biological
3. low
4. disaster
5. natural

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Hazard	–	a) forecasting weather
Disaster	–	b) reduce
Vulnerability	–	c) a dangerous event
Mitigate	–	d) severity
Meteorology	–	e) loss of life

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. d
4. b
5. a

Question 2.

Trembling	–	a) Mental or emotional state of a person
Preventive	–	b) to stop fire or light
Extinguish	–	c) a serious, or dangerous situation
Emergency	–	d) stop something before it happens
Psychological	–	e) shaking or vibration

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a

IV. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on stampede.
Answer:

1. The term stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, usually resulting in injuries and death from suffocation and trampling.
2. It is believed that most major crowd disasters can be prevented by simple crowd management strategies.
3. Human stampedes can be prevented by organization and traffic control, such as barriers, following queues and avoid mass crowd.

Question 2.
Name the four aspects of fire. Ans. Fire involves 3 basic aspects
Answer:

1. Prevention
2. Detection and
3. Extinguishing

Question 3.
Why is disaster management necessary?
Answer:
Disaster Management is necessary or expedient for:

1. Prevention
2. Mitigation
3. Preparedness
4. Response
5. Recovery
6. Rehabilitation

Question 4.
Why mitigating the hazards essential?
Answer:
It is more cost-effective to mitigate the risks from natural disasters than to repair damage after the disaster. Hazard mitigation refers to any action or project that reduces the effects of future disasters.

Question 5.
What is disaster management?
Answer:
The systematic process of applying administrative directives, organizations, and operational skills and capacities to implement strategies, policies and improved coping capacities in order to lessen the adverse impacts of hazards and the possibility of disaster is called Disaster Management.

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Write about disaster management in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu State Disaster Management Authority (TNSDMA)is responsible forall measures for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery are undertaken under the guidance and supervision of the Authority.
2. District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) is responsible for Disaster Management at district level
3. Tamil Nadu State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) has been constituted with a strength of 80 Police PersonnelThey have been trained in disaster management and rescue operations in consultation with National Disaster Response Force (NDRF).

Question 2.
Write about state disaster Management.
Answer:

1. State Disaster Management – Perspective plan – 2018 -2030 prepared by the Revenue and Disaster Management Department.
2. Hot line between Indian Meteorological Department and the State Emergency Operation Centre is established and mitigation in the District is done through telephone, fax and IP phones also available which connect the State with District Head Quarters, Taluks and Blocks of the State.
3. Wireless radio network with both high frequency and very high frequency are also available in the State.
   Expand the following:

1.	DST	Department and Technology
2.	DOS	Department of Space
3.	NDMA	National Disaster Management Authority
4.	NDRF	National Disaster Response Force
5.	TNSDMA	Tamil Nadu State Disaster Management Authority
6.	DDMA	District Disaster Management Authority
7.	SDRI	State Disaster Response Force
8.	NIDM	National Institute of Disaster Management.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Economics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Tax and its Importance

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Tax and its Importance Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Taxes are ______ payment.
(a) Voluntary
(b) Compulsory
(c) a & b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Compulsory

Question 2.
Minimum possible amount should be spent in the collection of taxes is
(a) canon of equality
(b) canon of certainity
(c) canon of economy
(d) canon of convenience
Answer:
(c) canon of economy

Question 3.
This taxation is a very opposite of progressive taxation.
(a) degressive
(b) proportional
(c) regressive
(d) none
Answer:
(c) regressive

Question 4.
Income tax is a
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) a &b
(d) degressive tax
Answer:
(a) direct tax

Question 5.
Which tax is raised on provision of service.
(a) wealth
(b) corporate
(c) wealth
(d) service
Answer:
(d) service

II. Fill in the blanks

1. _______ is a term for when a taxing authority usually a government levies or imposes a tax.
2. _______ is the method, where the rate of tax is same regardless size of the income
3. _______ is paid to the Government by the recipient of gift depending on value of gift.
4. _______ tax burden cannot be shifted by tax payers.
5. Indirect tax is ______ elastic.

Answer:

1. Taxation
2. Proportional Taxation
3. Gift tax
4. Direct
5. more

III. Match the following

Principle of taxation	_	Direct Tax
Estate tax	–	Goods and Service Tax
Excise Tax	_	Adam Smith
01.07.2017	–	Less elastic
Direct Tax	–	Indirect Tax

Answer:

Principle of taxation	–	Adam Smith
Estate tax	–	Direct Tax
Excise Tax	–	Indirect Tax
01.07.2017	–	Goods and Service Tax
Direct Tax	–	Less elastic

IV. Odd one out:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a indirect tax?
(a) Service tax
(b) Value Added Tax(VAT)
(c) Estate duty
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(c) Estate duty

V. Correct one out:

Question 1.
Which one of the following tax is a direct tax?
(a) Service tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Sales tax
(d) Progressive tax
Answer:
(b) Wealth tax

VI. Give short answer

Question 1.
Define tax.
Answer:
Taxes are defined as a compulsory contribution from a person to the government to defray the expenses incurred in the common interest of all without reference to special benefits conferred.

Question 2.
Why taxes are imposed?
Answer:
Everybody is obliged by law to pay taxes. Total Tax money goes to government exchequer. Appointed government decides that how are taxes being spent and how the budget is organized.

Question 3.
Write name of taxation types and draw its diagram.
Answer:
Taxation Types:
There are four types of Taxation:

1. Proportional Tax
2. Progressive Tax
3. Regressive Tax and
4. Degressive Tax

Question 4.
Write any three importance of tax.
Answer:

1. Health
2. Education
3. Governance

Question 5.
What are the types of tax? and explain its.
Answer:
in modern times taxes are classified into two types. There are:
Direct Tax:

1. A Direct tax is the tax whose burden is directly borne’ by the person on whom it is imposed, (i.e), its burden cannot be shifted to others.

Indirect Tax:

1. When liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of that tax shifts on some other person, this type of tax is called an indirect tax.

Question 6.
Write short note on Gift Tax and Service Tax.
Answer:
Gift Tax:

1. Gift tax is paid to the Government by the recipient of gift depending on value of gift.

Service Tax:

1. Service tax is raised on provision of Service. This tax is collected from the service recipients and paid to the Central Government.

Question 7.
What is Goods and Service Tax?
Answer:

1. Goods and Services Tax is a kinds of tax imposed on sale, manufacturing and usage of goods and services.
2. This tax is applied on services and goods at a national level with a purpose of achieving overall economic growth.

Question 8.
Distinction between the direct and indirect tax.
Answer:

	Direct Tax	Indirect Tax
1.	Burden cannot be shifted by taxpayers	Easily be shifted to another person
2.	Tax is imposed on personal income and corporate income	Taxes imposed on various goods and services
3.	Direct tax has no inflation pressure	This tax has inflation pressure
4.	The impact and incidence are the same in case of direct tax	The impact and incidence are different in case of indirect tax
5.	Direct tax is less elastic	Indirect tax is more elastic

VII. Give brief answer

Question 1.
Write briefly about the principles of taxation.
Answer:

1. Canon of Equality: The government should impose taxes in such a way that people have to pay according to their ability does not mean equal amount of tax but it means that the burden of a tax must be fair and just.
2. Canon of Certainity: Certainty creates confidence in the taxpayers cost of collection of taxes and increases economic welfare because it tends to avoid all economic waste
3. Canon of Convenience: Taxes should be levied and collected in such a manner that provides a maximum of convenience to the taxpayers should always keep in view that the taxpayers suffer the least inconvenience in payment of the tax.
4. Canon of Economy : Minimum possible money should be spent in the collection of taxes. Collected amount should be deposited in the Government treasury.

Question 2.
Explain the taxation types.
Answer:
Taxation Types:
There are four types of Taxation:

1. Proportional Tax
2. Progressive Tax
3. Regressive Tax and
4. Degressive Tax

(i) Proportional Taxation is a method, where the rate of tax is same regardless size of the income. The tax amount realized will vary in the same proportion as that of income. If tax rate is 5% on income, Mr. X getting an income of Rs.1000 will pay. Rs.50, Mr. B will be getting an income Rs.5,000 will pay tax of Rs.50. In short, proportional tax leaves the relative financial status of taxed persons unchanged.

(ii) Progressive Taxation is a method by which the rate of tax will also increase with the increase of income of the person a case of progressive taxation if a person with Rs.1000 income per annum pay a tax of 10% (i.e) Rs.100, a person with an income of Rs. 10,000 per annum pays a tax of 25% (i.e) Rs.2,500 and a person with income of 1 lakh per annum pay the tax of 50% that is Rs.50,000.

(iii) Regressive taxation: it implies that hire the rate of tax furrow income groups than in the case of higher income groups it is a very opposite to progressive taxation.

(iv) Digressive Taxes which are to mildly progressive, hence not very steep, so that high income earners do not make a due sacrifice on the basis of equity, are called digressive. In digressive taxation, a tax may be progressive up to a certain limit; after that it may be charged at a flat rate.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of tax.
Answer:
Importance of Tax:
Taxes are crucial because governments collect this money and use it to finance under the
following social projects.
Health:

1. Without taxes, government contributions to the health sector would be impossible.
2. Taxes go to funding health services such as social healthcare, medical research, social security, etc.

Education:

1. Education could be one of the most deserving recipients of tax money.
2. Governments put a lot of importance in the development of human capital and education is central in this development.

Governance:

1. Governance is a crucial component in the smooth running of country affairs.
2. Poor governance would have far reaching ramifications on the entire country with a heavy toll on its economic growth.
3. Good governance ensures that the money collected is utilized in a manner that benefits citizens of the country.

Other important sectors are infrastructure development, transport, housing, etc.

1. Apart from social projects, governments also use money collected from taxes to fund sectors that are crucial for the wellbeing of their citizens such as security, scientific research, environmental protection, etc.
2. Some of the money is also channeled to fund projects such as pensions, unemployment benefits, childcare, etc,

Question 4.
Explain the direct and indirect tax with examples.
Answer:
Direct Tax:

1. A Direct tax is the tax whose burden is directly borne by the person on whom it is imposed, i.e., its burden cannot be shifted to others.
2. It is deducted at source from the income of a person who is taxed.
3. Income tax is a direct tax because the person, whose income is taxed, is liable to pay the
   tax directly to the Government and bear the burden of the tax himself. Eg. Corporation tax, wealth tax gift tax estate dirty.

Indirect Tax:

1. On the other hand when liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of that tax shifts on some other person, this type of tax is called an indirect tax.
2. Indirect Tax is a tax whose burden can be shifted to others.
3. For example: Service tax, Sales tax, Excise duty, Entertainment tax.

Question 5.
Why need for tax on people welfare? And explain it.
Answer:

1. The levying of taxes aims to raise revenue to fund governing or to alter prices in order
   to affect demand.
2. Some of these include expenditures on economic infrastructure like, transportation, sanitation, public safety, education, health-care systems, etc., military, scientific research, culture and the arts, public works, public insurance, etc. and the operation of government itself.
3. When expenditures exceed tax revenue, a government accumulates debt. A portion of taxes may be used to service past debts.
4. Governments also use taxes to fund welfare and public services. These services can include education systems, pensions for the elderly, unemployment benefits, and public transportation.
5. Energy, water and waste management systems are also common public utilities.
6. The purpose of taxation is to maintain the stability of the currency, express public policy regarding the distribution of wealth, subsidizing certain industries or population groups or isolating the costs of certain benefits, such as highways or social security.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Tax and its Importance Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ is a method by which the rate of tax will also increase with the increase of income.
(a) Proportional Taxation
(b) Progressive Taxation
(c) Regressive taxation
(d) Digressive Taxes
Answer:
(b) Progressive Taxation

Question 2.
Wealth tax is an example of ______
(a) direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) a and b
(d) none
Answer:
(a) direct tax

Question 3.
______ is charged from successor of inherited property
(a) Wealth Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Estate Duty
(d) Service Tax
Answer:
(c) Estate Duty

Question 4.
________ is paid by the producer of goods who recovers it from wholesalers and retailers.
(a) Wealth Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Estate Duty
(d) Excise Duty
Answer:
(d) Excise Duty

Question 5.
Swachh Bharat Cess was started from _________
(a) 15 November 2015
(b) 20 November 2015
(c) 10 November 2016
(d) 10 November 2017
Answer:
(a) 15 November 2015

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ________ principles or cannons of taxation still form the basis of the tax structure of a modern state
2. ________ could be one of the most deserving recipients of tax money
3. ________ is a crucial component in the smooth running of country affairs.
4. Taxes generally contribute to the________ of a country.
5. ________ constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
6. ________ is particularly designed to replace the indirect taxes imposed on goods and services by the Central and State.

Answer:

1. Adam Smith’s
2. Education
3. Governance
4. gross domestic product
5. Central Board of Direct Taxes
6. GST

III. Match the following

Proportional Taxation	–	a) Transparent tax
Entertainment	–	b) Roads and bridges
GST	–	c) Royalties
Toll tax	–	d) Size of the income
Corporation tax	–	e) Movie tickets

Answer:

1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV. Find the odd one out

Question 1
Movie tickets, sale of goods, game arcades, amusement parks
Answer:
sale of goods

V. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note an corporation tax.
Answer:
Corporation tax is levied on profit of corporations and companies. It is charged on royalties, interest, gains from sale of capital assets located in India, fees for technical services and dividends.

Question 2.
What is wealth tax?
Answer:
Wealth tax is imposed on property of individuals depending upon the value of property. The ‘ same property will be taxed every year on its current market value.

Question 3.
Give an account of Tool tax and Road Tax.
Answer:
Toll tax is a tax you often pay to use any form of infrastructure developed by the government, example roads and bridges. The tax amount levied is rather negligible which is used for maintenance and basic upkeep of a particular project.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the following
(a) Sales Tax or VAT
(b) Excise duty
(c) Entertainment tax.
Answer:
(a) Sales Tax or VAT
Sales tax is an indirect tax on sale of goods because liability to collect tax is that of shopkeeper but the burden of that tax falls on the customer. The shopkeeper realizes the tax amount from the customer by including it in the price of the commodity that . he sells.
(b) Excise Duty:
Excise duty is paid by the producer of goods, who recovers it from wholesalers and retailers. This tax in India is levied by the Central Government.
(c) Entertainment Tax:
The state governments charge such tax on every transaction related to entertainment. Some examples are movie tickets, video game arcades, stage shows, exhibitions, amusement parks, and sports-related activities.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Chemistry in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Chemistry in Daily Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, and bronchitis, is ______
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Penicillin
(d) Sulphaguanidine
Answer:
(c) Penicillin

Question 2.
Aspirin is ______
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Sedative
(d) Psychedelic
Answer:
(b) Antipyretic

Question 3.
______ are that neutralize stomach acid.
(a) Antacid
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Analgesic
(d) Antihistanics
Answer:
(a) Antacid

Question 4.
The lowest temperature at which a substance catch the fire is called its ______
(a) Boiling point
(b) Melting point
(c) Critical temperature
(d) Ignition temperature
Answer:
(d) Ignition temperature

Question 5.
Which is the hottest part in the flame of candle ______
(a) Blue
(b) Yellow
(c) Black
(d) Way part
Answer:
(a) Blue

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Penicillin was first discovered by ______
2. World ORS Day is ______
3. Combustion is a chemical reaction in which and substance react with ______
4. In the presence of water, the ignition temperature of paper is ______
5. Fire produced by oil cannot be controlled by ______

Answer:

1. Alexander Fleming
2. July 29
3. oxidizing agent
4. not reached
5. water

III. True or False – If False, give the correct answer :

Question 1.
Antibiotics does work for viruses like cold and
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement: Antibiotics does not work for viruses like cold and flu

Question 2.
Analgesics are the substances that lower the temperature during fever.
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement : Antipyretic are the substances that lower the temperature during fever.

Question 3.
All fuels form flame.
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement: All fuels do not form flame.

Question 4.
Oxygen is necessary for combustion.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Burning wood and coal causes pollution of air.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Antipyretic	Reduce pain
2. Analgesic	Reduce body temperature
3. Antacid	Spontaneous combustion
4. Phosphorus	ORS Solution
5. Carbon – di – oxide	Leads to respiratory problem

Answer:

1. Antipyretic	Reduce body temperature
2. Analgesic	Reduce pain
3. Antacid	ORS Solution
4. Phosphorus	Spontaneous combustion
5. Carbon – di – oxide	Leads to respiratory problem.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Inner zone of flame:: ______, outer zone of flame : : ________
Anwer:
Black, Blue

Question 2.
Tincture:: ______, Histamine : : _______
Answer:
Antiseptic, Chemical messenger

VI. Very short answer :

Question 1.
First viral disease detected in human being was : _____ (Yellow fever / dengue fever)
Answer:
Yellow fever.

Question 2.
______,:_______,:_______ are called green house gases
Answer:
CO₂ , Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons

Question 3.
Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.
Answer:
Garlic, Turmeric, Aloe vera.

Question 4.
What are the main constituents of dettol?
Answer:
Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpincol

Question 5.
Name the unit in which the calorific value of a fuel is expressed.
Answer:
KJ/Kg.

Question 6.
How many types of combustion are there?
Answer:

1. Rapid combustion
2. Spontaneous combustion
3. Explosion

Question 7.
What are the essential requirements for producing fire?
Answer:
Fuel, Heat and Oxygen.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Answer:
One should not take medicines without consulting doctors because if a wrong medicine is accidently eaten for a disease, it may not cure the disease but actually can have harmful side effects to the body.

Question 2.
Why do antiseptics differ from disinfectants? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Difference between Antiseptic and Disinfectants

	Antiseptic	Disinfectants
1.	All antiseptic are disinfectants	1.       All disinfectants are not antiseptic
2.	It can be applied on the live tissue	2.        It can be apply on in animate object
3.	E.g. skin / Mucous	3.        E.g. Surface, lab working tables, floor.

Question 3.
What is ignition temperature?
Answer:
The minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire and burns is called its ignition temperature..

Question 4.
If 4.5kg of fuel is completely burnt and amount of heat produced stands measured at 1,80,000 KJ. What is the calorific value?
Answer:
Amount of fuel = 4.5 kg
Heat produced = 1,80,000 kj
Calorific value = ?
Solution:

∴ Calorific value = 40,000 kj/kg

VIII. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain briefly about antibiotic and analgesic.
Answer:

1. Many micro organisms and plants synthesize chemicals which are toxic in nature to protect them from invading organisms.
2. Those biosynthesized chemicals can be isolated from the plants/micro organisms and was used as medicines against infectious diseases, these substances were called as antibiotics.
3. Ex: Chloramphenicols, tetracyclines, Penicillin derivatives, cephalosporin’s and their derivatives.
4. The world’s first antibiotic penicillin was discovered by Dr. Alexander Fleming.

Analgesics:

1. Analgesics or pain killers that react like the pain-suppressing chemicals released by the body.
2. They suppress the feeling of ‘pain.
3. This analgesics drug selectively relieves pain by acting either in CNS (Central Nerves System) or on peripheral pain mechanism, without significantly altering consciousness.

Question 2.
Make labeled diagram of a candle flame.
Answer:

IX. Picture based question

Question 1.
Arul and Aakash were doing an experiment in which water was to be heated in a beaker. Arul kept the beaker near the wick in the yellow part of candle flame. Aakash kept the beaker in the outer most part to the flame. Whose water will get heated in a shorter time?

Answer:
The water heated by Akash will get heated in a shorter time because he kept his beaker near the hottest (non- luminous) zone of the flame. But Arul kept the beaker in the luminous zone which is moderately hot. So, it will take longer time.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Chemistry in Daily Life Intext Activities

Activity

Question 1.
What happens when you add with these chemicals?
Sugar + Potassium permanganate + Glycerin

Answer:

1. After adding sugar, potassium permanganate and glycerin to the dish, immediately step back because spark and solid potassium permanganate will be expelled from the dish.
2. When potassium permanganate mixes with glycerin, a redox reaction starts. This reaction starts out really slow, but produces a lot of heat, so it will start to speed up bit by bit. As the potassium permanganate oxidises the sugar, it will speed up more and more until it finally starts to smoke and after that it will ignite.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Chemistry in Daily Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
is a special combination of dry salt that is mixed with safe water.
(a) PRS
(b) ORS
(c) SOR
(d) ROS
Answer:
(b) ORS

Question 2.
Which of the following conditions is not necessary for combustion?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Adequate ignition temperature
(c) Combustible substance
(d) High calorific value
Answer:
(d) High calorific value

Question 3.
During diarrhoea the intestine is still able to absorb molecules.
(a) glucose
(b) sodium
(c) citrate
(d) none
Answer:
(a) glucose

Question 4.
Antacids are actually .
(a) weak acids
(b) weak bases
(c) strong acids
(d) strong bases
Answer:
(b) weak bases

Question 5.
Our stomach naturally produce to help digest and breakdown food.
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) acetic acid
(c) hydrochloric acid
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) hydrochloric acid

Question 6.
_______ are substances applied to the exterior of a body that kill microbes.
(a) Antiseptics
(b) Antihistamine
(c) Antipyretic
(d) ORS
Answer:
(a) Antiseptics

Question 7.
All combustion reactions are .
(a) endothermic
(b) exothermic
(c) both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) exothermic

Question 8.
Any reaction that involves reaction with oxygen is called reaction.
(a) reduction
(b) ignition
(c) oxidation
(d) none
Answer:
(c) oxidation

Question 9.
Which is the luminous part of the plame?
(a) Outer zone
(b) Middle zone
(c) Inner zone
(d) None
Answer:
(b) middle zone

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen to produce heat is called _________
2. Substances which vapourise during burning produce _________
3.  _________ is one that neutralize stomach acid
4.  _________ is a chemical messenger involved in number of complex biological reactions.
5.  _________ are used to treat the disease and to improve our health.
6. Once infection is sensed, the immune system releases a chemical called _________
7. Sensing the pyrogens, hypothalamus increases the body temperature by releasing a chemical _________
8.  _________ that react like the pain – suppressing chemicals released by the body.
9.  _________ resistane is defined as the ability of the microorganisms to resist the effects of an antibiotic to which they were once sensitive.
10. The process of osmosis, the salts and sugars pull water into your bloodstream and speed up _________

Answer:

1. Combustion
2. flames
3. Antacid
4. Histamine
5. Medicines
6. pyrogen
7. prostaglandin
8. Analgesics
9. Antibiotic
10. rehydration

III. True or False – if false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
If there is inadequate salt in the intestinal wall, the body will not be able to absorb water.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Acidity issues arise when there is excess production of acetic acid due to triggers.
Answer:
Correct statement : Acidity issues arise when there is excess production of due to triggers.

Question 3.
The lining of our stomach with a pH of 4 to 6 is designed as such to withstand a high acidic environment.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The lining of our stomach with a pH of 1 to 3 is designed as such to withstand a high acidic environment.

Question 4.
The bacteria staphylococcus is meant to cause deadly diseases such as pneumonia sour throat etc.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Fleming named the mould penicillum notatum, from which the antibiotic penicillin was isolated.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Paracetamol interact with the receptors and reduce the intensity of pain signals to the brain.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Bacteria and virus can thrive above a certain temperature.
Answer:
Correct statement: Bacteria and virus thrive above a certain temperature.

Question 8.
The adverse effects of antihistamines are mouth dryness and sleepiness.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is yellow and is the hottest part of the flame.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is blue and is the hottest part of the flame.

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1.	White flame	(a)	Table salt
2.	Indigo flame	(b)	Bleaching powder
3.	Blue flame	(c)	Potassium chloride
4.	Orange flame	(d)	Epsom salt

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. b
4. a

Question 2.

1.	Inner zone	(a)	Yellow
2.	Outer zone	(b)	Borax powder
3.	Middle zone	(c)	Blue
4.	Green flame	(d)	Black

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

V. Very short Answers:

Question 1.
What is antipyretics?
Answer:

1. Antipyretics (anti – against and pyretic – feverish) are chemical substances that reduce fever.
2. They suppress the release of prostaglandin and reduce fever.

Question 2.
What is antiseptics?
Answer:
Antiseptics are substances applied to the exterior of a body that kill or inhibit microbes and infective agents.

Question 3.
Name few natural antiseptics.
Answer:

1. Garlic
2. Turmeric
3. Aloevera.

Question 4.
Define histamine.
Answer:
Histamine is a chemical messenger involved in number of complex biological reactions.

Question 5.
Complete the oxidation reaction.
Answer:
CH₄ + 2O₂ → ______ + ______ + Heat energy
CO₂ + 2H₂O

Question 6.
Name a few substances which produce flames on burning.
Answer:
Wax, Kerosene.

Question 7.
Give one example for spontaneous combustion.
Answer:
Phosphorous burns spontaneously at room temperature.

Question 8.
Give one example for slow combustion.
Answer:
Respiration.

Question 9.
What are the classes of fire?
Answer:
There are 5 classes of fire.

1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
5. Class D.

Question 10.
Give example for class B fires.
Answer:
Petrol, turpentine or paint.

VI. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Mention some of the common antacids.
Answer:

1. Sodium bicarbonate (NaHC03)
2. Calcium carbonate (CaC03)
3. Magnesium Hydroxide (MgOH)2
4. Magnesium carbonate (MgCOs)
5. Aluminium Hydroxide Al (OH)3

Question 2.
What is antibiotic resistance?
Answer:
Antibiotic resistance is defined as the ability of the microorganisms to resist the effects of an antibiotic to which they were once sensitive.

Question 3.
What is fever?
Answer:
In normal course, our body temperature is one degree below or one degree above 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. When the temperature goes above this level it is called fever.

Question 4.
Mention the ways to intake the medicine.
Answer:

1. Oral use
2. External use
3. Injections (Intramuscular/Intra venous).

Question 5.
What do you mean by inflammable substance?
Answer:

1. Substances which have very low ignition temperature and can easily catch fire with a flame are called inflammable substances.
2. E.g. Petrol. Alcohol, LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas), CNG (Compressed Natural Gas), etc.

Question 6.
Write a note on flame.
Answer:

1. Flame is actually a chemical reaction.
2. To be specific, the flame is a mixture of gases (vaporized fuel, oxygen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, water vapor, and many volatile materials) and so is matter.
3. The light and heat produced by the flame is energy, not matter. But fire is a matter.

Question 7.
What is slow combustion? Give example.
Answer:
Slow combustion is a form of combustion which takes place at low temperatures. Respiration is an example of slow combustion.

Question 8.
Mention the conditions necessary for producing fire.
Answer:
The conditions necessary for producing fire are,

1. Fuel
2. Air (to supply oxygen)
3. Heat (to raise the temperature of the fuel beyond its ignition temperature)

Question 9.
Mention the most common types of fire extinguishers.
Answer:

1. Air pressurized water extinguishers
2. Carbon-di-oxide extinguishers
3. Dry chemical powder extinguishers.

VII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Explain the structure of a candle flame.
Answer:
A candle flame has three main zones, they are

1. The outer zone – complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is blue and is the hottest part of the flame. It is the non-luminous part of the flame.
2. The middle zone – partial combustions of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is yellow and is moderately hot part of the flame. It is the luminous part of the flame.
3. The inner zone – There are unburnt vapours of the fuel and the colour is black and is least hot part.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of a good fuel.
Answer:

1. Readily available
2. Cheap
3. Easy transport and store
4. Burns at moderate rate
5. Produce large amount of heat
6. Do not leave behind any undesirable substances.
7. Does not cause pollution.

Question 3.
How do fire extinguishers work? Explain.
Answer:

1. Portable fire extinguishers apply an extinguishing agent that will either cool burning fuel, displace or remove oxygen, or stop the chemical reaction so fire cannot continue to burn.
2. When the candle of an extinguisher is compressed, it opens and inner canister of high pressure gases forces the extinguishing agent from the main cylinder through a siphon tube and out the nozzle.
3. A fire extinguisher works much like a can of hair spray.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Why a person is covered with a blanket when the clothes of that person catch fire?
Answer:
When the clothes of a person catch fire, the person is covered with a blanket to extinguish
the fire. This is because the supply of air to the burning clothes is cut off by blanket, due to this the clothes stop burning and the fire gets extinguished.

Question 2.
Why is the candle flame straight?
Answer:
A candle flame is caused by vapour burning above the candle. This burning vapour is hotter than the surrounding air and is therefore less dense. So, by the principle of convection, it “rises” so the flame is always upwards

Students can Download Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Map Reading Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Map Reading

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Map Reading Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The science of map making is called ___________
(a) Geography
(b) Cartography
(c) Physiography
(d) Physical Geography
Answer:
(b) Cartography

Question 2.
North, South, East and West are four directions are called as
(a) Cardinal
(b) Geographical
(c) Latitudinal
(d) Angels
Answer:
(a) Cardinal

Question 3.
Cultural maps are those which shows the ___________features
(a) Natural
(b) Man-made
(c) Artificial
(d) Environmental
Answer:
(b) Man-made

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ______ is an essential tool of a geographer.
2. The directions in between the cardinal directions are the inter mediate
3. ______ in a map which explains the different colours and symbols used in it.
4. Cadastral maps are known as _______
5. Small scale maps are helpful to us to show large areas like ______ and ______

Answer:

1. Map
2. direction
3. Legend
4. Village and town maps
5. continents, countries

III. Circle the Odd one

Question 1.
North East, Scale, North West and East.
Answer:
North East, (Scale) North West and East.

Question 2.
White, Snow, High land, and Plains.
Answer:
White, Snow, High land, and (Plains)

Question 3.
Relief map, Soil map, Physical map and Atlas.
Answer:
Relief map, Soil map, Physical map and (Atlas)

Question 4.
Weather Forecasting, Climate, Rainfall and Temperature.
Answer:
Weather Forecasting,(Climate) Rainfall and Temperature.

IV. Match the following

Upper right corner	–	Density and growth
Key (or) legend	–	District (or) town
Large Scale map	–	Natural relief features
Physical map	–	Colours and Symbols
Population map	–	‘N’ letter

Answer:

Upper right corner	–	‘N’ letter
Key (or) legend	–	Colours and Symbols
Large Scale map	–	District (or) town
Physical map	–	Natural relief features
Population map	–	Density and growth

V. Examine the Following Statements

Question 1.
1. An Atlas is a bound volume of different types of maps.
2. Atlas maps are drawn on smaller scale.
3. Insignificant details are omitted
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Question 2.
Statement I : Globe is a three dimensional model of the Earth.
Statement II : It is easy to handle and to carry, as it can be rolled up or folded.
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong.
(b) Statement I is wrong and II is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong

VI. Name the following

Question 1.
Representing the earth on a flat surface.
Answer:
Map

Question 2.
Ratio between the distance on a map and distance on the ground.
Answer:
Scale

Question 3.
Symbols which help to show road ways and railways.
Answer:

Question 4.
A book which contains different kinds of maps.
Answer:
Atlas

Question 5.
A map which shows administration divisions.
Answer:
Political map

VII. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What is a map?
Answer:

1. A map is an essential tool of a geographer.
2. Map is a representation of the earth as a whole or a part of the earth drawn on a flat surface according to a given scale.
3. It can show continents, countries, cities and even a local area are drawn with specific details.

Question 2.
What is cartography?
Answer:
The science of map-making is called cartography (carte means ‘map’ and graphic means ‘drawing’).One who draws maps is called a Cartographer.

Question 3.
What are cardinal directions?
Answer:

1. The cardinal direction are North, South, East and West.
2. A legend (or) key of a map explain the details in the map.

Question 4.
What is an Atlas?
Answer:

1. Atlas is a collection of maps in a book.
2. Atlas maps are small-scale maps covering large areas like continents and countries.
3. Only prominent relief features, main roads and railways important towns are shown in Atlas maps.
4. The study of geographic characteristics of a large area is possible at the time with the help of an atlas.

Question 5.
Name the types of Atlas.
Answer:

1. School Atlas
2. Advanced Atlas
3. Regional Atlas
4. National Atlas

Question 6.
What are the uses of maps?
Answer:
Uses of Maps:

1. Maps enable us to know details of the landforms and other ground features without seeing the area.
2. Maps are of immense importance to the military personnel for planning campaigns.
3. It is used in the aero planes to reach their destinations and the ships to sail safely in the oceans.
4. Maps are used for weather forecasting and agricultural operations.
5. We can study and interpret the future possibilities of soil erosion, settlement patterns, drainage patterns, land utilization, etc.,

VIII. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
What are the elements of maps? Write about it.
Answer:
Elemehts of maps:

1. Maps provide us with a lot of information and one must know how to read and interpret them.
2. Every map is provided with certain features that act as an aid to study the information presented in it.
3. The basic essential elements of a map are title, direction, scale and legend (or) key of symbol.

Title:
Every map has a title that describes the information given in the map. For example, a map with the title India Rivers shows Rivers of India.

Direction:

1. In general maps are drawn with north orientation it helps us to find other direction on the map like East, West and South. In addition to the North notation, latitudes and longitudes were depicted in the margins.
2. The North is notified by letter ‘N’ with an arrow mark.

Scale:

1. The scale of a map is the ratio between the distance on the map between two points and actual distance between the two places on the ground.
2. The scales can be represented as 1cm = 10km.
3. It means 1 cm on the map is equal to 10 km on the ground. It helps to find the distance on the map between two points.

Legend:

1. A legend or key of a map explain the symbols that are used on it to represent various physical and cultural features. .
2. The common signs and symbols are internationally accepted and used in maps are called conventional signs and symbols.
3. Every map has a legend or a key which explains the different colours and symbols used in it.
4. They are depicted by using certain colours, symbols or letters.

Question 2.
What are the three ways of representation of maps?
Answer:
Maps are a graphical representation of the world or a section of the world. As a representation of the world, maps are compressed versions of the real world meaning that a large piece of land is recreated onto a smaller piece of paper or digital file. The relationship between the real world size of a geographic feature and its representative feature on a map is known as scale. There are three main ways that scale is indicated on a map: graphic (or bar), Verbal and representative fraction (RF).

Question 3.
Classify the maps based on functions.
Answer:

1. Physical maps show natural features such as relief, geology, soils, drainage, elements weather, and vegetation.
2. Relief Maps show general topography like mountains valleys, plains, plateaus and rivers.
3. Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures, rocks and minerals.
4. Climatic Maps show the distribution of temperature, rainfall, clouds, relative humidity, direction and velocity of winds and other elements of weather.
5. Soil Maps which are drawn to show the distribution of different types of soil and their properties.
6. Cultural Maps which shows the man-made features are called cultural maps. Political Maps show the administrative divisions of a country, state or district. These maps facilitate the administration in planning and management of the concerned administrative units.
7. Population Maps show the distribution, density and growth of population, occupation structure and literacy.
8. Economic Maps depict the production and distribution of different types of crops and minerals, location of industries, trade routes and flow of commodities.
9. Transportation Maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway station, airports and seaports, etc.,
10. Thematic maps are all such maps that represent the distribution of a particular feature or theme and its spatial variation.
11. Google maps is a web-based service that provides detailed information about geographical regions and sites around the world.

Question 4.
Write about comparison of map and Globe.
Answer:

S.no	Map	Globe
1.	A map is a two dimensional form of the Earth	A globe is three- dimensional model of the Earth
2.	A map shows a small or a large area.	A globe is a true model of the earth
3.	A map can show a detailed information about an area	A globe cannot show the detailed information for an area.
4.	A map acannot be turned to explain rotation	A globe can be turned to show rotation
5.	A map is very easy to carry	A globe is not easy to carry

Question 5.
Describe the types of maps based on the scale? Write about it?
Answer:
Maps on the basis of scale:

1. Large scale maps show small areas in greater details because they are drawn on a relatively large scale.
2. Cadastral maps are village and town maps which show individual fields and house sites.
3. Topographical Maps shows smaller areas in much greater detail. These maps are prepared by Survey of India. These are also large scale maps which show both natural features like hills and valleys as well as man-made features like buildings, road and canals.
4. Small scale maps that show large areas like continent or countries. These maps are drawn on 1cm = 1000 kms. These are called small-scale maps.
5. Wall maps are small-scale maps showing large areas. They are useful for students in classrooms and offices, small scale maps covers a larger area and depicts with limited information.
6. Atlas is a collection of maps in a book. Atlas maps are small-scale maps covering large areas like continents and countries. Only prominent relief features, main roads and railways important towns are shown in Atlas maps. The study of geographic characteristics of a large area is possible at the time with the help of an atlas.

IX. Hots

Question 1.
Map is an essential tool for a traveler why?
Answer:
Map is an essential tool for a traveller, It helps a traveller to find out direction. It also tells about the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of a place. It helps one to locate a place easily and follow the correct travelling route.

X. Activity

Question 1.
In an outline map of India mark the following features by using symbols and colours
a) Mark any one of the District capitals
b) Draw any one river path
c) Mark any one of the mountains
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw the convectional signs and symbols to given points
(a) Bridge
(b) Canal
(c) Dam
(d) Temple
(e) Forest
(f) Railway Station
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Map Reading Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The ________ of a map describes the information given in the map.
(a) title
(b) scale
(c) direction
(d) legend
Answer:
(a) title

Question 2.
________ maps show distribution of temperature.
(a) Soil
(b) Weather
(c) Climatic
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(c) Climatic

Question 3.
Political Maps show the ________ divisions of a country
(a) administrative
(b) economic
(c) Cultural
(d) Relief
Answer:
(a) administrative

Question 4.
Agriclture is shown in maps using ________ colour.
(a) brown
(b) yellow
(c) green
(d) blue
Answer:
(b) yellow

Question 5.
Black colour indicate ________ line.
(a) railway
(b) transport
(c) settlement
(d) road
Answer:
(a) railway

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Topographical maps show ________ areas in much greater detail.
2.  ________ that show large areas like continent or countries.
3.  ________ are small scale maps showing large areas.
4. Relief maps show general ________ like amountain vally ,plains ,plateaus and rivers
5.  ________ maps are drawn to show geological structures.
6. Every map has a ________ that describes the information given in the map.
7. The North is notified by letter ________ with an arrow mark
8. A sign is a widely used ________ or a ________ Pattern
9. The ________ have standardized a set of conventional signs and symbols.

Answer:

1. smaller
2. Small scale maps
3. wall maps
4. topography
5. Geological
6. title
7. ‘N’
8. symbol,line
9. Survey of India (SOI)

III. Match the following.

Colour		Features
Brown	–	a) Settlements, Road
Yellow	–	b) Forest
Green	–	c) Water bodies
Blue	–	d) Agriculture
Red	–	e) Mountain, Hells

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a

IV. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on conventional signs and symbols.
Answer:
A sign is a symbol or a line pattern or a colour on a map that relates to and represents a feature on the ground and is widely used. The Survey of India (SOI) have standardized a set of convectional signs and symbols. Several colours are commonly used in the map.

Question 2.
What are the colours used in the maps?
Answer:

Colours	Features
White	Snow
Yellow	Agriculture
Green	Forest
Blue	Water bodies (oceans, seas and rivers)
Brown	Mountain, Hills and contour
Red	Settlements, Road
Black	Railway line

Question 3.
Define scale
Answer:
The scale of a map is the ratio between the distance on the map between two points and actual distance between the two places the ground

Question 4.
What are Economic maps?
Answer:
Economic Maps depict the production and distribution of different types of crops and minerals, location of industries, trade routes and flow of commodities.

Question 5.
What are transporation maps?
Answer:
Transportation Maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway station, airports and seaports, etc.,

Question 6.
What is a legend?
Answer:
A legend or key of a map explain the symbols that are used on it to represent various physical and cultural features.

Question 7.
What do you mean by conventional signs and symbols?
Answer:
The common signs and symbols are internationally accepted and used in maps are called conventional signs and symbols.

V. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Draw the various symbols used in a map.
Answer:

Students can Download Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Road Safety Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Road Safety Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Road safety is meant for
(a) Passersby
(b) drivers
(c) public
(d) all who use roads
Answer:
(d) all who use roads

Question 2.
Road accidents affect a country’s
(a) improvement
(b) life
(c) finance
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Permit refers to
(a) permission for driving
(b) permission for carrying goods
(c) certificate for drivers
(d) registration of vehicles
Answer:
(a) permission for driving

Question 4.
Raksha safe drive is a device useful for
(a) pedestrians
(b) motorists
(c) car drivers
(d) passengers
Answer:
(c) car drivers

Question 5.
Road safety week celebration was first imitated in India in the year
(a) 1947
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 2019
Answer:
(b) 1989

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The most useful invention of man for transport is __________
2. Using __________ is inevitable in our journey of life.
3. Too many vehicles on the road cause __________ and __________ pollution.
4. __________ is the monetary supporter of a family.
5. In case of emergency for medical assistance call __________ for help.

Answer:

1. wheel
2. vehicles
3. traffic jam, more
4. Breadwinners
5. 108

III. Match the following

Informatory sign	–	Traffic lights
Zebra crossing	–	Narrow bend sign
Mandatory sign	–	Petrol pump sign
Cautionary sign	–	License
Right to drive a vehicle	–	Walkers

Answer:

Informatory sign	–	Petrol pump sign
Zebra crossing	–	Walkers
Mandatory sign	–	Traffic lights
Cautionary sign	–	Narrow bend sign
Right to drive a vehicle	–	License

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion : Car pooling is the use of vehicles by turns.
Result : It saves fuel, time and money and also
(a) A is correct and R is not correct
(b) A is correct and R is also correct
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is also correct

Question 2.
Find the odd one
(a) car
(b) trucks
(c) tempos
(d) aero planes
Answer:
(d) aero planes

Question 3.
Find the following statements are true or false.

1. Road safety education in the school curriculum is an additional burden for the students
2. An ounce of practice is worth more than tons of preaching.
3. Hoarding on roads has to be banned.
4. Following road safety rules from childhood will become a habit in future.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the distracters while driving?
Answer:
Talking over the mobile phone or texting message or engaging in any activities attention diverted from driving.

Question 2.
Mention the 2 safety gears for safe driving.
Answer:

1. Use of helmets for two wheelers and
2. Seat belts for four wheelers are the two safety gears for safe driving.

Question 3.
Why is not safe to drive in nights?
An extra alertness is needed while driving at night. The uncontrolled sleep, tiredness due to long drive, poor lighting on the road can cause fatal accidents.

Question 4.
When can a person obtain the right to drive a vehicle?
Answer:

1. One should be eligible to get a driving license at the age of 18.
2. One who drives a vehicle should have undergone the training and tests to obtain a driving license.

Question 5.
How can media promote road safety among the public?
Answer:
Mass media and journals could play a key role to raise awareness on road safety. In particular, they can disseminate preventive messages and promote safe behaviours, increase peoples knowledge and understanding of the gravity of the problem and advocate for safer roads and systems.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
List out the documents necessary for an Indian while driving.
Answer:

1. One who drives a vehicle should have undergone the training and tests to obtain a driving license.
2. It is compulsory to have the following documents – driving license, registration certificate of the vehicle, Insurance certificate, Taxation certificate, fitness certificate and permit.

Question 2.
What is the need for including road safety education in the school curriculum?
Answer:

1. Parents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education to young ones.
2. If a child’s parent violates the traffic rules, the child too will imitate the same in future. So the elders have to set an example for them in adhering to the safety rules and regulations.
3. Road Safety education should be provided since childhood.
4. It has to be made a part of school curriculum, syllabus, text book and included in competition on road safety.
5. Activities like writing of slogans, essays and paintings on this theme should be conducted for reinforcement.

Question 3.
How can parents teach their children road safety rules?
Answer:

1. Parents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education to young ones.
2. If a child’s parent violates the traffic rules, the child too will imitate the same in future.
3. So the elders have to set an example for them in adhering to the safety rules and regulations.
4. Video and computer games that simulate receiving should be banned by the government or discouraged by parents as it will develop racing habit in children.
5. Parents should help children learn about the traffic signals and rules.
6. They should be instructed to wait for the right signal and to use the zebra crossing while crossing the road.
7. They should be warn them not to run across or along the road and to use the footpath, while walking on the road.

VII. Hots

Question 1.
Knowing the road safety rules, how will you influence your parents and relatives?
Answer:

1. We will educate parents on following road safety rules.
2. When they don’t wear a helmet, we can urge them to wear and also tell them the risk of not wearing it.
3. We will insist our parents to wear seat belt while driving a car.
4. We will tell them not to exceed the speed limit while riding or driving.

Question 2.
If wheel had not been invented, what might have been our mode of transport?
Answer:
If wheel had not been invented, we would not have been able to ride a two wheeler or use a car. Walking would have been the only mode of transport. Which would have been a very tough job.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
India accounts for about __________ of road accident fatalities at worldwide.
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 8%
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 2.
__________ is a larger threat and the leading cause for road accidents.
(a) Distracted driving
(b) Heavy traffic
(c) Night driving
(d) Tailgating
Answer:
(a) Distracted driving

Question 3.
The Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 passed by the Parliament came into force in __________
(a) 2000
(b) 1990
(c) 1989
(d) 1991
Answer:
(c) 1989

Question 4.
The Mumbai police has released his video of __________ to create awareness among the motorists.
(a) M.S.Dhoni
(b) Kapil Dev
(c) Amitabh Bhcchan
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
Answer:
(d) Sachin Tendulkar

Question 5.
The Government of India observes Road safety week1 awareness during, __________
(a) January
(b) March
(c) April
(d) July
Answer:
(a) January

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ is a major traffic violation of rules.
2. _______ is very slow when compared to the expansion of vehicles.
3. _______ is prohibited near a hospital or a school zone.
4. _______ the seat belts while driving a car for both the driver and co-passenger.
5. Two wheeler can carry only _______ adult pillion rider.
6. _______ can result in crucial collisions.
7. _______ is a healthy habit and reduces pollution.

Answer:

1. Reckless Driving
2. Road expansion
3. Sound horn
4. Fasten
5. one
6. Brake failure
7. Cycling

III. Match the following:

CCTV cameras	–	a) cordial relationship
Raksha safe drive	–	b) Annual celebration
Car pooling	–	c) high speed offences
Road safety week	–	d) automatic crash detection

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
What is road safety?
Answer:
Road safety refers to the methods and measures used to prevent road users from being killed or seriously injured.

Question 2.
What is Reckless driving?
Answer:
Reckless driving is a major traffic violation of rules. It is defined as the mental state in which the driver purposely disregard the rules of the road.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Taligating?
Answer:
Tailgating refers to a condition where a driver drives behind another vehicle without leaving sufficient distance between them. In this condition, if the vehicle in front of him, stops suddenly, his own vehicle will crash with it.

Question 4.
Mention a few causes for road accidents.
Answer:

1. Impatience of Pedestrians and violation of traffic rules result in accidents.
2. Drunken driving, jumping red light over speeding and unmanned railway crossings cause great damage to valuable lives.

Question 5.
Why are road safety rules designed?
Answer:

1. Every country has its own road safety rules and regulations for the best interests of its citizens.
2. India also has designed road safety rules for protecting the road users from meeting with accidents and injury.

Question 6.
Write a short note on Raksha safe drive device.
Answer:

1. To avoid accidents because of potholes and road humps, users can opt to use the Raksha safe drive device.
2. It is attached with velcro to the car and alerts the driver about road humps, bad roads and on crossing the speed limits.
3. It is a device capable of automatic crash detection, two – way call connectivity, GPS tracking, engine health monitoring and smart panic button.

Question 7.
What is carpooling? How is it useful?
Answer:
Carpooling will reduce the number of vehicles on the road. It will pave way for a cordial relationship and better understanding among the fellowmen.

Question 8.
Why is road safety week celebrated?
Answer:
Road Safety Week:

1. Road safety week is a national event which aims at promoting public awareness about traffic rules and to reduce causalities due to road accidents.
2. It is observed annually.
3. It is celebrated with great joy and enthusiasm. A variety of programmes related to road safety is conducted.
4. Educational banners, safety posters, leaflets, and pocket guides related to read safety are distributed to the public.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Mention some road safety rules.
Answer:

1. Use standard helmets while driving two wheeler vehicle and strap it before mounting the vehicle.
2. Fasten the seat belts while driving a car for both the driver and co-passenger.
3. Avoid carrying heavy load while riding a two wheeler.
4. Two wheeler can carry one adult pillion rider and not the whole family.
5. Keep a safe distance from the vehicle ahead of yours.
6. Slow down on bends and turns, especially in hill stations.

Question 2.
What are the Preventive measures taken by the Government to reduce the number of road accidents?
Answer:
Preventive Measures:
Government:
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Government of India has taken earnest steps for reducing the number of road accidents.

1. Taking steps for the rectification of accident black spots and improvement of road engineering.
2. Ensuring the good functioning of the traffic signals and road signs at busy crossing roads.
3. Constructing and manufacturing proper roads both in urban and rural areas.
4. Installation of CCTV cameras to record high speed offences which can detect the offenders.
5. Prohibiting the act of digging or hoarding on roads.
6. Remove encroachments and maintain proper pedestrian ways for ensuring road safety.
7. Stringent actions to be taken for the violation of any road safety rules.

Question 3.
What are the suggestion to reduce vehicle pollution?
Answer:

1. Walking is a good alternative and cycling is a good exercise for a distance of 1 to 2 kms.
2. Use eco-friendly vehicles.
3. Implement the idea of installing bollards near unmanned railway crossings. A separate unhindered passage for cyclists would yield many benefits and also reducing road crashes.
4. Cycling is a healthy habit and reduces pollution.
5. Motorcycle manufacturers should be asked to design two wheelers with a designed maximum speed of 50 km ph.
6. An awareness programme can be used by narrating live examples and also projecting videos.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Market and Consumer Protection

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Market and Consumer Protection Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In which case a consumer cannot complain against the manufacturer for a defective product?
(a) Date of expiry unspecified
(b) Price of the commodity
(c) Batch number of the commodity
(d) Address of the manufacturer
Answer:
(c) Batch number of the commodity

Question 2.
Consumer’s face various problems from the producer’s end due to
(a) Unfair trade practices
(b) Wide range of goods
(c) Standard quality goods
(d) Volume of production
Answer:
(a) Unfair trade practices

Question 3.
Consumers must be provided with adequate information about a product to make
(a) Investment in production
(b) Decision in sale of goods
(c) Credit purchase of goods
(d) Decision in purchase of goods
Answer:
(d) Decision in purchase of goods

Question 4.
The system of consumer courts at the national, state, and district levels, looking into consumers grievances against unfair trade practices of businessmen and providing necessary compensation, is called
(a) Three tier system
(b) One tier system
(c) Two tier system
(d) Four tier system
Answer:
(a) Three tier system

Question 5.
Mixing other extraneous material of inferior quality with a superior quality material is called
(a) Purification
(b) Adulteration
(c) Refinement
(d) Alteration
Answer:
(b) Adulteration

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A set up where two or more parties engage in __________ of goods, service and information is called a market.
2. In regulated Markets, there is some oversight by appropriate __________ authoriries
3.  __________ refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has a control on the entire market.
4.  __________ statue is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta in the field of consumer protection for checking unfair trade practices.

Answer:

1. exchange
2. Government
3. Monopoly
4. COPRA

III. Match the following

The Consumer Protection Act	–	1955
The Legal Metrology Act	–	1986
The Bureau of Indian Standards Act	–	2009
The Essential Commodities Act	–	1986

Answer:

The Consumer Protection Act	–	1986
The Legal Metrology Act	–	2009
The Bureau of Indian Standards Act	–	1986
The Essential Commodities Act	–	1955

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion: In local Markets the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or are
Reason: A market is not restricted to one physical or geographical location.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
What is market?
Answer:
A set up where two or more parties engaged in exchange of goods, services and information is called a market.

Question 2.
Describe consumer protection.
Answer:
Consumer protection is a group of laws enacted to protect the rights of consumers, fair trade, competition and accurate information in the market place.

Question 3.
List out the rights of consumers.
Answer:
The Eight Basic Consumer Rights:

1. The Right to Basic Needs.
2. The Right to Safety.
3. The Right to Information.
4. The Right to Choose.
5. The Right to Representation.
6. The Right to Redress.
7. The Right to Consumer Education.
8. The Right to a Healthy Environment.

Question 4.
Discuss about the role of consumer courts.
Answer:
Consumer courts in India:

1. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): A national level court works for the whole country and deals compensation claimed exceeds rupees one core. The National Commission is the Apex body of Consumer Courts; it is also the highest appellate court in the hierarchy. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
2. State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC): A state level cour works at the state level with cases where compensation claimed is above 20 lakhs but up to one core.
3. District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (DCDRF): A district level court works at the district level with cases where the compensation claimed is up to 20 lakhs.

Question 5.
Write about the types of market and its functions.
Answer:
On the Basis of Geographic Location:

1. Local Markets: In such a market the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or area.
2. Regional Markets: These markets cover a wider are than local markets like a district, or a cluster of few smaller states
3. National Market: This is when the demand for the goods is limited to one specific country. Or the government may not allow the trade of such goods outside national boundaries.
4. International Market: When the demand for the product is international and the goods are also traded internationally in bulk quantities, we call it as an international market.

On the Basis of Time:

1. Very Short Period Market: This is when the supply of the goods is fixed, and so it cannot be changed instantaneously. For example the market for flowers, vegetables. Fruits etc.
2. Short Period Market: The market is slightly longer than the previous one. Here the supply can be slightly adjusted. Example: The demand of fish, milk or egg,
3. Long Period Market: Here the supply can be changed easily by scaling production. So it can change according to the demand of the market.

On the Basis of Nature of Transaction

1. Spot Market: This is where spot transactions occur, that is the money is paid immediately. There is no system of credit.
2. Future Market: This is where the transactions are credit transactions. There is a promise to pay the consideration sometime in the future.

On the Basis of Regulation:

1. Regulated Market: In such a market there is some oversight by appropriate government authorities. For example, the stock market is a highly regulated market.
2. Unregulated Market: This is an absolutely free market. There is no oversight or regulation, the market forces decide everything.

On the basis of Nature of competition:

1. Monopoly:
   Monopoly refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has a control on the entire market. This single seller deals in the products that have no closesubstitutes.
2. Monopolistic Competition:
   Monopolistic competition refers to a market situation in which there are a large number of buyers and sellers of products.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Market and Consumer Protection Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
There are _________ classifications of markets.
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 2.
_________ market is where the transactions are credit transactions.
(a) National
(b) Spot
(c) Future
(d) Monopoly
Answer:
(c) Future

Question 3.
_________ has widened the definition of ‘Consumer’
(a) The Consumer Protection Act 1986
(b) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
(c) District Forum
(d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019
Answer:
(d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019

Question 4.
The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR _________ on a manufacturer or an endorser, for a false or misleading advertisement.
(a) 1,000,000
(b) 1,00,00,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 10,000,000
Answer:
(a) 1,000,000

Question 5.
The NCDRC is headed by _________
(a) Chief justice of the supreme court of India
(b) One of the judges of the high court
(c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. There has to more than one buyer or seller for the market to be _________
2. In a _________ market, the supply can be changed easily by scaling production.
3. In a _________ market, there is no system of credit.
4. The stock market is a highly _________ market.
5. The term monopolistic competition was given by _________

Answer:

1. Competitive
2. Long period
3. spot
4. regulated
5. Prof Edward H. Chamberlin

III. Match the following:

Unfair Trade practices	–	a) Few
Oligoi	–	b) Quasi-judicial commission
E-commerce	–	c) False representation
NCDRC	–	d) Tele shopping

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion (A) : Hoardings goods is an unifair Trade practice.
Reason (R) : It has an intention of raising the cost of these or similar goods.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who are the two parties involved in a transaction?
Answer:
The two parties involved in a transaction are called seller and buyer. The seller sells goods and services to the buyer in exchange of money.

Question 2.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
A Consumer is a person who purchases a product or avails a service for a consideration, either for his personal use or to earn his livelihood by means of self employment.

Question 3.
What is unfair trade practice?
Answer:
An “unfair trade practice” means a trade practice, which, for the purpose of promoting any sale, use or supply of any goods or services, adopts unfair method, or unfair or deceptive practice.

Question 4.
Give few examples of unfair trade practices.
Answer:

1. False representation
2. When goods and services are not of stated standard, quality or grade
3. When second hand, renovated goods are sold as new ones
4. When goods and services do not have the claimed use, usefulness or benefit
5. When products / services do not have the claimed warranty / guarantee
6. When the price of product or service is misleading.
7. False and misleading advertisement of selling at bargain price.

Question 5.
Why are consumer protection controls established?
Answer:
Consumer Protection Councils are established at the national, state and district level to increase consumer awareness.

Question 6.
Write a short note on E-commerce Transaction.
Answer:
The New Act has widened the definition of consumer’. The definition now includes any person who buys any goods, whether through offline or online transactions, electronic means, teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.

Question 7.
How can consumers e-file complaints?
Answer:
The New Act contains enabling provisions for consumers to file complaints electronically and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.

Question 8.
Name the important Acts passed for consumer protection.
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986. (ii) The Legal Metrology Act, 2009.
2. The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986.
3. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
4. The prevention of Black Marketing and maintenance of supplies of essential.
5. Commodities Act, 1980.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the features of a market.
Answer:

1. A market is also not restricted to one physical or geographical location. It covers a general wide area and the demand and supply forces of the region.
2. There must be a group of buyers and sellers of the commodity to constitute a market.
   And the relations between these sellers and buyers must be business relations.
3. Both the sellers and buyers must have access to knowledge about the market. There should be an awareness of the demand for products, consumer choices, and preferences, fashion trends, etc.
4. At any given time only one price can be prevalent in the market for the goods and services. This is only possible in the existence of perfect competition.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Women Empowerment

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Women Empowerment Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of gender inequality?
(a) Poor maternal health
(b) Greater insecurity for men
(c) The spread of HIV/AIDS
(d) Lower literacy rates for women
Answer:
(b) Greater insecurity for men

Question 2.
Gender equality is an issue that is relevant to
(a) Girls and women; its a womens issue
(b) All societies, women and men alike
(c) Third world countries only
(d) Developed Countries only
Answer:
(b) All societies, women and men alike

Question 3.
Which of the following strategies will help women become more socially and economically empowered?
(a) Women working together to challenge discrimination
(b) More income sources for women
(c) Improved access to education
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Why are girls more likely than boys to miss out on secondary education in the developing world?
(a) Because of high school fees, only boys are sent to school
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home
(c) Child Marriage restricts girls mobility and freedom
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Jyotirao Phule is remembered as the champion of womens education in India. He, along with his wife ______ ,opened the first school for girls in 1848.
2. ________ is the first Woman to hold a Union Foreign Minister’s post.
3. ________ is the first Woman Director General of Police (DGP).
4. ________ is the first Indian Woman to win Booker

Answer:

1. Savitribai Phule
2. Sushma Swaraj
3. Kanchan Chaudhary Bhattacharya
4. Arundhati Roy

III. Match the following

Sirimavo Bandaranaike	–	England
Valentina Tereshkova	–	Japan
Junko Tabei	–	Sri Lanka
Charlotte Cooper	–	USSR

Answer:

Sirimavo Bandaranaike	–	Sri Lanka
Valentina Tereshkova	–	USSR
Junko Tabei	–	Japan
Charlotte Cooper	–	England

IV. Consider the following statements:

Question 1.
Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion: Now women are being integrated at all steps of humanitarian operations.
Reason: Women and girls suffer the most from any kind of conflict in the society.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion: Violence against women cuts across caste, class, religion, age and even education. Reason: Domestic violence is manifested in the form of foeticide, infanticide, dowry murder, marital cruelty, battering, child abuse etc.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Discuss about various roles played by woman in Society.
Answer:

1. Importance of womens economic empowerment in society is inevitable.
2. Women’s economic empowerment is central to realising womens rights and gender equality.
3. Empowering women in the economy and bridging gender gaps in the world of work are key to achieving the agenda for Sustainable Development
4. When ‘more women work, economies grow. 4. Increasing women’s and girls’ educational attainment contributes to women’s economic empowerment and more inclusive economic growth.
5. Other than these, women also play the role of caretakers of children and elders at home.
6. Women have the capacity to transform a society for the better.

Question 2.
What is gender equality?
Answer:
Gender equality is the state of equal case of access to resources and opportunities regardless of gender.

Question 3.
Explain woman’s right.
Answer:
Womans rights are the fundamental human rights which include the right to live free from violence, slavery and discrimination, to be educated, to own property, to vote and to earn a fair and equal wage.

Question 4.
List out the essential factors of woman empowerment.
Answer:
The essential factors for empowerment are :

1. Education: Education gives one the ability to think wisely and take thoughtful decisions.
2. Gender Discrimination: A Society which discriminates between the two genders can never be empowered.
3. Discrimination based on caste, creed, religion etc.

Question 5.
Write an essay on importance of woman’s education.
Answer:
Importance of woman’s education:

1. Increased Literacy: Offering all children education will prop up literacy rates, pushing forward development in struggling regions.
2. Human Trafficking: Women are most vulnerable to trafficking when they are undereducated and poor. Through providing young girls with opportunities and fundamental skills, Human Trafficking can be significantly undermined.
3. Political Representation: Across the globe, women are under represented as voters and restricted from political involvement. Civic education, training and all around empowerment will reduce this gap.
4. Thriving Babies: Children of educated mothers are twice as likely to survive past the age of five.
5. Later Marriage: As suggested by the United Nations Population Fund, in underdeveloped countries, one in every three girls is married before reaching the age of 18. In a region where a girl receives seven or more years of education, the wedding date is delayed by four years.
6. Income Potential: According to (UNESCO) a single year of primary education has shown to increase a girl’s wages later in life by 20 percent.
7. Prospering GDP: Gross Domestic Product also rises when both girls and boys are being offered educational opportunities.
8. Poverty Reduction: When women are provided with equal rights and equal access to education, they go on to participate in economic activity. Increased earning power leads to reduction in poverty level.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Women Empowerment Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
First Women’s University _____ starts, SNDT University in Pune with five students.
(a) Vijaya lakshmi pandit
(b)Maharshi Karve
(c) Mother Teresa
(d) Arundhati Roy
Answer:
(b) Maharshi Karve

Question 2.
First Woman Prime Minister of India _____
(a) Fathima Beevi
(b) Kiran Bedi
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Meira Kumar
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi

Question 3.
First woman defence Minister of India _____
(a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
(b) Meira Kumar
(c) Sushma Swaraj
(d) Pratibha Patil
Answer:
(a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman

Question 4.
The women population shared _____ of the total population of the world.
(a) 75%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(d) 50%

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ is the first Woman President of India.
2. ______ is the first Woman President of the UN General Assembly.
3. The First Woman Speaker of LokSabha is ______
4. The First Woman to win Nobel Peace Prize is ______
5. The first indian women to clime Mount Everest _______

Answer:

1. Pratibha Patil
2. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
3. Meira Kumar
4. Mother Teresa
5. Bachendri Pal

III. Match the following:

First Woman Chief Minister of an Indian State	–	a) Kiran Bedi
First Woman IPS Officer of India	–	b) Champion of women’s education
Barrack Obama	–	c) Sucheta Kripalani
Jyotirao Phule	–	d) 2012 UN General Assembly

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

IV. Consider the following statements

Question 1.
Assertion (A): It is everyone’s responsibility to make each woman into an independent and empowered woman.
Reason (R): World peace and prosperity cannot be achieved without empowering each and every woman on this planet.
a) A is true but R is false
b) A is false but R is true
c) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(d) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is feminism?
Answer:
“Feminism is not about making women stronger. Women are already strong. It’s about changing the way the world perceives that strength”.

Question 2.
Define Education.
Answer:
Education is one of the most important means of empowering women with the knowledge, skills and self-confidence necessary to participate fully in the development process.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of educating a girl child?
Answer:

1. Educating the girl child produces mothers who are educated and who will, in turn, educate their children care for their families and provide their children care and support.
2. The girl child needs to be educated to acquire knowledge and skills needed to advance her status for social interactions and self-improvement.

Question 4.
What the factors responsible for poor female literacy rate?
Answer:

1. Gender based inequality.
2. Social discrimination and economic exploitation.
3. Occupation of girl child in domestic chores.
4. Low enrolment of girls in schools.
5. Low retention rate and high dropout rate.

Question 5.
What are the important aspects of woman empowerment?
Personal rights, Social equality, Political power, and Economic opportunity are the important aspects of woman empowerment.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the need for economic empowerment of woman.
Answer:

1. Gender differences in laws affect both developing and developed economies, and women in all regions.
2. Women remain less likely to participate in the labour market than men around the world.
3. Women are more likely to be unemployed than men.
4. Women are over-represented in informal and vulnerable employment.
5. Globally, women are paid less than men.
6. Women bear disproportionate responsibility for unpaid care and domestic work.
7. Women are still less likely to have access to social protection.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Visual Communication

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Visual Communication Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The Keyboard shortcut is used to copy the selected text
(a) Ctrl+c
(b) Ctrl+v
(c) Ctrl+x
(d) Ctrl+A
Answer:
(a) Ctrl+c

Question 2.
The Keyboard shortcut is used to cut the selected text
(a) Ctrl+ c
(b) Ctrl+v
(c) Ctrl+x
(d) Ctrl+A
Answer:
(c) Ctrl+x

Question 3.
How many types of page orientation are there in Libre office Writer?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 4.
If the ruler is not displayed in the screen, ________ option is clicked.
(a) View → ruler
(b) view → task
(c) file → save
(d) edit →paste
Answer:
(a) View → ruler

Question 5.
The menu is used to save the document
(a) File → open
(b) file → print
(c) file → save
(d) file → close
Answer:
(c) file → save

II. Answer the following Questions:

Question 1.
What is the use for Text document software?
Answer:

1. A text file is used to store standard and structured textual data or information that is human readable.
2. It is defined in several different formats, including the most popular ASCII for cross.
3. Platform usage and ANSI for windows – based operating platforms.

Question 2.
What is selecting text?
Answer:
Selecting is the process of highlighting text or picking an object. For example, a user may select text to copy, cut or move that text to an alternate location or select a file they want to view.

Question 3.
How to close a document?
Answer:
Close the current document by selecting File Close command on the menu bar or click the Close icon if it is visible on the Standard toolbar.

Question 4.
What is right alignment?
Answer:
Right alignment is text or page formatting that aligns text along the right side of a page or containing element.

Question 5.
How to open an existing document?
Answer:
To open an existing document, do any one of the following methods:

1. Click the Open File button on the menu bar.
2. Choose File → Open command from the menu bar.
3. Press CTRL+O keys on the keyboard. Each of the above method will show the Open dialog box. Choose the file and click the Open button

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Visual Communication Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
_________ is a powerful and free office suite, used by millions of people.
(a) LibreOffice
(b) Microsoft window
(c) JAVA
(d) HTML
Answer:
(a) LibreOffice

Question 2.
_________ can create and edit forms, views and relations.
(a) Calc
(b) Impress
(c) Base
(d) Math
Answer:
(c) Base

Question 3.
_________ is the LibreOmce formula or equation editor.
(a) Impress
(b) Drawing
(a) Base
(d) Math
Answer:
(d) Math

Question 4.
The menu is used to print the document.
(a) File → open
(b) File → Print
(c) File → save
(d) File → save
Answer:
(b) File → Print

Question 5.
A _________ is a set Of characters and numbers in a certain style.
(a) Font
(b) Bullets
(c) Underline
(d) Paragraph
Answer:
(a) Font

Question 6.
_________ alignment refers to the appearance of the left and right sides of the Paragraph.
(a) Right
(b) Left
(c) Paragraph
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Paragraph

Question 7.
How many types of alignment can be selected in LibreOffice?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(c) four

Question 8.
A _________ orientation means a horizontal display.
(a) Landscape
(b) Portrait
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Landscape

Question 9.
_________ page is shorter in height but wider in width
(a) Landscape
(b) Portrait
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Portrait

II. Answer the following question:

Question 1.
What is drawing?
Answer:
Draw is a vector drawing tool that can produce everything from simple diagrams or flowcharts to 3D artwork.

Question 2.
How can you create a new document?
Answer:
To create a new document, do any one of the following methods

1. Click the New Document button on the menu bar.
2. Choose File → New command from the menu bar.
3. Press CTRL+N keys on the keyboard.

Question 3.
How can you print a document?
Answer:
To print a document or selected pages follow the steps given below:

1. Open the document to be printed.
2. Choose File → Print command on the menu bar.
3. The Print dialog box will open. Select the Options like print range, Number of copies, Printer name etc. See that printer is switched on and the paper is available in the printer tray.
4. Click OK.

Question 4.
What is the difference between cut and copy?
Answer:
The main difference between Cut and Copy is that cut removes the selected data from its original position while copy creates a duplicate of the original content.

Question 5.
What is font?
Answer:
A font is a set of characters and numbers in a certain style. Each font looks different from other fonts.

Question 6.
What is paragraph alignment?
Answer:
Paragraph alignment refers to the appearance of the left and right sides of the paragraph

III. Paragraph Questions:

Question 1.
What are the components of Libre Office?
Answer:
LibreOffice includes the following components.
Text Document:
Writer is a featurerich tool for creating letters, books, reports, newsletters, brochures, and other documents.

Calc (spreadsheet):
Calc has all of the advanced analysis, charting, and decision making features expected from a high-end spreadsheet. It includes over 300 functions for financial, statistical and mathematical operations, among others.

Impress (presentations):
Impress provides all the common multimedia presentation tools, such as special effects, animation, and drawing tools.

Base (database):
Base provides tools for day-to-day database work within a simple interface. It can create and edit forms, reports, queries, tables, views, and relations, so that managing a relational database is much the same as in other popular database applications.

Math (formula editor):
Math is the LibreOffice formula or equation editor. You can use it to create complex equations that include symbols or characters not available in standard font sets.

Question 2.
How can you selecting the text?
Answer:
For selecting text, the mouse or the keyboard can be used.
Selecting Text with Mouse: Following steps are to be followed:

1. Insertion point is moved to the start of the text to be selected.
2. The left mouse button should be clicked, held down and dragged across the text to be selected.
3. When the intended text is selected, the mouse button should be released.

Selecting Text with Keyboard: Following are the steps to be followed:

1. Insertion point is moved to the start of the text to be selected.
2. The Shift key is pressed down and the movement keys are used to highlight the required text.
3. When the Shift key is released, the text is selected.

Question 3.
List the steps of moving the text.
Answer:
The selected text can be easily cut and pasted in the required location. Following steps are to be followed.

1. The text to be moved to a new location is selected.
2. Edit → Cut is selected or in the tool bar is selected to cut the selected text.
3. Insertion point is moved to the place where the text is to be pasted.
4. Edit → Paste is selected or in the tool bar is selected to paste the text in the new location.
5. The text can also be pasted in this way to another or another type of document.
6. The following keyboard shortcuts can be used to move text.
   Ctrl + X → to Cut, Ctrl + V → to Paste

Question 4.
Hew can you change the margins?
Answer:
If the user is not having the exact value for the margins then the Ruler option on the View menu can be used to change the margins.
Following steps are used in this method:

1. If the ruler is not displayed in the screen, View → Ruler option is clicked.
2. The gray area of the ruler indicates the margin’s top area.
3. The mouse pointer is then moved in between the gray and white area of the ruler.
4. When the pointer is in the right spot, it changes into a line with arrows on both sides.
5. The margin guide is dragged to a new location.

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Number System Ex 1.3

Question 1.
Compare the following decimal numbers and find out the smaller number.
(i) 2.08,2.086
(ii) 0.99,1.9
(iii) 3.53,3.35
(iv) 5.05,5.50
(v) 123.5,12.35
Solution:
(i) 2.08, 2.086
Let us take 2.080, 2.086.
Comparing 2.08 and 2.086 the whole number part, tenths place digit and the digit in the hundredths place are equal.
Comparing the digits at thousandths place we get 0 < 6.
Therefore 2.08 < 2.086.
Smallest number is 2.08

(ii) 0.99, 1.9
Comparing 0.99 and 1.9.
First when we compare the digit in the whole number parts we get 0 < 1.
∴ 0.99 < 1.9 Smallest number is 0.99

(iii) 3.53,3.35
Comparing 3.53 and 3.35
Here the whole number parts of the given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place, we get 3 < 5
∴ 3.35 < 3.53
Smallest number is 3.35

(iv) 5.05, 5.50
Comparing 5.05 and 5.50
Here the whole number parts of the given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place, we get 0 < 5.
∴ 5.5 < 5.50
Smallest number is 5.05

(v) 123.5, 12.35
Comparing 123.5 and 12.35.
Comparing the whole number parts, we get 12 < 123
∴ 12.35 < 123.5
Smallest number is 12.35

Question 2.
Arrange the following in ascending order.
(i) 2.35, 2.53, 5.32, 3.52, 3.25
(ii) 123.45, 123.54,125.43, 125.34,125.3
Solution:
(i) 2.35, 2.53, 5.32, 3.52, 3.25
Comparing the whole number parts of all the numbers 5 is the greatest and 5 > 3 > 2.
∴ Greatest number is 5.32
Next 3.52 and 3.25 are equal in their whole number.
So comparing their digits in tenths place, we get 5 > 2
So 3.52 > 3.25
Now comparing 2.35 and 2.53 their whole number parts also equal.
∴ Comparing the digit in tenths place we get
2.53 > 2.35 ……(2)
Ascending order :
2.35 < 2.53 < 3.25 < 3.52 < 5.32

(ii) 123.45, 123.54, 125.43, 125.34, 125.3
Comparing the whole number parts we have 123 is the smallest number and two numbers 123.45 and 123.54 have same whole number part.
So in 123.45 and 123.54 comparing their digits in the tenths place we get 4 < 5
∴ 123.45 < 123.54 …(1)
Now comparing the remaining numbers
125.43, 125.34, 125.3 they all have the same whole number part.
Comparing the numbers in the tenths place we have 3 < 4
∴ 125.43 is the greatest …(2)
Also tenths place value 3 = 3 in 125.34 and 125.3
Again comparing the hundredths place value in 125.34 and 125.3, we get
125.3 < 125.34 …(3)
From (1), (2) and (3) we have,
123.45 < 123.54 < 125.3 < 125.34 < 125.43

Question 3.
Compare the following decimal numbers and find the greater number.
(i) 24.5,20.32
(ii) 6.95,6.59
(iii) 17.3,17.8
(iv) 235.42,235.48
(v) 0.007,0.07
(vi) 4.571,4.578
Solution:
(i) 24.5, 20.32
Comparing the whole number part we get 24 > 20
∴ 24.5 > 20.32
greater number is 24.5

(ii) 6.95,6.59
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place we get 9 > 5.
∴ 6.95 > 6.59
Greater number is 6.95

(iii) 17.3,17.8
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Comparing the digits at tenths place we get 8 > 3.
∴ 17.8 > 17.3
Greater number is 17.8

(iv) 235.42,235.48
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Also the digits at tenths place also equal.
Comparing the digits at the hundredths place we get 8 > 4.
∴ 235.48 > 235.42
Greater number is 235.48

(v) 0.007,0.07
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Also the digits at the tenths place also equal.
∴ Comparing the the digits at the hundredths place we get 7 > 0.
0. 07 > 0.007
greater number is 0.07.

(vi) 4.571,4.578
Here the whole number part of given two numbers are equal.
Also the digits at the tenths place and the hundredths place also equal.
Again comparing the digits in the thousandths place we get 8 > 1.
∴ 4.578 > 4.571
∴ Greater number is 4.578

Question 4.
Arrange the given decimal numbers in descending order.
(i) 17.35, 71.53, 51.73, 73.51,37.51
(ii) 456.73, 546.37, 563.47, 745.63 457.71
Solution:
(i) 17.35,71.53,51.73,73.51,37.51
Comparing the whole number parts of the given numbers we get
73 > 71 > 51 > 37 > 17.
Descending order:
73.51,71.53,51.73,37.51, 17.35

(ii) 456.73, 546.37, 563.47, 745.63 457.71
Comparing the whole number parts of the given numbers from left to right we get
745 > 563 > 546 > 457 > 456
Descending Order: 745.63, 563.47, 546.37, 457.71, 456.73

Objective Question

Question 5.
0.009 is equal to
(i) 0.90
(ii) 0.090
(iii) 0.00900
(iv) 0.900
Answer:
(iii) 0.00900

Question 6.
37.70 [ ] 37.7
(i) =
(ii) <
(iii) >
(iv) ≠
Answer:
(i) =

Question 7.
78.56 [ ] 78.57
(i) <
(ii) >
(iii) =
(iv) ≠
Answer:
(i) <