Category: Class 10

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Impulse is equal to _________.
(a) rate of change of momentum
(b) rate of force and time
(c) change of momentum
(d) rate of change of mass
Answer:
(c) change of momentum

Question 2.
The value of universal gas constant ________.
(a) 3.81 mol^-1 KJ^-1
(b) 8.03 J mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 1.38 mol^-1 KJ^-1
(d) 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(d) 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1

Question 3.
The safe limit of receiving the radiation is about _______.
(a) 1R
(b) 0.1 R
(c)100 R
(d) 10 R
Answer:
(b) 0.1 R

Question 4.
The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is ________.
(a) 16 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 32 g
(d) 17 g
Answer:
(c) 32 g

Question 5.
The basis of modem periodic law is _________.
(a) atomic number
(b) atomic mass
(c) Isotopic mass
(d) number of neutrons
Answer:
(a) atomic number

Question 6.
A solution is a ______ mixture.
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) homogeneous and heterogeneous
(d) non-homogeneous
Answer:
(a) homogeneous

Question 7.
Which is the sequence of correct blood flow _______.
(a) ventricle – atrium – vein – arteries
(b) atrium – ventricle – veins – arteries
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein
(d) ventricles – vein – atrium – arteries
Answer:
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein

Question 8.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in ______.
(a) Diabetes insipidus
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Obesity
(d) AIDS
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 9.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called _______.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 10.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Question 11.
Which is used to build scripts?
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(a) Script area

Question 12.
Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but _______ is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
(a) Atlas 66
(b) Triticale
(c) Protina
(d) Atomita-2-rice
Answer:
(d) Atomita-2-rice

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
Answer:
This is because turning effect to tighten the screws depends upon the perpendicular distance of the applied force from the axis of rotation in power arm. Larger the power arm less is the force required to turn the screws. So spanner is provided with a long handle.

Question 14.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)

Question 15.
What is co-efficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 16.
Define Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
Relative atomic mass of an element is the ratio between the average mass of its isotopes to
l/12th part of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. It is denoted as Ar.

Question 17.
Differentiate aqueous and non-aqueous solution:
Answer:
Aqueous solution:

• Water acts as a solvent
• E.g. Common salt in water

Non -Aqueous solution:

• Any liquid, other than water, acts as a solvent.
• E.g. Sulphur dissolved in carbon disulphide

Question 18.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
Diastema is a gap between the incisors and premolar. It is formed due to the absence of canine. It helps in mastication and chewing of food in herbivorous animals.

Question 19.
What is the role of parathormone?
Answer:
The parathormone regulate calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body. They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.

Question 20.
Identify the parts A, B, C and D?
Answer:

A – Head
B – Acrosome
C – Nucleus
D – Mitochondria

Question 21.
Write any two importance of Ethnobotany.
Answer:

1. It provides traditional uses of plant.
2. It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.

Question 22.
The focal length of the concave lens is 7 m. Calculate the power of lens.
Answer:
Given f = -7 m
Power of lens = \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{-7}\) =
= -0.14 dioptre or -0.14 D

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Write the applications of universal law of gravitation.
Answer:

• Dimensions of the heavenly bodies can be measured using the gravitation law. Mass of the Earth, radius of the Earth, acceleration due to gravity, etc. can be calculated with a higher accuracy. .
• Helps in discovering new stars and planets.
• One of the irregularities in the motion of stars is called ‘Wobble’ that lead to the disturbance in the motion of a planet nearby. In this condition the mass of the star can be calculated using the law of gravitation.
• Helps to explain germination of roots is due to the property of geotropism, which is the property of a root responding to the gravity.
• Helps to predict the path of the astronomical bodies.

Question 24.
(i) Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

Convex lens	Concave lens
The lens which is thicker at the centre than at the edges..	The lens which is thinner at the centre than at the edges
A beam of light passing through it is converged to a point.	A beam of light passing through it, is diverged or spreadout.
It is called as converging lens.	It is called as diverging lens.

(ii) Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as‘dispersion of light’.

Question 25.
(i) Three resistors of resistance 5 ohm, 3 ohm and 2 ohm are connected in series with 10 V battery. Calculate their effective resistance and the current flowing through the circuit.
Answer:
R₁ = 5 Ω, R₂ = 3 Ω, R₃ = 2 Ω, V = 10 V
R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 5 + 3 + 2= 10 Ω
Hence Rs = 10 Ω
The current, I = \(\frac{V}{R_{s}}=\frac{10}{10}\) = IA

(ii) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
Answer:
An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Because:

• It has high resistivity
• It has a high melting point
• It is not easily oxidized.

Question 26.
State and explain the applications of Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law : Equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain an equal number of molecules.
Applications of Avogadro’s law:

• It is used to determine the atomicity of gases.
• It is helpful in determining the molecular formula of gaseous compounds.
• It establishes the relationship between the vapour density and molecular mass of a gas.
• It gives the value of molar volume of gases at STP.
  Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 litres.
• It explains Gay lussac’s law effectively.

Question 27.
Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
There are two major classes of double displacement reactions. They are,
(i) Precipitation Reactions:
When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s) ↓+ 2KNO_3(aq)

(ii) Neutralisation Reactions:
Another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralisation reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_1(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Question 28.
(i) Explain the structure of an atom bomb.
Answer:
Principle:

• Uncontrolled chain reaction
• Release large amount of energy in short time

Structure:

• Fissile material whose mass is sub – critical.
• Cylindrical fissile material is fit into void.
• Cylinder is injected into the void, using conventional explosive
• Two pieces together to form super – critical mass, leads to explosion.
• Tremendous amount of energy is released in the form of heat, light and radiation.
• γ radiation, affects the living creatures
• This type of atom bombs were exploded at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during Second World War.

(ii) Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10^-4 molar solution of HNO3.
Answer:
[H⁺] = 1.0 × 10^-4 m, pH = ?
pH = – log₁₀ [H⁺]
= – log₁₀ 1 × 10^-4
[M⁺] = – log₁₀ ¹– log₁₀ 10^-4
= 0 – (-4) log₁₀ ¹⁰   ∴ log₁₀ ¹⁰ = 1
= 4 × 1
pH =4

Question 29.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
Answer:

A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It consists of Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.

(a) Cyton: Cyton has a central nucleus with the abundant – cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissel’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum.

(b) Dendrites: These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes, that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses, towards the cyton.

(c) Axon: The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection. The end of axon terminates as fine branches, which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob. The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton.

The axon may be covered by a protein sheath called myelin sheath, which is further covered by a layer of Schwann cells called Neurilemma. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals, by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called as internode.

Question 30.
(i) What are the various routes by which transmission of human immuno deficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
AIDS is not transmitted by touch or any physical contact. HIV is generally transmitted by

• Sexual contact with infected person.
• Use of contaminated or infected blood or blood products, needles or syringes.
• By the use of contaminated needles or syringes.
• From infected mother to her child through placenta.

(ii) Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

• High yielding
• Semi-dwarf
• Fertilizer responsive

Question 31.
(i) Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of her family history. Is the statement given by her family members true. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the statement is not true. Sex determination is a chance of probability as to which category of sperm fuses with egg.
If the egg [X] is fused by the X-bearing sperm, an XX individual (female) is produced.

If the egg [X] is fused by the Y-bearing sperm an XY individual (male) is produced.

The sperm, produced by the father, determines the sex of the child. The mother is not responsible in determining the sex of the child.

(ii) Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
Answer:
The Rh factor was discovered by Landsteiner and Wiener in 1940 in Rhesus monkey. Hence the name Rh factor.

Question 32.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy?
Answer:
Stages of cellular respiration
(i) Glycolysis: It takes place in cytoplasm of the cell. It is the break down of one molecule of Glucose (6 Carbon) into two molecules of Pyruvic acid (3 Carbon).

(ii) Kreb’s cycle: This occurs in mitochondria matrix. During this cycle, oxidation of pyruvic acid result into CO₂ and water.

(iii) Electron transport chain(ETC):
ETC is located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.

(a) NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during Glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle are oxidised to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ to release the energy via electrons.

(b) The electrons, as they move through the system, release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesize ATP. This is called Oxidative Phosphorylation. During this process, oxygen which is the acceptor of electrons get reduced to water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. They always act on two different bodies’.

(ii) Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:
“The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force”.
Let, ‘m’ be the mass of a moving body, moving along a straight line with an initial speed ‘u’. After a time interval of ‘t’ the velocity of the body changes to ‘v’ due to the impact of an unbalanced external force F.

Initial momentum of the body P_i = mu
Final momentum of the body P_f = mv
Change in momentum Δp = P_f – P_i
= mv – mu

By Newton’s second law of motion,
Force, F ∝ rate of change of momentum
F ∝ change in momentum / time
F ∝ \(\frac{m v-m u}{t}\)
F = \(\frac{k m(v-u)}{t}\)

Here, k is the proportionality constant, k = 1 in all systems of units. Hence,
F = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}\)
Since, acceleration = change in velocity / time, a = (v – u)/t. Hence, we have
F = m × a
Force = mass × acceleration

• No external force is required to maintain the motion of a body moving with uniform velocity.
• When the net force acting on a body is not equal to zero, then definitely the velocity of the body will change.
• Thus, change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force. The change may take place either in magnitude or in direction or in both.

[OR]

(b) A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Specific resistance (ρ) = \(\frac{\mathrm{RA}}{l}\)
R = \(\frac{\rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
When the length is increased by three and then the area of cross section is reduced by three
Resistance of wire R = 10 Ω
New resistance R’ = \(\frac{\rho(3 l)}{(A / 3)}\)
= ρ (3l) x \(\frac{3}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = \(\frac{9 \rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = 9 x R = 9 x 10
R’ = 90 Ω

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the mass of the 0.023 x 10²⁰ molecules of H₂O.
Answer:
Molecular mass of H₂O = H × 2 + 0 × 1
= 1 × 2 + 16 × 1
= 2 + 16 = 18

= 10 × 18
Mass of an atom = 0.018 g

(ii) Calculate the moles of 12 g of magnesium.
Answer:
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Given mass }}{\text { molecular mass }}\)
= \(\frac{12}{24}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5
∴ 12 g magnesium makes 0.5 moles.

(iii) Calculate the number of molecules present in 50 g of Fe.
Answer:

= 5.387 × 1023
∴ 50 g Fe contain 5.387 × 10²³ atoms/molecules

[OR]

(b) Explain smelting process..
Answer:
Smelting: The charge consisting of roasted ore, coke and limestone in the ratio 8 : 4 : 1 is smelted in a blast furnace by introducing it through the cup and cone arrangement at the top.
There are three important regions in the furnace.

(a) The Lower Region (Combustion Zone): The temperature is at 1500°C. In this region, coke bums
with oxygen to form CO₂ when the charge comes in contact with a hot blast of air.

It is an exothermic reaction since heat is liberated.

(b) The middle region (Fusion Zone): The temparature prevails at 1000° C. In this region, CO₂ is reduced to CO.

Limestone decomposes to calcium oxide and CO₂

These two reactions are endothermic due to absorption of heat. Calcium oxide combines with silica to form calcium silicate slag.
CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

(c) The Upper Region (Reduction Zone): The temperature prevails at 400°C . In this region carbon monoxide reduces ferric oxide to form a fairly pure spongy iron.

The molten iron is collected at the bottom of the furnace after removing the slag.
The iron thus formed is called pig iron. It is remelted and cast into different moulds. This iron is called cast iron.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Write any two physiological effects of ethylene.
Answer:
Physiological effects of ethylene:

• It promotes the ripening of fruits. E.g., Tomato, Apple, Mango, Banana, etc.
• It breaks the dormancy of buds,seeds and storage organs.

(ii) What is Autogamy?
Answer:
Autogamy or self pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of same flower or another flower borne on the same plant. Eg. Hibiscus.

(iii) How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
Prevention of soil erosion:

• Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
• Cattle grazing should be controlled.
• Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
• Run off water should be stored in the catchment.
• Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
• Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in the form of a shelter belt.

[OR]

(b) (i) How do you differentiate Homologous organs from Analogous organs.
Answer:

Homologous organs	Analogous organs
1. Homologous organs are those inherited from common ancestors, with similar developmental pattern in embryos.	1. The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and development pattern.
2. A human hand, a front leg of cat, flipper of a whale and a bat’s, wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions.	2. The function of the wings of a bat, the wings of a bird and wings of an insect are similar, but their basic structures are different.

(ii) Why are the rings of cartilage found in trachea of rabbit?
Answer:
The tracheal walls of rabbit are supported by rings of cartilage which help in the free passage of air.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
A = {a, b, p}, B = {2, 3}, C = {p, q, r, 5} then n[(A ∪ C) × B] is ……………. .
(1) 8
(2) 20
(3) 12
(4) 16
Answer:
(3) 12

Question 2.
If a, b, c are in G.P., then \(\frac{a-b}{b-c}\) is equal to ……………. .
(1) \(\frac{a}{b}\)
(2) \(\frac{b}{a}\)
(3) \(\frac{a}{c}\)
(4) \(\frac{c}{b}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{a}{b}\)

Question 3.
If k + 2, 4k – 6, 3k – 2 are the 3 consecutive terms of an A.P, then the value of k is ……………. .
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Answer:
(2) 3

Question 4.
If (x – 6) is the HCF of x² – 2x – 24 and x² – kx – 6 then the value of k is ……………. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8
Answer:
(2) 5

Question 5.
If A is a 2 × 3 matrix and B is a 3 × 4 matrix, how many columns does AB have ……………. .
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5
Answer:
(2) 4

Question 6.
In a ∆ABC, AD is the bisector of ∠BAC. If AB = 8 cm, BD = 6 cm and DC = 3 cm. The length of the side AC is ……………. .
(1) 6 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 8 cm
Answer:
(2) 4 cm

Question 7.
(2, 1) is the point of intersection of two lines.
(1) x – y – 3 = 0; 3x – y – 7 = 0
(2) x + y = 3; 3x + y = 7
(3) 3x + y = 3; x + y = 7
(4) x + 3y – 3 = 0; x – y – 1 = 0
Answer:
(2) x + y = 3; 3x + y = 7

Question 8.
If the ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow is √3 : 1 , then the angle of elevation of the sun has measure ……………. .
(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°
Answer:
(4) 60°

Question 9.
A spherical ball of radius r₁ units is melted to make 8 new identical balls each of radius r₂ units. Then r₁ : r₂ is ……………. .
(1) 2:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 4:1
(4) 1:4
Answer:
(1) 2:1

Question 10.
The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is ……………. .
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Answer:
(4) 225

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at units place of the page number chosen is less than 7 is ……………. .
(1) \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\)
(2) \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\)
(3) \(\frac { 3 }{ 9 }\)
(4) \(\frac { 7 }{ 9 }\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\)

Question 12.
The range of the relation R = {(x, x³)/x} is a prime number less than 13} is ……………. .
(1) {2,3,5,7,11}
(2) {4,9,25,49, 121}
(3) {8, 27,125, 343,1331}
(4) {1, 8, 27, 125, 343, 1331}
Answer:
(3) {8, 27,125, 343,1331}

Question 13.
If 1 + 2 + 3 + …. + n = k then 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… n³ is equal to ……………. .
(1) K²
(2) K³
(3) \(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\)
(4) (k + 1)K³
Answer:
(1) K²

Question 14.
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a doublet is ……………. .
(1) \(\frac { 1 }{ 36 }\)
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)
(4) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
ARelation R is given by the set {{x,y)/y = x + 3, x ∈ {0,1,2,3,4,5}}. Determine its domain and range.
Answer:
x = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and y = x + 3
when x = 0 ⇒ y = 0 + 3 = 3
when x = 1 ⇒ y = 1 + 3 = 4 .
when x = 2 ⇒ y = 2 + 3 = 5
when x = 3 ⇒ y = 3 + 3 = 6
whenx = 4 ⇒ y = 4 + 3 = 7
when x = 5 ⇒ y = 5 + 3 = 8
R = {(0, 3) (1, 4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8)}
Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

Question 16.
Let f = {(-1,3), (0, -1), (2, – 9)} be a linear function from Z to Z. Find f(x).
Answer:
The linear equation is f(x) = ax + b
f(-1) = 3
a(-1) + b = 3
-a + b = 3 ….(1)
f(0) = -1
a(0) + b = -1
0 + b = -1
b = -1
Substitute the value of b = -1 in (1)
– a – 1 = 3
– a = 3 + 1 ⇒ – a = 4
a = -4
∴ The linear equation is -4(x) -1 = -4x – 1 (or) – (4x + 1)

Question 17.
Solve 8x = 1 (mod 11)
Answer:
8x ≡ 1 (mod 11) can be written as 8x – 1 = 11k, for some integer k.
x = \(\frac{11 k+1}{8}\)
When we put k = 5, 13, 21, 29,… . then 11 k + 1 is divisible by 8.
x = \(\frac{11 \times 5+1}{8}\) = 7
x = \(\frac{11 \times 13+1}{8}\) = 18
Therefore, the solutions are 7,18,29,40, …….

Question 18.
How many terms of the series 1³ + 2³ + 3³ +………..  should be taken to get the sum 14400?
Answer:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . + n³ = 14400
\(\left[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\) = 14400
\(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\) = √14400
\(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\) = 120 ⇒ n² + n = 240
n² + n – 240 =0

(n + 16) (n – 15) =0
(n + 16) = 0 or (n – 15) = 0
n = -16 or n = 15 (Negative will be omitted)
∴ The number of terms taken is 15

Question 19.
Given the L.C.M and G.C.D of the two polynomials are a³ – 10a² + 11a + 70 and a – 7, the polynomial p(x) is a² – 12a + 35 then find q(x).
Answer:

L.C.M. = a³ – 10a² + 11a + 70
= (a – 7) (a² – 3a – 10)

= (a – 7) (a – 5) (a + 2)
G.C.D. = (a – 7)

p(x) = a² – 12a + 35
= (a – 5) (a – 7)
q(x) = \(\frac{\mathrm{LCM} \times \mathrm{GCD}}{p(x)}\)
= \(\frac{(a-7)(a-5)(a+2) \times(a-7)}{(a-5)(a-7)}\)
q(x) = (a + 2) (a – 7)

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
= \(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² – 2ab – 2bc + 2ca]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
Construct a 3 × 3 matrix whose elements are a_ij = i² j²
Answer:
The general 3 × 3 matrix is given by A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} { a }_{ 11 } & { a }_{ 12 } & { a }_{ 13 } \\ { a }_{ 21 } & { a }_{ 22 } & { a }_{ 23 } \\ { a }_{ 31 } & { a }_{ 32 } & { a }_{ 33 } \end{matrix} \right]\) a_ij = i² j²

a₁₁ = 1² × 1² = 1 × 1 = 1;
a₁₂ = 1² × 2² = 1 × 4 = 4;
a₁₃ = 1² × 3² = 1 × 9 = 9;

a₂₁ = 2² × 1² = 4 × 1 = 4;
a₂₂ = 2² × 2² = 4 × 4 = 16;
a₂₃ = 2² × 3² = 4 × 9 = 36;

a₃₁ = 3² × 1² = 9 × 1 = 1;
a₃₂ = 3² × 2² = 9 × 4 = 36;
a₃₃ = 3² × 3² = 9 × 9 = 81;
Hence the required matrix is A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 4 & 9 \\ 4 & 16 & 36 \\ 9 & 36 & 81 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 22.
An artist has created a triangular stained glass window and has one strip of small length left before completing the window. She needs to figure out the length of left out portion based on the lengths of the other sides as shown in the figure.
Answer:
Given that AE = 3 cm, EC = 4 cm, CD = 10 cm, DB = 3 cm, AF = 5 cm.
Let FB be x
Using Ceva’s theorem we have

\(\frac{A E}{E C} \times \frac{C D}{D B} \times \frac{B F}{A F}=1\)
\(\frac{3}{4} \times \frac{10}{3} \times \frac{x}{5}=1\) \(\Rightarrow \frac{2 x}{4}=1\)
2x = 4 ⇒ x = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
The value of BF = 2

Question 23.
Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-3, 5), (5, 6) and (5, -2)
Answer:
Plot the points in a rough diagram and take them in counter-clockwise order. Let the vertices be A(-3,5), B(5,-2), C(5,6)
The area of ∆ABC is

= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) {(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁ y₃)}
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) {(6 + 30 + 25) – (25 – 10 – 18)}
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) {(61 + 3)}
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) (64) = 32 sq. units

Question 24.
From the top of a rock 50 √3 m high, the angle of depression of a car on the ground is observed to be 30°. Find the distance of the car from the rock.
Answer:

Let the distance of the car from the rock is “x” m
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{B C}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{50 \sqrt{3}}{x}\)
X = 50 √3 × √3 = 50 × 3
= 150 m
∴ Distance of the car from the rock =150 m

Question 25.
If n = 5, x̄ = 6, Σx² = 765, then calculate the coefficient of variation.
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\Sigma x^{2}}{n}-\left(\frac{\Sigma x}{n}\right)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{765}{5}-(6)^{2}}=\sqrt{153-36}=\sqrt{117}\)
σ = 10.816
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{10.816}{6} \times 100 \%\) = 180.266%
Coefficient of variation = 180. 27%

Question 26.
The roots of the equation x² + 6x – 4 = 0 are α, β. Find the quadratic equation whose roots are \(\frac{2}{\alpha}\) and \(\frac{2}{\beta}\).
Answer:
α and β are the roots of x² + 6x – 4 = 0
α + β = -6 ; αβ = -4
Sum of the roots = \(\frac{2}{\alpha}+\frac{2}{\beta}\)
\(\frac{2 \beta+2 \alpha}{\alpha \beta}=\frac{2(\alpha+\beta)}{\alpha \beta}=\frac{2(-6)}{-4}\)
= 3
Product of the roots = \(\frac{2}{\alpha} \times \frac{2}{\beta}=\frac{4}{\alpha \beta}\)
= \(\frac{4}{-4}=-1\)
The quadratic equation is x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
∴ x² – 3x – 1 = 0 .

Question 27.
If the points A(2, 5), B(4, 6) and C(8, a) are collinear, find the value of “a” using slope concept.
Answer:
Since the three points are collinear
Slope of line = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
Slope of AB = Slope of BC
\(\frac{6-5}{4-2}=\frac{a-6}{8-4}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}=\frac{a-6}{4}\)
2a – 12 = 4 ⇒ 2a = 16
a = \(\frac{16}{2}\) = 8
The value of a = 8

Question 28.
The king, Queen and Jack of clubs are removed from a deck of 52 playing cards and the remaining cards are shuffled. A card is drawn from the remaining cards, find the probability of getting (i) a card of clubs (ii) a queen of diamond
Answer:
Sample space (S) = (52 – 3) = 49
n (S) = 49
(i) Let A be the event of getting a card of clubs.
n(A) = (13 – 3) = 10
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{10}{49}\)
(ii) Let B be the event of getting a queen of diamond
n (B) = 1
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{49}\)

PART-III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Find x if gff (x) = fgg (x), given f(x) = 3x + 1 and g(x) = x + 3.
Answer:
gff(x) = g [f {f{x)}} (This means “g of f of f of x”)
= g[f(3x + 1)] = g[3(3x + 1) + 1] = g(9x + 4)
g (9x + 4) = [ (9x + 4) + 3] = 9x + 7
fgg (x) = f[g{g (x)}] (This means “f of g of g of x”)
= f[g(x + 3)] = f[(x + 3) + 3] = f(x + 6)
f(x + 6) = [3(x + 6) + 1] = 3x + 19
These two quantities being equal, we get 9x + 7 = 3x + 19. Solving this equation we obtain x = 2.

Question 30.
Let A = {-l,l}and B = {0,2}. If the function f : A → B defined by f(x) = ax + b is an onto function? Find a and b.
Answer:
A = {-1, 1}; B = {0,2}
f(x) = ax + b
0 = -a + b
a – b = 0 …….. (1)
f(1) = a(1) + b
2 = a + b
a + b = 2 ………. (2)
Solving (1) and (2) we get

Substitute a = 1 in (1)
1 – b = 0 ⇒ -b = -1 ⇒ 6 = 1
The value of a = 1 and b = 1

Question 31.
Priya earned ₹15,000 in the first month. Thereafter her salary increases by ₹1500 per year. Her expenses are ₹13,000 during the first year and the expenses increases by ₹900 per year. How long will it take her to save ₹20,000 per month.
Answer:

Monthly savings form an A.P.
2000, 2600, 3200 ….
a = 2000 ; d = 2600 – 2000 = 600
Given t_n = 20,000
t_n = a + (n – 1) d
20000 = 2000 + (n – 1) 600
20000 = 2000 + 600n – 600
= 1400 + 600n
20000 – 1400 = 600n
1860o = 600n
n = \(\frac{18600}{600}\) = 31
He will take 31 years to save ₹20,000 per month

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ……… to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Find the GCD of 6x³ – 30x² + 60x – 48 and 3x³ – 12x² + 21x – 18.
Answer:
Let, f(x) = 6x³ – 30x² + 60x – 48 = 6(x³ – 5x² + 10x – 8) and
g(x) = 3x³ – 12x² + 21x – 18 = 3(x³ – 4x² + 7x – 6)
Now, we shall find the GCD of x³ – 5x² + 10x – 8 and x³ – 4x² + 7x – 6

Here, we get zero as remainder.
GCD of leading coeffients 3 and 6 is 3
Thus GCD
[(6x³ – 30x² + 60x – 48, 3x³ – 12x² + 21x – 18)] = 3(x – 2)

Question 34.
If the roots of the equation (c² – ab)x² – 2(a² – bc)x + b² – ac = 0 are real and equal prove that either a = 0 (or) a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc
Answer:
(c² – ab)x² – 2(a² – bc)x + b² – ac = 0
Here a = c² – ab ; b = -2 (a² – bc) ; c = b² – ac
Since the roots are real and equal
Δ = b² – 4ac
[-2 (a² – bc)]² – 4(c² – ab) (b² – ac) = 0
4(a² – bc)² – 4[c ²b² – ac³ – ab³+ a²bc] = 0
Divided by 4 we get
(a² – bc)² [c²b² – ac³ – ab² + a²bc] = 0
a⁴ + b²c² – 2a²bc – c²b² + ac³ + ab³ – a²bc = 0
a⁴ + ab³ + ac³ – 3a²bc = 0
a(a³ +b³ + c³) = 3a²bc
a³ + b³ + c³ = \(\frac{3 a^{2} b c}{a}\)
a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc
Hence it is proved

Question 35.
ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB = AD, the bisector of ∠BAC and ∠CAD intersect the sides BC and CD at the points E and F respectively. Prove that EF || BD.
Answer:

ABCD is a quadrilateral. AB = AD.
AE and AF are the internal bisector of ∠BAC and ∠DAC.
To prove: EF || BD.
Construction: Join EF and BD
Proof: In ∆ ABC, AE is the internal bisector of ∠BAC.
By Angle bisector theorem, we have,
∴ \(\frac{A B}{A C}=\frac{B E}{E C}\) …….. (1)
In ∆ ADC, AF is the internal bisector of ∠DAC
By Angle bisector theorem, we have,
\(\frac{A D}{A C}=\frac{D F}{F C}\)
∴ \(\frac{A B}{A C}=\frac{D F}{F C}\) (AB = AD given) …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get
\(\frac{B E}{E C}=\frac{D F}{F C}\)
Hence In ∆ BCD,
BD || EF (By converse of BPT)

Question 36.
Find the equation of a straight line passing through (1,-4) and has intercepts which are in the ratio 2:5
Answer:
Let the x-intercept be 2a and the y intercept 5a .
The equation of a line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{a}=1 \Rightarrow \frac{x}{2 a}+\frac{y}{5 a}=1\)
The line passes through the point (1, -A)
\(\frac{1}{2 a}+\frac{(-4)}{5 a}=1 \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2 a}-\frac{4}{5 a}=1\)
Multiply by 10a
(L.C.M of 2a and 5a is 10a)
5 – 8 = 10a ⇒ -3 = 10a .
a = \(\frac{-3}{10}\)
The equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{2(-3 / 10)}+\frac{y}{5(-3 / 10)}=1\)
\(\frac{x}{-3 / 5}+\frac{y}{-3 / 2}=1 \Rightarrow \frac{5 x}{-3}+\frac{2 y}{-3}=1\)
\(\frac{-5 x}{3}-\frac{2 y}{3}=1\)
Multiply by 3
-5x – 2y = 3 ⇒ -5x – 2y – 3 = 0
5x + 2y + 3 = 0
The equation of a line is 5x + 2y + 3 = 0

Question 37.
If \(\frac{\cos \theta}{1+\sin \theta}=\frac{1}{a}\), then prove that \(\frac{a^{2}-1}{a^{2}+1}\) = sin θ
Answer:

Question 38.
A toy is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a hemisphere. The height of the toy is 25 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy if its common diameter is 12 cm.
Answer:

Let r and h be the radius and height of the cylinder respectively.
Given that, diameter d = 12 cm, radius r = 6 cm
Total height of the toy is 25 cm
Therefore, height of the cylindrical portion = 25 – 6 = 19 cm
T.S.A. of the toy = C.S.A. of the cylinder + C.S.A. of the hemisphere + Base Area of the cylinder
= 2πrh + 2πr² + πr²
= πr(2h + 3r) sq.unis
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 6(38 + 18)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 6 × 56 = 1056
Therefore, T.S.A. of the toy is 1056 cm²

Question 39.
A coin is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting exactly two heads or atleast one tail or two consecutive heads.
Answer:
Sample space = {HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT}
n (S) = 8
Let A be the event of getting exactly two heads.
A = {HHT, HTH, THH}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{8}\)
Let B be the event of getting atleast one tail
B = {HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT}
n(B) = 7
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{7}{8}\)
Let C be the event of getting consecutively
C = {HHH, HHT, THH}
n(C) = 3
P(C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{8}\)
A ∩ B = { HHT, HTH, THH}
n(A ∩ B) = 3
p(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{8}\)
B ∩ C = {HHT, THH}
n(B ∩ C) = 2
p(B ∩ C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B} \cap \mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{2}{8}\)
A ∩ C = {HHT, THH}
n(A ∩ C) = 2
P(A ∩ C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{2}{8}\)
(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 2
P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B} \cap \mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{2}{8}\)
P(A∪B∪C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) -P(A ∩ B) – p(B ∩ C) – P(A ∩ C) + P(A∩B∩C)
\(=\frac{3}{8}+\frac{7}{8}+\frac{3}{8}-\frac{3}{8}-\frac{2}{8}-\frac{2}{8}+\frac{2}{8}\)
\(=\frac{3}{8}+\frac{7}{8}-\frac{2}{8}\)
\(=\frac{10-2}{8}=\frac{8}{8}\) = 1
The probability is 1

Question 40.
The following table show the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in mathematics calculate the standard deviation.
Answer:

Ans.
Let us form the following table using given data

Question 41.
A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4m, and slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the area of the canvas used for making the tent. Also find the cost of canvas of the tent at the rate of ₹500 per m².
Answer:

For conical portion
Radius (r) = 2m
Slant height (l) = 2.8 m
For cylindrical portion
Radius (R) = 2m
Height (H) = 2.1 m
Area of canvas used for the tent = Curved surface area of a cone + curved area of the cylinder
= πrl + 2πRH
= π(2 × 2.8 + 2 × 2 × 2.1)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) (5.6+ 8.4)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 14 sq.m
= 44 sq. m
Cost of the canvas at the rate of ₹500 per m² = ₹ 500 × 44
= ₹ 22000

Question 42.
Seven years ago Ramkumar’s age was five time the square of Daniel’s age. Three years hence Daniel age will be two fifth of Ramkumar’s age. Find their present ages.
Answer:
Seven years ago, let Daniel’s age be x years
Seven years ago, Ramkumar age was 5x² years
Daniel’s present age = (x + 7) year
Ramkumar’s present age = 5x² + 7 years
Three years hence
Daniel’s age = (x + 7 + 3) year = (x + 10) years
Ramkumar’s age = (5x² + 7 + 3) year = (5x² + 10) years
By the given condition
x + 10 = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) (5x² +10)
5x + 50 = 10x² + 20
10x² – 5x – 30 = 0
2x² – x – 6 = 0
2x² – 4x + 3x – 6 = 0
2x (x – 2) + 3(x – 2) = 0
(x – 2) (2x + 3) = 0
x – 2 = 0 or 2x + 3 = 0
x = 2 or x = \(\frac { -3 }{ 2 }\)
∴ x = 2 (age will not be negative)
Hence Daniel age = 9 years (2 + 7)
Ramkumar’s age = 27 years [5(2)² + 7]

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a ∆PQR in which PQ = 8 cm, ∠R = 60° and the median RG from R to PQ is 5.8 cm. Find the length of the altitude from R to PQ.
Answer:


Step 1 : Draw a line segment PQ = 8 cm.
Step 2 : At P, draw PE such that ∠QPE = 60°.
Step 3 : At P, draw PF such that ∠EPF = 90°.
Step 4 : Draw the perpendicular bisector to PQ, which intersects PF at O and PQ at G.
Step 5 : With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
Step 6 : From G mark arcs of radius 5.8 cm on the circle. Mark them as R and S.
Step 7 : Join PR and RQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
Step 8 : From R draw a line RN perpendicular to LQ.
LQ meets RN at M
Step 9: The length of the altitude is RM = 3.5 cm.

[OR]

(b) Draw the two tangents from a point which is 5 cm away from the centre of a circle of diameter 6 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Answer:
Radius = 3cm, Distance = 5 cm.


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 3 cm.
2. Draw a line OP = 5 cm.
3. Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MO as radius draw a circle which cuts previous circles at A and B.
5. Join AP and BP, AP and BP are the required tangents.
   The length of the tangent PA = PB = 4 cm

Verification: In the right angle triangle OAP
PA² = OP² – OA²
= 5² – 3² .
= 25 – 9 = 16
PA = √l6 = 4 cm
Length of the tangent = 4 cm

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = (x – 1) (x + 3) and hence solve x² – x – 6 = 0
Answer:
y = (x – 1) (x + 3)
y = x² + 2x – 3
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 2x – 3 by preparing the table of values given below.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 5), (-3, 0), (-2, -3), (-1, -4), (0, -3), (1, 0), (2, 5), (3, 12) and (4, 21) on the graph sheet using suitable scale.
(iii) To solve x² – x – 6 = 0 subtract x² – x – 6 = 0 from y = x² + 2x – 3

(iv) Draw the graph of y = 3x + 3 by preparing the table.

(v) The straight line cuts the curve at (-2, -3) and (3, 12). Draw perpendicular lines from the point to X – axis.
The line cut the X – axis at -2 and 3.
The solution set is (-2, 3)

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² +x and hence solve x² + 1=0
Answer:
Let y = x² + x
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + x by preparing the table.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 12), (-3, 6), (-2, 2), (-1, 0), (0, 0), (1, 2), (2, 6), (3, 12) and (4, 20).
(iii) Join the points by a free hand to get smooth curve.
(iv) To solve x² + 1 = 0, subtract x² + 1 = 0 from x² + x we get.

The equation represent a straight line. Draw a line y = x – 1

Observe the graph of y = x² + 1 does not interset the parabola y = x² + x This x² + 1 has no real roots.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 4

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The young seagull was alone on his ledge.
(a) sill
(b) window
(c) nest
(d) lift
Answer:
(a) sill

Question 2.
‘Burglars!’ she shouted, intuitively.
(a) intentionally
(b) thoughtfully
(c) knowingly
(d) instinctively
Answer:
(d) instinctively

Question 3.
When we realise our mistakes, we should try to rectify them.
(a) read
(b) recover
(c) recognize
(d) electrically
Answer:
(d) electrically

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
The real power of women though realised earlier, is currently being projected to the world.
(a) presently
(b) formerly
(c) carefully
(d) electrically
Answer:
(b) formerly

Question 5.
Technology helps one to live in comfort.
(a) comfy
(b) discomfort
(c) misuse
(d) easiness
Answer:
(b) discomfort

Question 6.
This lesson is set in the days of France-Prussian war.
(a) avarice
(b) battle
(c) combat
(d) peace
Answer:
(d) peace

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of “moose“.
(a) mooses
(b) moose
(c) mooses’s
(d) moosies
Answer:
(b) moose

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – sad.
(a) ly
(b) ness
(c) fill
(d) ment
Answer:
(a) ly

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation IREP is ……………
(a) The Integrated Rural Energy Programmer
(b) The Integral Railway Energy Programme
(c) The Integrated Rural Energy Programme
(d) The Integral Rural Exercise President
Answer:
(c) The Integrated Rural Energy Programme

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
Do not ……….. to temptation.
(a) give in
(b) give out
(c) give up
(d) give into
Answer:
(a) give in

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word “mouth” to form a compound word.
(a) dry
(b) wash
(c) clean
(d) brush
Answer:
(b) wash

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The people stood ……………… the road to watch the procession go by.
(a) across
(b) along
(c) on
(d) into
Answer:
(b) along

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Her teacher ………….. her the reason for her restlessness.
(a) asked
(b) will ask
(c) asking
(d) had asked
Answer:
(a) asked

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He completely forgot …………. he had not always been a sprightly child.
(a) that
(b) when
(c) though
(d) and
Answer:
(a) that

PART – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did the seagull fail to fly?
Answer:
The young seagull hesitated and feared to fly. He thought that his wings would not support him. Hence the sea gull failed to fly.

Question 16.
Who was Mrs. Hudson? Why was she worried?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson was the landlady of Mr. Holmes. She was worried because Holmes was ill and had not taken food or drink for three days continuously.

Question 17.
Who is Tara-Tarini? After whom was the sailboat named?
Answer:
Tara-Tarini is the patron deity for sailors. The sailboat was named after the famous ‘Tara- Tarini’ temple in Ganjam district of Odisha.

Question 18.
Write a few lines about the owner of the shop.
Answer:
The owner of the tea shop was over sixty, a little rustic in appearance, with his white neatly- combed hair. He looked clean. He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from under a green shawl.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Let me but live my life from year to year,
With forward face and unreluctant soul’”
(a) Whom does the word ‘me’ refer to?
(b) What kind of life does the poet want to lead?
Answer:
(a) ‘me’ refers to the poet, Hemy Van Dyke.
(b) The poet wants to lead a life facing every year with courage and willingness to do anything.

Question 20.
“There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street”
(a) Where does the family live?
(b) Why do you think the street is named as ‘Complaining Street’?
Answer:
(a) The family lives on Complaining street.
(b) I think the street is named as ‘Complaining Street’ because a family there is always complaining and no one likes to meet them.

Question 21.
“The summer of life she’s ready to see in spring.
She says, “Spring will come again, my dear
Let me care for the ones who ’re near. ”
(а) What does the word summer mean here?
(b) How does she take life?
Answer:
(a) Summer here means development.
(b) She takes life optimistically.

Question 22.
“A silly young cricket accustomed to sing .
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring.”
(а) What was the routine of the cricket?
(b) Name the seasons mentioned here.
Answer:
(a) The routine of the cricket was to sing and while away the time enjoying the spring.
(b) The seasons mentioned are summer and spring.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following.

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
When we first met, they had already offered her a job at the bank.
She had already been offered a job by them at the bank, when we first met.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:
“Miranda,” said Prospero, “tell me what you are looking at yonder.”
Prospero asked Miranda what she was looking at yonder.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
the great expanse of sea stretched down beneath and it was such a long way down miles down
Answer:
The great expanse of sea stretched down beneath, and it was such a long way down – miles down.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
The old man is very rich but he is a miser.
Answer:
In spite of the old man being rich, he is a miser.
[OR]
Despite being rich, the old man is a miser.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences:
(a) love / of others / good etiquette / and / wins the / respect
(b) when / best / they can / one is / be learnt / young
Answer:
(a) Good etiquette wins the love and respect of others.
(b) They can be learnt best when one is young.

Section – IV

Answer the following question.

Question 28.
Guide Shankar from the Railway Station to the Head Post Office. Write three instructions by way of helping him.

Answer:

• Go straight from the Railway Station on the main road.
• Take right from the Pandian Sweets.
• The Head Post Office will be on your left on the same road.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section-I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Describe the funny incident that caused the confusion in the house.
Answer:
“The Night the Ghost Got In” is a major example of the storytelling technique of James Thurber, who is far and wide considered one of the greatest comical writers that America ever produced. The story combines events that are likely to be a comic hyperbole.

The characters’ bizarre understanding of their world serves the dual purposes of entertaining readers. The story centres on a common situation where James Thurber hears a strange sound downstairs in the middle of the night when he comes out of the bath tub at 1 a.m. with a towel wrapped around him.

He assumes that it is a ghost and his mother assuming the footsteps to be of burglars, goes to the extent of throwing a shoe through a window to alert the neighbours about the burglars. The mother thinking it fancy to throw the second shoe through the neighbour’s window causes more fun and frolic. The Bodwell’s inform the police who in turn are thoroughly confused by the odd characters of the Thurber household and their way of life when they reach the suspected house.

The grandfather who is awakened by the chaos, deliberately mistakes the policemen for Meade’s men, who are deserters, illustrates the unusual characteristics of the Thurbers. By the time, it is over, one of the policemen is shot in the shoulder by the household’s disorientated grandfather, and a local news reporter is left speechless when he is told that a ghost is the cause of all the disorder, by the narrator.
“You can’t follow your heart when it is more confused than your head.”

Question 30.
Give a character sketch of M. Hamel.
Answer:
M. Hamel is a strict disciplinarian at a school in a village in the French districts of Alsace and Lorraine. M. Hamel is an experienced teacher who has been teaching in that village school for forty years. He imparts primary education in all subjects. He is a hard task master and students like Franz, who are not good learners, are in great dread of being scolded by him. He loves his profession from the bottom of his heart and holds a deep sense of respect for the mother tongue. The latest order of the Prussian conquerors upset him. He has to leave the place for ever and feels heart broken. He feels sad but exercises self-control. He has the courage to hear every lesson to the last.

This thought completely shatters a calm and composed man like M. Hamel. He tries his level best to remain calm and unruffled but breaks down at the end. His performance during the last lesson is exemplary. He is kind even to a late comer like Franz. He uses a solemn and gentle tone while addressing the students. He has a logical mind and can analyse problems and deduce the reasons responsible for it. He feels grief-stricken at the fact that people became indifferent to learning French.

He charms them to keep their language alive. Hamel is a patriot in the real sense. He regards the mother tongue to be a means of holding one’s identity and self-respect. He knows the emotional hold of a language over its users. He is a good communicator and explains everything patiently. Partings are painful and being human, M. Hamel too is no exception. He fails to say goodbye as his throat is choked.

“Good teachers are rarity. M. Hamel is an exception to rarity!”

Question 31.
What are the various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life?
Answer:
There are various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life.Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is an innovation for the disabled to use GPS & Blutooth. This enabled shoes to help the disabled navigate streets, based on instructions from map software on a smartphone. The App also records the route and also counts steps.

Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai invented the Smart watch for the hearing impaired. It converts sound waves into vibrations and colour codes to alert users to emergency sounds and ringing doorbells. It even helps them feel the rhythm of music.

iGEST by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and cofounder of enability technologies innovated a wearable device which tracks gestures of speech-impaired people and speaks for them. I guess technology makes a differently abled person’s life easier.
“Exploration is the engine that drives Innovation.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together.

Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“It’s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other ”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Describe the journey of life as depicted in the poem by Henry Van Dyke.
Answer:
Henry Van Dyke, one of the greatest American short story writers and poets, has surpassed the act of writing skillfully. ‘Life’ is no doubt one of his priced literary pieces. This poem is a pinnacle of expressive embarkment on the quest of self-revival from the glum beats of monotony. It has a very deep and farsighted meaning held within it and this is evident from the very beginning of the poem. The poem is the poet’s own reflection on his life and tells his point of view on the more important things in life. The poet advises the readers from his life experiences.

We feel that he is now an older man reflecting on his younger days. Through his words he is explaining to us what he is taking away as most important to live is the best life possible. Life is too short to get caught up in the moment or worry about the past. On the other hand, it suggests that we look forward to what the future holds. We sometimes find ourselves brooding on the bad times and we forget about how much good there is in the future. The poet is making us understand this concept and be more aware of reality.
“Life is short and if we enjoy every moment of everyday
We will be happy no matter what happens or changes our way]”

Question 34.
Elucidate – We are nothing more than children of your brain.
Answer:
“The Secret of the Machines” looks back to the poems rejoicing modem technology which had pre-occupied Kipling during the mid-1990s. This poem by Rudyard Kipling, a famous British poet, is about the great status of machines in the age of the industrial progress. The poet qualifies machines to define the situation from their point of view! In many of those poems it is the machines themselves who speak, taking on human characteristics and feelings.

In “The Secret of the Machines” the anthropomorphism is choral, with the machines conveying their message in a collective chant, informing the reader, posing rhetorical questions, offering a stem warning about their potential strength and finally submitting to their masters – the human brain. This is yet another example of Kipling’s constant, though often tilted is the denial of religion. The machines have the ability to change the environment of all created things except

The Gods, the creator of human-beings. The machines assert that they have produced a kind of smoke-screen which is momentarily covering the fact that it is you, the human beings, who are the true gods, with the machines nothing more than children of your brain! If the machines are to function to their full capacity they must be dutifully controlled by the Gods who have created them. That is why it is so important for man to understand the Law that machines ‘are not built to comprehend a lie.’
“ Your beliefs become your thoughts,
Your thoughts-your words

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(i) Which adjective is used to describe the house?
(ii) Give the rhyming word for place and bone.
(iii) Write the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iv) Identify the figure of speech employed in the fifth line of the given stanza.
Answer:
(i) The adjective ‘mysterious’ is used to describe the house.
(ii) The rhyming word for place is space and for bone, it is unknown and alone.
(iii) The rhyme scheme is aabba.
(iv) The figure of speech is alliteration in the last line.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Answer:
Remember, no men are strange, no countries foreign Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.Emphasising the value of universal brotherhood, the poet draws our attention to the absence of any differences amongst the people of different countries.

He asks us never to forget that people living in other countries are not strange or unfamiliar. The uniforms worn by people in different parts of the world may be different, but the bodies beneath them are the same. All human bodies live and breathe in a similar fashion. We are all brothers because we walk upon the same earth that we have divided into countries. Also, we shall all meet this same earth when we die and be buried in it.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) In the army, Mulan proved to be a brave soldier.
(ii) With Mulan, they won every battle and so some soldiers accepted her as the General.
(iii) She went to her father and said that she would go in his place.
(iv) Mulan, a teenage girl of China, heard the news when she was washing clothes.
(v) After a few years Mulan was given the top job – General of the entire army.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence :(iv), (iii), (i) ,(v),(ii)
(iv) Mulan, a teenage girl of China, heard the news when she was washing clothes.
(iii) She went to her father and said that she would go in his place.
(iv) In the army, Mulan proved to be a brave soldier.
(v) After a few years Mulan was given the top job – General of the entire army.
(ii) With Mulan, they won every battle and so some soldiers accepted her as the General.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
Francis Bennett went on into the reporters’ room. His fifteen hundred reporters, placed before an equal number of telephones, were passing on to subscribers the news which had come in during the night from the four quarters of the earth. In addition to his telephone, each reporter has in front of him a series of commutators, which allow him to get into communication with this or that telephotic line.

Thus the subscribers have not only the story but the sight of these events. Francis Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters – a service which was growing because of the recent discoveries in the stellar world. ‘Well, Cash, what have you got?’ ‘Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, Sir.’ ‘Interesting! And Jupiter?’ ‘Nothing so far! We haven’t been able to understand the signals the Jovians make. Perhaps ours haven’t reached them? ….’ ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’ ‘Not yet, Mr Bennett.’

‘Well, this time, you can’t blame optical science! The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars. It can’t be telescopes we need…’ ‘No, it’s the inhabitants,’ Corley replied. ‘You dare tell me that the moon is uninhabited?’ ‘On the face it turns towards us, at any rate, Mr Bennett. Who knows whether on the other side…’ ‘Well, there’s a very simple method of finding out.’

(i) Who is Cash?
(ii) What were the fifteen hundred reporters doing in the room?
(iii) Why can’t we blame optical science to get some result from the moon?
(iv) How do the spectators enjoy the visual effect of the story told by the reporters?
(v) From where did Cash get Phototelegrams?
Answer:
(i) Cash is one of the ten astronomical reporters who was questioned by Francis Bennett.
(ii) The fifteen hundred reporters were passing on to subscribers the news which had come in during the night from the four quarters of the earth from the reporters room.
(iii) We can’t blame optical science because the moon is six hundred times nearer than mars and their correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.
(iv) When Francis Bennett’s fifteen hundred reporters, placed before an equal number of telephones, were passing on to subscribers the news, each reporter has in front of him a series of commutators, which help the spectators to enjoy the visual effect of the story told by the reporters.
(v) Cash got Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Crispy and Tasty – to tingle the taste buds – Good variety of non-vegetarian food items.

Question 40.
Write a letter to the Collector of your District expressing your desire to contribute to the welfare of the flood affected victims in your area.
Answer:
16th December, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
To
The District Collector YYY
Respected Sir,
Sub : Contribution for Flood Affected Victims I am extremely devastated to see Thiruvannamalai district submerged in water. The plight of the flood victims pains my heart. I remember the days I did my schooling at St. Paul’s Matriculation Higher Secondary School. The Principal and teachers imbibed the true service to mankind among us during the Community Development Period that we had once a week.

The seeds sown by my mentors now urges me to contribute towards the welfare of the flood victims affected in our area. Now that I am placed well in my career as a the CEO of a private company, I wish to contribute a meagre sum of one lakh towards the same. I believe it will reach the flood victims at the earliest and help them in a small way to brave the storms and overcome the situation.
Thank you,
Yours sincerely,
XXX
Address on the envelope
The District Collector,
YYY

Question 41.
You are Priyaraj/Priya, the cultural secretary of St. Joseph’s Matriculation Higher Secondary School Coonoor. You have been asked to inform students of class IX and XI about the auditions for an inter-school Dramatics Competition. Draft a notice in not more than 50 words for the students’ Notice board. Invent all the necessary details.
Answer:

St. Joseph’s Mat., Higher Secondary School Coonoor. NOTICE 30 July 2016 Inter – School Dramatics Competition – Audition An audition for the Inter-school Dramatics Competition will be at the School Auditorium on 23rd August, 2020. Selected students will be part of a Shakespearean drama to represent the school team. Those interested kindly give your names to the undersigned. The details of the audition are given below: Date: 23-08-2020 Time: 12.30p.m. Venue: School Auditorium Eligibility: Students of classes IX and XI Last date for Registration: 25-08-2020 Priyaraj / Priya, Cultural Secretary

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences

A Happy Family

This picture denotes a real life situation on a weekend. This picture could depict a joint family too as we see five children in the hall. The father is seen reading the newspaper while the mother brings him a cup of coffee. The children are reading books. One boy is trying to fix a picture on the wall. A baby is sleeping in the cradle and near it we can see a woman folding clothes.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
We all know what we mean by a “good” man. The ideal good man does not drink or smoke, avoids bad language, converses in the presence of men exactly as he would if there were ladies present, attends church services regularly and holds the correct opinion on all subjects.

He has a wholesome horror of wrong-doing and realizes that it is our painful duty to reprimand sin. He has a still greater horror of wrong thinking, and considers it the business of the authorities to safeguard the young against those who question the wisdom of the views generally accepted by middle-aged successful citizens.

Apart from his professional duties, at which he is diligent, he spends much time in good works: he may encourage patriotism and military training; he may promote industry, seriousness and virtue among wage earners and their children by seeing to it that failures in these respects receive due punishment; he may be a trustee of a university and prevent an ill-judged respect for learning from allowing the employment of professors with rebellious ideas. Above all, of course, his “morals” in the narrow sense must be blameless.
Notes
Title: Characteristics of a Good Person
Good man – intensely religious, avoid bad habits.
Decent language, correct opinion on all subjects Diligent in professional duties Encourages patriotism and military training
Promotes industry, seriousness and virtue among wage earners and their children Prevents the employment of professors with rebellious ideas Morals – blameless
Title: Characteristics of a Good Person

Rough Draft
The author opines that an ideally good man is intensely religious and avoids unacceptable behavioural habit? such as moking and drinking. He does not use obscene or indecent language and has a fear to do wrongThings and think negatively. He is professionally dutiful and takes active interest in promoting virtues such as patriotism, industry and seriousness amidst workers and their children. Whenever possible he even prevehts the-ertigloyment of professors with rebellious ideas.

Fair draft
Title: Characteristics Of A Good Person
The author opines a good man to be intensely religious avoiding bad habits viz. smoking and drinking. He does not use obscene or indecent language and has a fear of wrong doing and wrong thinking. He is professionally dutiful and takes active interest in promoting virtues such as patriotism, industry and seriousness among workers and their children. Whenever possible he prevents the employment of professors with rebellious ideas. No. of words written in the summary: 68

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Divide these mangoes among Reema and Seema.
(b) I do not know who of the new trainees should be confirmed.
(c) She has not completed her course, isn’t it?
(d) The manager visits the office regularly, isn’t it?
(e) David and me are like brothers but from different mothers.
Answer:
(a) Divide these mangoes between Reema and Seema.
(b) I do not know which of the new trainees should be confirmed.
(c) She has not completed her course, hasn’t she?
(d) The manager visits the office regularly, doesn’t he?
(e) David and I are like brothers but from different mothers.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
The summer of life ………….. faith and beliefs.
Answer:
The summer of life she s ready to see in spring.
She says, “Spring will come again, my dear.
Let me care for the ones who ’re near. ”
She’s The Woman – she has no fear!
Strong is she in her faith and beliefs.

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Foot of the mountain – poor farmer – Shining – aged mother – tyrannical leader – rare announcement – farmer filled with remorse – unwhitened rice – gourd filled – mother on his back – summit of Obatsayuma – helpless mother noticed perilous path – unconditional love – face the verdict together.
Answer:
“The Story of the Aged Mother” by Matsuo Basho is a story in which a son and his mother’s pain in their battle against the decree of putting aged people to death is portrayed. The story happened at the foot of the mountain where a poor farmer lived in a country called Shining with his aged mother whom he loved. Their place was governed by a tyrannical leader who sent the announcement of killing all aged people which was not common then.

When the poor farmer heard the decree he felt sorrow in his heart for his aged mother. Just as his labour ended, he prepared food from a portion of unwhitened rice, covered it in a square cloth and knotted it in his neck along with a gourd filled with cool, sweet water. He then carried his mother on his back and started walking towards the summit of Obatsayuma, the mountain of the“abandoning of aged”.

On their way to the top, the helpless mother noticed the perilous path and thought that her son didn’t know the paths and might pass through danger. So she reached for twigs, snapped them to pieces and quietly dropped them until they reached the summit.

The poor farmer freed his mother and made a comfortable cushion with pine needles and bid farewell. Before he left her, she told him about the trail she made with the piles of twigs. His mother’s words clearly portrayed the unconditional love that the mother had for her son, an unselfish love that thumped the heart of the poor child and made him cry. Now, the farmer realized that they need to face the verdict together. So, he again carried his mother on his back and started to walk back to their humble hut in the valley.

[OR]

(b) Uncle Philip – leaves a letter – the message – precious stones – have expectations – remember uncle – charity – interesting mechanism – explosion – never doubt me – blown to atoms – believe never fulfilled.
Answer:
A Dilemma by Silas Weir Mitchell is indeed a story with a twist. The letter was addressed to Tom. It said that the box contained a large number of very fine pigeon-blood rubies and a fair lot of diamonds. One was blue and a beauty indeed. There were hundreds of pearls—one the famous green pearl and a necklace of blue pearls, for which any woman would sell her soul— or her affections.

He wanted his nephew to continue to have expectations and continuously remember his dear uncle. He had stated that he would have left those stones to some charity, but he hated the poor. It stated that the box contained an interesting mechanism, which would act with certainty as he unlocked it, and explode ten ounces of an improved, supersensitive dynamite. He then made it clear that to be accurate, there were only nine and a half ounces.

He said that if he doubted his uncle, on opening it, he would be blown to atoms. On the contrary if he believed him, he would continue to nourish expectations which would never be fulfilled. He also added at the end that since he was a considerate man, he counselled extreme care in handling the box and never forget his affectionate uncle.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The little boy of twelve will remember this day forever. It is not every day you get to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency on November 19,2013. The visit of the Children was the result of an initiative by the organizers of the tournament and the School education Department to get school children be a part of the world championship.

Many children from schools gathered to witness the ongoing world Championship and there was an overwhelming response. The entry being free, children found it a rare and unforgettable opportunity’. Student visitors were given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest. No wonder the visitors would be hailed heroes in their schools after their visit to the spot.

Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby, thereby founding that the city of Chennai would produce many masters of chess dazzling with intelligence and talent.

Questions:
(a) What made the day memorable for children?
(b) Mention the purpose for which the visit of the children had been organized.
(c) Which places were the student visitors permitted into?
(d) Who were responsible for such an exciting initiative?
Answer:
(a) The day was made memorable for the children because they got to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency.
(b) The purpose for which the visit of the Children had been organised was to get school children be a part of the world championship thereby making way for many masters of chess to be produced in the future.
(c) The student visitors were permitted into the Hotel’s lobby.
(d) The Organisers of the tournament and the school education department were responsible for such an exciting initiative.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
The Leader
Patient and steady with all he must bear,
Ready to meet every challenge with care,
Easy in manner, yet solid as steel,
Strong in his faith, refreshingly real,
Isn’t afraid to propose what is bold,
Doesn’t conform to the usual mould,
Eyes that have foresight, for hindsight won’t do,
Never backs down when he sees what is true,
Tells it all straight, and means it all too.
Going forward and knowing he’s right,
Even when doubted for why he would fight,
Again and again, he makes the case far clear
Wants to reach those who don’t hear
Growing in strength, he won’t be unnerved,
Ever assuring he’ll stand by his word.
Wanting the world to join his firm stand,
Bracing for war, but praying for peace,
Using his power so evil will cease:
A trustworthy person is a leader so far,
He is a person who knows what he must act upon.

Questions:
(a) What is the poem about?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Doesn’t conform to the usual mould’.
(c) Mention any two qualities of a true leader portrayed in this poem.
(d) What does a real leader stand for according to the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poem is about a leader and the leadership qualities one needs to possess.
(b) ‘Doesn’t conform to the usual mould’, suggests that the leader who is described has qualities that are totally different.
(c) Intelligence, courageous, strong in faith, Patience, steadfast (any two)
(d) According to the poem, a real leader stands for truth.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
With whom of the following was Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St.Gerorge
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who was the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court?
(a) T. Muthuswamy
(b) P.S. Sivasamy
(c) V.S. Srinivasa Sastri
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(a) T. Muthuswamy

Question 4.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Black soil
Answer:
(d) Black soil

Question 7.
A line joining the places of equal rainfall is
(a) Isohyet
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitude
Answer:
(a) Isohyet

Question 8.
The first paper industry was started in
(a) Raniganj
(b) Durgapur
(c) Hoogly
(d) Baliganj
Answer:
(d) Baliganj

Question 9.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Question 10.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 8°5’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0’N to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°5’N to 13°35’N

Question 11.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 12.
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court can hold the office up to the age of (in year).
(a) 58
(b) 60
(c) 62
(d) 65
Answer:
(d) 65

Question 13.
Choose the incorrect statement(s):
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major source of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv)

Question 14.
Basic Component(s) of food and nutrition security is / are
(a) availability
(b) access
(c) absorption
(d) all
Answer:
(d) all

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Answer:

• The famous Monroe doctrine was brought by Monroe, the president Of the USA.
• This doctrine declared that if Europeans interfered anywhere in America, north or south, it would amount to waging a war against the United States.
• This threat frightened the European powers and kept them away from South America.

Question 16.
What was Marshall plan?
Answer:

• The Marshall plan was an American initiative passed in 1948 to Western Europe, in which the United States gave over $ 12 Billion in economic assistance to help rebuild Western European economics after the end of World War II.
• It operated for four years beginning in April, 1948.
• The goal of the United States were to rebuild war tom regions, modernise industry and improve European prosperity.

Question 17.
Write the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:

• To attain self-government within British Empire by using constitutional means.
• To obtain the status of dominion, a political position accorded later to Australia, Canada, South Africa and New Zealand.
• To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve their goals.

Question 18.
Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu

Question 19.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

• India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
• China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
• Bangladesh to the east Our
• Myanmar to the far east
• Sri Lanka (from south-east) and Maldives (from south-west) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian Ocean.

Question 20.
State the types of agriculture practices in India.
Answer:

• Subsistence fanning
• Shifting Agriculture
• Intensive farming
• Dry farming
• Mixed farming agriculture
• Terrace cultivation

Question 21.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
When trade takes place between two countries it is known as International trade.

Question 22.
Write a short note on Mangrove forest in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Hence,
  mangroves are the common varieties with root of the plants submerged under water.
• The delta of Cauvery are covered by such vegetation. Pichavaram is the important notable example of mangrove forests.

Question 23.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spreading of money such as taxes, laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 24.
Mention the names of the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:
Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question 25.
What is Per Capita Income?
Answer:
Per’ Capita Income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.

Question 26.
Define: Food Security according to FAO.
Answer:
According to FAO (2009), “food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preference for an active and healthy life”.

Question 27.
Define: Tax.
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory contribution from a person to the government to defray the expenses incurred in the common interest of all without reference to special benefits conferred.

Question 28.
What do you know about Renewable resources?
Answer:

• It can be renewed in a short period of time.
• The time taken to renew the resources may be different from one resource to another.
  Example: Solar, wind, water, forest and wild life.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) ……………………… was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
(ii) ……………………… Soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
(iii) ……………………… is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
(iv) The term globalization invented by………………………
(v) ……………………… is the highest peak of South India.
Answers :
(i) Strasbourg
(ii) Laterite
(iii) M. Fathima Beevi
(iv) Prof. Theodore Levitt
(v) Anaimudi

Question 30.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between:
(i) Weather and Climate
(ii) Agro based industries and Mineral based industries
Answer:
(a) (i) Weather and Climate
Weather :

1. Weather is a day to day condition of the atmosphere of any place in regard to temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall.
2. It is calculated for a day or a short period of time.

Climate :

1. Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.
2. To get reliable average of climate a minimum of 35 year records of weather are necessary.

(ii) Agro based Industries and Mineral based Industries

Agro Rased Industries :

1. Agro based industries use agricultural products as their raw materials.
2. The major agro based industries of our country are cotton textile industry, jute industry, sugar industry etc.
3. These industries are located near the areas of cultivation.

Mineral Based Industries

1. Mineral based industries use both metallic and non metallic minerals as their raw materials.
2. The major minerals based industry of our country is the iron and steel industry.
3. These industries are located either near the coal field or iron ore mines.

(b) Give Reason: Rain water harvesting is necessary.
Answer:

1. India experiences tropical monsoon type of climate. It gives a seasonal rainfall. .
2. Most of the time the rainfall is scanty hence it is necessary to save available rain water. We must allow the water to penetrate in the deep water table and tap this water when it is necessary.
3. In order to prevent surface run-off we must harvest the rain water for further domestic related and other activities.

Question 33.
Assess the structure and activities of the UN.
Answer:

• The United Nations came into existence in the year 1945 to achieve lasting peace among all nation which were inter dependent. It functions like any government, through its principal organs which are similar to the legislative, executive and judicial wings of a state.
• The General Assembly is the body in which each member state is represented. It meets once a year and issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.
• The Security Council has fifteen members, five of them (the USA, Britain, France, Russia and China) are permanent members. The other ten temporary members are elected in rotation from different parts of the world. Each of the permanent member has the right to vote any decision by the other members of the Security Council.
• The UN Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General, who is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
• The International Court of Justice is the judicial wing of the United Nations. Its headquarters is at the Hague.
• The fifth organ of the UN is the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It is responsible for coordinating ail the economic and social work of the United Nations.

Activities of the United Nations:
Human rights, the problems of refugees, climate change, gender equality are all within the ambit of the activities of the United Nations. The UN Peace Keeping Force has acted in many areas of conflict all over the world.

Question 34.
What do you know about ‘Salt March to Vedaranyam’?
Answer:
(i) The Viceroy did not accept the demands put forward by Gandhi, he launched the civil Disobedience Movement by setting out on a Salt Satyagraha with a march to Dandi on 12,h March, 1930.

(ii) Tamil Nadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement. In the city of Madras, shops were picketed and foreign goods boycotted. Rajaji organised and led a Salt Satyagraha march to Vedaranyam. The march started from Tiruchirappalli on 13 April, 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in Thanjavur district on April 28th. On reaching Vedaranyam 12 volunteers under the leadership of Rajaji broke the salt law by picking up salt. Rajaji was arrested.

Question 35.
Write about southwest monsoon.
Answer:

• The southwest monsoon is the most significant feature of the Indian climate.
• The onset of the southwest monsoon takes place normally over the southern tip of the country by the first week of June, advances along the Konkan coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
• The monsoon is influenced by global phenomenon like El Nino.
• Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in the north India reaches upto 46° C.
• The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with lightning and thunder is termed as ‘break’ or ‘burst of monsoon’.
• It lowers the temperature of India to a large extent.
• The monsoon wind strikes against the southern tip of Indian land mass and gets divided into two branches.
• One branch starts from Arabian sea and the other from Bay of Bengal.
• The Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of
  India as it is located in windward side of the Western Ghats.
• The other part which advances towards north is obstructed by Himalayan Mountain and results in heavy rainfall in north.
• As Aravalli mountain is located parallel to the wind direction, Rajasthan and Western part do not get much rainfall from this branch.
• The wind from Bay of Bengal branch moves towards northeast India and Myanmar.
• This wind is trapped by a chain of mountains namely, Garo, Khasi and Jaintia are mainly responsible for the heaviest rainfall caused at Mawsynram located in Meghalaya.
• Later on, this wind travel towards west which results in decrease in rainfall from east to west.
• Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this monsoon.
• Tamil Nadu which is located in the leeward side receives only a meagre rainfall.

Question 36.
Give an account of water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Surface Water Resources:

• The total surface water potential of the state is about 24,864 mcm. There are 17 major river basin in the state with 81 reservoirs and about 41,262 tanks.
• Most of the surface water has already been tapped primarily for irrigation, where water use is largest.
• An area of 24 lakh hectares of the land are irrigated by surface water through major, medium and minor schemes.

Ground Water Resources:

• The utilizable ground water resources of the state is 22,423 mcm.
• The current level of utilization of water is about 13,558 mcm which is about 60% of the available recharge, while about 8875 mcm is the balance available for use.

Water Resource Management:

• Water Resource Management is the activity of planning, developing, distributing and managing the optimum use of water resources.
• The demand for water in TN is, increasing at a fast rate both due to increasing population and also due to larger per capita needs triggered by economic growth. ’
• Agriculture is the largest consumer of water in the state using 75% of the state’s water resources.
• The state is heavily dependent on monsoon rain since the state is entirely dependent on rain for recharging its water resources, monsoon failure leads to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 37.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
There are six Fundamental Rights.

• Right to Equality:- It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.
• Right to Freedom:- It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
• Right against Exploitation: It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
  It also prohibits employment of children in factories etc.
• Right to Religion:- It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion.
• Cultural and Educational Rights:- It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies:- It allows individual to seek redressal for the violations of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 38.
Explain about Panchsheel principles.
Answer:

• Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
• Mutual non-aggression.
• Mutual non-interference.
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 39.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters.
Answer:

• Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
• Sectoral specialisation
• Close inter-firm collaboration
• Inter firm competition based on innovation.
• A socio cultural identity which facilitates trust.
• Multi skilled work force.
• Active self-help organisation and
• Supportive regional and municipal governments.

Question 40.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product? And explain.
Answer:

• Expenditure Approach: In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
• Income Approach:- This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
• Value-added Approach: In the value added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the country.

Question 41.
Draw a timeline for the following:
Write any five important events between 1920 -1940
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) Russia
(iv) Hiroshima
(v) Hawai Island
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Why was Balkan League Formed?
(ii) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
(iii) Who were defeated in this war?
(iv) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
Answer:
(a) Balkan Wars:
(i) It was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan war in 1912-13.
(ii) The new state of Albanic was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia between them. Turkey was reduced the area around Constantinople.
(iii) The Turkish Forces.
(iv) Treaty of Bucharest.

(b) Subash Chandra Bose and INA
(i) How did Subash Chandra Bose reach Japan?
(ii) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
(iii) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
(iv) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose and INA:
(i)He made his way to Japan on a submarine on February 1943.
(ii) Captain Lakshmi Sahgal
(iii) (1) Gandhi Brigade (2) Nehru Brigade (3) Rani of Jhansi Brigade
(iv) He gave the slogan‘Dilli Chalo’.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Ramalinga Adigal ‘
(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Veda Sanmarga Sathya Sangam.
(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
(c) Ramalinga Adigal
(i) It is showing comparison and mercy on all living beings including plants.
(ii) His volumious songs that were compiled and published under the title Thiruvanrupta are called songs of Grace.
(iii) “Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam” means society for pure Truth in Universal selfhood.
(iv) He established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

(d) Vellore Revolt:
(i) When did Vellore Revolt break out?
(ii) Who introduced new military regulation?
(iii) Who was the first victim of the revolt?
(iv) Who was proclaimed by the rebels as their new rules?
Answer:
(d) Vellore Revolt:
(i) 10th July 1806
(ii) Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.
(iii) Colonel Fancourt
(iv) Fateh Hyder

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Aravalli range
(ii) River Cauvery .
(iii) Direction of South-West Monsoon winds
(iv) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve .
(v) The main region of black soil
(vi) Any one International Airport .
(vii) Atomic power station in Tamil Nadu
(viii) Railway route from Mumbai to Kolkata
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Nilgiri hills
(ii) Coromandel Coast
(iii) A paddy growing area
(iv) Bavani Sagar Dam
(v) Thoothukudi Port
(vi) Any one International Airport
(vii) Pulicat lake
(viii) Kanyakumari
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) Russia
(iv) Hiroshima
(v) Hawai Island
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Aravalli range
(ii) River Cauvery
(iii) Direction of South-West Monsoon winds
(iv) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(v) The main region of black soil
(vi) Any one International Airport
(vii) Atomic power station in Tamil Nadu
(viii) Railway route from Mumbai to Kolkata
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Nilgiri hills
(ii) Coromandel Coast
(iii) A paddy growing area
(iv) Bavani Sagar Dam
(v) Thoothukudi Port
(vi) Any one International Airport
(vii) Pulicatlake
(viii) Kanyakumari
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
One kilogram force equal to _______.
(a) 9.8 dyne
(b) 9.8 × 10⁴N
(c) 98 × 10⁴ dyne
(d) 980 dyne
Answer:
(c) 98 × 10⁴ dyne

Question 2.
Temperature is the average ______ of the molecules of a substance.
(a) difference in K.E and P.E
(b) sum of P.E and K.E
(c) difference in T.E and P.E
(d) difference in K.E and T.E
Answer:
(c) difference in T.E and P.E

Question 3.
In nuclear reactor _____ is used as a control rod.
(a) barium
(b) carbon
(c) cadmium
(d) Na
Answer:
(c) cadmium

Question 4.
Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is ______.
(a)28 amu
(b) 14 amu
(c) 28 g
(d) 14 g
Answer:
(b) 14 amu

Question 5.
Which of the following law inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Kr
Answer:
(a) He

Question 6.
The number of components in a binary solution is ________.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 7.
In an healthy adult during normal resting condition the blood pressure is ______.
(a) 160 mm/80 mm Hg
(b) 140 mm/80 mm Hg
(c) 120 mm/80 mm Hg
(d) 140 mm/60 mm Hg
Answer:
(c) 120 mm/80 mm Hg

Question 8.
Coronary heart disease is due to ______.
(a) Streptococci bacteria
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) Weakening of heart valves
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
Answer:
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles

Question 9.
Glycolysis takes place in _______.
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Cytoplasm

Question 10.
________ is the ATP factory of the cell.
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Mitochondria

Question 11.
The “use and disuse theory” was proposed by ________.
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Hacc Kel
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamark
(d) Gregor Mendel
Answer:
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamark

Question 12.
Which is used to edit programs?
(a) Inkscape
(b) Script editor
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(b) Script editor

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define moment of a couple.
Answer:
When two equal and unlike parallel forces applied simultaneously at two distinct points constitute couple. A couple results in causes the rotation of the body. This rotating effect of a couple is known as moment of a couple.

Question 14.
What is power of accommodation of eye?
Answer:

• The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called power of accommodation of the eye.
• This is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.

Question 15.
What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
Answer:

• It has bright picture quality
• It is thinner in size
• It uses less power and consumes very less energy.
• Its life span is more
• It is more reliable

Question 16.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor. V = IR

Question 17.
Distinguish between the saturated and unsaturated solution.
Answer:

Saturated solution	Unsaturated solution
1. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of the solvent at a given temperature is called a saturated solution.	1. Unsaturated solution is one that contains less solute than that of the saturated solution at a given temperature.
2. e.g. 36 g of NaCl in 100 g of water at 25°C	2. e.g. 16 g of NaCl in 100 g of water at 25°C

Question 18.
Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
In Rabbit, the teeth are of different types, i.e., Incisors, (I) Canines (C), Premolar (PM) and molar (M). Hence the dentition is called heterodont.

Question 19.
What is the function of Oxytocin?
Answer:
Oxytocin helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth and milk ejection from the mammary gland after child birth.

Question 20.
What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
Answer:
If you cut planaria into small fragments, each fragment will develop into new individual by a specialised mass of cell. It is called regeneration.

Question 21.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) ii
(b) iii
(c) iv
(d) i

Question 22.
How much current will an electric heater coil draw from 220 V source, if the resistance of heater coil is 110Ω.
Answer:
Given,V = 220 V, R = 110 Ω; I = ?
I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{220}{110}\) = 2A

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
Answer:

• Inertia of rest: The resistance of a body to change its state of rest is called inertia of rest. E.g: When you vigorously shake the branches of a tree, some of the leaves and fruits are detached and they fall down.
• Inertia of motion: The resistance of a body to change its state of motion is called inertia of motion. E.g: An athlete runs some distance before jumping. Because, this will help him jump longer and higher.
• Inertia of direction: The resistance of a body to change its state of direction is called inertia of direction.
  E.g: When you make a sharp turn while driving a car, you tend to lean sideways.

Question 24.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule-1: When a ray of light strikes the convex lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation

Rule-2: When a ray of light passes parallel to the principal axis of convex lens, the refracted rays is converged to the principal focus

Rule-3: When a ray passing through the principal focus the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis

Question 25.
A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Specific resistance (ρ) = \(\frac{\mathrm{RA}}{l}\)
R = \(\frac{\rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
When the length is increased by three and then the area of cross section is reduced by threeResistance of wire R = 10 Ω
New resistance R’ = \(\frac{\rho(3 l)}{(A / 3)}\)
= ρ (3l) x \(\frac{3}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = \(\frac{9 \rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = 9 × R = 9 × 10
R’ = 90 Ω

Question 26.
Write briefly about the characteristics of hydrocarbons.
Answer:

• Lower hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature E.g. methane, ethane.
• They are colourless and odourless.
• The boiling point of hydrocarbons increases with an increase in the number of carbon atoms.
• They undergo combustion reaction with oxygen to form CO₂ and water.
• Alkanes are least reactive when compared to other classes of hydrocarbons.
• Alkynes are the most reactive due to the presence of the triple bond.
• Alkanes are saturated whereas alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated.
• They are insoluble in water.

Question 27.
(i) What is Hydrated salt?
Answer:

• When ionic substances are dissolved in water to make their saturated aqueous solution, their ions attract water molecules and attached chemically in certain ratio. This process is called hydration.
• These ionic substances crystallize out from their saturated aqueous solution with a definite number of molecules of water.
• The number of water molecules found in the crystalline substance is called water of crystallization.
• Such salts are called hydrated salts
• Eg. Blue vitriol – CuSO₄.5H₂O

(ii) How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation?
Answer:
Ethanoic acid is prepared by the oxidation of ethanol in the presence of alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate.

Question 28.
Differentiate voluntary and involuntary action.
Answer:
Voluntary Action:

Voluntary Action	Involuntary Action
1. Controlled by Cerebrum	1. Controlled by the spinal cord.
2. The actions are under the control of our will	2. The actions, are not under our control
3. Eg. Writing, speaking	3. Eg. Heart beat, Breathing

Question 29.
(a) Lable the parts of DNA in the diagram below. Explain the structure briefly.
Answer:

DNA is a Polynucleotide. Each nucleotide contains
(i) A sugar molecule – Deoxyribose sugar

(ii) A nitrogenous base. They are two types of nitrogeneouS bases. They are

1. Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
2. Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)

(iii) A phosphate group
Nucleoside = Nitrogen base + sugar
Nucleotide – Nucleoside + Phosphate
Purines and pyrimidines are linked by hydrogen bonds.
Adenine (A) links thymine (T) with two hydrogen bonds (A = T)
Cytosine (C) links Guanine (G) with three hydrogen bonds (C ≡ G)

(b) Enumerate any 4 functions of blood.
Answer:
Functions of blood:

1. Transport of respiratory gases (Oxygen and CO₂).
2. Transport of hormones.
3. It maintains proper water balance in the body.
4. It acts as buffer and also helps in regulation of pH and body temperature

Question 30.
(a) What is photosynthesis? Where does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organism like green plants algae and chlorophyll containing bacteria utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own food. Photosynthesis occur in green parts of the plant such as leaves, stems and floral buds.

(b) Write the reaction for photosynthesis?
Answer:

Question 31.
(a) What are the contributing factors for obesity?
Answer:
The contributing factors for obesity.

• Genetic factors
• physical inactivity
• Eating habits(Over eating)
• endocrine factors

(b) What is genetic engineering?
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organisms to another organisms to create a new DNA is called as recombinant DNA (rDNA). The Genetic engineering is also called as recombinant DNA technology.

Question 32.
(a) Explain linear expansion with equation.
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to the change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion. The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion.

The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials. The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is

\(\frac{\Delta L}{L_{0}}\) = α_LΔT
Δ L-Change in length a
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

(b) State Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected in series.
Answer:

Let, three resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃ be connected in series. Let the current flowing through them be I. According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V₁, V₂ and V₃ across R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively, are given by:
V₁ = IR₁ …….. (1)
V₂ = IR₂ …….. (2)
V₃ = IR₃ ……. (3)
The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V = IR₁ + IR₂ + IR₃ …… (4)
The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit. Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be R_s.
Then,
V = IR_s …….. (5)
Combining equations (4) and (5) we get,
IR_s = IR₁ +IR₂ + IR₃
R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ …… (6)
Thus, When a number of resistors are connected in series, their effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances.
When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘n R’ i.e., R_s = n R
The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

[OR]

(b) (i) An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Answer:

Given, \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)
f = -15 cm [left side of lens]
u =-10 cm [left side of lens]

(ii) The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms-1. What will be the height of the cloud?
Answer:
Given, Time, t = 9.8 s
Speed of sound,v = 330 ms^-1
Height of cloud, d = ?
v = d/t,
d = vt
= 330 × 9.8
d = 3234 m

Question 34.
(i) What is the mass of 1 mole of nitrogen atom?
(ii) How many moles of SO₂ have same mass as 3 moles of oxygen?
(iii) How many molecules are present in 1 ml of water?
Answer:
(i) 1 × gram atomic mass of nitrogen atom
1 × 14 = 14 g

(ii) Mass of 3 moles of oxygen = 3 × 16 = 48 g
Now, mas of SO₂ = 32 + [2 × 16]
= 32 + 32 = 64 g
∴ 64 g of SO₂ = 1 mole
48 g SO₂ = (\(\frac{1}{64}\)) × 48 = 0.75 mole

(iii) We know that density of water is 1 g /ml
Hence, 1 g water = 1 ml water
Now, We have molecular mass of water
H₂O = (1 × 2) + 16 = 18 g
18 g of water contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules
1 g of water will contains = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{18}\) = 0.33 × 10²³ molecules
So the number of molecules of water in 1 ml = 3.3 × 10²²

[OR]

(b) Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors influencing the rate of a reaction are,
(i) Nature of the reactants: The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic acid. Do you know why? Hydrochloric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid and thus more reactive. So, the nature of the reactants influence the reaction rate.
2Na_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → 2NaCl_(aq) + H_2(g) (fast)
2Na_(s) + 2CH₃COOH_(aq) → 2CH₃COONa_(aq) + H_2(g) (slow)

(ii) Concentration of the reactants: Changing the amount of the reactants also increases the reaction rate. The amount of the substance present in a certain volume of the solution is called ‘concentration’. More particles per volume exist in it and hence faster the reaction. Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M hydrochloric acid.

(iii) Temperature: Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature. Because adding heat to the reactants provides energy to break more bonds and thus speed up the reaction. Calcium carbonate reacts slowly with hydrochloric acid at room temperature. When the reaction mixture is heated the reaction rate increases.

(iv) Pressure: If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate. This is because, on increasing the pressure the reacting particles come closer and collide frequently.

(v) Catalyst: A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction. In certain reactions, adding a substance as catalyst speeds up the reaction. For example, on heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.

(vi) Surface area of the reactants: When solid reactants are involve in a reaction, their powdered form reacts more readily. For example, powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Because, powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Write any 4 physiological effects of gibberellins.
(ii) Name the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm? What is its function.
(iii) What are the consequences of deforestation.
Answer:
(i) Physiological effects of gibberellins

1. Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants (Cucurbits).
2. Gibberellins break dormancy of potato tubers.
3. Gibberellins are efficient in inducing the formation of seedless fruit (Parthenocarpic fruits).
4. Gibberellins stimulate extraordinary elongation of internode Eg.Corn and pea.

(ii) An enzyme, Hyaluronidase present in the acrosome help the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization.

(iii) Deforestation is the destruction of large area of forests. It gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification. Therefore it is a threat to the economy, quality of life and future of the environment.

[OR]

(b) (i) List out any 3 parasitic adaptation of leech.
(ii) Explain the importance of Fossils.
Answer:
(i) Parasitic adaptation of Leech:

1. Blood is sucked by pharynx
2. The salivary glands produce hirudin which does not allow the blood to coagulate.
3. Anterior and posterior ends of the body are provided with suckers by which the animal attaches itself to the body of the host.

(ii) Importance of Fossils:

• Fossils are useful in classification of plants.
• Fossils throw light on phytogeny and evolution of plants
• Fossil plants give a historical approach to plant kingdom
• Fossil plants can be used in the field of descriptive and comparative anatomy

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

Question 2.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Question 3.
Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
…………………….founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M. C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
……………………. River is known as “Sorrow of Bihar”.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 7.
The longest dam in the world is …………………….
(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
Answer:
(c) Hirakud dam

Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in …………………….
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is …………………….
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 10.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………………….
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Thungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 11.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 12.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 13.
Primary sector consist of …………………….
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 14.
Pump sets and motors are produced mostly in…………………….
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:

• Bilateral trade treaties between Britain and the member states of the British Empire were signed at an economic summit in Ottawa in 1932.
• In this summit the participants (including India) agreed to give preference to imperial (British) over non-imperial goods.

Question 16.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:

• In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Pakistan and Iran signed a pact known as Baghdad Pact.
• In 1958, the United States joined the organisation and therefore it came to be known as the Central Treaty Organisation. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.

Question 17.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:

• The Siege of Cawnpur was a key episode in the Indian rebellion of 1857.
• The besieged Company forces and civilians in Cawnpur (now Kanpur) were unprepared for an extended siege and surrendered to rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad.
• However under ambiguous circumstances, their evacuation from Cawnpur turned into a massacre, and most of the men were killed.

Question 18.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:

• In 1816, F.W. Ellis formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo-Aryan family of languages.
• Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A comparative Grammar of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of languages, in 1856.
• He established a close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 19.
Give the importance of IST.
Answer:

• To avoid the confusion of time in different states of India. One meridian is taken to have a uniform time for a whole country.
• Therefore 80° 30’ E has been chosen as the Standard Meridian of India which is almost passing from the centre of India.

Question 20.
What is Migration? State its types.
Answer:
It is the movement of people across regions and territories.

1. Internal migration and
2. international migration.

Question 21.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and
Western Ghats separately.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats:
Parangimalai, Chennai, Javadhu hills, Vellore, Salem, Sirumalai, Dindigul, Thiruvannamalai,
Bhubaneswar, Namakkal, Perambalur.
Western Ghats:
Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Theni, Coimbatore, Nilgiri.

Question 22.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”.
• It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:
Indian nuclear programme in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes. The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are

• No first use
• Credible minimum deterrence

It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‘offensive purposes’ and would never use against any non-nuclear state.

Question 25.
What is per capita income.
Answer:

• Per capita income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
• It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.

Question 26.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:

• The Dutch undertook several voyages from 1596 and formed the Dutch East India Company in 1602.
• In 1605, Admiral Van der Hagen established Dutch factory at Masulipatnam and Pettapoli, Devanampatinam.
• In 1610, upon negotiating with the king of Chandragiri, found another factory at Pulicut. Pulicut was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.

Question 27.
What are the types of tax? Give example.
Answer:
(i) J.S. Mili defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

(ii) If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Question 28.
State the uses of Magnesium.
Answer:

• It is an important minerals used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw material
  for alloying.
• It is also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) The first woman legislator in India was …………………….
(ii) is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in …………………….
(iii) India conducted its first nuclear test at…………………….
(iv) …………………….is fondly called as “Little Japan”.
(v) Sathya Gnana Sabai was established by …………………….
Answers
(i) Mutthu Lakshmi Reddy
(ii) Nilgiri Tahr, Nilgiri hills
(iii) Pokhrah
(iv) Sivakasi
(v) Vallalar

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Himadri and Himachal.
(ii) Alluvial Soil and Black Soil.
Answer:
(a) (i) Himadri and Himachal :

1. The Northern most range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri.
2. It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres.
3. It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks Mt. Everest (8,848 m) and Kanchenjunga (8,586 m).
4. The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite.
5. It is perennially snow bound and a number of glaciers descend from this range.

Himadri Himachal :

1. Below Himadri is the most rugged mountain system and is known as Himachal or Lesser Himalayas.
2. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.
3. Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range. The Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also prominent ones.
4. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu valley in Himachal Pradesh.
5. This region is well Known for its hill stations.

(ii) Alluvial Soil and Black Soil.
Alluvial Soil :

1. It is formed from sediments deposited by rivers.
2. It is rich in potash.
3. It has moisture retention capacity.
4. It is formed along the river course, food, plains, delta and coastal plains.
5. It is suitable for the cultivation of paddy, wheat and sugarcane.
6. It is found in punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar and west bengal. Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri rivers deposit alluvial soil along their courses.

Black Soil :

1. It is formed from the weathering of igneous rocks.
2. It is rich in lime, iron, potash, alumina calcium and magnesium carbonates.
3. It has high moisture retention capacity.
4. It is found in the valleys of the Godavari, Krishna, Narmada and Tapti.
5. It is suitable for the cultivation of cotton, jowar and millets.
6. It is largely found in the Deccan trap

(b) Give reason: North Indian Rivers are Perennial.
Answer:
Most of the North Indian Rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the lofty mountains.

Question 33.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

• Lenin was in Switzerland when the revolution broke out in Russia. He wanted to continue revolution.
• His slogan of “All power to the Soviets” soon won over the workers’ leaders. Devastated by war time shortages, the people were attracted by the slogan of‘Bread, Peace and Land’.
• In October Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik Central Committee to decide on immediate revolution. Trotsky prepared a detailed plan.
• On 7 November the key government buildings, including the Winter Palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters, were seized by armed factory workers and revolutionary troops
• On 8 November 1917a new Communist government was in office in Russia. Its head this time was Lenin. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.

Question 34.
Write an account on the role played by the 19th century reformers towards the course of women.
Answer:
Several social reformers emerged during the 19th century India who played a big role towards the cause of women:
(i) Raja Rammohun Roy was deeply concerned with the preventing customs of sati, child marriage and polygamy. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry. He wanted polygamy to end. He raised voice against Sati system and forced the Governor-General William Bentinck to abolish this social evil in 1829. He condemned the subjugation of women and opposed the prevailing ideas that women were inferior to men. He strongly advocated education for women.

(ii) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was lead against the burning of widows. He supported the idea of widow remarriage. He played a leading role in promoting education of girls and helped them in setting up a number of schools. He dedicated his entire life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu society. He led a movement that resulted in the widows’ Remarriage Reform Act of 1856.

(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the cause of women. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage, which was prohibited particularly for the uplift of the depressed classes and women. Jyotiba opened orphanages and homes for widows.

(iv) Swami Dayanand Saraswati said that the prohibition of widow remarriage had no scriptural sanction.

(v) Reformers like R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade devoted themselves to activities such as widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes. M.G. Ranade founded the widow Remarriage Association in 1861.

Question 35.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:
1. Mineral based industries:

• The major minerals based industry of our country is the iron and steel industry.
• It is a key or basic industry and lays the foundation for other industries.
• These industries form the economic backbone of a country.

2. Location of Iron and Steel Industries:
Most of our country’s major iron and steel industries are located in the Chotanagpur plateau region.

3. Distribution of Iron and Steel Industries:
India has 11 integrated steel plant and 150 mini steel plants and a large number of rolling and re-rolling mills.

(i) Tata Iron and Steel Company [TISCO]: In 1911, Tata Iron and Steel Company was set up at Jamshedpur. Its major products are Pig Iron and Crude steel.

(ii) Indian Iron and Steel Company [IISCO]: The Steel plant at Kulti, Bumpur and Hirapur were integrated and the Indian iron and steel company was set up at Bumpur in 1972.

(iii) Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Ltd(VISL): Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Limited was set up in 1923 at Bhadravati in Karnataka. Its major products are alloy and sponge steel.

(iv) (a) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bhilai: It is located in Durg district of Chattisgarh. It started its production in 1957. Its major products are Railway Equipment and shipbuilding.
(b) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Rourkela: It was established in 1965 in Odisha. Its major products include hot and cold rolled sheets, Galvanized sheets and electrical plates.
(c) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Durgapur: It was established in 1959 in Durgapur of West Bengal. Its major products are alloy,steel, constmction materials and railway equipments.
(d) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bokaro: It is situated in the Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand. It started its operation in 1972. Its major products are sludge and slog.

(v) Salem Steel Ltd: It is located at salem in Tamil Nadu. It started its production in 1982. The major products are stainless steel.

(vi) Vijayanagar Steel Plant: The Vijayanagar Steel Plant has been set up at Tomagal in Karnataka. It started its production in 1994. The major products are flat steel and long steel.

(vii) The Visakhapatnam Steel Plant(VSP): It started its operation in 1981 at Visakhapatnam in Andhra pradesh. Its major products are Hot metal.

4. Mini Steel Plants:

• Mini steel plants are decentralized secondary units with capacity ranging from 10,000 tonnes to 5 lakh tonnes per year.
• They produce mild steel, alloy steel and stainless steel.
• Most of the mini steel plants are located in areas far away from the major steel plants so that they can meet the local demands.

Question 36.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Roadways:
The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, In which 60,628km are maintained by state Highways Department. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered at Chennai.
• The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s southern peninsula, covering Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km with 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most of the major cities in India.
• Main rail junctions in the state include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirappalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established suburban railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:
Tamil Nadu has four major international airports. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.

Water ways:
Tamil Nadu has 3 major ports. They are Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin. It has an intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports. Ennore intermediate port was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and ore traffics in Tamil Nadu.

Question 37.
Explain the salient features of the constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 38.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS :

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries .
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 39.
Explain the trade and traders in South India.
Answer:

• Southern Indian trade guilds were formed by merchants in order to organise and expand their trading activities. Trade guilds became channels through which Indian culture was exported to other lands.
• South Indian trade was dominated by the Cholas and it replaced the Pallavas.
• In the year 1053 AD (CE) the Kalinga Traders brought red coloured stone for trade and also cotton textile to Southeast Asia.
• Several trade guilds operated in medieval Southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Ayyavole, Gavaras etc. The Nakaras and Gavaras met only in the temple premises.
• Several European traders also arrived in South India such as the Portuguese, Dutch, Danes, French and the British. These traders established their companies / factories and strengthened their root in the Indian soil.

Question 40.
Write are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters?
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

• geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
• sectoral specialisation
• close inter-firm collaboration
• inter-firm competition based on innovation
• a socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust .
• multi-skilled workforce
• active self-help organisations, and
• supportive regional and municipal governments.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1855-1905
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) San Francisco
(ii) Hawai Island
(iii) Moscow
(iv) Hiroshima
(v) Nagasaki
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Cold War
(i) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
(ii) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
(iii) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
(iv) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
(a) Cold War:
(i) (1) The United States (2) The Soviet Union
(ii) The term ‘Cold War’was first coined by the English Writer George Orwell in 1945. Bernard Baruch, the US presidental adviser, was the first to use it in a speech.
(iii) The Soviet Russia did not welcome the formation of the NATO. To counter it, Soviet Union organised the Soviet-bloc countries for a united military actions under the Warsaw Pact in 1955.
(iv) The Warsaw Pact was dissolved in 1991 following the fall of the Berlin Wall and the reunification of Germany.

(b) Periyar E. V. R
(i) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
(ii) What were the newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
(iii) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
(iv) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
(b) Periyar E. V. R:
(i) Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

(ii) The newspapers and journals started by Periyar were – Kudi Arasu, Revolt, Puratchi,
Paguththarivu and Viduthalai.

(iii) In Vaikom, people protested against the practice of no access to the temples by the lower caste people. After the local leaders were arrest’d Periyar led the Temple Entry Movement and was imprisoned. So, people hailed him as Vaikom Virar or hero of Vaikom.

(iv) Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved?

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Causes of the Second World War.
(i) Name the treaty signed by Japan, Italy and Germany.
(ii) Mention some of the ideologies that emerged after the First World War.
(iii) What was the policy followed by the statesmen of the major world powers?
(iv) What did Hitler violate?
Answer:
(c) Causes of the Second World War:
(i) Italy – Germany – Japan signed the Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis treaty.
(ii) Democracy, Communism, Fascism and Nazism.
(iii) The statesmen of the major world powers followed the policy of appeasement.
(,iv) He violated the Munich Pact.

(d) Language agitation before Indian Independence
(i) Name the movements that helped to galvanise the Tamil language.
(ii) Highlight the contribution of Abraham Pandithar for the cause of Tamil music.
(iii) What was seen as a threat to Tamil language and music?
(iv) Who introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools?
Answer:
(d) Language agitation before Indian Independence:
(i) Maraimalai Adigal’s Pure Tamil Movement, the language reforms of Periyar and Tamil Isai Movement.
(ii) Abraham Pandithar systematically studied the history of Tamil music and attempted to reconstruct ancient Tamil musical system. He founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912 which became the kernel of the Tamil Isai Movement or Tamil Music Movement.
(iii) The implementation of Hindi as a compulsory language in Tamil Nadu, at various points of time, was seen as a threat to Tamil language and culture.
(iv) C. Rajagopalachari introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Deccan Plateau
(ii) Western Ghats
(iii) South west monsoon
(iv) Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
(v) Jute growing area
(vi) Damodar dam
(vii) Anyone iron ore producing region .
(viii) Tuticorin
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) River Vaigai
(ii) Laterite soil region
(iii) Tropical Evergreen forest region
(iv) Chennai
(v) Cotton growing area
(vi) Vellore
(vii) Karaikal seaport
(viii) Amaravathi dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Deccan Plateau
(ii) Western Ghats
(iii) South west monsoon
(iv) Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
(v) Jute growing area
(vi) Damodar dam
(vii) Anyone iron ore producing region
(viii) Tuticorin
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) River Vaigai
(ii) Laterite soil region
(iii) Tropical Evergreen forest region
(v) Chennai
(v) Cotton growing area
(vi) Vellore
(vii) Karaikal seaport
(viii) Amaravathi dam
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The great expanse of sea stretched down a long way down.
(a) express
(b) expense
(c) stretch
(d) vision
Answer:
(c) stretch

Question 2.
‘He thinks you’re deserter.’
(a) absconder
(b) camel
(c) convict
(d) dessert-monger
Answer:
(a) absconder

Question 3.
We had reached a point where the road bifurcated.
(a) separated
(b) converged
(c) joined
(d) ended
Answer:
(a) separated

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
India Meteorological Department collected data for monitoring marine pollution.
(a) distributed
(b) cancelled
(c) lost
(d) remained
Answer:
(a) distributed

Question 5.
Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) entire
(b) partial
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘military’.
(a) military
(b) militaries
(c) militares
(d) militarys
Answer:
(a) military

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘relation’.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ic
(d) ship
Answer:
(d) ship

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation RLWL is ………………….
(a) Remote Location Wait List
(b) Remote Location Waitress List
(c) Remote Locomotive Wait List
(d) Research Location Wait List
Answer:
(a) Remote Location Wait List

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
He will surely ……………. the examination with flying colours.
(a) get out
(b) get in
(c) get through
(d) get into
Answer:
(c) get through

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘earth’ to form a compound word.
(a) worm
(b) fire
(c) land
(d) green
Answer:
(a) worm

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
We come ………………. new words everyday.
(a) between
(b) of
(c) along
(d) across
Answer:
(d) across

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Shruthi always ……………….. loud music.
(a) plays
(b) was playing
(c) play
(d) had played
Answer:
(c) play

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
…………………… he passed beneath her, he heard the swish of her wings.
(a) Though
(b) If
(c) As
(d) Although
Answer:
(c) As

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
According to Smith how did Holmes get the disease?
Answer:
According to Smith, Holmes had opened an ivory box. A sharp spring from inside the box drew his blood. This caused Holmes the illness.

Question 16.
Why were the policeman prevented from entering the grandfather’s room?
Answer:
Five or six cops sprang for the attic door when they heard a noise from the grandfather’s room. They were prevented since it would be bad if they burst in on grandfather unannounced, or even announced as he was going through a phase in which he believed that General Meade’s men, under steady hammering by Stonewall Jackson, were beginning to retreat and even desert.

Question 17.
Where did the crew undergo their basic training?
Answer:
The crew underwent their basic sail training courses in Mumbai at the Indian Naval Waterman ship Training Centre (INWTC), and at various schools in the southern naval base in Kochi. They even sailed on INSV Mhadei up and down to Mauritius in 2016 and 2017 and also to Cape Town in December 2016.

Question 18.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day today life easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes, Blee Watch and iGEST are a few Indian Innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life easier.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(а) Who does he refer to?
(b) Why was his cupboard empty?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the foolish cricket.
(b) His cupboard was empty because he had not stored any food during summer.

Question 20.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.

Question 21.
“They, too, aware of sun and air and water,
Are fed by peaceful harvests, by war’s long winter starv’d.”
(a) What is common for all of us?
(b) How are we fed?
Answer:
(a) Sun, air and water is common for all of us.
(b) We the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water, enjoying the harvests in peaceful times and dreading starvation caused by long-drawn wars.

Question 22.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) What does ‘It’ refer to?
(b) Pick out the line that indicates the size of the house?
Answer:
(a) ‘It’ refers to the mysterious house.
(b) And inside you can tell it has a ton of space, this line indicates the size of the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The organizers will exhibit the paintings till the end of the month.
The paintings will be exhibited by the organizers till the end of the month.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:

• Shanthi said to the manager, “I live in Thiruvallur and I commute to the city of Chennai everyday.”
• Shanthi told the manager that she live’d in Thiruvallur and that she commuted to the city of Chennai everyday.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Heaven thank you my dear father, said miranda “Heaven thank you, my dear father,” said Miranda.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Though Raghu was old, he walked fast.
Despite his old age, Raghu walked fast.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) in / we / of / modern science / the era / live
(b) inventions / armed / which are / has / miracles / science / man with / not less than
Answer:
(a) We live in the era of modem science.
(b) Science, has armed man with inventions which are not less than miracles.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Observe the map given below and write three instructions to give directions to your brother to reach the City Hospital.
Answer:

• Go straight on Mount Road and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the last left after the temple adjoining Saiigan Main Road.
• You will find City Hospital on the left side at the end of the main road.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Give a detailed account of all thoughts and questions in the narrator’s mind while accompanying Aditya from the tea shop to Sanyal’s house?
Answer:
The narrator had noticed the keen interest of Aditya in seeing the tea shop at Bramhapur if it still existed. They saw Sasanka Sanyal another customer seated in one comer of the Nagen’s Tea Cabin. When that customer was asked to leave by Nagen the owner, he behaved in a strange manner and reacted sharply. Before leaving the place, he stretched himself, raised his lean arm and with diluted eyes recited a poem by Tagore.

On hearing this poem and seeing the customer’s strange gesture of Namaste, Aditya’s expression changed. The narrator noticed the eagerness in Aditya to know who the gentlemen was and what he was doing. The information he had received from Nagen uncle perturbed Aditya. He was distressed perhaps to know that the man lost his wife and only son last year.

When he left, Aditya was bent on knowing where the gentleman stayed and drove straight to his ancestral house with firm determination. His nerves seemed overwrought for some reason and he felt a strong necessity to visit his house. Aditya was totally a different person now and he expressed keen interest to visit his house where he lived twenty nine years ago.
“Memories are sometimes pleasant yet disturbing.’’

Question 30.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Question 31.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural. For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected to have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Question 32.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it.

It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space. Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute.

The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.
“Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on ‘The Grumble Family’ and their attitude towards other folks.
Answer:
The Grumble family by L.M. Montogornery, a prolific writer depicts a family whom everyone despises to meet. They live on Complaining street in the city called’ Never-are-Satisfied’ where River Discontent runs beside it. They growl at anything and everything and whatever happens, there is something that goes wrong. They scold at each other at all seasons be it winter or summer.

They never stop growling at any weather conditions be it during monsoon or summer. Anyone who is associated with them even as an acquaintance get adapted to their ways easily. They are moaning, grumbling and never satisfied. A feeling of pessimism is strongly embedded in them and they are so contagious that they pass on the nature of grumbling and complaining to all who converse with them.
“To do nothing but grumble and not to act — that is throwing away one s life.”

Question 34.
‘What is the central theme of the poem ‘No men are foreign’?
Answer:
James Kirkup gives a positive message of hope to mankind. In spite of obvious divisions and variances, all are united together by the common bond of civilization and mankind. For their entrusted interests, some selfish people divide lands and people. They collaborate to create hatred and divisions among people. The poet validates the statement that people living in different countries are essentially the same by proclaiming that ‘no men are strange and no men are foreign’. That is the part of the title of the poem and it is the central theme too. Every single body breathes and functions in the same way.

Each one of us equally needs the sun, air and water. Human hands too are used for the similar purpose of labouring for livelihood. Even eyes perform similar purpose of sleeping and waking up. Love wins us all and we all identify its power. In peace times, we all flourish and wars starve us. When we take up arms against each other, the entire earth is defiled and destroyed. Therefore, we all like peace which showers abundance and prosperity on us. Thus, fundamentally we all are the same. We should understand and try to recognise that the same soul runs through all the people.

Let us work for the unity and affluence of all lands and all people. Let us not pollute and taint the earth which is ours. Hatred and narrow ideas pollute the minds of the people. Conflicts and wars bring destruction and violence. We should remember that raising arms against anyone means fighting against ourselves. The poet reminds us to remember, recognise and strengthen the common bond that unites mankind and humanity which is the main theme of this poem.
“Sometimes one feels better speaking to a stranger than someone unknown.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“A woman is beauty innate,
A symbol of power and strength.
She puts her life at stake,
She’s real, she’s not fake!”
(i) What is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza?
(ii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the stanza.
(iv) Give a rhyming word for ‘ strength’.
Answer:
(i) ‘abcc’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(ii) The rhyming words are stake and fake.
(iii) Metaphor is employed in the above stanza.
(iv) ‘length’ is a rhyming word for ‘strength’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;
And then, be our station high or humble,
We’ll never belong to the family of Grumble!
Answer:
Therefore the poet tells us that we should learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. Even if our position is high or humble, we will never belong to the family of Grumble.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Prospero had commanded Ferdinand to pile up some heavy logs of wood. Kings’ sons not being much used to laborious work, Miranda soon after found him almost dying with fatigue. “Alas!” said she, “do not work so hard; my father is at his studies, he is safe for these three hours; pray rest yourself.”
“O my dear lady,” said Ferdinand, “I dare not. I must finish my task before I take my rest.” “If you will sit down,” said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while.” But this Ferdinand would by no means agree to. Prospero, who had enjoined Ferdinand this task merely as a trial of his love, was not at his books, as his daughter supposed, but was standing by them invisible, to overhear what they said. Ferdinand inquired her name, which she told, saying it was against her father’s express command she did so. And then Ferdinand, in a fine long speech, told the innocent Miranda he was heir to the crown of Naples, and that she should be his queen. Prospero then appeared before them.
(i) Why wasn’t Ferdinand used to laborious work?
(ii) What was the work given to Ferdinand by Prospero?
(iii) Why did Miranda ask Ferdinand to rest for some time?
(iv) Who was Ferdinand?
(v) What was Prospero doing when Ferdinand was at work?
Answer:
(i) Ferdinand wasn’t used to laborious work as he was from a royal family of Kings.
(ii) The work given to Ferdinand was to pile up some heavy logs of wood.
(iii) Miranda asked Ferdinand to rest for some time because he was tired and she thought that her father would be at his study for the next three hours.
(iv) Ferdinand was the heir to the crown of Naples.
(v) Prospero was invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda and was overhearing their conversation as he wanted to test Ferdinand’s love for Miranda.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following.

Question 39.
Write slogans for the following products:
(a) Air-conditioner
(b) Air – Conditioner
(c) Shampoo
(d) Detergent
(e) Computer
Answer:
(a) Tooth Paste – Use for a while and get a sparkling smile.
(b) Air-conditioner – Bring Switzerland into your room.
(c) Shampoo – Leaves your hair smooth and silky.
(d) Detergent – Less foam easy to clean.
(e) Computer – Doorstep to knowledge and information.

Question 40.
Ramesh, The School Pupil Leader wanted to write to Dr. Nagaraj confirming his presence to be the Chief Guest for the Literary Association inauguration function at school. Write a formal letter of invitation.
Answer:
From
K. Ramesh
School Pupil Leader
XYZ Higher Secondary School
Chennai
28th July, 2020
To
Dr C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai
Dear Sir,
Sub: Invitation to preside over the inauguration of Literary Association In continuation to the telephonic conversation we had this morning, it is immense pleasure that we thank you for accepting our oral invitation to inaugurate the Literary Association in our school for the current academic year.

I would like to confirm that the Inaugural function is scheduled for the 12th of August, 2020. at 10 a.m. in the School Auditorium. We request you to accept our invitation and inaugurate the function.
Your presence is much solicited and thanking you in advance for your valuable presence.
Thank you
Yours sincerely,
K. Ramesh (SPL)

Address on the envelope

To Dr. C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai

Question 41.
You are the Principal of Sunshine Public School, Elagiri. Write a notice in not more than 50 words informing that the admissions for the next academic year are likely to begin in January 2020.
Answer:

Sunshine Public School, Elagiri Admission Notice 7th December, 2019 The admission for the coming academic year viz. 2020-2021 will begin from the second week of January, 2020. The prospectus and admission forms can be purchased from the school office from 8th January to 30th January, 2020 between 10 a.m. and 4.30 p.m. The last date for the submission of the duly filled forms is 28th February, 2020. Principal Mr. Samson – Sunshine Public School

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Reading Maketh a Man
Reading is a wonderful hobby. The habit of reading is rarely seen among children, nowadays. Most of the schools, have one period a week as Library time to inculcate the habit of reading. The children are found talking with the Librarians to borrow books. Some children are found reading books. Silence must be maintained in the library

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
Tennis is a sport played between two players (singles) or between two teams of two players (doubles). Each player uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the United Kingdom in the late 19^th century.

At first, people played tennis on courts made of grass! These were called “lawn courts”. Now, tennis is played by millions of people all over the world. The rules of tennis have changed very little since it was created in the 1890s. Most tennis players play tennis because it is fun. It also is a good way to get exercise.

While playing tennis, you do a lot of running. You move your arms and legs in many ways that they do not normally move.
Title: Tennis – A Good Sport

1. Tns as a sport:
(i) Play⁴ betⁿ two players or two teams A two players
(ii) Play⁴ Single or Double
(iii) Millions A people – worldwide

2. Accessories req^d to play Tns:
(i) Tns racket
(ii) Hollow rubber ball covered with felt

3. Winning strategy
(i) ball in opponents court shd not b hit by player

4. Origin ∧ Tns
(i) In UK – late 19^thCen^y
(ii) Played in courts ∧ grass – Lawn Courts
(iii) Slight changes in rules
(iv) Play^d for Fun, Exercise

Abbreviations used: Tns – tennis; Play^d -played, betⁿ– between, A – of, req^d– required, shd – should, b-be, Cen^y-century

Rough draft
Tennis-sport played as singles or doubles uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win , you make hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the oppo­nent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the late 19th century in UK. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, tennis is played is played all over the world. the rules have not changed much. Mostly it is played for fun and a good way to get exercise! ”

Fair draft
Title : Tennis, A Good Sport
Nineteenth Century Tennis, originated in UK, is played as singles or doubles with a tennis racket and a ball. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent hitting it back. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, it’s played worldwide without much change for fun and exercise.
No. of words written in the summary: 53

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) Sita is now free of danger.
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late so we apologised.
(d) Many students has turned up for the seminar.

(e) If I had known this yesterday I will have helped him.
(a) Sita is now free from danger.                                                                    ‘
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise sank in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late we apologised.
(d) Many students have turned up for the seminar.
(e) If I had known this yesterday I would have helped him.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]
Question 45.
So let…………………….. of the quest,
Answer:
So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O ’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,

Part-IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
Question 46.
(a) Visu left, Zigzag – Zigzag fell asleep – began to snore – soft grumbly sort of rumble – mildly hungry dinosaur – herd of elephants – pounded the eardrums – Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, mistakes the snore – Maya complains – Arvind confesses – Maya squirts water- cotton wool-maid Lakshmi’s shriek- unfinished masterpiece – Zigzag slept unconcerned.
Answer:
As soon as the cook, Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep. The moment he fell asleep, he began to snore and the commotion began. His snoring was a soft grumbly sort of rumble like that of the stomach of a mildly hungry dinosaur. Then it grew louder until it sounded like a herd of elephants.

Zigzag’s snore pounded the eardrums till their heads ached. Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, who lived upstairs heard Zigzag snoring and asked Mrs. Krishnan to sing a little softly when she took her singing lessons. Maya complained that she heard a permanent rumbling sound in her ears even when she was miles away. Arvind confessed that he was actually looking forward to going to school than being at home. Maya tried to squirt water from a small water pistol at Zigzag to wake him and wetted most of the curtains, the walls and the sofa. In vain to wake up the bird, they shut themselves in the bedroom that was farthest away from Mrs. Krishnan’s workspace where Zigzag was creating the terrible noise.

Mrs. Krishnan untied a roll of cotton wool to stuff in her ears. Just then, their maid Lakshmi’s shrieked. They froze in fear as she had switched on the fan on which Zigzag had left some fruit and nuts. Half-pecked fruit streamed of the fan, dampening even Lakshmi’s eagerness as a guava landed on her cheek with a soft splash and one walnut hit her forehead with a loud smack.

One slice of over-ripe papaya came whizzing off the fan and as they watched it helplessly, it splattered all over Mrs. Krishnan’s unfinished masterpiece, sunset at Marina. However, through all this commotion, Zigzag slept unconcerned and snored on.

[OR]

(b) The little boy – cakes – The blind man – dikes – light heart – stayed a little while – walk talk – mother’s wish – rains and swollen waters – father’s gates – pretty fields – angry waters – pretty blue flowers – rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass – the poor blind man – few pleasures – setting sun – growing dark – feared his mother – sound of trickling water – the hero of Holland!
Answer:
The little boy, Peter was glad to take cakes to his blind friend. The blind man who stayed across the dikes was his friend. So he started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.

On remembering his mother’s wish that he should return before dark he bid his friend goodbye and set out for home. As he walked beside the canal, he noticed how the rains had swollen the waters, and how they beat against the side of the dike, and he thought of his father’s gates. He admired the pretty fields. He recalled his father’s words about the sea waters as angry waters.

As he walked along he sometimes stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road or to listen to the rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass. But oftener he smiled as he thought of his visit t the poor blind man who had so few pleasures and was always so glad to see him.

Suddenly he noticed that the sun was setting, and that it was growing dark. He feared his mother searching for him and began to run towards home. Just then he heard the sound of trickling water and had to become the hero of Holland!

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Many students aspiring to get a Visa for higher education in the United States are misled by blogs or unofficial sources. The US Consulate clarified that there was no fee for contacting the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications. The students need to give them all true details.

The Consulate processes 25 % of the world’s H1B visas and 30% of L Visa’s. Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day. The consulate had introduced many user friendly measures and interviews for candidates could be fixed within two days.

The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels. About 1300 interviews are conducted in a day. Everyone is given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit. Only a few applications are rejected. The call Centres could be contacted over the phone through online chats and e-mails.

Questions.
(a) What is the fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas?
(b) How did the Consulate deal with the applications received last year?
(c) How long does the process last, before the application fee could be paid?
(d) If you wish to go to the US in how much time, could you cite the reason at the interview?
Answer:
(a) There is no fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas from the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications.
(b) Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day.
(c) The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels.
(d) You are given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit at the interview, if.you wish to go to the US.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
SEPTEMBER 11
Once there were two magnificent towers,
Where lived and worked so many of ours.
It took seven long years to build them straight
They stood near the Empire State.
This event happened on the eleventh of September,
It’s an occurrence that generations will remember.
Because thousands of people have died,
Not only of the US but the world’s pride.
Everyone saw with awe and fright,
Twin towers crash in broad daylight.
None quite knows what will happen now,
When? Where? And how?
May God give wisdom to those,
Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose?
Now let us all remove hatred and vice,
And let the world be happy and nice.

Questions.
(a) What does the title of the poem indicate?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose’
(c) How many years did it take to rebuild the twin towers?
(d) What does the poet want to remove in this world and does he hope to see?
Answer:
(a) The title of the poem indicates that the poem is about the twin towers that was attacked on 11^th September, 2001.
(b) This line talks about the devilish act done by the men who pretended to be gentlemen. In other words, they are wolves in lambs’ clothing.
(c) It took seven years to rebuild the twin towers.
(d) The poet wants to remove hatred and evil thoughts so that the world can be a happy place with nice memories.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun-Yat-Sen
(d) MaoTsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ……………..
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 6.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about ………………….
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 7.
Black Soil is also called as ………………….
(a) Arid soil
(b) Saline soil
(c) Regur soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Regur soil

Question 8.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in ………………….
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which one of the following river flows into the Arabian sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 10.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is ………………….
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 11.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through ………………….
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 12.
Apartheid is ………………….
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination

Question 13
…………………. approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate
the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value added approach
(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value added approach

Question 14.
Tuticorin is known as ………………….
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:

• In October 1923, in the context of a long ministerial crisis, Mussolini organised the fascist March on Rome.
• Impressed by the show of force, the king invited Mussolini to form a government.

Question 16.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests -Elaborate.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, Nasser, the President of Egypt, nationalised Suez Canal. This measure undermined British interests with the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force.

(ii) Israel saw this as an opportunity to open the Gulf of Aqaba to Israeli shipping and put a stop to Egyptian border roads.

(iii) On 29 October Israels forces invaded Egypt, Britain used this opportunity to demand that its troops be allowed to occupy the canal zone to protect the canal. When Egypt refused British demand, it was bombed. Britain and France also attached Suez Canal area.

Question 17.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 18.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaravelar, Pandithar Iyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillai and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
• This is the largest physiographic division of our country.
• It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km (about half of the total area of the country)
• It is an old rocky plateau region. –
• The topography consists of a series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
• It is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan plateau respectively.
• Aravalli hills mark the north-western boundary of the plateau region.
• Its northern and north-eastern boundaries are marked by the Bundelkhand upland, Kaimur and Rajmahal hills.

Western Ghats lie parallel to the Western coast. They are continuous and can be crossed
through passes only like Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. It is higher then the Eastern Ghats. It cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The highest peak include the Anaimudi (2,695 metres) and the DodaBetta (2,637 metres). …

The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. The famous hill stations of Udagamandalam, popularly Known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal are located here.

One of the distinct features of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This is of volcanic region hence the rocks are igneous. These rocks have denuded over time and are responsible for the formation of black soil.

Question 20.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

1. Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
2. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sight seeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
3. They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
4. They bind the economic life of the country as well as they accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 21.
What is ‘Teri’?
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 22.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry’ of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
Write the importance of gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 26.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:

• Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNC) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE).
• Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries – USA, UK, France and Germany.

Question 27.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:

• Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes.
• There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed
  while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 28.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and Physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) ………………. known as the “Father of modem china.
(ii) Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……………….
(iii) Fundamental duties have been gives to the citizen of India under Article ……………….
(iv) ……………….  is an innovator of new ideas and business process.
(v) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….
Answers:
(i) Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen
(ii) Railways
(iii) 51 A
(iv) Entrepreneur
(v) Balance of trade.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains,
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Nar-mada and Tapi forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. They are wide and level plains with an aver¬age width of 80-100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern
5. part is known as the Coromandal coast. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.

Tropical Evergreen forest:

• These forests are located in regions of heavy rainfall more than 200 cm of rainfall.
• The trees in these forests are evergreen.
• These forest are very dense and composed of tall trees reaching up to the height of above 60 metres.
• The important trees of these forests are Rosewood, Ebony, Mahogany, and Chinchona, Bamboo and Lianas.

Deciduous forest :

1. These forests are located in regions of rainfall between 70-200 cm.
2. The trees in the deciduous forests shed their leaves due to dryness during the spring and early summer.
3. The tropical deciduous forests are commercially important as they yield valuable timber and other forest products.
4. The main trees of these forests are Teak, Sal, Sisam, Sandalwood, Wattle and Neem.

(b) Give reason: Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Chottanagpur Plateau is a store house of mineral resources such as mica, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal.

Question 33.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:
(i) The nineteenth century India was plagued with a number of social evils such as sati, child marriage, female infanticide, polygamy and so on.

(ii) Women were subjugated by men and were not allowed to get education. They were restricted to home and hearth. They were considered inferior to men.

(iii) The condition of the depressed classes was miserable. They were subj ect to untouchability. Their entry to schools, temples and other public places, meant for upper castes, was banned. Hence, there was no education among the people belonging to lower castes.

(iv) There were other evil practices prevalent in the Indian society such as excessive superstitious religious beliefs, animal sacrifice, which needed attention of the social reformers for the benefit of the common people of the society.

(v) There was total absence of reason in the society. The system of child marriage was prevalent which resulted to child widows. These widows were never accepted in the family and were destined to lead a pathetic life. These were the circumstances that led to the Reform movements in the nineteenth century.

Question 34.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th century.
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.
• In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.
• C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.
• The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.
• Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 35.
Give a detailed account on the Great Northern Plains.
Formation:

• • The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely – The Indus, The Ganga, and The Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
• • This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basis lying on the foothills of the Himalayas over millions of years formed this fertile plain.

Extension:
It spread over an area of 7 lakh sq.km. The plain being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, is a densely populated physiographic division.

Importance:
With a rich soil caves combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate it is agriculturally a very production past of India.

Important Features:

• In the lower course, due to gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases which results in the formation of riverine islands. Majuli, in the Brahmaputra River is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world.
• The rivers in their lower course split into numerous channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as tributaries.
• The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. Punjab plains, Ganga plains and Brahmaputra plains.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions – Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar and Khadar.

Punjab Plains:

• The Western part of the Northern plain is referred to as the Punjab plains formed by the Indus and its tributaries.
• The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan Indus and its tributaries – The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs.

Ganga Plains:
They extend between Ghagger and Teesta rivers. It is spread over the states of North India like
Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, Partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Brahmaputra plains:

• In the east of Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plains. They cover the areas of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions.

Bhabar:
The rivers after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shivaliks. It is known as Bhabar. All the streams disappear in this Bhabar belt.

Terai:

• South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet swampy and marshy region known as ‘Terai’. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife.
• The Terai is wider in the eastern parts of the Great plains, especially in Brahmaputra valley due to heavy rainfall. In many states, the Terai forest have been cleaned for cultivation.

Khadar:

• The newer younger deposits of the flood plains are called Khadar. They are renamed almost every year and so are fertile. Thus ideal for intensive agriculture.
• The Khadar tracts are enriched by fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy seasons. The Khadar land consists of sand, silt, clay and mud. It is highly fertile soil.

Delta Plains:

• The deitaic plains is an extension of the Khadar land. It covers about 1.9 sq.km in the lower reaches of the Ganga River. It is an area of deposition as the river flows in this tract sluggishly.
• The deltaic plain consists mainly of old mud, new mud and marsh. In the delta region, the uplands are called “chars”. While the marshy areas are called ‘Bils’.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun.
• So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers.
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 38.
Point out the basic concepts of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Preservation of national interest.
• Achievement of world peace.
• Disarmament
• Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
• Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
• Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
• Equality in conducting international relations.
• Anti-Colonialism, anti-imperialism anti- racism.

Question 39.
What are the limitations of the Gross Domestic Product?
The GDP is the most widely used measure of the state of the economy. While appreciating its usefulness, we should be aware of some of its limitations –
(i) Several important goods and services are left out of the GDP – The GDP includes only the goods and services sold in the market. Clean air, which is vital for a healthy life, has no market value and is left out of the GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity but not quality – In the 1970’s schools and banks were not allowed to use ball point pens – because of their poor quality. Since then, not only has these been a substantial increase in the quantity of ballpoint pens produced in India but their quality has also improved a lot. The improvement in quality of goods is very important but it is not captured by the GDP.

(iii) GDP does not tell us about the way income is distributed in the country – The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed unequally that only a small percentage of people may be benefiting from it.

(iv) GDP does not tell us about the kind of life people are living – A high level of per capita real GDP can go hand – in – hand with very low health condition of people, an undemocratic political system, high pollution and high suicide rate.

Question 40.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur.
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

• They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
• They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
• They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
• They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
• Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
• They enable the people to avail better quality goods, at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1905-1920
1905 – Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
1906  – Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
1916 – Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
1917 – Champaran Satyagraha
1918 – Kheda Satyagraha
1919 – Rowlatt Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920 – Khilafat Movement / Non Co-operation Movement

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(i) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
(ii) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
(iii) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
(iv) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
(a) Ho Chi Minh:
(i) Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.
(ii) Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.
(iii) In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.
(iv) The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(if) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU:
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA.
(i) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
(ii) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
(iii) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
(iv) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA:
(i) First he went to Germany, from there he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the Indian National Army.
(ii) Lakshmi Sahgal headed the women wing of the Indian National Army.
(iii) Bose reorganised the INA into three brigade: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women’s brigade named after Rani Lakshmi Bai.
(iv) He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’. ‘

(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu.
(i) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Why did Subramania Bharathi moved to Pondicherry?
(tii) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
(iv) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu:
(i) Some revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were M.P.T. Acharya, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S. Rajan.
(ii) Subramania Bharati went to Pondicherry to escape imprisonment after the Tirunelveli uprising in 1908. Pondicherry was under French rule.
(iii) Some revolutionary literature includes India, Vijaya, and Suryodayam, which came out of Pondicherry.
(iv) Vanchinathan shot dead by Robert W.D ’E. Ashe, the collector of Tirunelveli, at Maniyachi junction on 17th June 1911. He shot himself after that.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 10th Tamil Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Tamil Model Question Paper 5

நேரம் : 3.00 மணி
மதிப்பெண்கள் : 100

(குறிப்புகள்:

• இவ்வினாத்தாள் ஐந்து பகுதிகளைக் கொண்டது. அனைத்து பகுதிகளுக்கும் விடையளிக்க – வேண்டும். தேவையான இடங்களில் உள் தேர்வு வினாக்கள் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. காக
• பகுதி I, II, III, IV மற்றும் Vல் உள்ள அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்குத் தனித்தனியே விடையளிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வினா எண். 1 முதல் 15 வரை பகுதி-1ல் தேர்வு செய்யும் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவிற்கும் ஒரு மதிப்பெண். சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து குறியீட்டுடன் எழுதவும்.
• வினா எண் 16 முதல் 28 வரை பகுதி-IIல் இரண்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன: ஏதேனும் 9 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 29 முதல் 37 வரை பகுதி-IIIல் மூன்று மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. –
  ஏதேனும் 6 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 38 முதல் 42 வரை பகுதி-IVல் ஐந்து மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. ஏதேனும் 5 வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
• வினா எண் 43 முதல் 45 வரை பகுதி-Vல் எட்டு மதிப்பெண் வினாக்கள் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. அனைத்து வினாவிற்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.

பகுதி – 1 (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 15)

(i) அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்கவும்.
(ii) கொடுக்கப்பட்ட நான்கு விடைகளில் சரியான விடையினைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்துக் குறியீட்டுடன் விடையினையும் சேர்த்து எழுதுக. [15 x 1 = 15]

(குறிப்பு: விடைகள் தடித்த எழுத்தில் உள்ளன)

Question 1.
பரிபாடல் அடியில் ‘விசும்பும் இசையும்’ என்னும் தொடர் எதனைக் குறிக்கிறது?
(அ) வானத்தையும் பாட்டையும்
(ஆ) வானத்தையும் புகழையும்
(இ) வானத்தையும் பூமியையும்
(ஈ) வானத்தையும் பேரொலியையும்
Answer:
(ஈ) வானத்தையும் பேரொலியையும்

Question 2.
” மருந்தே ஆயினும் விருந்தொடு உண்’ என்னும் தொடர் இடம் பெற்ற நூல்……
(அ) கொன்றை வேந்தன்
(ஆ) குறுந்தொகை
(இ) திருக்குறள்
(ஈ) நற்றிணை
Answer:
(இ) திருக்குறள்

Question 3.
“இங்கு நகரப் பேருந்து நிற்குமா” என்று வழிப்போக்கர் கேட்டது………….. வினா ”அதோ அங்கே நிற்கும்” என்று மற்றொருவர் கூறியது ……….. விடை
(அ) ஐயவினா, வினா எதிர்வினாதல்
(ஆ) அறிவினா, மறைவிடை
(இ) அறியாவினா, சுட்டு விடை
(ஈ) கொளல்வினா, இனமொழி விடை
Answer:
(இ) அறியாவினா, சுட்டு விடை

Question 4.
தொல்காப்பியம் குறிப்பிடும் இசைக்கருவி………
(அ) ஜால்ரா
(ஆ) பறை
(இ) உறுமி
(ஈ) நாகசுரம்
Answer:
(இ) உறுமி

Question 5.
வீட்டைத் துடைத்துச் சாயம் அடித்தல்’ – இவ்வடி குறிப்பிடுவது …………
(அ) காலம் மாறுவதை
(ஆ) வீட்டைத் துடைப்பதை
(இ) இடையறாது அறப்பணி செய்தலை
(ஈ) வண்ணம் பூசுவதை
Answer:
(இ) இடையறாது அறப்பணி செய்தலை

Question 6.
காற்றின் மெல்லிய ……….. பூக்களைத் தலையாட்ட வைக்கிறது. கைகளின் நேர்த்தியான ………. பூக்களை மாலையாக்குகிறது. தொழிற்பெயர்களைப் பொருத்தித் தொடர்களை முழுமை செய்க.
(அ) தொடுத்தல், எடுத்தல்
(ஆ) தொடுதல், தொடுத்தல்
(இ) எடுத்தல், தொடுதல்
(ஈ) தொடுத்தல், தொடுதல்
Answer:
(ஆ) தொடுதல், தொடுத்தல்

Question 7.
வாய்மையே மழைநீராகி ‘ இத்தொடரில் வெளிப்படும் அணி.
(அ) உவமை
(ஆ) தற்குறிப்பேற்றம்
(இ) உருவகம்
(ஈ) தீவகம்
Answer:
(இ) உருவகம்

Question 8.
”சங்க இலக்கியங்கள் ஐந்திணைகளுக்குமான ஒழுக்கங்களை இருதிணைகளும் பயன்பெற எடுத்தியம்புகின்றன” – இத்தொடரில் அமைந்துள்ள தொகைச் சொற்களின் பொருத்தமான விரியைக் கண்டறிக.
(அ) குறிஞ்சி, முல்லை, மருதம், நெய்தல், பாலை – நல்வினை, தீவினை
(ஆ) குறிஞ்சி, முல்லை , மருதம், நெய்தல், பாலை – உயர்திணை, அஃறிணை
(இ) குறிஞ்சி, முல்லை , நெய்தல், பாலை, மருதம் – அறம், பொருள், இன்பம்
(ஈ) குறிஞ்சி, மலை, முல்லை , காடு, மருதம், வயல், நெய்தல், கடல் – பனை, திணை
Answer:
(ஆ) குறிஞ்சி, முல்லை , மருதம், நெய்தல், பாலை – உயர்திணை, அஃறிணை

Question 9.
‘கேள்வியினான்’ என்னும் சொல்லின் இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு ….
(அ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர்
(ஆ) தொழிற்பெயர்
(இ) வினைத்தொகை
(ஈ) பண்புத்தொகை
Answer:
(அ) வினையாலணையும் பெயர்

Question 10.
கலையரங்கத்தில் எனக்காகக் காத்திருக்கிறவரை அழைத்து வாருங்கள் – இத்தொடர்………….
(அ) வினாத்தொடர்
(ஆ) தனித்தொடர்
(இ) செய்தித்தொடர்
(ஈ) கலவைத் தொடர்
Answer:
(இ) செய்தித்தொடர்

Question 11.
”காய்ந்த இலையும் காய்ந்த தோகையும்” நிலத்துக்கு நல்ல உரங்கள் – இத்தொடரில் அடிக் கோடிட்ட பகுதி குறிப்பிடுவது …..
(அ) இலையும் சருகும்
ஆ) தொகையும் ஓலையும்
(இ) தாளும் ஓலையும்
(ஈ) சருகும், சண்டும்
Answer:
(ஈ) சருகும், சண்டும்

பாடலைப் படித்துப் பின்வரும் வினாக்களுக்கு (12, 13, 14. 15) விடை தருக.
”நனந்தலை உலகம் வளைஇ நேமியொடு
வலம்புரி பொறித்த மாதாங்கு தடக்கை
நீர் செல், நிமிர்ந்த மாஅல் போல,
பாடு இமிழ் பனிக்கடல் பருகி, வலன் ஏர்பு,
கோடு கொண்டு எழுந்த கொடுஞ் செலவு எழிலி
பெரும்பெயல் பொழிந்த சிறுபுன் மாலை”

Question 12.
இப்பாடலின் ஆசிரியர்…………
(அ) ஒளவையார்
(ஆ) நப்பூதனார்
(இ) நல்வேட்டனார்
(ஈ) பெருங்கௌசிகனார்
Answer:
(ஆ) நப்பூதனார்

Question 13.
இப்பாடல் இடம் பெற்றுள்ள நூல்……….
(அ) மலைபடுகடாம்
(ஆ) பரிபாடல்
(இ) முல்லைப்பாட்டு
(ஈ) நற்றிணை
Answer:
(இ) முல்லைப்பாட்டு

Question 14.
‘நனந்தலை உலகம்’ – இத்தொடரின் பொருள்?
(அ) சிறிய உலகம்
(ஆ) நனைந்த உலகம்
(இ) சுற்றும் உலகம்
(ஈ) அகன்ற உலகம்
Answer:
(ஈ) அகன்ற உலகம்

Question 15.
பாடலில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள அடி எதுகைச் சொற்களைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
(அ) பாடு இமிழ், கோடுகொண்டு
(ஆ) கோடுகொண்டு, பெரும்பெயல்
(இ) நனந்தலை, வலம்புரி
(ஈ) பொறித்த, பொழிந்த
Answer:
(அ) பாடு இமிழ், கோடுகொண்டு

பகுதி – II (மதிப்பெண்கள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் நான்கு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க.
21 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [4x 2 = 8]

Question 16.
விடைகளுக்கேற்ற வினாக்கள் அமைக்க.
(அ) ஒரு நாட்டின் வளத்திற்குத் தக்கபடியே, அந்நாட்டு மக்களின் அறிவொழுக்கங்களும் அமைந்திருக்கும்.
(ஆ) 1956ஆம் ஆண்டு நவம்பர் 1ஆம் நாள் கன்னியாகுமரி மாவட்டம் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் இணைந்தது. விடை
Answer:
(அ) ஒரு நாட்டின் அறவொழுக்கம் எப்படி அமைதல் வேண்டும்?
(ஆ) கன்னியாகுமரி மாவட்டம் தமிழ்நாட்டுடன் எப்போது இணைந்தது?

Question 17.
யாருக்கு இவ்வுலகமே உரிமை உடையதாகும் எனத் திருக்குறள் குறிப்பிடுகிறது?
Answer:
நடுநிலையாகக் கடமை தவறாமல் இரக்கம் காட்டுபவருக்கு இவ்வுலகமே உரிமை உடையதாகும்.

Question 18.
‘நமக்கு உயிர் காற்று. காற்றுக்கு வரம் மரம் – மரங்களை வெட்டி எறியாமல் நட்டு வளர்ப்போம்’ – இது போன்ற உலக காற்று நாள் விழிப்புணர்வுக்கான இரண்டு முழக்கத் தொடர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• உணவு மனிதனுக்கு ஆதாரம்
  மரம் மண்ணுக்கு ஆதாரம்
• மரம் வளர்ப்போம்! மழை பெறுவோம்.

Question 19.
“மன்னும் சிலம்பே! மணிமே கலைவடிவே!
முன்னும் நினைவால் முடிதாழ வாழ்த்துவமே” – ஐம்பெருங்காப்பியங்களுள் இவ்வடிகளில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள இருகாப்பியங்களைத் தவிர எஞ்சியுள்ள காப்பியங்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:
சீவகசிந்தாமணி, வளையாபதி, குண்டலகேசி

Question 20.
மொழிபெயர்ப்புக் குறித்து மணவை முஸ்தபா குறிப்பிடுவது யாது?
Answer:
”ஒரு மொழியில் உணர்த்தப்பட்டதை வேறொரு மொழியில் வெளியிடுவது மொழிபெயர்ப்பு” என்கிறார் மணவை முஸ்தபா.

Question 21.
‘கண்’ என முடியும் திருக்குறளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
பண் என்னாம் பாடற் கியைபின்றேல் கண் என்னாம் கண்ணோட்டம் இல்லாத கண்

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் ஐந்து வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் குறுகிய விடையளிக்க. [5 x 2 = 10]

Question 22.
அண்ணன் நேற்று வீட்டிற்கு வந்தது. அண்ணன் புறப்படும் போது அம்மா வழியனுப்பியது. வழுவை வழாநிலையாக மாற்றுக)
Answer:
அண்ணன் நேற்று வீட்டிற்கு வந்தான். அண்ணன் புறப்படும் போது அம்மா வழியனுப்பினார்கள்.

Question 23.
பொருத்தமானவற்றைச் சொற்பெட்டியில் கண்டு எழுதுக.
Answer:
தோற்பாவை, விருது, தோற்பவை, விருந்து
(அ) வாழ்க்கையில் தோற்பவை மீண்டும் வெல்லும் – இதைத் தத்துவமாய்த் தோற்பாவைக் கூத்து சொல்லும்.
(ஆ) தெருக்கூத்தில் நடிகருக்குக் கைத்தட்டலே விருந்து அதில் வரும் காசு குறைந்தாலும் அதுவேயவர் விருது.

Question 24.
கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள இரு சொற்களைப் பயன்படுத்தி ஒரு தொடர் அமைக்க.
Answer:
சிறு – சீறு
வயலில் உள்ள சிறு பாம்பாயினும் சீறும்.

Question 25.
கலைச்சொற்கள் தருக
Answer:
(அ) Modern Literature – நவீன இலக்கியம்
(ஆ) Epic Literature – காப்பிய இலக்கியம்

Question 26.
தொழிற்பெயருக்கும், வினையாலணையும் பெயருக்கும் உள்ள வேறுபாடுகள் இரண்டினை எழுதுக.
Answer:

Question 27.
பொருத்தமான நிறுத்தக் குறிகளை இடுக.
Answer:
சேரர்களின் பட்டப் பெயர்களில் கொல்லி வெற்பன் மலையமான் போன்றவை குறிப்பிடத்தக்கவை கொல்லி மலையை வென்றவர்கள் கொல்லி வெற்பன் எனவும் பிற மலைப்பகுதிகளை வென்றவர்கள் மலையமான் எனவும் பெயர் சூட்டிக்கொண்டனர் இதற்குச் சங்க இலக்கியத்தில் சான்றுகள் உள்ளன.

விடை : சேரர்களின் பட்டப் பெயர்களில் கொல்லி வெற்பன், மலைய குறிப்பிடத்தக்கவை. கொல்லி மலையை வென்றவர்கள் கொல்லி வெற்பன்’ எனவும், பிற மலைப்பகுதிகளைவென்றவர்கள் ‘மலையமான்’ எனவும் பெயர் சூட்டிக் கொண்டனர். இதற்குச் சங்க இலக்கியத்தில் சான்றுகள் உள்ளன.

Question 28.
அறியேன் – பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம் தருக.
அறியேன் = அறி + ய் + ஆ + ஏன்
அறி – பகுதி
ய் – உடம்படுமெய் சந்தி
ஆ – எதிர்மறை இடைநிலை புணர்ந்து கெட்டது
ஏன் – தன்மை ஒருமை வினைமுற்று விகுதி

பகுதி – III (மதிப்பெண்க ள்: 18)

பிரிவு – 1

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 29.
நீவிர் அறிந்த செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவுப் பயன்பாடு மூன்றினை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• செயற்கை நுண்ணறிவைக் கொண்ட இயந்திரம் மனிதர்களுடன் சதுரங்கம் முதலான விளையாட்டுகளை விளையாடுகிறது.
• கண் அறுவை மருத்துவம் செய்கிறது.
• சமைக்கிறது.

Question 30.
ஜெயகாந்தன் தம் கதைமாந்தர்களின் சிறந்த கூறுகளைக் குறிப்பிடத் தவறுவதில்லை என்று அசோகமித்திரன் கூறுகிறார். இக்கூற்றை மெய்ப்பிக்கும் கூறு ஒன்றைத் தர்க்கத்திற்கு அப்பால் கதை மாந்தர் வாயிலாகக் குறிப்பிடுக.
Answer:

• தோல்வி நிச்சயம் என்ற மனப்பான்மையுடன் போன நான் வழக்கத்திற்கு மாறாக அன்று – தோற்றுப்போனேன்.
• தோல்வி நிச்சயம் என்ற என் மனப்போக்கு தோற்றது. என் வாழ்க்கையே நிர்ணயிக்கப்பட்டது.
• பிச்சைக்காரனுக்கு பிச்சை போட்டதில் நாலணாவில் அந்த நல்ல நாளைக் கொண்டாடிவிட்ட நிறைவு பிறந்தது.
• காலணாதான் கடன் தரலாம் தருமத்தைத் தரமுடியுமா? தருமத்தை யாசித்துத் தந்தால்தான் பெற முடியும்.
• ஒருவனுக்கு என்ன கிடைக்க வேண்டுமோ அதுதான் கிடைக்கும் நாம் எப்படி முயற்சி செய்தாலும் நமக்குக் கிடைப்பது தான் கிடைக்கும்.

Question 31.
உரைப்பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை தருக.
தம் வீட்டிற்கு வரும் விருந்தினரை முகமலர்ச்சியோடு வரவேற்று உண்ண உணவும் இருக்க இடமும் கொடுத்து அன்பு பாராட்டுவதே விருந்தோம்பல். விருந்தினர் என்றால் உறவினர் என்று இக்காலத்தினர் கருதுகின்றனர். உறவினர் வேறு, விருந்தினர் வேறு. முன்பின் அறியாத புதியவர்களுக்கே விருந்தினர் என்று பெயர். அதனால் தான் ‘விருந்தே புதுமை’ என்று தொல்காப்பியர் அன்றே கூறியுள்ளார்.

(அ) விருந்தினர் என்போர் யாவர்?
Answer:
விருந்தினர் என்றால் உறவினர் என்று இக்காலத்தினர் கருதுகின்றனர். உறவினர் வேறு, விருந்தினர் வேறு. முன்பின் அறியாத புதியவர்களுக்கே விருந்தினர் என்று பெயர்.

(ஆ) விருந்து குறித்து தொல்காப்பியர் கூறியது யாது?
Answer:
‘விருந்தே புதுமை’ என்று தொல்காப்பியர் அன்றே கூறியுள்ளார்.

(இ) இவ்வுரைப்பத்திக்குப் பொருத்தமான தலைப்பு ஒன்று தருக.
Answer:
விருந்தோம்பல்

பிரிவு – 2

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க.
34 ஆவது வினாவிற்குக் கட்டாயமாக விடையளிக்க வேண்டும். [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 32.
“உள்வாய் வார்த்தை உடம்பு தொடாது” இடஞ்சுட்டிப் பொருள் விளக்குக.
Answer:
இடம் :
காலக்கணிதம் என்னும் நூலின் ஆசிரியர் கண்ணதாசன் அவர்கள் அமைந்த பாடல் வரிகள். விளக்கம் :
நம் வாயிலிருந்து வரும் வார்த்தைகள் ஒருபோதும் நம் உடலைக் காயப்படுத்துவது கிடையாது.

பாடலின் பொருள் :
மாற்றம் எனது மானிடத் தத்துவம். மாறுகின்ற உலகின் மகத்துவம் அறிவேன். எவை நன்மை, எவை தீமை என்பதை நான் அறிவேன். தலைவர்கள் மாறலாம். அவைகள் மாறலாம். தத்துவம் மட்டும் அட்சய பாத்திரம் ஆகும். எடுத்துக் கொள்பவர் எடுத்துக் கொள்ளட்டும். குரைப்போர் குரைத்துக் கொள்ளட்டும். வாயிலிருந்து வரும் வார்த்தைகள் ஒருபோதும் நம் உடலைக் காயப்படுத்துவது கிடையாது. நானே தொடக்கமாகவும், நானே முடிவாகவும், நான் கூறுவதே நாட்டின் சட்டமாகும்.

Question 33.
வைத்தியநாதபுரி முருகன், அணிந்திருக்கும் அணிகலன்களுடன் குழந்தையாகச் செங்கீரை ஆடிய நயத்தினை விளக்குக.
Answer:

• திருவடியில் அணிந்த சிறு செம்பொன்னால் ஆன கிண்கிணிகளோடு சிலம்புகளும் சேர்ந்து ஆடட்டும்.
• இடையில் அரைஞாண் மணியோடு ஒளிவீசுகின்ற அரைவடங்கள் ஆடட்டும்.
• பசும்பொன் என ஒளிரும் தொந்தியுடன் சிறுவயிறு சரிந்தாடட்டும். பட்டம் கட்டிய நெற்றியில் விளங்குகின்ற பொட்டின் வட்டி வடிவான சுட்டி பதிந்தாடட்டும்.
• கம்பிகளால் உருவான குண்டலங்களும் காதின் குழைகளும் அசைந்தாடட்டும்.
• உச்சிக் கொண்டையும் அதில் சுற்றிக் கட்டப்பட்டுள்ள ஒளியுள்ள முத்துகளோடு ஆடட்டும்.
• தொன்மையான வைத்தியநாதபுரியில் எழுந்தருளிய முருகனே! செங்கீரை ஆடி அருள்க!
• இவற்றுடன் அழகிய பவளம் போன்ற திருமேனியும் ஆட, செங்கீரை ஆடுக.

Question 34.
அடிபிறழாமல் எழுதுக.
”நவமணி வடக்க யில்போல் ” எனத் தொடங்கும் தேம்பாவணிப் பாடல்.
Answer:
நவமணி வடக்க யில்போல்
நல்லறப் படலைப் பூட்டும்
தவமணி மார்பன் சொன்ன
தன்னிசைக்கு இசைகள் பாடத்
துவமணி மரங்கள் தோறும்
துணர் அணிச் சுனைகள் தோறும்
உவமணி கானம் கொல் என்று
ஒலித்து அழுவ போன்றே – வீரமாமுனிவர்

(அல்ல து)

“வாளால் அறுத்துச் சுடினும் எனத் தொடங்கும் பெருமாள் திருமொழிப் பாடல்.
வாளால் அறுத்துச் சுடினும் மருத்துவன் பால்
மாளாத காதல் நோயாளன் போல் மாயத்தால்
மீளாத் துயர்தரினும் வித்துவக் கோட்டம்மா! நீ
ஆளா உனதருளே பார்ப்பன் அடியேனே. – குலசேகராழ்வார்

பிரிவு – 3

எவையேனும் இரண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு மட்டும் சுருக்கமாக விடையளிக்க. [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 35.
”கண்ணே கண்ணுறங்கு!
காலையில் நீயெழும்பு!
மாமழை பெய்கையிலே
மாம்பூவே கண்ணுறங்கு
பாடினேன் தாலாட்டு!
ஆடி ஆடி ஓய்ந்துறங்கு!” – இத்தாலாட்டுப் பாடலில் அமைந்துள்ள தொகாநிலைத் தொடர் வகைகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
அடுக்குத் தொடர், எழுவாய் தொடர், உரிச்சொல் தொடர்

Question 36.
‘பொருளல் லவரைப் பொருளாகச் செய்யும் பொருளல்ல தில்லை பொருள் – இக்குறட்பாவினை அலகிட்டு வாய்பாடு தருக.
Answer:

Question 37.
தன்மை அணி குறித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
தன்மையணி :
எவ்வகைப்பட்ட பொருளாக இருந்தாலும் இயற்கையில் அமைந்த அதன் உண்மையான இயல்புத் தன்மையினைக் கேட்பவர்களின் மனம் மகிழுமாறு உரிய சொற்களை அமைத்துப் பாடுவது தன்மையணியாகும். இதனைத் தன்மை நவிற்சி அணி என்றும் கூறுவர். இவ்வணி நான்கு வகைப்படும். பொருள் தன்மையணி, குணத் தன்மையணி, சாதித் தன்மையணி, தொழிற் தன்மையணி என்பதாகும்.

(எ.கா.) மெய்யிற் பொடியும் விரித்த கருங்குழலும்
கையில் தனிச்சிலம்பும் கண்ணீரும் – வையைக் கோன்
கண்டளவே தோற்றான், அக்காரிகைதன் சொற்செவியில்
உண்டளவே தோற்றான் உயிர்

சிலம்பு – வழக்குரை காதை வெண்பா

பாடலின் பொருள்: உடம்பு முழுக்கத் தூசியும் விரித்த கருமையான தலைமுடியும் கையில் ஒற்றைச் சிலம்போடு வந்த தோற்றமும் அவளது கண்ணீரும் கண்ட அளவிலேயே வையை நதி பாயும் கூடல் நகரத்து அரசனான பாண்டியன் தோற்றான். அவளது சொல், தன் செவியில் கேட்டவுடன் உயிரை நீத்தான். அணிப்பொருத்தம். கண்ணகியின் துயர் நிறைந்த தோற்றத்தினை இயல்பான உரிய சொற்களின் மூலம் கூறியமையால் இது தன்மை நவிற்சியணி எனப்படும்.

பகுதி – IV (மதிப்பெண்க ள் : 25) 

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விடையளிக்க. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 38.
(அ) சிலப்பதிகார மருவூர்ப்பாக்க வணிக வீதிகளை இக்கால வணிக வளாகங்களோடும் அங்காடிகளோடும் ஒப்பிட்டு எழுதுக.
Answer:
சிலப்பதிகார மருவூர்ப்பாக்க வணிக வீதிகள் :

• புகார் நகர மருவூர்ப்பாக்கத்தின் வணிக வீதிகளில் வண்ணக்குழம்பு, சுண்ணப்பொடி, குளிர்ந்த மணச்சாந்து.
• பூ, நறுமணப் புகைப்பொருள்கள், அகில் முதலான மணப்பொருள்கள் விற்பவர்கள் வீதிகளில் வணிகம் செய்து கொண்டிருக்கின்றனர்.

கூலக்கடைத் தெருக்கள்:

• இங்குப் பட்டு, பருத்தி நூல், முடி இவற்றினைக் கொண்டு அழகாகப் பின்னிக்கட்டும் கைத்தொழில் வல்லுநரான நெசவாளர் வாழும் வீதிகள் உள்ளன.
• இங்குப் பட்டும் பவளமும், சந்தனமும் அகிலும், முத்தும் மணியும் பொன்னும் அளக்க முடியாத அளவிற்குக் குவிந்து கிடக்கும் வளம் நிறைந்த அகன்ற வணிக வீதிகளும் உள்ளன.
• மேலும் இவ்வீதிகளில் வேறு பலப்பல பண்டங்களின் விற்பனையும் நடைபெறுகின்றது.
• எட்டுவகைத் தானியங்களும் குவிந்து கிடக்கும் கூலக்கடைத் தெருக்களும் உள்ளன.

மருவூர்ப்பாக்கத்தின் வணிகம்:

• மருவூர்ப்பாக்கத்தின் தெருக்களில், பிட்டு வணிகம் செய்பவரும் அப்பம் சுடுபவரும் கள் விற்கும் வலைச்சியரும் மீன் விற்கும் பரதவரும் உள்ளனர்.
• வெண்மையான உப்பு விற்கும் உமணரும் வெற்றிலை விற்பவரும் ஏலம் முதலான ஐந்து நறுமணப்.
• பொருள் விற்பவரும் பல வகையான இறைச்சிகள் விற்பவரும் எண்ணெய் வணிகரும் இங்கு வணிகம் செய்கின்றனர்.
• இவற்றுடன் அத்தெருக்களில் பல்வகைப் பொருள்களை விற்கின்ற கடைகளும் உள்ளன.
• வெண்கலம், செம்புப் பாத்திரங்கள் செய்வோர், மரத்தச்சர், இரும்புக்கொல்வர், ஓவியர், மண் பொம்மைகள் செய்பவர், சிற்பிகள் ஆகியோர் உள்ளனர்.
• பொற்கொல்லர், இரத்தின் வேலை செய்பவர், தையற்காரர், தோல் பொருள் தைப்பவர், துணியாலும் கட்டைகளாலும் பொம்மைகள் செய்பவர் ஆகியோர் உள்ளனர்.
• இவ்வாறாகப் பழுதின்றிக் கைத்தொழில் பல செய்யும் மக்கள் வாழும் பகுதிகள் இங்கு நிறைந்துள்ளன.
• குழலிலும் யாழிலும் குரல், துத்தம், கைக்கிளை, உழை, இளி, விளரி, தாரம் என்னும் ஏழு இசைகளைக் (ஸ, ரி, க, ம, ப, த.
• நி என்னும் ஏழு சுரங்களை குற்றமில்லாமல் இசைத்துச் சிறந்த திறமையைக் காட்டும் பெரும்பாணர்களின் இருப்பிடங்களும் உள்ளன.
• இவர்களுடன் மருவூர்ப்பாக்கத்தின் தெருக்களில் சிறுசிறு கைத்தொழில் செய்வோர், பிறருக்கு ஏவல் செய்வோர் வாழும் இடங்களும் உள்ளன.
• இவை அனைத்தும் குற்றமின்றிச் சிறப்புடன் அமைந்து விளங்கப் பரந்து கிடந்தன.

இக்கால வணிக வளாகங்கள் அங்காடிகள் :

• இக்கால வணிக வளாகங்கள், அங்காடிகள் ஒப்பனை செய்யப்பட்டு – வணிகருக்கும் மக்களுக்குமான உறவைக் குறைத்து வருகின்றன. மனதை மயக்கும் வகையில் இயங்குகிறது.
• இக்காலத்தில் வியாபாரத்திற்கும், பணம் விளம்பரத்திற்கும் மட்டுமே முக்கியத்துவம் அளிக்கப்படுகிறது.
• மனித மாண்புக்கு முக்கியத்துவம் அளிக்கப்படுவதில்லை. இக்கால வணிக வளாகங்களில் ஆடை முதல் ஆபரணங்கள் வரை, குண்டூசி முதல் கடப்பாரை வரை.
• தானியங்கள் முதல் உணவுப்பண்டங்கள், வரை விற்பனை செய்யப்படுகின்றன.
• பாத்திரங்கள் மற்றும் பல்வேறு தொழில் செய்பவர்களின் கிடங்குகள், இசைக்கருவிகள்.
• விற்பனையிடங்கள் போன்றவை எங்கும், பரந்து காணப்படுகின்றன.

(அல்லது)
(ஆ) ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது அன்றைக்குப் புலவர்களையும் கலைஞர்களையும் வள்ளல்களை நோக்கி நெறிப்படுத்துவதாக இருந்தது. இன்றைய நிலையில் ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் ஒரு வழிகாட்டுதலாக மாறியிருப்பதை விளக்குக.

• ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது வள்ளலை நாடி எதிர்வருபவர்களை அழைத்து யாம் இவ்விடத்தைச் சென்று இன்னவெல்லாம் பெற்று வருகின்றோம்.
• நீயும் அந்த வள்ளலிடம் சென்று வளம் பெற்று வாழ்வாயாக என்று கூறுதல் ஆற்றுப்படை ஆகும்.
• ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் என்பது இன்றைய நிலையில் ஒரு வழிகாட்டுதலாக இருக்கிறது.
• தன்னிடம் இல்லை என்றோ அல்லது தெரியாது என்றோ யார் வந்தாலும் அவர்களுக்கு வழிகாட்டுதலாகவும் இருக்கிறது.
• அவர்களுக்கு அறிவுரை கூறி அவர்களை வழிகாட்டுகின்றனர். அன்றைய ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் இன்றைய வழிகாட்டுதலாக மாறியுள்ளது.
• இது ஒவ்வொரு நிலையிலும் மாற்றம் அடைந்துள்ளது. உதவி தேவைப்படுபவர்களுக்கு பெரும் உதவியாக இருந்து வருகிறது.
• இதுவே இன்றைய ஆற்றுப்படுத்துதல் ஆகும்.

Question 39.
(அ) உங்கள் தெருவில் மின்விளக்குகள் பழுதடைந்துள்ளன. அதனால் இரவில் சாலையில் நடந்து சொல்வோருக்கும் வாகன ஓட்டிகளுக்கும் ஏற்படும் இடையூறுகளைக் குறிப்பிட்டு, புதிய மின்விளக்குகள் பொருத்தும்படி மின்வாரிய அலுவலருக்குக் கடிதம்
எழுதுக.

அனுப்புநர்
பொது மக்கள்,
பூந்தோட்டம்,
விழுப்புரம் – 5.

பெறுநர்
மின்வாரிய இயக்குநர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
பூந்தோட்டம்,
விழுப்புரம்-5.

ஐயா,
பொருள்: தெரு விளக்கு பழுதுநீக்கித் தருமாறு விண்ணப்பம் அளித்தல் – சார்பு. வணக்கம். எங்கள் பகுதியில் ஏறக்குறைய மூவாயிரம் பேர் வாழ்கிறார்கள். தெருக்களில் விளக்குகள் ஒளிவழங்குவது இல்லை. அதனால் தெருக்களில் நாய்கள் படுத்து உறங்குவது தெரியாமல் மிதித்து விடுகின்றனர். அதனால் நாய்கள் தெரு வழியே செல்வோரைக் கடித்துவிடுகின்றன. நாய் கடியினால் வருந்துவோர்களின் எண்ணிக்கை மிகுதியாக உள்ளது.

தெரு விளக்குகள் இயங்காமையால் தெருவில் நடந்து செல்வோர், விபத்துக்கும் ஆளாகின்றனர். தவிர முகமூடிக் கொள்ளையர் தொடர்ச்சியாக வீடுகளில் புகுந்து திருடிச் செல்கின்றனர். உயிர்க் கொலையும் செய்கின்றனர். தெரு விளக்குகளை விரைவாகச் சீர்செய்து எங்கள் துன்பத்தைப் போக்க ஆவன செய்யுமாறு அன்புடன் வேண்டுகிறோம்.

நன்றி.

இங்ஙனம்,
உங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள,
பொதுமக்கள்

பூந்தோட்டம்,
4.4.2019.
உறைமேல் முகவரி

பெறுநர்
மின்வாரிய இயக்குநர்,
மின்வாரிய அலுவலகம்,
பூந்தோட்டம்,
விழுப்புரம் – 5.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) “மரம் இயற்கையின் வரம்” எனும் தலைப்பில், மாநில அளவில் நடத்தப்பெற்ற கட்டுரை போட்டியில் முதல் பரிசு பெற்ற தோழனை வாழ்த்தி மடல் எழுதுக.
எண், 20/3 மாடவீதி,
மதுரை,
5.5.2019

அன்புள்ள நவீன்குமார்,
நாங்கள் அனைவரும் இங்கு நலம். நீயும் உன் குடும்பத்தாரும் எப்படி இருக்கிறீர்கள்? சென்ற மாதம் தமிழக அரசின் சார்பில் நடைபெற்ற இலக்கிய மன்றக் கட்டுரைப் போட்டியில் கலந்து கொண்டு ”மரம் இயற்கையின் வரம்” என்ற தலைப்பில் நீ எழுதிய கட்டுரை அனைவரிடமும் இயற்கையைக் காப்பாற்ற வேண்டும், மரங்களை நட்டு வளர்க்க வேண்டும் என்ற அவசியத்தை உணர்த்தியுள்ளது. ஆகவே உன் ஈடுபாட்டைப் பார்த்து எனக்கும் கட்டுரைப் போட்டியில் கலந்துகொள்ள ஆர்வம் வருகிறது. பல போட்டிகளில் நீ பெற்ற பரிசுப்பொருள்கள் உன் வீட்டில் ஏராளமாகக் குவிந்து கிடக்கின்றன. அனைத்தையும் பார்த்து நான் பலமுறை வியந்துள்ளேன்.

உன்னை நண்பனாக அடைந்ததற்கு நான் மிகவும் பெருமைப்படுகிறேன். நீ இன்னும் பல போட்டிகளில் கலந்து கொண்டு வெற்றிகளைப் பெற வாழ்த்துகிறேன். நீ அடுத்தமுறை போட்டியில் கலந்து கொள்ளும் போது எனக்குத் தெரியப்படுத்து. நான், நீ எவ்வாறு போட்டிக்குத் தயாராகிறாய் என்பதை அறிந்து கொள்கிறேன். உன் பதிலுக்காகக் காத்திருக்கிறேன்.

இப்படிக்கு,
உன் அன்புள்ள,
ப. அன்பரசன்.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
பெறுநர்
க. நவீன்குமார்,
5. காளையார் கோவில்,
முத்தமிழ் நகர்,
ஈரோடு – 638001

Question 40.
படம் உணர்த்தும் கருத்தை நயமுற ஐந்து தொடர்களில் எழுதுக.
Answer:

வறியவர்க்கு ஒன்று ஈவது ஈகை
மறித்துக் கொடுக்காமல் தடுப்பது தீமை
முடிந்ததைக் கொடுப்பது மேதை
வாடி நிற்கும் வறியவர்க்கு கொடுப்பது புகழ்
கொடுப்பதை தடுத்து நிறுத்துவது இகழ்

Question 41.
தட்டச்சர் பணிவாய்ப்பு வேண்டித் தன்விவரப் பட்டியல் ஒன்றை நிரப்புக
Answer:
அனுப்புநர்
கவிமணி.
63, மறைமலை அடிகள் தெரு
மேலூர்
மதுரை – 600 008.

பெறுநர்
சாரதா கல்வி நிலையம்.
மேலூர்.
மதுரை – 600008

ஐயா,
பொருள்: தட்டச்சர் பணி வேண்டி – விண்ணப்பம். தங்கள் அலுவலகத்தில் தட்டச்சர் பணிக்கான விண்ணப்பங்கள் வேண்டி நீங்கள் அறிவித்துள்ள செய்தியை 10.03.2019 அன்று வெளியான நாளிதழ் மூலம் அறிந்தேன். இந்தப் பணிக்கு நானும் விண்ணப்பம் கோருகிறேன்.

நான் 2018ஆம் ஆண்டு மார்ச் மாதம் நடந்த 10ஆம் வகுப்பு பொதுத்தேர்வில் வெற்றி பெற்றுள்ளேன். மேலும், தட்டச்சு இயக்குவதற்கான அடிப்படைப் பயிற்சியும் பெற்றுள்மோன் அப்பணியில் பணியாற்ற எனக்கு வாய்ப்பளித்தால் என் பணியைச் சிறப்பாக செய்வதுடன் காத கல்வி நிலைய வளர்ச்சிக்கும் பாடுபடுவேன் என்று உறுதியளிக்கிறேன். எனது சான்றிதழ்களைத் தங்கள் பார்வைக்கு இத்துடன் அனுப்பியுள்ளேன்.

நன்றி

இங்ஙனம்.
தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள
கவிமணி
மாதிரி வினாத்தாள் 1

இணைப்பு:

• தன் விவரக் குறிப்பு.
• கல்விச் சான்றிதழ்

தன் விவரப் பட்டியல்
பெயர் – கவிமணி
பிறந்த நாள் மற்றும் வயது – 10.06.2001; 18
பாலினம் – ஆண்
தந்தையின் பெயர் – மணி
முகவரி – 73, மறைமலை அடிகள் தெரு, மேலூர், மதுரை.
பத்தாம் வகுப்பில் பெற்ற மதிப்பெண் – 450 / 500.
தாய்மொழி – தமிழ்
பயின்ற மொழி – தமிழ், ஆங்கிலம்
தட்டச்சு – தமிழ், ஆங்கிலம் (இளநிலைத் தட்டச்சர்)
கணினி – வேர்டு, பவர்பாயிண்ட், சி+++

மேற்கண்ட விவரங்கள் அனைத்தும் உண்மையென உறுதி கூறுகிறேன். தங்கள் நிறுவனத்தில் தட்டச்சர் பணி தந்தால் என் பணியைச் சிறப்பாகச் செய்வேன் என உறுதி கூறுகிறேன்.

நன்றி,

இடம் : மதுரை
தேதி : 18.04.2019

இங்ஙனம்,
தங்கள் உண்மையுள்ள,
கவிமணி.

உறைமேல் முகவரி
பெறுநர்
சாரதா கல்வி நிலையம்,
மேலூர்,
மதுரை – 625 008.

Question 42.
(அ) தமிழகப் பாரம்பரிய கலைகளைப் பாதுகாக்கவும் வளர்க்கவும் மேலும் பரவலாக்கவும் நீங்கள் செய்யவிருப்பனவற்றை வரிசைப்படுத்தி எழுதுக.
Answer:
பிறந்தநாள் விழாக்களில் மயிலாட்டம் முதலான கலைகளை நிகழ்த்த முனைவேன் எங்கள் குடும்ப விழாக்களில் பொம்மலாட்டம் நிகழ்த்த ஏற்பாடு செய்வேன்.

• கோவில் திருவிழாக்களில் ஒயிலாட்டம் முதலான கலைகளை நிகழ்த்தலாம்.
• பள்ளி ஆண்டு விழாக்களில் கரகாட்டம் போன்றவற்றை நடத்த வேண்டும்.
• திருமண விழாவில் தமிழகப் பாரம்பரியக் கலைகளை நிகழ்த்தலாம்.
• தெருக்கூத்து, நாடகங்களில் தமிழர் பாரம்பரியக் கலைகளை அரங்கேற்றலாம்.
• ஊர்த் திருவிழாக்களில் தாரை தப்பட்டை நிகழ்த்த ஏற்பாடு செய்யலாம்.

மொழிபெயர்க்க.

(அ) The Golden sun gets up early in the morning and starts its bright rays to fade away the dark. The milky clouds start their wandering. The colourful birds start twitting their morning melodies in percussion. The cute butterflies dance around the flowers. The flowers’ fragrance
fills the breeze. The breeze gently blows everywhere and makes everything pleasant.

விடை தங்க நிற கதிர்களைக் கொண்ட கதிரவன் காலை எழுந்து இருளை அகற்றுகிறான். பால் போன்ற மேகங்கள் தன் ஓட்டத்தைத் தொடர்கின்றன. பல வண்ண பறவைகள் தன் காலை இன்னிசை பாடலை தொடங்குகின்றன. அழகிய பட்டாம் பூச்சிகள் பூக்களைச் சுற்றி நடனம் புரிகின்றன. பூக்களின் மணம் காற்றில் தவழ்கின்றன. மெதுவாக வீசும் காற்று எங்கும் இனிமையை நிரப்புகின்றது.

பகுதி – V (மதிப்பெண்கள் : 24) 

அனைத்து வினாக்களுக்கும் விரிவாக விடையளிக்க. [3 x 8 = 24]

Question 43.
(அ) சங்க இலக்கியங்களில் போற்றப்பட்ட அறங்களில் உம்மைக் கவர்ந்த இரண்டு அறங்களைக் குறிப்பிட்டு, அவை நடைமுறை வாழ்வில் பொருந்துவதை விளக்குக.
Answer:
அறத்தில் வணிக நோக்கம் கொள்ளாமை:
அறம் செய்வதில் வணிக நோக்கம் இருக்கக்கூடாது என்பது சங்ககால மக்களின் கருத்தாக இருந்தது. இப்பிறப்பில் அறம் செய்தால் அதன் பயனை மறுபிறப்பில் பெறலாம் என்ற வணிக நோக்குக் கூடாது எனக் கூறப்பட்டது.

“இம்மைச் செய்தது மறுமைக்கு ஆம் எனும்
அறவிலை வணிகன் ஆஅய் அல்லன்”

புறம் எனச் சங்ககால வள்ளல்களில் ஒருவரான ஆய்பற்றி ஏணிச்சேரி முடமோசியார் குறிப்பிட்டுள்ளார். நோக்கமின்றி அறம் செய்வதே மேன்மை தருவது என்பது இதில் உணர்த்தப்பட்டுள்ளது.

அரசியல் அறம் :
மன்னர்களுடைய செங்கோலும் வெண்கொற்றக்குடையும் அறத்தின் குறியீடுகளாகப் போற்றப்பட்டன. அரசன் செங்கோல் போன்று நேரிய ஆட்சியை மேற்கொள்ள வேண்டும் என்பது பல பாடல்களில் வலியுறுத்தப்பட்டுள்ளது. நீர்நிலை பெருக்கி நிலவளம் கண்டு உணவுப்பெருக்கம் காண்பதும் அதனை அனைவருக்கும் கிடைக்கச் செய்வதும் அரசனின் கடமையாகச் சொல்லப்பட்டது. குற்றங்களை.

அறத்தின் அடிப்படையில் ஆராய்ந்து தண்டனை வழங்க வேண்டும் என்கிறார் ஊன் பொதிப் பசுங்குடையார். அரசன் அறநெறியில் ஆட்சி செய்வதற்கு அமைச்சரும் உதவினர். நன்றும் தீதும் ஆய்தலும், அன்பும் அறனும் காத்தலும் அமைச்சர் கடமை என்கிறது மதுரைக்காஞ்சி செம்மை சான்ற காவிதி மாக்கள்’ என்று அமைச்சர்களை மாங்குடி மருதனார் போற்றுகிறார்.

(அல்லது)

(ஆ) மலர்ந்தும் மலராத பாதிமலர் போல
வளரும் விழி வண்ணமே – வந்து
விடிந்தும் விடியாத காலைப் பொழுதாக
விளைந்த கலை அன்னமே
நதியில் விளையாடி கொடியில் தலை சீவி
நடந்த இளந் தென்றலே – வளர்
பொதிகை மலை தோன்றி மதுரை நகர் கண்டு
பொலிந்த தமிழ் மன்றமே

– கவிஞர் கண்ணதாசனின் இப்பாடலில் தவழும் காற்றையும் கவிதை நயத்தையும் பாராட்டி உரை செய்க.

முன்னுரை :
இயற்கையின் கூறுகளில் காற்றின் பங்கு கூடுதலானது எங்கும் நிறைந்திருப்பது உயிர்களின் உயிர் மூச்சுக் காற்றைக் கண்களால் காண முடியாது. மெய்யால் மட்டுமே உணரக்கூடியது காற்று நம்மை மெல்லத் தொட்டுச் சென்றால் தென்றல் எனப்படுகிறது.

தென்றல் காற்று:
தெற்கிலிருந்து வீசுவதால் தென்றல் காற்று எனப்படுகிறது. மரம், செடி, கொடி, ஆறு, மலை, பள்ளத்தாக்கு எனப் பல தடைகளைத் தாண்டி வருவதால் வேகம் குறைந்து இதமான இயல்பு கொள்கிறது. இந்த மென்காற்றை இளந்தென்றல் என்பர்.

இலக்கியத்தில் தென்றல்:
தென்றல் காற்று பலவித மலர்களின் நறுமணத்தை அள்ளி வரும் பொழுது கூடவே வண்டுகளையும் அழைத்து வருவதால் இளங்கோவடிகள் ” வண்டொடு புக்க மணவாய்த் தென்றல் என நயம்பட உரைக்கிறார். பலபட்டடைச் சொக்கநாதப் புலவர் எழுதிய பத்மகிரிநாதர் தென்றல் விடு தூது என்னும் சிற்றிலக்கியத்தில்.

“நந்தமிழும் தண்பொருநை நன்னதியும் சேர் பொருப்பிற்
செந்தமிழின் பின்னுதித்த தென்றலே “

என தென்றலை பெண்ணொருத்தி அன்போடு அழைக்கிறாள்.

கண்ணதாசனின் கவிதை நயம்:
முழுவதும் மலராத மலர் மணத்தையும் அழகையும் கூட்டி வைத்திருக்கும். அம்மலரைப்போல வளரும் கண்ணின் வண்ணமே எனவும் விடிந்தும் விடியாத குளிர்ந்த காலை நேரத்தில் தோன்றிய கலை அன்னமே எனவும், நதியில் விளையாடி கொடிகளில் பாய்ந்து தலைசீவி தவழ்ந்து நடந்து வருகின்ற இளம் தென்றலே எனவும் பொதிகை மலையில் அகத்தியரால் வளர்க்கப்பட்டு மதுரை தமிழ் சங்கங்களில் அழகாய் வளர்ந்த தமிழே எனவும் குழந்தையைக் கண்ணதாசன் பாடுகிறார்.

முடிவுரை:
இவ்வாறாக இலக்கியப் படைப்புகளிலும் திரையிசைப் பாடல்களிலும் தென்றல் காற்று இன்றளவும் நீங்கா இடம் பெற்றுள்ளது. மென்துகிலாய் உடல் வருடி மாயங்கள் செய்வது தென்றல் காற்றேயாகும்.

Question 44.
(அ) கற்கை நன்றே கற்கை நன்றே
பிச்சை புகினும் கற்கை நன்றே’ என்கிறது வெற்றிவேற்கை. மேரியிடமிருந்து பறிக்கப்பட்ட புத்தகம், அச்சிறுமியின் வாழ்க்கையில் கல்விச் சுடரை ஏற்றிய
கதையைப் பற்றிய உங்களின் கருத்துகளைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
Answer:
மேரியின் ஆர்வம்:

• ஒரு சிறு குழந்தையின் மனதில் உனக்குப் படிக்கத் தெரியாது உன்னால் படிக்க முடியாது என்று கூறி.
• கையில் இருந்த புத்தகத்தை வெடுக்கென்று வாங்கிய நிகழ்வு அந்தக் குழந்தையைப் படிக்க வேண்டும் என்று தூண்டியது.
• நாம் படிக்க வேண்டும். என்னாலும் படிக்க முடியும் யார் தடுத்தாலும் என்னால் படிக்க முடியும் என்று தனக்குத் தானே சொல்லிக் கொண்டு காத்திருந்தாள்.

அறிவுச் சுடர்:

• தன் அப்பாவிடம் நான் படிக்க வேண்டும். என்னைப் படிக்க வையுங்கள் என்று கேட்டாள்.
• அதற்கு நமக்கு என்று படிக்கத் தனியாக பள்ளிக் கூடம் இல்லை.
• நாம் எல்லாம் படிக்க முடியாது படிக்க வேண்டும் என்ற எண்ணத்தைத் தூக்கிபோட்டு விட்டு வேலைக்குச் செல் என்று தந்தை கூறினார்.
• ஆனால் அவள் நம்பிக்கையை விடவில்லை தினமும் நான் படிக்க வேண்டும்.
• நான் படிப்பேன் என்று தனக்குத் தானே சொல்லிக் கொண்டுதான் வேலைக்குச் செல்வாள் இப்படியே காலங்கள் சென்றன.
• அவளை நோக்கி வாய்ப்பு வந்தது. ஒருவர் படிக்க வைப்பதாகக் கூறினார்.
• அதை அவள் பயன்படுத்திக் கொண்டாள் நன்றாகப் படித்துப் பட்டம் பெற்றாள்.
• அந்தச் சமூகத்தில் அவள்தான் முதல் பட்டதாரிப் பெண்.
• கிடைத்த வாய்ப்பை நன்றாக பயன்படுத்தி அந்தச் சமூகம் முன்னேற அவளே அறிவுச் சுடராக மாறினாள்.

(அல்லது)
(ஆ) ‘கு.அழகிரிசாமியின் ஒருவன் இருக்கிறான்’ சிறுகதையில் மனிதத்தை வெளிப்படுத்தும் கதை மாந்தர் குறித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
காஞ்சிப்புரத்துக்காரன்:

• சட்டைப்பையிலிருந்து கடிதத்தையும் மூன்று ரூபாயையும் எடுத்து. குப்புசாமிகிட்டே குடுத்துடுங்க.
• இல்லே, தங்கவேலு கிட்ட வேணும்னாலும் குடுத்துடுங்க. இன்னொரு சமயம் பட்டணம் வந்தா ஆசுபத்ரிலே போயி பார்க்கிறேன்”
• என்று சொல்லிவிட்டுக் கடிதத்தையும் ரூபாயையும் என்னிடம் கொடுத்தான். அப்புறம் ஒரு நிமிஷம் எதையோ யோசித்துப் பார்த்தேன்.
• மனசுக்குள் கணக்கு போடுகிறவன் போல் அவனுடைய முகபாவனையும் தலையசைப்பும் இருந்தன.
• மறு நிமிஷத்திலேயே, ” இந்தாருங்க. இதையும் குப்புசாமிக்குக் குடுக்கச் சொல்லுங்க” என்று சொல்லித் தன்.
• இடது கையில் தொங்கிய துணிப் பையிலிருந்து இரண்டு சாத்துக்குடிப் பழங்களை எடுத்துக் கொடுத்தான்.
• ”என் பசங்களுக்கு நாலு பழம் வாங்கினேன்.
• போகட்டும். இவரு ஆசுபத்திரிலே இருக்கிறாரு. நாம்ப வேறு என்னத்தைச் செய்யப் போறோம்?”
• இத்துடனும் அவன் நிறுத்தவில்லை ! தன் உபயமாக ஒரு ரூபாய் நோட்டு ஒன்றை எடுத்து என்னிடம்.
• கொடுத்து, குப்புசாமியிடமோ தங்கவேலுவிடமோ சேர்க்கச் சொன்னான்.
• அவன் குப்புசாமிக்காகத்தான் கொடுத்தானோ, குப்புசாமிக்காகக் காஞ்சிபுரத்தில் இருந்து கொண்டு கண்ணீர் வடிக்கும் அந்த வீரப்பன்.
• குப்புசாமியின் உயிருக்குக் கொடுக்கும் மதிப்பைக் கண்டுதான் கொடுத்தானோ?
• என்று அழகிரிசாமியின் ஒருவன் இருக்கிறான் ‘ சிறுகதையில் மனிதத்தை வெளிப்படுத்தும்.
• கதை மாந்தரான – காஞ்சிபுரத்துக்காரனை ஆசிரியர் காட்டுகின்றார்.

Question 45.
(அ) குமரிக் கடல் முனையையும் வேங்கட மலைமுகட்டையும் எல்லையாகக் கொண்ட தென்னவர் திருநாட்டிற்குப் புகழ் தேடித்தந்த பெருமை தகைசால் தமிழன்னையைச் சாரும். எழில்சேர் கன்னியாய் திகழும் அவ்வன்னைக்கு , பிள்ளைத் தமிழ் பேசி, சதகம் சமைத்து, பரணி பாடி, கலம்பகம் கண்டு, உலா தந்து. அந்தாதி கூறி, கோவை யாத்து இவற்றையெல்லாம் அணியாகப் பூட்டி, அழகினைக் கூட்டி அகம்மிக மகிழ்ந்தனர் செந்நாப் புலவர்கள். இக்கருத்துகளைக் கருவாகக் கொண்டு சான்றோர் வளர்த்த தமிழ்’ என்னும் தலைப்பில் கட்டுரை எழுதுக.
Answer:
சான்றோர் வளர்த்த தமிழ்
முன்னுரை:
‘கல் தோன்றி மண் தோன்றாக் காலத்தே முன்தோன்றி மூத்த தமிழ்’ என்னும் பழைமையுடைய செந்தமிழ் மொழியை உயர்தனிச் செம்மொழி’ என்று வரையறுத்தவர் பரிதிமாற் கலைஞர் என்று பலராலும் போற்றப்படும் வி.கோ. சூரிய நாராயண சாஸ்திரியார் ஆவார். அகத்தியர் வளர்த்த தமிழ்’ பொதியமலைத் தமிழ் போன்ற தொடர்கள் தமிழின் பழைமையை விளக்கும் சான்றுகளாகும். உயர், தனி, செம்மை என்ற மூன்று அடைமொழிகள் கொண்டு தமிழ் விளங்கக் காரணம் என்ன என்பதைக் காண்பதே இக்கட்டுரையின் நோக்கம்.

பொருளுரை தொன்மை:
குமரிக்கண்டம் எனப்பட்ட லெமூரியாக் கண்டத்திலுள்ள மக்கள் பேசிய மொழி தமிழ் என்பது எலியர் கருத்து. மனித இனம் எப்போது தோன்றியதோ அப்போது தோன்றியது தமிழ். உலக மொழிகளுள் பழைமையும் இலக்கிய இலக்கண வளமும் உடையவை கிரேக்கம், இலத்தீன், சீனம், அரபு, சமஸ்கிருதம், தமிழ் என்பன. பிற மொழிகள் காலவெள்ளத்தில் சிதைந்து மாறுபட்டு விளங்குகின்றன. பத்தாயிரம் ஆண்டு கட்டு முன்பே பேசப்பட்டும், இன்றும் அழியாமல் நிலைத்து நிற்கும் சிறப்பான தன்மை தமிழ் மொழிக்கு அமைந்த பண்பு எனலாம்.

உயர்மொழி :
தான் பேசப்படும் நாட்டிலுள்ள பலமொழிகளுக்கும் தலைமையும், அவற்றை விட மேன்மைத்தன்மையும் உள்ள மொழியே, உயர்மொழி எனப்படும் என்று கூறுவார் பரிதிமாற்மலைஞர். இதன்படி பார்த்தால் திராவிட மொழிகளாகிய தெலுங்கு, கன்னடம், மலையாளம், துளு ஆகிய மொழிகளுக்கு எல்லாம் தலைமையும் மேன்மையும் பெற்றிருப்பதால் தமிழ் உயர்மொழியே’ ஆகும்.

தமிழ் தனிமொழி:
தான் வழங்கும் நாட்டிலுள்ள மற்றைய மொழிகளின் உதவியில்லாமல் தனித்தியங்க வல்ல ஆற்றலுடைய மொழி ‘தனிமொழி’ எனப்படும். பிறமொழிகளுக்குச் செய்யும் உதவி மிகுந்தும், பிற மொழிகள் தனக்குச் செய்யும் உதவி குறைந்தும் காணப்படுவது நம் தமிழ்மொழியில் மட்டுமே. பிற மொழிகளின் உதவி இல்லாமல் தனித்தியங்கும் ஆற்றல் பெற்றிருப்பதால் தமிழ் மொழி தனி மொழி’ எனப்படும்.

தமிழ் – செம்மொழி;
‘திருந்திய பண்பும், சீர்த்த நாகரிகம் பெற்ற தாய்மொழி புகல் செம்மொழியாகும்’ என்பது செம்மொழியின் இலக்கணம். இவ்வரையறை தமிழ் மொழிக்கும் பொருந்துகிறது. தமிழ் மொழியினுள் இடர்ப்பட்ட சொல் முடிவுகளும், தெளிவற்ற பொருள் முடிவுகளும் இல்லை. சொல்லையும் சொல்லுபவன் கருதிய பொருளைக் கேட்பவன் தெளிவாக உணர முடியும் பழையன கழிதலும் புதியன புகுதலும் என்பதைத் தமிழ்மொழி இன்றளவும் ஏற்றிருப்பதால் ‘தமிழ் செம்மொழி ஆகும்.

தமிழின் பொதுப்பண்பு:
மேல்நாட்டு அறிஞர்களான போப், கால்டுவெல், வீரமாமுனிவர் போன்றவர் தமிழினைக்கற்று இலக்கியத்திற்கு வளம் சேர்த்தனர். மதம், மொழி, இனம், நிறம், கடந்து ‘யாதும் ஊரே யாவரும் கேளிர்’ என்று முதல் முழக்கமிட்டது தமிழ் மொழியே ஆகும். உண்பது அமிழ்தமே ஆயினும் தனியராய் உண்ணோம் என்று உணர்த்தினவர் தமிழர். “தீதும் நன்றும் பிறர்தர வாரா” பிறப்பொக்கும் எல்லா உயிர்க்கும் ; உண்பது நாழி உடுப்பவை இரண்டே போன்ற உயர்ந்த சிந்தனைகளை உலகுக்கு உணர்த்தியது தமிழ் இல்வாழ்வையும், புறவாழ்வையும் அகம், புறம் என்று பிரித்து குறிஞ்சி, முல்லை மருதம், நெய்தல் பாலை என்று ஐவகை நிலம் வகுத்து, முதல், கரு, உரிப்பொருள் வகுத்து இலக்கியம் கண்டு இலக்கணம் இயம்பியது நம் செந்தமிழ் மொழியாகும்.

அரசின் கடமை :
மூவாயிரம் ஆண்டுகள் பழைமை வாய்ந்த தமிழைச் செம்மொழியாக அறிவித்தால் பிற நாட்டவர் தமிழ் மொழியைப் பயில்வர். நம் செந்தமிழ் இலக்கியம், இலக்கணம் பிற மொழியாளர்களால் ஆராயப்படும். தமிழ் உலகம் முழுவதும் ஏற்றம் பெற்று புதிய நூல்கள் ஆக்கம் பெறும். உலக அளவில் உயரிய மதிப்பு கூடும். மொழிக் களஞ்சியங்களில் தமிழ்க்கலை வெளிப்படும்.

முடிவுரை:
தமிழைச் செம்மொழி ஆக்கியதோடு மட்டுமன்றி வணிகத் துறையை எட்டிப்பிடித்துச் செல்வ மொழியாகவும் மாற்றிட வழிவகை செய்ய வேண்டும்.

(அல்லது)
(ஆ) குறிப்புகளைப் பயன்படுத்திக் கட்டுரை ஒன்று தருக.
முன்னுரை – விண்வெளியில் தமிழரின் அறிவு – கல்பனா சாவ்லா – விண்ணியல் அறிவில் வருங்காலத்தில் மேற்கொள்ள வேண்டியவை – முடிவுரை

முன்னுரை:
விண்வெளிக்குப் பயணம் செய்த இந்தியாவின் முதல் பெண்மணி என்ற பெருமைக்குரியவர் கல்பனா சாவ்லா. நடுத்தரக் குடும்பத்தில் பிறந்து உலகமே வியந்த விண்வெளி வீராங்கனையாக வாழ்ந்த கல்பனா சாவ்லா அமெரிக்காவின் கொலம்பியா ஓடத்தில் இருந்து விண்வெளிக்குப் பறந்து ஆராய்ச்சிகளை மேற்கொண்டவர்.

இளமைப் பருவம் :
இந்தியாவின் ஹரியானா மாநிலத்தில் 1961 ஆம் ஆண்டு ஜூலை 1 ஆம் தேதி கர்னாஸ் என்ற ஊரில் பிறந்தார் கல்பனா. வீட்டின் நான்கு பிள்ளைகளில் அவர்தான் கடைக்குட்டி அவர் தந்தை ஒரு வியாபாரி, தாய் இல்லத்தரசி பொம்மை வைத்து விளையாடும் வயதில் கல்பனாவுக்குப் பிடித்த பொழுதுபோக்கு விமான ஓவியங்கள் தீட்டி அழகு பார்ப்பது விமானங்களின் சத்தம் கேட்டாலே வீட்டில் இருந்து தெருவுக்கு ஓடி வந்து அந்த அலுமினியப் பறவை, புள்ளியாக மறையும் வரை கண்கள் சுருக்கிப் பார்த்துக்கொண்டே நிற்கும் குழந்தைகளில் ஒருவர்தான் கல்பனாவும்.

கல்வி:
கர்னாவில் உள்ள அரசுப் பள்ளியில் ஆரம்பக் கல்வியை முடித்த கல்பனாவுக்கு அந்த வயதிலேயே விண்வெளி வீரராக வேண்டும் என்ற இலக்கு மனதில் பதிந்துவிட்டது. சண்டிகரில் உள்ள பஞ்சாப் பொறியியல் கல்லூரியில் விமானப் பொறியியல் பயில் விரும்பினார். ஆனால் அது அப்போது ஆண்களின் படிப்பாக இருந்ததால் பெற்றோர் அனுமதிக்கவில்லை என்றாலும் கல்பனாவின் பிடிவாதத்தை அவர்களால் மாற்ற முடியவில்லை அந்தக் கல்லூரியில் பொறியியல் பட்டம் பெற்ற கல்பனாவை 1982 ல் அமெரிக்கா வரவேற்றது. 1984 ஆம் ஆண்டு டெக்காஸ் விண்வெளி பொறியியல் துறையில் முதுகலைப் பட்டம் பெற்றார் கல்பனா. நான்கு ஆண்டுகள் கழித்துக் கொலோரடோ பல்கலைக்கழகத்தில் விமானப் பொறியியல் துறையில் முனைவர் பட்டம் பெற்றார்.

கனவு நனவானது :
1993 ஆம் ஆண்டு ஒரு தனியார் நிறுவனத்தில் ஆய்வு விஞ்ஞானியாகச் சேர்ந்தார். அதற்கு அடுத்த ஆண்டே அவரின் விண்வெளி வீரர் கனவு நனவாகத் தொடங்கியது. நாஸாவில் விண்வெளி வீரர் பயிற்சி பெறுவதற்கு விண்ணப்பித்திருந்த சுமார் 3000 பேரில் ஆறு பேர் மட்டும் தேர்வானார்கள். அவர்களுள் கல்பனாவும் ஒருவர். ஜான்ஸன் விண்வெளி தளத்தில் பல்வேறு உடல் மருத்துவ பரிசோதனைகள், கடுமையான நேர்காணல்கள் ஆகியவற்றைக் கடந்து வெற்றிகரமாகத் தேர்ச்சிப் பட்டியலில் இடம் பிடித்தார்.

முதல் பயணம் :
1995 ஆம் ஆண்டு பயிற்சிகள் முடிந்து விண்வெளி வீராங்கனையாகத் தகுதி பெற்ற கல்பனாவின் முதல் விண்வெளிப் பயணம் 1997 ஆம் ஆண்டு நவம்பர் 19 ஆம் தேதி நிகழ்ந்தது. ஆறு வீரர்களுடன் கொலம்பிய விண்வெளி ஊர்தியான எஸ்.டி.எஸ் 87-ல் பயணம் செய்வதற்குத் தேர்வு செய்யப்பட்ட கல்பனாவுக்கு அதில் ஆராய்ச்சி குறித்த முக்கியப் பொறுப்புகளும் தரப்பட்டன. பூமியை சுமார் 252 தடவை சுற்றிய அந்த விண்கலத்தில் சுமார் 10 மில்லியன் மைல் தொலைவு பயணித்த கல்பனா சகவிண்வெளி வீரர்களுடன் வெற்றிகரமாகப் பூமிக்குத் திருப்பினார்.

கல்பனாவின் ஆர்வம் :
விமானம் மற்றும் கிளைடர்களை ஓட்டக் கற்றுக் கொடுக்க தகுதிச் சான்றிதழ் பெற்றதோடு மட்டுமல்லாமல் ஓட்டவும் அனுமதி பெற்றிருந்தார் கல்பனா. கொலம்பியா விண்வெளிப் பயணம் மேற்கொள்ளும் முன் கல்பனா முழுமனதோடு ஒரு காரியத்தில் ஈடுபடுபவர்களைப் பார்த்தால் எனக்கும் ஊக்கம் ஏற்படும் என்றார். ஆராய்ச்சியாளர்களின் சுயசரிதைகளை விரும்பிப் படிக்கும் அவர், தன் ஆசிரியர்களுக்கு எப்போதும் தன் நன்றிகளைத் தெரிவித்தபடி இருப்பார்.

இரண்டாம் பயணம் :
முதல் பயணத்தை வெற்றிகரமாக முடித்த கல்பனா. பிறகு அதே கொலம்பியா விண்கலத்தில் 2003 ஜனவரி 16 ஆம் தேதி ஆறு விண்வெளி வீரர்களுடன் மீண்டும் விண்ணுக்குப் பயணித்தார். பல விண்வெளி ஆராய்ச்சிகளை மேற்கொண்ட அவர்கள் பயணத்தை முடித்துக் கொண்டு வெற்றிகரமாக திட்டமிட்டபடி பிப்ரவரி ஒன்றாம் தேதி தரையிறங்க ஆயத்தமானார்கள். பூமியைத் தொட 16 நிமிடங்களே இருந்த நிலையில் அந்த சோக சம்பவம் நிகழ்ந்தது. கொலம்பியா விண்கலம் வெடித்துச் சிதறியது. 41 வயது கல்பனா தேவதையாக விண்ணில் கலந்தார்.

முடிவுரை :
இந்திய அரசு கல்பனா சாவ்லாவின் சாதனைகளை நினைவு கூறும் வகையில் 2011 ஆம் ஆண்டு முதல் ஆண்டுதோறும் வீரதீரச் சாதனைகள் புரிந்த பெண்களுக்குக் கல்பனா சாவ்லா விருது வழங்கி கவுரவப்படுத்துகிறது. அந்த விண்வெளி தேவதை நம் வீட்டின் பல குட்டி தேவதைகளுக்குப் பிரியமான.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and b are respectively ……………. .
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6) .
Answer:
(1) (8,6)

Question 2.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117, then the value of m is ……………. .
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 3.
The next term ol the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is …………… .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square ……………… .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
Find the matrix x if 2x + \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 7 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 7 \\ 9 & 5 \end{matrix} \right] \) ……………. .
(1) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 & -2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(3) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(4) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 6.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand vertically on a plane ground if the distance between their feet is 12m, what is the distance between their tops?
(1) 13 m
(2) 14 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 12.8 m
Answer:
(1) 13 m

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3,p) and (6, 6) are collinear then the value of p is ……………… .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
The value of sin²θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) tan²θ
(2) 1
(3) cot²θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 9.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ……………… .
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times

Question 10.
Standard deviation of a collection of data is 2√2. If each value is multiplied by 3, then the standard deviation of the new data is
……………… .
(1) √l2
(2) 4√2
(3) 6√2
(4) 9√2
Answer:
(3) 6√2

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at unit place of the page number chosen’ is less than 7 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 12.
If f = {(6, 3), (8, 9), (5, 3), (-1, 6)} then the pre-images of 3 are ……………… .
(1) 5 and -1
(2) 6 and 8
(3) 8 and -1
(4) 6 and 5
Answer:
(4) 6 and 5

Question 13.
If a and p are the zeros 6f the polynomial P(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)

Question 14.
The probability that a-leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(3) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A relation “f” is defined by f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2, -1, 0, 3}
(i) List the elements of f
(ii) If f a function?
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2,-1, 0, 3}
(i) f(-2) = (-2)² – 2 = 2 ; f(-1) = (-1)² – 2 = -1
f(0) = (0)² – 2 = -2 ; f(3) = (3)² – 2 = 7
Therefore, f = {(-2,2), (-1,-1), (0,-2), (3,7)}

(ii) We note that each element in the domain of f has a unique image.
Therefore f is a function.

Question 16.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find fofof
Answer:
fofof = fof [(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f (x² – 1)² – 1
= f (x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

Question 17.
What is the smallest number that when divided by three numbers such as 35, 56 and 91 leaves remainder 7 in each case?
Answer:
Find the L.C.M of 35, 56, and 91
35 = 5 × 7
56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7
91 = 7 × 13
L.C.M = 2³ × 5 × 7 × 13
= 3640
Since it leaves remainder 7
The required number = 3640 + 7 = 3647
∴ The smallest number is 3647

Question 18.
In a G.P. 729, 243, 81,… find t₇.
Answer:
The G.P. is 729,243,81, …………..
a = 729; r = \(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{243}{729}=\frac{81}{243}=\frac{27}{81}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
t_n = a r^{n – 1}
t₇ = 729 \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{7-1}\)
= \(729\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{6}=729 \times \frac{1}{729}=1\)
∴ The 7^th term is 1

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\)
Answer:

The expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\) is undefined
when t² – 5t + 6 = 0
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0
t – 3 = 0 or t – 2 = 0
t = 3 or t = 2
The excluded values are 2 and 3

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² -2ab -2bc + 2ac]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
construct a 3 x 3 matrix whose elements are given by a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)
Answer:
a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)

Question 22.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that area of ∆ABC is 9cm² and the area of ∆DEF is 16 cm² and BC = 2.1 cm. Find the length of EF.
Answer:
Given ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF

\(\frac{9}{16}=\frac{(2.1)^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
\(\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\right)^{2}\)
\(\frac{3}{4}=\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\)
EF = \(\frac{4 \times 2.1}{3}\) = 2.8 cm
Length of EF = 2.8 cm

Question 23.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices (p,p), (5,6), (5, -2) is 32 sq.units. Find the value of ‘p’.
Answer:
Let the vertices be A (p,p), B (5, 6) and C (5, -2)
Area of a triangle = 32 sq. units
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃] = 32

\(\frac{1}{2}\)[(6p – 10 + 5p) – (5p + 30 – 2p)] = 32
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[11p – 10 – 3p – 30] = 32
11p – 10 – 3p – 30 = 64
8p – 40 = 64
8p = 64 + 40 ⇒ 8p = 104
p = \(\frac{104}{8}\) = 13
The value of p = 13

Question 24.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 √3 m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 √3 m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ

In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac{A C}{A B}\)
\(=\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 25.
Find the diameter of a sphere whose surface area is 154m².
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the sphere.
Given that, surface area of sphere = 154 m²
4πr² = 154
4 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
gives r² = \(154 \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{7}{22}\)
hence, r² = \(\frac{49}{4}\) we get r = \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Therefore, diameter is 7m

Question 26.
Find the standard deviation and the variance of first 23 natural numbers.
Answer:
Standard deviation of first “n” natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{n^{2}-1}{12}}\)
Standard deviation of first 23 natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{23^{2}-1}{12}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{529 – 1}{12}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{528}{12}}\)
= √44 (variance)
Variance = 44 and standard deviation = 6.63

Question 27.
Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + √7 ; 3 – √7
Answer:
Sum of the roots = 3 + √7 + 3 – √7
= 6
Product of the roots = (3 + √7)(3 – √7)
= 9 – 7 = 2 .
The required equation is
x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
x² – (6) x + 2 = 0
x² – 6x + 2 = 0

Question 28.
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
Answer:
Sample space = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
n(S) = 4
Let A be the event of getting atmost one head A = {HT, TH, TT}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)
The probability is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.

Answer:
f(x) = 6x + 1 ; x = {-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1}
f(x) = 5x² – 1 ; x = {2,3,4,5}
f(x) = 3x – 4; x = {6,7,8,9}

(i) f(-3) + f(2)
f(x) = 6x+1
f(3) = 6(-3) + 1 = -18 + 1 = -17
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(2) = 5(2)² – 1 = 20 – 1 = 19
f(-3) + f(2) = -17 + 19 = 2

(ii) f(7) – f(1)
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(7) = 3(7) – 4= 21 – 4 = 17
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(1) = 6(1)+ 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
f(7) – f(1) = 17 – 7
= 10

(iii) 2f(4) + f(8)
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 15(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(8) = 3(8) – 4 = 24 – 4 = 20
2f(4) + f(8) = 2(79) + 20
= 158 + 20 .
= 178

(iv) \(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\)
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(6) = 3(6) – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 5(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 6x+1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
\(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\) = \(\frac{2(-11)-14}{79-11}\)
= \(\frac{-22-14}{68}=\frac{-36}{68}=\frac{-9}{17}\)

Question 30.
If f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x and h(x) = 3x Prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x, h(x) = 3x
Now, (fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 – 2x) = 2(1 – 2x) + 3 = 5 – 4x
Then, (fog)oh(x) = (fog) (h(x)) = (fog)(3x) = 5 – 4(3x) = 5 – 12x ….(1)
(goh)(x) = g(h(x)) = g(3x) = 1 – 2(3x) = 1 – 6x
So, fo (goh)(x) = f(1 – 6x) = 2(1 – 6x) + 3 = 5 – 12x …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
If S₁ , S₂ , S₃, ……. S_mare the sums of n terms of m A.P.,s whose first terms are 1,2, 3, …….. m and whose common differences are 1,3,5,….(2m – 1) respectively, then show that (S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …….. + Sm) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mn(mn + 1)
Answer:
First terms of an A.P and 2, 3 ……….. m
The common difference are 1, 3, 5 , ………….. (2m – 1)
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2a+(n – 1)d]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2+(n – 1)(1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2 + n – 1]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1] …….. (1)
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(2) + (n – 1)3]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[4 + 3n – 3]
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n – 2) ……. (2)
S₃ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(3) + (n – 1)5]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[6 + 5n – 5}
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[5n + 1] …….. (3)
S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + (n – 1)(2m – 1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + 2mn – n – m – 2m + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
By adding (1) (2) (3) we get
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……….. + S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(5n + 1)+ …………+ \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1 + 3n + 1 + 5n + 1 …………… + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 3n + 5n + ………….. + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n\((\frac { m }{ 2 })\)(2m) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[nm² + m]
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……… + S_m = \(\frac { mn }{ 2 }\)[nm + 1]

Hint:
1 + 3 + 5 + …….. + 2m – 1
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(a + 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (1 + 2m – 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (2m)

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ………. to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. If 4 years ago Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Answer:
Let the age of Vani be”x” years
Vani father age = “y” years
Vani grand father = “z” years .
By the given first condition.
\(\frac{x+y+z}{3}=53\)
x + y + z = 159 ….(1)
By the given 2^nd condition.
\(\frac{1}{2} z+\frac{1}{3} y+\frac{1}{4} x=65\)
Multiply by 12
6z + 4y + 3x = 780 .
3x + 4y + 6z = 780 ….(2)
By the given 3rd condition
z – 4 = 4 (x – 4) ⇒ z – 4 = 4x – 16
– 4x + z = – 16 + 4
4x – z = 12 ….(3)

Substitute the value of x = 24 in (3)
4 (24) – z = 12
96 – z = 12
– z = 12 – 96
z = 84

Substitute the value of x = 24 and
z = 84 in (1)
24 + y + 84 = 159
y + 108 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51

Vani age = 24 years
Vani’s father age = 51 years
Vani grand father age = 84 years

Question 34.
Find the values of a and b if the following polynomials are perfect squares. ax⁴ + bx³ + 361x² + 220.x + 100
Answer:
Re-arrange the order we get .
100 + 220x + 361x² + by³ + ax⁴

Since it is a perfect square
b – 264 = 0
b = 264

a – 144 = 0
a = 144

∴ The value of a = 144 and b = 264

Question 35.
State and prove Pythagoras Theorem
Answer:
Statement
In a right angle triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, ∠A = 90°.
To prove : AB² + AC² = BC²
Construction : Draw AD ⊥ BC

Adding (1) and (2) we get
AB² + AC² = BC × BD + BC × DC
= BC (BD + DC) = BC × BC
AB² + AC² = BC²
Hence the theorem is proved.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the median and altitude of AABC through A where the vertices are A(6, 2), B(-5, -1) and C(1,9).
Answer:
(i) To find median

Mid point of BC(D) = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-5+1}{2}, \frac{-1+9}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-4}{2}, \frac{8}{2}\right)\) = (-2, 4)
Equation of the median AD is
\(\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{4-2}=\frac{x-6}{-2-6}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{x-6}{-8}\)
= 2(x – 6) = 8(y – 2)
2x – 12 = -8y + 16
2x + 8y – 28 = 0
(÷by 2) x + 4y – 14 = 0

(ii) To find the equation of the altitude

Slope of BC = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(=\frac{9+1}{1+5}\)
\(=\frac{10}{6}=\frac{5}{3}\)
Slope of the altitude = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)
Equation of the altitude AD is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)(x – 6)
-3 (x – 6) = 5 (y – 2)
-3x + 18 = 5y – 10
-3x – 5y + 18 + 10 = 0
-3x – 5y + 28 =0
3x + 5y – 28 = 0
∴ Equation of the median is x + 4y – 14 = 0
Equation of the altitude is 3x + 57 – 28 = 0

Question 37.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 200 m high, find the distance between the two ships. (√3 = 1.732 )
Answer:
Let AB be the lighthouse. Let C and D be the positions of the two ships.
Then, AB = 200 m
∠ACB = 30°, ∠ADB = 45°
In right triangle BAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{A C}\)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{200}{\mathrm{AC}}\) gives AC = 200√3
In right triangle BAD, tan 45° = \(\frac{A B}{A D}[latex]
1 = [latex]\frac{200}{\mathrm{AD}}\) gives AD = 200
Now, CD = AC + AD = 200√3 + 200 [by (1) and (2)]
CD = 200 (√3 + 1) = 200 × 2.732 = 546.4
Distance between two ships is 546.4 m

Question 38.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{4.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder = π r² h cu. units

Radius of the coin (r) .= \(\frac{1.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Thickness of the coin (h) = 2 mm = \(\frac{2}{10} \mathrm{cm}\)
Volume of one coin = π r² h cu. units


Number of coins = 450

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9, … 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Answer:
Sample space = {3, 5, 7,9 ,… ,35, 37} \(\left[\frac{37-1}{2}=\frac{36}{2}=18\right]\)
n (S) = 18
Let A be the event of getting a multiple of 7
A = {7,21,35}
n(A) = 3
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{18}\)
‘ Let B be the event of getting a prime number
B = {3,5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.29,31.37}
n (B) = 11
p(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{11}{18}\)
A∩B = {7}
n(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{18}\)
p(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
\(=\frac{3}{18}+\frac{11}{18}-\frac{1}{18}=\frac{3+11-1}{18}=\frac{13}{18}\)
Probability of getting a muliple of 7 or a priime number = \(\frac{13}{18}\)

Question 40.
Find X and Y if X – Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 4 & 3 \\ 0 & 6 \end{matrix} \right]\) and X + Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 12 & 13 \\ 6 & 5 \\ 4 & 8 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:

Question 41.
A lead pencil is in the shape of a right circular cylinder. The pencil is 28 cm long and its radius is 3 in. If the led is of radius one mm (1 mm) then find the volume of the wood used in the pencil.
Answer:
Length of a pencil (h) = 28 cm
Radius of a pencil (R) = 3mm \(\left(\frac{3}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Radius of a led (r) = 1 mm \(\left(\frac{1}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Volume of the wood used = Volume of the pencil – Volume of the led
= πh(R² – r²cu. unit

Volume of the wood used in the pencil = 7.04 cm³

Question 42.
The following table shows the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in Mathematics. Calculate the variance and standard deviation.

Answer:
Let us form the following table using the given data.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem. Rough Diagram
Answer:
Radius of the circle = 4.5 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
2. Take a point L on the circle. Through L draw any chord LM.
3. Take a point M distinct from L and N on the circle, so that L, M, N are in anti-clockwise direction. Join LN and NM.
4. Through “L” draw tangent TT’ such that ∠TLM = ∠MNL.
5. TT’ is the required tangent.

[OR]

(b)
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Answer:


Steps of construction

1. Draw a line segment RQ = 5 cm.
2. At R draw RE such that ∠QRE = 40°.
3. At R. draw RF such that ∠ERF = 90°.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisector to RQ, which intersects RF at O and RQ at G.
5. With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
6. From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and S.
7. Join PR and PQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
8. From P draw’ a line PN which is perpendicular to RQ it meets at N.
9. Measure the altitude PN.
   PN = 2.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 and use it to solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0.
Answer:
Step 1: Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 by preparing the table of values as below.

Step 2: To solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0, subtract x² – 6x + 9 = 0 from y = – x² – 4x + 3

The equation y = 2x – 6 represent a straight line. Draw the graph of y = 2x – 6 form in the table of values as below.

The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the Graph of y = x² – 4x + 4
Answer:
Let y = x² – 4x + 4
(i) Prepare the table of values for y = x² – 4x + 4

(ii) Plot the points (-3, 25) (-2, 16) (-1, 9) (0, 4) (1, 1) (2, 0), (3, 1) and (4, 4)
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
(iv) The roots of the equation are the X-coordinates of the intersecting points of the curve with X-axis (2, 0) which is 2.
(v) Since there is only one point of intersection with X-axis (2, 0).
The solution set is 2.
∴ The Quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 has real and equal roots. 1 English Medium – 33″ width=”573″ height=”72″ />
The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.