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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART-I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Let f and g be two functions given by f = {(0,1),(2,0),(3,-4),(4,2),(5,7)} g = {(0,2),(1, 0),(2,4),(-4,2),(7, 0)} then the range of fog is …………. .
(1) {0,2,3,4,5}
(2) {-4,1,0,2,7}
(3) {1,2,3,4,5}
(4) {0,1,2}
Answer:
(4) {0,1,2}

Question 2.
An A.P consists of 31 terms. If its 16^th term is m, then the sum of all the terms of this A.P. is …………. .
(1) 16m
(2) 62 m
(3) 31m
(4) \(\frac{31}{2}\)m
Answer:
(3) 31m

Question 3.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +….+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is …………. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square …………. .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
The number of points of intersection of the quadratic polynomial x² + 4x + 4 with the X axis is …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 0 or 1
(4) 2
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 6.
In the adjacent figure ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥BC then …………. .

(1) BDCD = BC²
(2) AB.AC = BC²
(3) BD.CD = AD²
(4) AB.AC = AD²
Answer:
(3) BDCD = AD²

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3, p) and (6, 6) are collinear, then the value of p is …………. .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) is equal to …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) -1
Answer:
(3) 2

Question 9.
The total surface area of a cylinder whose radius is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of its height is
(1) \(\frac{9 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq. units
(2) 24πh² sq. units
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
(4) \(\frac{56 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units

Question 10.
The mean of 100 observations is 40 and their standard deviation is 3. The sum of squares of all deviations is …………. .
(1) 40000
(2) 160900
(3) 160000
(4) 30000
Answer:
(2) 160900

Question 11.
The probability a red marble selected at random from a jar containing p red, q blue and r green marbles is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)
(2) \(\frac{p}{p+q+r}\)
(3) \(\frac{p+q}{p+q+r}\)
(4) \(\frac{p+r}{p+q+r}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)

Question 12.
If there are 28 relation from a set A = {2,4, 6, 8} to a set B, then the number of elements in B is …………. .
(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 5
(4) 4
Answer:
(1) 7

Question 13.
If a₁ ,a₂, a₃ ……….. are in A.P. such that \(\frac{a_{4}}{a_{7}}=\frac{3}{2}\), then the 13th term of the AP is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(2) 0
(3) 12a₁
(4) 14a₁
Answer:
(2) 0

Question 14.
The X-intercept of the line 2x – 3y + 5 = 0 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(4) \(\frac{-2}{5}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 3 – 2x. Find x such that f(x²) = (f (x))².
Answer:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2 (x²)
= 3 – 2x²
(f(x)² = (3 – 2x)²
= 9 + 4x² – 12x
But f(x²) = (f(x))²
3 – 2x² = 9 + 4x² – 12x
– 2x² – 4x² + 12x + 3 – 9 = 0
– 6x² + 12x – 6 = 0
(÷ by – 6) ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1)(x – 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 or x – 1 = 0
x = 1
The value of x = 1

Question 16.
If f(x) = x² – 1, g(x) = x – 2 find a, if gof (a) = 1.
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 1 ; g(x) = x – 2
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(x² – 1)
= x² – 1 – 2
= x² – 3
given gof (a) = 1
a² – 3 = 1 [But gof(x) = x² – 3]
a² = 4
a = √4 = ± 2
The value of a = ± 2

Question 17.
Find the number of integer solutions of = 1 (mod 15).
Answer:
3x ≡ 1 (mod 15) can be written as
3x – 1 = 15k for some integer k
3x = 15k + 1
x = \(\frac{15 k+1}{3}\) = 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Since 5k is an integer, 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\) cannot be an integer. So there is no integer solution.

Question 18.
Find the rational form of the number \(0 . \overline{123}\)
Answer:
Let x = \(0 . \overline{123}\)
= 0.123123123 ….
= 0.123 + 0.000123 + 000000123 + ….
This is an infinite G.P
Here a = 0.123, r = \(\frac{0.000123}{0.123}\) = 0.001
S_n = \(\frac{a}{1-r}=\frac{0.123}{1-0.001}=\frac{0.123}{0.999}\)
S_n = \(\frac{41}{333}\)

Question 19.
Find the GCD of 12(x⁴ – x³), 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²) whose LCM is 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)
Answer:

p(x) = 12(x⁴ – x³)
= 12x³(x – 1)
g(x) = 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²)
= 8x²(x² – 3x + 2)
= 8x²(x – 2) (x – 1)
L.C.M = 24x³(x – 1) (x – 2)
G.C.D = \(\frac{p(x) \times g(x)}{\text { L.C.M. }}\)
= \(\frac{12 x^{3}(x-1) \times 8 x^{2}(x-2)(x-1)}{24 x^{3}(x-1)(x-2)}\)
G.C.D = 4x²(x – 1)

Question 20.
Find the square root of the polynomial x⁴ – 12x³ + 42x² – 36x + 9 by division method
Answer:

\(\sqrt{x^{4}-12 x^{3}+42 x^{2}-36 x+9}\) = |x² – 6x + 3|

Question 21.
Write expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) interms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
In the given diagram show that ∆PST ~ ∆PQR
Answer:

In ∆PST and ∆PQR,
\(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{2}{2+1}=\frac{2}{3}\) , \(\frac{P T}{P R}=\frac{4}{4+2}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Thus, \(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{P T}{P R}\) and ∠P is common
Therefore, by SAS similarity,
∆PST ~ ∆PQR

Question 23.
Find the value of for which the given points (2,3), (4, a) and (6, -3) are collinear.
Answer:
Let the points be A (2, 3), B(4, a) and C(6, -3).
Since the given points are collinear.
Area of a triangle =0

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₁ + x₂y₂ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃)] = 0
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(2a – 12 + 18) – (12 + 6a – 6)] = 0
2a + 6 – (6 + 6a) = 0
2a + 6 – 6 – 6a = 0
-4 a = 0 ⇒ a = \(\frac { 0 }{ 4 }\) = 0
The value of a = 0

Question 24.
The horizontal distance between two buildings is 70 m. The angle of depression of the top of the first building when seen from the top of the second building is 45°. If the height of the second building is 120 m, find the height of the first building.
Answer:

Let the height of the first building AD be “x” m
∴ EC = 120 – x
In the right ∆ CDE,
tan 45° = \(\frac{C E}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{120-x}{70}\) ⇒ 70 = 120 – x
x = 50m
∴ The height of the first building is 50 m

Question 25.
If the coefficient of variation of a collection of data is 57 and its standard deviation is 6,84, then find the mean.
Answer:
Given coefficient of variation =57
Standard deviation (σ) = 6.84
C.V = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}}\)
57 = \(\frac{6.84}{\bar{x}} \times 100\)
x̄ = \(\frac{6.84}{57} \times 100=\frac{684}{57}=12\)
∴ Arithmetic mean x̄ = 12

Question 26.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 2:7. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 352 sq.cm. Find its radius.
Answer:
Let the radius be “2x” and the height be “7x”
Curved surface area = 352cm²
2πrh = 352
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2x × 7x = 352
44 × 2x² = 352
x² = \(\frac{352}{44 \times 2}=\frac{176}{44}=4\)
x = √4 = 2
Radius of the cylinder (2 × 2) = 4 cm

Question 27.
A number is selected at random from integers 1 to 100. Find the probability that it is not a perfect cube.
Answer:
Sample space = {1, 2, 3,…. 100}
n(S) = 100
Let A be the event of getting a perfect cube.
A = (1, 8, 27, 64)
n(A) = 4
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
p(A) = \(\frac{4}{100}=\frac{1}{25}\)
The Probability that the selected number is not a perfect cube is
P(Ā) = 1 – P(A)
= 1 – \(\frac{1}{25}\)
= \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 28.
Find the value of k if 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
Answer:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
\(\left[\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\) = 2025
\(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\) = \(\sqrt{2025}\) = 45
k² + k = 90
K² + k – 90 = 0
(k + 10) (k + 9) = 0
k = -10 or k = 9 k = 9 (k = -10) is not possible
∴ The value of k = 9

Part – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let A = The set of all natural numbers less than 8, B = The set of all prime numbers less than 8, C = The set of even prime number. Verify that A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)
Answer:
A= {1,2, 3, 4, 5,6, 7}; B = {2, 3, 5,7} and C= {2}
B – C = {2, 3, 5, 7} – {2}
= {3,5,7}
A × (B – C) = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {3, 5,7}
= {(1,3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3,3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5,3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} …. (1)

A × B = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {2, 3, 5,7}
= {(1,2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4,2) . (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 2) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)}

A × C = {1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}

(A × B) – (A × C) = {(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 3) 5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

Question 30.
If f(x) = x – 4, g(x) = x² and h(x) = 3x – 5 prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = x – 4; g(x) = x²; h(x) = 3x – 5
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(x²)
= x² – 4
(fog) oh(x) = fog[h(x)]
= fog (3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)² – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 …. (1)
goh(x) = g[h(x)]
= g(3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)²
= 9x² + 25 – 30x
fo(goh) x = f[goh(x)]
= f [9x² – 30x + 25]
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(2)
Fróm (1) and (2) we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
In an A.P., sum of four consecutive terms is 28 and their sum of their squares is 276. Find the four numbers.
Answer:
Let us take the four terms in the form (a – 3d), (a – d), (a + d) and (a + 3d).
Since sum of the four terms is 28,
a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 2%
4a = 28 gives a = 7
Similarly, since sum of their squares is 276,
(a – 3d)² + (a – d)² + (a + d)²+ (a + 3d)² = 276.
a² – 6ad + 9d² + a² – 2ad + d² + a² + 2ad + d² + a² + 6ad + 9d² = 276
4a² + 20d² = 276 ⇒ 4(7)² + 20d² = 276.
d² = 4 gives d = ± 2
If d = 2 then the four numbers are 7 – 3(2), 7 – 2, 7 + 2, 7 + 3(2)
That is the four numbers are 1, 5, 9 and 13.
If a = 7, d = -2 then the four numbers are 13, 9, 5 and 1
Therefore, the four consecutive terms of the A.P. are 1, 5, 9 and 13.

Question 32.
If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P. and x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P. then prove that x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b} = 1.
Answer:
a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P
∴ a = a, b = a + d and c = a + 2d respectively ……. (1)
x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P
∴ x = x, y = xr, z = xr² respectively ….(2)
L.H.S = x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b}
( Substitute the values from 1 and 2 we get)

L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.
Answer:
Let the number of ₹5 currencies be “x”
Let the number of ₹10 currencies be “y”
and the number of ₹20 currencies be “z”
By the given first condition
x + y + z = 12 …….. (1)
By the given second condition
5x + 10y + 20z = 105
x + 2y + 4z = 21 (÷5) …….. (2)
By the given third condition
10x + 5y + 20z = 105 + 20
10x + 5y + 20z = 125
2x + y + 4z = 25 ………. (3)


Substituting the value of x = 7 in (5)
7 – y = 4 ⇒ – y = 4 – 7
-y = -3 ⇒ y = 3
Substituting the value of x = 7, y = 3 in …. (1)
7 + 3 + z = 12
z = 12 – 10 = 2
x = 7,y = 3,z = 2
Number of currencies in ₹ 5 = 7
Number of currencies in ₹ 10 = 3
Number of currencies in ₹ 20 = 2

Question 34.
Find the square root of the expression \(\frac{4 x^{2}}{y^{2}}+\frac{20 x}{y}+13-\frac{30 y}{x}+\frac{9 y^{2}}{x^{2}}\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 3 & 1 \\ -1 & 2 \end{matrix} \right]\) show that A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0
Answer:

L.H.S = R.H.S
∴ A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0

Question 36.
State and prove Thales theorem
Answer:
A straight line drawn parallel to a side of triangle intersecting the other two sides, divides the sides in the same ratio.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, D is a point on AB and E is a point on AC.
To prove : \(\frac{A D}{D B}=\frac{A E}{E C}\)
Construction : Draw a line DE || BC

Question 37.
Find the value of k, if the area of a quadrilateral is 28 sq. units, whose vertices are (-4, -2), (-3, k), (3,-2) and (2,3)
Answer:
Let the vertices A (-4, -2), B (-3, k), C (3, -2) and D (2, 3)
Area of the Quadrilateral = 28 sq. units
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₄ + x₄y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₄y₃ + x₁y₄)] = 28

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 6 + 9 – 4)-(6 + 3k – 4 – 12)] = 28
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 11) – (3k – 10)] = 28
-4k + 11 – 3k + 10 = 56
-7k + 21 = 56
-7k = 56 – 21
-7k = 35 ⇒ 7k = -35
k = \(-\frac{35}{7}\) = -5
∴ The value of k = -5

Question 38.
A bird is sitting on the top of a 80 m high tree. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bird is 45° . The bird flies away horizontally in such away that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 2 seconds, the angle of elevation of the bird from the same point is 30° . Determine the speed at which the bird flies. (√3 = 1.732)
Answer:
A is the initial position of the bird
B is the final position of the bird
Let the speed of the bird be “s”
Distance = speed × time

∴ AB = 2 s
Let CD be x
∴ CE = x + 2s
In the ∆ CDA, tan 45° = \(\frac{A D}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{80}{x}\)
x = 80 …(1)
In the ∆ BCE
tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{BE}}{\mathrm{CE}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{80}{x+2 s}\)
x + 2 s = 80 √3
x = 80 √3 – 2 s …(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
80 √3 – 2 s = 80
80 √3 – 80 = 2s ⇒ 80(√3 – 1) = 2 s
s = \(\frac{80(\sqrt{3}-1)}{2}\) = 40 (1.732 – 1) = 40 × 0. 732 = 29. 28
Speed of the flying bird = 29. 28 m / sec

Question 39.
The total marks scored by two students Sathya and Vidhya in 5 subjects are 460 and 480 with standard deviation 4.6 and 2.4 respectively. Who is more consistent in performance?
Answer:
Total marks scored by Sathya = 460
Total marks scored by Vidhya = 480
Number of subjects = 5
x̄ = 92%
Mean marks of Sathya = \(\frac{460}{5}\)
Given standard deviation, (σ) = 4.6
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{4.6}{92} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{460}{92}=5 \%\)
Mean marks of vidhya = \(\frac{480}{5}\)
Given standard deviation (σ) = 2.4
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{2.4}{96} \times 100=\frac{240}{96}=2.5 \%\)
CV₁ > CV₂
Vidhya coefficient of variation is less than Sathya
∴ Vidhya is more consistent.

Question 40.
The perimeters of the ends of frustum of a cone are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm. If the height of the frustum be 8 cm, find the whole surface area of the frustum. [Use π = 3.14]
Answer:

Let the radii of circular ends be R and r [R > r]
Perimeter of circular ends are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm
∴ 2πR = 207.24 cm
⇒ R = \(\frac{207.24}{2 \pi}=\frac{207.24}{2 \times 3.14}=33\)
⇒ R = 33m and 2 πr = 169.56
⇒ r = \(\frac{169.56}{2 \pi}=\frac{169.56}{2 \times 3.14}=27\)
Slant-height of the frustum
l = \(\sqrt{h^{2}+(\mathrm{R}-r)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{8^{2}+(33-27)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{64+36}\) = 10 cm
The whole surface area of the frustum = π [(R² + r2²) + (R + r) l]
∴ Required whole surface area of the frustum
= 3.14 [33² + 27² + (33 + 27) × 10] cm²
= 3.14 [1089 + 729 + 600] cm²
= 3.14 [2418] cm²
= 7592.52 cm²

Question 41.
A jar contains 54 marbles each of which is blue, green or white. The probability of selecting a blue marbles at random from the jar is \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) and the probability of selecting a green marble at random is \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 }\) . How many white marbles does the jar contain?
Answer:
n(S) =54
Let the number of blue marble, be ‘x’
Let A be the event of getting blue marbles
n(A) = x
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{1}{3}=\frac{x}{54}\)
3x = 54
x = \(\frac{54}{3}\) = 18
Number of blue marble is 18. Let the number of green marble be “y”. Let B be the event of getting green marbles.

P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{4}{9}=\frac{y}{54}\)
9y = 54 × 4
y = \(\frac{54 \times 4}{9}\) = 24
Blue marbles + green marbles + white marbles = 54
18 + 24 + white marbles = 54
∴ Number of white marbles = 54 – 42 = 12
The jar contain 12 white marbles.

Question 42.
One – fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd had gone to mountain and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river. Find the total number of camels.
Answer:
Le the total number of camels be ‘x’
Number of camels seen in the forest = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\)
Number of camels gone to the mountain = 2√x
Number of camels on the bank of river = 15
Total number of camels = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
x = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
4x = x + 8√x + 60 (muliply by 4)
3x – 8√x – 60 = 0
Let x = a²
3a² – 8√a² – 60 = 0
3a² – 8a – 6 = 0
3a (a – 6) + 10(a – 6) = 0
(3a + 10) (a – 6) = 0
3a + 10 = 0 or a – 6 = 0
a = \(\frac{-10}{3}\) or a = 6
x = \(\left(\frac{-10}{3}\right)^{2}\) or 6²(x = a²)
x = \(\frac{100}{9}\) (or) 36
Number of camels can-not be a fraction
∴ Number of camels = 36

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides equal to \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR
Answer:
Given a triangle PQR, we are required to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR.

Steps of construction
1. Construct a ∆PQR with any measurement.
2. Draw a ray QX making an acute angle with QR on the side opposite to vertex P.
3. Locate 7 points (the greater of 7 and 4 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\))
Q₁, Q₂, Q₃, Q₄, Q₅, Q₆ and Q₇ on QX so that
QQ₁ = Q₁Q₂ = Q₂Q₃ = Q₃Q₄= Q₄Q₅ = Q₅Q₆ = Q₆Q₇
4. Join Q₄ (the 4^th point, 4 being smaller of 4 and 7 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\)) to R and draw a line through Q₇ parallel to Q₄ R, intersecting the extended line segment QR at R’.
5. Draw a line through R’ parallel to RP intersecting the extended line segment QP at P’ Then ∆P’QR’ is the required triangle each of whose sides is seven-fourths of the corresponding sides of ∆PQR.

[OR]

(b) Take a point which is 11 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 4 cm and draw the two tangents to the circle from that point.
Answer:
Radius = 4 cm; Distance 11 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
2. Draw a line OP = 11 cm.
3. Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle A and B.
5. Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents.
   This the length of the tangents PA = PB = 10.2 cm

Verification: In the right angle triangle OAP
PA² = OP² – OA²
= 11² – 4² = 121 – 16= 105
PA = √105 = 10.2 cm
Length of the tangents = 10.2 cm

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0.
Answer:
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 preparing the table of values as below.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 6), (-3, 2), (-2, 0), (-1, 0), (0, 2), (1, 6), (2, 12), (3, 20) (4, 30).
(iii) To solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0 subtract x² + 2x + 1 = 0 from y = x² + 3x + 2

(iv) Draw the graph of y = x +1 from the table

The equation y = x + 1 represents straight line.
This line intersect the curve at only one point (-1, 0). The solution set is (-1).

[OR]

(b) (2x – 3) (x + 2) = 0
y = (2x – 3) (x + 2)
= 2x² + 4x – 3x – 6
= 2x² + x – 6
(i) Prepare a table of values for y from x – 4 to 4

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 22) (-3, 9) (-2, 0) (-1, -5) (0, -6) (1,-3), (2, 4), (3, 15) and (4, 30).
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
The curve intersect the X – axis at (-2, 0) and \(\left(1 \frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)
∴ The solution set is \(\left(-2,1 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(iv) Since there are two points of intersection with X – axis, the quadratic equation has real and un – equal roots.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Inertia of a body depends on ______.
(a) weight of the object
(b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
(c) mass of the object
(d) Both a & b
Answer:
(c) mass of the object

Question 2.
Magnification of a convex lens is _______.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 3.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles _______.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
(d) do not vibrate
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 4.
The number of neutrons is ₈O¹⁶ is _______.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 24
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon-di-oxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 6.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ______.
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(c) light

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) phloem
(b) epidermis
(c) cortex
(d) xylem
Answer:
(d) xylem

Question 8.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31^st
(b) April 22^nd
(c) June 6^th
(d) October 2^nd
Answer:
(a) May 31^st

Question 9.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

Question 10.
The phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidised to release ethyl alcohol is
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Fermentation
Answer:
(d) Fermentation

Question 11.
Biogenetic law states that ______.
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 12.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 14.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

Mass	Weight
1. The quantity of matter contained in the body	1. The gravitation force exerted on it due to the Earth’s gravity alone.
2. Scalar quantity	2. Vector quantity
3. Unit: kg	3. Unit: N
4. Constant at all the places	4. Variable with respect to gravity.

Question 15.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red light is able to travel the longest distance through fog, rain etc.

Question 16.
Define volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume percentage is defined as the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the solution.

Question 17.
Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
Answer:
Heterodiatomic molecules -E.g: HCl, NaCl.

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)

Question 19.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:

Endocrine	Exocrine
1. Secretion of endocrines are hormones	1. Secretion of exocrines are enzymes
2. Endocrine glands do not have specific duct hence ductless gland.	2. Exocrine glands have specific duct to carry their secretions.
3. Eg. Pituitary gland	3. Eg. Salivary gland

Question 20.
Identify the parts A,B,C and D.
Answer:

A – Exine, B – Intine, C – Generative cell, D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 21.
Define Cancer.
Answer:
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissue forming a tumor or neoplasm: It is a heterogenous group of cells that do not respond to the normal cell division.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductor is 110 V. How much work moving 5C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Given, V = 110 V , Charge q = 5C
V = \(\frac{W}{q}\)
W = V × q
W = 110 × 5 = 550 J
∴ Work done W = 550 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Describe the rocket propulsion.
Answer:

• Propulsion of rockets is based on the law of conservation of linear momentum as well as Newton’s III law of motion.
• Rockets are filled with a fuel (either liquid or solid) in the propellant tank. When the rocket is fired, this fuel is burnt and a hot gas is ejected with a high speed from the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge momentum.
• To balance this momentum, an equal and opposite reaction force is produced in the combustion chamber, which makes the rocket project forward.
• While in motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out.
• Since, there is no net external force acting on it, the linear momentum of the system is conserved.
• The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in the gradual increase in velocity of the rocket.
• At one stage, it reaches a velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from the gravitational pull of the Earth. This velocity is called escape velocity.

Question 24.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as,

1. Elastic scattering
2. Inelastic scattering

1. Elastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

2. Inelastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.
The nature and size of the scattered results in different types of scattering. They are

• Raylight scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 25.
(a) Calculate the current and the resistance of a 100 W, 200 V electric bulb in an electric circuit.
Answer:
Given, P = 100 W, V = 200 V
Power P = VI

(b) What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

• The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
• The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
• Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 26.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
Answer:
A soap molecule contains two chemically distinct parts that interact differently with water. It has one polar end, which is a short head with a carboxylate group (-COONa) and one nonpolar end having the long tail made of the hydrocarbon chain.

The polar end is hydrophilic (Water loving) in nature and this end is attracted towards water. The non-polar end is hydrophobic (Water hating) in nature and it is attracted towards dirt or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water. Thus, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt and the hydrophilic part makes the entire molecule soluble in water.

When a soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ‘micelles’. Their long hydrocarbon chains attach themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus, the dirt is washed away with the soap.

Question 27.
(a) Explain the various types of binary solutions based on the physical states of solute and solvent table.
Answer:

(b) State Henry’s law?
Answer:
Henry’s law states that, the solubility of a gas in a liquid, is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at a definite temperature.

Question 28.
(a) Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes which required conscious training effort.

(b) How many cranial nerves and spinal nerves are present in man?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves are present in man.

Question 29.
(a) What are Allosomes?
Answer:
Allosomes are chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. There are two types of sex chromosomes. X and Y chromosomes. Human male have one X chromosome and one Y chromosomes and the human female have two X chromosomes.

(b) What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The opening and closing of stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the guard cells. When the water enters into the guard cells, they become turgid and the stomata open. When guard cells lose water, it becomes flaccid and the stomata closes.

Question 30.
(a) Draw and label the structure of oxysomes
Answer:

(b) What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)

Question 31.
(a) Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Obesity is a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis. Hence dietary restriction is recommended for an obese individual.

(b) Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.

Question 32.
(a) State Newton’s third law of motion and explain with examples:
Answer:
Law: ‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
They always act on two different bodies’.
F_B = – F_A

Examples:
(i) When birds fly:
Push the air downwards with their wings – Action
Air push the bird upwards – Reaction

(ii) When firing bullet:
Gun recoils backward and the bullet is moving forward – Action
Gun equals this forward action by moving backward – Reaction.

(b) How will you identify saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:

• Take the given sample solution in a test tube.
• Add a few drops of bromine water
• If the given compound is unsaturated, it will decolourise bromine water.
• If the given compound is saturated it will not decolourise bromine water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering, S ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

(ii) Explain the construction and working of a ‘compound microscope’.
Answer:
Construction
A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:
(i) The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u >fo).
(ii) A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
(iii) This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece.
(iv) This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
(v) Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

[OR]

(b) (i) A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 1:2)
Answer:
Given: Let m_b , m_t are the masses of truck and bike.
mt = 4m_b ………(1)

(ii) Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (v₀ = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.16 T)
T = 46°C, v₀ =331 ms^-1
_VT = 331 +(0.61 × 46)
= 331 +28.06
V_T = 359.06 ms^-1

Question 34.
(a) (i) A solution is prepared by dissolving 15 g of NaCl in 85 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Answer:
Mass of solute = 15 g
Mass of solvent = 85 g

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.001 M NaOH.
Answer:
[OH^–] = Normality = Molarity × acidity
= 0.001 × 1 = 1 × 10^-3
pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–]
= -log₁₀ ¹× [10^-3]
= -log ¹– log₁₀ 10^-3
= 0 – (-3 log₁₀ ¹⁰)
pOH = 3
pH + pOH = 14 .
pH = 14 – pOH= 14 – 3
pH = 11

(iii) Calculate the mass of 0.01 mole of H₂O.
Answer:
n = 0.01 mole; μ = 18 g mol^-1; W = ?
W = n × M
= 0.01 × 18 = 0.18 g

[OR]

(b) (i) In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Answer:
Difference between hygroscopic and deliquescent substances is in the extent to which each material can absorb moisture. This is because both of these terms are very much related to each other and they refer to the property of observing and the retention of moisture from the air. However, they differ in the extent of absorption of moisture where hygroscopic materials absorb moisture but not the extent the original substance dissolves in it, which is the casewith deliquescence. Therefore deliquescence can be regarded as an extreme condition of hygroscopic activity.

Hygroscopic substances	Deliquescence substance
1. When exposed to the atmosphere at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and do not dissolve.	1. When exposed to the atmospheric air at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and dissolve.
2. Hygroscopic substances do not change its physical state on exposure to air.	2. Deliquescent substances change its physical state on exposure to air.
3. Hygroscopic substances may be amorphous solids or liquids.	3. Deliquescent substances are crystalline solids.

(ii) Define solubility.
Answer:
It is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth, inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

(ii) How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

Binary fission	Multiple fission
1. Binary fission is the splitting of a cell into two daughter cell	1. Multiple fission is splitting of a parent cell into two or more daughter cells.
2. It takes place in favourable conditions. Eg. Amoeba	2. It takes place in unfavourable conditions. Eg. Plasmodium

(iii) What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:
(1) Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.

(2) Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.

(3) Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.

(4) Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit?
Answer:

The male reproductive system of rabbit consists of a pair of testes which are ovoid in shape. Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules.
This network of tubules lead into Cowper s glands a coiled tubule called epididymis, Perineal glands which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens.

The vas deferens join in the urethra just below the urinary bladder. The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands namely prostate gland, cowper’s gland and perineal gland. Their secretions are involved in reproduction.

(ii) What are vestigeal organs?
Answer:
The degenerated and non functional organs of animals are called Vestigeal organs. Eg. Vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane, caudal vertebra, coccyx.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Hernan Cortes

Question 3.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1927
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 4.
Who was the first Palayakkarar to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veera Pandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W.Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 6.
The North-South extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,933 km
(c) 3,214 km
(d) 2,814 km
Answer:
(c) 3,214 km

Question 7.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Cotton
(b) rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 8.
The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Question 9.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayar
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 10.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 11.
How many times has the preamble to the constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) Once

Question 12.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 13.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) Wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 14.
Tiruppur is known for ………………
(a) Leather tanning
(b) lock making
(c) knit wear
(d) Agro – Processing
Answer:
(c) knit wear

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
How did Great Depression impact on the Indian agriculture?
Answer:

• The Great Depression had a deep impact on the Indian agriculture. The value of farm produce, declined by half, while the land rent to be paid by the peasant, remained unchanged.
• In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.

Question 16.
How was the Cuban Missile crisis defused?
Answer:

• The Cuban Missile crisis was a confrontation between the United States and the Soviet Union which initiated by the American discovery of Soviet Ballistic missile deployment in Cuba.
• Finally, the Soviet President Nikita Khrushchev agreed to withdraw the missiles and thus the missile crisis was defused.

Question 17.
Explain the concept of constructive swadeshi?
Answer:
Under Constructive Swadeshi the self-defeating modest approach of moderates was rejected and self-help was focused on through swadeshi industries, national schools, arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the village. It was totally non-political in nature.

Question 18.
What do you know of the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:
A Gurukulam was established in Cheranmahadevi by V. V. S. Iyer with the financial support of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste. Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately.

Periyar was disturbed to see the discrimination. He questioned the practice, and severely criticised it. Despite his objections the Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam. This disappointed Periyar.

Question 19.
Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshaweep.
Answer:

• It lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala.
• This group of islands is composed of small coral islands.
• Earlier they were known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive. In 1973, these were named as Lakshadweep.
• It covers small area of 32 sq.km. Kavaratti island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.
• This island group has great diversity of flora and fauna. The Pitti island which is uninhabited, has a bird sanctuary.

Question 20.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:
The major inland water ways of India are:

• National Waterway 1: It extends between Haldia and Allahabad, measures 1620 km and includes the stretches of the Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hooghly river system.
• National Waterway 2: This waterway includes the stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya a distance of 891 km.
• National Waterway 3: This waterway extends between Kollam and Kottappuram in the state of Kerala. It is the first national waterway in the country with 24 hour navigation facilities along its entire stretch of 205 km.

Question 21.
Name the major Islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island Grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 22.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports:

• Chennai International Airport
• Coimbatore International Airport
• Madurai International Airport
• Tiruchirapalli International Airport

Domestic Airports:

• Tuticorin and Salem

Sea Port: Major Sea Ports are:

• Chennai
• Ennore
• Tuticorin

Intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports.

Question 23.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 24.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

1. Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
2. Mutual non-interference
3. Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
4. Peaceful co-existence.

Question 25.
Define National Income.
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. National Income is also known as Gross National Product or GNP or National Dividend.

Question 26.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of goods and services, technology, capital and even labour or human capital.

Question 27.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy. The revenue of the government depends upon direct and indirect taxes.

Question 28.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called a natural resource.
Types of Natural Resources are:

1. Renewable and
2. Non – renewable resources.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) …………..was humiliated by the Treaty of Versailles.
(ii) …………………..makes our toothpaste white.
(iii) The Dutch captured pondicherry in ………………..
(iv) ………………are very important in the modem economic activities of man.
(v) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river………….
Answers
(i) Germany
(ii) Titanium Oxide
(iii) 1693
(iv) Industries
(v)Thenpennai

Question 30.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 31.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) GMT and 1ST.
(ii) Weather and Climate,
Answer:
(a) (i) GMT and IST:
GMT :

• It means Greenwich Mean Time.
• GMT is calculated at 0° longitude.
• It passes through Greenwich.
• It is the World Standard Time.

IST:

• It means Indian Standard Time.
• India’s central meridian is 82° 30’ E longitude.
• It passes through Mirzapur.
• It is the Indian Standard Time.

(ii) Weather and Climate:
Answer:
Weather:

• Weather is a day to day conditions of the atmosphere of any place in regard to temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall.
• It is calculated for a day or a short period of time.

Climate:

• Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.
• To get reliable average of climate, a minimum of 35 years records of weather are necessary.

(b) Give reason: The river Godavari is often referred as Vridha Ganga.
Answer:

• The Godavari is India’s second longest river after Ganga.
• It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
• It covers a large number of states as the Ganga does. Because of its large size and extend among the peninsular rivers, the river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga.

Question 33.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:
(i) After World War II, it was decided to integrate the states of western Europe. One of the chief objectives was to prevent further European wars by ending the rivalry between France and Germany. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed a form called Council of Europe.

(ii) Since the Council of Europe had no real power, a proposal to set up two European organisations were made. Accordingly, the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) were established. Six countries belonging to ECSC signed the treaty of Rome which established the European Economic Community (EEC) or the European Common Market, with headquarters at Brussels.

(iii) The EEC facilitated the elimination of barriers to the movement of goods and services, capital, and labour. It also prohibited public policies or private agreements that restricted market comptetion. Throughout the 1970s and 80s the EEC kept expanding its membership.

(iv) The single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis. It also called for more intensive coordination of foreign policy among member countries. According to the SEA each member was given multiple votes, depending on the countries population.

(v) The Maastricht (Netherlands) Treaty signed on February 7, 1992, created the European Union (EU). Today the European Union has 28 member states, and is functioning from its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.

Question 34.
Eumerate the cause for the failure of the great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative changes:

• Disunity among the Indians was the first and the foremost cause.
• A large number of rulers of the Indian states and the big zamindars did not j oin the movement.
• The rulers of the Indian states, who did not support the movement, remained neutral.
• The educated Indians did not support the movement.
• The telegraph and postal communication proved very helpful to the British for proper military actions and sending their reinforcements at the earliest time.
• The rebellious soldiers were short of modem weapons and other materials of war.
• The rebellious soldiers had to fight with traditional weapons which were no match to modem weapons possessed by the British forces.
• The revolt was not extended beyond North.
• The Indian leaders like Nana Saheb, Tantia Tope, Rani Lakshmi Bai where no match to the British generals.
• The revolt broke out prematurely and the preparations for the revolt remained incomplete.
• The organization and the planning of the rebels was very poor.
• The Indian leaders were brave and selfless but they lacked unity of command and discipline.
• The revolutionaries had no common idea.
• The Muslims wanted to revive Mughal rule and the Hindus wanted to receive the Peshwa Raj.
• The British diplomacy of Divide and Rule prevented most of the Indian rulers to j oin together for a common cause.

Question 35.
Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multi purposes project”.
1. The Bhakra Nangal Project: India’s biggest multipurpose river valley project is ‘Bhakra Nangal Project’. It has been built at a strategic point where two hills on either side of the Sutlej are very close to each other. It is the highest gravity dam in the world. Its length is 226 metres from the riverbed. The canals taken out are 1100 kilometres long. The ‘Nangal Power Plant’ on the Sutlej produces electricity, and serves the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and New Delhi. The distributaries are 8400 km in length. It irrigates an area of 1.4 million hectares.

2. Indira Gandhi Project: This project is an ambitious scheme to bring new areas under irrigation so that more areas could be cultivated. The waters of the River Beas and the Ravi are diverted to the River Sutlej. The ‘Pong’ Dam on the River Beas has been constructed to divert the Beas water into the Sutlej in a regulated manner. So that ‘Rajasthan canal’, the longest irrigation canal in the world can irrigate Gandhi Nagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer districts of North West Rajasthan, (i.e) a part of Thar desert. The main canal now called ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ is 468 km long runs entirely in Rajasthan, Western of Sutlej, Beas and Ravi are now being fully utilised for irrigating thirsty lands of South Western parts of our country.

Question 36.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
• Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
• Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
• Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
• The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
• It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
• Tamil Nadu stands second in area and in production of coffee next to Karnataka.
• Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
• Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu. .
• Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
• Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
• Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 37.
Explain the salient features of the constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 38.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

• India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
• SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
• Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary general of SAARC.
• The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.
• On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting. Afghanistan became its 8th member.
• 18th SAARC summit took place on 26* and 27* of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.
• The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 39.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product or GDP:

• Expenditure Approach – In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
• Income Approach – This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
• Value-added Approach – In the value – added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy.

Question 40.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Status of Nutrition:

• We noted earlier that food security includes nutrition security too. Though our country has reached self-sufficiency in food production, the nutrition status of the population has not seen corresponding levels of improvement.
• In 2015-16, 27% of the rural women and 16% of the urban women (in the age group of 15-49 years) were counted as undernourished or chronically energy deficient by the National Family Health Survey.
• More than half of the women in the reproductive age group (15-49 years) in both rural and urban India were anaemic in 2015-16. As regards children, about 60% of the rural and 56% of the urban children (in the age group of 6-59 months) are counted to be anaemic, in 2015-16.
• About 41 % of the rural and 31 % of urban children are stunted, that is, they are not of the required height in correspondence to their age. Another indicator of nutrition deficiency . among children is “underweight”, which is weight in relation to age.
• In India, in 2015-16, about 20% of children (in the age group of 6-59 months) in rural and urban India are estimated to be underweight.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1934-1961
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) France
(iv) Italy
(v) Greece
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) German Emperor
(i) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
(ii) What was the violent form of Germany called?
(iii) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
(iv) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
(a) German Emperor

(i) The Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.

(ii) It was called Germany’s Kultur.

(iii) The British agreement with France over the latter’s interest in Morocco was consented by Germany. So Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany intentionally recognised the independence of the Sultan and demanded an international conference to decide on the future of Morocco.

(iv) The German colonies in western and eastern Africa were attacked by the Allies. As these
colonies were quite far off from Germany they could not receive any immediate help, and therefore had to surrender to the Allies.

(b) Korean War
(i) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
(ii) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
(iii) How long did the Korean War last?
(iv) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
(b) Korean War
(i) Kim II was the President of North Korea during the Korean War.
(ii) Syngman Rhee
(iii) The Korean War lasted three years
(iv) The human cost was enormous, there were 500,000 western casualties and three times that number on the other side. Approximately two million Korean civilian died.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) The Revolt of 1857
(i) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
(ii) Who was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi?
(iii) Who was the correspondent of London Times to report on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
(iv) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
(c) The Revolt of 1857
(i) Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer.
(ii) The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi.
(iii) The correspondent’s name was William Howard Russell.
(iv) The Queen proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. ‘

(d) Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(i) What is constructive programme?
(ii) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
(iii) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
(iv) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
Answer:
(d) Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(i) Programmes that aimed at Khadi promotion, Hindu-Muslim unity and the abolition of untouchability are called constructive programmes.
(ii) He exhorted the Congressmen to go throughout their districts and spread the message of Khaddar, the message of Hindu-Muslim unity, the message of anti-untouchability and take up in hand the youth of the country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj.
(iii) Gandhi tried to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity to strengthen the cause of Swaraj.
(iv) Gandhiji wanted to abolish untouchability from the country. He undertook an all-India tour called the Harijan Tour. He started the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of discriminations. He worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of liquor among the depressed class. He also launched the Temple Entry Movement.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mumbai
(iii) Rice cultivation area
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Air route from Chennai to Delhi
(vi) Mountain forests
(vii) Direction of South West monsoon
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
Answer:
(i) Gulf of Mannar .
(ii) Manimutharu dam
(iii) Pamban
(iv) Chennai port
(v) Any one international airport
(vi) Graphite ore production centre
(vii) Rubber growing area
(viii) Magnesite ore production centre .

Map for Q 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) France
(iv) Italy
(v) Greece
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mumbai
(Hi) Rice cultivation area
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Air route from Chennai to Delhi
(vi) Mountain forests
(vii) Direction of South West monsoon
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Gulf of Mannar
(ii) Manimutharu dam
(iii) Pamban
(iv) Chennai port
(v) Any one international airport
(vi) Graphite ore production centre
(vii) Rubber growing area
(viii) Magnesite ore production centre
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He felt certain that his wings would never support him.
(a) curtain
(b) screen
(c) sure
(d) unsure
Answer:
(c) sure

Question 2.
‘Nothing,’ he said, gruffly.
(a) sadly
(b) angrily
(c) carefully
(d) grievously
Answer:
(b) angrily

Question 3.
‘We left our ancestral house, twenty- nine years ago.
(a) inherited
(b) anterior
(c) interior
(d) palatial
Answer:
(a) inherited

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It covered the expedition in five legs with stop-overs at four ports.
(a) exposed
(b) shielded
(c) protected
(d) hid
Answer:
(a) exposed

Question 5.
Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) promotional
(d) negative
Answer:
(d) negative

Question 6.
The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) released
(b) conquered
(c) liberated
(d) controlled
Answer:
(c) liberated

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of Chinese from the following.
(a) Chinese
(b) Chineses
(c) Chinesies
(d) Chinesses
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word – ‘legal’.
(a) en-
(b) mis-
(c) il-
(d) dis-
Answer:
(c) il-

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation PSU.
(a) Public Sector University
(b) Public Sector Unit
(c) Public Service Unit
(d) Public Sector Unit
Answer:
(d) Public Sector Unit

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The air hostess instructed the passengers to wear the seat belts during the
(a) take off.
(b) take out
(c) take after
(d) take in
Answer:
(a) take off.

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ wash’ to form a compound word.
(a) clean
(b) gentle
(c) room
(d) out
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from a green
shawl.
(a) across
(b) under
(c) into
(d) inside
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The sun in ………… the west.
(a) sets
(b) is setting
(c) was set
(d) will set
Answer:
(a) sets

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He believed Maede’s men were beginning to retreat.
(a) for
(b) and
(c) but
(d) that
Answer:
(d) that

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any three of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How does Mr. Bodwell react to the shoe thrown by Mrs. Thurber?
Answer:
When the narrator’s mother throws a shoe through the Bodwells’ window and says there are burglars in the house, Bodwell is momentarily contused, thinking that the burglars are in his house, before understanding the truth and alerting the police.

Question 16.
Which skill was considered important in the selection process? How long were they trained to undertake this voyage?
Answer:
Little survival skills they showcased was considered important in the selection process. They were trained for almost three years to undertake this voyage.

Question 17.
What was the condition of the attic?
Answer:
A portion of a wall of the attic had crumbled down. In the whole house, the attic had probably been the worst hit by wind and weather. The floor was strewn with twigs and straw and pigeon droppings.

Question 18.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board—the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) How can one travel on with cheer?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.

Question 20.
“Despite the sighs and groans and moans,
She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!.”
(a) Is she complaining about the problems of life?
(b) Pick out the words that show her grit.
Answer:
(a) No she is not complaining about the problems of life.
(b) The words that show her grit are strong and firm.

Question 21.
“We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit ”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to in first stanza?
(b) Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to the Machines in the first stanza.
(.b) The speakers are the Machines which are the brain children of man and the listeners are the readers of this poem.

Question 22.
“ What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) You know what happened inside that house?
(A) What is meant by ‘bare to the bone’?
Answer:
(a) No one knows what happened inside the house.
(b) ‘Bare to the bone’means there isn’t anything in the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Are you disturbed by listening to hard rock music?
Answer:
Does listening to hard rock music disturb you?

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Shalini said to Mr. Shamrock, “Have you decided to give me the job?”
Answer:
Shalini asked Mr. Shamrock if he had decided to give her the job.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Psst I hissed, in the dark shaking him.
Answer
‘Psst!’ I hissed, in the dark, shaking him.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
As there was a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(а) advertise/ use/ convenient/ telephone/ you/ as/ to/ banking/ your/ service/ and/ easy
(b) afraid/ not/ of/ evidence/ have/1 /features/ seen/ am/1/ either/ yet/ these/ of
Answer:
(a) You advertise your telephone banking service as easy to use and convenient.
(b) I am afraid I have not yet seen evidence of either of these features.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Your neighbour wants to meet his friend in MM Hospital. Write in about 50 words / 5 sentences guiding him with your directions.
Answer:

• Go straight on Rajaji Street and take the first right on Shanthi Colony Main Road.
•  Proceed further and go past the 1st main road on the left and 2nd main road on the right.
  Take the road on the left after the 2nd main road. You will find MM Hospital on the right side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -1

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2×5 = 10]

Question 29.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him.

He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it. It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space.

Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute. The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.

‘’Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way. ”

Question 30.
What makes Culverton Smith fall a prey to Holmes’s trap?
Answer:
Watson goes to Mr. Culverton Smith at 13 Lower Burke Street. He finds it difficult to see his friend dying. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. As soon as Watson explains his errand, Smith’s attitude changes drastically. He persuades him to see Holmes as he is in a dying state. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival as instructed by Holmes. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. Holmes tells Smith that he will forget the happenings of Victor Savage and pleads with him to cure him.

Smith denies and tells Holmes that he should have never crossed his path. Smith sees the little ivory box, which he had sent to Holmes by post containing a sharp spring infected with the illness. Smith pockets it thinking to have removed the only evidence of his crime. He then resolves to stay there and watch Holmes die. However, Holmes asks Smith to turn the gas up full, which Smith does. Inspector Morton enters and Holmes tells Morton to arrest Culverton Smith for the murder of his nephew and also for the attempted murder of Sherlock Holmes.

“You cannot escape from a detective s eye.”

Question 31.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The arrival of the police blows the whole event out of proportion. The cops call out for the front door to be opened, and when no one in the house goes downstairs, they break it in. They go upstairs to find the narrator, still walking around with a towel over him after his bath. The mother insists there were burglars though the police confirms that all doors and windows are bolted from inside. The police set about probing the house, moving furniture and emptying closets.

At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness makes him point out an unusual old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The police are suspicious of the family members’ strange behaviour. When the narrator’s grandfather, sleeping in the attic, makes a slight noise, the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to investigate. The narrator fears trouble because his grandfather feels that the Civil War is in progress.

When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army and calls them deserters. He slaps a policeman sending him to the floor and takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder.He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police feel defeated. They bandage the wounded officer and search the house again.

“Wisdom requires not only the investigation of many things but contemplation of the mystery.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Then the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques.

Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over air the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“Its about women helping women and women doing things together and supporting each other”

Section – II
Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread to eat.

He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant becoming bold by nature. He begged for food and shelter but the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend. So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality.

Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away be the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.

“Accept responsibility for your life.
Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else.”

Question 34.
How are we alike? Explain in context with the poem, ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
Answer:
All human-beings are the same. We have a similar body structure. All of us need air to breathe, sunlight and warmth to live and water for our survival. Our daily routine is also similar. We wake up in the morning, bathe and have breakfast before going on with our daily chores. All of us long for love and affection. We all sleep at night and wake up in the morning.

When our needs and feelings are the same, then isn’t it right to treat all men alike? We should not look down upon anybody on the basis of his/her colour, caste, region or gender. We should treat everyone as our brother and sister. Unfortunately, some self-centred people fight with others and hurt them. They think that others have harmed them. We should not think that other people are ‘others’. They are also our brothers. If they make one mistake, we should forgive them or compromise with them.

“Acceptance for one another is the key to living.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown, ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the third line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Down and crown; joy and boy
(ii) abba is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iii) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘way wind’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street In the city of Never-Are-Satisfied,
The River of Discontent beside.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent runs by the side of their house.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(iv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (tv), (ii)
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(tv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The trembling mother’s voice was full of unselfish love as she gave her last injunction. “Let not thine eyes be blinded, my son.” She said. “The mountain road is full of dangers. LOOK carefully and follow the path which holds the piles of twigs. They will guide you to the familiar path farther down”.

The son’s surprised eyes looked back over the path, then at the poor old, shriveled hands all scratched and soiled by their work of love. His heart broke within and bowing to the ground, he cried aloud: “Oh, honorable mother, your kindness breaks my heart! I will not leave you.

Together we will follow the path of twigs, and together we will die!’’Once more he shouldered his burden (how light it seemed now) and hastened down the path, through the shadows and the moonlight, to the little hut in the valley. Beneath the kitchen floor was a walled closet for food, which was covered and hidden from view. There the son hid his mother, supplying her with everything she needed, continually watching and fearing she would be discovered.
(i) What was the last injunction given by the mother?
(ii) What did the aged mother do for her son’s safe return?
(iii) Why was the aged mother’s hands shriveled?
(iv) What does the poor mother’s kindness do to the poor farmer’s heart?
(v) Where did the son hide his mother in his little hut in the valley?
Answer:
(i) The last injunction given by the mother was that her son’s eyes should not be blinded to the mountain road filled with dangers.
(ii) The aged mother dropped piles of twigs as her son carried her up the mountain so that they would guide him while returning.
(iii) The aged mother’s hands were shriveled, scratched and soiled because of the work of love.
(iv) The poor mother’s kindness broke the poor farmer’s heart.
(v) The son hid his mother beneath the kitchen floor in the walled closet for food which was hidden from view.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Milton Electronic Ltd – 30% discount sale – all electronic appliances – additional warranty – gifts with every purchase.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Catherine/ Shilogaran. You want to share your thoughts to Angeline who was your classmate five years ago when you were in Class V. You have not met after leaving school. Write a letter explaining your life.
Answer:

40, West Street,
10th August, 2020

Dear Angeline,
By the grace of God, we are doing well and I hope the same from you and your family. It’s been five long years since we have met or had the opportunity to write to each other. I recently came to Chennai and happened to see your neighbour during my visit. I asked for your address and here I am wanting to share my days at Salem with a friend whom my miss a lot. My father was transferred to Salem during our summer vacation after our Terminal exams for Std V. Hence I could not inform you in person.

I am now studying in Reva Public School at Srimangalam Colony. The teachers are very cordial and good coaching. I miss the Sports activities here since we do not have a playground. We do have a P.T. period but we just do exercises and running. I miss playing Khokho and Football at Vellore Voorhees school.

This year, being in tenth, we went on an excursion to Hyderabad. It was my first trip out of Tamil Nadu and also my trip without my family. Though I enjoyed the trip with my friends, I did miss my family.

Angelene I hope to receive a letter from you and I am so excited penning a few words to you. Looking forward to hearing from you at the earliest and do convey my regards to uncle and aunty.

Loads of love,
Catherine/Shilogaran

Question 41.
As student Editor, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board inviting articles from the students for your school magazine. You are Caleb/Christabel of Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai.

Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai . NOTICE Articles for School Magazine 20th October, 2020 Students from Std. VI to X are requested to write and submit articles for the school magazine. You can write essays, poems, short stories, snippets, real life incidents, pencil sketches and paintings, Jokes and riddles in English, Tamil and Hindi. Do keep in mind the theme of the year ‘Be the Change to Bring a Change’. Last date for submission of articles to the undersigned is 5th January, 2020. All the club secretaries are requested to submit the activities report too. Caleb / Christabel Student Editors

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:

Family time is very important for family ties to be strengthened. This picture portrays a family where the father relaxes under a beach umbrella and hopes to enjoy the suntan effect. Under another umbrella you can see the mother relaxing with a book in hand. A small little girl enjoys making a sand castle while her brother runs to plunge into the water. You can also see a boy swimming in the water. Birds are hoping to find some food as people are in the seashore.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The term earthquake is applied to any tremor or shaking of the ground. Many earthquakes are so gentle as to pass almost unrecognised, others are sufficiently pronounced to excite general alarm, while some spread enormous destruction. Destructive earthquakes are usually confined to limited regions. The usual phenomena recorded in well-known earthquakes are first a trembling, next one or more severe shocks, and then a trembling which gradually dies away. In most cases, each shock lasts only a few seconds, but the tremblings that follow may continue for days, weeks, or even months.

Noises of various kinds usually accompany an earthquake. They have been likened to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains, or the rumbling of heavy wagons along a road. Such noises are conducted through the ground, or they may travel through the sea or air, and are often heard at great distances from the place where the shock is felt. Some earthquakes, however, are not accompanied by these noises.

At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riobamba in Ecuador on February 4, 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modem times may be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Notes
Title: Earthquake
1. Definition, -tremor/shaking of ground
2. Types of Earthquake
(a) Gentle – unrecognized
(b) Sufficiently pronounced – gentle alarm
(c) Severe – enormous destruction

3. Signs of Occurrence
(a) Trembling – 1 or more severe shocks – trembling
(b) Various Noises
(c) howling of storm

• growling of thunder
• clanking / clashing of iron chains
• rumbling of heavy wagon on road

(c) Range – through ground, sea, air – heard at distance
(d) Some earthquakes silent

Title: Earthquake
Rough draft
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earthquakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also Causedand slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country. In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riehqmba in Ecuador in 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modenTtimesogay be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Fair draft
Title : Earthquake
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these are known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earth¬quakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also cause land slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country.

In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. Some can be silent like the one which occurred in Ecuador on Feb 4, 1797. Tsunami of 2004 was devastating in Tamil Nadu.
No. of words written in the summary: 87

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Which dress is the best of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I have got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park are coming up near our house.
(d) It is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends until they quarrelled.
Answer:
(a) Which dress is the better of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park is coming up near our house.
(d) There is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends before they quarrelled.

Section – V

Question 45.
Quote from memory. [1×5 = 5]
From : My heart was …………… Sir, you say?
Answer:
My heart was so light
That I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ”
“For all nature looked gay ”.
“ You sang, Sir, you say?

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(а) The plot – Prospero’s revenge – the spirit of Ariel – dirty work – shipwreck – Antonio- a sea storm – shipwreck the crew – A delicious banquet – King of Naples – the lost son – meticulous planning – rivals state of regret – re-establish the legal command – dukedom of Milan – Prospero all-powerful – past conspirators face-to-face the sins of their past, repent and plead forgiveness.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, by William Shakespeare revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. Interestingly, he uses the spirit of Ariel to deliver the punishments while Prospero delegates the action. Prospero sends Ariel to do his dirty work while hiding his involvement in shipwrecking his brother, Antonio, from his daughter, Miranda.

He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. A delicious banquet is placed before the King of Naples that vanishes before they could relish its taste.

At another stage, those who were thought dead were discovered alive. The lost son, Ferdinand is resorted to a joyous father making those who have committed offenses repent. Prospero meticulously plans to bring his rivals to a state of regret so that he can pardon them and re-establish the legal command of things to his dukedom of Milan. Prospero being all¬powerful over the island, can easily destroy or punish his enemies as he wishes. However, he chooses not to and brings the past conspirators face-to- face with the sins of their past, which causes them to repent and plead his forgiveness.

[OR]
(b) Futuristic story written in 1889, – 25th July, 2889 – Earth Herald – the world’s largest newspaper – spoken and not written – reporters’ room – four quarters of the earth – telephone – commutators – visual sights – ten astronomical reporters – recent discoveries – Phototelegrams – nothing from Jupiter – can’t blame optical science – scientists worked on satellite – new planet Gandini – pass on to subscribers immediately.

This Futuristic story, written in 1889 speaks about the people of the 29th century who live in fairyland, foreseeing 25th July, 2889 @ the office block of the Managing Editor of the Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper where news is not printed but spoken. The day’s work started at the reporters’ room.

His fifteen hundred reporters, with their telephones, were speaking the news received from the four quarters of the earth to subscribers. Besides telephone, all reporters have commutators, which allow communication on telephotic line with visual sights. Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters Cash about the recent discoveries in the stellar world.

Cash replied that it was Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, and nothing from Jupiter since the Jovians signal could not be understood. He added that even results from the Moon wasn’t possible and one can’t blame optical science though moon was six hundred times nearer than Mars. Corley another reporter said it was the inhabitants which was refuted by Bennett who said the simplest way was to turn the moon round and find out.

From then on, the scientists of the Bennett factory started working on turning satellite. One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini and Bennett was delighted at his accuracy. He wanted the reporters to pass on the news to the subscribers immediately. The broad gallery for such a journal as the Earth Herald brought in an average of three million dollars daily.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
India celebrates Slumdog Millionaire’s sweeping success at the Academy Award ceremony last year. In addition to the movie by Director Danny Boyle, which took home eight Oscars, Smile Pinki won for the Best Documentary short subject, telling the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P who becomes a social outcast because of a cleft lip. Despite this achievement, few Indians received an award from the victories of British Director Boyle and US.

Documentary maker Megan Mylan; they were composer A.R. Rahman, singer Sampooran Singh Gulzar and sound designer Resul Pookutty. Slumdog Millionaire producers have also been dogged by controversy. They have been accused of underpaying the two child actors who worked in the film, Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie went back to live in their slums. Still for ordinary people success in Los Angeles has been the cause for celebration in the streets. Even schools stayed close.

What the movie celebrates is not India’s cinema which produces hundreds of movies each year drawing an average 23 million spectators per day, but the country and its stories, placed under the limelight of Hollywood for once. The stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, that of muslim boy Jamal and Pinki from Dabai, are but two of the many faces of today’s India, faces always ignored until Slumdog Millionaire’s triumph put the spotlight on them.

Questions.
(a) Who is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire?
(b) Which film was given the Oscar Award for the best documentary short subject and state the reason?
(c) What is the controversy about the producers of Slumdog Millionaire?
(id) On whom is the story of Slumdog Millionaire centered?
(a) Danny Boyle is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire.
(b) Smile Pinki was given the Oscar Award for the Best Documentary short subject because
it brought out the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P. who became a social outcast because of a cleft lip.
(c) The controversy is that the producers have been accused of underpaying the two child actors Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie still live in their slums.
(d) The story of Slumdog Millionaire centered on the stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, whose faces are always ignored.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
BREAK, BREAK, BREAK
Break, break, break,
On thy cold grey stones, O Sea!
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.

O well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play!
O well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay!

And the stately ships go on To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanished hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still.

Break, break, break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea!
But the tender grace of a day that is dead Will never come back to me.

Questions.
(a) What does the poet ask the sea to break?
(b) What are the fisherman’s children doing on the shore?
(c) What does sailor lad singing and children of fishermen playing indicate?
(d) What is the moral of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poet asks the sea to break the cold grey stones.
(b) The fisherman’s children are shouting and playing without any worries on the seashore.
(c) It indicates that the children are not bothered about the happenings around nor bothered about the poet’s grief.
(d) The moral of the poem is that life goes on despite the human loss, suffering and tragedies.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
The unit of ‘g’ is ms^-2. It can be also expressed as _______.
(a) cm s^-1
(b) N kg^-1
(c) N m² kg^-1
(d) cm² s^-2
Answer:
N kg^-1

Question 2.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at _____.
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2 f
Answer:
(b) infinity

Question 3.
Velocity of sound is maximum in ________.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gases
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 4.
The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO₂ at S.T.P _______.
(a) 22.4 litre
(b) 2.24 litre
(c) 0.24 litre
(d) 0.1 litre
Answer:
(b) 2.24 litre

Question 5.
Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Kr
Answer:
(a) He

Question 6.
Deliquescence is due to ________.
(a) Strong affinity to water
(b) Less affinity of water
(c) Strong hatred to water
(d) Inertness to water
Answer:
(a) Strong affinity to water

Question 7.
Decrease in leucocytes is _______.
(a) Leucopenia
(b) Leukemia
(c) Anaemia
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Leucopenia

Question 8.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are ______.
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Mutated Cells
(d) Undergoing rapid division
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division

Question 9.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ________.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasan
(c) conjoint
(d) amphicribral
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 10.
______ is the green coloured plastids.
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Chromoplast
(c) Leucoplast
(d) Stele
Answer:
(a) Chloroplast

Question 11.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by ________.
(a) Radio-carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium-argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Radio-carbon method

Question 12.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) Box
(b) Pai
(c) Scanner
(d) Folder
Answer:
(d) Folder

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define moment of a couple.
Answer:
When two equal and unlike parallel forces applied simultaneously at two distinct points constitute couple. A couple results in causes the rotation of the body. This rotating effect of a couple is known as moment of a couple.

Question 14.
Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor?
Answer:

Resistivity	Conductivity
1. It is the resistance of a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section.	1. It is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity of material.
2. It’s unit is ohm metre	2. Its unit is ohm–1 metre-1 or ohm metre-1

Question 15.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 16.
What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust?
Answer:
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric oxide on its surface. This compound is known as rust and the phenomenon of formation of rust is known as rusting.

Question 17.
Give an example each
(i) gas in liquid
(ii) solid in liquid
(iii) solid in solid
(iv) gas in gas.
Answer:
(i) Carbon-di-oxide dissolved in water (Soda water)
(ii) Sodium chloride dissolved in water.
(iii) Copper dissolved in gold (Alloy)
(iv) Mixture of Helium – Oxygen gases

Question 18.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
Respiration takes place through the skin in leech. The exchange of respiratory gases takes place by diffusion. Oxygen dissolved in water diffuses through the skin into haemocoelic fluid, while carbon dioxide diffuses out.

Question 19.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering is called bolting.

Question 20.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)

Question 21.
What is Atavism?
Answer:
The reappearance of ancestral characters in some individuals is called atavism. E.g. Presence of rudimentary tail in new born babies.

Question 22.
Calculate the velocity of a moving body of mass 7 kg whose linear momentum is 5 kg ms^-1
Answer:
Given, p = 5 kg ms^-1
m = 7 kg
p =m × v
v = \(\frac{p}{m}=\frac{5}{7}\)
∴ v = 0.71 ms^-1

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
Answer:
(i) There is no change in the linear momentum of a system of bodies as long as no net external force acts on them.
(ii) Let us prove the law of conservation of linear momentum with the following illustration:

(iii) Let two bodies A and B having masses m₁ and m₂ move with initial velocity u₁ and u₂ in a straight line.
(iv) Let the velocity of the first body be higher than that of the second body. i.e., U₁ > u₂.
(v) During an interval of time t second, they tend to have a collision. After the impact, both of them move along the same straight line with a velocity v, and v2 respectively.

By Newton’s III law of motion
Action force = Reaction force
F_A = -F_B
\(\frac{m_{1}\left[v_{1}-u_{1}\right]}{t}=-\frac{m_{2}\left[v_{2}-u_{2}\right]}{t}\)
m₁v₁ – m₁u₁ = m₂u₂ + m₂u₂
m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ = m₁u₁ + m₂u₂

The above equation confirms in the absence of an external force, the algebraic sum of the momentum after collision is numerically equal to the algebraic sum of the momentum before collision. Hence the law of conservation linear momentum is proved.

Question 24.
(i) Explain about domestic electric circuits.
Answer:

• Electricity is distributed through the domestic electric circuits wired by the electricians.
• The first stage of the domestic circuit is to bring the power supply to the main-box from a distribution panel, such as a transformer.
• The important components of the main-box are: (i) a fuse box and (ii) a meter. The meter is used to record the consumption of electrical energy.
• The fuse box contains either a fuse wire or a miniature circuit breaker (MCB).
• The function of the fuse wire or a MCB is to protect the house hold electrical appliances from overloading due to excess current.

(ii) What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
Answer:

• In domestic appliance is used parallel connection to avoid short circuit and breakage.
• One more advantage of the parallel connection of circuits is that each electric appliance gets an equal voltage.

Question 25.
(i) What is an echo?
Answer:
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc.

(ii) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
Answer:
(i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that we can hear two sound waves clearly, if the time interval between the two sounds is atleast 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:

Question 26.
(i) What are the advantages of detergents over soaps?
Answer:
Detergents are better than soaps because they:

• can be used in both hard and soft water and can clean more effectively in hard water than soap.
• can also be used in saline and acidic water.
• do not leave any soap scum on the tub or clothes.
• dissolve freely even in cool water and rinse freely in hard water.
• can be used for washing woollen garments, where as soap cannot be used.
• have a linear hydrocarbon chain, which is biodegradable.
• are active emulsifiers of motor grease.
• do an effective and safe cleansing, keeping even synthetic fabrics brighter and whiter.

(b) Mention the disadvantages of detergents.
Answer:

• Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by micro-organisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
• They are relatively more expensive than soap.

Question 27.
(a) Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
Answer:
On increasing temperature heat is supplied to the reactant. This energy breaks more bonds and thus speed up the chemical reaction. Foods kept at room temperature spoils – faster than that kept in the refrigerator.

(b) Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
There are two major classes of double displacement reactions. They are,
(i) Precipitation Reactions:
When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s)↓+ 2KNO_3(aq)

(ii) Neutralisation Reactions:
Another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralisation reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(i)

Question 28.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
All information from the environment are detected by the receptors, located in the sense organs such as the eyes, nose, skin, etc.

Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end.
On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neurotransmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

In this way, the electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response. The flow of nerve impulses from axon end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synapatic transmission.

Question 29.
(a) How is dihybrid cross differ from monohybrid cross?
Monohybrid cross:

• It is a genetic cross, that involves a single pair of genes.
• In this cross, Parents differ by single trait (Eg : height)
• Monohybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1

Dihybrid cross:

• It is a genetic cross, that involves two pairs of genes, which are responsible for two traits.
• In this cross, the parents have two different independent traits. Eg: Flower colour, stem length
• The dihybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(b) What is cohesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion.

Question 30.
(a) Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
The vascular bundles of dicot stem (Eg. sunflower) are conjoint, collateral, endarch and open. They are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.

(b) Name the three basic tissue system in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are

1. Dermal or Epidermal tissue system
2. Ground tissue system
3. Vascular tissue system

Question 31.
(a) What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
The drugs which act on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception, are called Psychotropic drugs. They are also called Mood altering drugs.

(b) State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:

• DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications like crime investigation such as identifying the culprit.
• It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
• It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 32.
(a) What are the applications of Doppler effect.
Answer:
(i) To measure the speed of an automobile:

• A source emitting electromagnetic wave is attached to a police car
• The wave is reflected by a moving source.
• From the frequency shift, the over speeding vehicles can be determined.

(ii) Tracking a satellite:

• The frequency of radio waves decreases as the satellite passes away from the Earth.
• By this change in frequency, the location of the satellites is determined.

(iii) RADAR:

• The radio waves are detected by the receivers.
• The frequency change tracks the speed and location of the aircraft’s.

(iv) SONAR:

• There is a frequency change between the sent signal and received signal.
• This helps to determine the speed of submariners and marine animals.

(ii) A solution is made from 25 mi of ethanol and 75 ml of water. Calculate the volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume of ethenol = 25 ml
Volume of water = 75 ml

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 x 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) What are the characteristic features of heat energy transfer?
Answer:

• Heat always flows from a system of higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
• The mass of a system is not altered when it is heated or cooled.
• Heat gained by the cold system is equal to heat lost by the hot system.

(ii) Explain linear expansion with diagram?
Answer:

• When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to change in its temperature.
• Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion.
• The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion.
• It is different for different materials. Its SI unit is K^-1.
• The equation is \(\frac{\Delta L}{L_{0}}\) = α_LΔT
  ΔL – Change in length (Final length – Original length)
  L₀ – Original length (Final temperature – Initial temperature)
  α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion

[OR]

(b) (i) In the circuit diagram given below, three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ of 5 Ω, 10Ω and 20Ω respectively are connected as shown.
Calculate:
(A) Current through each resistor
(B) Total current in the circuit
(C) Total resistance in the circuit
Answer:

(A) Since the resistors are connected in parallel, the potential difference across each resistor
is same (i.e. V = 10V)
Therefore, the current through R₁ is,

(B) Total current in the circuit,
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
= 2 + 1 + 0.5 = 3.5 A

(C) Total resistance in the circuit

(ii) A charge of 12 coulomb flows through a bulb in 6 seconds. What is the current through the bulb?
Answer:
Charge Q = 12 C, Time t = 6 s. Therefore,
Current I = \(\frac{Q}{t}=\frac{12}{6}\) = 2A

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the number of moles in 27 g of Al.
Answer:

(ii) Find the percentages of nitrogen in ammonia.
Answer:
Molar mass of NH₃ = 1 × atomic mass of nitrogen + 3 × atomic mass of hydrogen
= (1 × 14) + (3 × 1)
= 14 + 3 = 17g

The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia = 82.35 %

(iii) Calculate the molecular mass of C₂H₆.
Answer:
Molecular mass of C₂H₆ = (2 × atomic mass of C) + (6 × atomic mass of H)
= (2 × 12) + (6 × 1)
= 24 + 6 = 30 g

[OR]

(b) Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
Answer:
Factors affecting solubility : There are three main factors which govern the solubility of a solute. They are Nature of the solute and solvent, Temperature, and Pressure.

Nature of the solute and solvent:

• The nature of the solute and solvent plays an important role in solubility.
  ) Solubility is based on the phrase “like dissolves like.” The expression means that dissolving occurs when similarities exist between the solvent and the solute.
  For example: Common salt is a polar compound and dissolves readily in polar solvent like water.
  (iii) Non-polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents. For example, Sulphur dissolves in carbon di sulphide.

Effect of Temperature:
Solubility of Solids in Liquid:

• Generally, solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature.
• In endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.
• In exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.

Solubility of Gases in liquid:
Solubility of gases in liquid decrease with increase in temperature.

Effect of Pressure:
When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas in liquid increase. When pressure is increased, more gas molecules strike the surface of the liquid and mix into the solution.

Question 35.
(i) What is Cretinism?
Answer:
Cretinism: It is caused due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone (thyroxine) in children. The conditions are stunted growth, mental defect, lack of skeletal development and deformed bones.

(ii) Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers?
Answer:

• Brightly coloured flowers, with smell and nectar.
• Pollen grain are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny so they can be adhered firmly on the sticky stigma.

(iii) What are the advantages of using bio-gas?
Answer:
The advantages of using biogas are as follows:

• It bums without smoke and therefore causing less pollution.
• An excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
• Left over slurry is a good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• It is safe and convenient to use.
• It can reduce the amount of green house gases emitted.

[OR]

(b) (i) What is hermaphrodite?
Answer:
Hermaphrodite: If the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same individual, it is called hermaphrodite animal. Eg. Leech.

(ii) What are the effects of hybrid vigour?
Answer:
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called as heterosis or hybrid vigour. Its effects in animal breeding are:

• Increased production of milk by cattle
• Increased production of egg by poultry
• High quality of meat is produced
• Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His brothers and his little sister ran to the brink.
(a) bark
(b) sea
(c) water
(d) edge
Answer:
(d) edge

Question 2.
‘Open up! ’ cried a hoarse voice.
(a) rough
(b) sharp
(c) haughty
(d) soft
Answer:
(a) rough

Question 3.
Trying to revive old childhood memories may prove disappointing! ’
(a) reveal
(b) resuscitate
(c) cancel
(d) cover
Answer:
(b) resuscitate

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I wanted to make sure that I complete this journey with ultimate honesty.
(a) honourable
(b) dishonesty
(c) rectitude
(d) scrupulousness
Answer:
(b) dishonesty

Question 5.
Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure
(b) sure
(c) convinced
(d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

Question 6.
M. Hamel would question us on participles.
(a) clarify
(b) beautify
(c) answer
(d) demonstrate
Answer:
(c) answer

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘sister-in-law‘.
(a) sister-in-laws
(b) sisters-in-law
(c) sisters-in-laws
(d) sisters-n-law
Answer:
(b) sisters-in-law

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘help’.
(a) ful
(b) less
(c) ly
(d) graphy
Answer:
(b) less

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation DSLR.
(a) Digital Single Lens Refraction
(b) Digital Single Light Reflex
(c) Digital Service Lens Reflex
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex
Answer:
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
I will not ……………. to pressure. I shall face the challenge bravely.
(a) give away
(b) give in
(c) give out
(d) give off
Answer:
(b) give in

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘rain‘ to form a compound word,
(a) well
(b) dance
(c) wet
(d) coat
Answer:
(d) coat

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
None of you bothered to leave a bottle of water …………. my bed.
(a) within
(b) outside
(c) beside
(d) for
Answer:
(c) beside

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The dog never liked to be left alone and kept on ………… the entire night.
(a) whined
(b) whining
(c) whine
(d) will whine
Answer:
(b) whining

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
It was a great feeling ………. I learnt to use it.
(a) that
(b) whether
(c) but
(d) when
Answer:
(d) when

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did the young bird utter a joyful scream?
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly and uttered a joyful scream falling outwards and downwards into space.

Question 16.
Why does Joe mock the policeman who wants to retrieve his gun from the grandfather?
Answer:
When the policeman talks bravely about going to retrieve his gun from the grandfather, Joe mocks him because he feels it’s dangerous to approach an armed and unstable suspect.

Question 17.
What was the information given by Mrs. Hudson to Dr. Watson?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson said that Holmes was working on a case down at Rotherhithe, near the river and had brought an illness back with him since Wednesday afternoon. He had neither taken food nor water for the past three days.

Question 18.
What did Aditya do when he went to the attic?
Answer:
When Aditya went up the attic, he got on top of the packing case and pushed his hand inside the ventilator. He upset a sparrow’s nest, a part of which fell to the ground. It looked as if he was in search of something that he had left there 29 years ago.

Section – II

Read the following poetic lines and answer any THREE questions given below.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“They growl at that and they growl at this;
Whatever comes, there is something amiss;”
(a) What does the word ‘growl’ mean here?
(b) Why do they find everything amiss?
Answer:
(a) The word growl here means ‘grumbling’.
(b) They find everything amiss, since they are not satisfied or contented with anything.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light
that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then ”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away ”. ”
(a) Whose heart was light?
(b) What did he do out of joy?
Answer:
(a) The cricket’s heart was light.
(b) Out of joy, the cricket danced the winter away.

Question 21.
“Remember; we who take arms against each other”
(a) What should we remember?
(b) What advice does the poet give us in these lines?
(a) We should remember that no men are foreign and no country is strange.
Answer:
(b) The poet advises us to ignore the orders of those who incite us to hate and abuse others because by doing so we harm ourselves.

Question 22.
“I drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”
(а) To whom does ‘I’ refer to?
(b) How does the house appear in May?
Answer:
(a) ‘I’ refers to the poetess, Nadia Bush.
(b) The house appears a bit brighter in May.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The burglars had cut a huge hole in the wooden door.
A huge hole had been cut in the wooden door by the burglars.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“Do they live here?” asked Manohar
Answer:
Manohar asked me if they lived here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
‘what was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin round the house last night’ he demanded
‘What was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin’ round the house last night?’ he demanded.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
It is not known what is the purpose of his visit to this place.
Answer:
The purpose of his visit to this place is not known.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) writing/ system/ telephone/ am/ to/I/ about/ banking/ your/ complain
(b) crashed/ on/I/ the/ system/ been/ that/ each/ informed/ computer/ has/ have/ occasion
Answer:
(a) I am writing to complain about your telephone banking system.
(b) On each occasion, I have been informed that the computer system has crashed.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger approaches you and asks you to guide her/him the way to S.S. Market. Help the stranger to reach his/her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the Steps.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the left immediately after the school in the comer of Anna Road and Flower Street
• After the school, take the right and walk further till you find S.S. Market on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received is a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do analyse problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you have in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family is a must to carry out the expedition.

“It s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 30.
Discuss the role played by Kim and Stephen Hawking to utilize technology for the disabled?
Answer:
Technology plays a vital role in transforming the lives of a disabled. Kim made them realize life isn’t tough because you are differently-abled. Kim made them realize that you can keep in touch with your family, you can talk to and even see relatives who live far away. Well, Kim has shown them that technology can do even more for young disabled people like me. It can make friends communicate and control the environment. It can help them study, get qualifications and find opportunities for work.

It can make them confident and independent. World renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how assistive Technology has helped a talented mind overcome physical impairments and contribute productively to the world. So we can now look forward to a more inclusive way of learning, instead of the cloistered existence that most differently-abled learners had to face in the past. Newer technology allows differently-abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully to the collaborative process of learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly a learning for all.

“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
We appreciate the value of something only when we are about to lose it. Explain this with reference to the French language and M. Hamel.
Answer:
The Last Lesson’, written by Alphonse Daudet describes the year 1870 when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. Alsace and Lorraine, districts of France went into Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers issued an order that only German should be taught in all schools.

The French teachers were asked to leave with immediate effect. The story describes the last day of one such French class under M. Hamel. M. Hamel had taught French for forty years. Most of them never knew the value of the teacher’s devotion and dedicated service.

We do not always get an opportunity to learn, and this is never understood till the end. Luck doesn’t favour always. Likewise, opportunity knocks ones. Time should be valued. Procrastination is a sin. Most of us end up delaying things. Unless we are constant and regular in our efforts, we cannot achieve our goals. When things come easy, we do not realise its value.

Time and tide wait for no man. The entire village knew the value of Mr. Hamel and his teaching only when he was asked to leave. There was no use in their regrets. It was all too late. Therefore, let’s remember that we should make hay when the sun shines and not weep in vain.

“ Understand your worth; Value your life; Appreciate your blessings. ”

Question 32.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past.

He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek. He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members.

He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.

“ Self-respect permeates every’ aspect of your life.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
How are today’s women portrayed by the poet in, ‘I Am Every Woman’?
Answer:
Rakhi Nariani Shirke is an academician with a passion for writing poems as a medium of self-expression. This poem talks about the multifaceted nature of women. A woman is born beautiful and beauty is an inborn trait. She is a symbol of supremacy and strength. She takes risks in life for she is real and always genuine. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute.

They are always ready to take up new ventures. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Women have to be treated respectfully for the growth of a nation. As stated earlier, she is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs. In spite of all the out breaths and cries and laments, she is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring. She is a disciplinarian and will not tolerate your pranks with her. She is a woman of today to beware of.

“Each time a woman stands up for herself, she stands up for all women.”

Question 34.
Comment on the house located on Elm street.
Answer:
Nadia Bush brings out the eerie nature while reading her poem. The House On Elm Street.” There aren’t any houses around this house located on Elm Street. It stood all alone in an isolated place. Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like the house since no leaves sprout in any of the seasons. It is said to be a mysterious place since no one knows who lives there or what is inside. No one knows what happens inside that house and hence it is very mysterious. It is for sure a big house with vast space inside the house. Generally, at night, the house looks like it is alive with people in it.

Lights are switched on and off. Every day the poetess, drives past the house. The house seems to look a bit brighter on a fine warm summer day in the month of May. The very thought of this mysterious house plays with your mind since it is just one house of this kind in the areas known around. Likewise, the tree too is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth and hence feels it is a mysterious place.

“The mystery’ of existence will always remain a mystery and secret.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,
And hope the road’s last turn will be the best.”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme of the stanza.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Quest and best are the rhyming words.
(ii) The rhyme scheme of the above stanza is abcc.
(iii) Couplet is the figure of speech in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘Still seeking’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!
Answer:
In this stanza, the machines caution the readers with an unshakeable moral imperative – the Law by which it lives! The machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for mankind to understand. Here machines tell us that they don’t emote nor understand different feelings such as love, pity or apology. It reiterates its dangerous nature by simply stating that a slip while handling it means instant death.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (ii), (i), (iv)
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
‘Come in, Zigzag, come in, dear! ’coazed Visu, and in tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird the Krishnan family had ever seen. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the colour of cola held to sunlight. ‘This is Zigzag! Announced Visu with a flourish. ‘His’ full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of- the-Tonga. How I’m going to miss him! So beautifully he talks! He can even recite French Poetry!’

The object of all this praise was standing cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost- human grumpiness in his cola-coloured eyes.
(i) Describe Zigzag’s plumage.
(ii) What is the full name of Zigzag?
(iii) What can Zigzag do according to Visu?
(iv) What was the colour of Zigzag’s eyes?
(v) Who brought home Zigzag?
Answer:
(i) Zigzag’s plumage was a crown of pink feathers and the rest of the feathers were muddiest and sludgiest brown.
(ii) Zigzag’s full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga.
(iii) Zigzag can recite French Poetry, according to Visu.
(iv) Zigzag’s eyes were cola-coloured.
(v) Visu brought home Zigzag.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Fly India – Fly five star – sky is the best place on earth.
Answer:

Question 40.
Vivek has been asked to deliver a speech on ‘The Brain Drain Problem’. Use your own ideas, and write the speech in about 150-200 words.
Answer:
Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends!
Good morning to one and all present here. I, Vivek of Std. X, am thankful to the teachers for giving me this opportunity.

The problem of brain-drain has assumed serious proportion in the last thirty years or so. The nation spends its hard-earned meagre resources on the education and training of its doctors, engineers, scientists, etc. But these highly talented and trained men and women of genius migrate to developed countries.

They desert the ranks for the lure of money, better facilities and living conditions. Some of them get opportunities for fulfilment of their ambitions and development of personality as there is full scope for it. They enjoy unlimited freedom for experiments and research and fear no resources crunch.

The parent countries become poorer by the depletion of resources as a result of migration of trained and talented persons. The migrants too feel maladjusted in the new country where they are considered second grade citizens. Living and working in an alien culture among foreigners, they find themselves cut off from their own social modes and customs. They do suffer emotional vacuum as the memories of friends and relatives in their country haunt their minds.

India too has been facing this problem. We must take steps to ensure them better facilities, improved living conditions, freedom for experimentation and research. In addition to this, their talents must be utilised for proper work and their work must be given due recognition. These measures, if adopted seriously, can check the problem effectively.
Thank you.

Question 41.
You are Dhinesh/Malu. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s sister during summer vacation. Write an e-mail to him/her regretting your inability to attend it.
Answer:

To	siddharth232@gmail.com
From	dhineshl4@gmail.com / malul3@gmail.com
Subject	Inability to attend the function
Dear Siddharth, Thank you for your cordial invitation of your sister’s wedding. I, however, regret my inability to be with you on this happy occasion as we shall be leaving for Munar for summer holidays on 1st May, 20XX. Please excuse my absence. Do convey my regards and best wishes to the couple. Yours sincerely Dhinesh/Malu

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:
An evening at the Park
Corporation has constructed and maintains quite a few parks in the city. Young and old throng these parks in the morning or in the evening to relax and stay fit. Now-a-days, people are conscious about their health and hence keep themselves fit by walking or doing aerobic exercises in the park.

They also help keeping the park clean and tidy. An ice-cream vendor makes use of the opportunity to make his living.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
When we survey our lives and efforts we soon observe that almost the whole of our actions and desires are bound up with the existence of other human beings. We notice that whole nature resembles that of the social animals. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.

The greater part of our knowledge and beliefs has been passed on to us by other people though the medium of a language which others have created. Without language and mental capacities, we would have been poor indeed comparable to higher animals. We have, therefore, to admit that we owe our principal knowledge over the least to the fact of living in human society.

The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive and beast like in his thoughts and feelings to a degree that we can hardly imagine. The individual is what he is and has the significance that he has, not much in virtue of the individuality, but rather as a member of a great human community, which directs his material and spiritual existence from the cradle to grave.

Notes
Title: Man is a Social Animal
Survey: (i) lives & efforts; (ii) our actions & desires – bound up Practices: Eat food – wear clothes – live in houses – made by others Lang. – learnt 4m others – for mental power
Status: (i) Indiv. if left alone – be primitive; (ii) The individual – much in virtue member A human community – directs mat. & spiritual existence.
Abbreviations used: & – and; A – of; lang. – language;indiv.-individual; 4m- from;
mat. – material

Title: Man is a Social Animal
Rough draft
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes knowledge and belief they are interdependent with one another. We eat food that others have produced clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built. They use language created by others without language their mental power would not grow.

We have to admit that we owe our principal knowledge-over the least to the fact of living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remamplmfitiyeThey are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from but birth would grow utterly beast-like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.

Fair draft
Title : Man is a Social Animal
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes, knowledge and belief they are interdependent. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.They use language created by others. Without language their mental power would not grow. They are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from birth would grow utterly beast like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.
No. of words written in the summary: 48

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Two-thirds of the content were rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar is not attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house in Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me when you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well but we might have to fail you.
Answer:
(a) Two-thirds of the content was rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar has not been attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house on Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me if you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well or we might have to fail you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
We will serve ………… and read and write!
Answer:
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
(a) Prospero a sympathetic character – uses magic to control – learns sorcery – protects Miranda – control Ariel and others – alter weather – raise the dead – demands attention – an insensitive character to compassionate character – rightful duke of Milan – humanity in his treatment of Antonio – extremely forgiving – helpless against his enemies – white magic and not black magic – complex personality – refuses to free Ariel – subjugates Caliban – ruler appears insensitive and harsh – tyrannical – understanding – protective just and fair, intelligent.
Answer:
In ‘The Tempest’ by William Shakespeare, Prospero is the main character yet a sympathetic character. You could also say he isn’t very sympathetic because he uses magic to control other people. He has learned sorcery from books, and uses it while on the island to protect Miranda and control the other characters. Prospero’s sorcery is sufficiently powerful to control Ariel and other spirits, as well as to alter weather and even raise the dead.

Prospero insists that others listen to him even when they do not want to. His character grows from being an insensitive character to a much more compassionate and likable character with positive characteristics. Prospero is the rightful duke of Milan who is usurped by his brother. Prospero’s humanity is clearly obvious in his treatment of Antonio.

In spite of him being a traitor, he is extremely forgiving in nature. He is helpless against his enemies and wait for them to come close to his island so that he can use his magic to create a storm and bring them under his control. Prospero’s magic is the white magic of nature and not the black magic of evil nature. He is surely a complex personality.

Although he refuses to free Ariel and subjugates Caliban, Prospero is really a generous ruler, never intending to harm even his enemies. At first, Prospero appears insensitive and harsh, especially in his treatment of Ariel and Caliban. He is seen as tyrannical in his treatment of Ferdinand, but Prospero realizes that Ferdinand and
Miranda will value one another more if there are a few obstacles to their wooing. Prospero is protective of those who are close to him especially Miranda. Throughout, Prospero makes sure Ferdinand’s and Miranda’s love stays strong. Ultimately, we see Prospero to be just and fair besides being intelligent.

[OR]

(b) Describe the farmer’s painful journey up the mountain by developing the given hints. A mother’s affection – insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain – eternal and unconditional love is invaluable – the law – tyrant ruler – changes decision – a kind mode of death – summit of Obatsayuma – Her heart is concerned.
Answer:
The story of the Aged Mother, a folklore from Japan, tells a story about the care and wisdom of a mother to his son, their condition and the son’s love and gentle respect. This story talks about the conflict in the poor farmer’s mind.
A mother’s affection is something that none can describe. It is composed of insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain which is eternal and unconditional.

The thought that “A mother’s love is invaluable and can never be equated to further belongings that a child might own’ perturbs the narrator. The law pronounced by the tyrant ruler fills the heart of the poor farmer with deep remorse. Instead of putting his mother to death in the hand of the cruel law he decides to give his mother a kind mode of death. He takes his mother to the bare summit of Obatsayuma and plans to abandon her there.

The mother too is pained on the way to the summit of the mountain. Her heart grows concerned because she knows that her son will be in danger on his way back because he is not familiar to the paths and hence she breaks the twigs and drops it quietly on the road to serve as a guide for her son’s return journey.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
In Titanic the ‘older’ Rose throws the Heart of the Ocean diamond over the side of the ship. While the Heart of the Ocean is only a fairy tale, it is based on the Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire. It was bought in India by a French jeweller in the 1660s and brought back to France.

The Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV where it began to attract a reputation as a cursed creature. Things did not end well with Louis XIV who was flat broke at the end of his life and who was eaten by a pack of wild dogs. It then passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded. The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

The last owner’s brother died early, her son was run over by a car when he was nine years old, she got divorced, her husband perished in a mental institution, her daughter died of an overdose and she herself died of pneumonia.
The Hope Diamond is now housed in the Smithsonian Institution in Washington.

Questions.
(a) Where did The Blue Fire originate?
(b) To whom was the Blue Beauty passed on after Louis XIV was dead?
(c) How did the diamond affect Louis XIV?
(d) Under what circumstances did the Hope Diamond resurface after two decades?
Ans.
(a) The Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire was bought in India originally by a French jeweller in the 1660s and taken back to France.
(b) The Blue Beauty was passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded.
(c) When the diamond, Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV, things did not end well with him as he was flat broke at the end of his life and was eaten by a pack of wild dogs.
(d) The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
PIPING DOWN THE VALLEYS

Piping down the valleys wild,
Piping songs of pleasant glee,
On a cloud, I saw a child,
And he laughing said to me :

“Pipe a song about a Lamb !”
So I piped with merry cheer.
“Piper, a pipe that song again;”
So I piped: he wept to hear.

Drop thy pipe, thy happy pipe;
“Sing thy songs of happy cheer.”
So I sang the same again,
While he wept with joy to hear.

“Piper, sit thee down and write
In a book, that all may read.”
So he vanish’d from my sight,
And I pluck’d a hollow reed,

And I made a rural pen,
And I stain’d the water clear,
And I wrote my happy songs
Every child may joy to hear.

Questions.
(a) Whom did the piper see in a cloud?
(b) What did the child ask the piper to do?
(c) When did the piper pluck a hollow reed?
(d) What did the child do after singing?
Answer:
(a) The piper saw a child in a cloud.
(b) The child asked the piper to sing a song about a Lamb.
(c) The piper plucked a hollow reed after the boy had vanished.
(d) After singing, the child disappeared from the Piper’s sight.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART-I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [Answers are in bold] [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If n(A × B) = 6 and A = {1, 3} then n (B) is ………….. .
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 6
Answer:
(3) 3

Question 2.
Given F₁ = 1, F₂ = 3 and F_n = F_n-1+ F_n-2 then F₅ is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11

Question 3.
In an A.P., the first term is 1 and the common difference is 4. How many terms of the A.P must be taken for their sum to be equal to 120?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer:
(3) 8

Question 4.
f = {(2, a), (3, b), (4, b), (5, c)} is a ………….. .
(1) identity function
(2) one-one function
(3) many-one function
(4) constant function
Answer:
(3) many-one function

Question 5.
The number of points of intersection of quadratic polynomial x² + 4x + 4 with the x axis is ………….. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 0 (or) 1
(4) 2
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 6.
The non-diagonal elements in any unit matrix are ………….. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) m
(4) n
Answer:
(1) 0

Question 7.
If A is a 2′ 3 matrix and B is a 3′ 4 matrix, how many columns does AB have?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5
Answer:
(2) 4

Question 8.
In figure CP and CQ are tangents to a circle with centre at O. ARB is another tangent touching the circle at R. If CP = 11 cm and BC = 7 cm then the length of BR is ………….. .

(1) 6 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 4 cm
Answer:
(4) 4 cm

Question 9
The slope of the line joining (12, 3), (4, a) is \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\). The value of ‘a’ is ………….. .
(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) -5
(4) 2
Answer:
(4) 2

Question 10.
If x = a tan θ and y = b sec θ then ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)
(2) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
(3) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
(4) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=0\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)

Question 11.
A letter is chosen at random from the letter of the word “PROBABILITY”. Find the probability that it is not a vowel.
(1) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 12.
The height of a right circular cone whose radius is 5 cm and slant height is 13 cm will be ………….. .
(1) 12 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 5 cm
Answer:
(1) 12 cm

Question 13.
If the mean and co-efficient of variation of a data are 4 and 87.5% then the standard deviation is ………….. .
(1) 3.5
(2) 3
(3) 4.5
(4) 2.5
Answer:
(1) 3.5

Question 14.
Variance of first 20 natural numbers is ………….. .
(1) 32.25
(2) 44.25
(3) 33.25
(4) 30
Answer:
(3) 33.25

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Define a function.
Answer:
A relation “f” between two non-empty sets X and Y is called a function from X to Y if for each x ∈ X there exists only one y ∈ Y such that (x, y) ∈ f

Question 16.
Compute x such that 10⁴ ≡ x (mod 19)
Answer:
10² = 100 ≡ 5 (mod 19)
10⁴ = (10²)² ≡ 5² (mod 19)
10⁴ = 25 (mod 19)
10⁴ = 6 (mod 19)
(since 25 ≡ 6 (mod 19))
Therefore, x = 6

Question 7.
Simlify \(\frac{4 x^{2} y}{2 z^{2}} \times \frac{6 x z^{3}}{20 y^{4}}\)
Answer:

Question 18.
Pari needs 4 hours to complete the work. His friend Yuvan needs 6 hours to complete the work. How long will it take to complete if they work together?
Answer:
Let the work done by Pari and Yuvan together be x
Work done by Pari = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
Work done by Yuvan = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)
By the given condition
\(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{x} \Rightarrow \frac{3+2}{12}=\frac{1}{x}\)
\(\frac{5}{12}=\frac{1}{x}\)
5x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac{12}{5}\)
x = \(2 \frac{2}{5}\) hours (or) 2 hours 24 minutes

Question 19.
Find the values of x, y and z from the following equation \(\left( \begin{matrix} 12 & 3 \\ x & \frac { 3 }{ 2 } \end{matrix} \right) =\left( \begin{matrix} y & z \\ 3 & 5 \end{matrix} \right) \)
Answer:
Since the given matrices are equal then all the corresponding elements are equal. y = 12, z = 3, x = 3
The value of x = 3, y = 12 and z = 3

Question 20.
What length of ladder is needed to reach a height of 7 ft along the wall when the base of the ladder is 4 ft from the wall? A
Answer:

Let x be the length of the ladder. BC = 4 ft, AC = 7 ft.
By Pythagoras theorem we have, AB² = AC² + BC²
x² = 7² + 4² gives x² = 49 + 16
x² = 65. Hence, x = √65
The number √65 is between 8 and 8.1.
8² = 64 < 65 < 65.61 = 8.1²
Therefore, the length of the ladder is approximately 8.1 ft.

Question 21.
Prove that \(\sqrt{\frac{1+\cos \theta}{1-\cos \theta}}\) = cosec θ + cot θ
Answer:

Question 22.
The radius of a sphere increases by 25%. Find the percentage increase in its surface area.
Answer:
Let the radius of the be “r”
Surface area of the sphere = 4πr²sq.units …… (1)
If the radius is increased by 25%
New radius = \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 }\) × r + r
= \(\frac { r }{ 4 }\) + 4
= \(\frac{r+4 r}{4}=\frac{5 r}{4}\)
Surface area of the sphere
= 4π\(\left(\frac{5 r}{4}\right)^{2}\) sq.units
= 4 × π × \(\frac{25 r^{2}}{16}\)
= \(\frac{25 \pi r^{2}}{4}\) sq.units
Difference in surface area
= \(\frac{25 \pi r^{2}}{4}-4 \pi r^{2}\)
= \(\pi r^{2}\left(\frac{25}{4}-4\right)\)
= \(\pi r^{2}\left(\frac{25-16}{4}\right)\)
= \(\pi r^{2}\left(\frac{9}{4}\right)=\frac{9 \pi r^{2}}{4}\)
Percentage of increase in surface area

Percentage of increase in surface area = 56.25%

Question 23.
The standard deviation and mean of a data are 6.5 and 12.5 respectively. Find the coefficient of variation.
Answer:
Standard deviation of a data (σ) = 6.5
Mean of the data (x̄) = 12.5
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{x} \times 100 \%\) ⇒ \(\frac{6.5}{12.5} \times 100 \%\) = 52%
Coefficient of variation = 52%

Question 24.
If f{x) = 3 + x, g(x) = x – 4, then check whether fog = gof
Answer:
f(x) = 3 + x ; g(x) = x – 4
fog = f[g(x)]
= f(x – 4)
= 3 + x – 4
= x – 1
gof = g [f(x)}
= g(3 + x)
= 3 + x – 4
= x – 1
∴ fog = gof

Question 25.
An organization plans to plant saplings in 25 streets in a town in such a way that one sapling for the first street, three for the second, nine for the third and so on. How many saplings are needed to complete the work?
Answer:
Here n = 25, a = 1, r = 3
S_n = \(a \frac{\left(r^{n}-1\right)}{r-1}\)
S₂₅ = \(\frac{1\left(3^{25}-1\right)}{3-1}\)
= \(\frac{3^{25}-1}{2}\)

Question 26.
Find the 19th term of an A.P. – 11, -15, -19,……..
Answer:
First term (a) = -11
Common difference (d) = -15 – (-11)
= -15 + 11 = -4
n = 19 .
t_n = a + (n – 1) d
t_n = -11 + 18(-4)
= -11 – 72
t₁₉ = -83
∴ 19th term of an A.P. is – 83

Question 27.
Find the value of ZB AC in the given triangle.
Answer:

In right triangle ABC

θ = tan^-1 \(\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)\) = tan^-1 (0.8)
θ = 38.7° (since tan 38.7° = 0.8011)
∠BAC = 38.7°

Question 28.
The vertices of a triangle are A(-1,3), B(-1, 1) and C(5, 1). Find the length of the median through the vertex C.
Answer:

Mid point of AB = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
= \(\left(\frac{-1+1}{2}, \frac{3-1}{2}\right)\)
= (0,1)
Length of the median CD = \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(5-0)^{2}+(1-1)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{25}\) = 5

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let f be a function f : N → N be defined by f(x) = 3x + 2, x ∈ N
(i) Find the images of 1, 2,3
(ii) Find the pre – images of 29, 53
(iii) Identify the type of function.
Answer:
The function f: N → N is defined by f(x) = 3x + 2
(i) If x = 1, f(1) = 3(1) + 2 = 5
If x = 2, f(2) = 3(2) + 2 = 8
If x = 3, f(3) = 3(3) + 2=11
The images of 1, 2, 3 are 5, 8, 11 respectively.

(ii) If x is the pre-image of 29, then f(x) = 29 . Hence 3x + 2 = 29
3x = 21 ⇒ x = 9.
Similarly, if x is the pre-image of 53, then f(x) = 53.
Hence 3x + 2 = 53 3x = 51 ⇒ x = 17.
Thus the pre-images of 29 and 53 are 9 and 17 respectively.

(iii) Since different elements of N have different images in the co-domain, the function f is one – one function.
The co-domain of f is N.
But the range of f = {5, 8, 11, 14, 17,…} is a proper subset of N.
Therefore f is not an onto function. That is, f is an into function.
Thus f is one – one and into function.

Question 30.
Let f: A → B be a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1, where A = {2,4,6,10,12} and B = {0,1,2, 4,5,9}. Represent f by
(i) set of ordered pairs (ii) a table (iii) an arrow diagram (iv) a graph
Answer:
A= {2, 4, 6, 10, 12} and B = {0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 9}
f(x) = \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) – 1
f(2) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 1 – 1 = 0
f(4) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 2 – 1 = 1
f(6) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2
f(10) = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 5 – 1 = 4
f(12) = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 }\) – 1 = 6 – 1 = 5

(i) Set of ordered pairs
f = {(2, 0) (4, 1) (6, 2) (10, 4) (12, 5}

(ii) Table

(iii) Arrow diagram

(iv) Graph

Question 31.
The ratio of 6^th and 8^th term of an A.P is 7:9. Find the ratio of 9^th term to 13^th terms.
Answer:
Given t₆ : t₈ = 7 : 9 (using t_n = a + (n – 1)d
a + 5d : a + 7d =7 : 9
9(a + 5d) = 7(a + 7d)
9a + 45d = 7a + 49d
9a – 7a = 49d – 45d
2a = 4d
a = 2d
To find t₉ : t₁₃
t₉ : t₁₃ = a + 8d : a + 12d
= 2d + 8d : 2d + 12d
= 10d : 14d
= 5 : 7
∴ t₉ : t₁₃ = 5 : 7

Question 32.
The sum of first n, In and 3n terms of an A.P. are S₁ S₂ and S₃ respectively. Prove that S₃ = 3 (S₂ – S₁).
Answer:
If S₁ S₇ and S₃ are sum of first n, 2n and 3n terms of an A.P. respectively then

Question 33.
Find the values of m and n if the exprtession \(\frac{1}{x^{4}}-\frac{6}{x^{3}}+\frac{13}{x^{2}}+\frac{m}{x}+n\) is a perfect a square.
Answer:

Since it is a perfect square
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(m + 12) = 0
m + 12 = 0
m = -12
n – 4 = 0
n = 4
∴ The value of m = -12 and n = 4

Question 34.
If α, β are the roots of the equation 2x² – x – 1 = 0 then form the equation whose roots are α²β, β²α.
Answer:
2x² – x – 1 = 0 ⇒ Here a = 2, b = -1,c = -1
α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}=\frac{-(-1)}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\)
α + β = \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{-1}{2}\)
Given roots are α²β, β²α
Summ of the roots α²β + β²α = αβ (α + β) = \(-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=-\frac{1}{4}\)
Product of the roots (α²β) × (β²α) = α³β³ = (αβ)³ =
\(\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)^{3}=-\frac{1}{8}\)
The required equation is x² – (Sum of the roots) x + (Product of the roots) = 0
\(x^{2}-\left(-\frac{1}{4}\right) x-\frac{1}{8}=0\) gives 8x² + 2x – 1 = 0

Question 35.
P and Q are the mid-points of the sides CA and CB respectively of a ∆ABC, right angled at C. Prove that 4(AQ² + BP²) = 5AB².
Answer:

Since, ∆AQC is a right triangle at C, AQ² = AC² + QC² ……. (1)
Also, ∆BPC is a right triangle at C, BP² = BC² + CP² ……… (2)
From (1) and (2), AQ² + BP² = AC² + QC² + BC² + CP²
4(AQ² + BP²) = 4AC² + 4QC² + 4BC² + 4CP²
= 4AC² + (2QC)² + 4BC² + (2CP)²
= 4AC² + BC² + 4BC² + AC² (Since P and Q are mid points)
= 5(AC² + BC²)
4(AQ² + BP²) = 5AB² (By Pythagoras Theorem)

Question 36.
Find the equation of a straight line passing through (1, -4) and has intercepts which are in the ratio 2:5.
Answer:
Let the x-intercept be 2a and the y intercept 5a
The equation of a line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{a}=1\) ⇒ \(\frac{x}{2 a}+\frac{y}{5 a}=1\)
The line passes through the point (1, -4)
\(\frac{1}{2 a}+\frac{(-4)}{5 a}=1\) ⇒ \(\frac{1}{2 a}-\frac{4}{5 a}=1\)
Multiply by 10a
(L.C.M of 2a and 5a is 10a)
5 – 8 = 10a ⇒ -3 = 10a ⇒ a = \(\frac{-3}{10}\)
The equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{2(-3 / 10)}+\frac{y}{5(-3 / 10)}=1\)
\(\frac{x}{-3 / 5}+\frac{y}{-3 / 2}=1\) ⇒ \(\frac{5 x}{-3}+\frac{2 y}{-3}=1\)
\(\frac{-5 x}{3}-\frac{2 y}{3}=1\)
Multipy by 3
– 5x – 2y = 3 ⇒ – 5x – 2y – 3 = 0
5x + 2y + 3 = 0
The equation of a line is 5x + 2y + 3 = 0

Question 37.
From the top of the tower 60m high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a vertical lamp post are observed to be 38° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the lamp post (tan 38° = 0.7813, √3 = 1.732)
Answer:

Let the height of the lamp post be “h”
The height of the tower (BC) = 60 m
∴ EC = 60 – h
Let AB be x
In the right ∆ ABC
tan 60° = \(\frac{B C}{A B}\)
√3 = \(\frac{60}{x}\)
x = \(\frac{60}{\sqrt{3}}\) …… (1)
In the right ∆ DEC, tan 38° = \(\frac{E C}{D E}\)
0.7813 = \(\frac{60-h}{x}\)
x = \(\frac{60-h}{0.7813}\) ….. (2)
Froom (1) and (2) we get
\(\frac{60}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{60-h}{0.7813}\)
60 × 0.7813 = 60√3 – √3h
46.88 = 60√3 – √3h
√3h = 60√3 – 46.88
= 60 × 1.732 – 46.88
= 103.92 – 46.88
1.732 h = 57.04 ⇒ h = \(\frac{57.04}{1.732}\)
h = \(\frac{5704}{1732}\) = 32.93m
∴ Height of the lamp post = 32.93 m

Question 38.
Calculate the weight of a hollow brass sphere if the diameter is 14 cm and thickness is 1 mm, and whose density is 17.3 g/cm³.
Answer:
Let r and R be the inner and outer radii of the hollow sphere.
Given that, inner diameter d = 14 cm; inner radius r = 7 cm; thickness = 1 mm = \(\frac{1}{10}\) cm
Outer radius R = 7 + \(\frac{1}{10}=\frac{71}{10}\) = 7.1 cm
Volume of hollow sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π (R³ – r³) cu. cm
= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\)(357.91 -343) = 62.48 cm³
But, weight of brass in 1 cm³ = 17.3 gm
Total weight = 17.3 × 62.48 = 1080.90 gm
Therefore, total weight is 1080.90 grams.

Question 39.
Find the Co-efficient of variation of 24, 26,33,37,29,31
Answer:
Arrange in ascending order we get 24, 26,29, 31,33,37
Assumed mean = 29


\(\frac{4.32}{30} \times 100\) = \(\frac{432}{30}=14.4\)
Coefficient of variation = 14.4%

Question 40.
Two dice, one blue and one grey, are thrown at the same time. Write down all the possible outcomes. W hat is the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is ………………. .
Answer:
When we roll two dice
Sample space = {(1. 1) (1,2) (1, 3) (1, 4) (1, 5) (1, 6)
(2, 1) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 4) (2, 5) (2, 6)
(3, 1) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 4) (3, 5) (3, 6)
(4, 1) (4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 4) (4, 5) (4, 6)
(5, 1) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 4) (5, 5) (5, 6)
(6, 1) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6. 4) (6, 5) (6, 6)}
n(S) = 36
(i) Let A be the event of getting the sum of two number is 8
A = {(2, 6) (3, 5) (4, 4) (5, 3) (6, 2)} 5
n(A) = 5
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{5}{36}\)

(ii) Let B be the event of getting the sum of the two numbers is 13.
B = { }
n(B) = 0
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{0}{36}=0\)

(iii) Let C be the event of getting the sum of the two numbers is less than 12 or equal to 12.
n(C) = 36
P(C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{36}{36}=1\)

Question 41.
Find two consecutive positive integers, sum of whose squares is 365.
Answer:
Let the two consecutive positive integers be “x” and x + 1
Sum of squares = 365
x² + (x+1)² = 365
2x² + 2x – 364 = 0
x² + x – 182 = 0

(x + 14) (x – 13) = 0
x + 14 = 0 or x – 13 = 0
x = -14 or x = 13 (rejecting -14. Given positive integer)
The consecutive terms are 13 and 14.

Question 42.
A cylindrical bucket of 32 cm high and with radius of base 18 cm, is filled with sand completely. This bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, find the radius and slant height of the heap.
Answer:
Cylindrical bucket
Height of the bucket (h) = 32 cm
Radius of the bucket (r) = 18 cm

Conical heap
Height of the cone (H) = 24 cm
Let the radius of the conical heap be “P ”
By the given condition
Volume of the conical heap = Volume of the cylindrical bucket
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)πR²H = πr²
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) × R² × 24 = r²H
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) × R² × 24 = 18 × 18 × 32
R² = \(\frac{18 \times 18 \times 32 \times 3}{24}\)
= \(\frac{18 \times 18 \times 4 \times 3}{3}\)
= 18 × 18 × 4
= 36 cm
Slant height of the cone (l) = \(\sqrt{H^{2}+R^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{24^{2}+36^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(12 \times 2)^{2}+(12 \times 3)^{2}}\)
= 12\(\sqrt{2^{2}+3^{2}}\)
= 12√13
Slant height of the cone = 12√13 cm
Radius of the cone = 36 cm

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) PQ is a chord of length 8 cm to a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a point T. Find the length of the tangent TP.
Answer:

Let TR = y. Since, OT is perpendicular bisector of PQ
PR = QR = 4 cm
In ∆ORP, OP² = OR² + PR²
QR² = OP² – PR²
OR² = 5² – 4² = 25 – 16 = 9
OR = 3 cm
OT = OR + RT = 3 + y …. (1)
In ∆PRT , TP² = TR² + PR² …. (2)
and ∆OPT we have, OT² = TP² + OP²
OT² = (TR² + PR²) + OP² (substitute for TP² from (2)
(3 + y)² = y² + 4² + 5²(substitute for OT from (1))
9 + 6y + y² = y² + 16 + 5 There fore y = TR = \(\frac{16}{3}\)
6y = 41 – 9 we get y = \(\frac{16}{3}\)
From (2) TP² = TR² + PR²
TP² = \(\left(\frac{16}{3}\right)^{2}+4^{2}=\frac{256}{9}+16=\frac{400}{9} \mathrm{so}, \mathrm{TP}=\frac{20}{3} \mathrm{cm}\)

[OR]

(b) Draw a triangle ABC of base BC = 8 cm, ∠A = 60° and the bisector of ∠A meets BC at D such that BD = 6 cm.
Answer:


Step 1 : Draw a line segment BC = 8 cm.
Step 2 : At B, draw’ BE such that ∠CBE = 60° .
Step 3 : At B, draw BF such that ∠EBF = 90° .
Step 4 : Draw the perpendicular bisector to BC, w’hich intersects BF at O and BC at G.
Step 5 : With O as centre and OB as radius draw a circle.
Step 6 : From B, mark an arc of 6 cm on BC at D.
Step 7 : The perpendicular bisector intersects the circle at I. Joint ID.
Step 8 : ID produced meets the circle at A. Now join AB and AC.
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x – 4 and hence use it to solve x² + 3x – 4 = 0.
Answer:
Let y = x² + 3x – 4
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x – 4

(ii) Plot the points (-5, 6), (-4, 0), (-3, -4), (-2, -6), (-1, -6), (0, -4), (1, 0), (2, 6), (3, 14) on the graph using suitable scale.
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
The smooth curve is the graph of y = x² + 3x – 4
(iv) To solve x² + 3x – 4 = 0, subtract x² + 3x – 4 = 0 from y = x² + 3x – 4.
y = o
∴ The point of intersection with the X – axis is the solution set.
The solution set is -4 and 1.

[OR]

(b) A motor boat whose speed is 18 km/hr in still water takes 1 hour more to go to 24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
Answer:
Let the speed of the stream be “x” km/hr
Speed of the motor boat to go for upstream = (18 – x) km/hr
Speed of the motor boat to go for down stream = (18 + x) km/hr
Time taken to go for upstream = \(\frac{24}{18-x}\) hour
Time taken to go for down stream = \(\frac{24}{18-x}\)
By the given condition
\(\frac{24}{18-x}-\frac{24}{18+x}=1\)
\(\frac{24(18+x)-24(18-x)}{(18-x)(18+x)}=1\)
432 + 24x + 432 + 24x = (18 – x)(18 – x)
48x = 324 – x²
x² + 48x – 324 = 0
x² + 54x – 6x – 324 = 0
x(x + 54) – 6 (x + 54) = 0
(x + 54) (x – 6) = 0
x + 54 = 0 or x – 6 = 0
x = -54 or x = 6 (speed cannot be negative)
∴ Speed of the boat = 6 km/hr

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – 1

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If there are 10 relations from a set A = {1, 2, 3,4, 5} to a set B, then the number of elements in B is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 2.
If g = {(1,1),(2, 3),(3,5),(4,7)} is a function given by g(x) = αx + β then the values of α and β are ………….. .
(1) (-1,2)
(2) (2,-1)
(3) (-1,-2)
(4) (1,2)
Answer:
(2) (2,-1)

Question 3.
If 7^4k = ………….. (mod 100)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Answer:
(1) 1

Question 4.
The next term ot the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 5.
If (x – 6) is the HCF of x² – 2x – 24 and x² – kx – 6 then the value of K is ………….. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8
Answer:
(2) 5

Question 6.
Find the matrix X if 2X + \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 7 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 7 \\ 9 & 5 \end{matrix} \right]\) ………….. .
(1) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 & -2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(3) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(4) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 7.
The two tangents from an external points P to a circle with centre at O are PA and PB. If ∠APB = 70° then the value of ∠AOB is ………….. .
(1) 100°
(2) 110°
(3) 120°
(4) 130°
Answer:
(2) 110°

Question 8.
The equation of a line passing through the origin and perpendicular to the line 7x – 3y + 4 = 0 is ………….. .
(1)7x – 3y + 4 = 0
(2) 3x – 7y + 4 = 0
(3) 3x + 7y = 0
(4) 7x – 3y = 0
Answer:
(3) 3x + 7y = 0

Question 9.
If x = a tan θ and y = b sec θ then ………….. .
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)
(2) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
(3) \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=0\)
(4) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=0\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}=1\)

Question 10.
The ratio of the volumes of a cylinder, a cone and a sphere, if each has the same diameter and same height is ………….. .
(1) 1:2:3
(2) 2:1:3
(3) 1:3:2
(4) 3:1:2
Answer:
(4) 3:1:2

Question 11.
The probability of getting a job for a person is \(\frac { x }{ 3 }\). If the probability of not getting the job is \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) then the value of x is ………….. .
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 1.5
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 12.
Variance of the first 11 natural numbers is ………….. .
(1) √5
(2) √10
(3) 5√2
(4) 10
Answer:
(4) 10

Question 13.
If α and β are the roots of the equation ax² + bx + c = 0 then (α + β)² is ………….. .
(1) \(-\frac{b^{2}}{a^{2}}\)
(2) \(\frac{c^{2}}{a^{2}}\)
(3) \(\frac{b^{2}}{a^{2}}\)
(4) \(\frac{b c}{a}\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{b^{2}}{a^{2}}\)

Question 14.
If K(x) = 3x – 9 and L(x) = 7x – 10 then Lok is ………….. .
(1) 21x + 73
(2) -21x + 73
(3) 21x – 73
(4) 22x – 73
Answer:
(3) 21x – 73

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Let A = {1,2,3,4,…, 45} and R be the relation defined as “is square of ” on A. Write R as a subset of A × A. Also, find the domain and range of R.
Answer:
A = {1,2,3,4. . . .45} .
The relation is defined as “is square of’
R = {(1, 1) (2, 4) (3, 9) (4, 16) (5, 25) (6, 36)} .
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Range of R = {1,4,9,16,25,36}

Question 16.
If f(x) = 3x – 2, g(x) = 2x + k and if fog = gof, then find the value of k.
Answer:
f(x) = 3x – 2, g(x) = 2x + k
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(2x + k) = 3(2x + k) – 2 = 6x + 3k – 2
Thus, fog(x) = 6x + 3k – 2.
gof(x) = g(3x – 2) = 2(3x – 2) + k
Thus, gof(x) = 6x – 4 + k.
Given that fog = gof
Therefore, 6x + 3k – 2 = 6x – 4 + k
6x – 6x + 3k – k = – 4 + 2 ⇒ k = – 1

Question 17.
Find the rational form of the number \(0 . \overline{123}\).
Answer:
Letx = \(0 . \overline{123}\)
= 0.123123123….
= 0.123 + 0.000123 + 000000123 + ….
This is an infinite G.P
Here a = 0.123, r = \(\frac{0.000123}{0.123}\) = 0.001
S_n = \(\frac{a}{1-r}=\frac{0.123}{1-0.001}=\frac{0.123}{0.999}=. \frac{41}{333}\)

Question 18.
How many consecutive odd integers beginning with 5 will sum to 480?
Answer:
First term (a) = 5
Common difference (d) = 2 (consecutive odd integer)
S_n = 480

\(\frac { n }{ 2 }\) [2a + (n – 1)d] = 480
\(\frac { n }{ 2 }\) [10 + (n – 1)2] = 480
\(\frac { n }{ 2 }\) [10 + 2n – 2] = 480
\(\frac { n }{ 2 }\) (8 + 2 n) = 480
n( 4 + n) = 480
4n + n² – 480 = 0
n² + 4n – 480 = 0
(n + 24) (n – 20) = 0
n + 24 = 0 or n – 20 = 0
n = -24 or n = 20 [number of terms cannot be negative]
∴ Number of consecutive odd integers is 20

Question 19.
Simplify \(\frac{5 t^{3}}{4 t-8} \times \frac{6 t-12}{10 t}\)
Answer:

Question 20.
Solve the following quadratic equations by factorization method √2x² + 7x + 5 √2 = 0
Answer:
√2x² + 7x + 5√2 = 0
√2x² + 2x + 5x + 5√2 = 0
√2x(x + √2) + 5(x + √2) = 0
(x + √2) + 5(x + √2) = 0

(x + √2) or 5(x + √2) = 0 (equate the product of factors to zero)
x = -√2 or √2x = -5 x ⇒ x = \(\frac{-5}{\sqrt{2}}\)
The roots are -√2, \(\frac{-5}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 21.
Find the value of a, b, c, d from the equation \(\begin{pmatrix} a-b & 2a+c \\ 2a-b & 3c+d \end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 5 \\ 0 & 2 \end{pmatrix}\)
Answer:
The given matrices are equal. Thus all corresponding elements are equal.
Therefore, a – b = 1 …(1)
2a + c = 5 …(2)
2a – b = 0 ….(3)
3c + d = 2 …(4)
(3) gives 2a – b = 0 …(4)
2 a = b …(5)
Put 2a = b in equation (1), a – 2a = 1 gives a = -1
Put a = -1 in equation (5), 2(-1) = b gives b = -2 .
Put a = -1 in equation (2), 2(-1) + c = 5 gives c = 7
Put c = 7 in equation (4), 3(7) + d = 2 gives = -19
Therefore, a = -1, b = -2, c = 7, d = -19

Question 22.
In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC If AD = 8x -7 , DB = 5x – 3 , AE = 4x – 3 and EC = 3x – 1, find the value of x.
Answer:

Given AD = 8x – 7; BD = 5x – 3; AE = 4x – 3; EC = 3x – 1
In ∆ABC we have DE || BC
By Basic proportionality theorem
\(\frac{A D}{D B}=\frac{A E}{E C}\)
\(\frac{8 x-7}{5 x-3}=\frac{4 x-3}{3 x-1}\)
(8x – 7) (3x -1) = (4x -3) (5x -3)
24x² – 8x – 21x + 7 = 20x² – 12x – 15x + 9
24x² – 20x² – 29x + 27x + 7 – 9 = 0
4x² – 2x – 2 = 0 .
2x² – x – 1 = 0 (Divided by 2)
2x² – 2x + x – 1 = 0

2x(x – 1) + 1 (x – 1) = 0
(x – 1) (2x + 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 or 2x + 1 = 0
x = 1 or 2x = -1 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) (Negative value will be omitted)
The value of x = 1

Question 23.
The hill in the form of a right triangle has its foot at (19, 3) . The inclination of the hill to the ground is 45°. Find the equation of the hill joining the foot and top.
Answer:

Slope of AB (m) = tan 45° = 1
Equation of the hill joining the foot and the top is 45°
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁
y – 3 = 1(x – 19)
y – 3 = x – 19
– x + y – 3 + 19 = 0
– x + y + 16 = 0
x – y – 16=0
The required equation is x – y – 16 = 0

Question 24.
Prove that \(\sqrt{\frac{1+\sin \theta}{1-\sin \theta}}\) = sec θ + tan θ
Answer:

Question 25.
If the total surface area of a cone of radius 7cm is 704 cm², then find its slant height.
Answer:
Given that, radius r = 7 cm
Now, total surface area of the cone = πr(l + r)sq. units
T.S.A = 704 cm²
704 = \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 7(l + 7)
32 = l + 7 implies l = 25 cm
Therefore, slant height of the cone is 25 cm.

Question 26.
The first term of an A.P is 6 and the common difference is 5. Find the A.P and its general term.
Answer:
Given a = 6, d = 5
General term t_n = a + (n – 1) d
= 6 + (n – 1)5
= 6 + 5n – 5
= 5n + 1
The general form of the A.P is a, a + d, a + 2d ………
The A.P. is 6, 11, 16, 21 …. 5n + 1

Question 27.
If θ is an acute angle and tan θ + cot θ = 2 find the value of tan⁷θ + cot⁷θ
Answer:
Given tan θ + cot θ = 2
tan θ + \(\frac{1}{\tan \theta}\) = 2
\(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta+1}{\tan \theta}\) = 2
tan²θ + 1 = 2 tan θ
tan²θ – 2 tan θ + 1 = 0
(tan θ – 1)² = 0
∴ tanθ – 1 = 0
tanθ = 1
tanθ = tan45 ⇒ θ = 45°
tan⁷θ + cot⁷θ = tan⁷45° + cot ⁷45°
= (1)⁷ + (1)^{7
= 2}

Question 28.
Cards marked with the numbers 2 to 101 are placed in a box and mixed thoroughly one card is drawn from this box. Find the probability that the number on the card is a number which is a perfect square.
Answer:
Sample space = {2, 3, 4,… 101}
n(s) = 100
Let A be the event of getting perfect square numbers
A= {4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100}
n(A) = 9
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{9}{100}\)
Probability of getting a card marked with a number which is a perfect square is \(\frac{9}{100}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Consider the functions f(x) = x², g(x) = 2x and h(x) = x + 4 Show that (fog)oh = fo(goh)
Answer:
f(x) = x² ; g(x) = 2x and h(x) = x + 4
(fog) x = f[g(x)]
= f( 2X)
= (2x)²
= 4x²
(fog) oh (x) = fog [h(x)]
= fog(x + 4)
= 4(x + 4)²
= 4[x² + 8x + 16]
= 4x² + 32x + 64 ….(1)
goh (x) = g[h(x)]
= g(x + 4)
= 2(x + 4)
= 2x + 8
fo(goh)x = fo[goh(x)}
= f[2x + 8}
= (2x + 8)²
= 4x² + 32x + 64 ……. (2)
From (1) and (2) we get (fog) oh = fo(goh)

Question 30.

(i) f(4)
(ii) f(-2)
(iii) f(4) + 2f(1)
(iv) \(\frac{f(1)-3 f(4)}{f(-3)}\)
Answer:
The function f is defined by three values in intervals I, II, III as shown by the side

For a given value of x = a, find out the interval at which the point a is located, there after find f(a) using the particular value defined in that interval.
(i) First, we see that, x = 4 lie in the third interval.
Therefore, f(x) = 3x – 2 ; f(4) = 3(4) – 2 = 10

(ii) x = -2 lies in the second interval.
Therefore, f(x) = x² – 2 ; f(-2) = (-2)² – 2 = 2

(iii) From (i), f(4) = 10.
To find f(1), first we see that x = 1 lies in the second interval.
Therefore,f(x) = x² – 2 => f(1) = 1² – 2 = -1
So, f(4) + 2f(1) = 10 + 2 (-1) = 8

(iv) We know that f(1) = -1 and f(4) = 10.
For finding f(-3), we see that x = -3 , lies in the first interval.
Therefore, f(x) = 2x + 7; thus, f(-3) = 2(-3) + 7 = 1
Hence, \(\frac{f(1)-3 f(4)}{f(-3)}=\frac{-1-3(10)}{1}=-31\)

Question 31.
If (m + 1)^th term of an A.P. is twice the (n + 1)^th> term, then prove that (3m + 1)^th term is twice the (m + n + 1)^th term.
Answer:
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
Given t_m+1 = 2 t_n+1
a + (m + 1 – 1)d = 2[a + (n + 1 – 1)d]
a + md = 2(a + nd) ⇒ a + md = 2a + 2nd
md – 2nd = a
d(m – 2n) = a ……. (1)
To prove that t_{3m + 1} = 2(t_{3m + n + 1})
L.H.S. = t_{3m + 1}
= a + (3m + 1 – 1 )d
= a + 3md
= d(m – 2n) + 3md (from 1)
= md – 2nd + 3md
= 4md – 2nd
= 2d (2m – n)

R.H.S. = 2 (t_{m + n + 1})
= 2[a + (m + n + 1 – 1) d]
= 2 [a + (m + n)d]
= 2 [d (m – 2n) + md + nd)] (from 1)
= 2 [dm – 2nd + md + nd]
= 2 [2md – nd] = 2d (2m – n)
R.H.S = L.H.S
∴ t_{(3m + 1)}= 2t_{(m + n + 1)}

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 5 + 55 + 555 + ….
Answer:
The series is neither Arithmetic nor Geometric series. So it can be split into two series and then find the sum.
5 + 55 + 555 + …. + n terms = 5[1 + 11 + 111 + …. + n terms]
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)[9 + 99 + 999 + …. + « terms]
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)[(10 – 1) + (100 – 1) + (1000 – 1) + …. + n terms)]
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)[(10 + 100 + 1000 + …. +n terms) -n]
= \(\frac{5}{9}\left[\frac{10\left(10^{n}-1\right)}{(10-1)}-n\right]=\frac{50\left(10^{n}-1\right)}{81}-\frac{5 n}{9}\)

Question 33.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. If 4 years ago Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Answer:
Let the age of Vani be”x” years
Vani father age = “y” years
Vani grand father = “z” years
By the given first condition.
\(\frac{x+y+z}{3}=53\)
x + y + z = 159….(1)
By the given 2nd condition.
\(\frac{1}{2} z+\frac{1}{3} y+\frac{1}{4} x=65\)
Multiply by 12
6z + 4y +3x = 780
3x + 4y + 6z = 780 ….(2)
By the given 3^rd condition
z – 4 = 4 (x – 4) ⇒ z – 4 = 4x – 16
-4x + z = -16 + 4
4x – z = 12 ….(3)

Substitute the value of x = 24 in (3)
4 (24) – z = 12
96 – z = 12
-Z = 12 – 96
z = 84
Substitute the value of
x = 24 and z = 84 in (1)
24 + y + 84 = 159
y + 108 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51
Vani age = 24 years
Vani’s father age = 51 years
Vani – grand father age = 84 years

Question 34.
If A = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 & 1 \\ 2 & -1 & 1 \end{matrix} \right)\) and B = \(\left( \begin{matrix} 2 & -1 \\ -1 & 4 \\ 0 & 2 \end{matrix} \right)\) show that (AB)^T = B^TA^T
Answer:

Question 35.
In figure, O is the centre of the circle with radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT intersects the circle E, if AB is the tangent to the circle at E, find the length of AB.
Answer:

In the right ∆ OTP,
PT² = OT² – OP²
= 13² – 5²
= 169 – 25 = 144
PT = √144 = 12 cm
Since lengths of tangent drawn from a point to circle are equal.
∴ AP = AE = x .
AT = PT – AP
= (12 – x) cm
Since AB is the tangent to the circle E.
∴ OE ⊥ AB .
∠OEA= 90°
∠AET = 90°
In ∆AET, AT² = AE² + ET²
In the right triangle AET,
AT² = AE² + ET²
(12 – x)² = x² + (13 – 5)²
144 – 24x + x² = x² + 64
24x = 80 ⇒ x = \(\frac{80}{24}=\frac{20}{6}=\frac{10}{3}\)
BE = \(\frac{10}{3}\) cm
AB = AE + BE
= \(\frac{10}{3}+\frac{10}{3}=\frac{20}{3}\)
∴ Length of AB = \(\frac{20}{3}\) cm

Question 36.
Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices are at (-9, 0), (-8, 6), (-1, -2) and (-6,-3)
Answer:

Let the vertices A(-9, 0), B(-8, 6), C(-1, -2) and D(-6, -3)
Plot the vertices in a graph and take them in counter – clock wise order.
Area of the Quadrilateral DCB
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₄ + x₄y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₄y₃ + x₁y₄ )]

= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [27 + 12- 6 + 0 -(0 + 3 + 16 – 54)]
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [33 -(-35)]
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [33 + 35] = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) × 68 = 34 sq. units.
Area of the Quadrilateral = 34 sq. units

Question 37.
A pole 5 m high is fixed on the top of a tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the pole observed from a point ‘A’ on the ground is 60° and the angle of depression to the point ‘A’ from the top of the tower is 45°. Find the height of the tower. (√3 = 1.732)
Answer:
Let BC be the height of the tower and CD be the height of the pole.
Let‘A’be the point of observation.
Let BC = x and AB = y.
From the diagram,

∠BAD = 60° and ∠XCA = 45° = ∠BAC ,
In right triangle ABC, tan 45° = \(\frac{B C}{A B}\)
gives 1 = \(\frac { x }{ y }\) so, x = y …… (1)
In right triangle ABD, tan60° = \(\frac{B D}{A B}=\frac{B C+C D}{A B}\)
gives √3 = \(\) so, √3y = x + 5
we get √3x = x + 5 [From (1)]

Hence, height of the tower is 6.83 m.

Question 38.
A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of a frustum of a cone is mounted on a hemisphere. The diameters of the frustum are 5 cm and 2 cm. The height of the entire shuttle cock is 7 cm. Find its external surface area.
Answer:

Radius of the lower end of the frustum (r) = 1 cm
Radius of the upper end of the frustum (R) = 2.5 cm
Height of the frustum (h) = 6 cm
Let “l” be the slant height of the frustum
l = \(\sqrt{h^{2}+(\mathrm{R}-r)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{6^{2}+(2.5-1)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{36+2.25}\) = \(\sqrt{38.25}\)
= 6.18 cm
External surface area of shuttle cock = C.S.Aof the frustum + C.S.Aof a hemisphere
= πl(R + r) + 2 πr²
= π [6.18 (2.5 + 1) + 2 × 1²] cm²
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\)[6.18 × 3.5 + 2]
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × (21.63 + 2)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 23.63 cm² = 74.26 cm²
External surface area = 74.26 cm²

Question 39.
The mean and variance of seven observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If five of these are 2, 4,10,12 and 14, then find the remaining two observations.
Answer:
Let the missing two observation be ‘a’ and ‘b’
Arithmetic mean = 8

\(\frac{2+4+10+12+14+a+b}{7}\) = 8 ⇒ \(\frac{42+a+b}{7}\) = 8
a + b + 42 = 56
a + b = 56 – 42
a + b = 14 ……… (1)
Variance = 16
Variance = \(\frac{\Sigma x_{i}^{2}}{n}-\left(\frac{\Sigma x_{i}}{n}\right)^{2}\)

560 – 460 = a² + b²
a² + b² = 100 ⇒ (a + b)² – 2ab = 100 [a² + b² = (a+b)² – 2 ab]
14² – 2 ab = 100 ⇒ 196 – 2 ab = 100 [a + b = 14(from (1)]
196 – 100 = 2ab
96 = 2ab ⇒ ab = \(\frac{96}{2}\) = 48
∴ b = \(\frac{48}{a}\) …… (2)
Substitute thr value of b = \(\frac{48}{a}\) in (1)
a + \(\frac{48}{a}\) = 14 ⇒ a² + 48 = 14a
a² – 14a + 48 = 0 ⇒ (a – 6) (a – 8) = 0
a = 6 or 8
when a = 6
b = \(\frac{48}{a}=\frac{48}{6}=8\) = 8

when a = 8
b = \(\frac{48}{a}=\frac{48}{6}=8\) = 6

∴ Missing observation is 8 and 6 (or) 6 and 8

Question 40.
From a solid circular cylinder with height 10 cm and radius of the base 6 cm, a right circular cone of the same height and same base is removed. Find (i) the volume of the remaining solid also, find (ii) the whole surface area.
Answer:
Circular cylinder
Radius of the base (r) = 6 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 10 cm

Circular Cone
Radius of the base (R) = 6 cm
Height of the cone (H) = 10 cm

(i) Volume of the remaining solid = Volume of the cylinder – Volume of the cone

= πr²h – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)πR²H
= π(r²h – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)R²H)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) [6 × 6 × 10 – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) × 6 × 6 × 10] cm²
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) [360 – 120] cm³
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 240 cm³
= \(\frac { 5280 }{ 7 }\) cm³ = 754.29 cm³

(ii) Slant height of a cone = \(\sqrt{h^{2}+r^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{10^{2}+6^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{100+36}\)
= \(\sqrt{136}\) = 11.66 cm
Whole surface area of the solid = curved surface area of the cylinder + curved surface area of the cone + base area
= 2 πrh + πRI + πr²
= π[2 × 6 × 10 + 6 × 11.66 + 6 × 6]
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\)[120 + 69.96 + 36] cm²
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 225.96 cm²
= \(\frac { 4971.12 }{ 7 }\) cm²
= 710.16 cm²
(i) Volume of the remaining solid = 754.29 cm³
(ii) whole surface area = 710.16 cm²

Question 41.
If a and p are the roots of the equation 3x² – 6x + 1=0 form the equation whose roots are 2α + β and 2β + α
Answer:
α and β are the roots of 3x² – 6x + 1 = 0
α + β = \(\frac { 6 }{ 3 }\) = 2
αβ = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
Given the roots are 2α + β; 2β + α
Sum of the roots = 2α + β + 2β + α
= 2(α + β) + (α + β)
= 2(2) + 2
= 6
Product of roots = (2α + β) (2β + α)
= 4αβ + 2α² + 2β² + αβ
= 5αβ + 2(α² + β²)
5αβ + 2[(α + β)² – 2αβ]
= 5 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) + 2 (4 – 2 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\))
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\) + \(2\left(\frac{12-2}{3}\right)\)
= \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\) + 2 × \(\frac { 10 }{ 3 }\)
= \(\frac{5}{3}+\frac{20}{3}\)
= \(\frac { 25 }{ 3 }\)
The quadratic polynomial is x² – (sum of the roots)x – product of the roots = 0
x² – 6x + \(\frac { 25 }{ 3 }\) = 0
3x² – 18x + 25 = 0

Question 42.
Tw o dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability that that sum of the numbers on the faces is neither divisible by 3 nor by 4.
Answer:
Sample space = {(1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (1,6), (2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6), (3.1) , (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6), (4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6), (5.1) , (5,2), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5), (5,6), (6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)}
n(S) = 36
Let A be the event of getting the sum is divisible by 3 ‘
A = { (1,2) (2,1) (1,5) (5,1) (2,4) (4,2) (3,3) (3,6) (6,3) (4,5) (5,4) (6,6)}
n (A) = 12
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{12}{36}\)
Let B be the event of getting a sum is divisible by 4.
B = {(1,3) (2,2) (2,6) (3,1) (3,5) (4,4) (5,3) (6,2) (6,6)} n (B) = 9
n(B) = 9
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{9}{36}\)
A ∩ B = {(6,6)}
n(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{36}\)
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P (A ∩ B)
\(=\frac{12}{36}+\frac{9}{36}-\frac{1}{36}\)
\(=\frac{12+9-1}{36}=\frac{20}{36}\)
Neither divisible by 3 nor by 4
P(A’ ∩ B’) = P(A ∪ B)’
= 1 – p(A ∪ B) = 1 – \(\frac{20}{36}=\frac{36-20}{36}\)
= \(\frac{16}{36}=\frac{4}{9}\)

PART-IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw the two tangents from a point which is 10 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Answer:


Steps of construction:

1. With. O as centre, draw a circle of radius 5 cm.
2. Draw a line OP = 10 cm.
3. Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MO as radius draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
5. Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents.

Verification: In the right ∆ OAP
PA² = OP² – OA²
= 10² – 5² = \(\sqrt{100-25}\) = √75 = 8.7 cm.
Length of the tangent is 8.7 cm

[OR]

(b) Construct a ∆PQR which the base PQ = 4.5 cm, R = 35° and the median from R to RG is 6 cm.
Answer:


Steps of construction

1. Draw a line segment PQ = 4.5 cm
2. At P, draw PE such that ∠QPE = 60°
3. At P, draw PF such that ∠EPF = 90°
4. Draw the perpendicular bisect to PQ, which intersects PF at O and PQ at G.
5. With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
6. From G mark arcs of radius 5.8 cm on the circle. Mark them at R and S
7. Join PR and RQ. PQR is the required triangle.
8. 

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² and hence solve x² – 4x – 5 = 0.
Answer:
Given equations are y = x² and x² – 4x – 5 = 0
(i) Assume the values of x from – 4 to 5.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 16), (- 3, 9), (-2,4), (-1, 1), (0, 0), (1, 1), (2,4), (3, 9), (4, 16), (5, 25).
(iii) Join the points by a smooth curve.
(iv) Solve the given equations


(v) The points of intersection of the line and the parabola are (-1, 1) and (5, 25).
The x-coordinates of the points are -1 and 5.
Thus solution set is {- 1, 5}.

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y – x² -5x – 6 and hence solve x² – 5x – 14 = 0
Answer:
Let y = x² – 5x – 6
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² – 5x – 6 by preparing the table of values as below.

(ii) Plot the points (-3, 18), (-2, 8), (-1, 0), (0, -6), (1, -10), (2, -12), (3, -12), (4, -10), (5, -6), (6, 0) and (7, 8).
(iii) Join the points by a free hand to get smooth curve.
(iv) To solve x² – 5x – 14 = 0, subtract x² – 5x – 14 = 0 from y = x² – 5x – 6.

The equation y = 8 represent a straight line draw a straight line through y = 8 intersect the curve at two places. From the two points draw perpendicular line to the X – axis it will intersect at -2 and 7.
The solution is -2 and 7

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
To project the rockets which of the following principle(s) is /(are) required?
(a) Newton’s third law of motion
(b) Newton’s law of gravitation
(c) Law of conservation of linear momentum
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 2.
Kilowatt hour is the unit of _______.
(a) resistivity
(b) conductivity
(c) electrical energy
(d) electrical power
Answer:
(c) electrical energy

Question 3.
_______ element emits its radiation spontaneously.
(a) Ni
(b) Pb
(c)Pt
(d) u
Answer:
(d) u

Question 4.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon-di-oxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 5.
________ is an important metal to form amalgam.
(a) Ag
(b) Hg
(c) Mg
(d) Al
Answer:
(b) Hg

Question 6.
The component present in lesser amount, in a solution is called _______.
(a) solute
(b) solvent
(c) solution
(d) colloid
Answer:
(a) solute

Question 7.
A patient with blood group ‘O’ was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should effectively use _______ for transfusion.
(a) O group
(b) AB group
(c) A or B group
(d) All blood group
Answer:
(a) O group

Question 8.
Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to _______.
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) State of hallucination
(d) Suppression of brain function
Answer:
(b) Cirrhosis of liver

Question 9.
_______ is formed during anaerobic respiration.
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Question 10.
Casparian strips are present in the _____ of the root.
(a) Cortex
(b) Pith
(c) Pericycle
(d) Endodermis
Answer:
(d) Endodermis

Question 11.
The soft finely stratified sedimentary rock refer to _______.
(a) Shale
(b) Petroleum
(c) Methane
(d) Coal
Answer:
(a) Shale

Question 12.
All files are stored in the _______.
(a) Folder
(b) Box
(c) Paint
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(a) Folder

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State Newton’s second law.
Answer:
“The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force”.

Question 14.
What are the caused of “Myopia”?
Answer:
Myopia, also known as short sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of eye ball. With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distance objects cannot be seen clearly.

Question 15.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:

• The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20^th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air.
• If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

Question 16.
Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
Answer:
On increasing temperature heat is supplied to the reactant. This energy breaks more bonds and thus speed up the chemical reaction. Foods kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator.

Question 17.
Differentiate soaps and detergents.
Answer:

Soaps	Detergents
1. It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids.	1. It is a sodium salt of sulphonic acids.
2. Its effectiveness is reduced when used in hard water.	2. It is effective even in hard water.
3. Soaps are biodegradable.	3. Most of the detergents are non-biodegradable.

Question 18.
Write the dental formula of rabbit.
Answer:
Dental formula is (I \(\frac{2}{1}\), C\(\frac{0}{0}\), PM \(\frac{2}{1}\), M \(\frac{2}{1}\)) in Rabbit, which is written as \(\frac{2033}{1023}\)
I – Incisors, C – Canine, PM – Premolar and M-molar.

Question 19.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering is known as bolting. Artifically bolting can be induced on rosette plants by the treatment of Gibberellins.

Question 20.
Identify the parts A,B,C & D?

Answer:
A – Exine
B – Intine
C – Generative cell
D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 21.
How can you determine the age of the fossils?
Answer:
The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. They may be carbon, uranium, lead or potassium. By radio active carbon (C¹⁴) dating method, carbon consumption of animals and plants stops after death and since then, only the decaying process of C¹⁴ occurs continuously. The time passed since death of a plant or animal can be calculated by measuring the amount of C¹⁴ present in their body.

Question 22.
A charge of 10 coulomb flows through a bulb in 5 second. What is the current through the bulb?
Answer:
Given : Q = 10 C
t = 5 s
I = \(\frac{Q}{t}=\frac{10}{5}\)
I = 2 A

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
Answer:
(i) There is no change in the linear momentum of a system of bodies as long as no net external force acts on them.
(ii) Let us prove the law of conservation of linear momentum with the following illustration:

(iii) Let two bodies A and B having masses m₁ and m₂ move with initial velocity u₁ and u₂ in a straight line.
(iv) Let the velocity of the first body be higher than that of the second body. i.e., u₁ > u₂.
(v) During an interval of time t second, they tend to have a collision. After the impact, both of them move along the same straight line with a velocity v₁ and v₂ respectively.
Force on body B due to A, F_B = \(\frac{m_{2}\left[v_{2}-u_{2}\right]}{t}\)
Force on body A due to B, F_A = \(\frac{m_{1}\left[v_{1}-u_{1}\right]}{t}\)

By Newton’s III law of motion,
Action force = Reaction force
F_A = -F_B
\(\frac{m_{1}\left[v_{1}-u_{1}\right]}{t}=-\frac{m_{2}\left[v_{2}-u_{2}\right]}{t}\)
m₁v₁ – m₁u₁ = -m₂v₂ + m₂u₂
m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ = m₁u₁ + m₂u₂

The above equation confirms in the absence of an external force, the algebraic sum of the momentum after collision is numerically equal to the algebraic sum of the momentum before collision. Hence file law of conservation linear momentum is proved.

Question 24.
(i) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
Answer:
Ray diagram for object placed between F and 2F

(ii) Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

Question 25.
(i) How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5A?
Answer:
Current I = 5 A
time (t) = 1 second
Charge of electron e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C

(ii) Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the center of the circle along which the listener is moving.

Question 26.
Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
Answer:
(а) The Relative Molecular Mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between the mass of one molecule of the gas or vapour to mass of one atom of Hydrogen.

(b) Vapour density is the ratio of the mass of a certain volume of a gas or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume of hydrogen, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

(c) According to Avogadro’s law, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Thus, let the number of molecules in one volume = n, then

(f) By comparing the definition of relative molecular mass Mid vapour density we can write as follows.

(g) By substituting the relative molecular mass value in vapour density definition, we get Vapour density (V.D.) = Relative molecular mass / 2
2 × vapour density = Relative molecular mass of a gas

Question 27.
How is metal corrosion prevented?
Answer:
Methods of preventing corrosion:
1. Alloying: The metals can be alloyed to prevent the process of corrosion.
E.g: Stainless Steel

2. Surface Coating: It involves application of a protective coating over the metal. It is of the
following types:
(a) Galvanization: It is the process of coating zinc on iron sheets by using electric current.
(b) Electroplating: It is a method of coating one metal over another metal by passing electric current.
(c) Anodizing: It is an electrochemical process that converts the metal surface into a decorative, durable and corrosion resistant. Aluminium is widely used for anodizing process.
(d) Cathodic Protection: It is the method of controlling corrosion of a metal surface protected is coated with the metal which is easily corrodible. The easily corrodible metal is called Sacrificial metal to act as anode ensuring cathodic protection.

Question 28.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
Answer:

A typical neuron consists of 3 parts: Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.
(1) Cyton:

• It has a central nucleus with the abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm.
• The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissel’s granules
• Other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum are present.
• Several neurofibrils in the cytoplasm help in transmission of nerve impulses to and form the cell body.

(2) Dendrites:

• These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes, that project from the surface of the cell body.
• They conduct nerve impulses, towards the cyton.
• The branched projections increase the surface area for receiving the signals from other nerve cells.

(3) Axon:

• It is a single, elongated, slender projection.
• The end of axon terminates as fine branches, which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob.
• The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma,
• The cytoplasm of axon is called axoplasm.
• Axon carries impulses away from the cyton.
• The protective sheath around the axon is myelin sheath
• The myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depression called Nodes of Ranvier. It acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses.
• The junction between two neuron is called synapsis.

Question 29.
(i) Read the following content and answer the questions below:
Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea plants obtained in F₁ generation are then cross-bred to produce F₂ generation of pea plants.
(a) What do the plants of F₁ generation look like?
(b) What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F₂ generation?
(c) Which type of plants were missing in F₁ generation but reappeared in F₂ generation?
Answer:
(a) In F₁ generation, all plants are tall (Tt)
(b) In F₂ generation the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plant is 3:1. i.e., 3 tall and 1 dwarf
Three types of plants were obtained
Tall homozygous : TT – 1
Tall heterozygous : Tt – 2
Dwarf homozygous : tt -1

(c) Dwarf plants were missing on F₁ but reappeared in F₂ generation.

(ii) Why is the sino-atrial node Called the pacemaker of heart?
Answer:
Sino-atrial node acts as the ‘pacemaker’ of the heart because it is capable of initiating impulse which can stimulate the heart muscles to contract.

Question 30.
Differentiate the following:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration (a) Monocot root and Dicot root
Answer:

Monocot Root	Dicot Root
1. Number of Xylem Polyarch	1. Tetrach
2. Cambium is absent.	2. Cambium is present during secondary growth
3. Secondary growth absent.	3. Secondary growth present.
4. Pith present	4. Pith absent

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Anaerobic respiration
1. Occur in the presence of oxygen.	1. Occurs in the absense of oxygen
2. Carbon dioxide, water and ATP are produced.	2. Lactic acid, Ethanol and ATP are produced.
3. It occurs in most plant and animals	3. It occurs in plants and bacteria

Question 31.
(i) What precautions can be taken for preventing heart disease?
(ii) Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
(i) Prevention for preventing heart disease

• Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat, cholesterol rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt.
• Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins.
• Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for body weight maintenance.
• Avoid alcohol consumption, Psychotrophic drugs and smoking.

(ii) Protina, shakt and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids, which are developed in India.

Question 32.
(i) Write the features of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
Answer:
Nuclear Fission

• The process of breaking up of a heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei is called ‘nuclear fission’.
• Can be performed at room temperature.
• Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are emitted.
• Fission leads to emission of gamma radiation. This triggers the mutation in the human gene and causes genetic transform diseases.

Nuclear Fusion:

• Nuclear fusion is the combination of two lighter nuclei to form a heavier nucleus.
• Extremely high temperature and pressure is needed.
• Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos are emitted.
• Only light and heat energy is emitted.

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.01 M HNO₃?
Answer:
pH = -log[H⁺]
= -log₁₀ ^-2
= (-2) (- log₁₀¹⁰)
= 2 × 1.00
pH = 2

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(i) State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
P ∝ 1/V

(ii) Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
Answer:
(1) To start with, the liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is poured in a container up to a level. Mark this level as L₁.
(2) Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner as shown in the figure Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and it expands.
(3) As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L₂.

On further heating, the thermal energy supplied to the liquid through the container results in the expansion of the liquid. Hence, the level of liquid rises to L₃. Now, the difference between the levels L₁ and L₃ is called as apparent expansion, and the difference between the levels L₂ and L₃ is called real expansion. The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.
Real expansion = L₃ – L₂
Apparent expansion = L₃ – L₁

[OR]

(b) (i) A source of sound is moving with a velocity of 50 ms^-1 towards a stationary listener. The listener measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. what will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the listener after crossing him? (velocity of sound in the medium is 330 ms^-1)
Answer:
When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is

The actual frequency of the sound is 848.48 Hz. When the source is moving away from the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is

(ii) Calculate the velocity of a moving body of mass 5 kg whose linear momentum is 2 kg ms^-1.
Answer:
Linear momentum = mass × velocity
Velocity = Linear momentum / mass
v = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 ms^-1

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the mass of 1.51 x 10^-23 molecule of H₂O.
Answer:

(ii) Calculate the moles of 46 g sodium.
Answer:
46 g of sodium
Atomic mass of sodium = 23
Mass of sodium = 46
No. of moles = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { atomic mass }}=\frac{46}{23}\)
= 2 mole of sodium

(iii) Calculate the number of molecules present in the 36 g water.
Answer:
H₂O → = (1 × 2) + (1 × 16)
= 2 + 16
H₂O = 18 g

= 12.046 × 10²³ atoms
36 g water contains → 12.046 x 10²³ atoms

[OR]

(b) (i) Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
Answer:
Factors affecting solubility: There are three main factors which govern die solubility of solute. They are:

1. Nature of the solute arid solvent
2. Temperature
3. Pressure

(1) Nature of the solute and solvent: The nature of the solute and solvent plays an important role in solubility. Although water dissolves an enormous variety of substances, both ionic and covalent, it does not dissolve everything.

The phrase that scientists often use when predicting solubility is “like dissolves like.” This expression means that dissolving occurs when similarities exist between the solvent and the solute. For example: Common salt is a polar compound and dissolves readily in polar solvent like water.

Non-polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents. For example, Fat dissolved in ether. But non-polar compounds, do not dissolve in polar solvents; polar compounds do not dissolve in non-polar solvents.

(2) Effect of Temperature:
Solubility of Solids in Liquid: Generally, solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature. For example, a greater amount of sugar will dissolve in warm water than in cold water.
In endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.
In exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.

Solubility of Gases in liquid : Solubility of gases in liquid decrease with increase in temperature. Generally, water contains dissolved oxygen. When water is boiled, the solubility of oxygen in water decreases, so oxygen escapes in the form of bubbles.

Aquatic animals live more in cold regions because, more amount of dissolved oxygen is present in the water of cold regions. This shows that the solubility of oxygen in water is more at low temperatures.

(3) Effect of Pressure: Effect of pressure is observed only in the case of solubility of a gas in a liquid. When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas in liquid increases.

The common examples for solubility of gases in liquids are carbonated beverages, i.e. soft drinks, household cleaners containing aqueous solution of ammonia, formalinaqueous solution of fonnaldehyde, etc.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Why are thyroid hormones referred as personality hormone?
(ii) Define triple fusion?
(iii) Enumerate the importance of forests?
Answer:
(i) Thyroid hormones is essential for normal physical, mental and personality development. Hence it is called as personality honnone.
(ii) The fusion involving two polar nucleus and a sperm nucleus, that occurs in double fertilization in a seed plant and results in the formation of endosperm, is called the triple fusion.
(iii) Importance of forests.

• Forests are the important component of our environment and are dominated by microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers and dense trees.
• Forests provide a vast habitat for wild animals.
• Forests help for the economic development of our country.
• Forests are the source for a wide range of renewable natural resource.
• Forests provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.
• They act as carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall and reduce global warming.
• Forests protect wild life and also acts as catchment for water conservation.
• They prevent natural hazards like floods and landslides
• They play a vital role in maintaining the ecological balance.

[OR]

(b) (i) List out any three parasitic adaptations in leech.
(ii) Natural selection is a driving force for evolution-How?
Answer:
(i) Parasitic adaptation of leech:

• Anterior and Posterior ends of the body are provided with suckers by which the animal attaches itself to the body of the host.
• The three Jaws, inside the mouth, causes a painless Y – shaped wound in the skin of the host.
• The salivary glands produce Hirudin, which does not allow the blood to coagulate. So, the continuous supply of blood is maintained.

(ii) Darwin published his observations under the name “origin of species”. It elaborates on the theory of natural selection for evolutionary transformation. The principles of Darwinism tells that natural selection is a driving force for evolution.

1. Overproduction: Living beings have the ability to reproduce and have the capacity to multiply in a geometrical manner.

2. Struggle for existence: Due to overproduction a geometric ratio of increase in population occurs. The space to live and food available for the organisms remain the same. This creates a competition among the organisms, for food and space, leading to struggle.

• The competition may be among the individuals of the same species (Intraspecific struggle).
• Competition between the organisms of different species living together (Interspecific struggle).
• Natural conditions like extreme heat or cold drought and floods can affect the existence of organisms (Environmental struggle).

3. Variations:
Small variations are important for evolution. According to Darwin, favourable variations are useful to the organisms and unfavourable variations are harmful or useless to the organisms.

4. Survival of the fittest or Natural selection:
During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation,survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organisms, which are unable to face the challenges, are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called as Natural selection.

5. Origin of species:
According to Darwin, new species originates by the gradual accumulation of favourable variations for a number of generations.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 5

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The mother seagull swooped upwards.
(a) leap
(b) rush
(c) move very quickly
(d) ascend
Answer:
(a) leap

Question 2.
The attic has always been favourite with children.
(a) loft
(b) terrace
(c) apartment
(d) Strong Room
Answer:
(a) loft

Question 3.
It is a 55-foot sailing vessel built indigenously in India.
(a) fully
(b) collectively
(c) innately
(d) specially
Answer:
(c) innately

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
She screamed back mockingly.
(a) disrespectfully
(b) ridiculously
(c) jeeringly
(d) respectfully
Answer:
(d) respectfully

Question 5.
We don’t have to use any means of repulsion.
(a) attraction
(b) distaste
(c) hate
(d) horror
Answer:
(a) attraction

Question 6.
I indulged in banking.
(a) took part
(b) participated
(c) abstained
(d) yielded
Answer:
(c) abstained

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of alga from the following:
(a) algum
(b) algi
(c) algae
(d) algas
Answer:
(c) algae

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – document.
(a) -ory
(b) -ise
(c) -ation
(d) -ly
Answer:
(c) -ation

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation SIM.
(a) Subscriber Information Module
(b) Subscriber Identification Module
(c) Student Identification Module
(d) School Identification Module
Answer:
(b) Subscriber Identification Module

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The crew …………………….. of water and food before they could complete their expedition.
(a) ran on
(b) ran about
(c) ran in
(d) ran out
Answer:
(d) ran out

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ watch ’ to form a compound word.
(a) hall
(b) house
(c) man
(d) clock
Answer:
(c) man

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
Mulan heard this ………….. her tent.
(a) by
(b) from
(c) at
(d) for
Answer:
(b) from

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
After he ………………. his lunch, he went across to the window.
(a) will finish
(b) finish
(c) was finishing
(d) had finished
Answer:
(d) had finished

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.he is ninety years old, he is in the pink of health.
(a) When
(b) Since
(c) Even though
(d) yet
Answer:
(c) Even though

PART – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two, [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Mention the special features of INSV Tarini.
Answer:
Indian Naval Ship Vessel Tarini commissioned to the Indian Navy service on 18th February, 2017, is the second sailboat of the Indian Navy. It is a 55-foot sailing vessel built indigenously in India by M/s Aquarius Shipyard Pvt. Ltd, located in Goa. After undergoing extensive sea trials, she was commissioned to the Indian Navy service.

Question 16.
What prompted the seagull to fly finally?
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting for him. He was maddened at the sight of the food and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly. Thus the young seagull was prompted to fly finally into space.

Question 17.
What was the daily routine of Mr. Sanyal?
Answer:
Sanyal would come every day to Nagen’s Tea Shop, sit at a comer table, have tea and biscuits, pay for the same and leave before it got dark. This was his regular duty after his wife and only son passed away a year ago.

Question 18.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer
Franz found the warm and bright day to be a temptation to spend his day outdoors. The birds were chirping at the edge of woods. The Pmssian soldiers were drilling in the open field at the back of sawmill. He felt he could gladl> spend life outdoors. Above all, Franz was not prepared for the test on participles.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;”
(a) What does the poet want everyone to learn?
(b) What should we do when things go wrong?
Answer:
(a) The poetess expects everyone to learn to walk with a smile and a song even when things go wrong.
(b) Even when things go wrong, we need to feel happy and be cheerful.

Question 20.
“She’s a lioness; don’t mess with her.
She ’ll not spare you if you ’re a prankster. ”
(a) How is a woman described here?
(b) Who is a prankster?
Answer:
(a) A woman is described as lionesses whom others should be afraid to play with.
(b) A prankster is a mischievous or malicious person who plays tricks on others.

Question 21.
“Not a flower could he see,
Not a leaf on a tree.”
(a) Who does ‘he’ refer to?
(b) Mention the season when he could not see a flower or a leaf on a tree.
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the Cricket.
(b) The season was winter. So he could not see a flower or a leaf on the tree.

Question 22.
“Beside the house sits a tree It never grows leaves.”
(а) What is found near the house?
(b) Why does it never grow leaves?
Answer:
(a) Near the house is found a tree with no leaves.
(b) It never grows leaves because it is eerie.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
Please assemble in the ground.
You are requested to assemble in the ground.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:
“Where are we going, sir?” asked the aero-coachman.
The aero-coachman asked the passenger where they were going.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Wherefore said miranda did they not that hour destroy us
“Wherefore,” said Miranda, “did they not that hour destroy us?”

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
As Catherin is a voracious reader, she buys a lot of books.
Being a voracious reader. Catherin buys a lot of books.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences:
(a) he saw / When / in the / platform/ the train / he rushed.
(b) as /I/ healthy / are you / am / as.
(a) He rushed, when he saw the train in the platform.
Or
(a) When he saw the train in the platform he rushed.
(b) I am as healthy as you are.

Section – IV

Answer the following question:

Question 28.
A stranger wants to visit the library. Write the steps to guide him to reach him destination.
Answer

• Go straight and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the second left after the bank on Big street.
• You will find the Library on the left after you take the right turn.

Section -I
Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Describe the struggles undergone by the young seagull to overcome its fear of flying.
Answer:
The Young Seagull was afraid to fly and was alone on his ledge. He was more frightened than his siblings. His attempts failed. He had taken a little run forward and tried to flap his wings. But that was all he could do. He felt that his wings would not support him. He failed to muster up the courage and fly. His parents taunted, scolded and threatened him to leave him starving at the ledge unless he flew away. But nothing could make him fly.

The seagull helplessly watched his parents flying with his brothers and sisters. The whole family went on taunting him for his cowardice. Only his mother was looking at him. She had picked a piece of fish and was flying across to him with it. He leaned out eagerly. The mother was very near to him with the fish in her beak. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream, he fell outwards and downwards into space. A terror seized him.

His heart stood still. His mother swooped past him. He answered her with another scream. He saw his two brothers and sister flying around him. The seagull completely forgot that he was not able to fly. He let himself free to dive, soar and curve at will. He was shrieking shrilly. He saw a green sea beneath him. He was tired and weak with hunger. His feet sank into the green sea and his belly touched it. He sank no farther. Now, his family was praising him and their beaks were offering him scraps of fish. He had made his first flight.

“Flying is learning how to throw yourself to the ground and miss.”

Question 30.
‘Technology is a boon to the disabled’. Justify.
Answer:
The differently abled, Alisha and David’s life has been transformed because of Technology. It is a boon to the disabled. Assistive technology is designed to help people with disabilities. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps the disabled to speak for words to be printed on screen. Technology can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze.

Technology is vital to be free and independent. For verbal communication, Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally is used. It has a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to learn using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before. An ACTIV controller also in the headrest of a mobility chair is used to control TV, Blu-Ray and music players.

Augmentative and Alternative Communication is also the product of technological advancements and a boon to the disabled. EC02 linked to an interactive whiteboard is used to teach PE lessons. Technology also helps control the Play Station, MP3, electric wheelchair and ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate, access the computer. Thus/Technology is a boon to the disabled’.
“Technology’ is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
How did Watson help his friend to arrest the criminal?
Answer:
Dr. Watson is called by Mrs. Hudson to tend Holmes, who is apparently dying of a rare tropical disease, Tarpaunli fever, contracted while he was on a case at Rotherhithe. Holmes forbids Watson to go near him because the illness is highly infectious. Although Watson wishes to examine Holmes himself or send for a specialist, Holmes demands that Watson wait several hours before seeking help.

While Watson waits, he examines several objects in Holmes’s room. Holmes is angered when Watson touches things on his table stating his dislike for people fidgeting his things. At six o’clock, Holmes asks Watson to turn the gaslight on, but only half-full. He then instructs Watson to bring Mr. Culverton Smith from 13 Lower Burke Street to see Holmes but to make sure that Watson returns to Baker Street before Smith arrives. Watson goes to Smith’s address. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. Once Watson explains his duty on behalf of Sherlock Holmes, Smith’s assertiveness changes significantly. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment, and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. It soon appears, to the hiding Watson’s horror, that Holmes has been sickened by the same illness that killed Smith’s nephew Victor. At the fend, Holmes calls for Watson to come out from behind the screen, to present himself as another witness to the conversation. Holmes explains his illness was feigned as a trick to induce Smith to confess to his nephew’s murder. Starving himself for three days and claiming to be suffering from a deadly infectious disease was to keep Watson from examining him and discovering the ruse, since, as he clarifies, he has every respect for his friend’s medical skills.
‘A detectives perspective traps the criminal.’

Question 32.
‘Man does change with time’-What were the various changes that came about in Aditya?
Answer:
Man does change with time. According to Sanyal, Aditya was a boy who could never compete him in scholastic or non-scholastic activities. He was a liar and an envious personality. But, years later Aditya no longer is the same personality. He is more matured and responsible. His childish nature makes him feel guilty for stealing the medal that belonged to Sanyal. Aditya now wanted to restore Sanyal, his lost happiness. Knowing about his financial constraints, he decides to give him the cost of the silver medal. He drives with a firm determination to his ancestral house. When he reaches, he rushes to the attic. Aditya gets on top of a packing case

and pushes his hand inside the ventilator, upsetting a sparrow’s nest. However, he heaves a sigh of relief when he gets what he had been looking for. He goes straight to the Jeweller to determine the current rate of the medal in the market. All these surely show a remarkable change in him. Even when Sanyal behaves rudely, Aditya is courteous and friendly. His only intention is penitence. He is so mature that he even understands and justifies the grievances Sanyal had in his heart. When Sanyal prefers the medal, without second thoughts he restores it to Sanyal whole-heartedly.
“Change is universal.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
How is mystery depicted in the poem ‘The House on Elm Street’.
Answer:
Nadia Bush the poetess talks about a house that stood alone in an isolated place on Elm Street. No one knows what happens inside that house and it is very mysterious. Even by looking from outside, one can easily say that it has a vast space but at the same time it is bare to the bone meaning there is no one living inside the mysterious house or no basic necessities inside the house on Elm Street.

Generally at night, the house looks like it is alive with people in if Lights are switched on and off. It gives a feel that someone is inside the house. When Nadia sees such a situation, she is tempted to go inside the house to just take a look and see what is actually happening inside the house. However, Nadia the poetess is frightened and never dares to do so. Every day the poetess, drives past the house. The house seems to look a bit brighter.

The very thought of this mysterious house plays with your mind since it is just one house of this kind in the area around. Next to the house, is also a tree with no leaves the whole year round. It doesn’t grow tall nor does it shrink in size. The tree too is mysterious like the house since it has no leaves in any of the seasons to make wonder how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth. Every day, the house also begins to fade making it all the more mysterious.
“The best secrets are the most twisted.”

Question 34.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand, the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger.

He found that his cupboard was empty with no piece of bread to eat. He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant. Becoming bold by nature, he begged for food and shelter. But the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend.

So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality. Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and the Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away by the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.
“Accept responsibility for your life. Know that it is
you who will get you where you want to go, no one else”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“The weather is always too hot or cold;
Summer and winter alike they scold.
Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on the gloomy Complaining street.’’
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme of the given stanza.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the fourth line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterating words.
Answer:
(i) The rhyming words are cold-scold and meet-street.
(ii) The rhyme scheme of the poem is aabb.
(iii) The figure of speech employed in the fourth line of the given stanza is Personification.
(iv) There aren’t any consonant sounds repeated in the words in a line. However the vowel ‘ sounds in and alike are repeated in the second line.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!
Answer:
In this stanza, the machines elucidate how they can serve human race by doing all the possible human activities mastered by them. They say they can do various tasks such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, running, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
(ii) Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
(iii) He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
(iv) The king of Naples and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.
(v) He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (i), (iii), (v), (iv)
(ii) Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
(i) Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
(iii) He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
(v) He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
(iv) The king of Naples and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer
The country Shining was governed by a despotic leader who though a warrior, had a great and cowardly shrinking from anything suggestive of failing health and strength. This caused him to send out a cruel proclamation. The entire province was given strict orders to immediately put to death all aged people. Those were barbarous days, and the custom of abandoning old people to die was not uncommon.

The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence, and the order filled his heart with sorrow. But no one ever thought twice about obeying the mandate of the governor, so with many deep and hopeless sighs, the youth prepared for what at that time was considered the kindest mode of death.

(i) Who governed Shining?
(ii) What was the cowardly act of the governor?
(iii) What proclamation did the governor send out?
(iv) How did the poor farmer treat his mother?
(v) Did the people obey the governor’s order?
Answer:
(i) Shining was governed by a despotic leader.
(ii) The governor had a great and cowardly shrinking from anything suggestive of failing health and strength.
(iii) The governor sent out a cruel proclamation in the entire province giving strict orders to immediately put to death all aged people.
(iv) The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence.
(v) Yes, the people obeyed the governor’s order.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Home appliances – Aadi Sale – 20-50% – Special Combo Offers – Aadhi & Co., Raja Street, Chennai, Chennai.
Answer:

Question 40.
Write a letter to the manager of a famous daily, ordering subscription for your school library.
Answer:
From
The Librarian
Indira Gandhi Hr. Sec. School,
Rajajipuram Chennai – 600 087
12.11.2020
To
The Higgin Bothams,
Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002 Respected Sir,
Sub: Annual subscription for daily.
I would like to place an order for the annual subscription of three English dailies and one Tamil daily to our School from the 1st of January 2020.

The Hindu	3 copies	@ 435/- each p.a.	1305.00
The Times of India	3 copies	@ 365/- each p.a.	1095.00
The New Indian Express	3 copies	@ 425/- each p.a.	1275.00
Thina Thanthi	3 copies	@ 175/- each p.a.	525.00
			4200.00

Please find enclosed the Annual subscription amount for all the four dailies which amount to Rs. 3780/- (Rupees Three Thousand Seven Hundred and Eighty Only) after deducting the usual 10% discount that you give us.
Thank you very much for your continued support to our institution.
Yours sincerely,
Mrs. Anand – Librarian

Address on the envelope:
The Higgin Bothams,
Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002

Question 41.
You are Adhira / Athiran, school pupil leader of GHSS, Trichy. Prepare a notice on behalf of your school inviting the grandparents of the students to celebrate World Elders’ Day in your school auditorium on the 20^th of next month.
Answer:

Government Higher Secondary School, Trichy Notice World Elder’s Day 23rd January, 2020 On behalf of the school, I invite every’ grandparent of the students in this school to be a part of the World Elder’s Day. We will be celebrating World Elder’s Day in our school auditorium on the 20th of February, 2020. Please bring in your grandparents to school at 10 a.m. Lots of fun-filled activities await your grandparents. The programme will end with a buffet arranged by the management of the school to honour them. Adhira/Athiran School Pupil Leader

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views an it in about five sentences
Answer:

Though we pray for rain, it’s such a sad state to see people stranded when an area gets flooded. There is about three feet water and people are moving out to safer places. Fathers carry their sons and daughters over the shoulders in order to keep them safe. If there is proper drainage system and proper maintenance by the Corporation, we can surely avoid such disasters. In certain states, natural disaster such as flooding is a frequently witnessed problem.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
There are many different kinds of books that are published each year. These are the new’ titles available for us to read. Besides these, there are books that have been published through the years. Together, there are millions of books available throughout the world in as many languages as are spoken by people. There are different genres in which books are published. There are fiction and non-fiction categories in books, and each of these categories has many different genres of books.

The academic books we study at school belong to the text book category. We smdy them to complete our syllabus and pass the examinations at the end of each academic session. There are other books that we read for our pleasure and enrichment. We read story books of different types. There are comedy, horror, detective and thriller stories in prose, plays and poetry forms. Books are our best friends.
Notes
Title: Books Galore
Dif. Kinds A Books
(i) New Titles;
(ii) Publd Every Yr;
(iii) Publd Thru’ The Yrs;
(iv) Publd Thru’out the World;
(v) Publd In Many Langs
Dif. Genres Of Books
(i) Fiction;
(ii) Non-Fiction Categs

Academic Books – Text Book Categy.
For Study – Pres. Syl.
Pass Exams – End A Academic Session.
Books For Pleasure &Enrichment
Books Of Different Types
Comedy, Horror, Detective & Thriller Stories
Various Forms
(i) Prose
(ii) Plays; &
(iii) Poetry Forms Conclusion: Books are our best friends.
Abbreviations used: Dif. – different; A -of; publd.- published; yr=year; thru’- through; langs.- languages; pres. – prscribed; syl-syllabus; & – and

Summary

Title: Books Galore
Rough Draft
There are different kinds of books published every year for us to read. Together, there are millions of books-avaiable throughout the world in many languages. There are different genres such as fiction and non friction categories. The academic books we study at school belong to the text book category. We study them to be tested at the end of each academic session. We read story books for pleasure and enrichment/Here-areaymiedy, horror, detective and thriller stories in prose, plays and poetry forms. Books are our best friends .

Fair Draft:
Title: Books Galore

Millions of books are published every year in different languages. There are different genres such as fiction and non-fiction. The academic books, belong to the text book category. We study them to be tested at the end of the academic year. We read various types of story books for pleasure. Books are our best friends.
No. of words written in the summary: 55

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) You may speak politely to the elders.
(b) This is the boy whom won the race
(c) He come late to school every day.
(d) Though he was hungry hut he did not eat.
(e) Is this a book that you wanted to buy.
Answer
(a) You must speak politely to the elders.
(b) This is the boy who won the race
(c) He comes late to school every day.
(d) Though he was hungry he did not eat.
(e) Is this the book that you wanted to buy.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question  45.
Let me but live ……………. back in fear.
Answer:
Let me but live my life from year to year,
With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal; .
Not mourning for the things that disappear
In the dim past, nor holding back in fear

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question  46.
(а) Many years ago – China – the emperor ordered – one man from -family – join army
– Mulan heard -told father – she join army – father objected – she is a girl – Mulan – fathers robes cuts her hair – convinced father – she has learnt – Kung Fu – no one will find – she is a girl. – Mulan left – village – fought bravely – war – given top position – very soon – fever swept – the army -Mulan – sick – doctor examines – finds the truth – spreads the news in the army – everyone objects – to follow a girl leader – Mulan stood tall – gave command – soldiers – followed her – attacked enemies – won the battle- emperor glad – offered Mulan positions – court – Mulan refused – went back – village – royal – gifts.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who leams that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes.

Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter. He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disapprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war. He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as she chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Holland – land – below sea level – dikes protected the country – everyone did best to -protect – Holland – Years ago – boy Peter – lived Holland – His father – attended – dykes gates – opened- closed dikes – one day – Peter Mother – gave cakes to Peter – to be given – old blind friend of Peter – across the dike Peter happily left home – Peter visited – old man – returned near by the dike – heard water trickling – stopped to see – small hole – dike – called for help – in vain -he put his little finger – throughout the
night – slept near the dike – morning – found by passer by – alerted the people – Peter and Holland -saved.
Answer:
Peter is a little boy who lived in Holland. His father took care of the dikes called sluices so that ships could pass out of Holland’s canals into the sea. On a beautiful day in Autumn, Peter was asked to go and give cakes to his blind friend who lived on the other side of the dike by his mother. After about an hour he returned home, but the climate had changed. It was raining and the water in the channel was rising. All of a sudden he heard the sound of dribbling water and he wondered from where the sound came. He then saw a small hole in the dike.

He knew what that meant and due to the pressure of the water the hole would not stay the same. He feared danger. He climbed onto the dike and put his finger in the hole and hoped for someone to come to his help and cried out aloud. His mother mistook him to have stayed back with his blind friend and retired to bed. The boy was sure that he had to stay awake the entire night and keep his finger in the hole to arrest the water from flooding Holland.

The water in the canal was rising and if he would remove his finger from the hole in the sluice, the water would gush through and make the hole bigger and bigger. The town would obviously flood. When dawn broke, a man going to work heard the sound of Peter groaning and wondered what the little boy was up to. He was shocked at his reply but understood the danger and called for help. People came in with shovel and mended the hole. Peter was carried home and they all hailed him as the brave boy who saved Holland from drowning.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Kung Fu – ‘kung’ meaning ‘energy’ and ‘fu’ meaning ‘time’ – is a Chinese martial art whose recorded history dates back to around 525 CE, during the Liang dynasty. The man credited with introducing martial arts to China is said to be an Indian monk known as Bodhidarma.

Many people have a misconception that Chinese Kung Fu is about fighting and killing. It is actually based on Chinese philosophy and is about improving wisdom and intelligence. Taoist philosophy is deeply rooted in and had a profound influence on the culture of Chinese martial arts.

The five traditional animal styles of Shaolin Kung Fu are the dragon, the snake, the tiger, the leopard and the crane. The union of the five animal forms clearly displayed the efficacy of both hard and soft movements, of both internal and external energy – this form of Chinese martial arts was known as Shaolin Kung Fu, named after the temple in which it was developed.

Questions.
(a) Which country does the martial art Kung Fu belong to?
(b) What is the meaning of the term “Kung Fu”?
(c) Write any two martial arts of India?
(d) What are the five animal styles followed in Shaolin Kung Fu?
Answer:
(a) The martial art Kung Fu belongs to the country China.
(b) The term ‘kung’ means ‘energy’ and ‘fu’ means ‘time’.
(c) Kalari and Silambam are two martial arts in India.
(d) The five traditional animal styles of Shaolin Kung Fu are the dragon, the snake, the tiger, the leopard and the crane.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:

If you can’t be a pine on the top of the hill,
Be a scrub in the valley – but be
The best little scrub by the side of the rill;
Be a bush, if you can’t be a tree.
If you can’t be a bush, be a bit of the grass,
And some highway happier make;
If you can’t be a muskie, then just be a bass- But the liveliest bass in the lake!
We can’t all be captains, we’ve got to be crew,
There’s something for all of us here.
There’s big work to do and there’s lesser to do
And the task we must do is the near.
If you can’t be a highway, then just be a trail,
If you can’t be the sun, be a star;
It isn’t by size that you win or you fail- Be the best of whatever you are!

Questions.
(a) Where does the best scrub grow?
(b) What makes a highway traveller happy?
(c) Does size matter? Give reason.
(d) What is the underlying theme of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The best scrub grows by the side of a rill.
(b) The green grass on the sides of a highway makes a highway traveller happy.
(c) No, size doesn’t matter because its winning and being the best in whatever you do that matters.
(d) Be your best in all that you try to do and accomplish in life.