Category: Class 10

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.6

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Simplify


Solution:

Ex 3.6 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Simplify


Solution:

Exercise 3.6 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Subtract \(\frac{1}{x^{2}+2}\) from \(\frac{2 x^{3}+x^{2}+3}{\left(x^{2}+2\right)^{2}}\)
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 Question 4.
Which rational expression should be subtracted from \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{3}+8}\) to get \(\frac{3}{x^{2}-2 x+4}\)
Solution:

Exercise 3.6 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 5.

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 In Tamil Question 6.
If A = \(\frac{x}{x+1}\), B = \(\frac{1}{x+1}\), prove that

Solution:

10th Maths 3.6 Question 7.
Pari needs 4 hours to complete a work. His friend Yuvan needs 6 hours to complete the same work. How long will be take to complete if they work together?
Answer:
Let the work done by Pari and Yuvan together be x
Work done by part = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
Work done by Yuvan = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
By the given condition
\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \) ⇒ \(\frac { 3+2 }{ 12 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \)
\(\frac { 5 }{ 12 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \)
5x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 } \)
x = 2 \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 } \) hours (or) 2 hours 24 minutes

10th Maths Algebra Question 8.
Iniya bought 50 kg of fruits consisting of apples and bananas. She paid twice as much per kg for the apple as she did for the banana. If Iniya bought Rs. 1800 worth of apples and Rs. 600 worth bananas, then how many kgs of each fruit did she buy?
Answer:
Let the quantity of apples and bananas purchased be ‘x’ and ‘y’
By the given condition
x + y = 50 ………(1)
Cost of one kg of apple = \(\frac { 1800 }{ x } \)
Cost of one kg of banana = \(\frac { 600 }{ y } \)
By the given condition
One kg of apple = \(2 \frac{(600)}{y}\)
Total cost of fruits purchased = 1800 + 600
x × 2 \(\frac{(600)}{y}\) + y \(\frac{(600)}{y}\) = 2400
\(\frac { 1200x }{ y } \) = 2400 – 600
\(\frac { 1200x }{ y } \) = 1800
1200 x = 1800 × y
x = \(\frac { 1800x }{ 1200 } \) = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \)
Substitute the value of x in (1)
\(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) + y = 50
\(\frac { 5y }{ 2 } \) = 50
5y = 100 ⇒ y = \(\frac { 100 }{ 5 } \) = 20
x = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac{3 \times 20}{2}\)
= 30
The quantity of apples = 30 kg
The quantity of bananas = 20 kg

Guys who are planning to learn and understand the topics of 10th Social Science Geography can grab this Tamilnadu State board solutions for Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers from this page for free of cost. Make sure you use them as reference material at the time of preparation & score good grades in the final exams.

Students who feel tough to learn concepts can take help from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, all the Questions and Answers can easily refer in the exams. Go to the below sections and get 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science Geography Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science Geography Board solutions for Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Climate And Natural Vegetation Of India Class 10 Question 1.
Meteorology is the science of ………
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Climate And Natural Vegetation Of India Question 2.
We wear cotton during:
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Question 3.
Western disturbances cause rainfall in ………..
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Answer Question 4.
……………. helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Norwester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Dash Question 5.
…….. is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
Answer:
(a) Isohyets

The Climate Of India Is Labelled As Question 6.
Climate of India is labelled as:
(a) Tropical humid
(b) Equatorial Climate
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate
(d) Temperate Climate
Answer:
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate

Question 7.
The monsoon forests are otherwise called as ………
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest
(d) Mountain forest
Answer:
(b) Deciduous forest

Question 8.
……………. forests are found above 2400m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Alpine forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) Tidal forests
Answer:
(b) Alpine forests

Question 9.
Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in …….
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(b) Andhra Pradesh

Question 10.
……………. is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(a), (b) and (c)

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (c)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon.
Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Subcontinent warm. (Give option for this questions).
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer.

Question 1.
Tidal forests are found in and around:
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
Answer:
(a) Desert

Question 2.
Climate of India is affected by ……
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:

1. The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere.
2. It is a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
Answer:
Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 metres of ascent. It is called normal lapse rate.

Question 3.
What are ‘jet streams’?
Answer:

1. ‘Jet Streams’ are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper layer of the atmosphere.
2. They play a vital role in the onset of South West monsoon and cause Tropical depressions both during South West monsoon and Retreating monsoon.

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon wind’.
Answer:

• The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means ‘season’.
• These winds appear to blow from southwest for six months and from northeast for another six months.
• In India it is used to refer to the winds which reverse their directions in summer and winter.

Question 5.
Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Answer:
On the basis of the monsoon variations, the meteorologists recognize four distinct seasons of India. They are

1. Winter or Cold weather season (January-February).
2. Summer or Hot weather season (March-May).
3. Southwest monsoon or Rainy season (June-September).
4. Northeast monsoon season (October-November).

Question 6.
What is ‘burst of monsoon’?
Answer:

1. The Southwest monsoon winds are moisture laden winds because they originate from the Indian Ocean.
2. When they approach the southern part of Kerala they give rain with violent thunderstrom including the onset of monsoon and lightening. This is known as the ‘brust of the Monsoon’.

Question 7.
Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
Answer:

1. The areas that receive 200cm and above rainfall annually comes under heavy rainfall regions.
2. The Western coast, Assam, South Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
State places of mangrove forest in India.
Answer:

• The deltas of Ganga,
• The Mahanadi,
• The Krishna,
• The Godavari and
• The Kaveri is covered by mangrove forest in India.

Question 9.
Name the trees of tropical evergreen forest.
Answer:

1. Tropical evergreen forests are found in the areas where the annual rainfall is 200cm and more.
2. The most important trees of these forests are Ebony, Mahogany, Rubber, Rose wood, Iron wood, Cedar, Bamboo, Coconut, Cinchona and Candes.

Question 10.
Write any five biosphere reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Agasthyamalai
2. Dibru Saikhowa
3. Dihang Dibang
4. Great Nicobar
5. Gulf of Mannar
6. The Nilgiris
7. Sundarbans

Question 11.
What is ‘Project Tiger’?
Answer:

1. ‘Project Tiger” is a Project launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India:
2. This project is benefited tremendously with an increase of over 60%. The 1979 consensus put the population at 3,015.

VI. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Weather and Climate
Answer:

S.No.	Weather	Climate
1.	Weather is a day to day conditions of the atmosphere of any place in regard to temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall.	Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.
2.	It is calculated for a day or a short period of time.	To get reliable average of climate, a minimum of 35 years records of weather are necessary.

Question 2.
Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest.
Answer:

Question 3.
North Fast Monsoon and South West Monsoon.
Answer:

VII. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is narrowly located in between the Arabian sea coast and the Western Ghats in a gap having 50 km width only.

Question 2.
India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Answer:
India has a monsoon type of climate because it lies between the latitudes 20° N to 20° S where monsoons are experienced. In this the wind charges direction with the change in season.The monsoon winds prevail mainly in Indian Ocean. The conditions are made in such a way that the winds blows from the South-West from April to October and from opposite direction, the north-east from October to April.

Question 3.
Mountains are cooler than the plains.
Answer:
As per the Normal Lapse rate phenomena temperature decreases with increasing altitudes at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 mts of ascent. Thus mountains are cooler than the plains.

VIII. Write in detail.

Question 1.
Write about South West Monsoon.
Answer:

1. The southwest monsoon is the most significant feature of the Indian climate.
2. The onset of the southwest monsoon takes place normally over the southern tip of the country by the first week of June, advances along the Konkan coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
3. The monsoon is influenced by global phenomenon like ElNino.
4. Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in the north India reaches upto 46°C.
5. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with lightning and thunder is termed as the ‘break’ or ‘burst of monsoon’.
6. It lowers the temperature of India to a large extent.
7. The monsoon wind strikes against the southern tip of Indian land mass and gets divided into two branches.
8. One branch starts from Arabian sea and the other from Bay of Bengal.
9. The Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of India as it is located in the windward side of the Western Ghats.
10. The other part which advances towards north is obstructed by Himalayan Mountains and results in heavy rainfall in north.
11. As Aravalli Mountain is located parallel to the wind direction, Rajasthan and western part do not get much rainfall from this branch.
12. The wind from Bay of Bengal branch moves towards northeast India and Myanmar.
13. This wind is trapped by a chain of mountains namely Garo, Khasi and Jaintia are mainly responsible for the heaviest rainfall caused at Mawsynram located in Meghalaya.
14. Later on, this wind travel towards west which results in decrease in rainfall from east to west.
15. Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this monsoon.
16. Tamilnadu which is located in the leeward side receives only a meagre rainfall.

Question 2.
Describe the forests of India.
Answer:
On the basis of climate , soil and land forms the natural vegetation of India

is divided into the following types:

Tropical Evergreen Forest:

1. These forests are found in areas with 200cm or more annual rainfall.
2. Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala , Andaman & Nicobar islands Assam, West Bengal, Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur and Meghalaya states have this type of forests.
3. Important trees: Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, Cedar etc not fully exploited due to dense foliage and lack of transport.

Tropical Deciduous Forest or Monsoon Forest:

1. They are found in the areas with 100 to 200cm annual rainfall.
2. Areas: Region from Punjab, Assam, Great Plains, Punjab Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Central India, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh . In South India, Andhra Pradesh Telangana, Karnataka, TamilNadu and Kerala.
3. Important Trees: Teak, Sal, Bamboo, Sandal wood, Rose wood, Padauk etc. shed their leaves during spring and early summer. These forests are economically valuable as they provide timber wood and essential raw materials for industries.

Tropical Dry forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas with 50 to 100 cm rainfall.
2. These are found in East Rajasthan, western Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, West Karnataka and East TamilNadu.
3. Important trees: Bamboo, Kirkar, Khair, Babool.

Desert and Semi desert Vegetation:

1. They are also called Tropical thorn forests.
2. These are found in areas of less than 50cm annual rainfall.
3. They are found in the states of North west India., West Rajasthan, South west Haryana, North Gujarat and dry parts of Deccan plateau.
4. Babul, Khair and wild palms are common trees.

Mountain or Himalayan forests:
These forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of rainfall.

(a) Eastern Himalayan forests:

• These are found on the slopes of mountains in north east states.
• As they receive more than 200 cm rainfall the vegetation is of evergreen type.
• In the altitude between I200-2400m main trees like Sal, Oak, Laurel, Cinnamon, Chestnut are seen.
• From 2400 – 3600m altitude – Oak, Silver fir, pine, Spruce and Juniper are the major trees.

(b) Western Himalayan Forest:

• The rainfall of this region is moderate.
• These forests are found in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarkhand.
• Up to 900m altitude semi desert vegetation.
• From 900 m to 1800 m chirtree.
• From 1800m to 3000m altitude covered with semi temperatem coniferous forest.
• Deodar, Poplar and birch are the main trees.

Alpine Forests:

1. It occurs all along the Himalayas above 2400 m altitude.
2. These forest have mainly coniferous trees. Oak, Silver fir, Pine and Juniper are the main trees.

Tidal Forest:

1. These forests are also known as Mangrove forests.
2. These forests are found in and around the deltas estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influence.
3. They are Swampy in nature.
4. The delta of Ganga – Brahmaputra, Deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna have this type of forests.

Coastal forests:

1. These are littoral forests generally found in coastal areas.
2. Casuarina, Palm and Coconut are the main trees.
3. The Eastern and Western coasts especially Kerala and Goa coasts are known for these forests.

Riverine Forests:

1. These forests are found along the rivers on Khader areas.
2. The riverines of Great plains have this type of vegetation.
3. These forests are known for tamarisk and tamarind trees.

Question 3.
Write the names of biosphere reserves and their location in India.
Answer:
Biosphere reserves are protected areas of land coastal environments wherein people are an integral component of the system.

IX. Map.

Mark the following in the outline map of India
1. Direction of South West Monsoon wind
2. Direction of North East Monsoon wind
3. Areas of heavy rainfall
4. Mountain forests
5. Panna biosphere reserve
6. Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
Map is given on the next page

In-Text Hots Questions:

Question 1.
Why is Mawsynram, the wettest place in the world.
Answer:
Mawsynram is the wettest place in the world because climate with an extraordinary showers and long monsoonal season and a short dry season.

Find Out:

Question 1.
Find out the temperature of Ooty (2240 m) if it is 35°C in Chennai (6.7 m).
Answer:
Due to the presence of trees and abundant flora, Ooty never experiences a hot day even in the peak of summer. Ooty’s weather is characterised by abundant sunshine, rains, chill and fresh air ushered by the spring season.

The temperature of Ooty is 22°C when the temperature of Chennai is 35°C.

Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The place that get rainfall from the western disturbance is
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
Answer:
(a) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Western Disturbances causes snowfall in:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Punjab
(c) Assam
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 3.
The Coastal areas enjoy climate.
(a) Continental
(b) Equable
(c) humid
Answer:
(b) Equable

Question 4.
The average rainfall of India is about:
(a) 118 cm
(b) 300 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 400 cm
Answer:
(a) 118 cm

Question 5.
The Predominant soil in the coastal plains and north Indian Plains is ………..
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Arid
Answer:
(a) Alluvial

Question 6.
……………. trees are the most prominent of the Alpine forest.
(a) Mangrove
(b) Coniferous
(c) Coconut
(d) Teak
Answer:
(b) Coniferous

Question 7.
Thunderstorms are called Kalbaisakhis in ……….
(a) Chennai
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 8.
These forests are found along the rivers on Khadar areas:
(a) Coastal
(b) Evergreen
(c) Riverine
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(c) Riverine

Question 9.
Frequent cyclones are formed in the ………
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 10.
Cold desert Biosphere Reserve is in:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Himachal Pradesh

Question 11.
The variation on …….. elements give rise to variety of vegetation.
(a) climate
(b) water
(c) monsoon
Answer:
(a) climate

Question 12.
…………….. is net a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(d) Kachch

Question 13.
In the coastal areas ……… plateau act as a barrier.
(a) Malwa
(b) Deccan
(c) Shillong
Answer:
(c) Shillong

Question 14.
Chennai enjoys ……. climate.
(a) equable
(b) continental
(c) moderate
Answer:
(a) equable

Question 15.
Continental climate is experienced by ………..
(a) Bombay
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkatta
Answer:
(b) Delhi

Question 16.
The south-east trade winds originate in the ……..
(a) land
(b) ocean
(c) river bed
Answer:
(b) ocean

Question 17.
In the upper layers of the troposphere ……… are found.
(a) Jet streams
(b) hot streams
(c) Wet streams
Answer:
(a) Jet streams

Question 18.
The unifying factor of the climate of India is …….. winds.
(a) westerly
(b) northern
(c) monsoon
Answer:
(c) monsoon

Question 19.
Retreating monsoon winds flow from ………….
(a) land to sea
(b) Sea to land
(c) over land
Answer:
(a) land to sea

Question 20.
Kalbaisakhi are the thunder storms caused in ……..
(a) Punjab
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 21.
Southwest monsoon get deflected when they cross the ………
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) equator
(c) Artie circle
Answer:
(b) equator

Question 22.
The Arabian sea branch of monsoon wind first strikes against the …………
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Deccan plateau
(c) Western Ghats
Answer:
(c) Western Ghats

Question 23.
The amount of rainfall received by ………. is 100 to 200 cm of rainfall.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) punjab
Answer:
(b) Madhya Pradesh

Question 24.
The Old alluvium is called ……….
(a) Bhangar
(b) Khader
(c) Regur soil
Answer:
(a) Bhangar

Question 25.
The red soil is …….. of moisture.
(a) retentive
(b) high retentive
(c) non-retentive
Answer:
(c) non-retentive

Question 26.
The ……… soil is rich in humus and organic matter.
(a) Arid & Desert
(b) Laterite
(c) forest & mountain
Answer:
(c) forest & mountain

Question 27.
Palmyra is found in ………. forests.
(a) Tropical Evergreen
(b) Thorn and Scrub
(c) Tropical Deciduous Monsoon
Answer:
(b) Thorn and Scrub

Question 28.
In Tamil Nadu ………… forests are found in Vedaranyam.
(a) Thom & Scrub
(b) Tropical Evergreen
(c) Mangrove
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

Question 29.
Shrub vegetation is found in ……….
(a) Himadri
(b) Shiwalik Range
(c) Himachal
Answer:
(a) Himadri

Question 30.
Gir National Park is found in ………
(a) Gujarat
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Uttaranchal
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. The cold polar winds from Central Asia is prevented by the ………..
2. The low pressure depressions originate over the Mediterranean sea is called ……….
3. Thunder showers in Kerala during May are called ………….
4. The occurrence of sudden rainfall with violent thunder and lightening is termed as ………..
5. The crop that grow well in black soil is ………..
6. The mighty ……… in the north play a vital role in influencing the climate of India.
7. The Himalayas act not only as physical barrier but also as ………
8. The diversion of the monsoon winds are responsible for ……. rainfall over the entire coastal area.
9. Since the northern plains are far away from the influence of the seas, they have ……….
10. The pressure belts and the wind systems follow the apparent movements of the ……….
11. The Velocity of winds depends upon the ……….. gradient.
12. The South-east trade wind blow from over ……… land in summer.
13. Jet streams cause rainfall in ……… India.
14. Mausim is an ………. word.
15. Mausim means ……… winds.
16. During the winter, the sun is overhead in the Tropic of ………
17. Tamil Nadu gets its winter rainfall from the …….. winds.
18. The snowfall in the hills of Jammu and Kashmir is caused by the ………..
19. The resins caused by the Western disturbances is useful for the cultivation of ………..
20. In Summer season, the Sun’s rays are vertical over ………
21. Equable climate is also called as the ……….
22. Mawsynram receives highest rainfall ……. in the world.
23. Project Tiger was launched in ……….
24. India has more than ……… of animal species.
25. India has a rich and diversified ……….
26. The Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL) was constituted in …………
27. Wet forest of Assam is the natural habitat of …………
28. ……….. is the only habitat remaining for Lion.
29 ……… and …….. Island has the minimum area under forest cover.
30. The species of animals are referred to as ……..
Answers:
1. Himalayas
2. Western disturbances
3. Mango showers
4. Monsoon Burst
5. Wheat
6. Himalayas
7. climatic
8. orographic
9. continental
10. Sun
11. pressure
12. hot
13. North-west
14. Arabic
15. reversal
16. capricorn
17. retreating monsoon
18. Western Disturbance
19. wheat
20. Tropic of cancer
21. British climate
22. 1141 cm
23. April 1973
24. 89,000
25. wildlife
26. 1952
27. elephant
28. Gir forest
29. Andaman, Nicobar
30. fauna

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
Which place has the lowest recorded temperature in India?
Answer:
Drass in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
Which part of India experiences the highest range of temperature in a day?
Answer:
Desert of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Where is monsoon experienced mainly?
Answer:
Monsoon are experienced mainly in 20° N to 20° S latitude.

Question 4.
What is meant by EL Nino?
Answer:
EL Nino is a Spanish word meaning ‘the child’ and refers to the baby christ.

Question 5.
When does winter season occur in India?
Answer:
The cold weather season begins from mid November in northern India and stay till February.

Question 6.
Which winds prevail during winter season?
Answer:
The north-east trade winds prevail over the country during winter season.

Question 7.
What is the duration of retreating monsoon in India?
Answer:
October – November

Question 8.
What are the effects of tropical cyclones?
Answer:
The effect of tropical cyclones is that it is often very destructive and cause great damage to life and properly.

Question 9.
Which are the regions that receive heavy rainfall and flood prone in India?
Answer:
The Western Coast and North-Eastern India

Question 10.
Which regions of India still has natural vegetation in real sense?
Answer:
In accessible regions of Himalayas, Hilly regions of Central India, Marusthali.

Question 11.
What kind of Vegetation is supported by the sandy soil of the desert?
Answer:
Cactus or thorny busters.

Question 12.
What does the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude in Himalayas result in?
Answer:
Succession of natural vegetation belt.

Question 13.
Name the most widespread forest of India.
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forest.

Question 14.
To what height does the trees of evergreen forests achieve?
Answer:
The trees reach great height up to 60 metres or even above.

Question 15.
Which important endangered animal is found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal?
Answer:
The one-horned rhinoceros are found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal.

Question 16.
Name the important trees of Alpine Vegetation.
Answer:
Silver for, junipers, pines and birches.

Question 17.
Name two evergreen broad leaf trees.
Answer:
Oaks and Chestnut.

Question 18.
The undulating and rough terrains are areas of which kind of natural vegetation.
Answer:
Grassland and Woodland.

Question 19.
What is the important characteristic features of dense mangrove forest?
Answer:
In mangrove trees, roots of the plants are submerged under water.

Question 20.
Name the important varieties of trees found in Mangrove forests.
Answer:
In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber. Palm, coconut, keora, agar, abo grow in some parts of the delta.

Question 21.
How are Tropical Deciduous forests divided on the basis of availability of water?
Answer:

• They are divided into two types: Moist and dry deciduous forests.

Question 22.
To which type of vegetation does rubber belong to?
Answer:
Tropical rainforests

Question 23.
What is the natural habitat of elephant?
Answer:
Wet forest of Assam.

Question 24.
What is the natural habitat for wild ass and camels?
Answer:
Arid area of Rann of Kutch and the Thar desert.

Question 25.
Name the biosphere reserves of India which is included in the world network of bio reserve?
Answer:
Sundarbans, Nilgiris, Gulf of Manner, Nanda Devi.

Question 26.
Which biosphere reserve is located at the trijunction of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Nilgiris

Question 27.
Which are the most majestic animals among the mammals? Where are they found?
Answer:
Elephants. They are found in the hot wet forests of Assam, Karnataka and Kerala.

Question 28.
When was Wildlife Protection Act implemented?
Answer:
Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in 1972 in India.

Question 29.
Where are tigers mostly found in India?
Answer:
Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan region.

Question 30.
Name the migrating birds that come to India during winter.
Answer:
Siberian Crane and Flamingo.

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
What is the weather?
Answer:
Weather refers to the state of atmosphere of a place at a given point of time.

Question 2.
Name the factors determining the climate of India.
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Distance from the seas
4. Monsoon winds
5. Position of Mountains; and
6. Jet Streams

Question 3.
Write a note on Norwesters:
Answer:

1. Northwestern or Kalbaisakhis are the local severe storms or violent thunderstorms with strong winds and rain lasting for short durations.
2. It occurs over the eastern and Northeastern parts of Bihar, West Bengal ‘ and Assam during April and May.

Question 4.
What is the effect of latitude on the climate of India?
Answer:

• The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country.
• Almost half of the country lying south of the Tropic of cancer, belongs to the tropical area and areas of north of the Tropic lies in the sub-tropics.

Therefore, India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climates.

Question 5.
How do western disturbances helpful to agriculture?
Answer:
Western disturbances occur during cold weather season. These winds cause rainfall in Punjab-Haryana and Himachal Pradesh and is very useful for the cultivation of winter wheat.

Question 6.
How do the north east trade winds of India get reversed into south west monsoon winds?
Answer:

• By early June, the low pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies It attracts the trade winds of the southern hemisphere.
• These south-east trade winds originate over the warm subtropical areas of the southern oceans.
• They cross the equator and blow in a southwesterly direction entering the Indian Peninsular as the south west monsoon.

Question 7.
Write a note on the uneven distribution of rainfall in India.
Answer:

1. The distribution of rainfall in India is highly uneven.
2. About 11% area receives over 200 cm of annual, rainfall, 21% area receives 125-200 cm. 37% area receives 75-125 cm, 24% area gets 35 to 75 cm and 7% area gets less than 35 cm.

Question 8.
What are the steps taken by government to protect flora and fauna?
Answer:

• Financial and technical assistance to Botanical Garden.
• Eco development projects have been introduced.
• National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and Biosphere reserves have been set up.

Question 9.
What were the objectives of Wild life (protection) Act of 1972?
Answer:
The Government of India enacted wild life protection Act in 1972.
The objectives of this Act.

1. Protecting the wild life of the country.
2. To control poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in wild life and its diversities.

Question 10.
Describe about Norwesters.
Answer:
When the winds blow from south-west to north-east directions in Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal, they cause local storms called “Norwesters” in the north eastern part of India during the summer season. Thus thunder storms are also called Kalbaisakhi (of the month of Baisakh) in Punjab.

Question 11.
Name the state animal of Tamil Nadu. Why its population is continuously decreasing?
Answer:

1. The Nilgiri Tahr is the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
2. In the Western Ghats continuous poaching and Eucalyptus cultivation hamper its habitat causing its depletion.

Question 12.
Name the biosphere reserve that have been included in the world network of biosphere reserve.
Answer:

1. The Sundarbans in the West Bengal
2. Nanda Devi in Uttarkhand
3. The Gulf of Manner in Tamil Nadu
4. The Nilgiris (Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu)

Question 13.
Name some Bird sanctuaries in India.
Answer:
Pulicat, Vedanthangal, Point Calimer-TamilNadu.
Chilka lake – Odhisha
Bharathpur – Rajasthan
Ranganthittu – Karnataka.

Question 14.
Describe the climatic conditions of Tropical Deciduous forests.
Answer:
Climate of tropical deciduous forests is influenced by the monsoons. These forests are found in regions receiving them. Forests shed their leaves for 6 – 8 weeks in dry summer, to conserve moisture.

Question 15.
Where are migrating birds found in India?
Answer:
During winter, birds auch as Siberian cranes come in large numbers. One such place favourable with birds is the Rann of Kutch. At a place where the desert merges with the sea, flamingo with their brilliant pink plumage come in thousands to build nest mounds from the salty mud and raise their young ones.

Question 16.
What are the main causes that have created major threat to the natural environment?
Answer:

• Hunting by greedy hunters for commercial purposes.
• Pollution due to chemical and industrial waste.
• Acid deposits.
• Introduction of alien species
• reckless cutting of the forests to bring land under cultivation and inhabitation, are also responsible for the imbalance.

Question 17.
Give the importance of biodiversity.
Answer:

• Crops are being selected from a biodiverse environment, i.e., from the reserve of edible plants.
• Many medicinal plants are being experimented and selected
• The animal were selected from large stock provided by nature as milch animal.

Question 18.
How are forests useful to us? Give examples.
Answer:
Forests provide to man food, fibre, fodder, timber, fuel, wood and act as a host of other essential items.

• It provides raw materials to industry and transport.
• Forest is a renewable resource and is widely used as domestic fuel in third world countries.
• Forest also influences the environment by modifying local climate, controlling soil erosion and deposits humans in the soil regulating stream flows.
• Minor forest products provide livelihood to many forests dwellers. Besides, forest is the home of various wild animals and birds. It offers recreation to man and also boosts the tourism industry.

Question 19.
How can we save our ecosystem and preserve it?
Answer:

• Checking growth of population otherwise population explosion will result in imbalance.
• Checking the land pollution and air pollution.
• Waste from houses and industries should be treated properly.
• Avoiding deforestation indiscriminately.

Question 20.
Describe the need for the conservation of natural resources.
Answer:
If we go on exploiting the natural resources, there will be no more resources available in future. So, there is an urgent needs to conserve the nature.

Some of the needs are,

• To maintain ecological balance for supporting life.
• To preserve different kinds of species (biodiversity)
• To make the resources available for present and future generation.
• To ensure the survival of human race.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account on ” Wildlife” in India.
Answer:

1. The term wildlife includes animals of any habitat in nature.
2. India has a rich and diversified wildlife.
3. The India fauna consists of about 81,251 species of animals out of the world’s total of about 1.5 million species.
4. The faunal diversity of the country consists of about 6500 invertebrates, 5000 molluses, 2546 fishes, 1228 birds, 458 mammals, 446 reptiles, 204 amphibians, 4 Panthers and about 60,000 species of insects.
5. Our country is the home to tigers, leopards, snow leopards, pythons, foxes, crocodiles, rhinoceroses, camels, monkeys, elephants, antelopes, deer, bison etc.
6. At present situation deforestation and other anthropogenic interferences in the natural habitats have caused extinction of some species and many are facing the danger of extinction.
7. Wild life maintain ecological balance, so, conservation and management of biodiversity of India is necessary.

Question 2.
Mention any five facts that are important to understand the mechanism of the monsoon.
Answer:
To understand the mechanism of the monsoons the following facts are important.

1. The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
2. The shift of the position of Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial through normally positioned about 5° N of the equator also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season.
3. The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20° S over the high-pressure area affects the Indian monsoon.
4. The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of high pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
5. The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer.

Question 3.
Describe the commonly used medicinal plants in India.
Answer:

1. Sarpagandha: Used to treat blood pressure is found only in India.
2. Jamun: The juice from ripe fruit is used to prepare vinegar which is carminative and diuretic and has digestive properties. The powder of the seed is used for controlling diabetes.
3. Arjun: The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache. It is also used to regulate blood pressure.
4. Babool: Leaves are used as a cure for eye sores. Its gum is used as a tonic.
5. Neem: has high antibiotic and antibacterial properties.
6. Tulsi Plant: Used to cure cough and cold.

Question 4.
What are the major important steps taken by the government to protect flora and fauna of the country?
Answer:

1. Now 18 biosphere reserves have been set up in the country to protect flora and fauna. Four out of these, the Sunderbans in the west Bengal, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, the Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu and the been included in the world network of biosphere reserves.
2. Financial and technical assistance is provided to many Botanical Gardens by the government since 1992.
3. Project Tiger, Proj ect Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many other ecodevelopmental project have been introduced.
4. Over 102 national parks, 514 wildlife sanctuaries and zoological gardens are set up to take care of natural heritage.
5. The killing of Wildlife has been banned by the government special forest officers have been appointed to catch greedy hunters.
6. Periodic census is being taken to find out the latest position of some rare species so that they can be preserved for our future generations.

Question 5.
Write the importance of forests.
Answer:

• Forests provides valuable timber for domestic and commercial use. They supply new
  materials for industries.
• It supplies a number of products such as Lac, Gum, Resins, Tanning materials, medicines, Herbs, Honey and spices.
• Export of forest products earns valuable foreign exchange.
• Grazing cattle in the forests helps in dairy farming.
• Many forest reserves have been developed into tourist centres.
• Forests absorb atmospheric carbon-dioxides and help in controlling air pollution.
• They help in water percolation and thus maintain underground water table.
• They provide natural habitats to primitive tribes animals and birds.
• They are the moderators of climate and affect temperature, humidity and rainfall.
• Forests meet nearly 40% of the energy needs of the country.

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The Secret of the Machines Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions briefly.

The Secret Of The Machines Question 1.
Who does ‘we’ refer to in the first stanza?
(a) Human beings
(b) Machines
Answer:
(b) Machines

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Questions And Answers Question 2.
Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
The speakers are the Machines which is the brain child of man. The listeners are the readers of this poem.

10th English Poem The Secret Of Machines Question 3.
What metals are obtained from ores and mines?
Answer:
The metals obtained from ores are iron ores and minerals from mines.

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Summary Question 4.
Mention a few machines which are hammered to design
Answer:
Pulley – Power lift, The Cutting Wedge, The Wheel and Axle are a few machines which are hammered to design.

The Secret Of Machines Figure Of Speech Question 5.
Mention the names of a few machines that run on water, coal or oil.
Answer:
Power Station, Pipeline transport, Water Heaters, Train, Car, Plane, Ship are a few machines that run on water, coal or oil.

10th English Poem The Secret Of The Machines Question 6.
Mention a few machines used for pulling, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, reading, and writing etc.
Answer:
Pulling – Pulley, Winch, Elevator, Windlass, Pushing – Motor Engines, Lifting – Crane, „ Hoist, Driving – Car, Omnibus, Caravan, Printing – Typewriter, Computer printer, Fax machine, Ploughing – Tractor, Reading and Writing – Computer, Cellular Phones The above are a few machines used for pulling, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, reading, and writing.

The Secret Of The Machines Memory Poem Question 7.
Are machines humble to accept the evolution of human brain? Why?
Answer:
The machines humble themselves only before God and not humble to accept the evolution, of human brain since they warn us to be humble and tell us about their power to wipe out mankind. (The poetic lines related with the answer to this question is not given in the textbook.)

10th Poem The Secret Of Machines Question 8.
What feelings are evoked in us by the machines in this poem?
Answer:
Pride and superiority are the feelings evoked in us by the machines in this poem. There is also the feeling of fear and perusal that no error in handling the machinery should take place.

10th English Unit 5 Poem Question 9.
‘And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:’
Which of the following do the machines want to prove from this line?
(a) Once Machines are fed with fuel, they take a very long time to start.
(b) Once Machines are fed with fuel, they start quickly.
Answer:
(b) Once Machines are fed with fuel, they start quickly.

The Secret Of Machines Questions And Answers Question 10.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
(c) Open conditional clause is used in the given line. Why is the future tense ‘will set’ and ‘will serve’ used both in the ‘if clause’ and in the ‘main clause?’
(d) Do the machines serve us twenty four hours a day?
(e) Rewrite the given lines with the ending ‘365 days a year.’
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.
(c) The future tense ‘will set’ and ‘will serve’ is used both in the ‘if clause’ and in the ‘main clause’ to indicate surety and futurity.
(d) Yes, the machines serve us round the clock and non-stop the entire day.
(e) Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play, lend us your ear:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We ’ll serve you three hundred and twenty four hours a year!

Additional Questions

The Secret Of Machines Poem Question 1.
Which stanza shows us that the machines have mastered almost all the common ”
human activities?
Answer:
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Question 2.
Is there anything that the machines are incapable of doing?
Answer:
Machines cannot detect a lie. Besides, machines cannot emote nor comprehend feelings. Therefore, machines are incapable of loving, pitying or forgiving.

Secret Of Machines Poem Question 3.
What is the warning issued by the machines?
Answer:
We must accept the fact that our dependency on machines are increasing day by day. A . time will come when people will depend on a machine to wake them from sleep and then to put them back to sleep, walk and eat. If this really happens, life will be different, similar to a robotic life – without feelings, sympathy, pity, forgiveness and love.

Secret Of The Machines Question 4.
Which lines tell us that for every little input, the machines are able to provide constant, daily service to humans?
Answer:
Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
‘And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Pdf Question 5.
How did machines come to life?
Answer:
Machines had taken a long way before they came to life. First their basic raw building materials were dug out as iron ores from ore-beds and minerals from mines. After processing ores in the hot furnaces, metals were formed and every machine was given a specific shape by casting and hammering. This then followed a more accurate process which includes cutting and measuring and tooling.

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Figures Of Speech Question 6.
Can we really rely upon machines?
Answer:
No, we cannot always rely on machines as with people. Suddenly some simple apparatus will fail. If the machine is faulty, it can even go to the extent of killing us.

The Secret Of The Machines Questions And Answers Question 7.
Should we depend on machines?
Answer:
To an extent, we should depend on machines in transport, communication and education, which mostly get complicated. This is inevitable as we move further into a technological age of computers and increasing automation. We must accept the fact that our lives depend on machines day by day.

The Secret Of Machines Poem Summary Question 8.
What do machines symbolise?
Answer:
Machines symbolise man’s progress.

B. Write your favourite stanza from the poem and find the rhyming scheme.

Though our smoke may hide the Heavens from your eyes, a
It will vanish and the stars will shine again, b
Because, for all our power and weight and size, a
We are nothing more than children of your brain! a

C. Read the poem and find the Sines for the following poetic devices or write your own example.

Alliteration:
filed to fit; pull and push; print and plough; run and race; hide the heavens;

Own Example:

1. The cat, clawing the couch is creating chaos.
2. Michael made mellow music on the mike.
3. Rudolph the red-nosed reindeer raced rapidly from the room.

Assonance:
Oil is all; pull and push; weave and heat; fly and dive

Own Example:

1. mellow wedding bells
2. crumbling thunder
3. she bleats when she speaks

Personification:
Some water, coal and oil is all we ask We can pull and push and lift and drive Bui remember, please, the Law by which we live We are nothing more than children of your brain!

Own Example:

1. Two Sunflowers Move into the Yellow Room.
2. The popcorn leapt out of the bowl.
3. The sun glared at me from the sky.
4. The fire ran wild.

Simile:
Nil

Own Example:

1. The flowers were as soft as thoughts of budding love.
2. You are soft as the nesting dove.
3. She hung her head like a dying flower.
4. Her eyes are like the eyes of statues.

Additional Questions

Anaphora: Anaphora is the technique of repeating a specific word or phrase at the beginning of a line or passage. The repetition of a word can intensify the overall meaning of the piece. We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit.
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race (jump) and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!
Own Example

1. Charles Dickens – It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredulity, it was the season of Light, it was the season of Darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was the winter of despair.
2. Winston Churchill – We shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with growing confidence.
3. Martin Luther King Jr’s – “I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed: I have a dream that one day on the red hills of Georgia the sons of former slaves and the sons of former slave owners will be able to sit down together.

Answer each of the following questions in a paragraph of about 100 – 150 words.

Question 1.
Describe in your own words how the poem, The Secret of the Machines’ by Rudyard Kipling has an importance to current life.
Answer:
This poem written at the beginning of the twentieth century is about Industrialization. The poet starts by describing how the machines are created, wrought and taken from the ore-bed and mines. The only requirement for the machines is water, coal and oil. Further, Kipling enumerates the various skills of machines, such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, running, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing. Machines do. exactly as it is programmed.

These machines have no feelings and any wrong handling can be dangerous for they are just machines with power invented by humans. The first intention of the poem reveals the progress of machines which is indeed a good thing for mankind. They make many things easier and facilitate the work of the humans. The second purpose is to express that a machine can never replace a human-being, because a machine is devoid of feelings being the child of human brain.

Hence man has full control over it, dependent on humans. By choosing the headline, “The secret of the machines” the poet wants to simplify that machines also have secret flaws where they don’t possess feelings nor identify a lie. Any slip in handling it means instant death.

At the time of mechanization, people gave importance to machines. So Rudyard Kipling wanted to make known the advantages and disadvantages of machines. I have come to the conclusion that the poem by Rudyard Kipling still has a current importance today and that for all advantages there are also disadvantages while using machines.

‘Industrialisation based on machinery, is a revolution wrought by technology’.

Question 2.
What is the theme of the poem?
Answer:
The theme of the poem is a period when man gives more importance to industrialization. To live a life man will depend on machines for Machines will make many things easier and facilitate the work of the human beings. The most important fact is that any wrong handling of the machines can be extremely dangerous for it cannot understand a lie. This poem brings out the greatness of modem technology. The ability to change the nature of all things is also vividly explained.

However Machines cannot replace human-beings for they do know how to emote or understand feelings. After all, machines are just the brain child . of a man and not the creation of God Almighty. Therefore there will be fatal disasters, if man doesn’t know to handle it. An important concept in Kipling is ‘the Law by which we live’. It is an unshakeable moral imperative. In this case, the machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for human beings to understand.

‘The country that is more developed industrially shows the underdeveloped it’s own future.’

Question 3.
Elucidate – We are nothing more than children of your brain.
Answer:
“The Secret of the Machines” looks back to the poems rejoicing modem technology which had pre-occupied Kipling during the mid-1990s. This poem by Rudyard Kipling, a famous British poet, is about the status of machines in the age of the industrial progress. I The poet qualifies machines to define the situation from their point of view! In many of those poems it is the machines themselves who speak, taking on human characteristics and feelings.

In “The Secret of the Machines” the anthropomorphism is choral, with the machines conveying their message in a collective chant, informing the reader, posing rhetorical questions, offering a stem warning about their potential strength and finally submitting to their masters – the human brain. This is yet another example of Kipling’s constant, though often tilted is the denial of religion. The machines have the ability to change the environment of all created things except The Gods, the creator of human- beings.

The machines assert that they have produced a kind of smoke-screen which is momentarily covering the fact that it is you, the human beings, who are the true gods, with the machines nothing more than children of your brain! If the machines are to function to j *, their full capacity they must be dutifully controlled by the Gods who have created them. That is why it is so important for man to understand the Law that machines ‘are not built to comprehend a lie.’

‘ Your beliefs become your thoughts
Your thoughts-your words
Technology is your Destiny. ’

Read the following excerpts from the poem and answer the questions that follow:
(i) “We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit—
We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit.”
(a) What is a furnace?
(b) What is ‘wrought’?
(c) What is hammered?
(d) Why is it hammered?
(e) Give the meaning of the word, ‘gauged’.
(f) What was taken from the ore-bed and the mine?
(g) What is a pit?
(h) All the four lines begin with the words, ‘We were’. Which poetic device does it indicate?
Answer:
(a) A furnace is a highly heated oven to melt ores in large quantity.
(b) Wrought is the third form of the verb, ‘work’.
(c) The molten metal is hammered.
(d The molted metal is hammered to shape it.
(e) The meaning of the word, ‘gauged’ is measured.
(f) Raw materials for machines such as the iron ore from ore-bed and minerals from mines are taken.
(g) A pit is a mine.
(h) It indicates the poetic device, ‘Anaphora’.

(ii) “Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) What is the requirement of the machines?
(b) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(c) What does the second line indicate?
(d) What is the rhyme scheme of the above lines?
(e) Explain the poetic device in the last line.
(f) And a thousandth of an inch to give us play – Explain
(g) Give the rhyming word for play and task.
Answer:
(a) The requirement of the machines is water, coal and oil.
(b) Assonance is the figure of speech. The initial vowel sound in oil and all makes it an assonance.
(c) The second line indicates the close arrangement of the nuts, screws and bolts.
(d) ‘abab’ is the rhyme scheme in the above lines.
(e) The poetic device is hyperbole which is the exaggeration of the machine working round the clock without any rest.
(f) Parts are closely arranged with bolts, nuts, leaving only less than an inch for the movement of wheels.
(g) The rhyming word for play is day and for task is ask.

(iii) “We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race (jump) and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write”
(a) What is meant by ‘haul’?
(b) What is the figure of speech in the last line?
(c) Pick out the alliterated words on the third line.
(d) Give the example of Anaphora in the above stanza.
(e) What is the rhyme scheme of the above four lines?
(f) Mention the figure of speech in the first line.
(g) What is personified?
(h) Write the alliterated words in the second line.
(i) Give the rhyming word for drive and light.
Answer:
(a) ‘Haul’ means ‘carry’.
(b) The figure of speech in the last line is Imagery.
(c) The alliterated words are ‘run and race’.
(d) The words ‘we can’ is the example of Anaphora in the above stanza.
(e) The rhyme scheme is ‘abab’ in the above four lines.
(f) Personification is the figure of speech in the first line.
(g) The Machines are personified since they talk about the various tasks it performs.
(h) The alliterated words are print and plough.
(i) The rhyming words are dive and write respectively for drive and light.

(iv) “But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!”
(a) What can a machine not understand?
(b) What can a machine not do?
(c) What will happen if a mistake is done by man?
(d) What do you understand by the word, ‘slip’?
(e) What is the Law by which a machine lives?
(f) What is the warning given in the above lines?
(g) What is the reminder given by the machines?
Answer:
(a) The machine cannot understand if the command is a lie.
(b) A machine cannot love, show pity or forgive.
(c) If a mistake is done by man, they will be destroyed and put to death.
(d) A slip is nothing but a mistake.
(e) The Law is the way in which the machine is designed and programmed to work when the command is given.
(f) The caution is the perils and hazards of mechanization.
(g) The reminder given by the machines is the law by which a machine lives to do the work of a man.

(v) “Though our smoke may hide the Heavens from your eyes,
It will vanish and the stars will shine again,
Because, for all our power and weight and size,
We are nothing more than children of your brain!”
(a) What is the brain child of man?
(b) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(c) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
(d) From where does the smoke come?
(e) What does the smoke hide?
(f) What is of no use in front of God?
Answer:
(a) The brain child of man is the machines made by man.
(b) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(c) The alliterated words are hide the Heavens.
(d) The smoke comes from the factories.
(e) The smoke hides the sight of the heavens in the sky where the stars shine bright.
(f) The power, weight and size is of no use in front of God.

The Secret of the Machines (Rudyard Kipling)
Literary Devices At A Glance (Figures of Speech)

The Secret Of The Machines by Rudyard Kipling About the Poet:
A noble prize winner at 42, Rudyard Kipling was born on December 30, 1865, in Mumbai, India. He was educated in England but returned to India in 1882. He was fascinated by the advance made in science and technology and mechanisation through the Historical Revolution. A decade later, Kipling married Caroline Baluster and settled in Brattle boro, Vermont, where he wrote The Jungle Book (1894), among a host of other works that made him successful. Kipling was the recipient of the 1907 Nobel Prize in I Literature. He died in 1936.

The Secret of the Machines Summary:

Introduction:
The poem by Rudyard Kipling deals with problems of technology and automation. The unquestioned utility of man-made inventions is highlighted.

Process of making machines
In the first stanza, the poet highlights the way machines are shaped and how they are managed. The raw material, iron- ore and minerals for machines are taken from the ores and mines accordingly. They were further melted in the blast furnace and in the mine. Metals were melted and turned into various designs using the hammer to be fashioned. They were also cut into different sizes and measured fit according to the required weight.

Machines:
Second stanza states that the only requirement for the machine is water, coal and oil. The moving parts may have a clearance of a thousandth of an inch which may be the permissible variation from the required dimensions. These parts are closely arranged with bolts and nuts leaving only less than an inch for the movement of wheels. With such a setup, the machines are willing to work round the clock, non-stop without any rest.

Machines reduce manual jobs:
In the third stanza, the machines elucidate how they can serve human race by doing all the possible human activities mastered by machines. They say they can do various tasks such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, mining, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing.

Friend indeed!
The machines in the fourth stanza caution the readers with an unshakeable moral imperative – the Law by which it Jives! The machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for mankind to understand. Here machines tell us that they don’t emote nor understand different feelings such as love, pity or apology. It reiterates its dangerous nature by simply stating that a slip while handling it means instant death.

Man-made wonder:
In the last stanza the design of the machine just changes. The dream of the “perfect machinery” suddenly seems to fade out. Machines aren’t perfect. Nature always wins over. Machines aren’t miraculous creations but just a creation of the human brain. Therefore, machines although capable of great deeds, are still nothing more then creations of the human brain

Conclusion:
The use of machines in everyday life has clearly established the fact that without them life comes to a standstill. Such is our dependence on machines which carry the instructions given by us. The perpetual use of machines in all fields shows the scalable heights it has reached.

The Secret Of The Machines Glossary:
Textual:

Additional:

We hope the data given here will benefit you to the fullest extent at the time of preparation. For better understanding of English subject this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions for Class 10th English Poem Chapter 5 The Secret of the Machines PDF is the best resource. Download & ace up your preparation. Keep in touch with us and get the latest information on Tamilnadu State board Textbook Solutions PDF.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.4

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
If P(A) = \(\frac{2}{3}\), P(B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\), P(A∪B) = 13 then find P(A∩B).
Solution:
P(A) = \(\frac{2}{3}\), P(B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\), P(A∪B) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A∪B)

Ex 8.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
A and B are two events such that, P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.48, and P(A ∩ B) = 0.16. Find
(i) P(not A)
(it) P(not B)
(iii) P(A or B)
Answer:
(i) P(not A) = 1 – P (A) = 1 – 0.42 = 0.58
(ii) P(not B) = 1 – P(B) = 1 – 0.48 = 0.52
(iii) P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B) = 0.42 + 0.48 – 0.16 = 0.90 – 0.16 = 0.74

Exercise 8.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
If A and B are two mutually exclusive events of a random experiment and P(not A) = 0.45, P(A∪B) = 0.65, then find P(B).
Solution:
A and B are two mutually exclusive events of a random experiment.
P(not A) = 0.45,
P(A) = 1 – P(not A)
P(A∪B) = 0.65 = 1 – 0.45 = 0.55
P(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) = 0.65
0.55 + P(B) = 0.65
P(B) = 0.65 – 0.55
= 0.10

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 Question 4.
The probability that atleast one of A and B occur is 0.6. If A and B occur simultaneously with probability 0.2, then find P(\(\bar{A}\)) + P(\(\bar{B}\)).
Answer:
Here P (A ∪ B) = 0.6, P (A ∩ B) = 0.2
P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A ∩ B)
0.6 = P (A) + P (B) – 0.2
P(A) + P(B) = 0.8
P(\(\bar{A}\)) + P(\(\bar{B}\)) = 1 – P(A) + 1 – P(B)
= 2 – [P(A) + P(B)]
= 2 – 0.8
= 1.2

10th Maths 8.4 Solutions Question 5.
The probability of happening of an event A is 0.5 and that of B is 0.3. If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then find the probability that neither A nor B happen.
Solution:
P(A) = 0.5 Since A and B are mutually inclusive events
P(B) = 0.3 events.
P(\(\overline{\mathbf{A}}\))∪P(\(\overline{\mathbf{B}}\)) = 1 – [P(A) + P(B)]
= 1 – [0.5 + 0.3] = 0.2

10th Maths Probability Exercise 8.4 Question 6.
Two dice are rolled once. Find the probability of getting an even number on the first die or a total of face sum 8.
Solution:
Two dice rolled once.

10th Maths Ex 8.4 Question 7.
From a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards, a card is drawn at random. Find the probability of it being either a red king or a black queen.
Solution:
n(S) = 52
No. of Red cards = 26,
Red king cards = 2
No. of Black cards = 26,
Black queen cards = 2
No. of red king cards = n(K) = 2

∴ The probability of being either a red king or a black queen = \(\frac{1}{13}\).

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 Solution Question 8.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9,… 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card has either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Solution:
S = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37}
n(S) = 18
Multiplies of seven cards (A) = {7, 21, 35}
= n(A) = 3

Let the prime number cards B
B = {3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37}
n(B) = 11

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 In Tamil Question 9.
Three unbiased coins are tossed once. Find the probability of getting at most 2 tails or at least 2 heads.
Solution:
When we toss three coins, the sample space S = {HHH, TTT, HTT, THH, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT}
n(S) = 8
Event of getting at most 2 tails be A.
∴ A = { HHH, HTT, THH, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT}

10th Maths Statistics And Probability Question 10.
The probability that a person will get an electrification contract is the probability that he will not get plumbing contract is \(\frac{3}{5}\). The probability of getting at least one contract is \(\frac{5}{8}\). What is the probability that he will get both?
Solution:

10th Maths 8.4 Question 11.
In a town of 8000 people, 1300 are over 50 years and 3000 are females. It is known that 30% of the females are over 50 years. What is the probability that a chosen individual from the town is either a female or over 50 years ?
Solution:

10th Exercise 8.4 Question 12.
A coin is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting exactly two heads or at least one tail or two consecutive heads.
Solution:
Three coins tossed simultaneously.
S = { HHH, TTT, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT, HTT, THH}
n(S) = 8
Happening of getting exactly two heads be A.
A= {HHT, HTH, THH}
n(A) = 3

Event of getting at least one tail be B.
∴ B = {TTT, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT, HTT, THH}

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Maths Question 13.
If A, B, C are any three events such that probability of B is twice as that of probability of A and probability of C is thrice as that of probability of A and if P(A∩B) = \(\frac{1}{6}\), P(B∩C) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(A∩C) = \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(\mathbf{P}(\mathbf{A} \cup \mathbf{B} \cup \mathbf{C})=\frac{9}{10}, \mathbf{P}(\mathbf{A} \cap \mathbf{B} \cap \mathbf{C})=\frac{1}{15}\), then find P(A), P(B) and P(C)?
Solution:
P(B) = 2P(A)
P(C) = 3P(A)

10th Maths Chapter 8 Exercise 8.4 Question 14.
In a class of 35, students are numbered from 1 to 35. The ratio of boys to girls is 4:3. The roll numbers of students begin with boys and end with girls. Find the probability that a student selected is either a boy with a prime roll number or a girl with a composite roll number or an even roll number.
Solution:
n(S) = 35

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 Tech Bloomers

English Subject experts who are having max years of experience prepared this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 10th English Prose Chapter 5 Tech Bloomers Questions and Answers. They have explained all the topics covered in the board prescribed latest syllabus in a simple way to understand easily. So, students can prepare Chapter 5 English from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Questions and Answers PDF. Download the Tamilnadu State Board 10th English Chapter 5 Tech Bloomers Workbook Solutions PDF by accessing the below links and learn properly for the final exams to score well.

Tech Bloomers Warm up:

1. What do you infer from the above pictures?
Answer:
Technology is dominating our lives.

2. Look at the above electronic gadgets. If you were given a chance to remodel a device, in which device you would bring in changes and what would be those changes?
Answer:
I will redesign the smartwatch. The look of the watch would be conventional orb. Only on pressing a button, a screen will appear and offer valuable services.

Tech Bloomers InText Questions

Tech Bloomers Questions And Answers Question a.
What is the future of technology?
Answer:
The future of technology is beyond our imagination but certainly possible with modern gadgets.

Tech Bloomers Summary Question b.
How many people in India suffer with disability?
Answer:
2.7 Crore people in India suffer with disability.

Tech Bloomers Question c.
Who is Kim?
Answer:
Kim is the Assistive Technologist at Alisha’s School.

10th English Tech Bloomers Question d.
How does Kim help Alisha?
Answer:
Kim introduced Alisha to Dragon Dictate, which had opened up the world to Alisha. It has made her more independent and she is able to study on her own.

Tech Bloomers Paragraph Question e.
Why is technology important according to David?
Answer:
Technology is important to David because it enables him to communicate and be independent.

Tech Bloomers Summary Pdf Question f.
Which instrument does David control with his eye movements?
Answer:
David uses a Liberator Communication Device, which he controls with his eye movements for his verbal communication.

Tech Bloomers Author Question g.
What devices help David to move from one place to other?
Answer:
David moves from one place to another in his electric chair with head switches. He uses ECO point Eye Gaze system to communicate and access the computer. He also checks Chelsea football team’s performance.

Tech Bloomers Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Tech Bloomers Author Name Question 1.
What are the benefits of the internet to the common man?
Answer:
Technology impacts the environment, people and society as a whole. The Internet benefits a common man to travel, to communicate, to learn, to do business and to live in comfort.

Tech Bloomers Pdf Question 2.
Do you think technology has improved communication? How?
Answer:
Yes, technology has improved communication. Through a piece of technology called Dragon Dictate, Alisha who suffers from Cerebral palsy can speak now and the words appear on her screen. Then she can print them out. It made her achieve things which she had dream it.

Tech Bloomers 10th Lesson Question 3.
How does David operate computers with the Liberator Communication Device?
Answer:
David operates computers with the Liberator Communication Device by controlling it with his eye movements. It has a Bluetooth adapter. So it lets him use any PC or Mac by sending commands.

Tech Bloomers Short Summary Question 4.
Which devices are controlled using ACTIV controller?
Answer:
TV, Blu-ray and music players are controlled using ACTIV controller.

Tech Bloomers Theme Question 5.
Who says these words: “I want everyone to know the difference technology has made in my life”?
Answer:
Alisha says these words to make the world know the difference that technology has made in her life.

Tech Bloomers Meaning In Tamil Question 6.
Which software helps Alisha to overcome her difficulty in typing?
Answer:
Dragon Dictate is a software which helped Alisha to overcome her difficulty in typing.

Tech Bloomers Meaning In English Question 7.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life
easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence, Blee watch by Industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai and IGEST by Anil Prabhakar.

Tech Bloomers Meaning Question 8.
Is it possible to control the computer screen with eye gaze?
Answer:
Yes, it is possible to control the computer screen with Eye Gaze. That means, when we are reading, we can move from page to page using the pupils of our eyes.

Tech Bloomers Summary In Tamil Question 9.
Suggest ways of making our society inclusive.
Answer:
Keeping in touch with our family, talking to them, seeing relatives, who live far away, making , friends, communicating and controlling our environment, finding opportunities, getting qualified and being independent are the ways of making our society inclusive.

Tech Bloomers Moral Question 10.
How would you help the people with disabilities in your neighborhood?
Answer:
I would introduce them to the Latest and modern Technology, so that it can make them more confident and independent. This technology allows the differently abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully.

B. Answer in a paragraph of about 100-150 words.

Question 1.
How do we use technology in our day to day lives?
Answer:
Technology is growing day after day and we all depend on technology. Today we have various developing technologies that impact our lives in different ways. As the world keeps on developing, technology will change. Keeping oneself updated is very important in this modem world.

It has totally transformed the life of an individual. A Refrigerator is programmed to replenish food when the vegetables or milk or eggs are over. Ink cartridges too self-order replacements when it is empty. Technology helps one to manage entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger.

When you are bored watching a programme on TV, you can just inform your smart TV your desire to view your social feed. Technology helps you to watch programmes understanding your mood swings. When caught‘ in traffic, technology permits your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. Technology also automates all water and energy management systems. Therefore, accepting it and learning how to use technology in whatever we do is highly important and recommended.
‘We are changing the world with Technology’

Question 2.
“Technology is a boon to the disabled”. Justify.
Answer:
The differently abled, Alisha and David’s life has been transformed because of Technology. It is a boon to the disabled. Assistive technology is designed to help people with disabilities. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps the disabled to speak for words to be printed on screen. Technology can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze. Technology is vital to be free and independent.

For verbal communication, Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally is used. It has a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to learn using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before.

An ACTIV controller also in the headrest of a mobility chair is used to control TV, Blu-Ray and music players. Augmentative and Alternative Communication is also the product of technological advancements and a boon to the disabled.

ECO2 linked to an interactive whiteboard is used to teach PE lessons. Technology also helps control the Play Station, MP3, electric wheelchair and ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate and access the computer. Thus, Technology is a boon to the disabled.
‘Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice that they may not have had before.’

Additional Questions

Question 1.
What are the various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life?
Answer:
There are various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life. Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is an innovation for the disabled to use GPS & Bluetooth. This enabled shoes to help the disabled navigate streets, based on instructions from map software on a smartphone. The App also records the route and also counts steps.

Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai invented the Smartwatch for the hearing impaired. It converts sound waves into vibrations and colour codes to alert users to emergency sounds and ringing doorbells. It even helps them feel the rhythm of music.

iGEST by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and cofounder of enability technologies innovated a wearable device which tracks gestures of speech-impaired people and speaks for them. I guess technology makes a differently abled person’s life easier.
‘Exploration is the engine that drives Innovation,’

Question 2.
“Technology is a boon to the disabled”. Justify.
Answer:
Technology plays a vital role in transforming the lives of a disabled. Kim made them realise life isn’t tough because you are differently abled. Kim made them realise that you can keep in touch with your family, you can talk to and even see relatives who live far away. Well, Kim has shown them that technology can do even more for young disabled people. It can make friends communicate and control the environment.

It can help them study, get qualifications and find opportunities for work. It can make them confident and independent. World-renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how Assistive Technology has helped a talented mind overcome physical impairments and contribute productively to the world.

So we can now look forward to a more inclusive way of learning, instead of the cloistered existence that most differently- abled learners had to face in the past. Newer technology allows differently- abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully to the collaborative process of learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly a learning for all.
‘The Science of today is the Technology! of tomorrow.’

Vocabulary:

C. Pick out the contractions from the lesson and expand them.
Answer:

D. Expand the following abbreviations or acronyms

SIM: Subscriber Identity Module
ISRO: Indian Space Research Organisation
WHO: World Health Organisation
CCTV: Closed Circuit Television
HDMI: High-Definition Multimedia Interface
LASER: Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
MRI: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
CRY: Child Relief and You
RAM: Random Access Memory
ROM: Read Only Memory
CPU: Central Processing Unit
ALU: Arithmetic-Logic Unit

E. Given below are some idiomatic phrases. Find the meaning of it using the dictionary:

1. My dad wakes up very early in the morning because he has to be at work at 6.00 ……………………… .
2. Socrates, the famous Classical Greek Athenian philosopher, died in 399 ……………………… .
3. Leonardo Da Vinci was a famous Italian polymath, a painter, a sculptor, an architect, a musician, a scientist ……………. .
4. I usually return home from work at 10.30 ……………………. .
5. John downloaded a clip from YouTube in ………………… quality.
6. There are many irregular verbs in the English language, …………………. break, do, make.
7. I’m watching a great football match, Barcelona ………………………. Real Madrid.
8. Humans who dive without protection can survive 300 ……………………….. under water.
9. A 11-year-old girl just beat Einstein on an …………………………… test.
10. We used the ……………………… facility to track the location.

Listening Activity:

F. Listen to the passage and state whether the statements are true (T), false (F) or no information (N)?

Hello! I’m Santhiya. I want to write about my mobile phone. I got it from my parents for my birthday two years back. I like it very much and I think it’s sometimes good to have it in my bag.

I always keep it in my bag or in my pocket so my parents and my friends can always call me. It’s got a calculator in it so I use it frequently to calculate. It’s also a kind of information file. I can use my mobile phone to connect to the Internet and look through the news or read emails. Isn’t it fantastic?

Last year I was cycling with my friend on a holiday with my friend. We went cycling but the weather wasn’t good. It was cold and windy. It started to rain and it got dark. Suddenly my friend fell off her bike and broke her leg. At first I didn’t know what to do but then I thought about my phone.

It was in my backpack so I telephoned for help. After fifteen minutes a doctor arrived. Sometimes people are not keen on mobile phones. They are a real problem because they always ring at the wrong moment. I’m not crazy about my mobile phone but I feel safe when I have it with me.

1. Santhiya can’t live without her mobile phone. (False)
2. She got her mobile in January. (False)
3. Her parents bought her the mobile phone one year ago. (False)
4. There’s a calculator in her mobile. (True)
5. She can connect to the Internet on her mobile. (True)
6. She usually listens to music on her mobile. (False)
7. She can’t read emails on her mobile. (True)
8. There are often a lot of problems with mobile phones. (False)
9. Santhiya always talks on her mobile to her friends. (False)
10. She doesn’t like mobile phones. (False)

G. Listen to the passage again and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Where does Santhiya keep her mobile?
Answer:
Santhiya keeps her mobile in her bag or in her pocket.

Question 2.
What can she use it for?
Answer:
She can use it for Internet connections and emails.

Question 3.
When was she cycling?
Answer:
She was cycling last year.

Question 4.
What happened there?
Answer:
Santhiya’s friend fell off her bike and broke her leg.

Question 5.
How did Santhiya solve the problem?
Answer:
Santhiya called a doctor through her mobile phone. He came to the spot in 15 minutes and helped the girl out.

H. Complete the sentences after reading the passage.

1. Santhiya’s parents and friends can always …………. her.
2. Her mobile phone is also a kind of …………………
3. On the cycling holiday after the accident Santhiya phoned for ………………
4. Mobile phones often ………………. at the wrong moment.
5. Children can feel ……………… when they have their mobile phones with them.

Answers:

1. contact
2. an information file
3. a doctor
4. ring
5. safe

Speaking Activity:

I. Prepare on any one of the topics given below and present before your English teacher.

→ Prepare a welcome address on the occasion of Republic day celebration.
A festival is an occasion of enjoyment and celebration. It brings joy and laughter thereby strengthening our bond of relationship and friendship. Every nation celebrates January 26th with pomp and grandeur. The significance of this day is that a pledge was taken on 26th January 1930 on the bank of river Ravi to attain ‘Swaraj’ was fulfilled on this day in the year 1950. India thus became sovereign, democratic and republic. Warm Greetings to everyone present here with special mention to our Honorable principal, vice principal and teachers.

I, Apurva Calvin, the School Pupil Leader, would like to extend my regards and express my gratitude towards my teachers, for giving me the opportunity to felicitate the Chief Guest Capt. Clement David on this auspicious occasion of Republic Day. Who else can be the best choice to be the chief guest on this auspicious occasion than a man who has served the military? Yes, I am proud to stand before our chief guest to welcome a stalwart, a dynamite who helped us to enjoy the freedom we are experiencing.

A man who fought against the British and got us freedom. It is indeed our honour to have you sir with us and we wholeheartedly thank you for gracing this occasion with your august presence. We have gathered today, as you all know, to celebrate the 73rd Republic Day which is celebrated nationwide.

Any Indian festival attracts the world due to their harmony, variety, colour and excitement. Being a multi-lingual and multi-racial country, we bring to you a colourful programme on this day. Sit back and enjoy a patriotic Friday.

→ Prepare a Vote of thanks on the occasion of Independence day celebration.
The honorable chief guest, Capt. Clement David, Principal Mrs. Lydia Devasagayaam, my dear teachers, non-teaching staff, parents and my dear fellow-mates – a very good morning to you all. I feel honoured and privileged to stand before you to propose the vote of thanks on this year’s Independence day celebration of our beloved country, India.

Our Principal Mrs. Devasahayam has always been the backbone to our success. Thank you, ma’am, for being our motivation and inspiration. Thank you dear students for your beautiful performances highlighting the need to be patriotic to our country. I thank the teachers who have guided and tutored young children to perform and showcase their innate talents.

Thank you teachers, this day would have never been successful without you. I take a moment to thank the annans and akkas who laboured behind all the arrangements for this event. I am proud to be a citizen of India and feel responsible to celebrate such glorious days.

I thank every one of you for making this celebration a success. Thank you dear parents for your presence to make our school ground sparkle in bright vibrant colours. Last but not the least I would like to extend my gratitude to our Chief Guest, Capt. Clement David for being here.

To hear those words of your personal experiences fighting against the British was nerve-racking. We are truly honoured by your presence. On behalf of the management staff and students I thank you from the bottom of my heart for your valuable presence that we would cherish forever. Thank you. Jai Hind!

→ Mock anchoring for annual day celebration
(Instrumental Music is played)
This is the day that the Lord has made, let us rejoice and be glad in it, for these children who will be on stage are indeed the gifts God bestowed on you dear Parents’. One of the most anxiously awaited occasions in any school is the Annual Day dedicated to the Parents of the institution. Great preparations and busy activities are visible all around.
A very Good evening Ladies and Gentlemen. A warm welcome to each one of you.
On behalf of the management, staff and students, we are very happy to welcome our chief guest, Dr. Gopinath – the regional director Angel Group of institutions, dear parents and other distinguished guest for this great occasion.
Today our students, the shining stars, are here to bring out their hidden talents by their spectacular performance and on this day dear parents you’re here to witness the bountiful talents exhibited by your children.
The theme for today’s Programme is Make A Choice To Take A Chance And Bring A Change.
The magic of the 3c’s of life The Choice, The Chance and The Change Our School Pupil Leader Karuna Vijayakumar will formally welcome the gathering. Welcome Address Thank you Karuna.
Dear Friends, kindly switch off all the gadgets that would connect you to the busy world outside.
We will now have the Lighting of the Lamp.
I request our Chief Guest Dr. Gopinath, Our correspondent Mr. Azariah, PTA President Mr. Jerald Benjamin, Staff representative Mrs. Latha Ram, and Student representative Parimala Mahesh of Std. XIIB, to kindly Light the Lamp.
Thank you Dignitaries.
We shall now have the Invocation Dance to invoke God’s blessing.
Thank you Children for the blissful prayer dance.
We will now have the Annual Report in the form of a Presentation highlighting on academics, social, emotional and cultural events to develop individuality of each child and make them well balanced to face the better tomorrow.
Cellphones, cellphones everywhere, isn’t it time to reduce the usage? The overuse of it is shrinking our minds and misusing it is ruining our lives.
Now we have our students of Std.VI to VIII who are going to perform a serious issue.
The Evil Effects of Cell Phone in a comical way through a mime.
Thank you Students for the fabulous performance. Let us make a choice To use the cell phones in a right way and bring a change in our lives.
We will now have a Dance Drama brought alive to our eyes by the students of Std. IX and X. This dance drama portrays the life of a young boy who is entangled by the evil forces of the society.
Thank you Dear Students for bringing a change in your attitude to face the future.
I now request our Chief Guest Dr.Gopinath, Our correspondent Mrs. Marian, Principal Mrs. Leela Raja, to kindly come up to the Dias.
I now request Miss. Luveena to welcome and Felicitate Our Chief Guest.
Thank you Miss. Luveena.
I request our Chief Guest Dr. Gopinath to Address the gathering.
Thank you Sir, for your inspiring and thought provoking message.
Every exam or test in our life makes us better or bitter. This is apt for our students who have achieved great success in the public exam by making the right choice.
We shall now have the Prize Distribution for the meritorious performance of our students in the Board examination. I request our Chief Guest to distribute the prizes.
Mrs.Tinavet Joy will now read the list of prize winners.
Thank you Sir, for honouring our students.
Students of Std IX-XII are here to perform the Bengali Folk Dance depicting the celebration of the fish culture harvest. Sit back relax and enjoy the dance.
Thank you students for the wonderful performance.
Both light and shadow combine to bring life to this dance. Yes! we are going to watch Shadow Dance portraying the importance of mother’s love and how a mother’s choice brings out a difference in the lives of children.
Actions speak louder than words are very well proved in this. Thank you Students for the awesome performance.
If music be the language of the soul, then play on. So, we have Std. XII students who will entertain us with their Choral singing in different languages.
Thank you Students.
I now call upon S. Aruna Dorai ASPL to propose the Vote of Thanks.
Let us carry this thought today. Take a chance by making a difference in the lives of others. Henceforth, we will notice that a great change will take place within us and around us
Kindly stand for the School Song followed by the National Anthem.

→ Collect images of some electronic gadgets and play a JAM (just a minute) game by picking one image and talking for a minute about it in your classroom.

I very well remember the time when this gadget – cell phone that became the most important companion for human beings, came into existence. I have seen situations to be so absurd with a person talking all alone on the road. With hands free options, I remember them to be found crazy. They weren’t so sleek like the ones we see today. Cameras too weren’t there. That was just the beginning.Very soon they were all over the place.

They shrunk in size and became pocket sized wonders! The mobiles of today do multiple functions. They are used to text messages, send and receive video messages, talk on face time, do conferencing calls and so on. With time passing by, the cost reduced and reached the market wherein it became the friend of the rich and the poor.

Now, almost every one, everywhere, seems to have one. The vegetable vendor, the bus conductor, a ragged wanderer, students, office goers, home maker or a business magnet, irrespective of economic status possess a cell phone. Hasn’t this little midget taken the world by storm? I am sure you will unanimously agree to my opinion.

Reading:

J. Read the comic strip and ans’ e following questions.

Question 1.
What do you mean by cyber safety?
Answer:
Cyber safety is the safe and responsible use of information and communication technologies.

Question 2.
How do you behave in a virtual platform?
Answer:
In a virtual platform, one has to respect the values, sentiments, tradition and history of people expressed in the global network.

Question 3.
Can we read and access the information free of cost?
Answer:
Yes, we can.

Question 4.
Do you think that all the information online can be used without any permission?
Answer:
No, there are some information which are owned by someone. One has to take necessary permissions in order to use their content.

Question 5.
Which website do you often access? Why?
Answer:
I mostly access www.google.co.in for browsing information related to my projects and home assignments. I use it often because it saves my time.

Writing:

e-mail

K. Fill in the missing words in this email.

Answers:

1. response
2. model
3. attached.
4. same
5. forward
6. K. Sankar

L. Write an email to your teacher about the interesting English model that you have prepared for the literary fest.

M. Practice Exercise

You are the receptionist of your school. Your Head master instructs you to send a message to all the parents of class ten to attend a PTA (Parent Teacher Association) meet which is to be held on 22.12.2019.

Answer:

N. Write about Your Favourite Sports person/ Famous personality/Hobby/ Recipe by starting your own blog.

Favourite Sportsman:

Famous personality

Hobby

Grammar:

A. Write the words that can replace Ravi, Rani, woman, luggage and the dog when we use them for the second and subsequent times in the passage ……………….., ………………., and ………………. .
Answer:
He, she, it and it.
These words are called ?
Answer:
Pronouns

B. Fill in the gaps with personal pronouns.

Kumaravel lives in Thiruvannamalai. (1) ………………… is a doctor. All the people like (2) ………………… because of (3) …………….. helping nature. (4) ……………. hospital is located at Car street and most of (5) ………………. patients are poor so (6) ………………………. does not charge much money. (7) ………………… daughter goes to school. (8) ………………….. studies in 5th Standard. (9) …………………… teachers love (10) …………………… very much. (11) ………………………. friends are also very good. (12) ……………… always encourage (13) ………………… (14) ……………… have given (15) ………… good advice. (16) ………….. mother is also a teacher. (17) …………… always encourages (18) ……………… to keep studying. I also like her as (19) ……………….. often comes to (20) ………………… house. One day (21) …………………… told my mother that (22) …………….wants to learn cooking. (23) …………… mother taught (24) ……………… cooking. Now, (25) ……………. cooks well.
Answers:
1. He, 2. him, 3. his, 4. His, 5. us, 6. he, 7. His, 8. She, 9. Her, 10. her, 11. Her, 12. They, 13. her, 14. They, 15. her, 16. Her, 17. She, 18. her, 19. she, 20. my, 21. she, 22.she, 23. My, 24. her, 25. She.

C. Fill in the gaps with appropriate Pronouns.

1. ……………….. is an excellent opportunity.
2. ………………. of these two students can solve this question.
3. ………………… books have been written by a great Indian writer.
4. …………………. have come to know the truth.
5. ………………….. of the students have passed the exam.
6. ………………….. of your friends can guide you.
7. …………………. is your story based on your real life.
8. All your friends will guide ……………………… .
9. …………………….. of his family members would come to visit you.
10. ……………………. of those books will be helpful to you.
11. …………………….. is your bag, you can take it anytime.
12. He ………………….. is responsible for the downfall of his life.

Answers:

1. It
2. One
3. These
4. They
5. Some
6. Few
7. This
8. you
9. Many
10. Some
11. It
12. himself

D. Join the sentences using ‘Relative Pronouns’.

1. I have book. It is written by Rabindranath Tagore.
I have a book which is written by Rabindranath Tagore.

2. Kavita is my teacher. She teaches us English.
Kavita is my teacher who teaches us English.

3. This is Varun. His father is an architect.
This is Varun whose father is an architect.

4. She invited most of her friends. They attended the party.
Most of her friends whom she invited attended the party.

5. Give me a pen to write a letter. It was gifted to you on your birthday.
Give me a pen which was gifted to you on your birthday to write a letter.

6. I have sold the house. It was located at the bank of a river.
I have sold the house which was located at the bank of a river.

7. Here is your watch. It has been found in the garden.
Here is your watch which has been found in the garden.

E. Read the different verb forms where they remain the same in the direct and indirect speech in the following cases. Fill in the blanks with missing indirect speech.

1. If the reporting verb is in the present tense.

2. When we report a universal truth (something that is always true)

3. With modal verbs would, might, could, should, ought to, used to.

4. With would rather, had better I would rather fly.

5. In if-clauses and time-clauses.

6. We do not usually change the modal verbs must and needn’t. But must can become had to or would have to and needn’t can become didn’t have to or wouldn’t have to if we want to express an obligation. Would/wouldn’t have to are used to talk about future obligations.

Answers:

1. (a) she will never go to work.
2. (a) people in Africa are starving.
3. (a) he would try to come.
4. (a) they had better go.
5. (a) when he was staying in Madurai he had met his best friend.
6. (a) they must do that in June.

F. Read the following dialogue and report it.

Johnson : “What are you doing here, Suganthi? I haven’t seen you since June.”
Suganthi : “I’ve just come back from my holiday in Ooty.”
Johnson : “Did you enjoy it?”
Suganthi : “I love Ooty. And the people were so friendly.”
Johnson : “Did you go to Coakers Walk?”
Suganthi : “It was my first trip. I can show you some pictures. Are you doing anything tomorrow?”
Johnson : “I must arrange a couple of things. But I am free tonight.”
Suganthi : “You might come to my place. At what time shall we meet?”
Johnson : “I’ll be there at eight. Is it all right?”

Johnson asked Suganthi (1) ……………….. And he said (2) ………………… since June. Suganthi explained that (3) ……………………. back from her holiday in Ooty. Johnson wondered if (4) …………………….. it. Suganthi told him that she (5) Ooty and that the people (6) so friendly. Johnson wanted to know (7) ………………. to the Coakers Walk. Suganthi said that it (8) ………………….. first trip and that she (9) ………………………. some pictures. And then she asked him if he (10) …………………………. Johnson explained that he (11) …………………… a couple of things. But he added that he (12) …………………. free at night. Suganthi suggested that he (13) ………………….. place and asked him at what time . Johnson said he (14) ……………….. there at eight. And finally he asked (15) …………………….. all right.
Answers:

1. what she was doing there
2. that he hadn’t seen her since June
3. she had just come
4. she had enjoyed
5. loved
6. were
7. if she had been
8. was her
9. could show him
10. was doing anything the next day
11. must arrange
12. would be
13. might come to her place
14. would be
15. if it was

G. Tick the right choice (Indirect Speech).

Answer:

Tech Bloomers Summary:

Introduction:
The lesson elaborates on the advance technology and its benefits to the differently abled. It is interesting to read how technology has made life comfortable and easy for the differently abled people.

Uses of technology
Refrigerator replenishes food directly linking to the e-commerce site. Ink cartridges self-order replacements. Managing entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger is a reality. Inform smart TV your desire to view your social feed when you are bored. When caught in traffic, permit your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. All water and energy management can be automated.

A boon to differently abled Technology makes a normal person’s life easier, but it’s a boon to citizens with special needs. According to the 2011 Census, 2.21 percent of lndians are disabled. Unlike the developed world, disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers as they face challenges of inclusion.

Kim transformed Alisha’s life Alisha, cerebral palsied wanted everyone to know the difference technology has made in her life. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps her to speak for words on the screen for printing. She had a teacher, now no more who wanted her to do GCSE maths. It sounded silly because she needed help to type, but now it’s possible. Kim, Assistive Technologist, introduced Dragon Dictate to her. Now, she’s doing Maths GCSE. Kim gives them the motivation needed for them to aspire the impossible. One can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze. Kim works with all 42 students and helps them use technology in different ways. Kim has opened up the world to many.

Kim transformed David’s life To David bom with Athetoid Cerebral Palsy,1 Technology was vital to be free and independent. For verbal communication, David used a Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally. It had a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to learn using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before. He has an ACTIV controller also in the headrest of his chair in his bedroom to control his TV, Blu-Ray and music players. He has been interested in Augmentative and Alternative Communication. David is also a keen sportsman playing football, boccia, hockey and baseball. He is a sports leader and uses his EC02 linked to an interactive whiteboard to teach PE lessons.

David has 144 icons on the screen and uses them with Eye Gaze. Now David accesses the curriculum, studies for his GCSE, orders food and has become a confident and competent communicator. David is an advocate for those who wish to communicate. He controls his Play Station, plays MP3, drives his electric wheelchair and uses the ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate, access the computer to check on the progress of Chelsea football team. David will travel to Brazil to work with the Olympic opening ceremony team as part of the Remix Drama Group.

Indian Innovations

• Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is a GPS and Bluetooth which enables the challenged to navigate streets with instructions from map software on smartphones.
• Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai is useful for the hearing impaired converting sound waves into vibrations and colour codes.
• iGest by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and co-founder of enability technologies created a wearable device tracks for speech-impaired who speak now.

Conclusion:
Technology makes life easier. Kim has shown a new world for the differently abled. World-renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how Assistive Technology can transform lives. So inclusion is possible. Newer technology allows differently-abled learners to learn collaborative learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly learning for all.

Tech Bloomers Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

Synonyms:

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

1. Technology empowers the disabled to do their day to day chores.
(a) errands
(b) chaffs
(c) studies
(d) chances
Answer:
(a) errands

2. Technology has empowered the disabled.
(a) brightened
(b) endowed
(c) triggered
(d) emancipates
Answer:
(b) endowed

3. David’s life has changed with the use of technology.
(a) taxology
(b) devastation
(c) environment
(d) machinery
Answer:
(d) machinery

4. Technology impacts the environment.
(a) influences
(b) imparts
(c) impedes
(d) participates
Answer:
(a) influences

5. Technology determines its impacts to the society.
(a) begins
(b) differs
(c) consumes
(d) controls
Answer:
(d) controls

6. Anything which is below a certain threshold can be self-ordered.
(a) floor
(b) edge
(c) thrift
(d) beam
Answer:
(b) edge

7. Energy management can be taken care by automating all the activities.
(a) mechanizing
(b) automobile
(c) channelling
(d) managing
Answer:
(a) mechanizing

8. The disabled continue to grapple with the challenges of access.
(a) adhere
(b) gaze
(c) grope
(d) cope
Answer:
(d) cope

9. It would have been frustrating and difficult.
(a) happy
(b) feeble
(c) infuriating
(d) easy
Answer:
(c) infuriating

10. I have cerebral palsy.
(a) language
(b) intellectual
(c) callous
(d) callous
Answer:
(b) intellectual

11. Studying was difficult because I had to rely on someone to type.
(a) hope
(b) relieve
(c) change
(d) depend
Answer:
(d) depend

12. He accessed his AAC device which took lots of navigation.
(a) scope
(b) naval
(c) neutral
(d) steering
Answer:
(d) steering

13. He has fixed his gaze on the icon that is required.
(a) stare
(b) geek
(c) eyes
(d) face
Answer:
(a) stare

14. It has been mounted on his walker.
(a) riding
(b) fixed
(c) managed
(d) designed
Answer:
(b) fixed

15. Dqyid is also a keen sportsman.
(a) strong
(b) feeble
(c) creative
(d) ghastly
Answer:
(a) strong

16. ECO2 is linked to an interactive white board to teach PE lessons.
(a) connected
(b) loosened
(c) chained
(d) levitate
Answer:
(a) connected

17. David uses ECO2 to speak in complete sentences with correct syntax.
(a) symmetry
(b) centrifugal
(c) synecdoche
(d) grammar
Answer:
(d) grammar

18. He now comments socially using the language of his peers.
(a) formally
(b) informally
(c) scientifically
(d) historically
Answer:
(b) informally

19. He has now become a confident and competent communicator.
(a) capable
(b) poised
(c) callous
(d) daring
Answer:
(a) capable

20. David advocates to other students.
(a) administrates
(b) opposes
(c) comforts
(d) supports
Answer:
(d) supports

21. He controls his PlayStation with a bespoke switch system.
(a) spoken
(b) personalized
(c) metered
(d) monitored
Answer:
(b) personalized

22. Consumable products can be self-ordered.
(a) disposable
(b) durable
(c) challenged
(d) controlled
Answer:
(a) disposable

23. Managing entertainment by voice commands is a reality now.
(a) actuality
(b) brutality
(c) clarity
(d) daring
Answer:
(a) actuality

24. Technology is also a boon to citizens with special needs.
(a) art
(b) blessing
(c) comfort
(d) danger
Answer:
(b) blessing

25. India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) deviated
(b) decomposed
(c) rundown
(d) ransacked
Answer:
(c) rundown

Antonyms:

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.

1. Technology helps one to live in comfort.
(a) comfy
(b) discomfort
(c) misuse
(d) easiness
Answer:
(b) discomfort

2. Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) partial
(b) entire
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(a) partial

3. Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) negative
(d) promotioi
Answer:
(c) negative

4. Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure
(b) sure
(c) convinced
(d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

5. Your refrigerator can directly link to the ecommerce site.
(a) unswervingly
(b) openly
(c) indirectly
(d) straightly
Answer:
(c) indirectly

6. Consumable products self-order replacements.
(a) throwaway
(b) durable
(c) expendable
(d) perishable
Answer:
(b) durable

7. Your entire energy management can be taken care by automating.
(a) complete
(b) perfect
(c) partial
(d) whole
Answer:
(c) partial

8. Unlike the developed world, India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) developing
(b) industrialized
(c) established
(d) settled
Answer:
(a) developing

9. They continue to grapple with the challenges of inclusion.
(a) seclusion
(b) enclosure
(c) addition
(d) exclusion
Answer:
(d) exclusion

10. It would have been frustrating and difficult.
(a) easy
(b) challenging
(c) intimidating
(d) changeable
Answer:
(a) easy

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Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Physical Geography Of Tamil Nadu Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0′ to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N

State The Boundaries Of Tamil Nadu Class 10 Question 2.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 76° 18’E to 80°20’E
(b) 76° 18’W to 80°20’W
(c) 86°18’E to 10°20’E
(d) 86°18’W to 10°20’W
Answer:
(a) 76° 18’E to 80°20’E

Question 3.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is ……………..
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayan
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 4.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 5.
Which one of the following river flows into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Chittar
(d) Bhavani
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 6.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 7.
The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is ………………
(a) 20.21%
(b) 20.31%
(c) 21.20%
(d) 21.30%
Answer:
(a) 20.21%

Question 8.
Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from:
(a) Arabian sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Timor sea
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 9.
Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Vellore
(c) Dindigul
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is ……………..
2. ……………. is the highest peak in the southernmost part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between …………… and ………….. branches of cauvery.
4. ……………… soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
5. ……………. is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in
Answers:
1. Bharamahal
2. Solaikaradu
3. Northern, Southern
4. Laterite
5. Nilgiri Tahr, Nilgiri Hills

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (a)

IV. Assertion type Question.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from the southwest monsoon. Reasoning (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides Reasoning (R): It is formed by leaching
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).

V. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is bounded by Bay of Bengal in the East, Kerala in the West, Andhra Pradesh in the North Karnataka in the North West and Indian Ocean in the South.

Question 2.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and Western Ghats separately.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats:
Parangimalai, Chennai, Javadhu hills, Vellore, Salem, Sirumalai, Dindigul, Thiruvannamalai, Bhubaneswar, Namakkal, Perambalur.

Western Ghats:
Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Theni, Coimbatore, Nilgiri.

Question 3.
What is ‘Teri’?
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called “Teri”.

Question 4.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
It is formed by the rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 5.
Name the major islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Kurusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble island and Vivekananda rock memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Answer:
Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar and Ramanathi are its main tributaries.

Question 7.
Define Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) According to United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction is “the concept and practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyses and reduce the causal factors of disasters”. This includes reducing exposure to hazards, lessening the vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and early warning for adverse events.

Question 8.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the fishermen?
Answer:
During disturbed weather over the seas, the ports likely to be affected are warned by concerned ACWCs / CWCs by advising the port authorities through port warnings to hoist appropriate Storm Warning Signals. The Department also issues “Fleet forecast” for Indian Navy. Coastal Bulletins for Indian coastal areas covering up to 75 km from the coastline and sea area bulletins for the sea areas beyond 75 km. The special warnings are issued for fishermen four times a day in normal weather and every three hourly in accordance with the four-stage warning in case of disturbed weather.

The general public, the coastal residents and fishermen are warned through state government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Television telecast programmes in national and regional hook up. A sytem of warning dissemination for fishermen through World Space Digital Based radio receiver is being planned.

VI. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Western Ghats Eastern Ghats

Western Ghats	Eastern Ghats
Western Ghats is a continuous one. Its average height is form 2,000 to 3000 m.	Eastern Ghats are not continuous and irregular. Its average height from is 1,100 to 1,600 metres
The Western Ghats enters the state through the Nilgiri District and runs upto KanyaKumari District	They extend from Northeast to Southwest through the districts of Vellore Dharmapuri and Erode
The highest hills of Western Ghats is Anaimalai (2700 m)	The highest hills of Eastern Ghats is Shervaryan hills (1500-1600 m)

Question 2.
Southwest Monsoon and Northeast Monsoon.
Answer:
Southwest Monsoon Northeast Monsoon

Southwest Monsoon	Northeast Monsoon
Southwest Monsoon occurs between June to September.	North east monsoon occurs between Octobar and December.
It is Summer Monsoon.	It is Winter Monsoon.
The districts of Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, Salem, Coimbatore and Erode get rainfall.	The coromandal coast of Tamil Nadu gets heavy rainfall from north east monsoon.

Question 3.
Tropical evergreen and Tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Tropical evergreen forest Tropical deciduous forests

Tropical evergreen forest	Tropical deciduous forests
They are called Evergreen forest since the leaves are present always	They are called Tropical Deciduous forests
They never shed their leaves	They shed their leaves to avoid loss of moisture during dry season
They are located in places which receive more than 200 cms of rainfall	They are located in areas which receive rainfall between 100 and 200 cms.

VII. Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range.
Answer:
The Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range because it is dissected at many places by the rivers flowing towards the east that drain into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during southwest monsoon.
Answer:
During southwest monsoon, Tamil Nadu is located in the rain shadow region for the wind, which blows from the Arabian sea. As a result, Tamil Nadu receives only a meagre rainfall from this monsoon. Rainfall during this season decreases from west to east.

Question 3.
Alluvial soil is fertile.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of rivers and are rich in minerals like lime, potassium magnesium, nitrogen and phosphoric acid. Hence it is fertile in nature.

Question 4.
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone.
Answer:
Cuddalore districts is prone to natural calamities having experienced landfalls of major cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal region. Apart from the cyclones, 2004 Tsunami caused massive damages to life and property in Cuddalore and its adjacent Nagapattinam district. Cyclone Thane which made landfall here caused major loss to life and property.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Location: Plateaus of Tamil Nadu are located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
2. Area and Shape: It covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km and is roughly triangular in shape.
3. Slope and height: It is broader in the North and very narrow in the South. It’s height increases from East to West ranging between 150 and 600 metres.
4. Sub-divisions: Baramahal plateau, Coimbatore plateau and Madurai plateau.

Question 2.
Write an account on river Cauvery.
Answer:
The main river of Tamil Nadu is cauvery which originates at Talacauvery in the Brahmragiri hills of Kodagu (coorg) district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.

About 416 km of its course falls in Tamil Nadu. It serves as the boundary between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for a distance of 64 km. A tributary called Bhavani joins Cauvery on the right bank about 45 km from the Mettur Reservoir.

Thereafter, it takes easterly course to enter into the plains of Tamil Nadu. Cauvery and its distributaries in its lower course drain the districts of Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Thivarur and Thiruchirapalli. The cauvery, kollidam and the vellar jointly drain central part of the Tamil . Nadu. The head of the cauvery delta is near the islands of Srirangam. Kollidam branches off from cauvery at Grand Anaicut, also called as kallanai was built across the river cauvery.

After kallanai, the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a network all over the delta. The network of tributaries within the delta of cauvery in the coast is called as the ‘Garden of Southern India’. It merges into Bay of Bengal to the south of cuddalore. Cauvery along with its tributaries Bhavani, Noyyal, Mayar and Amaravathi is the most important source of canal irrigation.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The State of Tamil Nadu lies to the South of Tropic of cancer, which is near the Equator.
2. As it receives vertical Sunrays, the temperature the State is relatively high throughout the year.
3. But the climate of the coastal regions are influenced by the surrounding seas Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean enjoys tropical maritime climate.

Characteristic features of Summer Season:

1. There is a steady rise in temperature from South to North.
2. Generally the temperature various from 30°C to more than 40°C.
3. Summer falls in the months of March, April and May. Hottest month is the month of May.
4. In this season particularly in the month of May Southern , part of the. State receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Season:

1. During January and February Tamil Nadu receives the slanting rays of the sun.
2. So the weather is slightly cooler. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high.
3. Winter temperature in the State varies from 15°C to 25°C. However in hill stations it ranges from 5°C to 0°C forming thick mist and frost.
4. The season is generally dry.

Question 4.
What is desertification and write about the areas affected by it in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Desertification is a type of land degradation in which a relatively dry areas of land becomes a desert, typically losing its bodies of water as well as vegetation and wild life. Theni, the Nilgiris and Kanniyakumari are the worst affected districts. About 12,000 hectares (120 Sq.km) were affected by sand deposition in Theni and Rajapalayam.

Question 5.
Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Types of Soils	Distribution of Soil in Tamil Nadu
Alluvial Soil	It is found in river valley regions and coastal plains. Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tirunelveli and kanniyakumari
Black Soil	Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi
Red Soil	Sivagangai and Ramanathapuram
Laterite Soil	Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur and Thanjavur districts and source patches over the mountain region in the Nilgiris
Saline Soil	Saline soils in Tamil Nadu are confined to the Coromandel coast and vedaranyam

Question 6.
Name the areas which are affected by landslides. What will you do before, during and after landslides?
Answer:

1. A collapse of a mass of Earth or rock from a mountain or cliff is called landslide.
2. One of the most vulnerable district affected by landslides is Nilgiris.
3. The other regions which are prone to landslides are Coimbatore and Palani hill of Dindigul district.

Risk Reduction Measures:
Before:

1. Create awareness
2. Stay alert and awake
3. Monitor the News update
4. Make evacuation plan
5. Listen for any unusual sounds indication such as.
6. Moving debris – trees cracking, boulders knocking.
7. Consider leaving the place of landslides if it is safe to do so.

During:

(a) If Indoors:

• Find cover in the section of the building that is farthest away from the approaching landslide.
• Take shelter under a strong table or bench.
• Hold on firmly and stay until all movement has ceased.

(b) If outdoors:

• Move quickly away from its likely path.
• Keeping clear of embankments, trees, power lines and poles.
• Avoid crossing roads and bridges and stay away from landslides.
• The slope may experience additional failures for hours todays afterwards.

(c) After:

• Stay away from the slide area.
• Listen to local radio or television for the latest emergency information.
• Watch for flooding which may occur after a landslide or debris flow.
• Check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the direct slide area.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark important rivers, distribution of soil and forest types on different Tamil Nadu maps.
Answer:

In-text Activity

Question 1.
Find out the coastal districts of Tamil Nadu with the help of a map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu which share their boundary with the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala separately.
Answer:

S. No	States	Districts of Tamil Nadu which share their boundary with other states
1.	Andhra Pradesh	Vellore, Tiruvallur
2.	Karnataka	Krishnagiri, Erode
3.	Kerala	Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Teni, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari

In-Text Find Out

Question 1.
Name the first state of India created on linguistic basis.
Answer:
Andhra State on October 1st, 1953.

Question 2.
Why was the capital of Tamil Nadu renamed?
Answer:
The then local people called the capital of Tamil Nadu as Chennapattinam after the Vassal Chennapa Naicker who ruled this region and in the Sale Deed it was mentioned in the name after the Chenna Kesava temple which was the face of the city during that time. In 1996 Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in Tamil.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of the word ‘Chennai’?
Answer:
According to a suggestion, the city was named after the Chennakesava Perumal temple in the 1600s. The word Chennai in Tamil means ‘face’, with the temple regarded as the face of the city. The city was called Chennapatnam, which became to be abbreviated as Chennai.

Question 4.
Between in which latitude and longitude, is your school located?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
Why are mountain heights measured from mean sea level and not from ground level?
Answer:
Sea level is the base level for measuring elevation and depth on Earth. Because the ocean is one continuous body of water, its surface tends to seek the same level throughout the world.

Question 6.
Name the hill resorts of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Western Ghats: Annaimalai, Cardamon Hills, Palani Hills.
Eastern Ghats: Shevaroy Hills, Kalrayan Hills.

Question 7.
Is Ooty located on Western Ghats?
Answer:
Ooty is located on the Nilgiri hills which is a range of the Western Ghats.

Question 8.
Name the hill station located in Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Western Ghats: Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Annaimalai, Palani, Andipati and Agasthiyar Hills.
Eastern Ghats: Javadhu, Servarayan, Kalrayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai.

Question 9.
Why is the Nilgiri hills called as Blue Mountains?
Answer:
From all the directions and point of view these hills appear bluish hue in their natural settings. Hence the Nilgiri hills are called as Blue Mountains.

Question 10.
What is the kind of landform on which you live and what is its height?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 11.
What is Agni Nakshatram?
Answer:

• Temperature of the states increases in the second week of February.
• Gradually it increases in the months of March, May and June.
• The hottest part of the summer season is known as “Agni Nakshatram” or Katthiriveyyil.

Question 12.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu into low, moderate and heavy rainfall regions.
Answer:

S. No	Distribution of Rainfall	Regions
1.	Low Rainfall	Nammakkal, karur, Erode, Thuthukudi, Dharmapuri, Madurai, Thiruchirappalli, perambalur, Krishnagiri.
2.	Moderate Rainfall	Puddukottai, Virudhunagar, Sivagangai, Thanjavur, Salem, Ramanathapuram, Dindigal, Theni, Vellore.
3.	Heavy Rainfall	Kancheepuram, chennai, Villupuram, Thiruvallur, Thiruvarur, Cuddalore, Nagapattinam, Nilgiri.

Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
There are ……………… districts in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 32
(b) 35
(c) 30
Answer:
(b) 35

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu is the ………………. largest State in India regarding its area.
(a) 10th
(b) 12th
(c) 11th
(d) 20th
Answer:
(c) 11th

Question 3.
The state lying on the …………… tip of the Indian Peninsula is Tamil Nadu.
(a) Southern
(b) Western
(c) Eastern
Answer:
(a) Southern

Question 4.
At present there are districts in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 14
(d) 29
Answer:
(b) 35

Question 5.
Geographically Tamil Nadu is divided into five ……………..
(a) Plain region
(b) Hilly region
(c) Physical division
Answer:
(c) Physical division

Question 6.
The topography of the Tamil Nadu State slopes towards:
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
Answer:
(a) East

Question 7.
………….. is located in the border of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
(a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Anaimalai
(c) Cardamom Hills
Answer:
(b) Anaimalai

Question 8.
Cardamom hills are also known as :
(a) Pachaimalai
(b) Servarayan
(c) Yelamalai
(d) Kalvarayan
Answer:
(c) Yelamalai

Question 9.
The trees of ……………. forest shed their leaves during dry season.
(a) Tidel
(b) Deciduous
(c) Evergreen
Answer:
(b) Deciduous

Question 10.
Kolli hills is a small mountain range located in district.
(a) Madurai
(b) Dindigal
(c) Namakkal
(d) Salem
Answer:
(c) Namakkal

Question 11.
…………… determines thickness of soil profile.
(a) Climate
(b) Time
(c) Wind
Answer:
(b) Time

Question 12.
The rivers of Tamil Nadu originates from :
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Western Ghats
(c) River plains
(d) Plateaus
Answer:
(b) Western Ghats

Question 13.
………….. is the most common trigger of a landslide.
(a) Air
(b) Fire
(c) Water
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 14.
………………. is also known as retreating monsoon.
(a) South west monsoon
(b) Tropical cyclones
(c) North east monsoon
(d) Pre-monsoon shower
Answer:
(c) North east monsoon

Question 15.
…………. dams are located at the foothills of Anaimalai.
(a) Aliyar and Tirumurthy
(b) Vaigai
(c) Mettur
Answer:
(a) Aliyar and Tirumurthy

II. Match the following.

a.

1.	State Bird	(a)	226
2.	State Animal	(b)	Emerald Dove
3.	State Tree	(c)	234
4.	Assembly Constituencies	(d)	Palm tree
5.	Taluks	(e)	Nilgiri Tahr

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (a)

b.

1.	Tamil	(a)	South
2.	35	(b)	Madurai
3.	Indian Ocean	(c)	State Language
4.	Vaigai	(d)	Queen of hills station
5.	Ooty	(e)	Districts

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

III. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Name the local bodies of Tamil Nadu:
Answer:
Tamil Nadu consists of:

• 35 – Districts
• 39 – Lok Sabha Constituencies
• 234 – Assembly Constituencies
• 76 – Revenue Division
• 125 – Municipalities
• 561 – Town Panchayats
• 12,618 – Village Panchayats

Question 2.
Name the passes that are found in the Western Ghats.
Answer:
The passes in the Western Ghats are Palghat, Shencottah, Aralvoimozhi and Achankoil.

Question 3.
Name the water bodies bordering Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Bay of Bengal on the east.
• Indian Ocean on the south.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Anaimalai.
Answer:
Anaimalai is located in the border of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It is located in the South of Palghat gap. Valparai hill station and Kadamparai hydroelectric Power Plant are located on this hill. Anaimalai Tiger Reserve and Aliyar Reserve Forest is here. The dams Aliyar and Tirumurthy are located at the foothills of this range.

Question 5.
What are called Cholamandalam Plains?
Answer:
The coastal plains of Tiruvallur, Kanchipuram, Cuddalore and Villupuram are together known as the Cholamandalam Plains.

Question 6.
Name the districts that one located in the plains of Cauvery.
Answer:
The fertile plains of Cauvery is found in Salem, Erode, Karur, Tiruchirappalli, Pudukottai, Thanjavur, Thiruvarur and Nagapattinam.

Question 7.
Name the types of forests found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
2. Montane Temperate Forests
3. Tropical Deciduous Forests
4. Mangrove Forests and
5. Tropical Thom Forests

Question 8.
Name the Wettest place in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Chinnakallar near Valparai is the Wettest place in Tamil Nadu. It is the third Wettest place in India.

Question 9.
What are the factors that determine the formation of soil?
Answer:

• Parent Rock
• Climate
• Relief
• Time factor
• Flora, fauna and micro organisms

Question 10.
Name of factors that are responsible for soil erosion.
Answer:
Soil erosion occurs due to deforestation, overgrazing, urbanisation and heavy rainfall.

IV. Distinguish Between:

Question 1.
Marina Beach and Rameshwaram Beach
Answer:

Marina Beach	Rameshwaram Beach
It is located in the city of Chennai.	It is located near the Gulf of Mannar.
It is one of the major tourist attraction of the city.	Pilgirms and tourists come here.
It extends to a distance of 13 kms.	The sea waves rise to a maximum height of 3 cm only.

Question 2.
River Cauvery and River Vaigai
Answer:

River Cauvery	River Vaigai
It originates at Tala Cauvery in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu districts of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.	It rises from the eastern slopes of the Vamsanadu hills of Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.
The main tributaries are Bhavani, Noyyal, Moyar and Amaravathi.	Its tributaries are Suruliyaur, Tayalaru and Mullaru.
Mettur dam has been constructed across Cauvery	Vaigai dam has been constructed across Vagai.

Question 3.
Thorn forests and Mangrove forests
Answer:

Thorn forests	Mangrove forests
These forest are found in dry areas with low rainfall.	They are found in the tropical and subtropical tidal areas with high degree of salinity.
The vegetation is widely scattered to trees and bushes.	Mangrove trees grow along the estuaries and back waters.
They are highly adaptive to dry conditions with deep roots, thick items and fleshy leaves.	The trees belong to the genus Rhizophora.
They are found in the districts of Dharmapuri, Ramanathapuram, Viruthunagar districts in Tamil Nadu.	Pichavaram, Vedaranyam, Muthupet, Chatram and Thoothukudi in Tamil Nadu.

V. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
Does Thanjavur has less than 1% of forest cover?
Answer:

• Thanjavur has alluvial soil
• It is suitable for agriculture
• So there is less then 1% of forest cover.

Question 2.
Why do Nilgiris and Kanyakumari get more rainfall during the southwest Monsoon season?
Answer:

1. The south west monsoon occurs between June and September.
2. Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, the western part of Coimbatore, Dharmapuri and Salem get benefitted during southwest monsoon season.
3. As the southwest monsoon starts its downpour of rain in the western ghats, the western parts of Tamil Nadu receive about 150 cm of rain fall, on an average.

Question 3.
East Coast of Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall during Southwest Monsoon
Answer:

• This occurs due to the southwesterly direction of Monsoon winds.
• Most of the eastern and central parts of Tamil Nadu become rain shadow regions for this season.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the geographical location of TamilNadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu, a state in Southern India, is bordered by the states of Kerala, Karnataka and Andra pradesh.
• Bay of Bengal on the east, Indian ocean on the South, Kerala and Karnataka on the West and Andra Pradesh on the North.
• Gulf of Mannar and Palk strait separate Tamil Nadu from the Island of Srilanka, which lies to the South east of India.
• It is the 11th largest state in India.
• The state extends from 8° 4’N to 13° 35’N latitudes and from 76° 18’Eto 80° 20’E longitudes.
• Its Eastern and Western extremities are defined by the point Calimere and the hills of Anaimalai respectively.
• The Northern extremity of the state is marked by Pulicat lake and the Southern most point is Cape Comorin.
• The state of Tamil Nadu is a triangular land mass at the south eastern end of the continent.
• It has 1,076 km long coast line, the second longest in India.

Question 2.
Write about the rainfall regions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Rainfall regions of Tamil Nadu Distribution of rain fall.

Question 3.
Write a paragraph on the Nilgiris hills.
Answer:

1. The Nilgiri hills is located in the Northwestern part of Tamil Nadu.
2. It consists of 24 peaks with more than 2000 metres height.
3. Doddabetta is the highest peak (2,637 metres) followed by Mukkuruthi (2,554 metres).
4. Ooty and Coonoor are the major hill stations.
5. It has more than 2,700 species of flowering plants.
6. The state animal Nilgiri Tahr is found in this hill.
7. By extensive tea plantations and cattle grazing destroyed and disturbed much of the Nilgiris montane grasslands and shrublands.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 6 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.1

10th Maths Exercise 6.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Prove the following identities.
(i) cot θ + tan θ = sec θ cosec θ
(ii) tan⁴θ + tan²θ = sec⁴θ – sec²θ
Solution:

10th Maths Trigonometry Exercise 6.1 Question 2.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

Exercise 6.1 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

10th Trigonometry Exercise 6.1 Question 4.
Prove the following identities
(i) sec⁶θ = tan⁶θ + 3tan²θ sec²θ + 1
(ii) (sinθ + secθ)² + (cosθ + cosecθ)²
= 1 + (secθ + cosecθ)²
(i) L.H.S = sec⁶θ = (sec²θ)³ = (1 + tan²θ )³ = (tan²θ + 1)³
(a + b)³ = a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³
= (tan²θ)³ + 3(tan²θ)² × 1 + 3 × tan²θ × 1² + 1
= tan⁶θ + 3tan²θ × (sec²θ – 1) + 3tan²θ + 1
= tan⁶θ + 3tan²θsec²θ – 3tan²θ + 3tan²θ +1
= tan⁶θ + 3tan²θ sec²θ + 1 = R.H.S

(ii) L.H.S = (sinθ + secθ )² + (cosθ + cosecθ)²
= sin²θ + 2sinθ secθ + sec²θ + cos²θ + 2cosθ cosecθ+ cosec²θ

Ex 6.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 5.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 6.1 Question 6.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

Trigonometry Exercise 6.1 Question 7.

Solution:

10th Maths 6.1 Question 8.

Solution:
(i) LHS:

10th Maths Exercise 6.1 In Tamil Question 9.
(i) If sinθ + cosθ = p and secθ + cosecθ = q then prove that q(p² – 1) = 2p
(ii) If sinθ(1 + sin²θ) = cos²θ, then prove that cos⁶θ – 4cos⁴θ + 8cos²θ = 4
Solution:

(ii) Given sinθ(1 + sin²θ) = cos²θ
Sustitute sin²θ = 1 – co²θ and take cos θ = c
squaring (1) on bothsides we get
sin²θ(1 + sin²θ)² = cos⁴θ
(1 – c²)(1 + 1 – c²) = c⁴
(1 – c²)(2 – c²)² = c⁴
(1 – c²)(4 + c⁴– 4c²) = c⁴
4 + c⁴– 4c² – 4c² – c⁶ + 4c⁴ = c⁴
 -c^{6 +} 4c⁴ – 8c² = -4
c⁶ – 4c⁴ + 8c² = -4
ie cos 6θ – 4cos 4θ + 8cos²θ = 4 = RHS
∴ Hence proved

10th Samacheer Kalvi Maths Trigonometry Question 10.

Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Optics

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Textual Solved Problems

10th Science Optics Book Back Answers Question 1.
Light rays travel from vacuum into a glass whose refractive index is 1.5. If the angle of incidence is 30°, calculate the angle of refraction inside the glass.
Solution:
According to Snell’s law,

Optics Lesson Book Back Answers Question 2.
A beam of light passing through a diverging lens of focal length 0.3 m appears to be focused at a distance 0.2 m behind the lens. Find the position of the object.
Solution:
f = -0.3 m, v = -0.2 m

10th Science Optics Lesson Question 3.
A person with myopia can see objects placed at a distance of 4 m. If he wants to see objects at a distance of 20 m, what should be the focal length and power of the concave lens he must wear?
Solution:
Given that x = 4 m and y = 20 m.
Focal length of the correction lens is, \(f=\frac{x y}{x-y}\)
\(\begin{aligned} f &=\frac{4 \times 20}{4-20} \\ &=\frac{80}{-16}=-5 \mathrm{m} \end{aligned}\)
Power of the correction lens \(=\frac{1}{f}=-\frac{1}{5}=-0.2 \mathrm{D}\).

Optics 10th Class Question 4.
For a person with hypermetropia, the near point has moved to 1.5 m. Calculate the focal length of the correction lens in order to make his eyes normal.
Solution:
Given that, d = 1.5 m; D = 25 cm = 0.25 m (For a normal eye).
The focal length of the correction lens is,

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

10th Standard Optics Lesson Question 1.
The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in ____.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D.
Answer:
(a) A

10th Optics Lesson Question 2.
A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce:
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a coloured beam of light
Answer:
(a) a convergent beam of light

Class 10 Science Optics Question 3.
A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce ____.
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a coloured beam of light.
Answer:
(c) a parallel beam of light

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 4.
Magnification of a convex lens is:
(a) Positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(a) Positive

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Question 5.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at the focus. Then the position of the object is at _____.
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2f.
Answer:
(b) infinity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solution Question 6.
Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is _____.
(a) 4m
(b) -40m
(c) -0.25 m
(d) -2.5 m.
Answer:
(c) -0.25m

10th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed:
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) in front of the retina
(d) on the blind spot
Answer:
(c) in front of the retina

Science Solution Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by ______.
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex mirror
(d) bifocal lenses.
Answer:
(d) bifocal lenses.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Question 9.
Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm.
Answer:
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
If V_B, V_G, V_R be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
(a) V_B = V_G = V_R
(b) V_B > V_G > V_R
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R
(d) V_B < V_G > V_R
Answer:
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
The path of the light is called as ______.
Answer:
ray of light.

Samacheer Kalvi 10 Science Question 2.
The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than _____.
Answer:
one.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 3.
If the energy of the incident beam and the scattered beam are the same, then the scattering of light is called _____ scattering.
Answer:
elastic.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solution Book Question 4.
According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its ____.
Answer:
wavelength.

Question 5.
Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ______.
Answer:
Iris.

III. True or False. If False Correct it.

Question 1.
The velocity of light is greater in a denser medium than in a rarer medium?
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Velocity of light is lesser in a denser medium than in rarer medium

Question 2.
The power of the lens depends on the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The convex lens always gives a small virtual image.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The convex lens give enlarged. Virtual image when it is placed between pole and principal focus.

IV. Match the Following.

Question 1.

1. Retina	(a) Pathway of light
2. Pupil	(b) Far point comes closer
3. Ciliary muscles	(c) Near point moves away
4. Myopia	(d) Screen of the eye
5. Hypermetropia	(e) Power of accommodation

Answer:
1. (d) Screen of the eye
2. (a) Pathway of light
3. (e) Power of accommodation
4. (b) Far point comes closer
5. (c) Near point moves away

V. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will be small
Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of the eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of the concave lens.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is refractive index?
Answer:
The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as the refractive index ‘µ’ of that medium.

Question 2.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)

Question 3.
Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
Answer:
Ray diagram for an object placed between F and 2F

Question 4.
Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 5.
State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering \(\mathrm{s} \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

Question 6.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

Convex Lens	Concave Lens
1. The lens which is thicker at the centre than at the edges.	1. The lens is thinner at the centre than at the edges.
2. Abeam of light passing through it, is converged to a point.	2. A beam of light passing through it is diverged or spread out.
3. It is called a converging lens.	3. It is called a diverging lens.

Question 7.
What is power of accommodation of eye?
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called power of accommodation of the eye.

Question 8.
What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:
Myopia, also known as short-sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of the eyeball. With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects cannot be seen clearly.

Question 9.
Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour (shorter wavelength) is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour (longer wavelength). This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.

Question 10.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

1. The wavelength of red colour is more than other colours.
2. Red colour will travel longer distance without scattering.
3. Red colour gets least scattered and reaches people.

VII. Give the Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
List any five properties of light.
Answer:

1. Light is a form of energy.
2. Light always travels along a straight line.
3. Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through vacuum.
4. The speed of light in vacuum or air is, c = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1.
5. Since, light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (k) and a frequency (v), which are related by the following equation: c = v λ (c – velocity of light).
6. Different coloured light has different wavelength and frequency.
7. Among the visible light, violet light has the lowest wavelength and red light has the highest wavelength.
8. When light is incident on the interface between two media, it is partly reflected and partly refracted.

Question 2.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed In a convex lens with the help of a ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule 1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.

Rule 2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the principal focus.

Rule 3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis.

Question 3.
Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia?
Answer:

Myopia	Hypermetropia
(i) Myopia, also known as short-sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of the eyeball.	(i) Hypermetropia, also known as long-sightedness, occurs due to the shortening of the eyeball.
(ii) With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects cannot be seen clearly.	(ii) With this defect, distant objects can be seen clearly but nearby objects cannot be seen clearly.
(iii) The focal length of the eye lens is reduced or the distance between the eye lens and retina increases.	(iv) The focal length of the eye lens is increased or the distance between the eye lens and retina decreases.
(iv) The far point will not be infinity for such eyes and the far point has come closer.	(iv) Hence, the near point will not be at 25 cm for such eyes and the near point has moved farther.
(v) Due to this, the image of distant objects is formed before the retina.	(v) Due to this, the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina.
(vi) This defect can be corrected using a concave lens	(vi) This defect can be corrected using a convex lens.

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.
Answer:
Construction:

• A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called an ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’.
• The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the ‘observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eyepiece’.
• Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:

• The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of the objective lens (u > f₀).
• A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
• This image behaves like the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eyepiece.
• This eyepiece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
• A compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than the simple microscope.

VIII. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the image distance and nature of the image.
Solution:


Nature of the image real enlarged and inverted image.

Question 2.
An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Solution:
u = -10 cm [left side of lens]
f = -15 cm [left side of lens]
h = 3 cm


Nature of image: When an object is placed at 10 cm from the left side of the lens, a virtual image is formed between the optical centre and focus of a concave lens. The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.

IX. Higher-Order Thinking (HOT) Questions:

Question 1.
While doing an experiment for the determination of the focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,

1. Can he get the image?
2. Is there any change in the focal length?

Answer:

1. Yes, he can get the image, because the lens is broken into two halves along the axis.
2. No, focal length remains the same for the lens if it’s broken (or) not broken.

Question 2.
The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?
Answer:

1. Owl has large pupil so that it provides a larger pathway for light to flow towards the retina.
2. In addition it has large comer so that a bigger image of the insects would be formed on the retina.
3. In this way the eyes of the nocturnal birds help them to identify the elements in the surroundings.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The speed of light in vacuum or air is _____.
(a) 3 × 10^-8 ms^-1
(b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
(c) 3 × 10⁸ m^-1s
(d) 3 × 10^-18 ms^-1.
Answer:
(b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1

Question 2.
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is known as:
(a) Inelastic scattering
(b) Elastic scattering
(c) Raman scattering
(d) Mie scattering
Answer:
(b) Elastic scattering

Question 3.
Which is the following is not an example of colloid _____.
(a) milk
(b) ice – cream
(c) pure water
(d) smoke.
Answer:
(c) pure water

Question 4.
The band of colours is termed as _____.
(a) monochromatic source
(b) composite light
(c) spectrum
(d) dispersion of light.
Answer:
(c) spectrum

Question 5.
Water droplets, pollen and dust cause scattering.
(a) Elastic
(b) Inelastic
(c) Mie
(d) Rayleigh
Answer:
(c) Mie

Question 6.
_____ scattering takes place when the diameter of the Scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light.
(a) Rayleigh
(b) Tyndall
(c) Mie
(d) Raman.
Answer:
(c) Mie

Question 7.
The colour of the sun is red at sunrise and sunset. This occurs due to _____ scattering.
(a) Rayleigh
(b) Mie
(c) Tyndall
(d) Raman.
Answer:
(a) Rayleigh

Question 8.
A lens may be considered to be made up of:
(a) lenses
(b) prisms
(c) mirrors
(d) transparent medium
Answer:
(b) prisms

Question 9.
If one of the faces of a bi-convex lens is plane, it is known as a ______.
(a) convex lens
(b) Plano-convex lens
(c) concave lens
(d) Plano concave lens.
Answer:
(b) Plano-convex lens

Question 10.
The spectral lines having a frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ______.
(a) Spectral lines
(b) Raman lines
(c) Colour lines
(d) Rayleigh lines.
Answer:
(d) Rayleigh lines.

Question 11.
The lens that is thinner in the middle than at the edges is called:
(a) concave lens
(b) bifocal lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) convex lens
Answer:
(a) concave lens

Question 12.
Magnification of a concave lens is ______.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 13.
Where should an object be placed so that a real image is formed at infinity is obtained by a convex lens _____.
(a) 2F
(b) 0
(c) F
(d) >2F.
Answer:
(c) F

Question 14.
The focal length of a lens is the distance between:
(a) optic centre and principal focus
(b) optic centre and centre of curvature
(c) principal focus and centre of curvature
(d) none
Answer:
(a) optic centre and principal focus

Question 15.
Lens Maker’s formula is _____.

Answer:

Question 16.
The power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its _____.
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) focal length
(d) refractive index.
Answer:
(c) focal length

Question 17.
When the object is placed at the principal focus of concave lens, the image will be formed at:
(a) 2F
(b) F
(c) infinity
(d) between F and 2F
Answer:
(c) infinity

Question 18.
Astigmatism can be corrected by using _____ lens.
(a) convex
(b) concave
(c) cylindrical
(d) bifocal.
Answer:
(c) cylindrical

Question 19.
The least distance of distinct vision for the normal human eye is ______.
(a) 30 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 35 cm
(d) infinity.
Answer:
(b) 25 cm

Question 20
To get a real and diminished image using convex lens, the object must be placed:
(a) at F
(b) beyond 2F
(c) at 2F
(d) beyond F
Answer:
(b) beyond 2F

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
The interacting particle of the medium is called ______.
Answer:
Scatterer.

Question 2.
When a beam of light is refracted through any transparent media, it split into its component colours. This is called as _____.
Answer:
dispersion of light.

Question 3.
The speed of light in a medium is high if the refractive index of the medium is _____?
Answer:
low.

Question 4.
The spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called _____?
Answer:
Raman lines.

Question 5.
_____ lenses are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.
Answer:
Convex.

Question 6.
______ lenses are used as the eye lens of the Galilean Telescope.
Answer:
Concave.

Question 7.
By convention, the power of a convex lens is taken as _____ whereas the power of a concave lens is taken as _____
Answer:
positive, negative.

Question 8.
The diameter of a human eye is _____?
Answer:
2.3 cm.

Question 9.
_____ is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.
Answer:
Power of accommodation.

Question 10.
_____ is the coloured part of an eye.
Answer:
Iris.

Question 11.
______ is used to observe parts of flower, insects and fingerprints in the field of forensic science.
Answer:
Simple microscope.

Question 12.
A _____ works based on the principle of the vernier.
Answer:
travelling microscope.

Question 13.
A _____ telescope is used to view heavenly bodies like stars, planets galaxies and satellites.
Answer:
astronomical.

Question 14.
_______ is an optical instrument used to see distant objects clearly.
Answer:
Telescope.

Question 15.
_______ is the most sensitive part of the human eye.
Answer:
Retina.

Question 16.
A convex lens is ______ in the middle than at edges.
Answer:
Thicker.

Question 17.
_____ lens produces mostly real images.
Answer:
Convex.

Question 18.
The SI unit of power of a lens is _____.
Answer:
dioptre.

Question 19.
The amount of scattering of light is _____ proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength.
Answer:
inversely.

Question 20.
Refractive index of the medium is dependent on the ______ of the light.
Answer:
wavelength.

III. True or False. If False Correct it.

Question 1.
Light always travels along a straight line.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the different plane.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Question 3.
The angle of refraction is the same for different colours.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The angle of refraction is different for different colours.

Question 4.
The scattering of light rays by the colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called the Tyndall effect.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The convex lens is also called a diverging lens.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Concave lens is also called the diverging lens.

Question 6.
Convex lenses are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Converging lenses are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Diverging lenses or concave lenses are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.

Question 9.
If the magnification is less than 1, then we get a diminished image.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
A compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than the simple microscope.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Snell’s law	(a) 25 cm
2. Rayleigh scattering	(b) Diverging lens
3. Mie scattering	(c) converging lens
4. Bi-Convex lens	(d) Front surface of an eyeball
5. Bi-concave lens	(f) Infinity
6. Cornea	(g) The sky to appear in blue colour
7. Near point of eye	(h) \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
8. Far point of the eye	(i) White appearance of the clouds
9. Presbyopia	(j) Torrid lenses
10. Astigmatism	(k) Bifocal lenses

Answer:
1. (h) \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
2. (g) The sky to appear in blue colour
3. (i) White appearance of the clouds
4. (c) converging lens
5. (b) Diverging lens
6. (d) Front surface of an eyeball
7. (a) 25 cm
8. (f) Infinity
9. (k) Bifocal lenses
10. (j) Torrid lenses

V. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: The refractive index of the medium is different for different coloured lights.
Reason: The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the wavelength of the light.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: A parallel beam of light passing through the concave lens, is diverged or spread out.
Reason: A convex lens is also called a diverging lens.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 3.
Assertion: Magnification power of microscopes can be decreased by increasing the focal length of the lens used.
Reason: Due to constructional limitations, the focal length of the lens cannot be decreased beyond certain unit.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
Why does the cloud appear in white colour?
Answer:

• Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds.
• When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which together form the white light.

Question 2.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

Question 3.
Differentiate stokes line and anti-stokes lines.
Answer:

1. Stokes lines: The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines.
2. Antistokes lines: The lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 4.
What is meant by colloid?
Answer:
A colloid is a microscopically small substance that is equally dispersed throughout another material.
Example: Milk, Ice cream, muddy water, smoke.

Question 5.
What are the applications of the convex lens?
Answer:

1. Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
2. They are used as magnifying lenses.
3. They are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
4. They are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.

Question 6.
Give the lens formula.
Answer:
The lens formula gives the relationship among distance of the object (u), the distance of the image (v) and the focal length (f) of the lens. It is expressed as
\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)
It is applicable to both convex and concave lenses.

Question 7.
What are the applications of a concave lens?
Answer:

1. Concave lenses are used as eye lens of ‘Galilean Telescope’
2. They are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.
3. They are being used to correct the defect of vision called ‘myopia’

Question 8.
What are the uses of a simple microscope?
Answer:
Simple microscopes are used

1. By watch repairers and jewellers.
2. To read small letters clearly.
3. To observe parts of flower, insects etc.
4. To observe Anger prints in the field of forensic science.

Question 9.
Define power of a lens.
Answer:

1. The ability of a lens to converge (convex lens) or diverge (concave lens) is called its power.
2. The power of a lens can be defined as the deep of convergence or divergence of light rays.
3. Power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
   \(\mathrm{P}=\frac{1}{f}\)
   The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre.

Question 10.
Define magnification of a lens.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of an object. Magnification is denoted by the letter ‘m’.If the height of the object is ‘h’ and the height of the image is h’, the magnification produced by a lens is,
\(m=\frac{\text { height of the image }}{\text { height of the object }}=\frac{h^{\prime}}{h}\)
Also, it is related to the distance of the object (w) and the distance of the image (v) as follows:
\(m=\frac{\text { distance of the image }}{\text { distance of the object }}=\frac{v}{u}\)

Question 11.
Give the lens maker’s formula.
Answer:
The lens maker’s formula is one such equation. It is given as
\(\frac{1}{f}=(\mu-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\)
where µ is the refractive index of the material of the lens; R1 and R2 are the radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens; f is the focal length of the lens.

Question 12.
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, classify the scattering.
Answer:
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as

• Elastic scattering
• Inelastic scattering

Question 13.
Based on the nature and size of the scatter. Classify the scattering.
Answer:
The nature and size of the scatterer result in different types of scattering. They are

• Rayleigh scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 14.
Why does the sky appear in red colour at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:

1. At sunrise and sunset, the light rays from the Sun have to travel a larger distance in the atmosphere than at noon.
2. Most of the blue lights are scattered away and only the red light which gets least scattered reaches us. Therefore, the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset.

Question 15.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the telescope.
Answer:
Advantages:

• Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.
• The camera can be attached for taking photographs for the celestial objects.
• The telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.

Disadvantages:

• Frequent maintenances needed.
• It is not easily portable one.

VII. Give the Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What is scattering? Explain two types of scattering.
Answer:
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering. Based on initial and final energy of the light beam,scattering can be classified as,
(i) Elastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.
(ii) Inelastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as

1. Elastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.
2. Inelastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

The nature and size of the Scatterer result in different types of scattering. They are

• Rayleigh scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 3.
Explain the Cartesian sign convention.
Answer:
According to Cartesian sign convention,

1. The object is always placed on the left side of the lens.
2. All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
3. The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive.
4. The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
5. The distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as positive.
6. The distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as negative.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 1 India: Location, Relief and Drainage

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India: Location, Relief and Drainage TEXTUAL EXERCISE

I. Choose the correct answer.

10th Social Geography 1st Lesson Question 1.
The north-south extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,933 km
(c) 3,214 km
(d) 2,814 km
Answer:
(c) 3,214 km

India Location Relief And Drainage Question 2.
The Southern most point of India is:
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

India – Location, Relief And Drainage Questions And Answers Question 3.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

India Location Relief And Drainage Pdf Question 4.
……………. River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

India Location Relief And Drainage Questions And Answers Question 5.
Deccan Plateau covers an area of about ……. sq.km.
(a) 8 lakh
(b) 6 lakh
(c) 5 lakh
(d) 7 lakh
Answer:
(d) 7 lakh

India Location, Relief And Drainage Notes Question 6.
A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as:
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) Strait
Answer:
(c) Peninsula

South Indian Rivers Are East Flowing Give Reason Question 7.
The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from ………
(a) Goa
(b) West Bengal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Maldives
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka

India Location, Relief And Drainage Pdf Question 8.
The highest peak in South India is:
(a) Ooty
(b) Kodaikanal
(c) Anaimudi
(d) Jindhagada
Answer:
(c) Anaimudi

10th Geography Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
………… Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar
(b) Tarai
(c) Bhangar
(d) Khadar
Answer:
(c) Bhangar

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Geography Book Question 10.
Pulicat Lake is located between the states of:
(a) West Bengal and Odisha
(b) Karnataka and Kerala
(c) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (d)

III. Give Reasons.

10th Social Geography Unit 1 Question 1.
The Himalayas are called young fold mountains.
Answer:
They were formed by earth movements which affected the relief of the earth in the last phase of its geological history. Because of the young age which is evident from the striking contrast in relief, Himalayan ranges are called young fold mountains.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 2.
North Indian Rivers are perennial.
Answer:
North Indian Rivers have their origin from the snow-covered Himalayas. As these rivers have water throughout the year they are referred to as perennial rivers.

Question 3.
Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Answer:
Chottanagpur Plateau is a store house of mineral resources such as mica, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal.

Question 4.
The great Indian desert is called Marusthali.
Answer:
In Sanskrit Marusthali means ‘dead land’. It is the region of the actual desert with severe arid climate and very low vegetation. This region has different types of sand dunes.

Question 5.
The Eastern states are called seven sisters.
Answer:
Mizoram and Manipur are connected to the rest of India through Basak Village in Assam. And
it is due to this interdependence, they were given the sobriquet. It is a well known fact that the
states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura were named the seven sisters in 1972.

Question 6.
The river Godavari is often referred as Vridha Ganga.
Answer:
“Vridha” means old. It originates and flow through the Peninsular plateau, the oldest among the physiographic divisions of India. Like River Ganga,Godavari is the longest with an area of 3.13 lakh km2, among the peninsular rivers. Hence the river is often referred as “Vridha Ganga”.

IV. Distinguish between the following

Question 1.
Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
Answer:

S.No.	Himalayan Rivers	Peninsular Rivers
1.	Originate from Himalayas	Originate from Western Ghats
2.	Long and wide Perennial in nature	Short and arrow
3.	Perennial in nature	Non Perennial in nature
4.	Unsuitable for hydropower generation	Suitable for hydropower generation
5.	Middle and lower courses are navigable	Not useful for navigation

Question 2.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question 3.
Himadri and Himachal.
Answer:

Question 4.
Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains.
Answer:

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:
India shares its land boundaries with Pakistan in the west, Afghanistan in the north-west, China, Nepal and Bangladesh in the east.
Our Southern neighbours across the sea consists of the two island countries, namely Sri Lanka and Maldives.

Question 2.
Give the importance of lST.
Answer:
The longitudinal extent of India between the West and the East is about 30° from Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh. This longitudinal difference make a difference of nearly 2 hours in local time between Gujarat in the West and Arunachal Pradesh in the East. In order to avoid the time difference between the places 1ST is calculated. The Indian Standard Time is calculated based on 82°30′ East longitude.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
• This is the largest physiographic division of our country.
• It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km (about half of the total area of the country)
• It is an old rocky plateau region.
• The topography consists of a series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
• It is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan plateau respectively.
• Aravalli hills mark the north-western boundary of the plateau region.
• Its northern and north-eastern boundaries are marked by the Bundelkhand upland, Kaimur and Rajmahal hills.
• Western Ghats lie parallel to the Western coast. They are continuous and can be crossed through passes only like Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. It is higher then the Eastern Ghats. It cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The highest peak include the Anaimudi (2,695 metres) and the DodaBetta (2,637 metres).
• The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. The famous hill stations of Udagamandalam, popularly Known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal are located here.
• One of the distinct features of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This is of volcanic region hence the rocks are igneous. These rocks have denuded over time and are responsible for the formation of black soil. ‘

Question 4.
State the west-flowing rivers of India.
Answer:
Narmadha, Tapti and Mahi are the west-flowing rivers of India. They flow into the Arabian Sea through Gulf of Cambay.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshadweep.
Answer:

• It lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala.
• This group of islands is composed of small coral islands.
• Earlier they were known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive. In 1973, these were named as Lakshadweep.
• It covers small area of 32 sq.km. Kavaratti island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.
• This island group has great diversity of flora and fauna. The Pitti island which is uninhabited, has a bird sanctuary.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain the divisions of the Northern Mountains and its importance to India.
Answer:

1. Northern mountains are the youngest and the loftiest mountain chains in the world.
2. It stretches for a distance of2500km from the Indus gorge in the West to Brahmaputra gorge in the East.
3. The major divisions of the Northern mountains are:
   • The Trans Himalayas
   • Himalayas
   • Eastern or Purvanchal hills

(i) The Trans Himalayas:

• It lies in Jammu and Kashmir and Tibetian plateau.
• It is also known as Western Himalayas. As its areal extent is more in Tibet, it is also known as Tibetean Himalayas.
• The rocks of this region are of Thethys sediments and contain fossils bearing marine sediments.
• The prominent ranges of this division are Zaskar, Ladakh, Kailash and Karakoram.

(ii) The Himalayas:

• It is formed by the uplifted compression of the Thethys sea due to tectonic forces.
• It has three parallel ranges.

(a) The Greater Himalayas (Himadri)
(b) The Lesser Himalayas (Himachal)
(c) The Outer Himalayas (Siwaliks)

(a) The Greater Himalayas or Himadri:

• The most continuous range.
• Almost all the lofty peaks of the Himalayas are located in this range.
  Eg: Mt. Everest (8,848m) and Kanchenjunga (8,586m).
• It is the region of permanent snow cover.
• It has many glaciers like Gangothri, Yamunothri and Siachen.

(b) The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal:

• It is the middle range of Himalayas.
• Made up of rocks like slate, limestone and quartzite.
• Important ranges pir panjal, Dhauladhar and Mahabharat.
• Familiar for hill stations – Shimla, Mussourie Nainital, Almora, Ranikhet and Daijeeling.

(c) The Outer Himalayas or Siwaliks:

• It is the most discontinuous range dissected by the Himalayan rivers.
• The longitudinal valleys found between the Siwaliks and the Himachal are called Duns in the West and Duars in the East. Eg: Dehradun.
• This range is ideal for the development of settlements.

(iii) The Eastern Himalayas or Purvanchal Hills:

• They are the Eastern off shoots of Himalayas.
• Most of these hills are located along the border of India and Myanmar.
• Some of the important hills are Patkai Bum, Naga hills, Manipur hills, Mizo hills, Garo hills, Khasi hills and Jaintia hills.
• Collectively known as Purvanchal hills.

Importance:

• Forms as the natural barrier to the Sub continent.
• Source for many perennial rivers such as Indus, Ganges and Brahmaputra.
• Paradise of tourists due to its natural beauty.
• Renowned for rich bio-diversity.
• Many hill stations and Pilgrim centres like Amamath, Kedamath, Badrinath and Vaishnavidevi temple are located.
• Natural climatic barrier prevents the cold winds from Central Asia. Blocks the South west monsoon winds and causes heavy rainfall to North India.

Question 2.
Give an account on the major peninsular rivers of India.
Answer:

• The rivers in South India are called the Peninsular rivers.
• Most of the rivers originate from the Western Ghats.
• These are seasonal rivers, (non-perennial)
• They have a large seasonal fluctuation in volume of water as they are solely fed by rain.
• These rivers flow in valleys with steep gradients.
• Based on the direction of flow, the Peninsular rivers are divided into the west flowing and east flowing rivers.

East Flowing Rivers:

1. Mahanadi:

1. It originates near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chattisgarh and flows through Odisha.
2. Its length is 851 km.
3. Seonath, Telen, Sandur and lb are its major tributaries.
4. The main stream of Mahanadi gets divided into several distributaries such as Paika, Birupa, Chitartala, Genguti and Nun.
5. The Mahanadi empties its water in Bay of Bengal.

2. Godavari:

1. Godavari is the longest river (1,465 km) with an area of 3.13 lakh km2 among the Peninsular rivers.
2. It is also called Vridha Ganga.
3. It originates in Nasik district of Maharashtra, a portion of Western Ghats.
4. It flows through the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh before joining Bay of Bengal.
5. Puma, Penganga, Pranitha, Indravati, Tal and Salami are its major tributaries.
6. The river near Rajahmundry gets divided into two Channels called Vasistha and Gautami and forms one of the largest deltas in India.
7. Kolleru, a fresh water lake is located in the deltaic region of the Godavari.

3. Krishna:

1. The river Krishna originates from a spring at a place called Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.
2. Its length is 1,400 km and an area of 2.58 lakh sq km.
3. It is the second longest Peninsular river Bhima, Peddavagu, Musi, Koyna and Thungab hadra are the major tributaries of this river.
4. It also flows through Andhra Pradesh and joins in Bay of Bengal, at Hamasaladevi.

4. Kaveri:

1. The river Kaveri originates at Talakaveri, Kudagu hills of Karnataka.
2. Its length is 800 km.
3. The river Kaveri is called Dhakshin Ganga or Ganga of south.
4. Harangi, Hemavati, Kabini, Bhavani, Arkavathy, Noyyal, Amaravathi etc are the main tributaries of the river Kaveri.
5. In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice, forming the sacred islands of Srirangapatnam and Sivasamudram.
6. While entering Tamil Nadu, the Kaveri continues through a series of twisted wild gorges until it reaches Hogenakkal Falls and flows through a straight, narrow gorge near Salem.
7. The Kaveri breaks at Srirangam Island with two channels, river Coleroon and Kaveri.
8. At last, it empties into the Bay of Bengal at Poompuhar.

West Flowing Rivers:

1. Narmada:

1. It rises in Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of about 1057 m and flows for a distance of about 1,312 km.
2. It covers an area of 98,796 sq km and forms 27 km long estuary before outfalling into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Cambay.
3. It is the largest among the west flowing rivers of Peninsular India.
4. Its principal tributaries are Burhner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama and Kolar.

2. Tapti:

1. The Tapti is one of the major rivers of Peninsular India with the length of about 724 km.
2. It covers an area of 65,145 sq km.
3. Tapti river rises near Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of about 752 m.
4. It is one of only the three rivers in Peninsular India that run from east to west – the others being the Narmada and the Mahi.
5. The major tributaries are Vaki, Gomai, Arunavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray, Panjhra and Bori.
6. It out falls into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Cambay.

3. Give a detailed account on the basin of the Ganga.

1. The Ganga River system is the largest drainage system of India.
2. The river Ganga is 2,480 km long.
3. It rises in the Gangotri glacier in the Himalayas at a height of 6000 metres.
4. It cuts deep gorges through the Siwalik range and enters into the plain at Haridwar.
5. The Ganga plain occupies an area of about 3,37,000 covering the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal.
6. The river Yamuna rises in Yamunotri glacier. After flowing for a distance of about 1300 km, it joins Ganga on its right bank at Allahabad.
7. The rivers Chambal, Betwa, Son and Ken rise in the Deccan Plateau and join Ganga on its right bank.
8. The Ghandak, the Gomati, the Ghaghara and the Kosi join the Ganga on its left bank.
9. It is covered by thick alluvial sediments.
10. The Ganga plains slopes gently from Haryana and drains into Bay of Bengal.
11. It is covered by thick alluvial sediments.
12. The largest distributary of Ganga is Hooghly.
13. Most of the Ganga Delta lies in Bangladesh.
14. The Seaward of the Ganga Delta has tidal estuaries, sand banks and islands known as Sunderbans.

VII. Map exercises: Mark the following in the outline map of India

Question 1.
Major mountain ranges – Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar, Aravalli, Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question 2.
Major rivers — Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Narmada, Tapti, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna & Kaverl.
Answer:

Question 3.
Major plateaus – Malwa, Chotanagpur, Deccan.
Answer:

VIII. Activities

Question 1.
Observe the Peninsular Plateau map of India and mark the major plateau divisions of India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Prepare a table showing the major West flowing and East flowing rivers of peninsular India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Assume that you are travelling from West Bengal to Gujarat along the beautiful coasts of India. Find out the states which you would pass through.
I will pass through the states of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
Answer:

Question 4.
Find out the states through which the river Ganga flows.
The river Ganga flows through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
Answer:

Question 5.
Prepare a table showing the major rivers in India and find out it’s tributaries, origin, length and area.
Answer:

Find Out:

Question 1.
The number of Union Territories along the Western Coast and Eastern Coast?
Answer:

1. Along Western coast – Four – Diu, Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Lakshadweep islands.
2. Along the Eastern coast -Two – Puducherry and Andaman and the Nicobar Islands.

Question 2.
Area wise which is the smallest and largest state?
Answer:
Largest state: Rajasthan
Smallest State: Goa

Question 3.
The states which do not have an international border or lie on the coast.
Answer:
The States that do not share an International boundary or lie on the coast are Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand and Chattisgarh and Telangana.
Union Territories – Chandigarh and Delhi.

Question 4.
Classify into four groups each having common frontiers with
i) Pakistan
ii) China
iii) Myanmar and
iv) Bangladesh
Answer:
Pakistan: Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
China: Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram.
Bangladesh: Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura.

Question 5.
Find the Hill stations which are located in Himalayan Mountains.
Answer:
Shimla, Mussourie, Nainital, Almora. Ranikhet, Darjeeling and Kulu Manali are some of the hill stations in Himalayan mountains.

Question 6.
In which river the Gerosappa (jog) fall is found?
Answer:
Sharavathi River

India: Location, Relief and Drainage Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India covers an area of ………. million sq.kms.
(a) 3.2
(b) 3.5
(c) 3.8
Answer:
(a) 3.2

Question 2.
India’s longest border is with:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Srilanka
(c) Bhutan
(d) Afghanistan
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 3.
In India, there is a vast plain in ………
(a) north
(b) south
(c) east
Answer:
(a) north

Question 4.
Till 2024 the ………………… will be the capital for both the States of Andhra pradesh and Telangana.
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Secunderabad
(c) Nellore
(d) Amaravati
Answer:
(a) Hyderabad

Question 5.
India is situated into southern part of ……….
(a) Indo-Myanmar
(b) Asia
(c) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(b) Asia

Question 6.
The ………………… ranges of the Himalayas is the most continuous of all the ranges.
(a) Himachal
(b) Aravalli
(c) Siwaliks
(d) Himadri
Answer:
(d) Himadri

Question 7.
India occupies ………. % of the world’s land area.
(a) 3.5
(b) 2.4
(c) 7.5
Answer:
(b) 2.4

Question 8.
The deltaic region of lower Ganga, the uplands are known as:
(a) Chars
(b) Bhangar
(c) Terai
(d) Bils
Answer:
(a) Chars

Question 9.
India is the ……….. largest country regarding its area.
(a) seventh
(b) third
(c) fourth
Answer:
(a) seventh

Question 10.
The ………………… river system is the largest drainage system of India.
(a) Yamuna
(b) Godavari
(c) Ganga
(d) Kaveri
Answer:
(c) Ganga

Question 11.
India is ………….. times smaller than USA.
(a) ten
(b) seven
(c) three
Answer:
(c) three

Question 12.
India has a predominant position in the ……. realm.
(a) Bay of Bengal
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Arabian Sea
Answer:
(b) Indian Ocean

Question 13.
No other country has such a large ……….. line.
(a) mountain
(b) plateau
(c) coastal
Answer:
(c) coastal

Question 14.
India is connected with China, Japan and Australia through ………..
(a) Malaccan Strait
(b) Suez canal
(c) Palk Strait
Answer:
(a) Malaccan Strait

Question 15.
The 0° Meridian passes through Greenwich in ……………
(a) New york
(b) England
(c) Los Angeles
Answer:
(b) England

Question 16.
Dehra Dun is the capital of ………..
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Uttranchal
Answer:
(c) Uttranchal

Question 17.
India is a ……….. country with total freedom of worship.
(a) republic
(b) democratic
(c) secular
Answer:
(c) secular

Question 18.
According to gaseous mass theory, the earth was separated from the ………….
(a) Universe
(b) Sun
(c) Milky way
Answer:
(b) Sun

Question 19.
The ……… force on Tethys sea gave rise to “Himalayas”.
(a) depressional
(b) compressed
(c) longitudinal
Answer:
(b) compressed

Question 20.
The Himalayas started growing up due to ………. of the agents of denudation.
(a) deposition
(b) transportation
(c) erosion
Answer:
(c) erosion

Question 21.
The Gangetic plain was formed due to ………..
(a) erosion
(b) transportation
(c) deposition
Answer:
(c) deposition

Question 22.
The major physiographical units of India are ………
(a) six
(b) five
(c) four
Answer:
(a) six

Question 23.
The Himalayas are made of ………… rocks.
(a) sedimentary
(b) igneous
(c) volcanic
Answer:
(a) sedimentary

Question 24.
Pamir knot is in the ………… part of India.
(a) north-east
(b) north-west
(c) south-east
Answer:
(b) north-west

Question 25.
Ladakh is in the north-west of ……….
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Kashmir
(c) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Kashmir

Question 26.
The northernmost range of Himalayas is ………
(a) Himachal
(b) Siwaliks
(c) Himadri
Answer:
(c) Himadri

Question 27.
Himachal is highly ………. topography.
(a) smooth
(b) rugged
(c) narrow
Answer:
(b) rugged

Question 28.
Pirpanjal lies in ……… state.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Kashmir

Question 29.
Amamath, Kedranath and Badrinath are the …….. of Himachal range.
(a) valleys
(b) hill resorts
(c) pilgrimages
Answer:
(c) pilgrimages

Question 30.
Siwaliks is the ………. range, made up of mud and soft rocks.
(a) discontinuous
(b) broad
(c) continuous
Answer:
(a) discontinuous

Question 31.
An example of longitudinal valley of Siwaliks is ………..
(a) Nainital
(b) Mussouri
(c) Dehra Dun
Answer:
(c) Dehra Dun

Question 32.
……… supports the growth of thick forest in siwaliks.
(a) Pebbles and gravels
(b) Muds and soft rock
(c) fine silt
Answer:
(c) fine silt

Question 33.
The Purvachal mountains are of ……… height.
(a) medium
(b) short
(c) very tall
Answer:
(a) medium

Question 34.
The Himalayas act as the ……. barrier protecting from the foreign invasions.
(a) physical
(b) natural
(c) climate
Answer:
(a) physical

Question 35.
…… soil helps the cultivation of crops in great plain.
(a) block
(b) alluvium
(c) fertile
Answer:
(b) alluvium

Question 36.
There are dense forests on the ……….. of the Himalayan.
(a) peak
(b) valleys
(c) slopes
Answer:
(c) slopes

Question 37.
The ……… attract the tourists by its scenic beauty and pleasant climate.
(a) hill stations
(b) pilgrimages
(c) valleys
Answer:
(a) hill stations

Question 38.
The great Plain was formed due to …….. force.
(a) compression
(b) depression
(c) longitudinal
Answer:
(b) depression

Question 39.
The depression was caused in the plains out of ………..
(a) erosion
(b) transportation
(c) deposition
Answer:
(c) deposition

Question 40.
The rivers passed their ways by eroding their ……. when Himalayas lifted themselves high.
(a) passes
(b) mountains
(c) valleys
Answers:
(c) valley

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The land in India gets abundance sunshine from the ………. sun.
2. India is the ……….. largest country with respect to area.
3. The shallow sea divided the Angara and Gondwana land was ………
4. The south eastern part of the Deccan plateau is known as ……….
5. The description of the physical relief features of a country is known as ………
6. The Pamir Knot, popularly known as the ……….
7. Mount Everest is the highest peak of the world with an altitude of ………..
8. The largest tributary of the Ganga is ……..
9. The largest plateau of the peninsular region is ………
10. The largest and longest of the Peninsular river is …………
11. The Cauvery rises in hills of …….. district in Karnataka.
12. The ………. river rises in Agasthiar hills.
13. India is connected with Europe through ………….
14. Himalayas and Karakoram provide a ……… boundary in the north.
15. Godwin Austin known as ………. is the highest peak of India.
16. The water body around the compact land mass was called …………
17. Karakoram stretches out eastern from ………..
18. …………. is the longest glacier.
19. The gaps providing natural routes across the mountains are called …………
20. The beautiful Kashmir valley is found in ……… ranges.
21. The narrow longitudinal valleys of siwaliks are called ………..
22. A flat low lying land of the Great plain is made up of ……….
23. The ……….. is a narrow porous zone along the foothills of Siwaliks.
24. The ………. is a zone of dampers and marshes covered with forests.
25. The Indus river flows into Pakistan through ………..
26. Ganga river reaches plain at …………..
27. Dams across the rivers help in generating ……….. power.
28. The Sub division of the peninsular plateau are the …….. and the ………..
29. At the apex of the Deccan plateau is ……….
30. The other name of the Deccan plateau is ………. plateau.
31. The Passes in the Western Ghats are ………., ………. and ………
32. The rivers of the Peninsular India originate on the ……… ghats.
33. ………, ……….. are the distributaries of the cauvery.
34. ……… and ……….. of the special markages of the fast coast plain.
35. River Ganga is known as the river ………. in Bangladesh.
Answers
1. tropical
2. seventh
3. tethys
4. Telengana
5. physiography
6. Roof of the World
7. 8,848 metres
8. Hooghly
9. Deccan plateau
10. Godavari
11.coorg
12. Thamiraparani
13. suez canal
14. natural
15. Mount K2
16. Panthalasa
17. Pamir Knot
18. Siachin
19. Passes
20. dhauladhar
21. duns
22. alluvium
23. Bhabar
24. Terail
25. Kashmir
26. Haridwar
27. hydroelectric
28. Central highland, Deccan plateau
29. Kanyakumari
30. lava
31. Thai ghat, Bohr ghat, Pal ghat
32. western
33. vennar, vettar
34. Lagoons, delta
35. Padma

III. Match the following.

Answers
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (b)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (c)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Distinguish Between:

Question 1.
Konkan Coast and Malabar Coast.
Answer:

S.No.	Konkan Coast	Malabar Coast
1.	It extent from Gujarat to Goa.	It is located between Mangalore and Kanyakumari.
2.	It has some features of marine erosions like cliffs and reefs.	It contains a large number of long and narrow lagoons.
3.	The Northern part is sandy and the southern part is rocky and rugged.	The lagoons and backwaters serve as inland waterways.

Question 2.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:

S.No.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands	Lakshadweep Islands
1.	They are located in the Bay of Bengal.	They are located in the Arabian Sea.
2.	They are far off from India.	They are of coral origin.
3.	Port Blair is the capital.	Kavaratti is the administration headquaters.
4.	They are about 572 islands.	They are 27 islands here.
5.	Only 38 are inhabited.	Only 11 islands are inhabited.

Question 3.
The Bundelkhand and The Baghelkhand.
Answer:

S.No.	The Bundalkhand	The Baghelkhand
1.	It is located towards the south of the Yamuna river.	It lies to the east of “Maikala Range”.
2.	It is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.	It is made up of sand stone and limestone.
3.	In the northern part of it, there is rich deposit of alluvium.	The central part of the plateau acts as water divide between the Son and the Mahanadhi drainage basins.

Question 4.
GMT and IST.
Answer:

S.No.	GMT	IST
1.	It means Greenwich Mean Time.	It means Indian Standard Time
2.	GMT is calculated at 0° longitude.	India’s central meridian is 82° 30′ E longitude.
3.	It passes through Greenwich.	It passes through Mirzapur.
4.	It is the World Standard Time.	It is the Indian Standard Time.

Question 5.
The Bhabar Plain and The Khadar Plain.

S.No.	The Bhabar Plain	The Khadar Plain
1.	It lies to the south of the Siwalik from west to east.	It is the new alluvium of the plains.
2.	It is a pebble studded zone of porous beds.	They form a continuous belt of fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy season.
3.	This plain is not suitable for cultivation. Only big trees with large roots thrive in this region	The Khadar land consists of sand, silt, clay and mud. It is highly fertile soil.

V. Answer in One Word.

Question 1.
The tropic of Cancer does not pass through which state?
Answer:
Odisha

Question 2.
What is the easternmost longitude of India?
Answer:
97° 25′ E

Question 3.
Which latitude divides India into two equal halves?
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer (23° 30′ N)

Question 4.
Name the island group which lies towards east of India.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar

Question 5.
What is the percentage of land area that India occupies with respect to the world?
Answer:
2.4%

Question 6.
What is the distance between east and weat extremity of India in Kilometres?
Answer:
2933 km

Question 7.
What is the time lag from Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:
2 hrs

Question 8.
The Standard Meridian of India passes through Mirzapur, it is located on which state of India.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 9.
How much distance has been reduced between India and Europe by the construction of the Suez Canal?
Answer:
7000 km distance

Question 10.
Which is the smallest state of India area wise?
Answer:
Goa

Question 11.
What is the southernmost part of India?
Answer:
Indira Point

Question 12.
What is southernmost part of Indian mainland?
Answer:
Kanyakumari

Question 13.
Which states of India shares their border with Myanmar?
Answer:
Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, and Nagaland.

Question 14.
Name the Eastern Coastal States of India.
Answer:
Odisha, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.

Question 15.
Name the landmass bounded by sea on three sides.
Answer:
Peninsular

Question 16.
Which is the most of the volcanoes and earthquakes in the world located?
Answer:
The Peninsular Plateau

Question 17.
Name the mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar.
Answer:
Purvanchal

Question 18.
What is the name given to longitudinal valley that lies between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks?
Answer:
Duns

Question 19.
Name the part of the Himalayas lying between the Kali and Tista rivers.
Answer:
Nepal Himalayas

Question 20.
Which river has the largest inhabited riverine islands in the world?
Answer:
Brahmaputra

Question 21.
What is the soil of Bangar region that contains calcareous deposits locally known as?
Answer:
Kankar

Question 22.
What is the swampy and marshy region of Northern plains called as?
Answer:
Terai

Question 23.
What is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats?
Answer:
Mahendragiri (1502 mt)

Question 24.
Name the second highest peak of Western Ghats.
Answer:
Doda Betta

Question 25.
Which type of soil is found in Deccan Trap region?
Answer:
Black soil

Question 26.
Name the major west flowing rivers in the peninsular plateau.
Answer:
Narmada and Tapti

Question 27.
Name the largest river of the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Luni

Question 28.
What is the name given to the southern part of eastern coastal plains?
Answer:
Coromandel

Question 29.
Which is the largest salt water lake of India?
Answer:
Chilika

Question 30.
Which physiographic division is the storehouse of minerals?
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
India is a Sub-continent.
Answer:
India possesses distinct continental characteristics in physiography, climate, natural vegetation, minerals, human resources etc., Hence India is known as “Subcontinent”.

Question 2.
Mention the tributaries and distributaries of Cauvery.
Answer:
Tributaries: Amaravathi, Noyyal and Bhavani.
Distributaries: Vennar, vettar and Kudamurutti

Question 3.
Write the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
India extends from 8°4’N to 37°6 ‘N latitudes and 68°7 ‘E to 97°25 ‘E longitude. It is located in the North-Eastern hemisphere. The Tropic of cancer (23°30’N) passes through the middle of the country dividing it into two halves.

Question 4.
When did the Suez Canal start functioning and how did it benefit India?
Answer:
The Suez Canal started functioning in 1869.
Benefits of India.

1. It reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7,000 km.
2. The Canal in the boom for trade as it had reduced the transportation cost and number of days involved.

Question 5.
Name the major physiographic divisions of India.
Answer:
Based on the geological structure, India is divided into 6 major physiographic divisions namely.

1. The Himalayan Mountains (Northern mountains)
2. The Great Northern plains
3. The Peninsular plateau
4. The Great Indian desert
5. The Coastal plains
6. The Islands

Question 6.
Which features modified the relief features of India?
Answer:
Besides geological functions, a lot of processes such as weathering erosion and deposition have created and modified the relief to its present form.

Question 7.
Name the prominent ranges of Trans-Himalayas.
Answer:
The prominent ranges of Trans-Himalayas are Karakoram, Zaskar, Ladak and Kailash.

Question 8.
What is the extent of Northern plains of India?
Answer:
It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq.km. The plain being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad.

Question 9.
What are ‘Duns’?
Answer:
The longitudinal valley found between the Siwaliks and Himachal range are called Duns in the West and Duars in the East. These are the ideal sites for human settlements and agriculture.

Question 10.
What is doab?
Answer:
A tract of land between two rivers is called a doab. It made up of two words ‘do’ meaning ‘two’ and ab meaning ‘water’.

Question 11.
To which parts are Ganga plains extended?
Answer:
The Ganga plain extends between Ghagger and Teesta rivers. It is spread over Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Question 12.
How are riverine islands formed?
Answer:
Rivers moving from mountains carry alluvium with them and do the depositional work. In the lower course because of gentle slope, the river velocity decrease, and therefore islands are formed.

Question 13.
Where is -Deccan Trap located and what does it composed of?
Answer:
The black soil area in the peninsular plateau regions is known as Deccan trap. They extend from Gujarat to Delhi in a southwest – northeast direction. This is of volcanic origin hence the rocks are igneous.

Actually these rocks have descended over time and are responsible for the formation of black soil. The Aravalli hills lie on the western and northwestern margins of the peninsular plateau. These are highly eroded hills and are found as broken hills.

Question 14.
What are Barchans?
Answer:
They are crescent shaped dunes.

Question 15.
What are the climate characteristics of Indian desert?
Answer:
The region recevies very low rainfall below 150 mm per year. Streams appear during the rainy season. Soon after they disappear into the sand as they do not have enough water to reach the sea.

VII. Answer the following in paragraph.

Question 1.
What do you mean by drainage system? Write a note on it.
Answer:

1. A drainage system is an integrated system of tributaries and trunk stream which collects and drains surface water into the sea, lake or some other water body.
2. The total area drained by a river and its tributaries is known as a drainage basin.
3. The drainage pattern of an area is the result of the geological structure of the respective areas.
4. The river system provides irrigation, drinking water, power generation and livelihood for a large number of population.
5. The drainage system of India is broadly divided into two major groups on the basis of their location. They are
   • The Himalayan rivers
   • Peninsular rivers

Question 2.
“Unity in Diversity”. Explain.
Answer:
India is a vast country with a diversity of Physical characteristics.

Diversity in Natural Phenomena

1. India has unique landforms ranging from the highest peaks to the lowest plains. In the north India, Mount Godwin Austin, otherwise known as Mt. K2 is the highest peak of India and coastal plains are the lowest in the South India.
2. The Climate varies from the tropical to the temperate zone. Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest amount of rainfall whereas the thar desert receives very low rainfall.
3. We have wet dense tropical forest on the western Ghats, Mangrove trees in the sundarbans of West Bengal and the shrubs and sparse vegetation in the Thar desert.
4. The diversity of the physical environment and climate has made India an ideal habitat for varieties of flora and fauna.

Diversity in Natural Phenomena
India is a secular country with total freedom of worship. People follow Hinduism, Christianity, Islam, Sikkism, Buddhism, Jainism and Zoroastrianism with cultural diversities.

Unity in Diversity
Inspite of its physical, religion and racial varities, the ‘Indian Culture’ unites all people. Hence India is known for her “Unity in diversity”.

People shed all their differences and stand together when is a crisis. The best examples are kargil invasions and natural calamities like floods and Tsunami. Even if we differ in many factors, we are all one in the fact we are Indians.

Question 3.
Give an account on Punjab-Haryana plains.
Answer:

1. Punjab Haryana plains are one among the subdivisions of the Northern plains.
2. They are formed by the deposition of the rivers Sutlej, Beas and Ravi, the tributaries of River Indus.
3. They lie to the North-east of the Great Indian Desert.
4. These plains are found over an area of about 1.75 lakh sq.km.
5. These plains act as water-divide (Doab) to the rivers Yamuna-Sutlej and Ganga-Yamuna.

Question 4.
Explain the origin of the Himalayas.
Answer:

1. Millions of years ago there was only one landmass on the surface of the earth. It was surrounded by ocean on all sides.
2. The landmass was called “ Pangea”. It was surrounded by a waterbody Known as “Panthalasa”.
3. This large landmass split up into two parts. The northern part was known as “Angaraland” and the southern part was known as “Gondwana land”.
4. The Sea seperating these two was called the Tethys Sea.
5. This Sea stretched along an east-west direction.
6. The rivers from Angara and Gondwana deposited the silts along the Tethys Sea.
7. After a long period, due to tectonic forces the deposits up lifted to forms fold mountains called the Himalayan range.
8. It is an young fold mountain.
9. The Himalayas is the home of several high peak. However, it holds the record of having the maximum number of highest peaks among any mountains range in world. Out of the heights peaks in this world, Himalayas holds nine.

Question 5.
Give an account of the four divisions of Himalayas from west to east along with Purvanchal hills respectively.
Answer:
Divisions of the Himalayas of the basis of regions from west to east. These division have been demarcated by river valleys.

(i) Punjab Himalayas:
The part of the Himalayas lying between Indus and Sutlej has been traditionally known as Punjab Himalayas but it is also known as regionally as Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya from west to east respectively.

(ii) Kumaon Himalayas:
The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers is known as Kumaun Himalayas.

(iii) Assam Himalayas:
The Kali and Tista rivers demarcate the Nepal Himalayas and the past lying between Tista and Dihang rivers is known as Assam Himalayas.

Purvachal:

1. The Brahmaputra marks the eastern most boundary of the Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of India. They are known as Purvanchal or the Eastern hills and mountains.
2. These hills running through the north-eastern states are mostly composed of strong sandstones which are sedimentary rocks.
3. It covered with dense forests, they mostly runs as parallel ranges and valleys.
4. The Purvanchal comprises the Patkai hills, the Naga hills, Manipur hills and the Mizo hills.

Question 6.
Give a detailed account on the Great Northern Plains.
Answer:
Formation:
The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely – The Indus, The Ganga, and The Brahmaputra along with their tributaries. This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basis lying of the foothills of the Himalayas over millions of years formed this fertile plain.

Extension:

It spread over an area of 7 lakh sq.km. The plain being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, is a densely populated physiographic division.
Importance:
With a rich soil caves combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate it is agriculturally a very production past of India.

Important Features:

1. In the lower course, due to gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases which results in the formation of riverine islands. Majuli, in the Brahmaputra River is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world.
2. The rivers in their lower course split into numerous channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as tributaries.
3. The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. Punjab plains, Ganga plains and Brahmaputra plains.
4. According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions – Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar and Khadar.

Punjab Plains:
The Western part of the Northern plain is referred to as the Punjab plains formed by the Indus and its tributaries. The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan Indus and its tributaries – The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs.

Ganga Plains:
They extend between Ghagger and Teesta rivers. It is spread over the states of North India like Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, Partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Brahmaputra plains:
In the east of Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plains. They cover the areas of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions.

Bhabar:
The rivers after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shivaliks. It is known as Bhabar. All the streams disappear in this Bhabar belt.

Terai:
South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet swampy and marshy region known as ‘Terai’. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife.

The Terai is wider in the eastern parts of the Great plains, especially in Brahmaputra valley due to heavy rainfall. In many states, the Terai forest have been cleaned for cultivation.

Khadar:
The newer younger deposits of the flood plains are called Khadar. They are renamed almost every year and so are fertile. Thus ideal for intensive agriculture. The Khadar tracts are enriched by fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy seasons. The Khadar land consists of sand, silt, clay and mud. It is highly fertile soil.

Delta Plains:
The deitaic plains is an extension of the Khadar land. It covers about 1.9 sq.km in the lower reaches of the Ganga River. It is an area of deposition as the river flows in this tract sluggishly. The deltaic plain consists mainly of old mud, new mud and marsh. In the delta region, the uplands are called “chars”. While the marshy areas are called ‘Bils’

Question 7.
Write in brief about Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
Location:

1. The Peninsular plateau is located to the south of northern great plains.
2. It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km.
3. Boundaries of the Peninsular plateau.
   • North – Aravalli, Vindhya, Satpura and Rajmahal ranges
   • West – Western Ghats
   • East – Eastern Ghats
4. The average height varies between 600 – 900 mts above the mean sea level.
5. The general slope is from west to east broad divisions, namely the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.

Central Highlands:

• The part of the Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river covering a major area of the Malwa Plateau is known as the Central Highlands

Malwa Plateau:

• Malwa Plateau is bounded by the Aravalli range, the Vindhya range and Bundelthand.
• The Chambal river and its tributaries have created ravines in the northern part of the plateau.

The Bundelkhand:

• It is located towards the south of the Yamuna river.
• It is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• In the northern part, the Ganga and Yamuna rivers have deposited alluvium.
• The hilly areas are made up of sandstone and granite.
• Betwa and Ken rivers have carved out deep gorges.

The Baghelkhand:

• It lies to the east of “Maikala Range”.
• It is made up of sandstone and limestone in the west and granite in the east.
• The central part of the plateau acts as water divide between the Son and the Mahanadhi drainage system.

The Chotanagpur Plateau:

• It is located towards the northeast.
• It is drained by Damodar, Sabamarekha, Koel and Barakar rivers.
• The Damodar river flows from west to east through the middle of this region.
• This region has a series of plateau and hills.

Deccan Plateau:

1. It is made up of lava and is covered with black soil.
   Boundaries of Deccan Plateau.
   • North-east – Vindhya and Satpura mountains
   • North – Mahadev and Maikala range
   • West – Western Ghats
   • East – Eastern Ghats
2. It is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks.
3. It is formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land.
4. It has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
5. It is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
6. The Satpura range flanks its broad base in the north while the Mahadev, the Kaimur hills and the Maikal range form its eastern extensions.
7. The Deccan plateau is higher in the weat and slopes gently eastwards.
8. Rivers like Mahanadhi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri flow eastwards and join the Bay of Bengal.
9. It is separated by a fault from the Chotanagpur plateau.
10. It made up of lava rocks and has black regur soils.

Question 8.
Write about the Indian Desert.
Answer:

1. The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills.
2. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
3. This regions receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year.
4. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover.
5. Streams appear during the rainy season, soon after they disappear into the sand as they do not have enough water to reach the sea. Luni is the only large rivers in this region.
6. Barchans (Crescent-shaped dunes) covers large areas more prominent in Jaisalmer but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan boundary.
7. It is the world 7th largest desert and world 9th largest sub tropical desert located in western part of the India.
8. There are two major division on the Thar desert. They are known as the Actual desert region (Marusthali) and the semi desert region (Bhangar).

Question 9.
Differences between Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
Answer:

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Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Early Revolts Against British Rule In Tamil Nadu Question 1.
Who was the first Palayakkarar to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veera Pandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Early Revolts Against British Rule In Tamil Nadu Book Back Answers Question 2.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic wars?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) Nawab of Arcot

Early Revolts Against British Rule Question 3.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Early Revolts Against British Rule In Tamilnadu Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Veera Pandya Kattabomman
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Marudhu brothers

Question 6.
When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805
(b) 10 July 1805
(c) 10 July 1806
(d) 10 September 1806
Answer:
(c) 10 July 1806

Question 7.
Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore Fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt
(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
Answer:
(c) Sir John Cradock

Question 8.
Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mysore
Answer:
(a) Calcutta

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Palayakkarar system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by ……………..
2. Except the Palayakkarars of ……………., all other western Palayakkarars supported Puli-Thevar.
3. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of …………… for eight years.
4. Bennerman deputed ……………… to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to surrender.
5. Kattabomman was hanged to death at ……………..
6. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the ……………….
7. …………. was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
8. ……………. suppressed the revolt in Vellore Fort.
Answers:
1. Viswanatha Nayaka
2. Sivagiri
3. GopalaNayaker
4. Ramalinga Mudaliar
5. Kayathar
6. South Indian Rebellion
7. Fateh Hyder
8. Col. Gillespie

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Palayakkarar system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
(ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
(iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
(iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
(a) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mafuzkhan’s army.
(ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
(iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
(iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the Marathas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Apart from the new military Regulations the most objectionable was the addition of a leather cockade in the turban.
Reason (R): The leather cockade was made of animal skin.
(a) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(b) Both. (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) Both. (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5.(d)

V. Answer the questions briefly.

Question 1.
What were the duties of the Palayakkarars?
Answer:

1. The Palayakkarars were free to collect revenue.
2. Administer the territory.
3. Settle disputes and maintain law and order also.
4. Helped the Nayak rulers to restore the kingdom.

Question 2.
Identify the Palayams based on the division of east and west.
Answer;
Among the 72 Palayakkarars, there were two blocks namely the eastern and the western Palayams.

• The eastern Palayams were – Sattur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram and Panchalam Kurichi.
• The western Palayams were – Uttrumalai, Thalavankottai, Naduvakurichi, Singampatti and Seithur.

Question 3.
Why was Heron dismissed from service?
Answer:

1. Puli Thevar continued were defy the authority of the English East India Company.
2. Col. Heron was urged by the company to deal the issue of Puli Thevar.
3. For want of canon and of supplies and pay to soldiers, colonel Heron abandoned the plan. Hence he was dismissed from service.

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Battle of Kalakadu?
Answer:
In the Battle of Kalakadu, Mahfuzkhan’s troops were routed by the huge forces of Puli Thevar.

Question 5.
What was the bone of contention between the Company and Kattabomman?
Answer:

1. The company gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi which was under Kattabomman.
2. The company appointed collectors to collect taxes from all the Palayams.
3. The collectors humiliated the Palayakkarars and adopted force to collect the taxes.
4. This was the bone of contention between the company and Kattabomman.

Question 6.
Highlight the essence of the Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801.
Answer:
The Tiruchirappalli Proclamation of 1801 was the first call to the Indians to unite against the British, cutting across region, caste, creed and religion. The Proclamation was pasted on the walls of the Nawab’s palace in Tiruchirappalli Fort and on the walls of the Srirangam Temple. As a result, many Palayakkarars of Tamil country rallied together to fight against the English.

Question 7.
Point out the importance of the Treaty of 1801.
Answer:

1. The Treaty of 1801 was known as “Carnatic Treaty”. Under the terms of the camatic Treaty of 31st July 1801.
2. The British assumed the direct control over Tamilagam.
3. The Palayakkarar system came to an end with the demolition of all forts and disbandment of their army.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Velunachiyar
(a) Who was the military chief of Velunachiyar?
Answer:
Gopala Nayaker

(b) What were the martial arts in which she was trained?
Answer:
The martial arts in which she was trained were valari, stick fighting and to wield weapons.

(c) Whom did she marry?
Answer:
She was married to Muthu Vadugar, the Raja of Sivagangai.

(d) What was the name of her daughter?
Answer:
Her Daughter’s name was Vellachinachiar.

Question 2.

Dheeran Chinnamalai

(a) When was Dheeran Chinnamalai bom?
Answer:
Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom in 1756.

(b) How did he earn the title “Chinnamalai”?
Answer:
The tax money collected by Tipu’s Diwan was confiscated by Theerthagiri (original name of Dheeran Chinnamalai) While returning to Mysore. He let Diwan to go by instructing him to tell his sultan that “Chinnamalai” who is between Sivamalai and Chennimalai was the one who took away taxes. Thus he gained the name “Dheeran Chinnamalai”.

(c) Name the Diwan of Tipu Sultan.
Answer:
Diwan of Tipu Sultan was Mohammed Ali.

(d) Why and where was he hanged to death?
Answer:
Dheeran Chinnamalai refused to accept the overlordship of the British. So he was captured and imprisoned. In 31st July 1805 he was hanged to death at the top of the Sankagiri Fort.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Attempt an essay of the heroic fight Veerapandya Kattabomman conducted against the East India Company.
Answer:
(i) Veera Pandya Kattabomman became the Palayakkarar of Panchalamkurichi after the death of his father, Jagavira Pandya Kattabomman. The company administrators did not give him much importance. But soon several events led to the conflict between him and the East India Company.

(ii) The Company had gained the right to collect taxes from Panchalamkurichi. The Collectors adopted force to collect the taxes. This was the bone of contention between the English and Kattabomman.

(iii) When Kattabomman refused to pay the land revenue, he was asked to meet Jackson, the company official in Ramanathapuram where he had to stand for hours before the official. Kattabomman somehow escaped from there.

(iv) On his return to Panchalamkuruchi, Kattabomman represented to the Madras council about how he was ill-treated by the collector Jackson. The council asked Kattabomman to appear before a Committee with William Brown, William Oram and John Casamajor as members. The committee found Kattabomman innocent and Jackson was dismissed from service.

(v) Thereafter Kattabomman along with Marudhu Brothers confronted with the English. Kattabomman was asked to surrender. But his ‘evasive reply’ prompted Major Bannerman to attack his fort. The major soon seiged Panchalamkuruchi.

(vi) Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai where he was captured. During the trail Kattabomman bravely admitted all the charges levelled against him. He was hanged from a tamarind tree in the old fort of Kayathar.

Question 2.
Highlight the tragic fall of Sivagangai and its outcome.
Answer:
Tragic fall of Sivagangai: In May 1801, the English attacked the rebles in Thanjaviir and Tiruchirapaili.

1. The rebels went to piranmalai and Kalaiyar kovil.
2. They were again defeated by the able commanders and superior military strength of the English company.
3. The rebellion failed and Sivagangai was annexed in 1801.
4. In 24th October 1801 the Marudhu brothers were executed in the Fort of Thirupathur near Ramanathapuram.

Outcomes:

1. The exploits and sacrifices of the Palayakkarars inspired later generations.
2. The Rebellion of Murudhu brothers called as “South Indian Rebellion is a landmark event in the history of Tamil Nadu.
3. The rebellion resulted in the liquidation of all the chieftains of Tamil Nadu.
4. The British assumed direct control over Tamilagam.
5. The Palayakkarar system came to an end with the demolition of all Forts and disbandment of their army.

Question 3.
Account for the outbreak of Vellore Revolt in 1806.
Answer:
After the suppression of resistance of Kattabomman and Marudhu Brothers in 1801, the British charged the Nawab of Arcot with disloyalty and forced a treaty on him. According to this treaty, the Nawab was forced to cede the districts of North Arcot, South Arcot, Tiruchirappalli, Madurai and Tirunelveli to the Company and transfer all the administrative powers to it.

But the resistance did not die down. The dispossessed little kings and feudal chieftains were continuously deliberating on the future course of action against the company. This finally resulted in the Vellore Revolt of 1806. The sepoys of the British Indian army nursed a strong sense of resentment over low salary and poor prospects of promotion. The English army officers gave little respect for the social and religious sentiments of the Indian sepoys also angered them.

The immediate cause of the revolt came in the form of a new military regulation according to which the Indian soldiers were asked not to wear caste marks or ear rings when in uniform. They were to be cleanly shaven on the chin and maintain uniformity how their moustache looked. The new turban added fuel to fire. The new turban had the leather cockade made of animal skin. The sepoys refused to wear it.

On 10 July 1806, in the early hours, guns began to boom. The Indian sepoys revolted against the company rule. However, the revolt was suppressed brutally.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Teacher can ask the students to prepare an album of patriotic leaders of early revolts against the British rule in Tamil Nadu. Using their imagination they can also draw pictures of different battles in which they attained martyrdom.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Stage play visualizing the conversation between Jackson and Kattabomman be attempted by students with the help of teachers.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 3.
A comparative study of Vellore Revolt and 1857 Revolt by students be tried enabling them to find out to what extent Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the latter.
Answer:
The Vellore Mutiny took place on July 10, 1806. This major act of defiance happened even before the famous Rebellion of 1857. Though lasting only for a day, the Vellore Mutiny marked the first ever large-scale and violent mutiny by Indian sepoys against the East India Company. It was triggered by the English disregard to the religious sensitivities of the Hindu and Muslim Indian sepoys. The Revolt of 1857 was a rather large revolt which went on for days. It was fed by resentments bom of diverse perceptions, including invasive British-style social reforms, harsh land taxes, as well as scepticism about the improvements brought about by British rule.
Students can make a comparative study under the guidance of their teacher.

Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Palayakkarar system was in practice during the rule of ………………. of Warangal.
(a) Rajendra Chola
(b) Prataba Rudhra
(c) Ashoka
Answer:
(b) Prataba Rudhra

Question 2.
Puli Thevar’s three major ports came under the control of Yusuf khan on
(a) 18^th August 1798
(b) 16^th May 1761
(c) 19^th September 1798
(d) 16^th October 1799
Answer:
(b) 16^th May 1761

Question 3.
On many occasions the Palayakarars helped the ………….. rulers to restore the kingdom.
(a) Nayak
(b) Pallava
(c) Pandya
Answer:
(a) Nayak

Question 4.
Muthu vadagar died in the battle of :
(a) Kalakad
(b) Tiruchirapalli
(c) Kalaiyar kovil
(d) Palayamkottai
Answer:
(c) Kalaiyar kovil

Question 5.
The Proclamation of ………………. was the first call to the Indians to unite against the British.
(a) 1805
(b) 1809
(c) 1801
Answer:
(c) 1801

Question 6.
As per this treaty of 1801 Nawab of Arcot transferred all the administrative powers to the company:
(a) Treaty of Mangalore
(b) Treaty of Madras
(c) Treaty of Carnatic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Treaty of Carnatic

Question 7.
Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar because ……………..
(a) he was not well
(b) he was in a serious conflict with the Marathas
(c) he did not like Puli Thevar
(d) he was hostile to Puli Thevar
Answer:
(b) he was in a serious conflict with the Marathas

Question 8.
Puli Thevar was defeated by:
(a) Colonel Heron
(b) Captain campbell
(c) Major cootes
(d) Colonel Fancourt
Answer:
(b) Captain campbell

Question 9.
Dheeran was well trained in ……………..
(a) modem warfare
(b) archery
(c) horse riding
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 10.
………………….. ordered the release of Sivasubramanianar and the suspension of the collector Jackson.
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) John casamajor
(c) Governor edward clive
(d) General Bannerman
Answer:
(c) Governor edward clive

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Chinna Marudhu collected nearly ……………. men to challenge the English army.
2. ……………. tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
3. Puli Thevar wielded much influence over the ………………
4. …………… was the military chief of Velunachiyar.
5. The leather cockade was made of ……………..
6. The Marudhu brothers were executed in the Fort of Tirupathur near …………… on 24 October 1801.
7. ………….. policy of the English split the forces of the Palayakkarars.
8. ………….. wielded much influence over the western Palayakkarars.
9. Trained by the French Dheeran mobilised the …………….. youth in thousands and fought the British together with Tipu.
10. Tipu was killed at the end of the Anglo-Mysore war in …………….
Answers :
1. 1.20,000
2. Puli Thevar
3. Western Palayakkarars
4. Gopala Nayakar
5. animal skin
6. Ramanathapuram
7. Divide and Rule
8. Puli Thevar
9. Kongu 10.1799

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Kuyili was a faithful friend of Velunachiyar.
(ii) She led the unit of women soldiers named after Udaiyaal.
(iii) Udaiyaal was a timid girl who divulged information on Kuyili.
(iv) Kuyili is said to have walked into the British arsenal after setting herself on fire.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Velunachiyar was crowned as Queen with the help of Puli Thevar.
(ii) She was the first female ruler or queen to resist the British colonial power in India.
(iii) Gopala Nayak drew inspiration from Tipu Sultan.
(iv) The Carnatic Treaty took place in the year 1801.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1.	Khan Sahib	(a)	Friend of Velunachiyar
2.	Velunachiyar	(b)	Kattabomman’s brother
3.	Kuyili	(c)	Tipu’s diwan
4.	Oomathurai	(d)	Marudhanayagam Pillai
5.	Mohammed Ali	(e)	Bom in 1730

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Question 2.

1.	Yusuf Khan	(a)	Military chief
2.	Dalavay	(b)	guerrilla attack
3.	Pagodas	(c)	Khan Sahib
4.	Dheeran Chinnamalai	(d)	Raja of Sivagangai
5.	Muthu Vadugar Periya Udaya Thevar	(e)	Forced labour

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (d)

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Name the Palayakkarars who revolted against the British rule in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Puli Thevar, Velunachiyar, Dheeran chinnamalai, Marudhu brothers and Veerapandiya Kattabomman were some of the prominent Palayakkarars who revolted against the British rule in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Explain about Ondiveeran’s bravery.
Answer:
Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Puli Thevar. Fighting by the side of Puli Thevar, he caused much damage to the company’s army. According to oral tradition, in one battle, Ondiveeran’s hand was chopped off and Puli Thevar was saddened. But Ondiveeran said it was a reward for his penetration into enemy’s fort causing many heads to roll.

Question 3.
Who supported the British and who did not join the confederacy of Puli Thevar?
Answer:
The English succeeded in getting the support of the Raj as of Ramanathapuram and Pudukkottai. The Palayakkarars of Ettayapuram, Panchalamkurichi and Sivagiri did not join the confederacy of Puli Thevar.

Question 4.
Who was Muthu Vadugar? How was he killed?
Answer:
Muthu Vadugar was the Raja of Sivagangai. He was married to Velunachiyar. In 1772, the Nawab of Arcot and the Company troops under the command of Lt. col. Bon Jour stormed the Kalaiyar Kovil Palace. In the ensuing battle Muthu Vadugar was killed.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Velunachiyar.
Answer:
Velunachiyar was bom in 1730 she was the only daughter of Raja Sellamuthu sethupathy of Ramanathapuram. She was trained in martial arts like valari, stick fighting and wield weapons. She was expert in horse riding and archery and had proficiency in English, French and Urdu.

Question 6.
What status did the Palayakkarars avail during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries?
Answer:
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries the Palayakkarars dominated the politics of Tamil country. They functioned as independent sovereign authorities within their respective Palayams.

Question 7.
Write a brief note on Marudhu brothers.
Answer:

1. Periya Marudhu or Vella Marudhu and his younger brother Chinna Marudhu were the able generals of Muthuvadugar of Sivagangai.
2. After Muthuvadugar’s death in the Kalaiyur kovil battle, they assisted in restoring the throne to Velunachiyar.
3. In the last years of the eighteenth century Marudhu brothers organised resistance against the British.

Question 8.
Give an estimate of the Vellore Revolt of 1806.
Answer:
The Vellore Revolt failed because there was no immediate help from outside. According to recent studies, the organizing part of the revolt was done perfectly by Subedars Sheik Adam and Sheik Hamid and Jamedar Sheik Hussain of the 2nd Battalion of 23^rd regiment. Vellore revolt had all the forebodings of the Great Rebellion of 1857. The only difference was that there was no civil rebellion following the mutiny.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Vellore Revolt:

(a) When did the outbreak of Vellore revolt occur?
Answer:
Out break of Vellore revolt occurred on 10th July 1806.

(b) Who commanded the garrison?
Answer:
Colonel Fancourt commanded the garrison.

(c) By whom was the organising part of the revolt done?
Answer:
The organising part of the revolt was done perfectly by Subedars Sheik Adam and Sheik Hamid and Jamedar Shiek Hussain of 2nd battalion of 23rd regiment and subedar Jamedar Sheik Kasim of the 1st battalion of 1st regiment.

(d) Name the places where the Vellore revolt of 1806 echoed?
Answer:
Vellore Revolt of 1806 had its echoes in Bellary, Walajabad, Hyderabad, Bengaluru, Nandydurg and Sankaridurg.

Question 2.
Appearance Before Madras Council

(a) Whom did the Madras council ask to appear before the committee?
Answer:
Kattabomman.

(b) Who were the committee members of Madras council?
Answer:
William Brown, William oram, John Casamajor.

(c) When did Kattabomman appear before the committee?
Answer:
Kattabomman appeared before the committee on 15th December 1798.

(d) What did Kattabomman report to the committee? What was the result?
Answer:
Kattabomman reported on what transpired in Ramanathapuram. The committee found Kattabomman was not guilty.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Give an estimation of Revolt at Vellore (1806).
Answer:

1. General Gillespie from Arcot along with the captain young cavalry commander crushed the revolt. Nearly eight hundred soldiers were found dead. The organising part of the revolt was done perfectly by the subedars of 1st battalion of the 1st regiment and the 2nd battalion of 23rd regiment.
2. The Vellore revolt failed because there was no immediate help from outside.
3. It was the 1st open uprising of the Indian soldiers under British army.
4. This revolt was not confined to Vellore Fort alone but echoed outside regions also.
5. Vellore Revolt had all the forebodings of the Great Rebellion of 1857.
6. This was also called as Vellore mutiny as it arose only from the soldiers.

Question 2.
Give on assessment of Velunachiyar’s resistance to the British colonial power in India,
Answer:
Velunachiyar belonged to the royal family. She was brought up as a princess and was trained in marital arts. She was also adept in horse riding and archery. She was married to Muthu Vadugar, the Raja of Sivangangai. When the Raja was killed in the battle, Velunachiyar had to live under the protection of Gopala Nayakar at Virupachi near Dindigul for eight years. During her period in hiding, Velunachiyar organised an army and succeeded in securing an alliance with not only Gopala Nayakar but Hyder Ali as well. Dalavay (military chief) Thandavarayanar wrote a letter to Sultan Flyder Ali on behalf of Velunachiyar asking for 5000 infantry and 5000 cavalry to defeat the English. Velunachiyar explained in detail in Urdu all the problems she had with East India Company.

She conveyed her strong determination to fight the English. Impressed by her courage, Hyder Ali ordered his commandant Syed in Dindigul Fort to provide the required military assistance. Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored their ammunition. With military assistance from Gopala Nayakar and Hyder Ali, She recaptured Sivagangai. She was crowned as Queen with the help of Marudhu Brothers. ” She became the first female ruler to resist the British colonial power in India.

Impotant Events And Years:

Years	Events
1730	Velunachiyar born
1801	Sivagangai annexed, Carnatic Treaty
1799	Anglo – Mysore war
1806	Vellore (Revolt) Mutiny

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 6 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 6 Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.