Category: Class 8

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 3.3 தமிழ்ர் மருந்தும் Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 3.3 தமிழ்ர் மருந்தும்

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
நீங்கள் மருத்துவரிடம் கேட்க விரும்பும் ஐந்து வினாக்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:
(i) பல மருந்துகளின் பெயர்களை மருத்துவ நூல்களில் படிக்கின்றோம். ஆனால், அந்த மருந்துகளைப் பார்த்ததே இல்லை. மற்றவர்களுக்கும் தெரிவது இல்லை. அதைத் தெரிந்து கொண்டால் அந்த மருந்துகளின் பயன்பாட்டை நாங்கள் பயன்படுத்த வழி உண்டு. அதற்கு மருத்துவராக விளங்கும் நீங்கள் வழிவகை செய்ய முடியுமா?

(ii) வேதிக்கலப்பு இல்லாத உணவு இன்று குறைவு. அப்படி இருக்கும் போது நோய்கள் விரைவாகவே வந்து விடுகின்றன. இதிலிருந்து மீண்டுவர தாங்கள் கூறும் அறிவுரை யாது?

(iii) பழைய மருத்துவ தாவரங்களை மீட்டுருவாக்கம் செய்ய வழிவகை உள்ளதா?

(iv) நவீன மருத்துவத்தைத் தவிர்த்து நாட்டு மருத்துவத்திற்கு நுழைய அரசு மருத்துவமனையில் பழைய மருத்துவமுறைக்கு வழி உள்ளதா?

(v) தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தைப் பெரும்பாலான தமிழர்களே ஏற்றுக்கொள்ளாத போது, தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தை உலக அளவில் பறைசாற்றுவது எப்படி?

Question 2.
உங்கள் பகுதிகளில் கிடைக்கும் மூலிகைகளின் மாதிரிகளைத் திரட்டி அவற்றின் பயன்களை எழுதிக் காட்சிப்படுத்துக.
Answer:
மாணவர் செயல்பாடு.

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
தொடக்க காலத்தில் மனிதர்கள் மருத்துவத்திற்கு ………………………… பயன்படுத்தினர்.
அ) தாவரங்களை
ஆ) விலங்குகளை
இ) உலோகங்களை
ஈ) மருந்துகளை
Answer:
அ) தாவரங்களை

Question 2.
தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தில் மருந்து என்பது ……………………… நீட்சியாகவே உள்ளது.
அ) மருந்தின்
ஆ) உடற்பயிற்சியின்
இ) உணவின்
ஈ) வாழ்வின்
Answer:
இ) உணவின்

Question 3.
உடல் எடை அதிகரிப்பதால் ஏற்படும் நோய்களுள் ஒன்று ……………………..
அ) தலைவலி
ஆ) காய்ச்ச ல்
இ) புற்றுநோய்
ஈ) இரத்தக்கொதிப்பு
Answer:
ஈ) இரத்தக்கொதிப்பு

Question 4.
சமையலறையில் செலவிடும் நேரம் ……………………… செலவிடும் நேரமாகும்.
அ) சுவைக்காக
ஆ) சிக்கனத்திற்காக
இ) நல்வாழ்வுக்காக
ஈ) உணவுக்காக
Answer:
இ) நல்வாழ்வுக்காக

குறுவினா

Question 1.
மருத்துவம் எப்போது தொடங்கியது?
Answer:
தொடக்க காலத்தில் மனிதனுக்கு நோய் வந்தபோது இயற்கையாக வளர்ந்த தாவரங்களைக் கொண்டும், அவனுக்கு அருகில் கிடைத்த தாவர, கனிம, சீவப் பொருள்களைக் கொண்டும் நோயைத் தீர்க்க முயன்றிருப்பான். அப்போதே மருத்துவம் தொடங்கியது.

Question 2.
நல்வாழ்விற்கு நாம் நாள்தோறும் செய்ய வேண்டியவை யாவை?
Answer:

• 45 நிமிடத்தில் 3 கி.மீ. நடைப்பயணம்.
• 15 நிமிடம் யோகா, தியானம், மூச்சுப்பயிற்சி.
• 7 மணி நேர தூக்கம்.
• 3 லிட்டர் தண்ணீ ர் அருந்துதல்.

Question 3.
தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தில் மருந்துகளாகப் பயன்படுவன யாவை?
Answer:
மூலிகை, தாவர இலை, தாவர வேர், உலோகங்கள், பாஷாணங்கள், தாதுப்பொருட்கள் ஆகியன தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தில் மருந்துப்பொருட்களாகப் பயன்படுகின்றனவாகும்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
நோய்கள் பெருகக் காரணம் என்ன?
Answer:

• மனிதன் இயற்கையை விட்டு விலகி வந்ததுதான் முதன்மைக் காரணம்.
• மாறிப்போன உணவு, மாசு நிறைந்த சுற்றுச்சூழல், மன அழுத்தம் இவை மூன்றும் குறிப்பிடத்தக்க காரணங்கள்.
• தன் உணவுக்காக வேறு எதைப்பற்றியும் கவலை கொள்ளாமல், நிலத்தை உரங்களாலும், பூச்சிக்கொல்லிகளாலும் நச்சுப்படுத்தலாம் என்ற
• அலட்சியமான எண்ணம், மன அழுத்தம், எது கேளிக்கை? எது குதூகலம்? எது படிப்பு? எது சிந்தனை? என்ற புரிதல் இல்லாமை ஆகியவற்றைக் கூடுதல் காரணங்களாகச் சொல்லலாம்.
• நம்முடைய வாழ்வியலைச் செம்மைப்படுத்துவதற்காக நாம் அறிவியல் அறிவை, மேம்பட்ட அறிவை வளர்த்தோம். ஆனால் நுண்ணறிவைத் தொலைத்துவிட்டோம்.
• இயற்கையோடு இயைந்து வாழலாம் என்கிற அறிவை நாம் மறந்துவிட்டோம். இதுவே இன்றைக்குப் பல நோய்கள் பெருக மிக முக்கியமான காரணம் ஆகும்.

Question 2.
பள்ளிக் குழந்தைகளுக்கு மருத்துவர் கூறம் அறிவுரைகள் யாவை?
Answer:

• நோய் வந்த பின்பு மருத்துவமனைக்குச் செல்வதை விட வருமுன் காக்கும் வாழ்க்கையை வாழக் கற்றுக் கொள்ளுங்கள்.
• சரியான உணவு, சரியான உடற்பயிற்சி, சரியான தூக்கம் ஆகிய மூன்றும் உங்களை நலமாக வாழவைக்கும்.
• விலை உயர்ந்த உணவுதான் சரியான உணவு என்று எண்ணாதீர்கள்.
• எளிமையாகக் கிடைக்கக்கூடிய காய்கறிகள், கீரைகள், பழங்கள், சிறுதானியங்களை உணவில் சேர்த்துக் கொள்ளுங்கள்.
• கணினித் திரையிலும், கைபேசியிலும் விளையாடுவதைத் தவிர்த்து நாள்தோறும் ஓடியாடி விளையாடுங்கள்.
• இரவுத் தூக்கம் மிகவும் இன்றியமையாதது. உரிய நேரத்தில் உறங்கச் செல்லுங்கள். அதிகாலையில் விழித்தெழுங்கள் உங்களை எந்த நோயும் அண்டாது.

நெடுவினா

Question 1.
தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தின் சிறப்புகளாக மருத்துவர் கூறும் செய்திகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
(i) வேர்பாரு; தழைபாரு மிஞ்சினக்கால் பற்பசெந்தூரம் பாரே’ என்றனர் சித்தர்கள்.

(ii) வேர், தழையால் குணம் அடையாதபோது சில நாட்பட்ட நோய்களுக்கு, தாவரங்கள் மட்டும் அல்லாமல் உலோகங்களையும் பாஷாணங்களையும் சித்த மருந்துகளாக நம் முன்னோர்கள் பயன்படுத்தியிருக்கிறார்கள்.

(iii) அந்தக் காலத்தில் எப்படி மூலிகைகளை மருந்தாகப் பார்த்தார்களோ அப்படியே தாதுப்பொருட்களையும், உலோகத்தையும் பார்த்தார்கள்.

(iv) அவற்றை மருந்துகளாக மாற்றும் வல்லமை சித்தமருத்துவத்தில் இருந்திருக்கிறது.

(v) ஒரு மருந்தை எடுத்துக்கொண்டால் அதற்கு விளைவும் இருக்கும்; பக்கவிளைவும் இருக்கும். ஆனால் தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தில் பக்க விளைவுகள் இல்லை. அதற்குக் காரணம் மருந்து என்பதே உணவின் நீட்சியாக இருக்கிறது.

(vi) ஒரு கவளம் சோற்றை உடல் எப்படி எடுத்துக்கொள்கிறதோ, அப்படியே தான் சித்த மருத்துவத்தின் லேகியத்தையும், சூரணத்தையும் உடல் எடுத்துக்கொள்ளும்.

(vii) அதனால் உணவு எப்படி பக்கவிளைவுகளைத் தருவதில்லையோ அதே போலச் சித்த மருந்துகளும் பக்கவிளைவுகளை ஏற்படுத்துவதில்லை.

(viii) தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தின் சிறப்பு என்னவென்றால், தனித்துவமான பார்வை இதன் முதல் சிறப்பு; இரண்டாவது சூழலுக்கு இசைந்த மருத்துவம் இது. இந்த மருத்துவத்தின் பயன்பாடோ, மூலக்கூறுகளோ, மருந்துகளோ சுற்றுச்சூழலைச் சிதைக்காது.

(ix) மிக முக்கியமான சிறப்பு என்னவென்றால், நோய்க்கான சிகிச்சையை மட்டும் சொல்லாமல், நோய் மீண்டும் வராமலிருப்பதற்கான வாழ்வியலையும் சொல்கிறது.

(x) அதாவது நோய்நாடி நோய் முதல் நாடி’ என்ற திருக்குறளின்படி நோயை மட்டுமன்றி, அதன் காரணிகளையும் கண்டறிந்து ஒருவரை நோயில்லாத மனிதராக்குகிறது.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
நோயின்றி வாழ நாம் என்னென்ன வழிகளைக் கையாளலாம்?
Answer:
இயற்கையோடு இணைந்து உண்ணல்:
மனிதனின் அடிப்படைத் தேவைகளுள் முதன்மையானது உணவு. மக்கள் உண்ணும் உணவும் உணவுப் பழக்கவழக்கங்களுமே அவர்களது உடல் நலத்தையும் உள நலத்தையும் தீர்மானிக்கின்றன. தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தில் உணவு என்பது அனைத்து நோய்களையும் தீர்க்கக் கூடிய சஞ்சீவி மருந்தாகக் கருதப்படுகிறது.

உண்ணும் முறை :
எளிதில் செரிக்கக் கூடிய பழம், காய், பருப்பு, அரிசி, கோதுமை, பால் இவற்றையே குடல் ஏற்றுக் கொள்கிறது. நாச்சுவை கருதி உண்ணாமல், உடல் நலங்கருதி உண்ணுதலே நல்லது. உணவை விரைவாக விழுங்கக்கூடாது; நன்றாக மென்று விழுங்குதல் வேண்டும்.

பயிற்சிகள் :
தினமும் நாற்பத்தைந்து நிமிடத்தில் மூன்று கி.மீ. நடைப்பயணம், பதினைந்து நிமிடம் யோகா, தியானம், மூச்சுப்பயிற்சி, ஏழு மணிநேர தூக்கம், மூன்று லிட்டர் தண்ணீ ர் அருந்துவது அவசியம்.

தவிர்க்க வேண்டியன:
நோய்க்கு முதல் காரணம் உப்பு. இதனைக் குறைவாக சேர்த்தல் நன்று. உப்பு நிறைந்த பொருள்களான ஊறுகாய், அப்பளம், வடகம், கருவாடு, வறுத்த முந்திரிபருப்பு, வறுத்த உருளைச் சீவல், வாழைக்காய்ச் சீவல், புளித்த மோர் முதலியனவற்றை முழுவதுமாகத் தவிர்த்தல் வேண்டும். கொழுப்பு நிறைந்த இறைச்சிகள், முட்டையின் மஞ்சள் கரு, தயிர், நெய், வெண்ணெய், பாலாடை, பனிக்கூழ், இனிப்புக்கட்டி ஆகியவற்றை நீக்குதல் வேண்டும்.

சமச்சீர் உணவு :
‘உணவே மருந்து மருந்தே உணவு’ என்று வாழ்ந்தவர்கள் நம் முன்னோர்கள். ஒருவர் உட்கொள்ளும் உணவில் புரதம், கொழுப்பு, மாச்சத்து, கனிமங்கள், நுண்ணூட்டச் சத்துகள் சேர்ந்ததே சமச்சீர் உணவு. எனவே, அளவறிந்து உண்ண வேண்டியது அவசியமாகும்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
அருந்தும் உணவே அருமருந்தென அறிந்தவர் ………………………… மக்கள்.
அ) கேரள
ஆ) தெலுங்கு
இ) தமிழ்
ஈ) கர்நாடகம்
Answer:
இ) தமிழ்

Question 2.
………………….. மக்கள் உடற்கூறு பற்றிய அறிவிலும், மருத்துவம் பற்றிய புரிதலிலும் சிறந்து விளங்கினர்.
அ) தமிழ்
ஆ) சீனா
இ) ஆங்கிலேயர்
ஈ) கேரளம்
Answer:
அ) தமிழ்

Question 3.
தமிழர் மருத்துவம் ………………………. என்று அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
அ) ஹோமியோபதி
ஆ) அலோபதி
இ) அக்குபஞ்சர்
ஈ) சித்த மருத்துவம்
Answer:
ஈ) சித்த மருத்துவம்

Question 4.
உடலை வளப்படுத்தி உள்ளத்தைச் சீராக்குவது …………………… கலை.
அ) நாட்டியம்
ஆ) ஓவியம்
இ) உடற்பயிற்சி
ஈ) யோகனம்
Answer:
ஈ) யோகனம்

Question 5.
தமிழர் ………………………. சாங்கியம், ஆசீவகம் ஆகும்.
அ) மெய்யியல்
ஆ) வரலாறு
இ) அறிவியல்
ஈ) தத்துவங்கள்
Answer:
ஈ) தத்துவங்கள்

Question 6.
…………………. மற்றும் ……………………. காலத்தில் அந்தந்த மதங்களின் கூறுகள் நம் மருத்துவத்தில் இருந்தன.
அ) இந்து, முஸ்லிம்
ஆ) சைவம், வைணவம்
இ) இந்து, சமணம்
ஈ) சமணம், பௌத்தம்
Answer:
ஈ) சமணம், பௌத்தம்

Question 7.
………………………….. களுடைய நவீன அறிவியல் பார்வை நம்மீது தாக்கத்தை ஏற்படுத்தியது.
அ) பாரசீகர்கள்
ஆ) ஆங்கிலேயர்கள்
இ) ஆரியர்கள்
ஈ) முகலாயர்கள்
Answer:
ஆ) ஆங்கிலேயர்கள்

Question 8.
‘வேர்பாரு; தழைபாரு மிஞ்சினக்கால் பற்பசெந்தூரம் பாரே’ என்றனர் ……………………….
அ) தமிழர்கள்
ஆ) சித்தர்கள்
இ) சைவர்கள்
ஈ) முன்னோர்கள்
Answer:
ஆ) சித்தர்கள்

Question 9.
நாட்பட்ட நோய்களுக்கு, தாவரங்கள் மட்டும் அல்லாமல் ……………………….. களையும் பயன்படுத்தினர்.
அ) உலோகங்கள்
ஆ) அலோகங்கள்
இ) சாயங்கள்
ஈ) வேதியல்
Answer:
அ) உலோகங்கள்

Question 10.
தாதுப்பொருட்களையும், உலோகத்தையும் மருந்துகளாக மாற்றும் வல்லமை …………………….. மருத்துவத்தில் இருந்திருக்கிறது.
அ) நவீன
ஆ) மூலிகை
இ) சித்த
ஈ) சீன
Answer:
இ) சித்த

Question 11.
‘நோய்நாடி நோய் முதல்நாடி’ என்று கூறியவர் ………………………
அ) கம்பர்
ஆ) வள்ளுவர்
இ) ஔவையார்
ஈ) திருமூலர்
Answer:
ஆ) வள்ளுவர்

Question 12.
தினமும் ………………………… நிமிடத்தில் மூன்று கி.மீ. நடைப்பயணம் மேற்கொள்ள வேண்டும்.
அ) 25
ஆ) 30
இ) 40
ஈ) 45
Answer:
ஈ) 45

Question 13.
தினமும் …………………… நிமிடம் யோகா செய்ய வேண்டும்.
அ) 10
ஆ) 15
இ) 20
ஈ) 25
Answer:
ஆ) 15

Question 14.
தினமும் …………………… மணிநேரம் தூங்குவது அவசியம்.
அ) 7
ஆ) 8
இ) 6
ஈ) 5
Answer:
அ) 7

Question 15.
தினமும் ………………… லிட்டர் தண்ணீ ர் அருந்துவது அவசியம்.
அ) 5
ஆ) 4
இ) 2
ஈ) 3
Answer:
ஈ) 3

Question 16.
கணினித்திரையிலும் கைபேசியிலும் விளையாடுவதைத் தவிர்த்து நாள்தோறும் ………………………….. விளையாடுங்கள்.
அ) கபடி
ஆ) நொண்டி
இ) ஓடியாடி
ஈ) செஸ்
Answer:
இ) ஓடியாடி

பிரித்து எழுதுக

மருந்தென = மருந்து + என
உடற்கூறுகள் = உடல் + கூறுகள்
தங்களுக்கென = தங்களுக்கு + என
வந்துள்ளோம் = வந்து + உள்ளோம்
முயன்றிருப்பான் = முயன்று + இருப்பான்

அறிந்திருப்பர் = அறிந்து + இருப்பர்
பழந்தமிழர் = பழமை + தமிழர்
வளப்படுத்தி = வளம் + படுத்தி
மருந்தில்லா = மருந்து + இல்லா
இவற்றுக்கெல்லாம் = இவற்றுக்கு + எல்லாம்

கண்டறிந்து = கண்டு + அறிந்து
வாழ்வியலுடன் = வாழ்வியல் + உடன்
துரிதமாக = துரிதம் + ஆக
மாறிப்போனது = மாறி + போனது
ஒளிந்திருக்கும் = ஒளிந்து + இருக்கும்

சேர்த்தெழுதுக

இரத்தம் + கொதிப்பு = இரத்தக்கொதிப்பு
உடல் + பயிற்சி = உடற்பயிற்சி
அவசியம் + ஆயிற்று = அவசியமாயிற்று
நாள் + பட்ட = நாட்பட்ட
மீண்டு + எழுந்து = மீண்டெழுந்து

என்று + எல்லாம் = என்றெல்லாம்
பட்டியல் + இட்டு = பட்டியலிட்டு
சுற்று + சூழல் = சுற்றுச்சூழல்
மட்டும் + அன்றி = மட்டுமன்றி
மற்று + ஒரு = மற்றொரு

உணவுக்கு + ஆக = உணவுக்காக
நுண் + அறிவு = நுண்ணறிவு
சரி + அன்று = சரியன்று
சமையல் + அறை = சமையலறை
விழித்து + எழுங்கள் = விழித்தெழுங்கள்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
பாடப்பகுதியில் வள்ளுவர் மருந்து பற்றிய குறளாக குறிப்பிடுவது எது?
Answer:
‘மருந்தென வேண்டாவாம் யாக்கைக்கு அருந்தியது
அற்றது போற்றி உணின்’ என்கிறார் வள்ளுவர்.

Question 2.
பாரம்பரிய மருத்துவ முறையில் தமிழ் மக்கள் எவ்வாறு சிறந்திருந்தனர்?
Answer:

• தமிழ்மக்கள் உடற்கூறுகள் பற்றிய அறிவிலும், மருத்துவம் பற்றிய புரிதலிலும் சிறந்து விளங்கினர்.
• உலகில் பல்வேறு மருத்துவ முறைகள் இருந்தாலும் தங்களுக்கெனப் பாரம்பரிய மருத்துவ முறைகளையும் உருவாக்கிப் பின்பற்றி வந்தனர்.

Question 3.
பழந்தமிழரின் மருத்துவம் பற்றிய குறிப்புகள் எவற்றில் கிடைக்கின்றன?
Answer:
பழந்தமிழர்கள் மருத்துவத்தை அறிந்தது மட்டுமன்றி மருத்துவத்தில் சிறந்தும் விளங்கினார்கள் என்பதற்கான குறிப்புகள் பழந்தமிழ் இலக்கியங்களில் கிடைக்கின்றன.

Question 4.
பழந்தமிழர்கள் அறிந்திருந்த மருத்துவ முறைகள் யாவை?
Answer:
பழந்தமிழர்கள், மூலிகை மருத்துவம், அறுவை மருத்துவம், மருந்தில்லா மருத்துவம் போன்றவற்றையும் உடலை வளப்படுத்தி உள்ளத்தைச் சீராக்கும் யோகம் முதலிய
கலைகளையும் அறிந்திருந்தார்கள்.

Question 5.
தமிழர் எவ்வுண்மையை விளக்கினர்?
Answer:
நோயை இயற்கையில் கிடைக்கும் பொருட்கள், அப்பொருளின் தன்மை அதன் சுவை இவற்றைக் கொண்டே குணப்படுத்த முடியும் என்ற உண்மையை மிகத்தெளிவாக விளக்கினர்.

Question 6.
தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தின் முக்கியச் சிறப்பு என்ன?
Answer:
(i) தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தின் மிக முக்கியமான சிறப்பு என்னவென்றால், நோய்க்கான சிகிச்சையை மட்டும் சொல்லாமல், நோய் மீண்டும் வராமலிருப்பதற்கான வாழ்வியலையும் சொல்கிறது.

(ii) அதாவது நோய்நாடி நோய் முதல் நாடி’ என்ற குறளின்படி நோயை மட்டுமன்றி அதன் காரணிகளையும் கண்டறிந்து ஒருவரை நோயில்லாத மனிதராக்குகிறது.

Question 7.
இன்று நோய்கள் பெருகுவதற்கான மூன்று காரணங்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

• மனிதன் இயற்கையை விட்டு விலகி வந்ததுதான் முதன்மைக் காரணம்.
• மாறிப்போன உணவு, மாசு நிறைந்த சுற்றுச்சூழல், மன அழுத்தம் இவை மூன்றும் குறிப்பிடத்தக்க காரணங்கள்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
தமிழர் மருத்துவ முறைகள் எவ்வாறு பரிணாம வளர்ச்சி அடைந்தது?
Answer:
(i) தமிழரது நிலம், நிறைந்த பண்பாடுகளும் தத்துவங்களும் அடங்கியது.

(ii) நோய்கள் எல்லாம் பேய், பிசாசுகளால் வருகின்றன; பாவ, புண்ணியத்தால் வருகின்றன என்று உலகத்தின் பல பகுதிகளில் சொல்லிக் கொண்டிருந்த காலத்தில், தமிழர் தத்துவங்களான சாங்கியம், ஆசீவகம் போன்றவை உடலுக்கும் ஏற்படும் மாற்றங்களை விளங்கின.

(iii) நோயை இயற்கையில் கிடைக்கும் பொருட்கள், அப்பொருள்களின் தன்மை அதன் சுவை இவற்றைக் கொண்டே குணப்படுத்த முடியும் என்ற உண்மையை மிகத் தெளிவாக விளக்கினர்.

(iv) தமிழர் மருத்துவம் பண்பாட்டுக் கூறாக ஆகும்போது நாட்டு வைத்தியமாகவும், பாட்டி வைத்தியமாகவும் மரபு சார்ந்த சித்த வைத்தியமாகவும், உணவு சார்ந்த
மருத்துவமாகவும், பண்பாடு சார்ந்த மருத்துவமாகவும் விரிந்திருக்கிறது.

Question 2.
உயர்வாக இருந்த தமிழர் மருத்துவமுறை பிறகு பின்தங்கிப் போனதற்குக் காரணம் என்ன ?
Answer:

• நம்மீது நிகழ்ந்த படையெடுப்புகள் தாக்கத்தை ஏற்படுத்தின.
• தமிழர் மருத்துவம் அவரவர்வாழ்வியலுடனும், தத்துவங்களுடனும் பிணைந்துதான் வந்து கொண்டிருந்தது.
• சமணர் மற்றும் பௌத்தர் காலத்தில் அந்தந்த மதங்களின் கூறுகள் நம் மருத்துவத்தில் இருந்தன. பிறகு சைவம் ஓங்கிய போது சைவ சித்தாந்தத்தின் கூறுகள் கலந்தன.
• இறுதியில் ஆங்கிலேயர்கள் வந்தனர். அவர்களுடைய நவீன அறிவியல் பார்வை நம்மீது தாக்கத்தை ஏற்படுத்தியது.
• சித்த மருத்துவம் என்பது மரபுவழி மருத்துவமாகவும், நாட்டு மருத்துவமாகவும் சுருங்கியது. இறுதியில் கிராமம் சார்ந்த மருத்துவமாக மாறிப்போனது.
• நவீன மருத்துவத்தில், துரிதமாகச் சில நோய்களுக்குக் கிடைத்த தீர்வுகள் பெரும்பயனையும் வரவேற்பையும் கொடுத்தன.

Question 3.
தமிழர் மருத்துவம் மறுமலர்ச்சி அடைவதற்கான காரணங்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
(i) பல ஆண்டுகளுக்குப் பின்னால் தான் பாரம்பரிய மருத்துவம் மிகப்பெரிய அனுபவத்தின் நீட்சி என்பதும் மிகப்பெரிய பட்டறிவில் ஒரு பெரிய அறிவியல் கண்டிப்பாக ஒளிந்திருக்கும் என்பதும் புரியத் தொடங்கின. குறிப்பாகச் சர்க்கரை, இரத்தக்கொதிப்பு, புற்றுநோய், மாரடைப்பு முதலிய வாழ்வியல் நோய்கள் பெருகிய நிலையைச் சொல்லலாம்.

(ii) இவற்றைத் தீர்க்க வெறும் இரசாயன மருந்துகள் போதா. கூடவே உணவு, வாழ்வியல், உடற்பயிற்சி, யோகம் இவையும் கூட்டாக மேற்கொள்ளப்பட வேண்டும்.

(iii) தொடர் சிகிச்சைக்குப் பிற பக்க விளைவுகள் இல்லா மருந்துகளின் தேவை அவசியமாயிற்று. அதன் பிறகுதான் எல்லா நாடுகளிலும் இருக்கும் பாரம்பரிய மருத்துவ முறைகளின் மீது, நவீன அறிவியல் பார்வை விழத் தொடங்கியது.

(iv) அதனால் சித்த மருத்துவத்தின் தொன்மையும், தமிழர்களின் தொன்மையும் புரிய ஆரம்பித்தன் ஆய்வுகள் மேற்கொள்ளப்பட்டன.

(v) நாட்பட்ட நோய்களுக்கு மட்டுமல்லாது புதிய தொற்றுநோய் மாதிரியான சவால்களுக்கும் இது சிறந்த மாற்றாக இருப்பது தெரிய வந்தது.

(vi) இன்றைக்குப் பெருவாரியாக இது மீண்டெழுந்து வந்து கொண்டிருக்கிறது.

Question 4.
மருத்துவத்தில் பக்கவிளைவுகள் பற்றி மருத்துவர் கூறிய கருத்துகள் யாவை?
Answer:
(i) ஒரு மருந்தை எடுத்துக்கொண்டால் அதற்கு விளைவும் இருக்கும்; பக்க விளைவும் இருக்கும். ஆனால், தமிழர் மருத்துவத்தில் பக்க விளைவுகள் இல்லை . அதற்குக் காரணம் மருந்து என்பதே உணவின் நீட்சியாக இருக்கிறது.

(ii) ஒரு கவளம் சோற்றை உடல் எப்படி எடுத்துக்கொள்கிறதோ, அப்படியே தான் சித்த மருத்துவத்தின் இலேகியத்தையும், சூரணத்தையும் உடல் எடுத்துக்கொள்ளும்.

(iii) அதனால், உணவு எப்படிப் பக்க விளைவுகளைத் தருவதில்லையோ அதே போலச் சித்த மருந்துகளும் பக்கவிளைவுகளை ஏற்படுத்துவதில்லை.

(iv) இருந்த போதிலும் சித்த மருத்துவத்தின் மீது தற்போது நடக்கும் பல அறிவியல் ஆய்வுகள் மூலம் அவற்றைத் தர நிர்ணயம் செய்து யாருக்கு எந்த மருந்து, எந்த அளவில், எந்தத் துணை மருந்து கொடுத்தால் பக்க விளைவு இருக்காது என்று பட்டியலிட்டுள்ளனர்.

Question 5.
உணவைக் குறைப்பதுதான் எடையைக் குறைக்கும் வழியா விளக்குக.
Answer:

• இன்றைக்குப் பல உணவுக் கட்டுப்பாட்டு முறைகள் உள்ளன. எல்லாம் நல்ல முயற்சிகள் தாம். ஆனால், அவற்றைப் பின்பற்றுவதற்குத் தம் உடல் ஏற்றதாக இருக்கிறதா என்பதைக் குடும்ப மருத்துவரிடம் கேட்டு முடிவெடுக்க வேண்டும்.
• ஏனென்றால், இன்றைக்குப் பலரும் இணையத்தைப் பார்த்து அம்முறைகளுக்குச் செல்கிறார்கள்.
• சிலருக்கு அவை கேடு விளைவிக்கக்கூடும். தடாலடியாக எடையைக் குறைப்பது சரியன்று .
• ஒரு குறிப்பிட்ட கால இடைவெளிகளில் ஒன்று, ஒன்றரை ஆண்டுகளில் எடையைக் கட்டுக்குள் கொண்டு வர முயற்சிக்க வேண்டும்.
• அவசர யுகம் என்றாலும் உணவு உண்பதில், சில ஒழுக்கங்களைக் கடைப்பிடித்தாக வேண்டும்.
• உணவுக்காக சமையலறையில் செலவிடும் நேரத்தை, நல்வாழ்விற்காகச் செலவிடும் நேரம் என நினைக்க வேண்டும்.

நெடுவினா

Question 1.
மருத்துவத்தின் தொடக்கம் குறித்தும், நாள்தோறும் நாம் செய்ய வேண்டியன குறித்தும், மாணவர்கள் கடைப்பிடிப்பன குறித்தும் எழுதுக.
Answer:
மருத்துவத்தின் தொடக்கம் :
தொடக்க காலத்தில் மனிதனுக்கு நோய் வந்தபோது இயற்கையாக வளர்ந்த தாவரங்களைக் கொண்டும் அவனுக்கு அருகில் கிடைத்தத் தாவர, கனிம, சீவப் பொருள்களைக் கொண்டும் நோயைத் தீர்க்க முயன்றிருப்பான். தாவரங்களின் வேர், பட்டை, இலை, பூ, கனி முதலியவற்றை மருந்தாகப் பயன்படுத்தியிருப்பான். இவ்வாறுதான் மனிதர்களுக்கும் மருத்துவத்திற்குமான தொடர்பு தொடங்கியது.

நாள்தோறும் செய்ய வேண்டியன :
தினமும் நாற்பத்தைந்து நிமிடத்தில் மூன்று கி.மீ. நடைப்பயணம், பதினைந்து நிமிடம் யோகா, தியானம், மூச்சுப்பயிற்சி, ஏழுமணி நேர தூக்கம், மூன்று லிட்டர் தண்ணீர் அருந்துவது அவசியம். எங்கோ விளையும் ஆப்பிளைச் சாப்பிடுவதை விட, நமது ஊரில் விளையும் கொய்யா, இலந்தை, நாவல், பப்பாளி, நெல்லி, வாழைப்பழங்கள் ஆகியவற்றைக் காலை உணவுக்கு முன்பு சாப்பிடலாம்.

மாணவர்கள் கடைப்பிடிக்க வேண்டியன:
நோய் வந்த பின்பு மருத்துவமனைக்குச் செல்வதை விட வருமுன் காக்கும் வாழ்க்கையை வாழக் கற்றுக் கொள்ளுங்கள். சரியான உணவு, சரியான உடற்பயிற்சி, சரியான தூக்கம் ஆகிய மூன்றும் உங்களை நலமாக வாழ வைக்கும். விலை உயர்ந்த உணவுதான் சரியான உணவு என்று எண்ணாதீர்கள்.

எளிமையாகக் கிடைக்கக்கூடிய காய்கறிகள், கீரைகள், பழங்கள், சிறுதானியங்களை உணவில் சேர்த்துக் கொள்ளுங்கள். கணினித்திரையிலும் கைபேசியிலும் விளையாடுவதைத் தவிர்த்து நாள்தோறும் ஓடியாடி விளையாடுங்கள். இரவுத்தூக்கம் இன்றியமையாதது. உரிய நேரத்தில் உறங்கச் செல்லுங்கள்; அதிகாலையில் விழித்தெழுங்கள் உங்களை எந்த நோயும் அண்டாது.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Atomic Structure

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Atomic Structure Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Atomic Structure Question 1.
The same proportion of carbon and oxygen in the carbon dioxide obtained from different sources proves the law of
(a) reciprocal proportion
(b) definite proportion
(c) multiple proportion
(d) conservation of mass
Answer:
(b) definite proportion

Atomic Structure Book Back Answers Question 2.
Cathode rays are made up of –
(a) neutral particles
(b) positively charged particles
(c) negatively charged particles
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) negatively charged particles

Atomic Structure Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
In water, hydrogen and oxygen are combined in the ratio of by mass.
(a) 1 : 8
(b) 8 : 1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 1 : 3
Answer:
(a) 1 : 8

8th Standard Question 4.
Which of the following statements made by Dalton has not undergone any change?
(a) Atoms cannot be broken.
(b) Atoms combine in small, whole numbers to form compounds.
(c) Elements are made up of atoms.
(d) All atoms of an elements are alike
Answer:
(d) All atoms of an elements are alike

Question 5.
In all atoms of an element –
(a) the atomic and the mass number are same.
(b) the mass number is same and the atomic number is different.
(c) the atomic number is same and the mass number is different
(d) both atomic and mass numbers may vary.
Answer:
(a) the atomic and the mass number are same.

II. Fill in the blanks

1. …………….. is the smallest particle of an element.
2. An element is composed of …………….. atoms.
3. An atom is made up of …………….., …………….. and ……………..
4. A negatively charged ion is called …………….. while positively charged ion is called
5. …………….. is a negatively charged particle (Electron/Proton).
6. Proton is deflected towards the …………….. charged plate (positively, negatively).

Answer:

1. Atom
2. same kind of
3. proton, electron, neutron
4. anion, cation
5. Electron
6. negatively

III. Match the following

1. Law of Conservation of Mass – Sir William Crookes
2. Law of Constant Proportion – James Chadwick
3. Cathode rays – Joseph Proust
4. Anode rays – Lavoisier
5. Neutrons – Goldstein

Answer:

1. Law of Conservation of Mass – Lavoisier
2. Law of Constant Proportion – Joseph Proust
3. Cathode rays – Sir William Crookes
4. Anode rays – Goldstein
5. Neutrons – James Chadwick

IV. Answer briefly

Question 1.
State the Law of Conservation of Mass.
Answer:
The law states that during any chemical change, the total mass of the products is equal to the total mass of the reactants.

Question 2.
State the Law of Constant Proportions.
Answer:
Law of constant proportions states that in a pure chemical compound the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

Question 3.
Write the properties of anode rays.
Answer:
Properties of Anode rays:

1. Anode rays travel in straight lines.
2. Anode rays are made up of material particles.
3. Anode rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields. Since, they are deflected towards the negatively charged plate, they consist of positively charged particles.

Question 4.
Define valency of an element with respect to hydrogen.
Answer:
Valency of an element is defined as the number of hydrogen atoms which combine with one atom of it.

Question 5.
Define the term ions or radicals.
Answer:
An atom or a group of atoms when they either lose or gain electrons, get converted into ions or radicals.

Question 6.
What is a chemical equation?
Answer:
A chemical equation is a short hand representation of a chemical reaction with the help of chemical symbols and formula.

Question 7.
Write the names of the following compounds.

1. CO
2. N₂O
3. NO₂
4. PCl₅

Answer:

1. Carbon monoxide.
2. Nitrous oxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Phosphorous pentachloride

V. Answer the following

Question 1.
Find the valency of the element which is underlined in the following formula.

1. NaCl
2. CO₂
3. Al(PO₂)
4. Ba(NO₃)₂
5. CaCl₂

Answer:

1. NaCl = 1
2. CO₂ = 4
3. Al(PO₄) = 3
4. Ba(NO₃)₂ = 2
5. CaCl₂ = 2

Question 2.
Write the chemical formula for the following compounds

1. Aluminium sulphate
2. Silver nitrate
3. Magnesium oxide
4. Barium chloride

Answer:

1. Aluminium sulphate = Al₂(SO₄)₃
2. Silver nitrate = AgNO₃
3. Magnesium oxide = MgO
4. Barium chloride = BaCl₂

Question 3.
Write the skeleton equation for the following word equation and then balance them.

1. Carbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide
2. Phosphorus + Chlorine → Phosphorus pentachloride.
3. Sulphur + Oxygen → Sulphur dioxide
4. Magnesium + hydrogen chloride → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen

Answer:
Balanced equation:

1. C + O₂ → CO₂
2. P₄ + 10 Cl₂ → 4PCl₅
3. S + O₂ → SO₂
4. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂

Skeleton equation:

1. C + O₂ → CO₂
2. P + Cl₂ → PCl₅
3. S + O₂ → SO₂
4. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equation.

1. Na + O₂ → Na₂O
2. Ca + N₂ → Ca₃N₂
3. N₂ + H₂ → NH₃
4. CaCO₃ + HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O
5. Pb(NO₃)₂ → PbO + NO₂ + O₂

Answer:

1. 4Na + O₂ → 2Na₂O
2. 3Ca + N₂ → Ca₃N₂
3. N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
4. CaCO₂ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂
5. 2Pb (NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂

VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Why does a light paddle wheel placed in the path of cathode rays begin to rotate, when cathode rays fall on it?
Answer:
It is because the small particles of the cathode rays (electrons) have mass and energy. This energy is used in rotating the paddle wheels.

Question 2.
How can we prove that the electrons carry negative charge?
Answer:
J.J. Thomson found that cathode rays were attracted by the positively charged plate and repelled by the negatively charged plate. This led him to the conclusion that the cathode rays (electrons) were made of negatively charged particles.

Question 3.
Ruthresh, Hari, Kanishka and Thahera collected different samples of water from a well, a pond, a river and underground water. All these samples were sent to a testing laboratory. The test result showed the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen as 1:8.

1. What conclusion would you draw from the above experiment?
2. Which law of chemical combination does it obey?

Answer:

1. Water obtained from different sources like a well, a pond, a river and underground water will always consist of the same two elements hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1 : 8 by mass.
2. It obeys the law of constant proportion.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Atomic Structure Intext Activitics

Activity – 2

Question 1.
Classify the following ions into monovalent, divalent and trivalent.
Ni²⁺, Fe³⁺, Cu²⁺, Ba²⁺, Cs⁺, Zn²⁺, Cd²⁺, Hg²⁺, Pb²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺, CO²⁺, Sr²⁺, Cr³⁺, Li⁺, Ca²⁺, Al³⁺
Answer:

• Monovalent ions – Li⁺, Cs⁺
• Divalent ions – Ni²⁺, Cu²⁺, Ba²⁺, Zn²⁺, Cd²⁺, Hg²⁺, Pb²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺, CO²⁺, Ca²⁺, Sr²⁺
• Trivalent ions – Fe³⁺, Cr³⁺, Al³⁺

Activity – 3

Question 1.
Write the chemical formula of the compounds

Answer:

Activity – 4

Question 1.
Write the names of the chemical compounds.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Atomic Structure Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which of the following scientists observed that cathode rays consists of negatively charged particles?
(a) John Dalton
(b) J.J. Thomson
(c) James Chadwick
(d) Democritus
Answer:
(b) J.J. Thomson

Question 2.
The outer most shell of an atom is known as ………………..
(a) valency
(b) valence electron
(c) nucleus
(d) valance shell
Answer:
(d) valance shell

Question 3.
The valency of which of the element is zero.
(a) iron
(b) hydrogen
(c) helium
(d) oxygen
Answer:
(c) helium

Question 4.
The equation Na + H₂O → NaOH + H₂ is ………………
(a) correct
(b) iricorrect since it is not balanced
(c) incorrect since hydrogen should be written as H and not H₂
(d) None
Answer:
(b) ipcorrect since it is not balanced

Question 5.
Whatis the valency of carbon?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 6.
Metals form ……………..
(a) anions
(b) cations
(c) both a and b
(d) none
Answer:
(b) cations

Question 7.
Isotopes exist because atoms of the same element can have different numbers of –
(a) protons
(b) neutrons
(c) electrons
(d) none
Answer:
(b) neutrons

Question 8.
An atom differs from its ion in ………………
Answer:
(a) nuclear charge
(b) mass number
(c) number of electrons
(d) number of protons
Answer:
(c) number of electrons

Question 9.
What is the atomic number of an element whose electronic configuration is 2, 8, 1?
(a) 10
(b) 23
(c) 11
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 11

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Isotopes have the same ……………… number but different ……………… numbers.
2. ……………… have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
3. Crookes Rays are also called as ……………….
4. Cathode rays are made up of material particles which have mass and ……………….
5. A proton can be defined as a ………………
6. Atoms of all metals will have …………….. electrons in their outermost orbit.
7. All non – metals will have ……………… electrons in the outermost orbit of their atoms.
8. Atoms which carry positive or negative charges are called ……………….
9. Maximum number of electrons that can be present in N shell is ……………….
10. The atomic theory was first proposed by ……………….

Answer:

1. atomic, mass
2. Isobars
3. Cathode rays
4. kinetic energy
5. hydrogen ion
6. 1 to 3
7. 4 to 7
8. ions
9. 32
10. Dalton

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Anode rays travel in straight lines.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
James Chadwick discovered the fundamental particle called proton.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
James Chadwick discovered the fundamental particle called neutron.

Question 3.
Relative charge of an electron is – 1.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Atoms of the same element are identical in all respects.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The first scientific theory about atom was given by J J. Thomson.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The first scientific theory about atom was given by John Dalton.

Question 6.
In television tube, Cathode rays are deflected by magnetic fields.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
An atom has a number of orbits and each orbit has protons.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
An atom has a number of orbits and each orbit has electrons.

Question 8.
The combining capacity of an atom is called valency.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Helium has two electrons in the outermost orbit and so it is chemically inert.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
When an atom gains an electron it has more number of electrons and thus it carries positive charge.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
When an atom gains an electron it has more number of electrons and thus it carries negative charge.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1.	J.J. Thomson	(a)	Law of definite proportions
2.	Air	(b)	Law of indestructibility of mass
3.	Hydrogen ion	(c)	Poor conductor of electricity
4.	Law of constant proportions	(d)	Plum pudding model
5.	Law of conservation of mass	(e)	H+

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. e
4. a
5. b

Question 2.

1.	Crooke’s tube	(a)	Negatively charged particles
2.	Cathode rays	(b)	Cathode ray tube
3.	Proton	(c)	Positively charged particles
4.	Anode rays	(d)	1.6 x 10-24 g

Answer:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c

V. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : Proton can be defined as a hydrogen ion (H⁺).
Reason : These protons are produced when one electron is removed from one hydrogen atom.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Helium has four electrons in the outermost orbit.
Reason : Neon has eight electron in the outermost orbit.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What is an atom?
Answer:
Atom is the smallest particle of matter that takes part in a chemical reaction.

Question 2.
What is electrical discharge?
Answer:
When electricity passes through air, remove the electrons*from the gaseous atoms and produces ions. This is called electrical discharge.

Question 3.
What is the charge of a neutron?
Answer:
Neutron is a neutral particle, that is it carries no charge.

Question 4.
Define electronic configuration.
Answer:
The arrangement of electrons in the orbits is known as electronic configuration.

Question 5.
Define Orbits.
Answer:
Electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular fixed paths is called orbits or shells.

Question 6.
Name the subatomic particles of an atom.
Answer:
Proton, electron and neutron.

Question 7.
Define nucleus.
Answer:
The nucleus is the central dense core of the atom consisting of neutrons and protons.

Question 8.
What is a reactant in a chemical equation?
Answer:
Reactant is the substance that take part in a chemical reaction.

Question 9.
What is a product in a chemical equation?
Answer:
Product is the substance that are formed in a chemical reaction.

Question 10.
What are the two types of valency?
Answer:
Positive valency and negative valency.

Question 11.
Write any two advantages of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:

1. Dalton’s theory explains most of the properties of gases and liquids.
2. This explains the law of chemical combination and the law of conservation of mass.

Question 12.
Write any two limitations of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:

1. Atom is no longer considered as the smallest indivisible particle.
2. Substances made up of same kind of atoms may have different properties.

Question 13.
What are fluorescent materials?
Answer:
When invisible radiation falls on materials like zinc sulphite, they emit a visible light (or glow). These materials are called fluorescent.

Question 14.
Write the properties of neutrons.
Answer:

1. Neutron is a neutral particle, that is, it carries no charge.
2. It has mass equal to that of a proton that is 1.6 x 10^-24 g.

Question 15.
An atom is electrically neutral. Give reason.
Answer:
The total number of protons present in an atom is equal to the total number of electrons, thus balancing the total charge of the atom.

Question 16.
What is atomic number?
Answer:
The total number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom is called its atomic number.

Question 17.
What is mass number?
Answer:
The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called as mass number.

Question 18.
Mention any two information conveyed by a balanced chemical equation.
Answer:

1. Balanced chemical equation gives us both qualitative and quantitative information.
2. We can get quantitative information like the number of molecules/atoms of the reactants and products that is taking part in the reaction.

Question 19.
What is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
A balanced chemical equation is one in which the total number of atoms of any element on the reactant side is equal to die total number of atoms of that element on the product side.

Question 20.
Draw a diagram to show the electronic configuration of sodium atom.
Answer:

Question 21.
Draw a diagram to show the electronic configuration of chlorine atom.
Answer:

Question 22.
Name the four laws of chemical combinations.
Answer:

1. Law of conservation of mass
2. Law of constant proportion
3. Law of multiple proportion
4. Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes.

Question 23.
Write the names for the following compounds,

1. Aluminium sulphate
2. Silver nitrate.

Answer:

1. Al₂(SO₄)₃
2. AgNO₃

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.

1. Explain J.J. Thomson’s atom model with the help of a diagram.
2. Write the limitations of Thomson’s Atom model.

Answer:
1. J.J. Thomson’s atom model with the help of a diagram:

• Thomson proposed that the shape of an atom resembles a sphere having a radius of the order of 10^-10m.
• The positively charged particles are uniformly distributed with electrons arranged in such a manner that the atom is electrically neutral.
• Thomson’s atom model was also called as the plum pudding model or the watermelon model.
• The embedded electrons resembled the seed of watermelon while the watermelon’s red mass represented the positive charge distribution.
• The plum pudding atomic theory assumed that the mass of an atom is uniformly distributed all over the atom.

2. Limitations of Thomson’s Atom model:

• Thomson’s model failed to explain how the positively charged sphere is shielded from the negatively charged electrons without getting neutralized.
• This theory explains only about the protons and electrons and failed to explain the presence of neutral particle neutron.

Question 2.
Write a note on valency with respect to –

1. Chlorine
2. Oxygen.

Answer:
1. Valency with respect to Chlorine:

• Since valency of chlorine is one, the number of chlorine atoms with which one atom of an element can combine is called valency.
• In sodium chloride (NaCl) molecule, one chlorine atom combines with one sodium atom. So, the valency of sodium is one.
• But, in magnesium chloride (MgCl₂) valency of magnesium is two because it combines with two chlorine atoms.

2. Valency with respect to oxygen:

• Valency can be defined as double the number of oxygen atoms with which one atom of an element can combine because valency of oxygen is two.
• For example, in magnesium oxide (MgO) valency of magnesium is two.

Question 3.
Write the steps are followed to write down the chemical formula of a substance.
Answer:
Step 1:
Write down the symbols of elements/ions side by side so that the positive radical is on the left and the negative radical is on the right hand side.

Step 2:
Write the valencies of the two radicals above their symbols to the right in superscript (Signs ‘+’ and ‘-‘ of the ions are omitted).

Step 3:
Reduce the valencies to simplest ratio if needed. Otherwise interchange the valencies of the elements/ions. Write these numbers as subscripts. However, ‘1’ appearing on the superscript of the symbol is omitted.

Question 4.
What are the steps involved in writing the skeletal equation?
Answer:
The following are the steps involved in writing the skeletal equation:

1. Write the symbols and formula of each of the reactants on the left hand side (LHS) and join them by plus (+) sign.
2. Follow them by an arrow (→) which is interpreted as gives or forms.
3. Write on the right hand side (RHS) of arrow the symbols and formula for each of the products.
4. The equation thus written is called as skeleton equation (unbalanced equation).
5. If the product is a gas it should be represented by upward arrow (↑) and if it is a precipitate it should be represented by downward arrow (↓).
   Example: Mg + H₂SO₂ → MgSO₄ + H₂ ↑

Question 5.
What are the points to be followed while balancing a chemical equation?
Answer:
1. Initially the number of times an element occurs on both sides of the skeleton equation should be counted.

2. An element which occurs least number of times in reactant and product side must be balanced first. Then, elements occuring two times, elements occuring three times and so on in an increasing order must be balanced.

3. When two or more elements occur same number of times, the metallic element is balanced first in preference to non – metallic element. If more than one metal or nonmetal is present then a metal or non-metal with higher atomic mass (refer periodic table to find the atomic mass) is balanced first.

4. The number of molecules of reactants and products are written as coefficient.

5. The formula should not be changed to make the elements equal.

6. Fractional method of balancing must be employed only for molecule of an element (O₂, H₂,O₃, P₄,…) not for compound (H₂O, NH₃,…).

Question 6.
What information are not conveyed by a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:

1. Physical state of the reactants and the products.
2. Heat changes (heat liberated or heat absorbed) accompanying the chemical reaction.
3. Conditions such as temperature, pressure, catalyst etc., under which the reaction takes place.
4. Concentration (dilute or concentrated) of the reactants and products.
5. Speed of the reaction.

Question 7.
Explain the specific ways to be followed while naming chemical compounds?
Answer:
1. In naming a compound containing a metal and a non-metal, the name of the metal is written first and the name of the non-metal is written next after adding the suffix-ide to its name.
Examples:
NaCl – Sodium chloride
AgBr – Silver bromide

2. In naming a compound containing a metal, a non-metal and oxygen, name of the metal is written first and name of the non-metal with oxygen is written next after adding the suffix- ate (for more atoms of oxygen) or -ite (for less atoms of oxygen) to its name.
Examples:
Na₂ SO₄ – Sodium sulphate
Na ₂ – Sodium nitrite

3. In naming a compound containing two non – metals only, the prefix mono, di, tri, tetra, penta etc. is written before the name of non – metals.
Examples:
SO₂ – Sulphur dioxide
N₂O₅ – Dinitrogen pentoxide.

Question 8.
Derive the chemical formula for calcium chloride.
Answer:

• Step 1 – Write the symbols of calcium and chlorine side by side. Ca Cl
• Step 2 – Write the valencies of calcium and chlorine above their symbols to the right. Ca² Cl¹.
• Step 3 – Interchange the valencies of elements. Ca Cl₂.

Thus the chemical formula for calcium chloride is CaCl2.

Question 9.
Describe an experiment to prove that during a chemical charge, the total mass of matter remains the same.
Answer:
1. Prepare 5% of barium chloride (5g of BaCL in 100 ml of water) and sodium sulphatesolutions separately.

2. Take some solution of sodium sulphate in a conical flask and some solution of barium chloride in a test tube.

3. Hang the test tube in the conical flask.

4. Weigh the flask with its contents. Now mix the two solutions by tilting and swirling the flask. Weigh the flask after the chemical reaction is occurred.

5. Record your observation. It can be seen that the weight of the flask and the contents remains the same before and after the chemical change.

6. Hence, it is proved that during a chemical change, the total mass of matter remains the same.

Question 10.
Explain the advantages and limitations of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:
Advantages of Dalton’s Atomic Theory:

1. Dalton’s theory explains most of the properties of gases and liquids.
2. This explains the laws of chemical combination and the law of conservation of mass.
3. This theory helps to recognize the molecular differences of elements and compounds.

Limitations of Dalton’s Atomic Theory:

1. Atom is no longer considered as the smallest indivisible particle.
2. Atoms of the same element have different masses (Isotopes).
3. Atoms of the different elements may have same masses (Isobars).
4. Substances made up of same kind of atoms may have different properties
5. Example: Coal, Graphite and Diamond are made up of carbon atoms but they differ in their properties

Question 11.
Explain the construction of cathode Ray Tube (CRT) with a diagram.
Answer:

1. Cathode Ray Tube is a long glass tube filled with gas and sealed at both the ends.
2. It consists of two metal plates (which act as electrodes) connected with high voltage.
3. The electrode which is connected to the negative terminal of the battery is. called the cathode (negative electrode).
4. The electrode connected to the positive terminal is called the anode(positive electrode).
5. There is a side tube which is connected to a pump.
6. The pump is used to lower the pressure inside the discharge tube.

Question 12.
Explain the properties of Cathode rays.
Answer:
Properties of Cathode rays:

1. Cathode rays travel in straight line from cathode towards anode.
2. Cathode rays are made up of material particles which have mass and kinetic energy.
3. Cathode rays are deflected by both electric and magnetic fields. They are negatively charged particles.
4. The nature of the cathode rays does not depend on the nature of the gas filled inside the tube or the cathode used.

Question 13.
Write the main postulates of Dalton’s Atomic theory.
Answer:
The nain postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory are:

1. All the matters are made up of extremely small particles called atoms (Greek philosopher Democritus used the same name for the smallest indivisible particles).
2. Atoms of the same element are identical in all respects (size, shape, mass and properties).
3. Atoms of different elements have different sizes and masses and possess different properties.
4. Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed, i.e., atom is indestructible.
5. Atoms of different elements may combine with each other in a fixed simple ratio to form molecules or compounds.
6. An atom is the smallest particle of matter that takes part in a chemical reaction.

Question 14.
Complete the table:

Answer:

1. Oxide
2. 2
3. OH^–
4. H₂CO₃

VIII. Solve the following crossword puzzle with the help of the given clues.

Question 1.
Across:
1. The particles that build up an atom.
3. The arrangement of electrons in a succession of energy levels or shells.
5. An electrically neutral sub atomic particle that is part of the nucleus of an atom.
6. A whole number that represents the ability of an atom or a group of atoms to combine with other atoms or group of atoms.
7. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
8. The smallest unit of an element that maintains the properties of an element.
A sub – atomic particle that has a positive electric charge.
Down:
2. A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substance by chemical means.
4. The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom.
9. An ion that has a negative charge.
11 A sub – atomic particle with a negative electric charge.
12. Positively charged ions.
Answer:

Students can Download English Poem 3 Fire Work Night Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 3 Fire Work Night

A. Answer the following questions.

Fireworks Night Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why was the dog frightened?
Answer:
The dog was frightened by the fireworks on a bonfire night.

Firework Night Poem Summary Question 2.
Whom did the dog ask for help?
Answer:
The dog asked the mistress and master for help.

Firework Night Poem Question 3.
What did the dog do when the door is opened?
Answer:
The dog rushed in, when the door was opened.

Firework Night Poem Line By Line Summary Question 4.
Where did the dog hide himself?
Answer:
The dog hid himself behind the couch.

Question 5.
Where will the dog go when the firework stops?
Answer:
He will go to his kennel, when the firework stops

B. Literary appreciation

(a)
Mistress, Master, hear me yelp,
I’m out-of-doors, I want your help.
Let me in-oh, LET ME IN
Before those fireworks begin

Write the rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines.
Answer:
The rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines is ‘aabb’.

(b)
To shoot again I can’t bear that;
My tall is down, my ears are flat,
I’m trembling here outside the door,
Oh, don’t you love me anymore?
Write the rhyming words from the above poetic lines
Answer:
The rhyming words are ‘that – flat’ and ‘door – anymore’

Rhyming words.
Match the rhyming words from the poem.

1. Hark	(a) do
2. Too	(b) fright
3. Yelp	(c) dark
4. Grand	(d) crouch
5. Couch	(e) help
6. Night	(f) hand

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (f)
5. (d)
6. (b)

Figure of speech.

Fire Work Night Question 1.
What is being personified in the sentence – ‘The full moon peeped through partial clouds’?
Answer:
The full moon is being personified here. It peeps through the partial clouds.

Fire Work Night Poem Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of personification?
(a) The chocolates smelled like delicious cake.
(b) The chocolates smell delicious.
(c) The delicious smell of chocolates invited me to eat them.
(d) I dreamt of delicious chocolates.
Answer:
(c) The delicious smell of chocolates invited me to eat them. ]

Fireworks Night Summary Question 3.
Personification is _______
(a) giving human attributes to human beings.
(b) comparing unrelated things.
(c) giving human attributes to non-human objects.
(d) talking the negative aspects of a person.
Answer:
(c) giving human attributes to non-human objects.

Fire Works Night Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension.

Fireworks Night Book Back Answers Question 1.
Mistress, Master, hear me yelp,
(a) Who is yelping?
Answer:
The dog is yelping.

(b) What does the word ‘yelp’ mean?
Answer:
It means ‘a sharp painful cry’.

Fireworks Poem Summary Question 2.
Oh, don’t you love me anymore?
(a) Who is the dog questioning?
Answer:
The dog is questioning the mistress.
(b) Why is he asking such a question?
Answer:
He is asking this question because he has been left outside and no one is responding to his cry.

II. Poetic Devices.

Fireworks Night Poem Summary In English Question 1.
Before these fireworks begin
(a) Pick out the words in alliteration.
Answer:
Before – begin are the words in alliteration.

Fireworks Night Question Answer Question 2.
The lights are on, it’s warm andgrand-
Mistress, let me lick your hand
Before I slip behind the couch.
There I’ll hide myself and crouch
(a) Write the rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines.
Answer:
The rhyme scheme of the above poetic lines is ‘aabb’.

III. Short Questions and Answers.

Fireworks Night Poem Question 1.
When were the fireworks burst?
Answer:
They were burst on a bonfire night.

Fire Works Night Question 2.
Why were the ears of the dog flat?
Answer:
The ears of the dog were flat because it was scared.

Fireworks Poem Questions And Answers Question 3.
What did the dog feel, when it went in?
Answer:
The dog felt warm, and safe inside the house.

Fireworks Night Poem 8th Standard Question 4.
What did the mistress ask her children?
Answer:
She asked them whether she can allow the dog into the house.

Firework At Night Question 5.
Why did the dog say that he would guard the mistress safely all the night?
Answer:
The dog said that he would guard the mistress safely because she understood his fright. ‘

IV. Paragraph Question with Answer.

Firework Night Question 1.
Narrate the fright of the dog left outside the house?
Answer:
The dog is left outside the house on a bonfire night. He gets scared by the sound and bursting of fireworks. He requests his mistress and master to allow him into the house. He is unable to bear the loud bang sound. Out of fear, his tail is down and the ears are flat. He trembles outside the door. He says that he will die with fright, if they don’t allow him into the house. As soon as the mistress opens the door, he rushes through and feels safe inside. It feels grateful to her mistress.

Fire Work Night Summary

The poem focuses on a dog being scared by the fireworks on a Bonfire night. A dog requests his mistress to let him into the house as he is scared of the guns shooting at night. He couldn’t bear the loud ‘bang’ sound. Out of fear, his tail is down and his ears are flat. He is trembling outside the door. He says that he will die with fright, if they don’t allow him into the house.

The mistress opens the door wide and the dog rushes in. He feels safe inside, as the lights are on. It is warm and grand inside. He feels grateful to the mistress and wants to show it by licking her hand, before he slips behind the couch. He will hide there and crouch in safety till the bangs are done. After that, he will run to his kennel and guard her safely because she understood his fright.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Rural Life and Society

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Rural Life and Society Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Which system was called by different names like Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari etc.?
(a) Mahalwari
(b) Ryotwari
(c) Zamindari
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Question 2.
Under which Governor General did the permanent settlement implemented in Bengal.
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Minto
Answer:
(b) Lord Cornwallis

Rural Life And Society Question 3.
What was the Mahal in the Mahalwari system?
(a) House
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) Palace
Answer:
(c) Village

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Solutions Question 4.
In which region was the Mahalwari system imposed?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madras
(c) Bengal
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(d) Punjab

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Answers Question 5.
Who among the following Governors introduced Mahalwari system?
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Answer:
(d) Lord William Bentinck

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Pdf Question 6.
In which region was the Ryotwari system not introduced by the British?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Bengal
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Bengal

Rural Life And Society Answer Key Question 7.
The Indigo revolt was led by whom?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Keshab Chandra Roy
(c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer:
(c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas

Rural Life And Society In Tamil Question 8.
The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by whom?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) DigambarBiswas
(d) Keshab Chandra Roy
Answer:
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… is the modified version of the Zamindari system.
2. The Mahalwari system was a Brain child of ……………….
3. Indigo Revolt took place in ……………….
4. Maplah Rebellion was held in ……………….
5. The Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in ……………….

Answer:

1. Mahalwari system
2. Holt Mackenzie
3. Bengal
4. Malabar (Kerala)
5. May 1918]

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. i
4. ii
5. v.

IV. State true or false

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Exercise Question 1.
Warren Hastings introduced quinquennial land settlement.
Answer:
True

Rural Life And Society Mcq Question 2.
Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro.
Answer:
True

Rural Life And Society Class 8 Pdf Download Question 3.
Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Gujarat.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Bengal.

Rural Life And Society Answer Sheet Question 4.
The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1918.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1900.

V. Consider the following statement and tick appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is not true about Zamindari system?

1. This settlement was introduced in 1793.
2. The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
3. This system secured a fixed a stable income for the cultivators.
4. This practice was applicable to the area of 19% of India.

Answer:
3. This system secured a fixed a stable income for the cultivators.

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is correct about Peasants revolt in India?

1. The Santhal rebellion was held in Bengal.
2. DinabandhuMitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.
3. The Deccan riots started from a village at Pune in 1873.
4. The Moplah peasants rebellion was held in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
2. DinabandhuMitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
List out any two salient features of the Permanent settlement?
Answer:
Salient features of the Permanent settlement:

1. The Zamindars were recognised as the owners of land as long as they paid the revenue to the East India Company regularly.
2. The Zamindars acted as the agent of the Government for the collection of revenue from the cultivators.

Question 2.
What were the salient features of the Ryotwari system?
Answer:
Salient features of the Ryotwari system:

1. Revenue settlement was done directly with the ryots.
2. Measurement of field and an estimate of produce was calculated.
3. Government fixed the demand at 45 to 55 percent of the produce.

Question 3.
Bring out the effects of the Mahalwari settlement.
Answer:
Effects of the Mahalwari settlement:

1. The Lambardar enjoyed privileges which was misused for their self – interest.
2. This system brought no benefit to the cultivators.
3. It was a modified version of the Zamindari system and benefited the upper class in villages.

Question 4.
What was the cause of Indigo Revolt in 1859 – 60?
Answer:

1. The European indigo planters compelled the tenant farmers to grow indigo at terms highly disadvantageous to the farmers.

2. The tenant farmer was forced to sell it cheap to the planter and accepted advances from the planter that benefitted the latter. There were also cases of kidnapping, looting, flogging and burning.

3. Led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Charan Biswas, the ryots of Nadia district gave up indigo cultivation in September 1859. Factories were burnt down and the revolt spread.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Mahatma Gandhi on Champaran Satyagraha?
Answer:

1. The European planters of Champaran in Bihar resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which was wholly unjust.
2. The peasants were liable to unlawful extortion and oppression by the planters.
3. Mahatma Gandhi took up their cause. The Government appointed an enquiry commission of which Mahatma Gandhi was a member.
4. The grievances of the peasants were enquired and ultimately the Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in May 1918.

Question 6.
Mention the role of Vallabhai Patel in Bardoli Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. In 1928, the peasants of Bardoli (Gujarat) started their agitation under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, in protest against the government’s proposal to increase land revenue by 30 percent.

2. The peasants refused to pay tax at the enhanced rate and started no – tax campaign from 12 February 1928. Many women also participated in this campaign.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the merits and demerits of the Permanent settlement.
Answer:
Merits:

• Under this system many of the waste lands and forests became cultivable lands.
• The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
• The Zamindars were made free from the responsibility of providing justice.
• The Zamindars remained faithful to the British Government.
• This system secured a fixed and stable income for the British Government.

Demerits:

• The British Government had no direct contact with the cultivators.
• The rights of the cultivators were ignored and they were left at the mercy of the Zamindars.
• The peasants were almost treated as serfs.
• This system was made the Zamindars lethargic and luxurious.
• Many conflicts between the zamindars and the peasants arose in rural Bengal.

Question 2.
What were the impacts of the British Land Revenue system on the cultivators?
Answer:
Impact of the British land revenue system on the cultivators:

1. A common feature of all the settlements was the assessment and the maximize income from land. It resulted in increasing land sales and dispossession.

2. The peasants were overburdened with taxation. Due to the tax burden and famines, in general, the people suffered in poverty and burdened with debts. They had to seek the moneylenders who became rich and acquired lands from the peasants.

3. The Zamindars, money – lenders and lawyers exploited the poor peasants.

4. The stability and continuity of the Indian villages was shaken.

5. Cottage industries disappeared on account of the import of British goods and the peasants had nothing to supplement their income.

6. The old body of custom was replaced by new apparatus of law, courts, fees, lawyers and formal procedures.

7. The British policy proved advantageous only to the government of a privileged section of the society at the cost of the cultivators who were the rightful owners of their lands and claimants of the larger share of the produce.

Question 3.
Write a paragraph about the Moplah Rebellion?
Answer:
Moplah Rebellion (1921):

1. The Muslim Moplah (or Moplah) peasants of Malabar (Kerala) was suppressed and exploited by the Hindu zamindars (Jenmis) and British government.

2. This was the main cause of this revolt.

3. The Moplah peasants got momentum from the Malabar District Conference, held in April 1920.

4. This conference supported the tenants’ cause, and demanded legislations for regulating landlord-tenant relations.

5. In August 1921, the Moplah tenants rebelled against the oppressive zamindars. In the initial phase of the rebellion, the Moplah peasants attacked the police stations, public offices, communications and houses of oppressive landlords and moneylenders.

6. By December 1921, the government ruthlessly suppressed the Moplah rebellion.

7. According to an official estimate, as a result of government intervention, 2337 Moplah rebels were killed, 1650 wounded and more than 45,000 captured as prisoners.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Apart from the exploiting through taxes, how did the British further exploit the land?
Answer:
Apart from the taxes, the British followed the policy of commercialization of Agriculture which was a major set back for Indian farmers. They were forced to grow the soil fertility deteriorating cash crops such as opium. Jute, Indigo etc., Agricultural prices shot up by 31%. They were threatened if they failed to grow these crops.

IX. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Point out the influence which shaped Gandhiji’s ideas on Ahimsa and Satyagraha.
Answer:
The 21 years Gandhiji spent in South Africa offered him valuable insights in familiarizing himself with the inhuman situations that existed outside as well as helping him develop appropriate concepts and techniques of nonviolent defence. He resisted non – violently any oppression and exhorted the Indians to take part in public activities.

For him, South Africa was the place where he first tried methods of non violence and after 20 years of relentless struggle he won finally against the whites.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Rural Life and Society Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………….. was the primary occupation of the Indians, in the pre – colonial period.
(a) Banking
(b) Agriculture
(c) Mining
(d) Fishing
Answer:
(b) Agriculture

Question 2.
By …………….. system, the rights of ownership was handed over to the peasants.
(a) Zamindari
(b) Jagirdari
(c) Malguzari
(d) Ryotwari
Answer:
(d) Ryotwari

Question 3.
Initially, the British Government fixed …………….. of the estimated produce as rent.
(a) One – half
(b) One – fourth
(c) One – third
(d) One – eight
Answer:
(a) one – half

Question 4.
William Bentinck reduced the state share of revenue to ……………..
(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(c) 50%

Question 5.
The newspaper, …………….. brought to light the misery of the cultivators several times.
(a) Times of India
(b) Swadesha Mitran
(c) Indian Express
(d) Hindu Patriot
Answer:
(d) Hindu Patriot

6. The peasant revolt which started in Poona in 1875 is called the ………………
(a) Punjab peasant movement
(b) Deccan Riots
(c) Indigo revolt
(d) Pabna revolt
Answer:
(b) Deccan Riots

Question 7.
In the Kheda district of Gujarat, agriculture failed in 1918 due to ………………
(a) Floods
(b) Cyclone
(c) Famine
(d) Earthquake
Answer:
(c) Famine

Question 8.
…………….. emerged as an important leader of Indian freedom struggle during the Kheda Satyagraha.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawahar lal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Vinobha Bhave
Answer:
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 9.
…………….. broke out in the year 1921.
(a) Moplah Rebellion
(b) Bardoli Satyagraha
(c) Kheda Satyagraha
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(a) Moplah Rebellion

Question 10.
The lands of the peasants of Bardoli were returned when the …………….. came to power in 1937.
(a) Communists
(b) Socialists
(c) Congress
(d) British
Answer:
(c) Congress

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The economic exploitation of the …………….. led to the revolts in future.
2. During the time of Cornwallis, a …………….. settlement of land revenue was introduced.
3. As per the permanent settlement, all judicial powers were taken away from the ……………..
4. By Ryotwari system, the revenue was based on the basis of the …………….. and the nature of the ……………..
5. Radical changes were brought in the Mahalwari system by the guidance of …………….. in 1832.
6. The village as a whole had to pay the revenue through its ……………..
7. The land near the hills of or Rajmahal in Bihar was cultivated by the ……………..
8. The Pabna revolt was led by ……………..
9. During the Deccan riots, the peasants looted the property of ……………..
10. The Deccan riots resulted in passing of the …………….. Act.

Answer:

1. Peasants
2. Ten years (decennial)
3. Zamindars
4. Soil, Crop
5. Robert Martins Bird
6. headman or Lambardar
7. Santhals
8. Keshab Chandra Roy
9. Marwari Sahukars
10. Deccan Agriculturalist Relief

V. Match the following

1. iv
2. v
3. ii
4. iii
5. i

IV. State True or False

Question 1.
According to Permanent settlement, the Zamindars granted patta to the ryots.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Under Ryotwari system, rents would be periodically revised, generally after 5 to 10 years.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Under Ryotwari system, rents would be periodically revised, generally after 20 to 30 years.

Question 3.
The Santhal rebellion continued till 1856.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Under the Tinkathia system in Champaran, the peasants were bound by law to grow indigo on 2/20 part of their land.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Under the Tinkathia system in Champaran, the peasants were bound by law to grow indigo on 3/20 part of their land.

V. Consider the following statement and tick appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not true about Pabna Revolt.

1. Pabna Peasant Uprising was, a resistance movement by the peasants against the oppression of the Zamindars.
2. It was led by Dinabandhu Mitra.
3. Peasants were often evicted from land on the pretext of non payment of rent.
4. There were only a few cases of looting of the houses of the Zamindars.

Answer:
2. It was led by Dinabandhu Mitra

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is collect about the land revenue policies in India?

1. As per the permanent settlements, the ryots became tenants since they were considered the fillers of the soil.
2. Under the Ryotwari system, the Government exploited the Zamindars.
3. Under the Mahalwari system one person could hold only one village.
4. As per the Mahalwari system, the village land belonged to the Zamindars.

Answer:
1. As per the permanent settlements, the ryots became tenants since they were considered the fillers of the soil.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Where were Permanent settlements made in British India?
Answer:
Permanent settlement were made in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi division of U.P., and Northern Karnataka, which roughly covered 19 percent of the total area of British India.

Question 2.
Name the areas where Ryotwari system was introduced?
Answer:
Major areas of introduction of Ryotwari system included Madras, Bombay, parts of Assam, and Coorg provinces of British India.

Question 3.
What were the effects of the Ryotwari settlement?
Effects of the Ryotwari Settlement:

1. In most areas the land revenue fixed was excessive the ryots were hardly left with bare maintenance even in the best of seasons.
2. Under this system the government exploited the farmers instead of zamindars.

Question 4.
What was the major cause of the Pabna revolt?
Answer:

1. Pabna Peasant Uprising was a resistance movement by the peasants against the oppression of the Zamindars.
2. The zamindars routinely collected money from the peasants by the illegal means of forced levy, abwabs, enhanced rent and so on. Peasants were often evicted from land on the pretext of non – payment of rent.

Question 5.
How did the Deccan Riots spread?
Answer:

1. In 1875, the peasants revolted in the district of Poona.
2. Primarily against the oppression of local moneylenders who were grabbing their lands systematically.
3. The uprising started from a village in Poona district when the village people forced out a local moneylender from the village and captured his property.
4. Gradually, the uprising spread over 33 villages and the peasants looted the property of Marwari Sahukars.
5. The uprising turned into violent when the Sahukars took help of the police.

Question 6.
Why was the ‘Punjab Land Alienation ‘ Act passed by the British?
Answer:

1. The peasants of the Punjab agitated against the urban moneylenders. The Government of India did not want any revolt in that province which provided a large number of soldiers to the British army in India.

2. In order to protect the peasants of the Punjab, the Punjab Land Alienation Act was passed in 1900 “as an experimental measure” to be extended to the rest of India if it worked successfully in the Punjab.

Question 7.
How did the Punjab Land Alienation Act divide the population of Punjab?
Answer:
The Act divided the population of the Punj ab into three categories viz., the agricultural classes, the statutory agriculturist class and the rest of the population including the moneylenders.

Question 8.
How was the Kheda Satyagraha organised by Gandhiji?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji organised the peasants to offer Satyagraha and opposed official insistence on full collection of oppressive land revenue despite the conditions of famine.

2. He inspired the peasants to be fearless and face all consequences. The response to his call was unprecedented and the government had to bow to a settlement with the peasants.

Question 9.
What was the result of the Bacholi Satyagraha?
Answer:
In 1930, the peasants of Bardoli rose to a man, refused to pay taxes, faced the auction sales and the eventual loss of almost all of their lands but refused to submit to the Government. However, all their lands were returned to them when the Congress came to power in 1937.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Explain the course and features of the Mahalwari system.
Answer:
1. Mahalwari system, was a modified version of the Zamindari settlement introduced in the Ganga valley, the North – West Province, parts of the Central India and Punjab in 1822.

2. Lord William Bentinck was to suggest radical changes in the Mahalwari system.

3. Assessment of revenue was to be made on the basis of the produce of a Mahal or village. All the proprietors of a Mahal were severally and jointly responsible for the payment of revenue.

4. Initially the state share was fixed two-thirds of the gross produce. Bentinck, therefore, reduced to fifty percent. The village as a whole, through its headman or Lambardar, was required to pay the revenue.

5. This system was first adopted in Agra and Awadh, and later extended to other parts of the United Provinces. The burden of all this heavy taxation finally fell on the cultivators.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
1. The first revolt which can be regarded as peasants’ revolt was the Santhal Rebellion in 1855 – 56.

2. The land near the hills of Rajmahal in Bihar was cultivated by the Santhals.

3. The landlords and money – lenders from the cities took advantage of their ignorance and began grabbing their lands. This created bitter resentment among them leading to their armed uprising in 1855.

4. Consequently, under the belief of a divine order, around 10,000 Santals gathered under two Santhal brothers, Siddhu and Kanhu, to free their country of the foreign oppressors and set up a government of their own.

5. The rebellion assumed a formidable shape within a month. The houses of the European planters, British officers, railway engineers, zamindars and moneylenders were attacked.

6. The rebellion continued till February 1856, when the rebel leaders were captured and the movement was put down with a heavy hand.

7. The government declared the Parganas inhabited by them as Santhal Parganas so that their lands and identity could be safeguarded from external encroachments.

Question 3.
Narrate the course of the Pabna Revolt.
Answer:
1. Large crowds of peasants gathered and marched through villages frightening the zamindars and appealing to other peasants to join with them. Funds were raised from the ryots to meet the costs.

2. The struggle gradually spread throughout Pabna and then to the other districts of East Bengal.

3. Everywhere agrarian leagues were organized. The main form of struggle was that of legal resistance. There was very little violence.

4. It occurred only when the zamindars tried to compel the ryots to submit to their terms by force. There were only a few cases of looting of the houses of the zamindars.

5. A few attacks on police stations took place and the peasants also resisted attempts to execute court decrees. Hardly zamindars or zamindar’s agent were killed or seriously injured.

6. In the course of the movement, the ryots developed a strong awareness of the law and their legal rights and the ability to combine and form associations for peaceful agitation.

Students can Download Science Term 3 Chapter 1 Sound Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Sound

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Sound Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 1.
Sound waves travel very fast in …………..
(a) air
(b) metals
(c) vacuum
(d) liquids
Answer:
(b) metals

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Question 2.
Which of the following are the characteristics of vibrations?
(i) Frequency
(ii) Time period
(iii) Pitch
(iv) Loudness

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (iii) and (iv)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Question 3.
The amplitude of the sound wave decides it’s ……………
(a) speed
(b) pitch
(c) loudness
(d) frequency
Answer:
(c) loudness

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Guide Question 4.
What kind of musical instrument is a sitar?
(a) String instrument
(b) Percussion instrument
(c) Wind instrument
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) String instrument

8th Standard Sound Lesson Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Harmonium
(b) Flute
(c) Nadaswaram
(d) Violin
Answer:
(d) Violin

Reason:
Violin is a stringed instrument. Other are wind or reed instruments.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Question 6.
Noise is produced by …………..
(a) vibrations with high frequency
(b) regular vibrations.
(c) regular and periodic vibrations
(d) irregular and non-periodic vibrations.
Answer:
(d) irregular non-periodic vibrations

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 7.
The range of audible frequency for the human ear is …………..
(a) 2 Hz to 2000 Hz
(b) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz
(c) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
(d) 200 Hz to 20000 Hz
Answer:
(c) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Question 8.
If the amplitude and frequency of a sound wave are increased, which of the following is true?
(a) Loudness increases and pitch is higher
(b) Loudness increases and pitch is unchanged
(c) Loudness increases and pitch is lower
(d) Loudness decreases and pitch is lower
Answer:
(a) Loudness increases and pitch is higher

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Sound is produced by …………
2. The vibrations of a simple pendulum are also known as …………
3. Sound travels in the form of …………
4. High frequency sounds that cannot be heard by you are called …………
5. Pitch of a sound depends on the ………… vibration.
6. If the thickness of a vibrating string is increased, its pitch …………

Answer:

1. vibrating bodies
2. oscillation
3. mechanical waves
4. Ultrasonic
5. frequency of the
6. decrease

III. Match the following:

1. Ultrasonics – Frequency below 20Hz
2. Speed of sound in air – Needs material medium
3. Infrasonics – 330 m
4. Sound propagation – Frequency more than 20000 Hz

Answer:

1. Ultrasonics – Frequency more than 20000 Hz
2. Speed of sound in air – 330 m
3. Infrasonics – Frequency below 20Hz
4. Sound propagation – Needs material medium

IV. Choose the correct option:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(e) Both Assertion and reason are false.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Science Question 1.
Assertion: When lightning strikes, the sound is heard a little after the flash is seen.
Reason: The velocity of light is greater than that of the sound.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi .Guru 8th Question 2.
Assertion: Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each other.
Reason: There is no atmosphere on moon.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

V. Answer briefly:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Solutions Question 1.
What are vibrations?
Answer:
Vibration means a kind of rapid to and fro motion of an object.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Standard Science Question 2.
Give an example to show that light travels faster than sound.
Answer:
Lightning:
The most common example of showing that light travels faster than sound is lightning. Whenever a lightning strikes, you see the lightning first and then hear the thunder after some time.

8th Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
To increase loudness of sound by four times, by how much should the amplitude of vibration be changed?
Answer:
Loudness of a sound depends on the amplitude of the vibration. So to increase loudness of sound by four times, the amplitude of the vibration also to be increased by four times.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Question 4.
What is an ultrasonic sound?
Answer:
A sound with a frequency greater than 20000 Hz is called as ultrasonic sound.

Science Term 3 Question 5.
Give two differences between music and noise.
Answer:
Music:

1. The sound that provides a pleasing sensation to the ear.
2. It is produced by the regular patterns of vibrations.

Noise:

1. Sound that is unpleasant to the ear
2. It is produced by the irregular and non-periodic vibrations.

8th Science Sound Lesson Question 6.
What are the hazards of noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Noise may cause irritation, stress, nervousness and headache.
2. Long term exposure to noise may change the sleeping pattern of a person.
3. Sustained exposure to noise may affect hearing ability. Sometimes, it leads to loss of hearing.
4. Sudden exposure to louder noise may cause a heart attack and unconsciousness.
5. Noise of horns, loud speakers, etc., cause disturbances leading to lack of concentration.
6. Noise pollution affects a person’s peace of mind.

8th Standard Science Sound Lesson Question 7.
Mention few measures to be taken to reduce the effect of noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Strict guidelines should be set for the use of loudspeakers on social, religious and political occasions.
2. All automobiles should have effective silencers.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Question 8.
Answer:
Define the following terms:

1. Amplitude
2. Loudness

1. Amplitude:
Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a vibrating particle from its mean position. It is denoted by ‘A’ and its unit is ‘metre’ (m).

2. Loudness:
It is defined as the characteristic of a sound that enables us to distinguish a weak or feeble sound from a loud sound. The unit of loudness of sound is decibel (dB).

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Standard Question 9.
How does planting trees help in reducing noise pollution?
Answer:

• Plant parts such as stems, leaves, branches wood, etc., absorb sound.
• Rough bark and thick, fleshy leaves are particularly effective at absorbing sound due to their dynamic surface area and helps in reducing noise pollution.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Describe an experiment to show that sound cannot travel through vacuum.
Answer:
1. Aim:
To prove that sound cannot travel through vacuum and it needs a medium for propagation.

2. Materials Required:
Bell jar, mobile phone and vacuum pump.

Procedure:

1. Take a bell jar and a mobile phone.
2. Switch on the music in the mobile phone and place it in the jar.
3. Now, pump out the air from the bell jar using a vacuum pump.
4. As more and more air is removed from the jar, the sound from the mobile phone becomes feebler and finally, very faint.

Conclusion:
This experiment proves that sound cannot travel in vacuum and it needs a medium.

Question 2.
What are the properties of sound?
Answer:

1. Loudness
2. Pitch
3. Quality or Timbre

1. Loudness:

• It is defined as the characteristic of a sound that enables us to distinguish a weak or feeble sound from a loud sound.
• The loudness of a sound depends on its amplitude.
• Higher the amplitude louder will be the sound and vice-versa.
• When a drum is softly beaten, a weak sound is produced. However, when it is beaten strongly, a loud sound is produced.
• The unit of loudness of sound is decibel (dB).

2. Pitch:

• The pitch is the characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish between a flat sound and a shrill sound.
• Higher the frequency of sound, higher will be the pitch. High pitch adds shrillness to a sound.
• The sound produced by a whistle, a bell, a flute and a violin are high pitch sounds.

3. Quality or Timbre:

• The quality or timbre is the characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish between two sounds that have the same pitch and amplitude.
• For example in an orchestra, the sounds produced by some musical instruments may have the same pitch and loudness.

Question 3.
What steps should be taken to reduce the effect of noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Strict guidelines should be set for the use of loudspeakers on social, religious and political occasions.
2. All automobiles should have effective silencers.
3. People should be encouraged to refrain from excessive honking while driving.
4. Industrial machines and home appliances should be properly maintained.
5. All communication systems must be operated in low volumes.
6. Residential areas should be free from heavy vehicles.
7. Green corridor belt should be set up around the industries as per the regulations of the pollution control board.
8. People working in noisy factories should wear ear plugs.
9. People should be encouraged to plant trees and to use absorbing materials like curtains and cushions in their home.

Question 4.
Describe the structure and function of the human ear.
Answer:

1. The outer and visible part of the human ear is called pinata (curved in shape).
2. It is specially designed to gather sound from the environment, which then reaches the ear drum (tympanic membrane) through the ear canal.
3. When the sound wave strikes the drum, the vesicles move inward and outward to create the vibrations.
4. These vibrations are then picked up by special types of cells in the inner ear. From the inner ear the vibrations are sent to the brain in the form of signals.
5. The brain perceives these signals as sounds.

VII. Problem:

Question 1.
Ruthvik and Ruha hear a gunshot 2 second after it is fired. How far away from the gun they are standing ? (Speed of sound in air is equal
to 330ms^-1).
Solution:
Given data: time t = 2s
Speed of sound V = 330 ms^-1
To find: Distance d = ?
Formula: Distance = Speed x time
Distance d = 330 x 2 = 660 m

Question 2.
A sound wave travels 2000 m in 8 s. What is the velocity of the sound?
Solution:
Given data:
Distance travelled by a sound wave d = 2000 m
time taken t = 8s
To find: Velocity of sound V = ?
Formula:

Question 3.
What is the frequency of a mechanical wave that has a velocity of 25 ms^-1 and a wavelength of 12.5 m?
Solution:
Given data: Frequency n = ?
Velocity V = 25 ms^-1
To find: Frequency n = ?

Question 4.
What is the wavelength?
Solution:
Given data:
Frequency n = 500 Hz
Speed V = 200 ms^-1
To find: Wavelength λ = ?

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Sound Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct Answer:

Question 1.
Sound cannot travel through ………………..
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) vacuum
(d) air
Answer:
(c) vacuum

Question 2.
Vibrations in a body produce ………………..
(a) pressure
(b) sound
(c) density
(d) current
Answer:
(b) sound

Question 3.
Frequency is expressed in ………………..
(a) hertz
(b) meter
(c) Kilogram
(d) second
Answer:
(a) hertz

Question 4.
Unwanted sounds are called ………………..
(a) noise
(b) music
(c) both a and b
(d) none
Answer:
(a) noise

Question 5.
Pitch of sound is determined by its ………………..
(a) speed
(b) loudness
(c) amplitude
(d) frequency
Answer:
(d) frequency

Question 6.
The hearing range of human ear is ………………..
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) less than 20 Hz
(c) more than 20 k Hz
(d) none
Answer:
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Question 7.
The voices of men, women and children differ because of difference in their ………………..
(a) lungs
(b) vocal cords
(c) larynx
(d) wind pipe
Answer:
(b) vocal cords

Question 8.
The time taken for one complete vibration is called its ………………..
(a) loudness
(b) pitch
(C) time period
(d) frequency
Answer:
(c) time period

Question 9.
……………….. instruments produce a specific sound when they are struck, scrapped or clashed together.
(a) Reed
(b) Stringed
(c) Percussion
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Percussion

Question 10.
Bats produce ……………….. sound during screaming.
(a) infrasonic
(b) ultrasonic
(c) noise
(d) none
Answer:
(b) ultrasonic

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………… is produced when an object is set to vibrate.
2. The substance through which sound is transmitted is called ……………
3. Sound cannot travel in ……………
4. The speed of sound is …………… in solids than in liquids.
5. …………… is the distance between two consecutive particles, which are in the same phase of vibration.
6. …………… is the number of vibrations of a particle in the medium in one second.
7. In any medium, as the …………… increases, the speed of sound also increases.
8. The speed of sound in air is 331 ms^-1 at …………… and …………… at 22°C.
9. The unit of frequency is ……………
10. The amount of water vapour in the air is known as ……………

Answer:

1. Sound
2. medium
3. vacuum
4. more
5. Wavelength
6. Frequency
7. temperature
8. 0°C, 344 ms^-1
9. hertz
10. humidity

III. True or False – if false, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
The seismic wave formed during earthquake is an example for a transverse wave.
Answer:
False:
Correct statement: The seismic wave formed during earthquake is an example for a longitudinal wave.

Question 2.
The loudness of a sound depends on its pitch.
Answer:
False:
Correct statement: The loudness of a sound depends on its amplitude.

Question 3.
The pitch is the characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish between a flat sound and a shrill sound.
Answer:
True:

Question 4.
The voice of a female has a lower pitch than a male.
Answer:
False:
Correct statement: The voice of a female has a higher pitch than a male.

Question 5.
Longitudinal waves are produced in solids liquids and also in gases.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. String vibration – (a) Flute
2. Membrane vibration – (b) Bicycle bell
3. Vibration of air – (e) Table
4. Vibration of plate – (d) Gitar

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

Question 2.

1. Audible range – (a) 50 Hz to 45000 Hz
2. Infrasonic range – (b) Above 20.000 Hz
3. Ultrasonic range – (c) 20 Hz to 20 k Hz
4. Dog’s hearing range – (d) Below 20 Hz

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

Question 3.

1. pitch – (a) Woman
2. Loudness – (b) Man
3. Shriller voice – (c) Frequency
4. Flatter voice – (d) Amplitude

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

V. Assertion and Reason:

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(e) Both Assertion and reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound waves do not travel through vacuum.
Reason: The speed of sound Is too small when compared to speed of light.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertlon.

Reason:
Sound is mechanical wave, which require medium to travel.

Question 2.
AssertIon: We cannot hear the sound produced by a vibrating pendulum.
Reason: The frequency of the pendulum is very less.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason Is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 3.
Assertion: Trees should be planted along the road to control noise pollution.
Reason: Trees act as noise buffers.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason ¡s the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Women have shriller sound than men.
Reason: Men produced higher frequency sound than women.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false

Reason:
Women produce higher frequency sound than men.

VI. Pick out the odd one and give reason:

Question 1.
Trumpet, Flute, Saxophone, Mouthorgan.
Answer:
Mouthorgan.
Reason:
Mouthorgan is a reed instrument whereas the others are wind instruments.

Question 2.
Drum, Violin, Guitar, Sitar.
Answer:
Drum.
Reason:
Drum is a percussion instrument whereas the others are stringed instruments.

Question 3.
Sonar, Gatton’s whistle, Sonogram, hydrophone.
Answer:
Hydrophone.
Reason:
Hydrophone uses infrasonic wave whereas the others are using ultrasonic sound wave.

VII. Very short answer questions:

Question 1.
In which medium the speed of the sound is maximum?
Answer:
Solids.

Question 2.
On which factor pitch of the sound depends?
Answer:
Frequency.

Question 3.
What types of medium is required for sound to travel?
Answer:
Solid, liquid and gases.

Question 4.
Can sound travel through vacuum?
Answer:
No, sound cannot travel through vacuum. It needs medium to travel.

Question 5.
Do the frequency of sound produced by Men and Women are same?
Answer:
No, the frequency of sound produced by men and women are different.

Question 6.
Name the sound producing organ in human.
Answer:
Voice box or Larynx.

Question 7.
What is the name of the sound produced by irregular vibrations?
Answer:
Noise.

Question 8.
Mention the name of passage is the outer ear which carries sound waves to the eardrum.
Answer:
Ear canal.

Question 9.
What happens to the speed of sound when it gases from solid to gaseous state?
Answer:
The speed of sound decreases when it goes from solid to gaseous state.

Question 10.
What is the lowest limit of audible frequency?
Answer:
20 Hz.

Question 11.
Define the term frequency.
Answer:
The number of vibrations produced by a vibrating body in one second is called frequency.

VIII. Short answer type questions:

Question 1.
Derive the mathematical relation between the frequency and the time period of a sound wave.
Answer:
Velocity of sound V = Frequency (n) x wavelength (λ). V = n λ

Question 2.
Write any two uses of ultrasonic sound.
Answer:

1. It is extensively used in medical applications like sonogram.
2. It is also employed in dishwashers.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term echo?
Answer:
The repetition of the sound, which is reflected from a high building or any such object is called an echo.

Question 4.
What are the uses of infrasonic sound?
Answer:

1. Infrasonic wave is used in the study of the mechanism of the human heart.
2. It is employed in the Earth monitoring system.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms of hearing loss?
Answer:

1. Ear ache.
2. A feeling of fullness or fluid in the air.
3. Ringing in your ears.

Question 6.
What is meant by audible sound?
Answer:
Sound with the frequency ranging from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz is called sonic sound or audible sound.

Question 7.
Mention any two ways to control noise pollution.
Answer:

1. All automobiles should have effective silencers.
2. People should be encouraged to plant trees and to use absorbing materials like curtains and cushions in their home.

IX. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain the types of mechanical wave.
Answer:
There are two types of mechanical wave.

1. Transverse wave
2. Longitudinal wave

1. Transverse wave:

• The particles of the medium vibrate in a direction, which is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
• E.g. Waves in strings, light waves, etc.
• Transverse waves are produced only in solids and liquids.

2. Longitudinal wave:

• The particles of the medium vibrate in a direction, which is parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave.
• E.g. Waves in springs, sound waves in a medium.
• Longitudinal waves are produced in solids, liquids and also in gases.

Question 2.
Draw and explain larynx and its functions.
Answer:

1. In a human being, the sound is produced in the voice box, called the larynx, which is present in the throat.
2. It is located at the upper end of the windpipe.
3. The larynx has two ligaments called ‘vocal cords’, stretched across it.
4. The vocal cords have a narrow slit through which air is blown in and out.
5. When a person speaks, the air from the lungs is pushed up through the trachea to the larynx.
6. When this air passes through the slit, the vocal cords begin to vibrate and produce a sound.
7. By varying the thickness of the vocal cords, the length of the air column in the slit can be changed.
8. This produces sounds of different pitches.
9. Males generally have thicker and longer vocal cords that produce a deeper, low pitch sound in comparison with females.

X. Solve the following cross word with the help of the given clues:

Clues Across:

2. The bouncing back of sound wave when it strikes a hard surface.
4. Form of matter of fixed shape other than liquid or gas.
6. Maximum distance moved by a vibrating body form its position of rest.
8.Waves which need a material medium for its propagation.
10. A kind of raepid to and fro motion of an object.

Down:

1. A unit used to measure the loudness or intensity of sound.
3. Sound wave whose frequency is too high to be heard by humans.
5. Sound wave whose frequency is too low to be heard by humans.
7. A reflection of sound.
9. The branch of science deals with the study of seismic waves.

XI. Problems for practice:

Question 1.
A sound has a frequency of 60 Hz and a wavelength of 20 m. What is the speed of the sound?
Solution:
Given: Frequency n = 60 Hz
Wavelength λ = 20 m
To find: Speed V = ?
Formula: V = n λ
V = 20 x 60
V = 120 ms^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Sound Intext Activities

Activity – 1

Take the tray of an empty match box and stretch a rubber band around it, along its length. Then, pluck the stretched rubber band with your index finger. What do you observe? Do you hear any sound?
Answer:
Observation:

1. On plucking the rubber band, it starts vibrating.
2. We can hear a feeble humming sound as long as the rubber band is vibrating.
3. The humming sound stops as soon as the rubber band stops vibrating.

Conclusion:
This confirms that sound is produced by vibrating bodies.

Activity – 2

Take a metal shallow pan. Hang it at a convenient place in such a way that it does not touch anything. Now, strike it with a stick. Touch the pan gently with your index finger. Do you feel the vibrations? Again, strike the pan with the stick and hold it tightly with your hands, immediately after striking. Do you still hear the sound?

Answer:
Case 1:

1. Now, strike it with a stick.
2. Touch the pan gently with your index finger. Do you feel the vibrations?

Observation:
we can the feel the vibration for sometime.

Case 2:

1. Strike the pan with the stick and hold tightly with your hands, immediately after striking.
2. Do you still hear the sound?

Observation:
we cannot hear the sound.

Conclusion:
This activity shows the vibrating pan produces sound.

Activity – 3

Question 1.
Take a metal dish, pour some water in it. Strike it at its edge with a spoon. Do you hear any sound?
Answer:
We see that a vibrating object produces sound.

Question 2.
Again strike the dish and touch it. Can you feel the dish vibrating?
Answer:
I can feel the dish vibrating.

Question 3.
Strike the dish again. Look at the surface of water. Do you see any movement on the water surface?
Answer:
I can see the waves on the surface of water.

Question 4.
Now, hold the dish. What change do you observe on the surface of water?
Answer:
I cannot see the waves on the surface of water.

Activity – 4

Question 1.
Take two stones and strike them together and listen to the sound produced by them. Now take the stones underwater and strike them. You will find that the sound produced by the stones underwater is feeble and not very clear.
Answer:
Observation:
We observe that the sound produced by the stones underwater is feeble and not very clear.
Conclusion:
This activity shows that the speed of sound depends on the properties of the medium through which it travels.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 How the State Government Works

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works

I. Choose the correct answer

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 1.
The Governor of a state is appointed by –
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Social Answers Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
The State Council Minsters is headed by –
(a) The Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(b) Chief Minister

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of the State legislature?
(a) Home Minister
(b) President
(c) Speaker
(d) The Governor
Answer:
(d) The Governor

How The State Government Works Question 4.
Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President of India
Answer:
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Standard Social Science Question 5.
The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is –
(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 65
(d) 58
Answer:
(a) 62

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… States are there in India at present.
2. The tenure of the Governor is normally ……………. years.
3. The District Judges are appointed by ……………..
4. The Governor is the ……………. Head of the State.
5. Minimum age for elections as MLA ……………. years.

Answer:

1. 29
2. Five
3. The Governor
4. Constitutional
5. 25

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. ii
3. i
4. iii

IV. State true or false

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Question 1.
Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State.
Answer:
True

Social Samacheer Kalvi 8th Question 2.
The Governor nominates two members of the Anglo – Indian Community to Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Governor nominates one members of the Anglo- Indian Community to Legislative Assembly.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 3.
The number of judges in the High Courts is not uniform and fixed.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement

State Government Lesson Questions And Answers Question 1.
The State Legislative Assembly participates in the election of
(i) President
(ii) Vice – President
(iii) Rajya Sabha members
(iv) Members of the Legislative Council of the State

(a) i, ii & iii are Correct
(b) i & iii are Correct
(c) i, iii & iv are correct
(d) i, ii, iii & iv are correct
Answer:
(c) i, iii & iv are correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Name the two houses of the State legislature.
Answer:
The State Legislature consists of the Governor and one or two houses. The upper house is called the Legislative Council while the lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.

How State Government Works Question 2.
Write the qualifications of the members of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:

1. The candidate must be a citizen of India.
2. He/she must be 25 years and above.
3. The candidate must be of sound mind.
4. He/she must be an elector for any constituency in the state he is representing from.

8th Class Civics Chapter 1 Question 3.
How is the Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. He is the head of the State Council of Ministers.

How The State Government Works Class 7 Notes Question 4.
How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

1. The party which gets majority seats in the election forms the government.
2. The leader of the majority party in the election is chosen as Chief Minister.
3. The Chief Minister chooses his ministers from the MLAs of his party.
4. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor appoints the other ministers.
5. Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister form the State Government.

VII. Answer the following in detail

How The State Government Works Class 7 Question 1.
Discuss the powers and functions of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Powers and functions:

1. The Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State. All major decisions of the State Government are taken under his leadership.

2. The Chief Minister plays an important role in the formation of the Council of Ministers. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor appoints the other Ministers.

3. The Chief Minister supervises the activities of different ministries and advises them accordingly. He also coordinates the activities of different ministries.

4. The Chief Minister plays an important role in making policies of the State Government ensuring public interest. His voice is final in policy decisions of the State Government.

5. The Governor appoints different higher officials of the State Government on the advice of the Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers.

The State Government Class 8 Question 2.
Discuss the powers and functions of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The main duty of the Legislative Assembly is to make laws for the state. It can make law on the subjects mentioned in the state list and the concurrent list. However, during state emergency, it cannot exercise its legislative power.

1. The assembly has control over the State council of Ministers. The State council of ministers are responsible or answerable to the Assembly for its activities. The Assembly may pass a no confidence motion against the council of Ministers if it is not satisfied with the performance of the council of Ministers.

2. The legislative Assembly has control over the finances of the state. A money bill can be introduced only in the Assembly. The government cannot impose, increase, lower or withdraw any tax without the approval of the Assembly.

3. The elected members of the Legislative Assembly can take part in the election of the president of India and all members can take part in the election of the members of the Rajya Sabha from the state.

4. The Assembly also takes part in the amendment of the Constitution on certain matters.

5. So the government has three basic functions: making laws, executing laws and ensuring justice.

Question 3.
Write about the powers and functions of the High Court.
Answer:
1. The High Court has been empowered to issue writs of Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights and for other purposes.

2. Every High Court has a general power of superintendence over all the lower courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction.

3. If a case is pending before a sub – ordinate court and the High Court is satisfied that it involves a substantial question of the constitutional law, it can take up the case and decide it itself.

4. The High Court controls all the subordinate courts in the State.

5. Like the Supreme Court, the High Court also acts as a Court of Record.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics How the State Government Works Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ……………. is an integral part of the state Legislature.
(a) Governor
(b) President
(c) Vice – President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(a) Governor

Question 2.
Before the expiry of the full term of the Governor, the …………….. can dismiss him.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Vice – president
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Presiden

Question 3.
To be the Governor, a person must have completed …………….. years of age.
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 21
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 35

Question 4.
The position of the Governor of a state is compared to the ……………. of India.
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Lok Sabha speaker
(c) Attorney General
(d) President
Answer:
(d) President

Question 5.
The president declares emergency in a state on the basis of the report of the ………………
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Speaker
(d) Opposition party leader
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
As per our constitution, the strength of the Legislative council must not be less than …………..
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 35
Answer:
(c) 40

Question 7.
The members of the legislative council are elected for a term of ………….. years.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 8.
One legislative constituency may have ………….. or even more people.
(a) 1 lakh
(b) 10 thousand
(c) 20 thousand
(d) 50 thousand
Answer:
(a) 1 lakh

Question 9.
The Governor can nominate …………… member from the Anglo – Indian community to the Legislative Assembly.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 10.
The Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu located at …………….
(a) Madurai
(b) Salem
(c) Chennai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(c) Chennai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The states have their own executive, …………… and ……………
2. A Person is not appointed …………… in his own state.
3. The …………… acts as an agent of the Central Government in a state.
4. The …………… remains in office so long as he gets support of the majority members of the Legislative Assembly.
5. The members of the …………… are elected indirectly.
6. At present, only …………… states in India have Legislative Council in their legislative.
7. …………… of the members of the Legislative Council retire every two years.
8. The …………… is the presiding officer of the Legislative Council.
9. The people who make the laws of a state Government are called ……………
10. Different …………… compete in the elections to the legislative Assembly.

Answer:

1. Legislative, Judiciary
2. Governor
3. Governor
4. Chief Minister
5. Legislative council
6. Seven
7. One – third
8. Chairman
9. Members of the Legislative Assembly
10. Political parties

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. ii

IV. True or False

Question 1.
The Governor must give his assent to all the bills passed in the legislature
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Chief Minister is responsible for maintaining relationship between the central Government and the state Government.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Governor is responsible for maintaining relationship between the central Government and the state Government.

Question 3.
For the election of MLAs the entire state is divided into different constituencies.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
There may be a common High Court only for 2 states.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
There may be a common High Court for two or more states and Union Territories.

V. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) A Legislative Assembly cannot have more than 500 members.
(ii) Some seats in the Legislative Assembly are reserved for scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes.
(iii) The meetings of the Assembly are presided by the chief minister.
(iv) People who have completed 21 years of age can cast their vote in the elections.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii, iii and iv are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i, ii and iv are correct
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iv are correct

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
How is the Governor appointed?
Answer:
While appointing the Governor, the President acts as per the advice of the Union Cabinet. The State Government is also consulted when the appointment is to be made. Generally, a person is not appointed Governor in his own State.

Question 2.
What does the state executive consist of?
Answer:
The state executive consists of the Governor and the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the Governor of a state.
Answer:
The Governor as the Head of a State in India. He is appointed by the President of India. He is the constitutional Head of a State. The Governor is appointed for a term of five years.

Question 4.
How long can the Chief Minister remain in office?
Answer:
The Chief Minister has no fixed term of office. He remains in office so long as he gets support of the majority members of the Legislative Assembly. When he loses support in the legislature, he has to resign.

Question 5.
How are the members of the legislative council elected?
Answer:

1. The members of the Legislative Council are elected indirectly.
2. One third of its members are elected by the local government bodies like the District Panchayat and Municipalities.
3. Another one third is elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
4. One twelfth is elected by the graduates of the constituency and another one twelfth by the teachers of secondary schools, colleges and universities.
5. One sixth of the members of the Legislative Council are nominated by the Governor of the State.

Question 6.
Name the states in India which have Legislative council.
Answer:
Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Jammu & Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh and Telengana.

Question 7.
How is the capital of a state determined?
Answer:
The place where a state’s legislative assembly is located and where its council of ministers function is called the capital of that state.

Question 8.
How are the laws of the state Government executed?
Answer:
The state government has several lakhs of government employees to execute the laws made by the legislative assembly- Collectors, Tahsildars, Block Development Officers, Revenue officers, Village Administrative Officers, Policemen, Teachers and Doctors, etc.

VII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Discuss the powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
Powers and functions
1. The Governor is the Chief Executive in a State. All the executive powers of the State are vested upon him and decisions are taken in his name. He appoints the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.

2. He makes some important appointments such as, the Advocate general, Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission and others.

3. The Governor also acts as the Chancellor of State Universities.

4. He summons and prorogues the sessions of the State legislature and he can dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

5. Money bills can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly only with the approval of the Governor.

6. The annual budget of the State Government is laid before the legislature with approval of the Governor. The Contingency fund of the State is also placed at the disposal of the Governor.

Question 2.
How are laws made in the state Government?
Answer:
In the legislative assembly meetings, MLAs discuss a number of topics like public works, education, law and order and various problems faced by the state. The MLAs can ask questions to know the activities of ministries, which the concerned ministers have to answer. The legislative assembly makes laws on certain issues. The process of law making as follows:

1. A Bill is presented in the Legislative Assembly.
2. Debates and discussions take place on it. Changes can be made in the Bill.
3. If more that half of the MLA’s vote in favour of the Bill, it is said to be passed.
4. The Bill needs to get assent of the Governor to become an Act.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science From Trade to Territory Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

8th Social From Trade To Territory Question 1.
The ruler of Bengal in 1757 was ……………
(a) Shuja – ud – daulah
(b) Siraj – ud – daulah
(c) Mirkasim
(d) Tippu Sultan
Answer:
(b) Siraj – ud – daulah

From Trade To Territory Class 8 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
The Battle of Plassey was fought in ………………
(a) 1757
(b) 1764
(c) 1765
(d) 1775
Answer:
(a) 1757

From Trade To Territory Meaning In Tamil Question 3.
Which among the following treaty was signed after Battle of Buxar?
(a) Treaty of Allahabad
(b) Treaty of Carnatic
(c) Treaty of Alinagar
(d) Treaty of Paris
Answer:
(a) Treaty of Allahabad]

From Trade To Territory In Tamil Question 4.
The Treaty of Pondichery brought the …………….. Carnatic war to an end .
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Second

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Solutions Question 5.
When did Hyder Ali crown on the throne of Mysore?
(a) 1756
(b) 1761
(c) 1763
(d) 1764
Answer:
(b) 1761

Class 8 Social Science From Trade To Territory Question 6.
Treaty of Mangalore was signed between ……………..
(a) The French and Tippu Sultan
(b) Hyder Ali and Zamorin of Calicut
(c) The British and Tippu Sultan
(d) Tippu Sultan andMarathas
Answer:
(c) The British and Tippu Sultan]

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 7.
Who was the British Governor General during Third Anglo – Mysore War?
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Wellesley
Answer:
(c) Lord Cornwallis]

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Solutions Question 8.
Who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British?
(a) Bajirao II
(b) DaulatraoScindia
(c) SambhajiBhonsle
(d) SayyajiraoGaekwad
Answer:
(a) Bajirao II

Question 9.
Who was the last Peshwa of Maratha empire?
(a) BalajiVishwanath
(b) BajiRao II
(c) BalajiBajiRao
(d) BajiRao
Answer:
(d) BajiRao

Question 10.
Who was the first Indian state to join the subsidiary Alliance?
(a) Oudh
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Udaipur
(d) Gwalior
Answer:
(b) Hyderabad

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed in ……………..
2. The commander in Chief of Sirajuddaula was ……………….
3. The main cause for the Second Carnatic war was ……………….
4. ………………. adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire in India.
5. Tippu Sultan was finally defeated at the hands of ……………….
6. After the death of Tippu Sultan Mysore was handed over to ……………….
7. In 1800, ………………… established a college at Fort William in Calcutta.

Answer:

1. 1757
2. Mir Jafar
3. The issue of succession
4. Lord Dalhousie
5. Arthur Wellesely
6. Krishna Raja Odayar
7. Lord Wellesley]

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. ii
2. iv
3. iii
4. V
5. i.

IV. State true or false

Question 1.
After the death of Alivardi Khan, Siraj – ud – daula ascended the throne of Bengal.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Hector Munro, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Robert Clive, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.

Question 3.
The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to Second Carnatic War in India.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to First Carnatic War in India.

Question 4.
Sir Elijalmpey was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William in Bengal.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Police system was created by Lord Cornwallis.
Answer:
True

V. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

1. Battle of Adayar – 1748
2. Battle of Ambur – 1754
3. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760
4. Battle of Arcot – 1749

Answer:
3. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a short note on Black Hole Tragedy.
Answer:
There was a small dungeon room in the Fort William in Calcutta, where troops of the Nawab of Bengal Siraj – ud – daula, held 146 British Prisoners of war for one night. Next day morning, when the door was opened 123 of the prisoners found dead because of suffocation.

Question 2.
What were the benefits derived by the English after the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:
After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the company was granted undisputed right to have free trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. It received the place of 24 parganas in Bengal.

Question 3.
Mention the causes for the Battle of Buxar.
Answer:
Mir Qasim the son in law of the Nawab of Bengal revolted as he was angry with the British for misusing the destakes (free duty passes).

Question 4.
What were the causes for the First Mysore War?
Causes:

1. Haider Ali’s growing power and his friendly relations with the French became a matter of concern for the English East India Company.
2. The Marathas, the Nizam and the English entered into a triple alliance against Haider Ali.

Question 5.
Bring out the results of the Third Maratha War.

1. The Maratha confederacy was dissolved and Peshwaship was abolished.
2. Most of the territory of Peshwa BajiRao II was annexed and became part of the Bombay Presidency
3. The defeat of the Bhonsle and Holkar also resulted in the acquisition of the Maratha kingdoms of Nagpur and Indore by the British.
4. The BajiRao II, the last Peshwa of Maratha was given an annual pension of 8 lakh rupees.

Question 6.
Name the states signed into Subsidiary Alliance.
Answer:
Hyderabad (1798). It was followed by Tanjore (1799), Auadh (1801), Peshwa (1802), Bhonsle (1803), Gwalior (1804), Indore (1817), Jaipur, Udaipur and Jodhpur (1818).

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Write an essay on second Carnatic war.
Answer:
In the 18th century, three Carnatic wars were fought between various Indian rulers, British and French East Indian Company on either side.

Second Carnatic War:

1. The main cause of this war was the issue of succession in Carnatic and Hyderabad. Anwaruddin Khan and Chanda Sahib were the two claimants to the throne of Carnatic, whereas Nasir Jang and Muzaffar Jang were claimants to the throne of Hyderabad.

2. The French supported Chanda sahib and Muzaffar Jang, while the British supported the other claimants with the objective of keeping their interest and influence in the entire Deccan region.

Battle of Ambur (1749):

1. Finally Dupleix, Chanda Sahib and Muzaffar Jang formed a grand alliance and defeated and killed Anwar-ud-din Khan, the Nawab of Carnatic, in the Battle of Ambur.

2. Muhammad Ali, the son of Anwar – ud – din, fled to Trichinopoly.

3. Chanda Sahib became the Nawab of Carnatic and rewarded the French with the grant of 80 villages around Pondicherry.

4. In the Deccan, the French defeated and killed Nasir Jang and made Muzaffar Jang as the Nizam.

5. The new Nizam gave ample rewards to the French.

6. He appointed Dupleix as the governor of all the territories in south of the river Krishna. Muzaffar Jang was assassinated by his own people.

7. Salabat Jang, brother of Nasir Jang was raised to the throne by Bussy.

8. Salabat Jang granted the Northern Circars to the French.

9. Dupleix’s power was at its zenith by that time.

Battle of Arcot (1751):

1. In the meantime, Dupleix sent forces to besiege the fort of Trichy

2. Chanda Sahib also joined with the French in their efforts to besiege Trichy. Robert Clive’s proposal was accepted by the British governor, Saunders, and with only 200 English and 300 Indian soldiers, Clive was entrusted the task of capturing Arcot. His attack proved successful.

3. Robert Clive defeated the French at Ami and Kaveripak. With the assistance of Lawrence, Chanda Sahib was killed in Trichy. Muhammad Ali was made the Nawab of Arcot under British protection. The French Government recalled Dupleix to Paris.

Treaty of Pondicherry (1755):

1. Dupleix was succeeded by Godeheu who agreed the treaty of Pondicherry. According to it, both the powers agreed not to interfere in the internal affairs of the native states. They were to retain their old positions. New forts should not be built by either power. The treaty made the British stronger.

2. The second Carnatic war also proved inconclusive. The English proved their superiority on land by appointing Mohammad Ali as the Nawab of Carnatic. The French were still very powerful in Hyderabad. However, the predominant position of the French in the Deccan peninsula was definitely undermined in this war.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Fourth Anglo Mysore war.
Answer:
The Fourth Anglo – Mysore War:
Tipu Sultan did not forget the humiliating treaty of Srirangapatnam imposed upon him by Cornwallis in 1790.
Causes:

1. Tipu sought alliance with foreign powers against the English and sent ambassadors to Arabia, Turkey, Afghanistan and the French.
2. Tipu was in correspondence with Napoleon who invaded Egypt at that time.
3. The French officers came to Srirangapatnam where they founded a Jacobin Club and planted the Tree of Liberty.

Course:

1. Wellesley declared war against Tipu in 1799. The war was short and decisive. As planned, the Bombay army under General Stuart invaded Mysore from the west.

2. The Madras army, which was led by the Governor – General’s brother, Arthur Wellesley, forced Tipu to retreat to his capital Srirangapatnam.

3. On 4th May 1799 Srirangapatnam was captured. Tipu fought bravely and was killed finally. Thus ended the fourth Mysore War and the whole of Mysore lay prostrate before the British.

Mysore after the War:

1. The English occupied Kanara, Wynad. Coimbatore. Darapuram and Srirangapattinam.
2. Krishna Raja Odayar of the former Hindu royal family was brought to the throne.
3. Tipu’s family was sent to the fort of Vellore.

Question 3.
Describe the policy adopted by Lord Dalhousie to expand the British empire in India.
Answer:
Doctrine of Lapse:
1. Lord Dalhousie was one of the chief architects of the British Empire in India. He was an imperialist. He adopted a new policy known as Doctrine of Lapse to extend British Empire.

2. He made use of this precedent and declared in 1848 that if the native rulers adopted children without the prior permission of the Company, only the personal properties of the rulers would go to the adopted sons and the kingdoms would go to the British paramount power. This principle was called the Doctrine of Lapse.

3. It was bitterly opposed by the Indians and it was one of the root causes for the great revolt of 1857.

Question 4.
How did Lord Wellesley expand the British
Answer:
The Subsidiary Alliance:

1. Lord Wellesley introduced the system of Subsidiary Alliance to bring the princely states under the control of the British.
2. It was the most effective instrument for the expansion of the British territory and political influence in India.
3. The princely state was called ‘the protected state’ and the British came to be referred as ‘the paramount power’.
4. It was the duty of the British to safeguard the state from external aggression and to help its ruler in maintaining internal peace.

Main Features of Subsidiary Alliance:

1. An Indian ruler entering into this alliance with the British had to dissolve his own armed forces and accept British Forces.
2. A British Resident would stay in his capital.
3. Towards the maintenance charges of the army, he should make annual payments or cede some territory permanently to the Company.
4. All the non – English European officials should be turned out of his state.
5. The native ruler should deal with foreign states only through the English Company.
6. The British would undertake to defend the state from internal trouble as well as external attack.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Explain the causes for the success of the English in India.
Answer:
1. Lack of unity among Indian Stats:
Even though there were powerful kings and who ruled Punjab, Mysore and Maratha region, they lacked unity and fought with each other for various reasons. They failed to perceive the danger arising from the East India Company.

2. Greater Naval Power:
The British came through the sea and established a strong naval power in the Indian Ocean before coming to the Indian main land. There was no strong naval power in India to challenge the Brititsh.

3. Development of textile:
By the beginning of the 19th century English made cotton textiles successfully ousted Indian goods from their traditional markets.

4. Scientific division of labour:
The production and growth of modem science in India was encouraged by the British with a view to further colonial interests.

5. Economic prospertiy:
The British had enough funds to pay its share holders that compelled them to finance the English wars in India.

IX. Mark the following on the River map of India

Question 1.

1. Plassy
2. Buxar
3. Purandhar
4. Arcot
5. Wandiwash

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History  From Trade to Territory Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The rule of …………… in India became effective after the conquest of Bengal.
(a) Mughals
(b) East India Company
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Answer:
(b) East India Company

Question 2.
Siraj – ud – daula captured the British factory at …………….
(a) Kasim bazar
(b) Delhi
(c) Alinagar
(d) Chandranagore
Answer:
(a) Kasim bazar]

Question 3.
Buxar was a small fortified town in the territory of ……………….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Bihar
(d) Rajasthan

Answer:
(c) Bihar

Question 4.
In the battle of Adayar, the French army fought under captain ……………..
(a) Hector Munro
(b) Robert Clive
(c) Eyre Coote
(d) Paradise
Answer:
(d) Paradise

Question 5.
Under the terms of the Treaty of Aix – la – Chapelle, ……………. was returned back to the English.
(a) Madras
(b) Trichinopoly
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(a) Madras

Question 6.
The out break of the seven years’ was in Europe led to the ……………. war in India.
(a) I Carnatic
(b) II Carnatic
(c) III Carnatic
(d) Wandiwash
Answer:
(c) III Carnatic

Question 7.
In the III Carnatic war, France captured Fort ……………
(a) Gwalior
(b) St. David
(c) William
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) St. David

Question 8.
The Battle of Wandiwash was fought by the English army under General …………….
(a) Forde
(b) Dupleix
(c) Hector Munro
(d) Eyre Coote
Answer:
(d) Eyre Coote

Question 9.
The Seven year’s war was concluded …………… by the treaty of.
(a) Paris
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Madras
(d) Mangalore
Answer:
(a) Paris

Question 10.
The state of Mysore rose to prominence uder the leadership of …………….
(a) Chanda sahib
(b) Salabat Jang
(c) Haider Ali
(d) MirJafar
Answer:
(c) Haider Ali

Question 11.
In 1781, the British General Sir Eyre Coote defeated Haider Ali at ………………
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Porto Novo
(c) Mysore
(d) Mangalore
Answer:
(b) Porto Novo

Question 12.
………….. Saved the British Dominion from the wrath of powerful enemies.
(a) Wellesley
(b) Cornwallis
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Dalhousie
Answer:
(c) Warren Hastings

Question 13.
Tipu attacked in ……………. 1789.
(a) Madras
(b) Mangalore
(c) Mahe
(d) Travancore
Answer:
(d) Travancore

Question 14.
During the course of the third Anglo – Mysore war …………… took the command of the British Armyi
(a) Cornwallis
(b) Dalhousie
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Curzon
Answer:
(a) Cornwallis

Question 15.
The internal conflict among the ……………. was best utilised by the British.
(a) Nizams
(b) Marathas
(c) Nawabs
(d) Chauhans
Answer:
(b) Marathas

Question 16.
Colonel Upton concluded the treaty of ……………. in 1776.
(a) Mangalore
(b) Mysore
(c) Purandhar
(d) Pondicherry
Answer:
(c) Purandhar

Question 17.
The death of …………….. in 1800 gave the British an added advantage.
(a) Mahadaji Scindia
(b) Daulat Rao Scindia
(c) Madhav Rao
(d) Nana Phadnavis
Answer:
(d) Nana Phadnavis]

Question 18.
In the III Anglo Maratha war, Hastings was supported by a force under General ……………
(a) Thomas Hislop
(b) Mathews
(c) Medows
(d) Upton
Answer:
(a) Thomas Hislop]

Question 19.
……………… the Governor General of India in 1786, enforced the ruler against private trade.
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) Robert Clive
Answer:
(c) Cornwallis

Question 20.
As per the Government of India Act of 1858, the maximum age for competitors of civil services examination was fixed at ……………
(a) 20
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 21
Answer:
(b) 23

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. of Portugal discovered a new sea route from Europe to India.
2. ………………. ascended the throne of Bengal in 1756.
3. British captured …………….. the French settlement in 1757.
4.  ………………. concluded two treaties with Siraj – Ud – daula and Shah Alam II.
5. ………………. and ……………… were rival countries in Europe.
6. The battle of ………………… was fought between the French forces and forces of Anwar – ud – din.
7. ……………. was deputed from France to conduct the third Carnatic war.
8. Robert Clive sent ………….. from Bengal to occupy the Norhem Circars.
9. Haider Ali and his son …………. played a prominent role against the expansion of British empire in India.
10. The Nizam, with the help of British troops led by General invaded Mysore in 1767.
11. Tipu captutred Brigadier …………. the supreme commander of the forces in 1783.
12. After the death of Narayan Rao, ……………. became the Peshwa.
13. Raghunath Rao’s authority was challenged by a strong party at poona under ……………..
14. ……………. made an attempt to form a coalition of Indian rulers to fight against the British.
15. The Royal Commission on Public Service was Chaired by Lord ……………. in 1912.
16. In 1918 ………….. and ……………. recommended that 33% of Indians should be recruited in Indian civil services.
17. The …………….. was the second important pillar of the British administration in India.
18. The highest rank in the army that an Indian could ever reach was that of a ……………..
19. Circles or Thanas were headed by a …………….
20. The heriditary village police became ……………

Answer:

1. Vasco da Gama
2. Siraj – Ud – daula
3. Chandra nagore
4. Robert Clive
5. Britain and France
6. San Thome (Madras)
7. Count de Lally
8. Colonel Forde
9. Tipu Sultan
10. Joseph Smith
11. Mathews
12. Raghunath Rao
13. Nana Phadnavis
14. Yashwant Rao Holkas
15. Islington
16. Montague, Chelmsford
17. Army
18. Subedar
19. Daroga
20. Chowkidars

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. v
5. ii

IV. State true or false

Question 1.
Within a year after the Battle of Wandiwash the English army totally routed the French Army.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In 1761, Tipu Sultan became the de facto ruler of Hyderabad.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In 1761, Tipu Sultan became the de facto ruler of Mysore.

Question 3.
Warren Hastings consolidated the British power in India. [Ans : True]
The Treaty of Salbai was signed between Cornwallis and Mahadaji Scindia.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Treaty of Salbai was signed between Warren Hastings and Mahadaji Scindia.

Question 4.
The idea of competition for recruitment was introduced first by the Charter Act, 1833.
Answer:
True

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What was the motive behind the discovery of sea routes to India?
Answer:
The main motive behind those discoveries was to maximize profit through trade and to establish political supremacy.

Question 2.
What were the causes of the Second Anglo Mysore war?
Answer:
1. The English did not fulfill the terms of the treaty of 1769, when Haider’s territories were attacked in 1771 by Marathas, Haider did not get help from the British.

2. British captured Mahe, a French settlement within Haider’s Jurisdiction. It led to the formation of an alliance by Haider with the Nizam and Marathas against the English in 1779.

Question 3.
Prepare flow chart to explain the period of the three Carnatic wars.
Answer:

Question 4.
What were the results of the First Anglo Maratha War?
Answer:

1. RaghunathRao was pensioned off and MadhavRao II was accepted as the Peshwa.
2. Salsette was given to the British.
3. The Treaty of Salbai established the British influence in Indian politics. It provided the British twenty years of peace with the Marathas.

Question 5.
Explain with a flow chart the period of the Anglo Mysore wars.
Answer:

Question 6.
Prepare a flow chart mentioning the period in which the Anglo Maratha wars were fought.
Answer:

Question 7.
What did the Indian Civil Service Act of 1861 state?
Answer:
The Indian Civil Service Act of 1861 passed by the British Parliament exclusively reserved certain categories of high executive and judicial posts for the covenanted civil service which was later designated as the Indian Civil Service.

Question 8.
Name the three Indians who became successful in the I.C.S. examination in 1869.
Answer:
In 1869, three Indians – Surendra Nath Banerje, Ramesh Chandra Dutt and Bihari Lai Gupta became successful in the I.C.S. examination.

Question 9.
What did the Royal Commission of Public Service or the Lee Commission recommend in 1923?
Answer:
In 1923, a Royal Commission on Public Services was appointed with Lord Lee of Fareham as chairman. This commission recommended that recruitment to all-Indian services like the Indian Civil Service, the Indian Police Service and the Indian Forest Service should be made and controlled by the Secretary of State for India. The Lee Commission recommended the immediate establishment of a Public Service Commission.

Question 10.
Write a short note on the Act of 1935.
Answer:
The Act of 1935 also made provisions for the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission at the Centre and the Provincial Public Service Commissions in the various provinces. Provision was also made for a Joint Public Service Commission in two or more Provinces. Although, the main aim of this measure was to serve the British interests, it became the base of the civil service system in independent India.

Question 11.
Name the provinces in which separates armies were organised during the British rule.
Answer:
During the early stage of British rule, three separate armies had been organised in three Presidencies of Bengal, Bombay and Madras.

Question 12.
Name the places where high courts were setup according to the Act of 1861.
Answer:
According to the Indian High Courts Act, 1861, three High Courts were set up in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

Question 13.
Brief the merits of the subsidiary Alliance for the British.
Answer:
Merits for the British:

1. The British Company maintained a large army at the expense of the Indian rulers.
2. All Frenchmen in the service of native rulers were dismissed, and the danger of French revival was completely eliminated.
3. The British Company began to control the foreign policy of the Princely States,
4. Wellesley’s diplomacy made the British the paramount power in India. He transformed the British Empire in India into the British empire of India.

Question 14.
What were the factors for the success of the British?
Answer:
Factors for the success of the British

1. Greater naval power.
2. Development of textile.
3. Scientific division of labour.
4. Economic prosperity and skilful diplomacy of the British.
5. Feelings of insecurity among the Indian merchants.
6. The inequality and ignorance of the Indian kings.

Question 15.
What was the impact of the policies of Subsidiary Alliance and Doctrine of Lapse in India?
Answer:
This policy led to a South Indian rebellion (1800 – 01), Vellore Rebellion (1806) and the Great Rebellion (1857).

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Air Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Air Lesson Question 1.
Which of the following is true about oxygen?
(a) Completely burning gas
(b) Partially burning gas
(c) Doesn’t support burning
(d) Supports burning
Answer:
(d) Supports burning

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 2.
Aerated water contains –
(a) air
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) nitrogen
Answer:
(c) carbon dioxide

Question 3.
Solvay process is a method to manufacture –
(a) lime water
(b) aerated water
(c) distilled water
(d) sodium carbonate
Answer:
(d) sodium carbonate

Question 4.
Carbon dioxide with water changes –
(a) blue litmus to red
(b) red litmus to blue
(c) blue litmus to yellow
(d) doesn’t react with litmus
Answer:
(a) blue litmus to red

Question 5.
Which of the following is known as azote?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………. is called as vital life.
2. Nitrogen is ……………. than air.
3. ……………. is used as a fertilizer.
4. Dry ice is used as a …………….
5. The process of conversion of iron into hydrated form of oxides is called …………….

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. lighter
3. Nitrogen
4. refrigerant
5. rusting

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Nitrogen – Respiration in living animals
2. Oxygen – Fertilizer
3. Carbon dioxide – Refrigerator
4. Dry ice – Fire extinguisher

Answer:

1. Nitrogen – Fertilizer
2. Oxygen – Respiration in living animals
3. Carbon dioxide – Fire extinguisher
4. Dry ice – Refrigerator

IV. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What are the sources of oxygen?
Answer:

1. Atmospheric air, water.
2. Plants and animals.
3. Minerals in the form of silicates, carbonates, oxides.

Question 2.
Mention the physical properties of oxygen.
Answer:
Physical properties of oxygen:

1. Oxygen is a colorless, odorless and tasteless gas.
2. It is a poor conductor of heat and electricity
3. Oxygen dissolves readily in cold water.
4. It is denser than air.
5. It can be made into liquid (liquefied) at high pressure and low temperature.
6. It supports combustion.

Question 3.
List out the uses of nitrogen.
Answer:
Uses of nitrogen:

1. Liquid nitrogen is used as a refrigerant.
2. It provides an inert atmosphere for conducting certain chemical reactions.
3. It is used to prepare ammonia (by Haber’s process) which is then converted into fertilizers and nitric acid.
4. It is used for inflating tyres of vehicles.

Question 4.
Write about the reaction of nitrogen with non metals.
Answer:
Nitrogen reacts with non-metals like hydrogen, oxygen etc., at high temperature to form their corresponding nitrogen compounds.
Non-metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Nitrogen compound
Example:

Question 5.
What is global warming?
Answer:
The increased green house effect is caused due to increase in the air pollutants and it results in the average increase of temperature of the atmosphere. This is called as Global warming.

Question 6.
What is dry ice? What are its uses?
Answer:

1. Solid carbon dioxide, called as dry ice is used as a refrigerant.
2. The gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog which is used in stage shows and movie effects.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water? Write the equation for this reaction.
Answer:
When a limited amount of CO₂ is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O
When an excess amount of CO₂ is passed through lime water, it first turns milky and the milkyness disappears due to the formation of soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate, Ca(HCO₃)₂.

Question 2.
Name the compounds produced when the following substances burn in oxygen:

1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Phosphorous
4. Magnesium
5. Iron
6. Sodium

Answer:

1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
2. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)
3. Phosphorus trioxide (P₂O₃) (or) Phosphorus pentoxide (P₂O₅)
4. Magnesium Oxide (MgO)
5. Iron Oxide (Fe₂O₃)
6. Sodium Oxide (Na₂O)

Question 3.
How does carbon dioxide react with the following?

1. Potassium
2. Lime water
3. Sodium hydroxide

Answer:
1. Potassium combine with CO₂ to form potassium carbonate.
4K + 3CO₂ → 2K₂CO₃ + C

2. When a limited amount of CO₂ is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O
(Calcium carbonate)
Sodium hydroxide (base) is neutralized by carbon dioxide (acidic) to form sodium carbonate (salt) and water.

Question 4.
What are the effects of acid rain? How can we prevent them?
Answer:
Acid rain affects us in many ways. Some of the consequences are given below.

1. It irritates eyes and skin of human beings.
2. It inhibits germination and growth of seedlings.
3. It changes the fertility of the soil, destroys plants and aquatic life.
4. It causes corrosion of many buildings, bridges, etc.

Preventive measures:
Acid rain and its effects can be controlled by the following ways.

1. Minimizing the usage of fossil fuel such as petrol, diesel etc.
2. Using CNG (Compressed Natural Gas).
3. Using non – conventional source of energy.
4. Proper disposal of the industrial wastes.

VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Soda bottle bursts sometimes when it is opened during summer. Why?
Answer:

1. In soda bottle carbon dioxide gas is dissolved in water under pressure.
2. The gas in the bottle expands.
3. Hence, the pressure inside the bottle increases.
4. Thus the bottle may burst in hot summer.

Question 2.
It is said that sleeping beneath the tree during night is bad for health. What is the reason?
Answer:
During night trees absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide. Therefore, anyone who sleeps under tree, will not get oxygen, which can cause breathing problems, suffocation etc.

Question 3.
Why does the fish die when it is taken out of water?
Answer:

1. Gills are richly supplied with blood capillaries and can readily absorb the oxygen dissolved in water.
2. When fishes are taken out of water, the supply of oxygen to the fishes is cut as the fishes cannot absorb and breathe using the oxygen present in the atmosphere.
3. Hence they die, when it is taken out of water.

Question 4.
How do astronauts breathe when they go beyond earth’s atmosphere?
Answer:

1. Astronauts cannot breathe in space unless they carry their own oxygen with them.
2. They can make their own oxygen by using energy from the solar arrays to split hydrogen and oxygen from water.

Do you know?

Question 1.
Nowadays nitrogen is used as a substitute for compressed air in tyres. Have you noticed it? Why do people prefer nitrogen instead of compressed air in tyres?
Answer:
It is because nitrogen tyres hold pressure longer as compared to compressed air. Nitrogen gas in the tyre escapes more slowly than compressed air does.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Air Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Question 1.
…………… is necessary for all acids.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) CO₂
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Question 2.
Tri oxygen molecule is known as ……………
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) nitrogen
(d) ozone
Answer:
(d) ozone

Question 3.
About 78% by volume of air is ……………
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) nitrogen

Question 4.
Carbon dioxide gas is ……………
(a) heavier than air
(b) lighter than air
(c) as heavy as air
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) heavier than air

Question 5.
A gas which neither burns nor supports burning is …………….
(a) Oxygen
(b) Helium
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(d) Carbon dioxide

Question 6.
A gas which is used to remove carbon impurities from steel.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(b) Oxygen

Question 7.
Venus atmosphere consists of roughly 96 – 97% of …………….
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide

Question 8.
Carbon dioxide gas is …………… in nature.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) sweet
(d) none
Answer:
(b) acidic

Question 9.
…………… gas is essential for the proper growth of all plants.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) CO₂
(c) Oxygen
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 10.
Lighter metals like Na, K combine with CO₂ to form corresponding …………….
(a) Nitrates
(b) Carbonates
(c) Oxide
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Carbonates

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. …………… exists in nature as silicates, carbonates, oxides and water.
2. Metals like magnesium, iron and sodium bum with oxygen and give basic …………….
3. …………… has pH less than 5.6.
4. CO₂ is along with …………… in the manufacture of fertilizers like urea.
5. CO₂, N₂O, CH₄ and CFC are known as …………….
6. ……………. is used to prepare soft drinks or aerated drinks.
7. ……………. is used as a substitute for compressed air in tyres.
8. Liquid nitrogen is used as a ……………..
9. Oxygen is used to oxidize …………….
10. Phosphorous bums with suffocating smell and gives ……………..

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Oxides
3. Acid rain
4. ammonia
5. Greenhouse gases
6. CO₂
7. Nitrogen
8. refrigerant
9. rocket fuel
10. Phosphorous pentaoxide

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1.	Oxygen	(a)	Carbon dioxide
2.	Azote	(b)	Nitrogen
3.	Solvay process	(c)	Vital life
4.	Gun powder	(d)	No life

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 2.

1.	Nitrogen	(a)	Acid rain
2.	CO2	(b)	Global warming
3.	Melting of glaciers	(c)	Volcanic gases
4.	Corrosion of bridges	(d)	Aerated drinks

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

IV. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Oxygen is the poor conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Nitrogen is about two times more soluble in water then oxygen.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Oxygen is about two times more soluble in water than Nitrogen.

Question 3.
Nitrogen is an essential element present in proteins and nucleic acids which are the building blocks of living things.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Non-metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Nitrogen compound.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Solid form of CO₂ is called as dry ice which undergoes condensation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Solid form of CO₂ is called as dry ice which undergoes sublimation.

Question 6.
Acid rain inhibits germination and growth of seedlings.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
An average increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is called as acid rain.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
An average increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is called as global warming.

Question 8.
Rain water is actually the purest form of water.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The increase in the levels of greenhouse gases results in the gradual increase of temperature of the earth’s surface.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Nitrogen gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Solid CO₂ gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog.

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : Green house gases maintain the temperature.
Reason : Green house gases absorb the infra red rays.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Carbon dioxide occurs as carbonates in nature.
Reason : Carbon dioxide can exist as a liquid at atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Rain mixed with sulphuric acid is called acid rain.

Question 2.
Name some green house gases.
Answer:
CO₂, N₂O, CH₄, CFC (Chlorofluorocarbon) etc.

Question 3.
Name the microbe which converts atmospheric nitrogen directly into soluble nitrogen compounds.
Answer:
Bacteria.

Question 4.
Write the reaction of oxygen with hydrocarbons.
Answer:
Hydrocarbon + O₂ > CO₂ + Water vapour + Heat energy + Light.

Question 5.
Write the reaction of carbon dioxide with lime water.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O.

Question 6.
Write any two preventive measures for acid rain.
Answer:

1. Using CNG
2. Proper disposal of the industrial wastes.

Question 7.
Write about the combustible property of Oxygen.
Answer:
Oxygen is a non – combustible gas as it does not bum on its own. It supports the combustion of other substances.

Question 8.
Write any two effects of global warming.
Answer:

1. Increase in frequency of floods, soil erosion and unseasonal rains.
2. Loss of biodiversity due to the extinction of coral reefs and other key species.

Question 9.
What do you mean by aerated water?
Answer:
Aerated water is nothing but carbon dioxide dissolved in water under pressure. This is also called soda water.

Question 10.
Write any two preventive measures of global warming.
Answer:

1. Reduction in the use of fossil fuels.
2. Restricting the use of CFC’s.

Question 11.
Write the reaction of oxygen with non – metals.
Answer:
Oxygen reacts with various non – metals like hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon, sulphur, phosphorus etc., to give corresponding non – metallic oxides which are generally acidic in nature.
Non – metal + Oxygen → Non – metallic oxide
Example:
C + O₂ → CO₂

Question 12.
Write a note on rusting process.
Answer:
The process of conversion of iron into its hydrated form of oxide in the presence of air and moisture (humid atmosphere) is called rusting. Rust is hydrated ferric oxide.
4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
Fe₂O₃ + X H₂O → 2Fe₂O₃ . X H₂O
(X = Number of water molecules which is variable).

Question 13.
Write the reaction of nitrogen with metals.
Answer:
Nitrogen reacts with metals like lithium, calcium, magnesium etc., at high temperature to form their corresponding metal nitrides.
Metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Metal nitride
Example:

Question 14.
Write about occurrence of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is present in air to the extent of about 0.03% in volume. It is evolved by the plants and animals during respiration and is produced during fermentation reactions. Much of the naturally occurring CO₂ is emitted from the magma through volcanoes. CO₂ may also originate from the bio – degradation of oil and gases. Human CO₂ emissions upset the natural balance of the carbon cycle.

Question 15.
Write the reaction of carbon dioxide with metals.
Answer:
Lighter metals like sodium, potassium and calcium, combine with CO₂ to form corresponding carbonates whereas magnesium gives its oxide and carbon.
Example :

Question 16.
What are the effects of global warming?
Answer:

1. Melting of ice cap and glaciers.
2. Increase in frequency of floods, soil erosion and un – seasonal rains.
3. Loss of biodiversity due to the extinction of coral reefs and other key species.
4. Spreading of waterborne and insectborne diseases.

Question 17.
Complete the following:

Answer:

1. Natural fixation
2. From leguminous plants
3. From ammonia and ammonium salts
4. From nitric acid and nitrate salts

Question 18.
What is green house effect?
Answer:

1. Certain gaseous molecules present in the atmosphere absorb the infra red rays and reradiate the heat in all directions.
2. Hence, these gases maintain the temperature of earth’s surface.
3. The gases which absorb these radiations are called green house gases and this effect is called green house effect.

Question 19.
Complete the table:

Metal	Condition	Product formed
K	Room temperature	(i)
Ca	(ii)	CaO
(iii)	Even at high temperature	No action
Fe	High temperature	(iv)

Answer:

1. Potassium oxide (K₂O)
2. Heating slightly
3. Au or Pt
4. Iron Oxide (Fe₃O₄)

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the uses of oxygen.
Answer:
Uses of oxygen:

1. It is used as oxy – acetylene light for cutting and welding metals.
2. It is used to remove carbon impurities from steel.
3. Plants and animals use oxygen from the air for respiration.
4. It is used to oxidize rocket fuel.
5. It is used for artificial respiration by scuba divers, mountaineers, astronauts, patients etc.
6. Mixed with powdered charcoal it is used as explosives.
7. It is used in the synthesis of methanol and ammonia.

Question 2.
Write the physical properties of nitrogen.
Answer:

1. Physical properties of nitrogen
2. It is a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas.
3. It is slightly lighter than air.
4. It is slightly soluble in water.
5. Nitrogen becomes a liquid at low temperature and looks like water. When it freezes, it becomes a white solid.
6. It is neutral to litmus like oxygen.

Question 3.
Write the uses of nitrogen.
Answer:
Uses of Nitrogen:

1. Liquid nitrogen is used as a refrigerant.
2. It provides an inert atmosphere for conducting certain chemical reactions.
3. It is used to prepare ammonia (by Haber’s process) which is then converted into fertilizers and nitric acid.
4. It is used for inflating tyres of vehicles.
5. It is used for filling the space above mercury in high temperature thermometer to reduce the evaporation of mercury.
6. Many explosives such as TNT (Trinitrotoluene), nitroglycerin and gun powder contain nitrogen.
7. It is used for the preservation of fresh foods, manufacturing of stainless steel, reducing fire hazards and as part of the gas in incandescent light bulbs.

Question 4.

1. Explain the physical properties of carbon dioxide.
2. Write the preventive measures to control the effect of global warming.

Answer:
1. Physical properties of carbon dioxide:

• Carbon dioxide is a colorless and odorless gas.
• It is heavier than air.
• It does not support combustion.
• It is fairly soluble in water and turns blue litmus slightly red. So it is acidic in nature.
• It can easily be liquefied under high pressure and can also be solidified. This
• solid form of CO₂ is called dry ice which undergoes sublimation.

2. Preventive measures:

• Reduction in the use of fossil fuels.
• Controlling deforestation.
• Restricting the use of CFCs.
• Planting more trees.
• Reducing, reusing and recycling resources.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
What will happen if oxygen has the capacity to burn itself?
Answer:
If oxygen has the capacity to bum itself, striking a match stick will be enough to bum all the oxygen in our planet’s atmosphere.

IX. Solve the crossword Puzzle by using the clues given below.

Question 1.
Across:
1. A gas that supports combustion.
4. The compound that turns lime water milky.
5. The Gaseous jacket that surrounds the Earth.
6. It is used as a refrigerant.
7. Solid form of carbon dioxide.
Down:
2. The process by which atmospheri&oitrogen is converted into nitrates.
3. The common name of the compound formed when nails are exposed to moist air.
8. It changes the fertility of the soil, destroys plants and aquatic life.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Hazards Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Define Hazard Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
……………. percentage of nitrogen is present in the air.
(a) 78.09%
(b) 74.08%
(c) 80.07%
(d) 76.63%
Answer:
(a) 78.09%

Hazards May Lead To Answer Question 2.
Tsunami in Indian Ocean took place in the s ear …………….
(a) 1990
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2008
Answer:
(b) 2004

Mention The Types Of Drought Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
The word tsunami is derived from ……………. language.
(a) Hindi
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) German
Answer:
(c) Japanese

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Question 4.
The example of surface water is –
(a) Artesian well
(b) Groundwater
(c) Subsurface water
(d) Lake
Answer:
(d) Lake

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 5.
Event that occurs due to the failure of monsoons.
(a) Condensation
(b) Drought
(c) Evaporation
(d) Precipitation
Answer:
(b) Drought

II. Fill in the anks

1. Hazards may lead to ……………..
2. Landslide is an example of …………….. hazard.
3. On the basis of origin, hazard can be grouped into …………….. categories.
4. Terrorism is an example of …………….. hazard.
5. Oxides of Nitrogen are …………….. pollutants which affects the human beings.
6. Chernobyl nuclear accident took place in ……………..

Answer:

1. disaster
2. Geologic (or) Seismic
3. Eight
4. Human – induced
5. Primary
6. 26th April 1986

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV Answer in brief

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Define‘hazard’.
Answer:
‘Hazards are defined as a thing, person, event or factor that poses a threat to people, structures or economic assets and which may cause a disaster.’

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.
What are the major types of hazards?
Answer:

1. Atmospheric hazard
2. Geologic 7 Seismic hazard
3. Hydrologic hazard
4. Volcanic hazard
5. Environmental hazard
6. Biological hazard
7. Human – induced hazard
8. Technological hazard

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Question 3.
Write a brief note on hazardous wastes.
Answer:
The wastes that may or tend to cause adverse health effects on the ecosystem and human beings are called hazardous wastes.

8th Social Solution Question 4.
List out the major flood prone areas of our country.
Answer:

1. The major flood prone areas in north and northeast India are, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, North Bihar, West Bengal and Brahmaputra valley.
2. Coastal Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Southern Gujarat are the other regions which are also prone to flood often.

Question 5.
Mention the types of drought.
Answer:
Drought could be classified into three types. They are:

1. Meteorological drought
2. Hydrological drought
3. Agricultural drought

Question 6.
Why should not we construct houses at foothill areas?
Answer:
We should not construct houses at foothill areas because it has rapid downward movement of rocks and soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity which leads to landslides.

V. Distinguish the following :

Question 1.
Hazards and disasters.
Answer:
1. Hazard:
A natural hazard is a natural process and event that is a potential threat to human life and property.

2. Disasters:
A disaster is a hazardous event that occurs over a limited time span in a defined area and causes great damage to property / loss of life, also needs assistance from others.

Question 2.
Natural hazard and human-made hazard.
Answer:
Natural Hazards:

1. These are the results of natural processes and man has no role to play in such hazards.
2. For example: Earthquakes, Floods, Cyclonic storms and volcanic eruption etc.

Human – made – Hazards:

1. These are caused by undesirable activities of human. It can be the result of an accident such as an industrial chemical leak or oil spill.
2. For example: Hazardous wastes, pollution of air, water and land etc.

Question 3.
Flood and drought.
Answer:
Flood:

1. Flood is an event in which a part of the earth’s surface gets inundated.
2. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are the common causes of flood.

Drought:

1. Any lack of water to satisfy the normal needs of agriculture, livestock, industry or human population may be termed as a drought.
2. Droughts in India occur in the event of a failure of monsoon.

Question 4.
Earthquake and tsunami.
Answer:
1. Earthquake:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of stock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

2. Tsunami:
Tsunami refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide or volcanic eruption. It is generally noticed in the coastal regions and travel between 640 and 960 Km/h.

VI. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write an essay on air pollution.
Answer:
Pollution of Air :

1. Air is a mixture of several gases.

2. The main gases are nitrogen (78.09%) for forming products such as fertilizers for plants and for making the air inert, oxygen (20.95%) for breathing and carbon dioxide (0.03%) for photosynthesis.

3. Some other gases like argon, neon, helium, krypton, hydrogen, zenon and methane are also present.

4. Air pollution is the contamination of the indoor or outdoor air by a range of gases. Air pollution can be categorized into primary and secondary pollutants.

5. A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source.

6. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted.

7. Primary pollutants are as follows:

• Oxides of Sulphur
• Oxides of Nitrogen
• Oxides of Carbon
• Particulate Matter and
• Other primary pollutants

8. Secondary pollutants are as follows:

• Ground Level Ozone
• Smog

Question 2.
Define earthquake and list out its effects.
Answer:
Earthquakes:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

Effects of Earthquakes:

1. The Primary effects of earthquakes are ground shaking, ground rupture, landslides, Tsunamis and soil liquefaction.
2. The Secondary effects of earthquakes are fires.
3. The effects of earthquakes are terrible and devasting. Thus leads to distraction of buildings, loss of money, property and lines of people. This affects the mental and emotional health of people.

Question 3.
Give a detailed explanation on the causes of landslides.
Answer:

1. Landslide is a rapid downward movement of rock, soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity.

2. The causes of landslides are wide ranging, They have two aspects in common.

3. Force of gravity and

4. Failure of Soil

5. Landslides are considered of two types. They are:

• Naturally occuring disaster.
• Human induced changes in the environment.

6. Natural causes of landslides are:

• Climatic changes
• Seismic activities
• Weathering
• Soil erosion
• Forest fires
• Gravity and
• Volcanic eruption

7. Human causes of landslides includes deforestation mining, construction of roads and railways over the mountain.

Question 4.
Elaborately discuss the effects water pollution.
Answer:
Water Pollution:

1. Water pollution may be defined as alteration in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water which may cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.
2. In India, water pollution has been taking place on a large scale.
3. Some of these waterborne diseases are Typhoid, Cholera, Paratyphoid fever, Dysentery, Jaundice and Malaria.
4. Chemicals in the water also have negative effects on our health.
5. Pesticides – can damage the nervous system and cause cancer because of the Carbonates and organophosphere that they may contain.
6. Both surface and groundwater bodies are polluted to a great extent.

VII. Activities

Question 1.
Name the hazards which you have identified.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 2.
List out the hazards that occur frequently and occasionally in your place.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 3.
On the map of Tamilnadu shade the 13 coastal districts in different colors.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Hazards Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………. is an example of human induced pollutants hazard.
(a) Terrorism
(b) Evaporation
(c) Nuclear accident
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Terrorism

Question 2.
…………. in Indian ocean took place in the year 2004.
(a) Earthquake
(b) Droughts
(c) Landslide
(d) Tsunami
Answer:
(d) Tsunami

Question 3.
A …………. hazard ¡s a natural process.
(a) Socio natural hazard
(b) Human – made
(c) Natural
(d) All the bove
Answer:
(C) Naturall

Question 4.
…………. can be broadly classified Into three types.
(a) Economics
(b) Hazards
(c) Environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hazards

Question 5.
The main examples of natural hazards are ………….
(a) earthquakes
(b) floods
(c) cyclonic
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
…………. hazards are caused by undesirable activities of human.
(a) Human – made
(b) Natural
(c) Socio – natural
(d) Atmospheric
Answer:
(a) Human – made

Question 7.
…………. are caused by natural forces in mountainous areas.
(a) Over populations
(b) Landslides
(c) Socio – natural
(d) Hydrologic hazard
Answer:
(b) Landslides

Question 8.
…………. Is a serious problem In most big Urban.
(a) Storm
(b) Landslides
(c) Smog
(d) Droughts
Answer:
(c) Smog

Question 9.
…………. surge hazards may be worsened by the destruction of mangroves.
(a) Storm
(b) Smog
(c) Flood
(d) Droughts
Answer:
(a) Stormi

Question 10.
Heavy rainfall and large waves In seas are the common causes of …………..
(a) Droughts
(b) Smog
(c) Tsunami
(d) Flood
Answer:
(d) Flood

Question 11.
…………. storm is a strong wind circulating around a low pressure area in the atmosphere.
(a) Tropical cyclone
(b) Cyclonic
(c) Heavy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Cyclonic

Question 12.
The west coast of India is …………. vulnerable to storm surges than the east coast.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) great
(d) high
Answer:
(a) less

Question 13.
…………. drought is a reduction in rainfall for a specific period below a specific level.
(a) Agricultural
(b) Hydro – logical
(c) Landslides
(d) Meteorological
Answer:
(d) Meteorological

Question 14.
…………. droughts associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs.
(a) Hydro – logical
(b) Agricultural
(c) Meteorological
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Answer:
(a) Hydro – logical

Question 15.
…………. droughts refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to lack of rainfall.
(a) Meteorological
(b) Agricultural
(c) Hydro – logical
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(b) Agricultural

Question 16.
…………. in India occur in the event of a failure of monsoon.
(a) Floods
(b) Landslides
(c) Droughts
(d) Earthquakes
Answer:
(c) Droughts

Question 17.
The dry region lying in the leeward side of the …………..
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Western Ghats

Question 18.
…………. is a rapid downward movement of rock, soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity.
(a) Drought
(b) Flood
(c) Landslide
(d) Earthquake
Answer:
(c) Landslide

Question 19.
…………. is a mixture of several gases.
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Soil
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Air

Question 20.
…………. pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Primary

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hazards can be broadly classified into …………. types
2. Smog is a serious problem in most …………. areas.
3. The beginning of …………. century, the earth supported a human population.
4. The meaning of old french “Hazards” ………….
5. A catastrophe was recover …………. time.
6. …………. can disturb the safety health, welfare of people.
7. …………. is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust.
8. …………. percentage of carbon di oxide present in the air.
9. …………. percentage of oxygen present in the air.
10. …………. nuclear accident took place in 26th April 1986.
11. …………. hazards are caused by the combined effect forces and misdeeds of human.
12. Storm surge hazards may be worsened by the destruction of …………..
13. A sudden rise of seawater due to tropical cyclone is called ……………
14. In Tamil Nadu coast …………… and …………… districts are frequently affected.
15. The drought could be classified into …………… major types.
16. Presence of steep slope and heavy rainfall are the major causes of …………….
17. The word ‘tsu’ meaning ……………..
18. The word ‘nami’ meaning ……………..
19. The atomic bomb dropped on Hiroshima (Japan) in ………………
20. ……………… the wastes resulting from ordnance manufacturing and some industrial gases.
21. ……………… refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide (or) volcanic eruption.

Answer:

1. Three
2. big urban
3. Twenty first
4. a game of dice
5. long
6. Hazards
7. Earthquake
8. 0.03%
9. 20.95%
10. Chernobyl
11. Socio – natural
12. mangroves
13. storm surge
14. Cuddalore, Nagapattinam
15. three
16. Landslides
17. harbour
18. ‘wave’
19. 1945
20. Explosives
21. Tsunami

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. d
4. b
5. a

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a

IV. State True or False

1. Hazards are classified into natural, human – made and socio – natural hazards
2. Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.
3. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are not the common causes of flood.
4. The West coast of India is more vulnerable to storm surge than the east coast.
5. The coastal belt around the Gulf of Kutch.
6. The droughts could be classified into six types.
7. Hydro – logical droughts is associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs.
8. Agricultural drought refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to more of rainfall.
9. Weak ground structure, mining, construction of roads and railways over the mountains are the causes of landslides.
10. The word ‘Tsunami’ is derived from latin world ‘tsu’ meaning harbour.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True
10. False

V. Consider the following statements and Tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct:
(i) Oxides of Nitrogen are primary pollutants which affects the human beings.
(ii) On the basis of origin, hazard can be grouped into eight categories.
(iii) Delayed actions may increase the economic losses.
(iv) The major causes of water pollution in India are sewages and soil wastes,

(a) (i) & (ii) are Correct
(b) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer
Statement (A) : Water pollution may be defined as alteration in which the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water.
Reason (R) : Water pollution cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) Both A and Rare wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which one of rthe following is correctly matched?
(a) Secondary Pollutant – Smog
(b)Primary Pollutant – Ground Level Ozone
(c) Water Pollution – Earthquake
(d) 2016 – Tsunami in India
Answer:
(a) Secondary Pollutant – Smog

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Ecosystem – Hazardous waste
(b) Chemic1als – Explosives
(c) Carbon di oxide – 0.05%
(d) Oxygen – 20.95%
Answer:
(C) Carbon di oxide – 0.05%

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
List out any four major causes of water pollution in India.
Answer:

1. Urbanization
2. Industrial effluents
3. Se-wages
4. Solid wastes

Question 2.
Define prevention.
Answer:
Prevention is defined as the activities taken to prevent a natural calamity or potential hazard from having harmful effects on either people or economic assets.

Question 3.
Define Water Pollution.
Answer:
Water Pollution may be defined as alteration in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water, which may cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.

Question 4.
List out any four major hazardous wastes.
Answer:

1. Chemicals
2. Biomedical wastes
3. Flammable wastes
4. Explosives

Question 5.
What do you mean by Tsunami?
Answer:

1. Tsunami refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide or volcanic eruption.
2. It is generally noticed in the coastal regions and travel between 640 and 960 Km/h.

Question 6.
List out the major drought prone areas of our country.
Answer:

1. The arid and semi arid region from Ahmadabad to Kanpur on one side and from Kanpur to Jalandhar on the other.
2. The dry region lying in the leeward side of the Western Ghats.

Question 7.
What is earthquake?
Answer:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

Question 8.
List out the Atmospheric hazards.
Answer:
Tropical storms, Thunderstorms, Lightning, Tornadoes, Avalanches, Heat waves, fog and forest fire.

Question 9.
What do you meant by hazard?
Answer:
The word ‘hazard’ owes its origin to the word ‘hazart’ in old French meaning a game of dice (in Arabic-az-zahr; in Spanish – azar).

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1
What is flood? What are the Major causes of flood?
Answer:
Meaning of flood :

1. Flood is an event in which a part of the earth’s surface gets inundated.
2. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are the common causes of flood.

Major causes of floods: The Major causes of floods are,
1. Meteorological Factors:

• Heavy rainfall
• Tropical cyclones
• Cloud burst

2. Physical Factors:

• Large catchment area.
• Inadequate drainage arrangement

3. Human Factors:

• Deforestation
• Siltation
• Faulty agricultural practices
• Faulty irrigation practices
• Collapse of dams
• Accelerated urbanization

Question 2.
What is cyclonic storms? Explain about the cyclonic storms.
Answer:
Cyclonic Storms:

1. A Cyclonic storm is a strong wind circulating around a low pressure area in the atmosphere.
2. It rotates in anti – clockwise direction in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the southern Hemisphere.
3. Tropical Cyclones are characterized by destructive winds, storms surges and exceptional levels of rainfall, which may cause flooding.
4. Wind speed may reach upto 200 Km/h and rainfall may record upto 50 cm/ day for several consecutive days.
5. A sudden rise of seawater due to tropical cyclone is called storm surge.
6. It is more common in the regions of shallow coastal water.

East Coastal areas vulnerable to storm surges:

1. North Odisha and West Bengal coasts. ,
2. Andhra Pradesh coast between Ongole and Machilipatnam.
3. Tamil Nadu coast (among 13 coastal districts, Nagapattinam and Cuddalore districts are frequently affected).

West Coastal areas vulnerable to storm surges:

1. The west coast of India is less vulnerable to storm surges than the east coast.
2. Maharashtra coast, North of Hamai and adjoining South Gujarat coast and the coastal belt around the Gulf of Cambay.
3. The coastal belt around the Gulf of Kutch.

Question 3.
Give a detailed explanation about droughts.
Answer:
Droughts:
Any lack of water to satisfy the normal needs of agriculture, livestock, industry or human population may be termed as a drought.

Classifications of drought:
The drought could be classified into three major types. They are:

1. Meteorological drought:
ft is a situation where there is a reduction in rainfall for a specific period below ‘ a specific level.

2. Hydrological drought:
It is associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs. It is of two types.

• Surface water and
• Ground water drought

3. Agricultural drought:

• It refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to lack of rainfall.
• Droughts in India occur in the event of failure monsoon.

The Major areas highly prone to drought are:

• The arid and semi arid region from Ahmadabad to Kanpur on one side and from Kanpur to Jalandhar on the other.
• The dry region lying in the leeward side of the Western Ghats.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Development of Industries in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Development Of Industries In India 8th Standard Question 1.
Which of the following activities of the people will not come under handy craft?
(a) Carving statues out of stone
(b) Making bangles with glass
(c) Weaving silk sarees
(d) Smelting of iron
Answer:
(d) Smelting of Iron

Question 2.
The oldest industry in India was ……….. industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Steel
(c) Electrical
(d) Fertilizers
Answer:
(a) Textile

Question 3.
The woolen and leather factories became prominent in …………
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmadabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Decca
Answer:
(c) Kanpur

Question 4.
What was the aim of first Three Five year Plans of India?
(a) To control population growth
(b) To reduce illiteracy rate
(c) To built a strong industrial base
(d) To empower the women
Answer:
(c) To built a strong industrial base

Question 5.
What was not the reason for the decline of Indian Industries?
(a) Loss of royal patronage
(b) Competition of machine made goods
(c) Industrial policy of India
(d) Trading policy of British
Answer:
(c) Industrial policy of India

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……….. was the integral part in the life of the people.
2. Industrial revolution took place in …………
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in ………………
4. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly Valley at ………. near Calcutta.
5. ………… shortened the distance between Europe and India.

Answer:

1. Craft
2. 1948
3. 1939
4. Rishra
5. Suez Canal

III. Match the following

1. Tavernier – Drain Theory
2. Dacca – Paper mill
3. Dadabai Naoroji – Artisan
4. Ballygunj – Muslin
5. Smiths – French traveller

Answer:

1. Tavernier – French traveller
2. Dacca – Muslin
3. Dadabai Naoroji – Drain Theory
4. Ballygunj – Paper mill
5. Smiths – Artisan

IV. State True or False

1. India was famous for cotton and silk cloths.
2. The railway was introduced in India by the British.
3. Steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Jamshedpur.
4. The industrial policy of 1948, brought mixed economy in industrial sector.
5. The tenth and eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of Agricultural production.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) According to Edward Baines, ‘The birth place of cotton manufacture is in England’.
(ii) Before mechanised industry handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in rural India.
(iii) Saurashtra was known for tin industry.
(iv) Construction of Suez Canal made the British goods cheaper in India.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) iii and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(b) ii and iv are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian handicrafts collapsed under the colonial rule.
Reason (R) : British made India as the producer of raw materials and markets for their finished products.
(a) A is correct R is correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R is correct
(d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R is correct

Question 3.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Bernier – Shajahan
(b) Cotton mill – Ahmedabad
(c) TISCO – Jamshedpur
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980
Answer:
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the traditional handicrafts industries of India?
Answer:

1. The traditional handicrafts industries of India are textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
2. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils.

Question 2.
Write about the Drain theory.
Answer:
The Drain theory of Dadabai Naoroji was the first to acknowledge that the poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to Britain.

Question 3.
Name the inventions which made the production of textiles on large scale?
Answer:
The invention of cotton gin, flying shuttle, spinning jenny and steam engine in England, which made the production of textiles on large scale.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Confederation of Indian Industry.
Answer:

1. The Confederation of Indian Industry is a business association in India.
2. CIT is a non – Govemment, not – for – profit, industry – led and industry – managed organisation.
3. It was founded in 1985.

Question 5.
What is de – industrialisation?
Answer:
The process of disruption of traditional Indian crafts and decline in national income has been referred to as de – industrialisation.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
How was the trading policy of British caused for the decline of the Indian Industries?
Answer:

1. All the policies implemented by the British government in India had a deep impact on India’s indigenous industries.
2. Free trade policy followed by the East India Company compelled the Indian traders to sell their goods below the market prices.
3. This forced many craftsmen to abandon their ancestral handicraft talents.
4. East India company’s aim was to buy the maximum quantity of Indian manufactured goods at the cheapest price and sell them to other European countries for a huge profit.
5. This affected the traditional Indian industry.
6. The British followed the policy of protective tariffs that was much against the trading interests of India.
7. Heavy duties were charged on Indian goods in Britain, but at the same time, the English goods entering India were charged only nominal duties.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the plantation industries.
Answer:
Plantation industries :

1. The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans. This provide jobs on large scale.
2. In reality, it could meet the increasing demands for tea, coffee and indigo by the British Society.
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1839.
4. Coffee plantation also started simultaneously.
5. As the tea plantation was the most important industry of Eastern India, coffee plantation became the center of activities in South India.
6. The Third important plantation, which gave birth to factory was jute.
7. All these Industries were controlled by many former employees of the British East India Company.

Question 3.
Explain Industrial development after 1991 reforms.
Answer:

1. The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
2. India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
3. The Tenth and Eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
4. The abolition of Industrial licensing, dismantling of price controls, dilution of reservation of small scale industries.
5. Virtual abolition of monopoly law enabled Indian industry to flourish,
6. The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

VII. HOTs

Question 1.
How do handicraft products differ from machine made products?
Answer:
Handicraft:
Something you make with your own hands, especially an ornament or decoration, is a handicraft. Instead, items made by artisans like pottery, handwoven blankets, handmade jewellery and quilts stitched by hand are all examples of handicrafts.

Machine made Products:
Machine made Products are produced faster and all are exactly the same. Machine manufacturing is faster and more economical. Also machine made goods are cheaper than hand made goods.

IX. Mark the following places on the outline map of India

1. Bombay
2. Calcutta
3. Dacca
4. Jamshedpur
5. Rishra
6. Ahmedabad
7. Kanpur
8. Kulti
9. New Delhi
10. Assam
Answer:

X. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Name the industries in your state and divide them into Agro based metal based and forest based.
Answer:

Question 2.
Prepare a project on air, water, and land pollution due to the industrial development in India.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 3.
Make a power point presentation on the industrial development of India and highlight the main features of those developments.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The ………….. in India has a rich history.
(a) Craft
(b) Steel
(c) Agricultural
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Craft

Question 2.
Saurashtra was known for ………………
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Bell Metal
(c) Muslin Clothes
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Bell Metal

Question 3.
Dacca was identified with ………….
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Muslin Clothes
(c) Bell Metal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Muslin Clothes

Question 4.
The Tradition Indian Industry was known in the fields of …………..
(a) textiles
(b) woodwork
(c) ivory
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 5.
Mummies in …………. tombs dating from 2000 BC were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
(a) Egyptian
(b) British
(c) Spanish
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Egyptian

Question 6.
A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a …………..
(a) dress
(b) matchbox
(c) tin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) match box

Question 7.
………… industry was the oldest industry in India.
(a) Steel
(b) Jute
(c) Textile
(d) Sugar
Answer:
(c) Textile

Question 8.
Poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to …………
(a) England
(b) Britain
(c) Egyptian
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Britain

Question 9.
Free trade policy followed by the ………….
(a) India
(b) England
(c) East India Company
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(c) East India Company

Question 10.
The process of Industrialization started in India from the mid ………..
(a) 18th Century
(b) 19th Century
(c) 20th Century
(d) 21st Century
Answer:
(c) 20th Century

Question 11.
The beginning of modern industry is associated with the development in mainly plantation like …………
(a) jute
(b) cotton
(c) steel
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
The ……….. was the first to attract the Europeans.
(a) Machine based Industries
(b) Plantation Industries
(c) Heavy Industries
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Plantation Industries

Question 13.
The Assam Tea Company was founded in ……………
(a) 1839
(b) 1939
(c) 1739
(d) 1840
Answer:
(a) 1839

Question 14.
The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was setup in …………..
(a) 1905
(b) 1906
(c) 1907
(d) 1908
Answer:
(c) 1907

Question 15.
In India, Modern Industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry at ……….. in 1854.
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(d) Bombay

Question 16.
The First Paper Mill was started in …………. near Calcutta in 1870.
(a) Ballygunj
(b) Rishra
(c) Kanpur
(d) Jamshedji
Answer:
(a) Ballygunj

Question 17.
Steel was First manufactured by modern methods at Kulti in ………….
(a) 1843
(b) 1874
(c) 1865
(d) 1878
Answer:
(b) 1874

Question 18.
The year 1991 undered a new era of the ……………..
(a) Modernisation
(b) Industrialization
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

Question 9.
The New Policy welcomes ……………
(a) Craft
(b) Foreign Investment
(c) Agriculture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Foreign Investment

Question 20.
………….. is an important component of economic growth.
(a) Modernisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Industrialisation
Answer:
(d) Industrialisation

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. industry was started in Hoogly valley at Rishra near Culcutta
2. The …………. and ………… factories become prominent in Kanpur.
3. The ………… tea company was founded in 1939.
4. The steel was first manufactured by modern methods at ………..
5. ………… for tin industry.
6. The Second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture is ……….
7. The British conquest transformed Indian economy (self-reliant) into ………economy.
8. The accelerated industrialization began with the development of ……….. and ……………
9. The length of ………….. increased from 2,573 Km in 1861 to 55,773 Km in 1914.
10. ………….. mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
11. The heavy industries included the ……….. and ……….. industry.
12. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of ………. century.
13. Industrial Policy Resolution 1956, industries were classified into ………. categories.
14. ………….. skills were short in supply.
15. Very important aim of the first three five year plans were ……………. India.
16. A new era of the economic liberalization in …………..
17. The …………. policy welcomes foreign investments.
18. …………. has now a large verity of industries producing goods of varied nature
19. Give example for primary sector ……….
20. There was a limited development of mining, especially …………

Answer:

1. Jutej
2. Wollen and leather
3. Assam
4. Jamshedpui
5. Vanga
6. Handicrafts
7. colonial
8. roadways and railways
9. railways
10. Cotton
11. Iron and Steel
12. 20th Century
13. Three
14. Technical
15. Strong Industrial
16. 1991
17. New
18. India
19. agriculture
20. coal

III. Match the following:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. f
6. c

IV. State True or False:

1. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly ally at Rishra near Punjab.
2. Suez canal shortened the distance between Europe and India.
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1939.
4. The expand form of TISCO – True Iron and Steel Company.
5. Cotton Mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
6. India was famous for its quality of cotton and silk clothes.
7. Saurashtra was known for Dacca.
8. Vanga was known for tin industry.
9. India become the market for the finished products of Britain.
10. During the first half of 19th Century western countries were industrialization.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True

V. Consider the following statements and Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
(ii) Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.
(iii) The process of industrialization started In India from the mid-18’ century.
(iv) The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans.

(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(b) (i), (iii) & (iv) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) & (iv) are Correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian became the market for the finished products of Britain.
Reason (R) : The British conquest transformed Indian Economy (self-reliant) into colonial economy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Shajahan – Jamshedpur
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry
(c) TISCO – Bernier
(D) 1991 – New Agricultural Policy
Answer:
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry

Question 4.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
a) Paper Mill – Muslin
(b) Smiths – Artisan
(c) Drain Theory – The British exploitation of India’s resources
(d) De – industrialisation – 19th Century
Answer:
(a) Paper Mill – Muslin

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a short note on industrial development during 1965 – 1980.
Answer:

1. As the first three five year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
2. The consumer goods sector is the backbone of rural economy.
3. As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

Question 2.
Classify the Industries on the basis of raw material.
Solution:
On the basis of raw material used, industries can be classified into –

1. Agro – based Industries
2. Mineral – based Industries

Question 3.
When and where was the first paper mill started?
Answer:
The first paper mill was started in Ballygunj near Calcutta in 1870.

Question 4.
Write any two machine based industries started in India.
Answer:

1. In India modern industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry in Bombay in 1854.
2. In 1855, Jute industry was started in the hooghly valley at Rishra near Calcutta.

Question 5.
Write about the Muslin of Dacca.
Answer:

1. Mummies in Egyptian tombs dating from 2000 BC (BCE) were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
2. A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a match box.

Question 6.
What happen to Indian handicrafts under the colonical rule?
Answer:
Indian handicrafts that had made the country famous collapsed under the colonical rule.

Question 7.
Which is an important component of economic growth?
Answer:

1. Industrialization is an important component of economic growth.
2. India’s industrial expansion over the plan period presents a mixed picture.

Question 8.
Write about Indian road network.
Answer:

1. The Indian road network has become one of the largest in the world.
2. Government efforts led to the expansion of the network of National Highways, State highways and major district roads, which in turn has directly contributed to industrial growth.

Question 9.
Classify the Industries oh the basis of ownership?
Answer:
On the basis of ownership it can be classified into –

1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector and
4. Co – operative Sector

Question 10.
What are the specialized goods produced by the Traditional Crafts?
Answer:
Some specialized goods produced by the traditional crafts are:

1. Cotton textiles
2. Muslin
3. Wool
4. Silk and
5. Metal articles

VII Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Explain the phases of Industrial development in India.
Answer:
1. Industrial development during 1950’s to 1965:

• During this phase, a majority of consumer goods were produced in India.
• The Industrial sector was underdeveloped with weak infrastructure.
• The first three Five-Year plans were very important because their aim was to build a strong industrial base in independent India.

2. Industrial development during 1965’s – 1980:

• As the first three Five-year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
• The consumer goods sector is the beck bone of rural economy.
• As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

3. Industrial development during 1980’s till 1991:

• The period of the 1980’s can be considered as the period of the industrial recovery.
• This period witnessed quite a healthy industrial growth.

4. Industrial development post 1991 Reforms:

• The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
• India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
• The Tenth and Eleventh Five-year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
• The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

Question 2.
Discuss about the Traditional Crafts of India.
Answer:

1. The Crafts in India has a rich history. Crafts were an integral part in the life of the people.
2. Before arrival mechanized industry, the production of Indian handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture.
3. The traditional Indian industry was known in the fields of textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
4. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
5. Some specialized goods were produced for cotton textiles, muslin, wool, silk and metal articles.
6. India was famous for its fine quality of cotton and silk clothes.
7. There are references made in many scholarly works to the professions of the weaver, the tailor and the dyer.
8. Certain centers of metal industry well quite well known.
9. For example, Saurashtra was known for bell metal, Vanga for tin industry and Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the Heavy Industries.
Answer:

1. The heavy industries included the iron and steel industry, steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Kulti in 1874.
2. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of 20th century.
3. However, the credit for the development of large-scale manufacture of steel in India goes to Jamshedji Tata.
4. The Tata Iron and steel company (TISCO) was setup in 1907 at Jamshedpur,
5. It started producing pig iron in 1911 and steel ingots in 1912.