Category: Class 11

Students who are interested in learning of 11th English Grammar Homophones Questions and Answers can use Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th English Chapter Wise Pdf. First check in which chapter you are lagging and then Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers Summary, Activity, Notes Chapter Wise. Students can build self confidence by solving the solutions with the help of Tamilnadu State Board English Solutions. English is the scoring subject if you improve your grammar skills. Because most of the students will lose marks by Grammar grammar mistakes. So, we suggest you to Download Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Solutions according to the chapters.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Grammar Homophones

Check out the topics covered in Grammar Homophones Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Grammar Homophones Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Homophones are one of the group of words pronounced alike but differ in meaning and spelling or both. (e.g.) carat, carrot; week, weak and hear, here.

Rewrite the following sentences by using the correct homophones for the underlined words:

Question 1.
The story “Beauty and the Beast” is interesting.
Answer:
The story “Beauty and the Beast” is interesting.

Question 2.
Mom gave good advice to her son.
Answer:
Mom gave good advice to her son.

Question 3.
Ice cream was served as dessert.
Answer:
Ice cream was served as dessert.

Question 4.
Cease time by the foreclock.
Answer:
Seize time by the foreclock?

Question 5.
Mothers do not have time for bedtime tails any more.
Answer:
Mothers do not have time for bedtime tales any more

Question 6.
Never pause unhealthy comments.
Answer:
Never pass unhealthy comments.

Question 7.
Trump wood be pleased to continue the military aid to Pakistan.
Answer:
Trump would be pleased to continue the military aid to Pakistan.

Question 8.
The Nellore bound train met with an accident an our ago.
Answer:
The Nellore bound train met with an accident an hour ago.

Question 9.
The grapes on the wine are beautiful.
Answer:
The grapes on the vine are beautiful.

Question 10.
Orthodoxical Hindus never eat meet.
Answer:
Orthodox Hindus never eat meat.

Question 11.
Getting gold medals thrice for running 200 metre dash continuously is a great feet.
Answer:
Getting gold medals thrice for running 200 metre dash continuously is a great feat.

Question 12.
Time may heel some wounds.
Answer:
Time may heal some wounds.

Question 13.
Mom advised me to prey regularly.
Answer:
Mom advised me to pray regularly.

Question 14.
Don’t loose your temper.
Answer:
Don’t lose your temper.

Question 15.
Some believe, “Mite is right”.
Answer:
Some believe, “Might is right”.

Question 16.
She new the way to the supermarket.
Answer:
She knew the way to the supermarket.

Question 17.
King Solomon was always faring in his judgment.
Answer:
King Solomon was always fair in his judgment.

Question 18.
Marina beech is the longest in Asia.
Answer:
Marina beach is the longest in Asia.

Question 19.
An engineer was arrested who had hordes of 2000 rupee notes.
Answer:
An engineer was arrested who had hoards of 2000 rupee notes.

Question 20.
The due seated on the top of a grass sparkled like a diamond.
Answer:
The dew seated on the top of a grass sparkled like a diamond.

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Grammar Homophones Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

Students can find the most related topics which helps them to analyse the concepts if they practice according to the chapter-wise page. It is necessary for the students to practice more Questions and Answers for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th Commerce are given in the pdf format in chapter 2 Objectives of Business Questions and Answers so that students can prepare in both online and offline modes. So, Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, to score good marks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 2 Objectives of Business

Get the Questions and Answers, in Tamilnadu State Board 11th Commerce Solutions for Chapter 2 Objectives of Business. Learn the concepts of 11th Commerce Chapter-Wise by referring to the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Chapter 2 Objectives of Business Questions and Answers. Hence we suggest the students to Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf to enhance your knowledge.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Objectives of Business Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The Primary objective of a business is …………………….
(a) Making Profit
(b) Not Making Profit
(c) Special skill
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Making Profit

Question 2.
Occupation of a Doctor is …………………….
(a) Employment
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Sole Proprietor
Answer:
(c) Profession

Question 3.
The following does not characterize business activity?
(a) Production of goods and services
(b) Presence of Risk
(c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
(d) Salary or wages
Answer:
(d) Salary or wages

Question 4.
Activities undertaken out of love and affection or with social service motive are termed as …………………….
(a) Economic activities
(b) Monetary activities
(c) Non Economic Activities
(d) Financial Activities
Answer:
(c) Non Economic Activities

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Economic Activities.
Answer:
Economic activities are those activities which are undertaken to earn money or financial gain for livelihood.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Business?
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services.

Question 3.
Define Profession.
Answer:
Professions are those occupations which involves rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. A profession is something which is more than a job. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Employment?
Answer:
It refers to the occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of vvage.s or salaries.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by human activities? Explain.
Answer:
Human activity is an activity performed by a human being to meet his/her needs and wants or may be for personal satisfaction. Human activities can be categorized into economic and non – economic activities.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:

1. Business
2. Profession

Answer:
1.Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services.

2. Professions are those occupations which involves rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. A profession is something which is more than a job. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas.

Question 3.
Explain the concept of ‘Business’.
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular, basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services. Business activities are connected with raising, producing or processing of goods. Industry creates form utility to goods by bringing materials into the form which is useful for intermediate consumption or final consumption by consumers.

Question 4.
Briefly state the human objectives of a business.
Answer:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well – being as well as fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped and deprived of proper education and training. The human objectives of business may thus include economic well – being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees and development of human resources.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Business.
Answer:
1. Production or Procurement of Goods : Goods must be produced or procured in order to satisfy human wants.

2. Sale, Transfer or Exchange : There must be sale or exchange of goods or services. When a person weaves cloth for his personal consumption, it is not business because there is no transfer or sale.

3. Dealing in Goods and Services : Goods produced or procured may be consumer goods like cloth, pen, brush, bag etc., or producer-goods like plant and machinery. Services refer to activities like supply of electricity, gas or water, transportation, banking, insurance etc.

4. Regularity of Dealings : An isolated dealing in buying and selling does not constitute business. The transactions must be regular.

5. Profit Motive : An important feature of business is profit motive. Business is an economic activity by which human beings make their living.

6. Element of Risk : The profit that is expected in a business is always uncertain because it depends upon a number of factors beyond the control of the businessman.

Question 2.
Compare business with profession and employment.
Answer:

Question 3.
Discuss any five objectives of business.
Answer:
1. Economic Objectives:
Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning profit and also other objectives that are necessary to be pursued to achieve the profit objective, which includes creation of customers, regular innovations and best possible use of available resources.

2. Social Objectives:
Social objective are those objectives of business, which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of the society. Since business operates in a society by utilizing its scarce resources, the society expects something in return for its welfare.

3. Organizational Objectives:
The organizational objectives denote those objectives an organization intends to accomplish during the course of its existence in the economy like expansion and modernization, supply of quality goods to consumers, customers’ satisfaction, etc.

4. Human Objectives:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well – being as well as fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped and deprived of proper education and training.

The human objectives of business may thus include economic well – being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees and development of human resources.

5. National Objectives:
Being an important part of the country, every business must have the objective of fulfilling national goals and aspirations.

Question 4.
Distinguish between economic and non – economic activity.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Objectives of Business Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Human activities can be categorised into …………….. types.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 2.
Activities undertaken with the object of earning money are called …………….. activities.
(a) Economic
(b) Non – economic
(c) Financial
(d) Money
Answer:
(a) Economic

Question 3.
Occupations may be classified into ……………. categories.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 4
………………. refers to the occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries.
(a) Employment
(b) Profession
(c) Business
(d) Industry
Answer:
(a) Employment

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by non – economic activities?
Answer:
Activities undertaken to satisfy social and psychological needs are called non – economic activities.

Question 2.
How many types of occupation are there?
Answer:

1. Employment
2. Profession
3. Business

Question 3.
What is Private Enterprises?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a private enterprise where it owned, managed and controlled by persons other than Government.

Question 4.
What is Public Enterprises?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a public enterprise where it is owned, managed and controlled by Government or any of its agencies or both.

Question 5.
What is Joint Enterprise?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be a joint enterprise where it is owned, managed and controlled by Government and private entrepreneurs. Example – Maruti Suzuki

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give three examples of Economic Activities.
Answer:

1. Production of goods by manufacturer
2. Distribution of goods by wholesaler
3. Selling by retailers

Question 2.
Write any three characteristics of Business.
Answer:
1. Production or Procurement of Goods:
Goods must be produced or procured in order to satisfy human wants.

2. Sale, Transfer or Exchange:
There must be sale or exchange of goods or services. When a person weaves cloth for his personal consumption, it is not business because there is no transfer or sale.

3. Dealing in Goods and Services:
Goods produced or procured may be consumer goods like cloth, pen, brush, bag etc., or producer goods like plant and machinery. Services refer to activities like supply of electricity, gas or water, transportation, banking, insurance etc.

For Own Thinking 

Question 1.
Do you know that there are white collar, blue collar, pink collar jobs? Collect the information and discuss.
Answer:
Examples:

1. White collar jobs – managerial positions
2. Blue collar jobs – skilled or unskilled working class, mechanics
3. Pink collar jobs- nursing, teaching, etc.

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Students who are interested in learning of 11th English Grammar Prefix/Suffix Questions and Answers can use Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th English Chapter Wise Pdf. First check in which chapter you are lagging and then Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers Summary, Activity, Notes Chapter Wise. Students can build self confidence by solving the solutions with the help of Tamilnadu State Board English Solutions. English is the scoring subject if you improve your grammar skills. Because most of the students will lose marks by Grammar grammar mistakes. So, we suggest you to Download Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Solutions according to the chapters.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Grammar Prefix/Suffix

Check out the topics covered in Grammar Prefix/Suffix Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Grammar Prefix/Suffix Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Question 1.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “important”.
(a) in________ (b) un________ (c) dis________ (d) mis________
Answer:
(b) unimportant

Question 2.
Form a new word by adding a prefix to the root word “difference”.
(a) un________ (b) in________ (c) im________ (d) dis________
Answer:
(b) indifference

Question 3.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “fortune”.
(a) in________ (b) un________ (c) dis________ (d) mis________
Answer:
(d) misfortune

Question 4.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “poet”.
(a) ________al (b) ________ic (c) ________ile (d) ________ion
Answer:
(b) poetic

Question 5.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “kind”.
(a) ________ment (b) ________able (c) ________ity (d) ________ness
Answer:
(d) kindness

Question 6.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “dismiss”.
(a) ________ment (b) ________ate (c) ________al (d) ________ular
Answer:
(c) dismissal

Question 7.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word ‘portray’.
(a) ________ment (b) ________able (c) ________al (d) ________ic
Answer:
(c) portrayal

Question 8.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “doubt”.
(a) ________hood (b) ________ism (c) ________ly (d) ________fill
Answer:
(d) doubtful

Question 9.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “need”.
(a) ________ness (b) ________ted. (c) ________y (d) ________ment
Answer:
(c) needy

Question 10.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “eat”.
(a) ________able (b) ________ment (c) ________ly (d) ________ity
Answer:
(a) eatable

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Grammar Prefix/Suffix Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

Students who are interested in learning of 11th English Grammar Framing Sentences Questions and Answers can use Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th English Chapter Wise Pdf. First check in which chapter you are lagging and then Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers Summary, Activity, Notes Chapter Wise. Students can build self confidence by solving the solutions with the help of Tamilnadu State Board English Solutions. English is the scoring subject if you improve your grammar skills. Because most of the students will lose marks by Grammar grammar mistakes. So, we suggest you to Download Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Solutions according to the chapters.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Grammar Framing Sentences

Check out the topics covered in Grammar Framing Sentences Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Grammar Framing Sentences Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Question 1.
Use the word “equal” as a noun, adjective, verb and adverb in your own sentences.
Answer:

• Sangeetha treated Tarun and Kavin as equals, (noun)
• Father gave equal share of his property to his sons and daughters, (adj)
• One plus one equals two. (verb)
• We decided to divide the amount equally, (adverb)

Question 2.
Use the word ‘tear’ as a noun, verb, adjective and adverb in your own sentences.
Answer:

• Don’t shed tears over loss of money, (noun)
• Don’t tear the book, (verb)
• She was given a tearful farewell, (adj)
• Sheela tearfully left the hall, (adverb)

Question 3.
Use the word ‘like’ as a noun, verb, adjective and preposition in your own sentences.
Answer:

• Great gurus are above likes and dislikes, (noun)
• You need to carry out your duties whether you like it or not. (verb)
• You must befriend like-minded persons, (adj)
• Raj an looks like his father, (preposition)

 

Question 4.
Use the word ‘well’ as a noun, verb and an adjective in your own sentences.
Answer:

• There is an unused well behind my house, (noun)
• Tears welled up in her eyes on hearing her father’s death, (verb)
• Sangeetha is well qualified for the Professor post, (adj)

Question 5.
Use the word “fine” as an adjective, a noun and a verb.
Answer:

• She wore a fine jewel which caught everyone’s eyes, (adj)
• The driver was asked to pay fine for skipping the red signal, (noun)
• I was fined for over-speeding, (verb)

 

Question 6.
Use the word “after” as an adverb, a preposition and conjunction.
Answer:

• Jill came tumbling after, (adv)
• He returned after the accident, (prep)
• After Martin finished his studies, he returned to India, (conjunction)

Question 7.
Use the word “wrong” as an adjective, adverb and a noun.
Answer:

• You have taken the wrong road, (adj)
• Hari was wrongly arrested, (adv)
• We must differentiate the right and wrong, (noun)

 

Question 8.
Use the word “each” as an adjective and a pronoun.
Answer:

• Each day brings its opportunity, (adj)
• I received a rupee from each, (pronoun)

Question 9.
Use the word “as” as an adverb and a conjunction.
Answer:

• We walked as fast as we could, (adv)
• As he was late, we went without him. (conj)

Question 10.
Use the word “fast” as a noun, an adjective and adverb.
Answer:

• He didn’t take anything during the fast, (noun)
• I missed the fast train, (adj)
• She speaks fast, (adv)

 

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Grammar Framing Sentences Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Mathematical Methods for Economics

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Mathematical Methods for Economic Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Mathematical Economics is the integration of ____________
(a) Mathematics and Economics
(b) Economics and Statistics
(c) Economics and Equations
(d) Graphs and Economics
Answer:
(a) Mathematics and Economics

Question 2.
The construction of demand line or supply line is the result of using ____________
(a) Matrices
(b) Calculus
(c) Algebra
(d) Analytical Geometry
Answer:
(d) Analytical Geometry

Question 3.
The first person used the mathematics in Economics is ____________
(a) Sir William Petty
(b) Giovanni Ceva
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Irving Fisher
Answer:
(a) Sir William Petty

Question 4.
Function with single independent variable is known as ____________
(a) Multivariate Function
(b) Bivariate Function
(c) Univariate Function
(d) Polvnomial Function
Answer:
(c) Univariate Function

Question 5.
A statement of equality between two quantities is called ____________
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 6.
An incremental change in dependent variable with respect to change in independent variable is known as ____________
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Variant
(d) Constant
Answer:
(a) Slope

Question 7.
(y – y₁) = m (x – x₁) gives the ____________
(a) Slope
(b) Straight line
(c) Constant
(d) Curve
Answer:
(b) Straight line

Question 8.
Suppose D = 50 – 5P. When D is zero then ____________
(a) P is 10
(b) P is 20
(c) P is 5
(d) Pis-10
Answer:
(a) Pis 10

Question 9.
Suppose D = 150 – 50P. Then, the slope is
(a) -5
(b) 50
(c) 5
(d) – 50
Answer:
(d) – 50

Question 10.
Suppose determinant of a matrix A = 0, then the solution ____________
(a) Exists
(b) Does not exist
(c) Is infinity
(d) Is zero
Answer:
(b) Does not exist

Question 11.
State of rest is a point termed as ____________
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Non – Equilibrium
(c) Minimum Point
(d) Maximum Point
Answer:
(a) Equilibrium

Question 12.
Differentiation of constant term gives ____________
(a) one
(b) zero
(c) infinity
(d) non – infinity
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 13.
Differentiation of xⁿ is ____________
(a) nx ^{(n – 1)}
(b) nx ^{(n + 1)}
(c) zero
(d) one
Answer:
(a) nx ^{(n – 1)}

Question 14.
Fixed Cost is the ____________ term in cost function represented in mathematical form.
(a) Middle
(b) Price
(c) Quantity
(d) Constant
Answer:
(d) Constant

Question 15.
The first differentiation of Total Revenue function gives ____________
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Profit
(c) Marginal Revenue
(d) Zero
Answer:
(c) Marginal Revenue

Question 16.
The elasticity of demand is the ratio of ____________
(a) Marginal demand function and Revenue function
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function
(c) Fixed and variable revenues
(d) Marginal Demand function and Total demand function
Answer:
(b) Marginal demand function to Average demand function

Question 17.
If x + y = 5 and x – y = 3 then, Value of x ____________
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 16
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 18.
Integration is the reverse process of
(a) Difference
(b) Mixing
(c) Amalgamation
(d) Differentiation
Answer:
(d) Differentiation

Question 19.
Data processing is done by ____________
(a) PC alone
(b) Calculator alone
(c) Both PC and Calculator
(d) Pen drive
Answer:
(c) Both PC and Calculator

Question 20.
The command Ctrl + M is applied for ____________
(a) Saving
(b) Copying
(c) getting new slide
(d) deleting a slide
Answer:
(c) getting new slide

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
If 62 = 34 + 4x  what is x?
solution:
If 62 = 34 + 4x what is x
Given:
62 = 34 + 4x
34 + 4x = 62
4x = 62-34
4x = 28
x = \(\frac { 28 }{ 4 }\)
x = 7

Question 22.
Given the demand function q = 150 – 3p, derive a function for MR.
Solution:
Given:
q = 150 – 3p
\(\frac { dq }{ dq }\) = 0 – 3 (1)
\(\frac { dq }{ dq }\) = – 3
Revenue = price × quantity = p (150 – 3p)
= p (150 – 3p)
= 150p – 3p²
MR = \(\frac { dq }{ dq }\) = 150 \(\frac { dq }{ dq }\) -6p \(\frac { dq }{ dq }\)
= 150 (\(\frac { – 1 }{ 3 }\)) – 6p (\(\frac { – 1 }{ 3 }\))
= – 50 + 2p
= – 50 = 2 (\(\frac { 150 – q }{ 3 }\))
= 50 + 100 + \(\frac { – 2 q }{ 3 }\)
= 50 – \(\frac { 2 q }{ 3 }\)
= 50 – \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) (150 – 3p)
MR = 2p – 50

Question 23.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60 + 10x +15x²
Solution:
Given:
TC = 60 + 10x +15x²
Average Cost = \(\frac { TC }{ x }\)
= \(\frac{60+10 x+15 x^{2}}{x}\)
= \(\frac { 60 }{ x }\) + \(\frac { 10x }{ x }\) + \(\frac{15 x^{2}}{x}\)
AC = \(\frac { 60 }{ x }\) + 10 + 15x

Question 24.
The demand function is given by x = 20 – 2p – p² where p and x are the price and the quantity respectively. Find the elasticity of demand for p = 2.5.
Solution:
Given:
x = 20 – 2p – p²
p = 2.5
e_d = (\(\frac { p }{ x }\)) (\(\frac { dx }{ dp }\))
If p = 2.5 then x,
x = 20 – 2 (2.5) – (2.5)²
= 20 – 5 – (6.25)
= 15 – 6.25
x = 8.75
Here x = 20 – 2p – p²
\(\frac { dx }{ dp }\) = 0 – 2 (1) – 2p
= -2 – 2p
If P = 2.5 then
\(\frac { dx }{ dp }\) = -2 – 2 (2.5)
= -2 – 5
\(\frac { dx }{ dp }\) = – 7
e_d = \(\frac { -2.5 }{ 8.75 }\) × – 7
= 0.2857 × – 7
e_d = 2

Question 25.
Suppose the price p and quantity q of a commodity are related by the equation q = 30 – 4p – p²
find :

1. e_d at p = 2
2. MR

Solution:
Given:
q = 30 – 4p – p²
1. e_d = (\(\frac { p }{ x }\))(\(\frac { dx }{ dp }\))
If P = 2 then
x = 30 – 4 (2) – 2²
= 30 – 8 – 4
=20 – 12
x = 18
\(\frac { dx }{ dp }\) =30 – 4p – p²
= 0 – 4 – 2p
= 0 – 4 – 2 (2)
= -4 -4
= -8
e_d = \(\frac { 2 }{ 18 }\) (-8)
x = – \(\frac { 16 }{ 18 }\)
e_d = – 0.88

2. MR
TR = p ×q
TR = p (30 – 4p – p²)
= 30p – 4p² – p³
MR = \(\frac { d(TR) }{ dp }\)
= 30 – 8p – 3p²
If p = 2
MR = 30 – 8 (2) – 3 (2)²
= 30 – 16 12
MR = 2

Question 26.
What is the formula for elasticity of supply if you know the supply function?
Solution:
Elasticity of supply = (\(\frac { p }{ q }\)) (\(\frac { dq }{ dp }\))

Question 27.
What are the Main menus of MS Word?
Answer:

1. Home menu
2. Insert
3. Page layout
4. Reference
5. Review
6. View
7. Print layout
8. Outline
9. Task pane
10. Tool bars
11. Header and footer
12. Foot notes

Part – C
Answer the following questions in one Paragraph

Question 28.
Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics.
Answer:

1. Mathematical methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
2. Mathematical methods help to explain economic concepts.
3. Mathematical methods help to use a large number of variables in economic analyses.
4. Mathematical methods help to quantify the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by government or anybody.

Question 29.
Solve for A: quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Solution:
Given:
16x  – 4 = 68 + 1x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = (\(\frac { 72 }{ 9 }\))
x = 8

Question 30.
A firm has the revenue function R = 600q – 0.03q² and the cost function is C = 150q + 60,000, where q is the number of units produced. Find AR, AC, MR and MC.
Solution:
Given:
R = 600q – 0.03q²
C = 150q + 60000

(i) AR = \(\frac { R }{ q }\)
= \(\frac{600 q-0.03 q^{2}}{q}\)
= \(\frac { 600q }{ q }\) – \(\frac{0.03 \mathrm{q}^{2}}{\mathrm{q}}\)
= AR = 600 – 0.0.q

(ii) AC = \(\frac { c }{ q }\)
= \(\frac { 150q + 60000 }{ q }\)
= \(\frac { 150q }{ q }\) + \(\frac { 60000 }{ q }\)
AC = 150 + (\(\frac { 60000 }{ q }\))

(iii) MR = \(\frac { dr }{ dq }\)
R = 600q – 0.03q
\(\frac { dR }{ dq }\) = 600 (1) – 0.03 (2q)
MR = 600 – 0.06q

(iv) MC = \(\frac { dc }{ dq }\)
C = 150q + 60000
\(\frac { dc }{ dq }\) = 150 (1) + 0
MC = 150

Question 31.
Solve the following linear equations by using Cramer’s rule.
x₁ – x₂ + x₃ = 2
– x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = 0
– x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = – 6
Solution:

= 1 (- 1 – 1) + 1 (- 1 – 1) + 1 (- 1 + 1)
= 1(- 2) + 1 (0)
∆ = – 2 – 2
∆ = – 2 – 2
∆ = – 4

= 2 (- 1 – 1) + 1 (0 + 6) + 1 (0 – 6)
= 2 (- 2) + 1(6) + 1 (- 6)
= – 4 + 6 – 6
∆ = – 4

= 1 (0 – 6) – 2 (- 1 – 1)+1(- 6 + 0)
= 1 (- 6) – 2 (- 2) + 1 (- 6)
= – 6 + 4 – 6
= – 12 + 4
∆x₃ = -8

1 (- 6 + 0) + 1 (- 6 + 0) + 2 (- 1 + 1)
= 1 (- 6) + 1 (- 6) + 2 (0)
= – 6 – 6
∆x₃ = – 12

Question 32.
If a firm faces the total cost function TC = 5+ x² where x is output, what is TC when x is 10?
Solution:
Given:
TC = 5 + x²
If x = 10
TC = 5 + 10²
= 5 + 100
TC = 105

Question 33.
If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function.
solution:
Given:
TC= 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12
Marginal cost function
MC = \(\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }\)
= \(\frac { d }{ dq }\) [2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12]
= 2.5 (3q²) – 13 (2q) + 50 (1) + 0
MC = 7.5q – 26q + 50
Average cost AC =\(\frac { TC }{ q }\)
= \(\frac{2.5 q^{3}-13 q^{2}+50 q+12}{q}\)
= \(\frac{2.5 q^{3}}{q}\) – \(\frac{13 q^{2}}{q}\) + \(\frac { 50q }{ q }\) + \(\frac { 12 }{ q }\)
AC = 2.5q – 13q + 50 + \(\frac { 12 }{ q }\)

Question 34.
What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel Sheet?
Answer:
MS excel is used in data analysis by using formula. A spread sheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
To start a excel there are various options.
Click Start → Program → Microsoft Excel
Double click the MS Excel Icon from the Desktop.

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
A Research scholar researching the market for fresh cow milk assumes that Qt = f (Pt, Y, A, N, Pc) where Qt is the quantity of milk demanded, Pt is the price of fresh cow milk, Y is average household income, A is advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk, N is population and Pc is the price of processed pocket milk.

1. What does Qt= f (Pt, Y,A,N, Pc) mean in words?
2. Identify the independent variables.
3. Make up a specific form for this function. (Use your knowledge of Economics to deduce whether the coefficients of the different independent variables should be positive or negative.)

Solution:
1. Qt is the function of Pt, Y, A, N, Pc
The determinants of demand are
Pt = Price of fresh cow milk.
Y = Average household income
A = Advertising expenditure on processed pocket milk
N = Population
Pc = Price of processed pocket milk.

2. Y and N are independent variables

3. Average household income and population are directly proportional to quantity demanded of cow’s milk (ie if Y and N increases Qt also increase)
Price of fresh cow milk, advertising expenditure on pocket milk and price of processed pocket milk are inversely proportional to Qt.
There
Qt = – aPt + by – CA + dN – ePc

Question 36.
Calculate the elasticity of demand for the demand schedule by using differential calculus method P = 60 – 0.2 Q where price is

1. zero
2. Rs.20
3. Rs.40

Solution:
P = 60 – 0.2 Q
0.2 Q = 60 – P
(0.2 Q) 10 = (60 – p) 10
2 Q = 600 – 10p
Q = 300 – 5p
Given demand function Q = 300 – 5p
1. If P = 0 then Q = 300 – 5 (0)
= 300
\(\frac { dq }{ dp }\) = 300 – 5p
= 0 – 5
\(\frac { dq }{ dp }\) = – 5
e_d = \(\frac { p }{ p }\)(\(\frac { dq }{ dp }\))
= \(\frac { 0 }{ 300 }\)(-5)
e_d = 0

2. If p = 20 then Q = 300 = 5 (20)
= 200
e_d = \(\frac { 20 }{ 200 }\) (-5)
= – \(\frac { 100 }{ 200 }\)
e_d = – 0.5

3. If = 40 then Q = 300 – 5 (40)
= 300 – 200
Q = 100
e_d = \(\frac { p }{ q }\)(\(\frac { dq }{ dp }\))
= \(\frac { 40 }{ 100 }\) (-5)
e_d = – \(\frac { 200 }{ 100 }\)
e_d = -2

Question 37.
The demand and supply functions are pd=1600 – x² and ps = 2x² + 400 respectively. Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus at equilibrium point.
Answer:
At equilibrium p_d = p_s
1600 – x² = 2x² + 400
– x² – 2x² = 400 – 1600
– 3x² = – 1200
x² = \(\frac { 1200 }{ 3 }\)
x² = 400
x = 20
If x = 20 p_o = 1600 – (20)²
= 1600 – 400
p_o = 1200
p_o x_o = 1200 × 20
= 24000

= 8000 – \(\frac { 8000 }{ 3 }\)
= \(\frac { 24000 – 8000 }{ 3 }\)
= \(\frac { 16000 }{ 3 }\)
C.S = 5333.3

Question 4.
What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in economics?
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate

In economics the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for data compiling, editing, manipulating and presenting the results.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Introduction To Micro-Economics Additional Questions and Answers

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Answer:
(c) 3 4 2 1

Question 2.

(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 3.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 4.
(a) Differentiation of constant is zero
(b) Differentiation of xn is x
(c) Constant value is known as fixed cost
(d) x° = 1 when x = 0
Answer:
(d) x° = 1 when x = 0

Question 5.
(a) The population density of T.N is 480 as per 2011 census.
(b) There are 30 national highways in Tamil Nadu.
(c) Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
(d) The headquarters of southern railway is at Trichy
Answer:
(b) There are 30 national highways in Tamil Nadu.

Pick the odd one out

Question 6.
(a) Arithmetic
(b) Comparison
(c) Text concatenation
(d) Foot note
Answer:
(d) Foot note

Question 7.
(a) X = independent variable
(b) Y = dependent variable
(c) X = f (y)
(d) M – slope
Answer:
(c) X = f (y)

Choose the correct statement

Question 8.
(a) X + Y = 6 and X – Y = 2 then X = 4
(b) If D = 60 – 6P when D is 0 then P is 20
(c) In the equation 0.1 X² + 1 OX + 100 constant = 10
(d) If Y = 6X³ then slope is 9X:
Answer:
(a) X + Y = 6 and X – Y = 2 then X = 4

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 9.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac { d(c) }{ dx }\) = 0 where c is a variable

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) ∫f(x) dx – (i) F (x) + C

Fill in the blanks with suitable option given below

Question 11.
__________ is the first to use mathematics in economics.
(a) Giovanni Ceva
(b) William petty
(c) J.M.Keynes
(d) None
Answer:
(b) William petty

Question 12.
The formula for constructing a straight line is __________
(a) \(\mathrm{m}=\frac{\mathrm{y}_{2}-\mathrm{y}_{1}}{\mathrm{x}_{2}-\mathrm{x}_{1}}\)
(b) y = mx
(c) \(\frac { Change in x }{ Change in y }\)
(d) (y -y₁) = m (x – x₁)
Answer:
(d) (y -y₁) = m (x – x₁)

Question 13.
If the determinant ∆ = ?, then solution does not exist
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) -1
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 14.
Power rule ∫xdx ______
(a) \(\frac{x^{2}}{n+1}\) + C
(b) \(\frac { pq }{ n + 1 }\) + C
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}^{(\mathrm{n}+1)}}{\mathrm{n}+1}\) + C
(d) None
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{x}^{(\mathrm{n}+1)}}{\mathrm{n}+1}\) + C

Question 15.
______ is a rectangular array of numbers systematically arranged in rows and columns within brackets.
(a) Matrix
(b) Determinants
(c) Function
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Matrix

Choose the best option

Question 16.
__________ provides the solution of a system of linear equations with ‘n’ variables and ‘n’ equations
(a) Demand function
(b) Consumer’s surplus
(c) Equilibrium
(d) Cramer’s rule
Answer:
(d) Cramer’s rule

Question 17.
The first known writer to apply mathematical method to economic problems was __________
(a) Giovanni ceva
(b) William petty
(c) Keynes
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Giovanni ceva

Question 18.
In y = f (x) which is the independent variable
(a) f
(b) y
(c) x
(d) None
Answer:
(c) x

Question 19.
Formula for marginal cost is
(a) MC = \(\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }\)
(b) MC = \(\frac { d(TC) }{ dP }\)
(c) MC = \(\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }\)
(d) None
Answer:
(a) MC = \(\frac { d(TC) }{ dQ }\)

Question 20.
Function with a single independent variable are called _____
(a) Multivariate function
(b) Consumption function
(c) Simple univariate function
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Simple univariate function

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is economic analysis?
Answer:
Economic analysis is a systematic approach to determine the optimum use of scare resources and choose available alternatives and select the best alternative to achieve a particular objective.

Question 2.
What is the slope of a straight line ?
Answer:
Slope or gradient of the line represents the ratio of the changes in vertical and horizontal lines

Question 3.
State the phases of evolution of ICT?
Answer:

1. Computer
2. PC
3. Micro Processor
4. Internet and
5. Wireless links.

Question 4.
What are determinants ?
Answer:
The determinant is an arrangement of same elements of the corresponding matrix into rows and columns by enclosing vertical lines.

Question 5.
State the application of differential calculus.
Answer:

1. To find the rate of change in demand with respect to price.
2. To find the rate of change in income with respect to the investment.

Question 6.
What is ICT?
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.

Question 7.
What is a work sheet?
Answer:
A worksheet is a table like document containing rows and columns with data and formula

Part – C
Answer the following questions in one Paragraph

Question 1.
The marginal cost function for producing x units is y = 23 + 16.x – 3.x2 and the total cost for producing zero unit is Rs. 40. Obtain the total cost function and the average cost function.
Solution:
Given Marginal cost functions
y = 23 + 16x – 3x²
C = 40

Average cost function = \(\frac { TC }{ x }\)
= \(\frac{23 x+8 x^{2}-x^{3}+40}{x}\)
AC = 23 + 8x – x + \(\frac { 40 }{ x }\)

Question 2.
Find the solution of the system of equations
5x₁ + 3x₂ = 30
6x₁ – 2X₂ = 8
Solution :

Question 3.
If the demand function is p = 35 – 2x – x² and the demand x_o is 3, what will be the consmer’s surplus
Solution:
Given:
p = 35 – 2x – x²
If x = 3 then
p = 35-2 (3) – 3²
= 35 – 6 – 9
p = 20

= 35 (3) – 9 – 9 – 60
= 105 – 9 – 9 – 60
CS = 27 units

Question 4.
Given the total cost function TC = 15 + 3Q2 + 7Q3 drive the marginal cost function.
Solution:
Given:
TC = 15 + 3Q² + 7Q²
MC = \(\frac { d(15) }{ dQ }\) + \(\frac{\mathrm{d}\left(3 \mathrm{Q}^{2}\right)}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{Q}}\) + \(\frac{\mathrm{d}\left(7 \mathrm{Q}^{3}\right)}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{Q}}\)
= 0+ 3 (2) Q + 7 (3) Q + (3) Q²
MC = 6Q + 21 Q²

Question 5.
Find the value of the determinant of the matrix
Solution:
Given:

= 3 (-5) -4 (-19) +7 (-3)
= -15 + 76 – 21
A = 40

Question 6.
Find the value of the determinant of the matrix A =.
Solution:
Given:

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Find the equation of a straight line which passes through two points (2,2) and (4, -8) which are (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) respectively.
Note : For drawing a straight line, at least two points are required. Many straight lines can pass through a single point.
Solution:
Here x₁ = 2 y_1- = 2 and x₂ = 4 y₂ = – 8
Formula for constructing a straight line.

Slope (m) = – 5
y intercept = 12
Constant = C
This is of this from y = mx + C
y = 12 – 5x
When x = 0
y = 12
When y = 0
x = \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 }\) = 2.4

Question 2.
Find the solution of the equation system
Solution:
7x₁ – x₂ – x₃ = 0
10x₁ – 2x₂ + x₃ = 8
6x₁ + 3x₂ – 2x₃ = 7

= 7 (4 – 3) + 1 (-20 -6) -1 (30 + 12)
= 7 (1) + 1 (-26) -1 (42)
+ 7 -26 – 42
∆ = – 61

= 0 (4 -3) + 1 (-16 -7) – 1 (24+14)
= 0 + 1 (-23) – 1 (38)
= -23 – 38
= -61

= 7 (-16 – 7) – 0 (- 20 – 6) – 1 (70 – 48)
= 7 ( -23) + 0 (-20 – 6) – 1(70 – 48)
= – 161 – 22
= – 183

= 7(-14 -24) + 1 (70 – 48) + 1 (30 + 12)
= 7 (-38) + 1 (22) + 0
= – 266 + 22
= – 244

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Tamil Nadu Economy

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In health index, Tamil Nadu is ahead of
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) Gujarat

Question 2.
In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) third

Question 3.
Tamil Nadu is rich in
(a) Forest resource
(b) human resource
(c) mineral resource
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) human resource

Question 4.
The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is
(a) river
(b) tank
(c) well
(d) canals
Answer:
(c) well

Question 5.
Knitted garment production is concentrated in
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 6.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
(b) Home textile city – Erode
(c) Steel city – Salem
(d) Pump city – Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Home textile city – Erode

Question 7.
Which of the following cities does not have international airport?
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruchirappalli
(c) Paramakudi
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(c) Paramakudi

Question 8.
TN tops in the production of the following crops except
(a) Banana
(b) Coconut
(c) plantation crops
(d) cardamom
Answer:
(d) cardamom

Question 9.
Largest area of land is used in the cultivation of
(a) Paddy
(b) sugarcane
(c) Groundnut
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 10.
In literacy rate, TN ranks
(a) second
(b) fourth
(c) sixth
(d) eighth
Answer:
(d) eighth

Question 11.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) I

Question 12.
Which district in TN has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Nagapattinam
(b) Nilgiris
(c) Tiruchirapalli
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(b) Nilgiris

Question 13.
Which district has the lowest child sex ratio?
(a) Madurai
(b) Theni
(c) Ariyalur
(d) Cuddalore
Answer:
(c) Ariyalur

Question 14.
Which Union Territory has the highest sex ratio?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Lakshadeep
(d) Andaman Nicobar
Answer:
(b) Pondicherry

Question 15.
The largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil Nadu comes from
(a) agriculture
(b) industry
(c) mining
(d) services
Answer:
(d) services

Question 16.
In human development index, TN is ranked
(a) Second
(b) fourth
(c) sixth
(d) third
Answer:
(d) third

Question 17.
SPIC is located in
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Pudukottai
Answer:
(c) Tuticorin

Question 18.
The TICEL park is
(a) Rubber Park
(b) Textile park
(c) Food park
(d) Bio
Answer:
(d) Bio

Question 19.
In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu ranks
(a) third
(b) fourth
(c) first
(d) second
Answer:
(a) third

Question 20.
The Headquarters of Southern Railway is at
(a) Tiruchirappalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
State any two districts with favourable sex ratio. Indicate the ratios.
Answer:

1. The Nilgiris (1041 females)
2. Thanjavur (1031 females)

Question 22.
Define GSDP.
Answer:
The Gross State Domestic Product refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.

Question 23.
Mention any four food crops which are favourable to Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Rice
2. Maize
3. Groundnut
4. Oil seeds

Question 24.
What are major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Major ports at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin Intermediate port in Nagapattinam.

Question 25.
What is heritage tourism?
Answer:
Heritage tourism is travelling to experience the places and activities that authentically represent the stories and people of the past.

Question 26.
What are the nuclear power plants in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Kalpakkam Nuclear power plant and the Koodankulam Nuclear power plant.

Question 27.
Define Micro industry.
Answer:
The enterprises with a capital investment not exceeding 25 lakhs.

Part – C
Answer the following questions in one Paragraph

Question 28.
Write a note on mineral resources in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mineral resources in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
2. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with Thermal Power Plants, Fertilizer and carbonisation plants.
3. Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud and this region is also rich in Iron ore at Kanjamalai.
4. Molybdenum is found in Karadikuttam in Madurai district.

Question 29.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
GSDP in Tamil Nadu:

1. GSDP refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
2. According to Tamil Nadu’s directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu is the second largest economy in India with a GSDP of $207.8 billion in 2016 -17
3. The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal terms and GDP of UAE on PPP terms.
4. Sectoral contribution of GSDP of Tamil Nadu
   • Tertiary sector – 63. 70%
   • Secondary sector – 28.5%
   • Primary sector – 7.76%

Question 30.
Describe development of textile industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Development of textile industry in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India. Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country.
2. Tamil Nadu accounts for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
3. It produce direct employment to 35 million people.
4. It contributes 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
5. The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.

Question 31.
Compare productivity of any two food crops between Tamil Nadu and India.
Answer:

1. Asia result of Government’s efforts Tamil Nadu tops in productivity, in food crops as well as non-food crops, among the states in India.
2. Among Indian states Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize, Kambu, Groundnut, Oil seeds and Cotton.
3. Second in rice and coconut.
4. Third in Sugarcane, Sunflower and Jowar.

Question 32.
Explain the prospect for development of tourism.
Answer:
Prospect for development of tourism:

1. Tamil Nadu has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
2. Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
3. The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals.
4. The annual growth rate of this industry stood at 16 percent.
5. Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the state.

Question 33.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu is the fore front of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
2. Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.
3. Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai.
4. Wind energy contributes 2% of the total power output of India.
5. Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India.
6. There are about 20 hydro electric units in Tamil Nadu.

Question 34.
Describe the performance of Tamil Nadu economy in health.
Answer:
Performance of Tamil Nadu economy in health:

1. Tamil Nadu has a three – tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres and sub-centres.
2. Tamil Nadu has placed third in health index as per the NITIAAYOG report.
3. The neo natal mortality rate is 14 which is lower than many other states.
4. The under 5 mortality has dropped from 21 in 2014 to 20 in 2015.

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Describe the qualitative aspects of population.
Answer:

1. Population : Tamil Nadu stands sixth in population with 7.21 crore.
2. Density : Tamil Nadu ranks 12th in density with 555 people per sq.km.
3. Urban population : Tamil Nadu is one of the most urbanized state with 48.4% of urban population.
4. Sex ratio : Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in quality of life of female population. The sex ratio of Tamil Nadu is nearing balance with 995 which stands third next to Kerala and Puducherry.
5. Infant mortality rate : According to NITI AAYOG, the IMR is 17 for Tamil Nadu which is just half of national average of 34 as on 2016.
6. Maternal mortality rate : Tamil Nadu has a good record of controlling MMR, ranking third with 79 against national average of 159.
7. Literacy :

• • The literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is higher than in many states.
  • Tamil Nadu has a highest Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education.

Question 36
Explain the various sources of energy in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern states. Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian states in installed capacity.
Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, Supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

1. Nuclear energy : The Kalpakkam and the Koddankulam Nuclear Power Plants are the major nuclear energy plants for the energy grid.

2. Thermal power: In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu, Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.

3. Hydel energy : There are about 20 hydro electric units in Tamil Nadu. The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson valley etc.

4. Solar energy : Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India. Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions the country for developing solar power projects.

5. Wind energy : Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
The state has very high quality of off shore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and Southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 37.
Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the state. This is partly responsible for the investment in the state.

Road transport :

• There are 28 national highways in the state, covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The state has a total road length of 1,67,000 km.
• It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects.

Rail transport :

• Tamil Nadu has a well – developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Head quartered at Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 KM and there are 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most major cities in India.
• Chennai developed a metro system, which came into operation since May 2017.

Air transport :

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai, Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli and Madurai International airports.
• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem and Madurai.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Tamil Nadu Economy Additional Questions and Answers

Part-A
Choose the best options

Question 1.
Molybdenum is found in _____ district of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chennai
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirunelveli
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) Madurai

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu has _____ Population as against 121 crore of India.
(a) 7.12 crore
(b) 1.72 crore
(c) 7.21 crore
(d) 1.27 crore
Answer:
(c) 7.21 crore

Question 3.
Tamil Nadu’s per capital income is _____
(a) 1100 dollar
(b) 2200 dollar
(c) 3360 dollar
(d) 4400 dollar
Answer:
(d) 4400 dollar

Question 4.
Gross state domestic product is
(a) GSDP
(b) MMR
(c) GDP
(d) IMF
Answer:
(a) GSDP

Question 5.
The detroit of Asia is _____
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Madurai
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(d) Chennai

Question 6.
_____ is Tamil Nadu’s steel city
(a) Chennai
(b) Karur
(c) Salem
(d) Namakkal
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 7.
_____ is famous for bus body building.
(a) Karur
(b) Trichy
(c) Vellore
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Karur

Question 8.
_____ is the yarn bowl of India.
(a) Orissa
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 9.
Gateway of Tamil Nadu is _____
(a) Thoothukudi
(b) Chennai
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Ranipet
Answer:
(a) Thoothukudi

Question 10.
_____ is the knitting city.
(a) Erode
(b) Karur
(c) Namakkal
(d) Tirupur
Answer:
(d) Tirupur

Question 11.
Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(a) SAIL – Salem
(b) The Pumpcity – Coimbatore
(c) BHEL – Trichy
(d) Knitting City – Karur
Answer:
(d) Knitting City – Karur

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
Answer:
(a) 4 3 2 1

Question 2.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 3.

Answer:
(c) Little japan (iii) Coimbatore

Question 4.

Answer:
(d) Steel City (iv) Erode

Choose the correct statement

Question 5.
(a) Tamil Nadu is the third largest contributor to India’s GDP
(b) Tamil Nadu ranks second in coconut production.
(c) Tamil Nadu ranks first in cement production
(d) Chennai is called as Detroit of Asia.
Answer:
(d) Chennai is called as Detroit of Asia.

Question 6.
(a) The population density of T.N is 480 as per 2011 census,
(b) There are 30 national highways in Tamil Nadu.
(c) Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India
(d) The headquarters of southern railway is at Trichy.
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 7.

Answer:
(b) Artificial Harbour (ii) Chennai

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) Highest sex ratio (i) The Nilgris

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) Rajapalayam (i) Surgical cotton product

Pick the odd one out

Question 10.
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Erode
(c) Madurai
(d) Trichy
Answer:
(b) Erode

Question 11.
(a) Coconut
(b) Groundnut
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:
(c) Rice

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 12.
(a) Chennai is referred as banking capital of India.
(b) Tamil Nadu ranks first in maize production.
(c) Tamil Nadu ranks 3rd in human development Index.
(d) Tamil Nadu is the third largest contributor to India’s GDP
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu is the third largest contributor to India’s GDP

Question 13.
(a) Tamil Nadu has eight agro climatic zones
(b) There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu.
(c) The tertiary sector is the major contributor to Tamil Nadu’s GSDP.
(d) Tamil Nadu is the second largest economy in India.
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu is the second largest economy in India.

Fill in the blanks with suitable option given below

Question 14.
Tamilnadu has _______ population as against 121 crore of India
(a) 7.12 crore
(b) 1.72 crore
(c) 7.21 crore
(d) 1.27 crore
Answer:
(c) 7.21 crore

Question 15.
Tamil Nadu’s per capita income is ______
(a) 1100 dollar
(b) 2200 dollar
(c) 3360 dollar
(d) 4400 dollar
Answer:
(b) 2200 dollar

Question 16.
Gross state domestic product is ______
(a) GSDP
(b) MMR
(c) GDP
(d) IMF
Answer:
(a) GSDP

Question 17.
IMR is the number of mortality before completing
(a) 1 year of age
(b) 5 years of age
(c) 3 years of age
(d) 10 years of age
Answer:
(a) 1 year of age

Question 18.
The world’s biggest bagasse based paper mill is at ______
(a) Trichy
(b) Karur
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Erode
Answer:
(b) Karur

Question 19.
Every year India international leather fair is hosted at ______
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Madurai
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 20.
______ wind farm is a renewable energy source
(a) Nagapattinam
(b) Valapandal
(c) Nagercoil
(d) Muppandal
Answer:
(d) Muppandal

Part – B
Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
How can you calculate per capita income?
Answer:
Percapita income =

Question 2.
Define infant mortality rate
Answer:
IMR is the number of mortality before completing 1 year of age.

Question 3.
What is cash – deposit ratio?
Answer:
C-D ratio is the ratio of bank advances to deposits.

Question 4.
What is the position of Tamil Nadu in automotives ?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has 28% share each in automotive and auto components industries, 19% in the trucks segment and 18% each in passenger cars and two wheelers.

Question 5.
Why is Sivakasi called as Little Japan ?
Answer:
Sivakasi is a leader in the areas of printing, fireworks, and safety matches. It contributes 80% of India’s fireworks production and 60% of India’s total offset printing solution. As there are too many industries in Sivakasi it is called as Little Japan.

Question 6.
Name the cement manufacturing places of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Ariyalur, Virudhunagar, Coimbatore and Tirunelveli.

Question 7.
What is the measure of unemployment in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu ranks 22nd with unemployment rate of 42 per 1000.

Part – C
Answer the following questions in one Paragraph

Question 1.
Explain about unemployment and poverty in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Unemployment: Tamil Nadu ranks 22nd with unemployment rate of 42 per 1000 as against national average of 50.

Poverty :

1. Tamil Nadu is one of the India’s richest states.
2. Since 1994, the state has seen a steady decline in poverty.
3. Tamil Nadu has lower levels of poverty than most other states in the country.

Question 2.
Explain about water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Water resources of Tamil Nadu:

1. Tamil Nadu is not endowed with rich natural resources compared to other states.
2. It accounts for three percent of water sources, four percent of land area against six percent of population.
3. North east monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by south west monsoon.
4. There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal, Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar etc.
5. Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Name the water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Water resources of Tamil Nadu:

1. Ranipet, Ambur, Vaniyambadi – Leather
2. Salem . – Powerlooms, Home textiles, Steel, Sago
3. Sankagiri – Lorry fleet operators
4. Tiruchengode – Borewell drilling services
5. Naakkal – Transportation Poultry
6. Karur – Coach-building, Powerlooms
7. Erode – Powerlooms, Turmeric
8. Coimbatore – Spinning mills, Engineering industries
9. Tirupur – Knitwear, Readymade garments
10. Rajapalayam – Surgical cotton products
11. Sivakasi – Safety matches, Fireworks, Printing

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Elaborate the highlights of Tamil Nadu economy.
Answer:
Highlights of Tamil Nadu economy:

1. Growth of GSDP in Tamil Nadu has been among the fastest in India since 2005.
2. Poverty reduction is faster than that in many other states.
3. It contains a smaller proportion of India’s poor population.
4. Second largest contributor to India’s GDP.
5. 3rd in Human Development Index.
6. Ranks 3rd in terms of invested capital and value of total industrial output.
7. Ranks first among the states in terms of invested capital and value of total industrial output.
8. Third in health index
9. Has highest Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education.
10. Has the largest number of engineering colleges.
11. Has emerged as a major hub for renewable energy.
12. Has highest credit deposit ratio in commercial and cooperative banks.
13. Ranks first on investment proposals filled by MSMES.

Question 2.
Compare the percapital income of Tamil Nadu with other countries.
Answer:

1. The percapital GSDP of Tamil Nadu is $ 2200 which is higher than that of many other states in India.
2. Per capital GSDP of Tamil Nadu is nearly 1.75 times higher than the national average, as per 2018 data.
3. In term of the per capital income in Tamil Nadu was Rs. 1,03,600 in 2010-11 and it has increased to Rs. 1,88,492 in 2017-18 as per the budget figures 2018.

Question 3.
Explain the role of MSMEs in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Role of MSMEs in Tamil Nadu:

1. The MSME enterprises are classified as manufacturing and service enterprises based on the investment in plant, machinery and equipment MSMED act 2006.
2. Tamil Nadu accounts of 15,07% micro, small and medium enterpriser which is highest in the country.
3. There are 6.89 lakhs registered MSMEs producing over 8000 varieties of product for investment more than Rs. 32,008 crore.
4. The prominent products of MSMEs are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.
5. Around 15.61 lakh entrepreneurs have registered, providing employment opportunities to about 99.7 lakhs persons with total investment of Rs. 1,68,331 crore.

Question 4.
Explain about banks in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
1. In Tamil Nadu, Nationalised banks account for 52% with 5,337 branches, private commercial banks 30% (3060) branches, state bank of India and its associates 13% (1,364) RRBs 5% (537) branches and the remaining 22 foreign bank branches.

Deposits of the banks :

1. Total deposits of the banks in Tamil Nadu increased by 14.32% by March 2017 and touched Rs. 6,65,068.59 crores.
2. Total credits of the banks increased by 13.50% by March 2017 and touched
   Rs. 6,95,500.31 crores.

Advances of the banks :

1. The share of priority sector advances stands at 45.54% as against the national average of 40%
2. Primary sector advances stands at 45.54%
3. Agricultural advances stands at 19.81% on March 2017.
4. Banks in Tamil Nadu has the highest credit deposit ratio of 119.15% in the country.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 14 Respiration

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Respiration Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The number of ATP molecules formed by complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvic acid is:
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 2.
During oxidation of two molecules of cytosolic NADH + H⁺, number of ATP molecules produced in plants are:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 3.
The compound which links glycolysis and Krebs cycle is:
(a) succinic acid
(b) pyruvic acid
(c) acetyl CoA
(d) citric acid
Answer:
(c) acetyl CoA

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation takes place during the electron transport chain in mitochondria.
Reason (R): Succinyl CoA is phosphorylated into succinic acid by substrate phosphorylation.
(a) A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A
(b) A and R is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A and R is wrong.
Answer:
(a) A and R is correct. R is correct explanation of A

Question 5.
Which of the following reaction is not . involved in Krebs cycle.
(a) Shifting of phosphate from 3C to 2C
(b) Splitting of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate of into two molecules 3C compounds.
(c) Dephosphorylation from the substrates
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 6.
What are enzymes involved in phosphorylation and dephosphorylation reactions in EMP pathway?
Answer:
(i) Enzymes involved phosphorylation in EMP pathway:

• Hexokinase
• Phospho – fructokinase
• Glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate dehydrogenase

(ii) Enzymes involved in dephosphorylation in EMP pathway:

• Phospho glycerate kinase,
• Pyruvate kinase

Question 7.
Respiratory quotient is zero in succulent plants. Why?
Answer:
In some succulent plants like Opuntia, Bryophyllum carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid, particularly malic acid without corresponding release of CO₂ but O₂ is consumed hence the RQ value will be zero.

Question 8.
Explain the reactions taking place in mitochondrial inner membrane.
Answer:
In plants, an additional NADH dehydrogenase (External) complex is present on the outer surface of inner membrane of mitochondria which can oxidise cytosolic NADH + H⁺. Ubiquinone (UQ) or Coenzyme Quinone (Co Q) is a small, lipid soluble electron, proton carrier located within the inner membrane of mitochondria.

Question 9.
What is the name of alternate way of glucose breakdown? Explain the process involved in it?
Answer:
During respiration breakdown of glucose in cytosol occurs both by glycolysis (about 2 / 3) as well as by oxidative pentose phosphate pathway (about 1 / 3). Pentose phosphate pathway was described by Warburg, Dickens and Lipmann (1938). Hence, it is also called Warburg – Dickens – Lipmann pathway. It takes place in cytoplasm of mature plant cells. It is an alternate way for breakdown of glucose.

It is also known as Hexose monophosphate shunt (HMP Shunt) or Direct Oxidative Pathway. It consists of two phases, oxidative phase and non – oxidative phase. The oxidative events convert six molecules of six carbon Glucose – 6 – phosphate to 6 molecules of five carbon sugar Ribulose – 5 phosphate with loss of 6CO₂ molecules and generation of 12 NADPH + H⁺ (not NADH). The remaining reactions known as non – oxidative pathway, convert Ribulose – 5 – phosphate molecules to various intermediates such as Ribose – 5 – phosphate(5C), Xylulose – 5 – phosphate(5C), Glyceraldehyde – 3 – phosphate(3C), Sedoheptulose – 7 – Phosphate (7C), and Erythrose – 4 – phosphate (4C). Finally, five molecules of glucose – 6 – phosphate is regenerated. The overall reaction is:

The net result of complete oxidation of one glucose – 6 – phosphate yield 6CO₂ and 12 NADPH + H⁺. The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme which is inhibited by high ratio of NADPH to NADP⁺.

Question 10.
How will you calculate net products of one sucrose molecule upon complete oxidation during aerobic respiration as per recent view?
Answer:
When the cost of transport of ATPs from matrix into the cytosol is considered, the number will be 2.5 ATPs for each NADH + H⁺ and 1.5 ATPs for each FADH₂ oxidised during electron transport system. Therefore, in plant cells net yield of 30 ATP molecules for complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose. But in those animal cells (showing malate shuttle mechanism) net yield will be 32 ATP molecules. Since sucrose molecule gives, two molecules of glucose and net ATP in plant cell will be 30 × 2 = 60. In animal cell it will be 32 × 2 = 64.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Respiration Additional Questions & Answers

I. Choose the correct answer (1 Mark)
Question 1.
The term respiration was coined by:
(a) Lamark
(b) Kerb
(c) Pepys
(d) Blackman
Answer:
(c) Pepys

Question 2.
In floating respiration the substrates are:
(a) carbohydrate or protein
(b) carbohydrate or fat
(c) protein or fat
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) carbohydrate or fat

Question 3.
The discovery of ATP was made by:
(a) Lipman
(b) Hans Adolt
(c) Warburg
(d) Karl Lohman
Answer:
(d) Karl Lohman

Question 4.
The end product of glycolysis is:
(a) pyruvate
(b) ethanol
(c) malate
(d) succinate
Answer:
(a) pyruvate

Question 5.
On hydrolysis, one molecule of ATP releases energy of:
(a) 8.2 K cal
(b) 32.3 kJ
(c) 7.3 K cal
(d) 7.8 K cal
Answer:
(c) 7.3 K cal

Question 6.
Which of the following is known as terminal oxidation:
(a) glycolysis
(b) electron transport chain
(c) Kreb’s cycle
(d) pyruvate oxidation
Answer:
(b) electron transport chain

Question 7.
Identify the link reaction:
(a) conversion of glucose into pyruvic acid
(b) conversion of glucose into ethanol
(c) conversion of acetyl CoA into CO₂ and water
(d) conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme – A
Answer:
(d) conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme – A

Question 8.
Who was awarded Nobel prize in 1953 for the discovery of TCA cycle?
(a) Lipmann
(b) Hans Adolf Kreb
(c) Petermitchell
(d) Dickens
Answer:
(b) Hans Adolf Kreb

Question 9.
Kreb’s cycle is a:
(a) catabolic pathway
(b) anabolic pathway
(c) amphibolic pathway
(d) hydrolytic pathway
Answer:
(c) amphibolic pathway

Question 10.
Electron transport system during aerobic respiration takes place in:
(a) cytoplasm
(b) mitochondria
(c) chloroplast
(d) golgi apparatus
Answer:
(b) mitochondria

Question 11.
The oxidation of one molecule of NADH + H⁺ gives rise to:
(a) 2 ATP
(b) 3 ATP
(c) 4 ATP
(d) 2.5 ATP
Answer:
(b) 3 ATP

Question 12.
In aerobic prokaryotes each molecule of glucose produces:
(a) 36 ATP
(b) 32 ATP
(c) 34 ATP
(d) 38 ATP
Answer:
(d) 38 ATP

Question 13.
Cyanide acts as electron transport chain inhibitor by preventing:
(a) synthesis of ATP from ADP
(b) flow of electrons from NADH + H⁺
(c) flow of electrons from cytochrome a₃ to O₂
(d) oxidative phosphorylation
Answer:
(c) flow of electrons from cytochrome a₃ to O₂

Question 14.
Respiratory quotient for oleic acid is:
(a) 0.69
(b) 0.71
(c) 0.80
(d) 0.36
Answer:
(b) 0.71

Question 15.
End products of fermentation in yeast is:
(a) pyruvic acid and CO₂
(b) lactic acid qnd CO₂
(c) ethyl alcohol and CO₂
(d) mixed acid and CO₂
Answer:
(c) ethyl alcohol and CO₂

Question 16.
The end products of mixed acid fermentation in enterobacteriaceae are:
(a) lactic acid, ethanol, formic acid, CO₂ and H₂
(b) lactic acid, formic acid and CO₂
(c) lactic acid, ethanol, CO₂ and O₂
(d) ethanol, formic acid, CO₂ and H₂
Answer:
(a) lactic acid, ethanol, formic acid, CO₂ and H₂

Question 17.
The external factors that affect the respiration are:
(a) temperature, insufficient O₂ and amount of protoplasm
(b) temperature, insufficient O₂ and high concentration of CO₂
(c) temperature, high concentration of CO₂ and respiratory substrate
(d) temperature, high concentration of CO₂ and amount of protoplasm
Answer:
(b) temperature, insufficient O₂ and high concentration of CO₂

Question 18.
Pentose phosphate pathway was described by:
(a) Pepys and Black man
(b) Kreb and Embden
(c) Warburg, Dickens and Lipmann
(d) Warburg and Pamas
Answer:
(c) Warburg, Dickens and Lipmann

Question 19.
The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by the enzyme:
(a) glucose, 1, 6 diphosphate dehydrogenase
(b) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
(c) fructose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

Question 20.
In pentose phosphate pathway the glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme is inhibited by high ratio of:
(a) FADH to FAD
(b) glucose to glucose – 6 – phosphate
(c) NADPH to NADP
(d) GTPH to GTP
Answer:
(c) NADPH to NADP

Question 21.
In plant tissue erythrose is used for the synthesis of:
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Xanthophill
(c) Erythrocin
(d) Arithocyanin
Answer:
(d) Arithocyanin

Question 22.
As per the recent view, when a glucose molecule is completely aerobically oxidised, the net yield of ATP in plant cell is:
(a) 38
(b) 36
(c) 30
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 30

Question 23.
Identify the electron transport inhibitor:
(a) phosphophenol
(b) dinitrophenol
(c) xylene
(d) indol acetic acid
Answer:
(b) dinitrophenol

Question 24.
The phenomenon of climacteric is present in:
(a) banana
(b) coconut
(c) cauli flower
(d) brinjal
Answer:
(a) banana

Question 25.
Cyanide resistant respiration is known to generate heat in thermogenic tissues as high as:
(a) 35° C
(b) 38° C
(c) 40° C
(d) 51° C
Answer:
(d) 51° C

Question 26.
Match the following:

Substrate	RQ
A. Palmitic acid	(i) 1.6
B. Oleic acid	(ii) 4.0
C. Tartaric acid	(iii) 0.36
D. Oxalic acid	(iv) 0.71

(a) A – (ii), B – (iii); C – (i); D – (iv)
(b) A – (iii), B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)
(c) A – (ii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (iii)
(d) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (ii)
Answer:
(b) A – (iii), B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)

Question 27.
Indicate the correct statement:
(a) In Bryophyllum, carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid
(b) In opuntia, the Respiratory Quotient value is 0.5
(c) Alcoholic fermentation takes place in enterobacteriaceae
(d) Muscles of vertebrate does not have lactate dehydrogenase enzyme
Answer:
(a) In Bryophyllum, carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid

Question 28.
The order of aerobic respiration in plant cell is:
(a) glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, pyruvate oxidation and electron transport chain
(b) glycolysis, pyruvate oxidate, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain
(c) pyruvate oxidation, glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain
(d) none of the above order
Answer:
(b) glycolysis, pyruvate oxidate, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain

Question 29.
The complete reactions of glycolysis take place in:
(a) mitochondria
(b) cristae
(c) cytoplasm
(d) outer membrane of mitochondria
Answer:
(c) cytoplasm

Question 30.
The Co – enzyme quinone is a proton carrier located within:
(a) outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) cytoplasm
(c) inner membrane of mitochondria
(d) matrix of mitochondria
Answer:
(c) inner membrane of mitochondria

Question 31.
How many molecules of CO₂ are produced during link reaction:
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 32.
In the case of ground nut, during seed germination they use:
(a) carbohydrate as respiratory substrate
(b) fat alone as respiratory substrate
(c) fat and protein as respiratory substrate
(d) protein alone as respiratory substrate
Answer:
(c) fat and protein as respiratory substrate

Question 33.
Lactic acid fermentation takes place in:
(a) yeast
(b) bacillus
(c) enterobacteriaceae
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) bacillus

Question 34.
The net result of complete oxidation of one glucose-6-phosphate in pentose phosphate pathway yield:
(a) 6 CO₂ and 12 NADPH + H⁺
(b) 6 CO₂ and 10 NADPH + H⁺
(c) 8 CO₂ and 16 NADPH + H⁺
(d) 8 CO₂ and 14 NADPH + H
Answer:
(a) 6 CO₂ and 12 NADPH + H+

Question 35.
Ribose – 5 – phosphate and its derivatives are used in the synthesis of:
(a) lignin
(b) coenzyme A
(c) anthocyanin
(d) xanthophyll
Answer:
(b) coenzyme A

II. Answer the following (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Define respiration?
Answer:
Respiration is a biological process in which oxidation of various food substances like carbohydrates, proteins and fats take place and as a result of this, energy is produced where O₂ is taken in and CO₂ is liberated.

Question 2.
What is meant by protoplasmic respiration?
Answer:
Respiration utilizing protein as a respiratory substrate, it is called protoplasmic respiration. Protoplasmic respiration is rare and it depletes structural and functional proteins of protoplasm and liberates toxic ammonia.

Question 3.
What do you understand by compensation of point?
Answer:
The point at which CO₂ released in respiration is exactly compensated by CO₂ fixed in photosynthesis that means no net gaseous exchange takes place, it is called compensation point.

Question 4.
Explain briefly about aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Respiration occurring in the presence of oxygen is called aerobic respiration. During aerobic respiration, food materials like carbohydrates, fats and proteins are completely oxidised into CO₂, H₂O and energy is released.

Question 5.
What is anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
In the absence of molecular oxygen glucose is incompletely degraded into either ethyl alcohol or lactic acid. It includes two steps:

1. Glycolysis
2. Fermentation

Question 6.
What do you know about transition reaction?
Answer:
In aerobic respiration the pyruvate with coenzyme A is oxidatively decarboxylated into acetyl CoA by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. This reaction is irreversible and produces two molecules of NADH + H⁺ and 2CO₂. It is also called transition reaction or Link reaction.

Question 7.
Who is Sir Hans Adolf Krebs?
Answer:
Sir Hans Adolf Krebs was born in Germany on 25th August 1900. He was awarded Nobel Prize for his discovery of Citric acid cycle in Physiology in 1953.

Question 8.
Explain briefly about amphibolic pathway.
Answer:
Krebs cycle is primarily a catabolic pathway, but it provides precursors for various biosynthetic pathways thereby an anabolic pathway too. Hence, it is called amphibolic pathway.

Question 9.
Mention the role of NADH dehydrogenase enzyme in electron transport system.
Answer:
NADH dehydrogenase contains a flavoprotein (FMN) and associated with non – heme iron Sulphur protein (Fe – S). This complex is responsible for passing electrons and protons from mitochondrial NADH (Internal) to Ubiquinone (UQ).

Question 10.
What is oxidative phosphorylation?
Answer:
The transfer of electrons from reduced coenzyme NADH to oxygen via complexes I to IV is coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) which is called Oxidative phosphorylation.

Question 11.
Mention any two electron transport chain inhibitors.
Answer:
Two electron transport chain inhibitors:

1. 2, 4 DNP (Dinitrophenol) – It prevents synthesis of ATP from ADP, as it directs electrons from Co Q to O₂.
2. Cyanide – It prevents flow of electrons from Cytochrome a₃ to O₂.

Question 12.
Define respiratory quotient.
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide given out and volume of oxygen taken in during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient.

Question 13.
What are the significances of Respiratory Quotient?
Answer:
The significances of Respiratory Quotient:

1. RQ value indicates which type of respiration occurs in living cells, either aerobic or anaerobic.
2. It also helps to know which type of respiratory substrate is involved.

Question 14.
Explain the term alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:
The cells of roots in water logged soil respire by alcoholic fermentation because of lack of oxygen by converting pyruvic acid into ethyl alcohol and CO₂. Many species of yeast (Saccharomyces) also respire anaerobically. This process takes place in two steps:

Question 15.
Mention any two industrial uses of alcoholic fermentation.
Answer:
Two industrial uses of alcoholic fermentation:

1. In bakeries, it is used for preparing bread, cakes, biscuits.
2. In beverage industries for preparing wine and alcoholic drinks.

Question 16.
What do you understand by the term mixed acid fermentation?
Answer:
This type of fermentation is a characteristic feature of Enterobacteriaceae and results in the formation of lactic acid, ethanol, formic acid and gases like CO₂ and H₂.

Question 17.
Mention any two internal factors, that affect the rate of respiration in plants.
Answer:
Two internal factors, that affect the rate of respiration in plants:

1. The amount of protoplasm and its state of activity influence the rate of respiration.
2. Concentration of respiratory substrate is proportional to the rate of respiration.

Question 18.
What is the control mechanism of pentose phosphate pathway?
Answer:
The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway is controlled by glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme which is inhibited by high ratio of NADPH to NADP⁺.

Question 19.
Write down any two significance of pentose phosphate pathway.
Answer:
Two significance of pentose phosphate pathway:

1. HMP shunt is associated with the generation of two important products,
2. Coenzyme NADPH generated is used for reductive biosynthesis and counter damaging the effects of oxygen free radicals.

III. Answer the following (3 Marks)

Question 1.
In biosphere how do plants and animals are complementary systems, which are integrated to sustain life?
Answer:
In plants, oxygen enters through the stomata and it is transported to cells, where oxygen is utilized for energy production. Plants require carbon dioxide to survive, to produce carbohydrates and to release oxygen through photosynthesis, these oxygen molecules are inhaled by human through the nose, which reaches the lungs where oxygen is transported through the blood and it reaches cells. Cellular respiration takes place inside or the cell for obtaining energy.

Question 2.
What will happen, when you sleep under a tree during night time?
Answer:
If you are sleeping under a tree during night time you will feel difficulty in breathing. During night, plants take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide and as a result carbon dioxide will be abundant around the tree

Question 3.
What are the factors associated with compensation point in respiration?
Answer:
The two common factors associated with compensation point are CO₂ and light. Based on this there are two types of compensation point. They are CO₂ compensation point and light compensation point. C₃ plants have compensation points ranging from 40 – 60 ppm (parts per million) CO₂ while those of C₄ plants ranges from 1 – 5 ppm CO₂.

Question 4.
Why do you call ATP as universal energy currency of cell?
Answer:
ATP is a nucleotide consisting of a base- adenine, a pentose sugar – ribose and three phosphate groups. Out of three phosphate groups the last two are attached by high energy rich bonds. On hydrolysis, it releases energy (7.3 K cal or 30.6 KJ / ATP) and it is found in all living cells and hence it is called universal energy currency of the cell.

Question 5.
What is a redox reaction?
Answer:
NAD⁺ + 2e^– + 2H⁺ → NADH + H⁺
FAD + 2e^– + 2H⁺ → FADH₂
When NAD⁺ (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide – oxidised form) and FAD (Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide) pick up electrons and one or two hydrogen ions (protons), they get reduced to NADH + H⁺ and FADH₂ respectively. When they drop electrons and hydrogen off they go back to their original form. The reaction in which NAD⁺ and FAD gain (reduction) or f lose (oxidation) electrons are called redox reaction (Oxidation reduction reaction). These reactions are important in cellular respiration.

Question 6.
Write down any three differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration:

• It occurs in all living cells of higher organisms.
• It requires oxygen for breaking the respiratory substrate.
• The end products are CO₂ and H₂O.

Anaerobic Respiration:

• It occurs yeast and some bacteria.
• Oxygen is not required for breaking the respiratory substrate.
• The end products are alcohol, and CO₂ (or) lactic acid.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The significance of Kreb’s cycle:

1. TCA cycle is to provide energy in the form of ATP for metabolism in plants.
2. It provides carbon skeleton or raw material for various anabolic processes.
3. Many intermediates of TCA cycle are further metabolised to produce amino acids, proteins and nucleic acids.
4. Succinyl CoA is raw material for formation of chlorophylls, cytochrome, phytochrome and other pyrrole substances.
5. α – ketoglutarate and oxaloacetate undergo reductive amination and produce amino acids.
6. It acts as metabolic sink which plays a central role in intermediary metabolism.

Question 8.
Derive the respiratory quotient for carbohydrate as substrate in oxidative metabolism.
Answer:
The respiratory substrate is a carbohydrate, it will be completely oxidised in aerobic respiration and the value of the RQ will be equal to unity.

Question 9.
Write down the characteristic of Anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
The characteristic of Anaerobic respiration:

1. Anaerobic respiration is less efficient than the aerobic respiration.
2. Limited number of ATP molecules is generated per glucose molecule.
3. It is characterized by the production of CO₂ and it is used for Carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

Question 10.
Distinguish between glycolysis and fermentation.
Answer:
Glycolysis:

1. Glucose is converted into pyruvic acid.
2. It takes place in the presence or absence of oxygen.
3. Net gain is 2ATR
4. 2 NADH + H⁺ molecules are produced.

Fermentation:

1. Starts from pyruvic acid and is converted into alcohol or lactic acid.
2. It takes place in the absence of oxygen.
3. No net gain of ATP molecules.
4. 2 NADH + H⁺ molecules are utilised.

Question 11.
Write down any three external factors, that affect respiration in plants.
Answer:
Three external factors, that affect respiration in plants:

1. Optimum temperature for respiration is 30°C. At low temperatures and very high temperatures rate of respiration decreases.
2. When sufficient amount of O₂ is available the rate of aerobic respiration will be optimum and anaerobic respiration is completely stopped. This is called Extinction point.
3. High concentration of CO₂ reduces the rate of respiration

Question 12.
How alcoholic beverages like beer and wine is made?
Answer:
The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol takes place in malted barley and grapes through fermentation. Yeasts carryout this process under anaerobic conditions and this Conversion increases ethanol concentration. If the concentration increases, it’s toxic effect kills yeast cells .and the left out is called beer and wine respectively.

IV. Answer the following (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Give the schematic representation of glycolysis or EMP pathway.
Answer:
The schematic representation of glycolysis or EMP pathway:

Question 2.
Write down the biochemical events in Kreb’s cycle.
Answer:
The biochemical events in Kreb’s cycle:

Question 3.
Mention the schematic diagram of the various steps involved in pentose phosphate pathway.
Answer:
The schematic diagram of the various steps involved in pentose phosphate pathway:

Question 4.
Describe the events in electron transport chain in plant cell.
Answer:
During glycolysis, link reaction and Krebs cycle the respiratory substrates are oxidised at several steps and as a result many reduced coenzymes NADH + H⁺ and FADH₂ are produced. These reduced coenzymes are transported to inner membrane of mitochondria and are converted back to their oxidised forms produce electrons and protons. In mitochondria, the inner membrane is folded in the form of finger projections towards the matrix called cristae.

In cristae many oxysomes (F₁ particles) are present which have election transport carriers are present. According to Peter Mitchell’s Chemiosmotic theory this electron transport is coupled to ATP synthesis. Electron and hydrogen (proton) transport takes place across four multiprotein complexes (I – IV). They are

(i) Complex – I (NADH dehydrogenase: It contains a flavoprotein (FMN) and associated with non – heme iron Sulphur protein (Fe – S). This complex is responsible for passing electrons and protons from mitochondrial NADH (Internal) to Ubiquinone (UQ).
NADH + H⁺ + UQ ⇌ NAD⁺ + UQH₂
In plants, an additional NADH dehydrogenase (External) complex is present on the outer surface of inner membrane of mitochondria which can oxidise cytosolic NADH + H⁺ Ubiquinone (UQ) or Coenzyme Quinone (Co Q) is a small, lipid soluble electron, proton carrier located within the inner membrane of mitochondria.

(ii) Complex – II (Succinic dehydrogenase): It contains FAD flavoprotein is associated with non – heme iron Sulphur (Fe – S) protein. This complex receives electrons and protons from succinate in Krebs cycle and is converted into fumarate and passes to ubiquinone.
Succinate + UQ → Fumarate + UQH₂

(iii) Complex – III (Cytochrome bc₁ complex): This complex oxidises reduced ubiquinone (ubiquinol) and transfers the electrons through Cytochrome bc₁ Complex (Iron Sulphur center bc₁ complex) to cytochrome c. Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the outer surface of inner membrane and act as a. mobile carrier to transfer electrons between complex III to complex IV.
UQH₂ + 2Cyt c_oxidised  ⇌  UQ + 2Cyt c_reduced  + 2H⁺

(iv) Complex IV (Cytochrome c oxidase): This complex contains two copper centers (A and B) and cytochromes a and as. Complex IV is the terminal oxidase and brings about the reduction of 1/2 O₂ to H₂O. Two protons are needed to form a molecule of H₂O (terminal oxidation).
2Cyt c_oxidised + 2H⁺ + 1/2 O₂  ⇌  2Cyt c_reduced + H₂O

The transfer of electrons from reduced coenzyme NADH to oxygen via complexes I to IV is coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) which is called Oxidative phosphorylation. The F₀F₁ – ATP synthase (also called complex V) consists of F₀ and F₁. F₁ converts ADP and Pi to ATP and is attached to the matrix side of the inner membrane. F₀ is present in inner membrane and acts as a channel through which protons come into matrix.

Oxidation of one molecule of NADH + H⁺ gives rise to 3 molecules of ATP and oxidation of one molecule FADH₂ produces 2 molecules of ATP within a mitochondrion. But cytoplasmic NADH + H⁺ yields only two ATPs through external NADH dehydrogenase. Therefore, two reduced coenzyme (NADH + H⁺) molecules from glycolysis being extra mitochondrial will yield 2 × 2 = 4 ATP molecules instead of 6 ATPs. The Mechanism of mitochondrial ATP synthesis is based on Chemiosmotic hypothesis.

According to this theory electron carriers present in the inner mitochondrial membrane allow for the transfer of protons (H⁺). For the production of single ATP, 3 protons (H⁺) are needed. The terminal oxidation of external NADH bypasses the first phosphorylation site and hence only two ATP molecules are produced per external NADH oxidised through However, in those animal tissues in which malate shuttle mechanism is present, the oxidation of external NADH will yield almost 3 ATP molecules.

Complete oxidation of a glucose molecule in aerobic respiration results in the net gain of 36 ATP molecules in plants. Since huge amount of energy is generated in mitochondria in the form of ATP molecules they are called ‘power house of the cell’. In the case of aerobic prokaryotes due to lack of mitochondria each molecule of glucose produces 38 ATP molecules.

Question 5.
Define respiratory quotient. Explain the derivation of respiratory quotient for various substrates oxidised :
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide given out and volume of oxygen taken in during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient or Respiratory ratio. RQ value depends, upon respiratory substrates and their oxidation.

(i) The respiratory substrate is a carbohydrate, it will be completely oxidised in aerobic respiration and the value of the RQ will be equal to unity.

(ii) If the respiratory substrate is . a carbohydrate it will be incompletely oxidised when it goes through anaerobic respiration and the RQ value will be infinity.

(iii) In some succulent plants like Opuntia, Bryophyllum carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid, particularly malic acid without corresponding release of CO₂ but O₂ is consumed hence the RQ value will be zero.

(iv) When respiratory substrate is protein or fat, then RQ will be less than unity.

(v) When respiratory substrate is an organic acid the value of RQ will be more than unity.

Question 6.
Describe an experiment to demonstrate the production of CO₂ in aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Take small quantity of any seed (groundnut or bean seeds) and allow them to germinate by imbibing them. While they are germinating place them in a conical flask. A small glass tube containing 4 ml of freshly prepared Potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution is hung into the conical flask with the help of a thread and tightly close the one holed cork. Take a bent glass tube, the shorter end of which is inserted into the conical flask through the hole in the cork, while the longer end is dipped in a beaker containing water.

Observe the position of initial water level in bent glass tube. This experimental setup is kept for two hours and the seeds were allowed to germinate. After two hours, the level of water rises in the glass tube. It is because, the CO₂ evolved during aerobic respiration by germinating seeds will be absorbed by KOH solution and the level of water will rise in the glass tube.
CO₂ + 2KOH → K₂CO₃ + H₂O
In the case of groundnut or bean seeds, the rise of water is relatively lesser because these seeds use fat and proteins as respiratory substrate and release a very small amount of CO₂. But in the case of wheat grains, the rise in water level is greater because they use carbohydrate as respiratory substrate. When carbohydrates are used as substrate, equal amounts of CO₂ and O₂ are evolved and consumed.

Textbook Page No. 145

Question 1.
How many ATP molecules are produced from one sucrose molecule?
Answer:
One sucrose molecules gives rise to two glucose molecules. The net production of ATP during complete oxidation of one glucose molecule in plant cell is 36 ATP. Therefore one sucrose molecule yields 36 x 2 = 72 ATP molecules.
As per recent view in plants cells, one molecules of glucose, after complete aerobic oxidation yields only 30 ATP molecules and hence one sucrose molecule yield only 30 x 2 = 60 ATP molecules.

Textbook Page No. 156

Question 1.
Why Microorganisms respire anaerobically?
Answer:
Some of the microorganism live in environments devoid of oxygen and they have to adopt themselves in anoxic condition. Hence they respire anaerobically and they are called anaerobic microbes.

Question 2.
Does anaerobic respiration take place in higher plants?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration some time occur in the root of some water – logged plants.

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Textbook Evulation Solved 
Question 1.
Arrange the following structures in the order that a drop of water entering the nephron would encounter them?

1. (a) Afferent arteriole
2. (b) Bowman’s capsule
3. (c) Collecting duct
4. (d) Distal tubule
5. (e) Glomerulus
6. (f) Loop of Henle
7. (g) Proximal tubule
8. (h) Renal pelvis

Answer:

1. (a) Afferent arteriole
2. (b) Bowman’s capsule
3. (e) Glomerulus
4. (g) Proximal tubule
5. (j) Loop of Henle
6. (d) Distal tubule
7. (c) Collecting duct
8. (h) Renal pelvis

Question 2.
Name the three filtration barriers that solutes must come across as they move from plasma to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule. What components of the blood are usually excluded by these layers?
Answer:
The three filtration barriers that solutes must come across as they move from plasma to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule are,

1. Glomerular capillary endothelium
2. Basal lamina or basement membrane
3. Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule. Blood corpuscles and plasma protein are excluded by these layers.

Question 3.
What forces promote glomerular filtration? What forces opposes them? What is meant by net filtration pressure?
Answer:
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (55 mm Hg) is the force that promotes filtration. The colloidal osmotic pressure (30 mm Hg) and the capsular hydrostatic pressure (15 mm Hg) are the two opposing forces.

The difference between the force promoting and opposing filtration is the net filtration pressure. It is responsible for filtration. Net filtration pressure = Glomerular hydrostatic pressure – (Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure).

Question 4.
Identify the following structures and explain their significance in renal physiology?

1. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
2. Podocytes
3. Sphincters in the bladder
4. Renal cortex

Answer:
1. Juxtaglomerular apparatus:
Juxtaglomerular apparatus is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the nephron that consists of macula densa and granular cells. The macula densa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter. The granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin. It plays an important role in reabsorption of water, Na⁺ and excretion of K⁺.

2. Podocytes:
The visceral layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of epithelial cells called podocytes. The podocytes end in foot processes which cling to the basement membrane of the glomerulus. The openings between the foot processes are called filtration slits. It is important for glomerular filtration.

3. Sphincters in the bladders:
Sphincter muscles in the bladder controls the flow of urine from the bladder. When urinary bladder is filled with urine, it stretches and stimulates the central nervous system through the sensory neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system and brings about contraction of the bladder.

Simultaneously, somatic motor neurons induce the sphincters to close. Smooth muscles contracts resulting in the opening of the internal sphincters passively and relaxing the external sphincter. When the stimulatory and inhibitory controls exceed the threshold, the sphincter opens and the urine is expelled out.

4. Renal cortex:
The outer portion of the kidney is the renal cortex. It contains renal corpuscles and the proximal and distal tubules. It is thin and fibrous.

Question 5.
In which segment of the nephron most of the re-absorption of substances takes place?
Answer:
In proximal convoluted tubule cells, Glucose, lactate, amino acids, Na+ and water, are reabsorbed. In the descending limb of Henle’s loop, water is reabsorbed. In the ascending limb, Na⁺, Cl and K⁺ are reabsorbed. In the distal convoluted tubule, water is reabsorbed.

Question 6.
When a molecule or ion is reabsorbed from the lumen of the nephron, where does it go? If a solute is filtered and not reabsorbed from the tubule, where does it go?
Answer:
When a molecule or ion is reabsorbed from the lumen of the nephron, it goes to the blood stream through efferent arteriole which carries blood away from the glomerulus. If a solute is filtered and not reabsorbed from the tubule, it goes along with urine.

Question 7.
Match each of the following substances with its mode of transportation in proximal tubular reabsorption?
(a) Na⁺ – 1. indirect active transport
(b) Glucose – 2. endocytosis
(c) Urea – 3. paracellular movement
(d) Plasma – 4. facilitated diffusion
(e) Water – 5. primary active transport
Answer:
(a) 5
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2
(e) 3

Question 8.
Which segment is the site of secretion and regulated reabsorption of ions and pH homeostasis?
Answer:
Distal convoluted tubule.

Question 9.
What solute is normally present in the body to estimate GFR in humans?
Answer:
Creatinine.

Question 10.
Which part of the autonomic nervous system is involved in micturition process?
Answer:
Parasympathetic nervous system.

Question 11.
Match the following terms.
(a) a- adrenoceptor – 1. afferent arteriole
(b) Autoregulation – 2. basal lamina
(c) Bowman’s capsule – 3. capillary blood pressure
(d) Capsule fluid – 4. colloid osmotic pressure
(e) Glomerulus – 5. GFR
(f) Podocyte – 6. JG cells
(g) Vasoconstriction – 7. plasma proteins Norepinepherine
Answer:
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e) 1
(f) 2
(g) 4

Question 12.
If the afferent arteriole of the nephron constricts, what happens to the GFR in that nephron? If the efferent arteriole constricts what happens to the GFR in that nephron? Assume that no auto regulation takes place?
Answer:
If the afferent arteriole of the nephron constricts, GFR is reduced. If the efferent arteriole constricts, GFR is increased.

Question 13.
How is the process of micturition altered by toilet training?
Answer:
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called micturition or urination. It is controlled by central nervous system and smooth muscles of sphincter. In young children, micturition cannot be controlled. By toilet training, one can temporarily postpone the signal reaching from the central nervous system to the motor neurons carrying stimuli to the urinary bladder.

Question 14.
Concentration of urine depends upon which part of the nephron?
a. Bowman’s capsule
b. Length of Henle’s loop
c. P.C.T.
d. Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus
Answer:
b. length of Henle’s loop

Question 15.
If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?
a. There will be no urine formation.
b. There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
c. The urine will be more concentrated.
d. The urine will be more dilute.
Answer:
d. The urine will be more dilute.

Question 16.
A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
a. Less amino acids in his urine
b. Macula densa cells
c. Less urea in his urine
d. More sodium in his urine
Answer:
d. More sodium in his urine

Question 17.
What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
a. Micturition will continue
b. Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
c. There will be no micturition
d. Orine will not collect in the bladder
Answer:
c. There will be no micturition

Question 18.
The end product of Ornithine cycle is
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Uric acid
c. Urea
d. Ammonia
Answer:
c. Urea

Question 19.
Identify the wrong match
a. Bowman’s capsule – Glomerular Alteration
b. DCT – Absorption of glucose
c. Henle’s loop – Concentration of urine
d. PCT – Absorption of Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
Answer:
b. DCT – Absorption of glucose

Question 20.
Podocytes are the cells present on the
a. Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
b. Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule
c. Neck of nephron
d. Wall glomerular capillaries
Answer:
b. Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule

Question 21.
Glomerular filtrate contains
a. Blood without blood cells and proteins
b. Plasma without sugar
c. Blood with proteins but without cells
d. Blood without urea
Answer:
a. Blood without blood cells and proteins

Question 22.
Kidney stones are produced due to deposition of uric acid and
a. Silicates
b. Minerals
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Calcium oxalate
Answer:
d. calcium oxalate

Question 23.
Animal requiring minimum amount of water to produce urine are
a. Ureotelic
b. Ammonotelic
c. Uricotelic
d. Chemotelic
Answer:
c. Uricotelic

Question 24.
Aldosterone acts at the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct resulting in the absorption of water through
a. Aquaporins
b. Spectrins
c. GLUT
d. Chloride channels
Answer:
a. Aquaporins

Question 25.
The hormone which helps in the reabsorption of water in kidney tubules is ………..
a. Cholecystokinin
b. Angiotensin II
c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Pancreozymin
Answer:
b. Angiotensin II

Question 26.
Malphigian tubules remove excretory products from ………….
a. Mouth
b. Oesophagus
c. Haemolymph
d. Alimentary canal
Answer:
d. Alimentary canal

Question 27.
Indentify the biological term Homeostasis, excretion, glomerulus, urea, glomerular filtration, ureters, urine, Bowman’s capsule, urinary system, reabsorption, micturition, osmosis, glomerular capillaries via efferent arteriole, proteins?

1. A liquid which gathers in the bladder?
2. Produced when blood is filtered in a Bowman’s capsule?
3. Temporary storage of urine?
4. A ball of inter twined capillaries?
5. A process that changes glomerular filtrate into urine?
6. Removal of unwanted substances from the body?
7. Each contains a glomerulus?
8. Carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder?
9. Contains urea and many useful substances?
10. Blood is filtered through its walls into the Bowman’s capsule?
11. Scientific term for urination?
12. Regulation of water and dissolved substances in blood and tissue fluid?
13. Carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder?
14.  Consists of the kidneys, ureters and bladder?
15. Removal of useful substances from glomerular filtrate?
16. The process by which water is transported in the proximal convoluted tubule?
17. Where has the blood in the capillaries surrounding the proximal convoluted tubule come from?
18. What solute the blood contains that are not present in the glomerular filtrate?

Answer:

1. Urine
2. Glomerular filterate
3. Urinary bladder
4. Glomerulus
5. Reabsorption
6. Excretion
7. Bowman’s capsule
8. Ureters
9. Glomerular filterate
10. Glomerulus
11. Micturition
12. Homeostatic
13. Ureters
14. Urinary system
15. Reabsorption
16. Osmosis
17. Glomerular capillaries via efferent arteriole
18. Proteins

Question 28.
With regards to toxicity and the need for dilution in water, how’ different are ureotelic and uricotelic excretions? Give examples of animals that use these types of excretion?
Answer:
Ureotelic animals excrete urea with minimum loss of water, e.g., Mammals and terrestrial amphibians. Uricotelic animals excrete uric acid with the least loss of water, e.g., Birds and reptiles.

Question 29.
Differentiate protonephridia from metanephridia?
Answer:

Protonephridia	Metanephridia
1. Primitive kidneys are protonephridia	1. Tubular excretory structures are
2. These are found in flatworms.	2. These are found in annelids and molluscs

Question 30.
What is the nitrogenous waste produced by amphibian larvae and by the adult animal?
Answer:
Amphibian larvae produce ammonia and the adult produces urea.

Question 31.
How is urea formed in the human body?
Answer:
More toxic ammonia produced as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted into less toxic urea in the liver by a cyclic process called Ornithine cycle.

Question 32.
Differentiate cortical from medullary nephrons?
Answer:

Cortical nephrons	Medullary nephrons
1. These are found in the cortex.	1. These are found in the medulla.
2. These have short Henle’s loop.	2. These have long Henle’s loop.

Question 33.
What vessels carry blood to the kidneys? Is this blood arterial or venous?
Answer:
Renal artery carries oxygenated (arterial) blood to the kidney.

Question 34.
Which vessels drain filtered blood from the kidneys?
Answer:
Renal veins carry deoxygenated blood from the kidney.

Question 35.
What is tubular secretion? Name the substances secreted through the renal tubules?
Answer:
The movement of substances such as H⁺, K⁺, NH₄⁺, creatinine and organic acids from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid, the filtrate is called Tubular secretion.

Question 36.
How are the kidneys involved in controlling blood volume? How is the volume of blood in the body related to arterial pressure?
Answer:
Renin- Angiotensin stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption from the glomerular filtrate. This stimulates Adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone that causes reabsorption of Na⁺, K⁺ excretion and absorption of water.

This reduces loss of water into the urine. This maintains the volume of blood. An increase in blood volume increases central venous pressure. This increases right atrial pressure, right ventricular end – diastolic pressure and volume. This increases ventricular stroke volume and cardiac output and arterial blood pressure.

Question 37.
Name the three main hormones that are involved in the regulation of the renal function?
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone, aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide factor.

Question 38.
What is the function of antidiuretic hormone? Where is it produced and what stimuli increases or decreases its secretion?
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone increases reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules. It is produced in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. When there is excess loss of fluid from the body or increase in the blood pressure, ADH is secreted more. When there is no loss of fluid from the body, it is secreted less.

Question 39.
What is the effect of aldosterone on kidneys and where is it produced?
Answer:
Aldosterone is produced by the Adrenal cortex. It increases reabsorption of sodium and water by distal convoluted tubule and increased secretion of potassium. Hence, it maintains blood volume, blood pressure and urine output.

Question 40.
What evolutionary hypothesis could explain the heart’s role in secreting a hormone that regulates renal function? What hormone is this?
Answer:
The cardiac atrial cells secrete atrial natriuretic peptide or factor. It travels to the kidney and increases blood flow to the glomerulus. It acts as vasodilator on the afferent arteriole and vasoconstrictor on efferent arteriole. It decreases aldosterone release for the adrenal cortex and decreases the release of renin Angiotensin-II. Health of the heart depends on the normal blood pressure and hence evolution might have preserved atrial natriuretic factor which acts upon the renal function.

In – Text Questions Solved

Question 1.
What is the importance of having a long loop of Henle and short loop of Henle in a nephron?
Answer:
The major function of Henle’s loop is to concentrate Na⁺ and Cl^–. The longer the Henle’s loop, the more concentrated is the urine that is above the osmotic concentration of plasma.

Question 2.
A person with cirrhosis of the liver has lower than normal levels of plasma proteins and higher than normal GFR. Explain why a decrease in plasma protein would increase GFR?
Answer:
The net filtration pressure of 10 mmHg is responsible for the renal filtration. Net filtration Pressure = Glomerular hydrostatic pressure – (Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure). Therefore, when there is decrease in plasma proteins, the value of Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure decreases. This contributes to the increased net filtration pressure resulting in increase of GFR.

Question 3.
List various pathways involved in the homeostatic compensation in the case of severe dehydration?
Answer:
The below flowchart shows the pathways involved in the homeostatic compensation in case of severe dehydration.

1. If there is decreased extracellular fluid volume, it increases sympathetic stimulation and decreases blood pressure and decreases fluid and sodium delivery to the distal tubule.
2. This enhances secretion of renin.
3. It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensen 1 and angiotensen 1 to angiotehsen 2.
4. This increase in the angiotensen 1 increases the secretion of aldosterone which increases the reabsorption of sodium by distal tubule and increased secretion of potassium.
5. The increase in angiotensen 2 increases thirst and reabsorption of sodium in the PCT.

Question 4.
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) are used to treat high blood pressure. Using a flow chart, explain why these drugs are helpful in treating hypertension?
Answer:

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) prevent the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensen I and angiotensen I into angiotensen II. This decreases the reabsorption of sodium by proximal convoluted tubule and secretion of aldosterones. This prevents the increased secretion of potassium. All these reactions help in treating hypertension.

Question 5.
Consider how different foods affect water and salt balance, and how the excretory system must respond to maintain homeostasis?
Answer:
The excessive intake of sodium chloride„i.e. common salt increases osmolarity. This increases thirst and secretion of vasopressin. The vasopressin increases reabsorption of water in the renal tubule. Kidneys prevent the loss of water. Due to intake of water due to thirst, extracellular fluid volume increases.

This stimulates kidneys to excrete salt and water to bring osmolarity to normal. When there is an increase in the blood pressure due to increase in the extracellular fluid volume, cardiovascular reflexes occur to reduce the blood pressure. This brings the volume and blood pressure to normal. Thus, the excessive intake of sodium affects the water and salt balance. The excretory system responds to those changes and maintains homeostasis.

Text Book Activties Solved

Question 1.
Visit a nearby health center to observe the analysis of urine. Dip strips can be used to test urine for a range of different factors such as pH, glucose, ketones and proteins. Dip sticks for detecting glucose contain two enzymes namely, glucose oxidase and peroxidase? These two enzymes are immobilized on a small pad at one end of the stick. The pad is immersed in urine. If the urine contains glucose, a brown coloured compound is produced. The resulting colour pad is matched against a colour chart. The colour does not indicate the current blood glucose concentrations?
Answer:
Students can visit near by health centre under the guidance of the teacher.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Excretion Additional Questions & Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The elimination of ……………………….. requires large amount of water.
(a) Urea
(b) Uric acid
(c) Ammonia
(d) creatinine
Answer:
(c) ammonia

Question 2.
Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete ……………..
(a) Ammonia
(b) Urea
(c) Uric
(d) purines
Answer:
(c) uric acid

Question 3.
Solenocytes are the specialized cells for excretion in
(a) Flatworms
(b) Molluscs
(c) Insects
(d) Amphioxus
Answer:
(d) amphioxus

Question 4.
Insects have for excretion.
(a) Flame cells
(b) Malphigian tubules
(c) Solenocytes
(d) Green glands
Answer:
(b) Malphigian tubules

Question 5.
…………………… have antennal glands or green glands which perform excretory function.
(a) Insects
(b) Annelids
(c) Crustaceans
(d) Flatworms
Answer:
(c) Crustaceans

Question 6.
Reptiles produce very little ……………….. urine
(a) Hypotonic
(b) Hypertonic
(c) Isotonic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Hypotonic

Question 7.
Mammals have long Henle’s loop, hence they produce ……………………… urine.
(a) Hypotonic
(b) Hyperosmotic
(c) Isotonic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Hyperosmotic

Question 8.
Aglomerlar kidneys of marine fishes produce little urine that is ………………………. to the body fluid.
(a) Hypotonic
(b) Hyperosmotic
(c) Isoosmotic
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Isoosmotic

Question 9.
The external parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of simple ……………………. epithelium.
(a) Columnar
(b) Ciliated
(c) Squamous
(d) Glandular
Answer:
(c) Squamous

Question 10.
The nitrogenous wastes are formed as a result of catabolism of …………..
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(b) proteins

Question 11.
The net filtration pressure ………………………. of is responsible for renal filtration.
(a) 15mmHg
(b) 30 mmHg
(c) 55 mmHg
(d) 10 mmHg
Answer:
(d) 10 mmHg

Question 12.
Glucose, amino acids, Na+ and water in the filtrate are reabsorbed in the
(a) descending limb of Henle’s loop
(b) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(c) proximal convoluted tubule
(d) distal convoluted tubule
Answer:
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule

Question 13.
Defects in ADH receptors or inability to secrete ADH leads to a condition called ……………….
(a) diabetes mellitus
(b) diabetes insipidus
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) renal failure
Answer:
(b) diabetes insipidus

Question 14.
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called …………….
(a) Ultra filtration
(b) Reabsorption
(c) Micturition
(d) Secretion
Answer:
(c) Micturition

Question 15.
The pH value of human urine is ……………
(a) 7.5
(b) 6.0
(c) 4.3
(d) 9.5
Answer:
(a) 6.0

Question 16.
On an average, …………………… gm of urea is excreted per day.
(a) 10 – 15
(b) 15-20
(c) 40 – 50
Answer:
(d) 25 – 30

Question 17.
…………………….. is characterised by increase in urea and other non-protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine.
(a) Renal calculi
(b) Uremia
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(d) Renal failure
Answer:
(b) Uremia

Question 18.
The formation of hard stone like masses in the renal tubules of renal pelvis is called ……………
(a) Uremia
(b) Micturition
(c) Renal calculi
(d) Renal failure
Answer:
(c) Renal calculi

Question 19.
The inflammation of the glomeruli of kidneys due to Streptococcus bacteria is called …………..
(a) Renal failure
(b) Uremia
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(d) Renal calculi
Answer:
(c) Glomerulonephritis

Question 20.
Through haemodialysis, ……………………….. can be removed from the blood.
(a) Ketone bodies
(b) Glucose
(c) Amino acids
(d) Urea
Answer:
(d) Urea

Question 21.
The transfer of healthy kidney from one person to another person with kidney failure is called ……………
(a) Kidney failure
(b) Haemodialysis
(c) Kidney transplantation
(d) Uremia
Answer:
(c) Kidney transplantation

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………………………. regulation is the control of tissues osmotic pressure which acts as a driving force for movement of water across biological membranes.
Answer:
Osmotic

Question 2.
……………………. regulation is the control of the ionic composition of body fluids.
Answer:
Ionic

Question 3.
……………………. is the toxic nitrogenous end product of protein catabolism.
Answer:
Ammonia

Question 4.
…………………….. are able to change their internal osmotic concentration with change in external environment.
Answer:
Osmoconformers

Question 5.
…………………….. maintain their internal osmotic concentration irrespective of their external osmotic environment.
Answer:
Osmoregulators

Question 6.
The …………………. animals can tolerate only narrow fluctuations in the salt concentration.
Answer:
stenohaline

Question 7.
The ……………………. animals are able to tolerate wide fluctuations in the salt concentrations.
Answer:
euryhaline

Question 8.
…………………….. is the waste product of protein metabolism in spiders.
Answer:
Guanine

Question 9.
…………………….. requires large amount of water for its elimination.
Answer:
Ammonia

Question 10.
…………………. is the least toxic waste product of protein metabolism.
Answer:
Uric acid

Question 11.
Animals that excrete ammonia are called …………
Answer:
Ammonoteles

Question 12.
The animals that excrete uric acid crystals are called ……………………..
Answer:
Uricoteles

Question 13.
The animals that excrete urea are called ……………………..
Answer:
Ureoteles

Question 14.
…………………….. are the excretory structures in flatworms.
Answer:
Flame cells

Question 15.
Solenocytes are the excretory cells present in ……………………..
Answer:
Amphioxus

Question 16.
…………………….. are the excretory structures in insects.
Answer:
Malphigian tubules

Question 17.
…………………….. function excretory function in prawns.
Answer:
Antennal glands/ Green glands

Question 18.
…………………….. are the structural and functional unit of kidneys.
Answer:
Nephrons

Question 19.
The right kidney is placed slightly lower than the left kidney due to the presence of ……………………..
Answer:
liver

Question 20.
The medulla of kidney is divided into a few conical tissue masses called ……………………..
Answer:
Renal pyramids

Question 21.
The urinary bladder opens into ……………………..
Answer:
Urethra

Question 22.
The Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus together constitute the ……………………..
Answer:
Renal corpuscle

Question 23.
Some nephron have very long loop of Henle that run deep into the medulla and are called ……………………..
Answer:
Juxta medullary nephrons

Question 24.
The nitrogenous waste formed as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted to urea in the …………………….. Ornithine cycle.
Answer:
Liver

Question 25.
The filtration of blood that takes place in the ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerulus.

Question 26.
The fluid that leaves the glomerular capillaries and enters the Bowman’s capsule is called the ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerular filtrate

Question 27.
Sodium is reabsorbed by …………………….. in the proximal convoluted Tubule.
Answer:
Active transport

Question 28.
Descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water due the presence of ……………………..
Answer:
Aquaporins

Question 29.
Reabsorption of …………………….. ions regulates the pH of blood
Answer:
Bicarbonate

Question 30.
…………………….. Is the hormone that facilitates reabsorption of water by increasing the number of aquaporins on the DCT and collecting duct.
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone/ vasopressin

Question 31.
The under secretion of ADH leads to ……………………..
Answer:
Diabetes insipidus

Question 32.
The granular cells of afferent arteriole secrete an enzyme called ……………………..
Answer:
Renin

Question 33.
Renin converts …………………….. into angiotensin.
Answer:
Angiotensinogen

Question 34.
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide or factor decreases release of …………………….. , thereby decreasing angiotensin II.
Answer:
Renin

Question 35.
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called ……………………..
Answer:
Micturition

Question 36.
The yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of a pigment, ……………………..
Answer:
Urochrome

Question 37.
The presence of ketone bodies in the urine is called ……………………..
Answer:
Ketonuria

Question 38.
…………………….. is characterized by increase in urea and other non-protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in blood.
Answer:
Uremia

Question 39.
The formation of hard stone like masses in the renal tubules of renal pelvis is called ……………………..
Answer:
Renal calculi

Question 40.
Renal calculi is due to accumulation of soluble crystals of …………………….. and certain phosphates.
Answer:
Sodium oxalates

Question 41.
Renal stones can be removed by techniques like …………………….. or lithotripsy.
Answer:
Pyleothotomy

Question 42.
Inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys is known as ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis/ Bright’s disease

Question 43.
haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension and pulmonary oedema are symptoms of ……………………..
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis/ Bright’s disease

Question 44.
The process of removing toxic urea from the person with kidney failure is called ……………………..
Answer:
Haemodialysis

Question 45.
…………………….. drugs are administered to the patient after kidney transplantation to avoid tissue rejection.
Answer:
Immunosuppressive

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is osmotic regulation?
Answer:
Osmotic regulation is the control of tissue osmotic pressure which acts as a driving force for movement of water across biological membranes.

Question 2.
What is ionic regulation?
Answer:
Ionic regulation is the control of the ionic composition of body fluids.

Question 3.
Define excretion?
Answer:
The process by which the body gets rid of the nitrogenous waste products of protein metabolism is called excretion.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Osmoconformers and Osmoregulators?
Answer:

Osmoconformers	Osmoregulators
1. These animals are able to change their internal osmotic concentration with change in external environment.	1. These animals maintain their internal osmotic concentration irrespective of their external osmotic environment.
2. e.g. Marine molluscs and Sharks	2. e.g. Otters

Question 5.
Distinguish between Stenohaline and Euryhaline animals?
Answer:

Stenohaline	Euryhaline
1. These animals can tolerate only narrow fluctuations in the salt concentration.	1. These animals are able to tolerate wide fluctuations in the salt concentrations.
2. e.g. Gold fish	2. e.g. Artemia, Tilapia and Salmon.

Question 6.
Name some nitrogenous waste product produced by various animals?
Answer:
Some of the nitrogenous wastes produced by various animals other than ammonia, urea and uric acid are:
Jrimethyl amine oxide (TMO) in marine teleosts, guanine in spiders, hippuric acid in mammals, reptiles and other nitrogenous wastes include allantonin, allantoic acid, omithuric acid, creatinine, creatine, purines, pyramidines and pterines.

Question 7.
What are ammonotelic animals?
Answer:
Animals that excrete ammonia with excess of water are called ammonoteles. e.g., fishes, aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects.

Question 8.
What are the excretory organs of crustaceans?
Answer:
Antennal glands or green glands.

Question 9.
What is the difference between nephron present in reptiles and mammals?
Answer:
Reptiles have reduced glomerulus or lack glomerulus and Henle’s loop. Mammals have a long Henle’s loop. Reptiles produce hypotonic urine whereas mammals produce hypertonic urine.

Question 10.
Explain the structure of human excretory system?
Answer:
1. Excretory system in human consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra. Kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped structures that lie in the lumbar region between the last thoracic and third lumber vertebra.

2. The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney. Each kidney weighs about 120-170 grams. The outer layer of the kidney is covered by three layers of supportive tissues namely, renal fascia, perirenal fat capsule and fibrous capsule.

3. The longitudinal section of kidney shows an outer cortex, inner medulla and pelvis. The medulla is divided into a few conical tissue masses called medullary pyramids or renal pyramids.

4. The part of cortex that extends in between the medullary pyramids is the renal columns of Bertini. The centre of the inner concave surface of the kidney has a notch called the renal hilum.

5. Through this ureter, blood vessels and nerves innervate. There is a broad funnel shaped space called the renal pelvis with projection called calyces.

6. The walls of the calyces, pelvis and ureter have smooth muscles. The calyces collect the urine and empties into the ureter. It is stored in the urinary bladder temporarily. The urinary bladder opens into the urethra through which urine is expelled out.

Question 11.
Explain the structure of Nephron?
Answer:
Each kidney has nearly one million tubular structures called nephrons. Each nephron consists of a filtering corpuscle called renal corpuscle or malphigian body and a renal tubule. The renal tubule opens into a longer tubule called the collecting duct. The renal corpuscle has a double walled cup shaped structure called the Bowman’s capsule. It encloses a ball of capillaries called the glomerulus.

The Bowman’s capsule and the Glomerulus together constitute the renal corpuscle. The endothelium of glomerulus has many pores called fenestrae.

The external parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of simple squamous epithelium. The visceral layer is made of epithelial cells called podocytes. The podocytes end in foot processes which cling to the basement membrane of the glomerulus. The openings between the foot processes are called filtration slits.

The renal tubule continues further to form the proximal convoluted tubule, Henle’s loop and the distal convoluted tubule. The Henle’s loop has a thin descending limb and a thick ascending limb.

The distal convoluted tubule of many nephrons open into a collecting duct. The proximal and the distal convoluted tubule are situated in the cortical region whereas the Henle’s loop is situated in the medullary region of the kidney.

Question 12.
Explain the mechanism of urine formation in human?
Answer:
The nitrogenous waste formed as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted to urea in the liver by the Ornithine cycle or urea cycle. Urine formation involves three main processes:

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion

1. Glomerular Filtration:
Blood enters the kidney from the renal artery, into the glomerulus. The glomerular membrane has a large surface area and is more permeable to water and small molecules present in the blood plasma.

Blood enters the glomerulus faster with greater force through the afferent arteriole and leaves the glomerulus through the efferent arterioles, much slower. This is because of the wider afferent arteriole and glomerular hydrostatic pressure which is around 55 mm Hg.

This is the chief force that pushes water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane. The pressure is much higher than in other capillary beds. The colloidal osmotic pressure (30 mm Hg) and the capsular hydrostatic pressure (15 mm Hg) are the opposing forces.

The net filtration pressure of 10 mm Hg is responsible for the renal filtration.
Net filtration pressure = Glomerular hydrostatic pressure – (Colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular hydrostatic pressure) = 55 mm Hg – (30 mm Hg + 15 mm Hg) = 10 mm Hg.

The effective glomerular pressure of 10 mm Hg results in ultrafiltration. The fluid that leaves the glomerular capillaries and enters the Bowman’s capsule is called the glomerular filtrate.

It is similar to blood plasma except that there are no plasma proteins. Kidneys produce about 180L of glomerular filtrate in 24 hours. It has water, glucose, amino acids and minerals along with urea and other nitrogenous waste.

2. Tubular Reabsorption:
The substances of glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed by the renal tubules as they are needed by the body. This process is called selective reabsorption.

In the Proximal Convoluted Tubule, glucose, lactate, amino acids, Na⁺ and water are reabsorbed. Sodium is reabsorbed by active transport through sodium-potassium pump. The descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water due to the presence of aquaporins, but impermeable to salts.

Water is lost in this region and hence Na⁺ and Cl^– gets concentrated in the filtrate. In the ascending limb of Henle’s loop, Na⁺, Cl^– and K⁺ are reabsorbed. This region is impermeable to water. The distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs water and secretes potassium into the tubule. Na⁺, Cl^– and water remains in the filtrate. In the collecting duct, water and Na⁺ are reabsorbed and K⁺ is secreted.

3. Tubular secretion:
In this process, substances such as H⁺, K⁺, NH4⁺, creatinine and organic acids move into the filtrate from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid. Human produces 1.5 L of urine per day.

Question 13.
What is Diabetes insipidus?
Answer:
The defect in the production of ADH results in the excretion of large quantities of dilute urine, this is called Diabetes insipidus. This results in the dehydration and fall in blood pressure.

Question 14.
What is Micturition?
Answer:
The process of release of urine from the bladder is called micturition or urination.

Question 15.
What is the nature of urine of human being?
Answer:
The urine formed is a yellow coloured watery fluid which is slightly acidic in nature (pH 6.0).

Question 16.
What is glucosuria and ketonuria?
Answer:
The presence of glucose in the urine is called glucosuria. The presence of ketone bodies in the urine is called ketonuria. These are the indications of Diabetes Mellitus.

Question 17.
Name the pigment present in the urine?
Answer:
The yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of pigment urochrome.

Question 18.
Explain the excretory role of other organs?
Answer:

• Lungs: Lungs remove large quantities of carbon dioxide (18 L /day) and significant quantities of water.
• Liver: Liver secretes bile which contain bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, steroid hormones, vitamins and drugs. These are excreted out along with the digestive wastes. .
• Skin: Sweat glands eliminate certain wastes like urea and lactate. Sebaceous glands eliminate sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes through serum.
• Saliva: Small quantities of nitrogenous wastes are excreted through saliva.

Question 19.
Explain the hormones regulating the kidney function?
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin, juxtaglomerular apparatus and atrial natriuretic factor regulate the kidney function. Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin When there is excessive loss of fluid from the body or when there is an increase in the blood pressure, the osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus stimulates the neurohypophysis to secrete the antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin.

It facilitates reabsorption of water by increasing the number of aquaporins on the cell surface membrane of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

When the water loss from the body is less or when you drink excess amount of juice, osmoreceptors stop secreting ADH and the aquaporins of the collecting ducts move into the cytoplasm. Hence dilute urine is produced to maintain the blood volume.

Renin angiotensin:
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the nephron. It consists of macula densa and granular cells. The macula densa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter.

The granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin. A fall in glomerular blood flow, glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate, can activate JG cells to release renin.

This converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I. Angiotensin converting enzyme converts angiotensin-I to angiotensin- II. Angiotensin-II stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule by vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and increases the glomerular blood pressure.

Angiotensin- II stimulate adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone that causes reabsorption of Na⁺, K⁺ excretion and absorption of water from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. This increases the glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate. This complex mechanism is generally known as Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS).

Atrial natriuretic factor:
Excessive stretch of cardiac atrial cells cause an increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart and release Atrial Natriuretic Peptide or Factor (ANF). It travels to the kidney where it increases Na⁺ excretion and increases the blood flow to the glomerulus, acting as vasodilator on the afferent glomerular arterioles and as a vasoconstrictor on efferent arterioles.

It decreases aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex and decreases release of renin, thereby decreasing angiotensin-II. ANF acts antagonistically to the renin-angiotensin system, aldosterone and vasopressin.

Question 20.
Write a short note on urinary tract infection?
Answer:
Female’s urethra is very short and its external opening is close to the anal opening, hence improper toilet habits can easily carry faecal bacteria into the urethra. The urethral mucosa is continuous with the urinary tract and the inflammation of the urethra (urethritis) can ascend the tract to cause bladder inflammation (cystitis) or even renal inflammation (pyelitis or pyelonephritis).

Symptoms include dysuria (painful urination), urinary urgency, fever and sometimes cloudy or blood tinged urine. When the kidneys are inflammed, back pain and severe headache often occur. Most urinary tract infections can be treated by antibiotics.

Question 21.
Write a short note on Renal Failure or Kidney Failure?
Answer:
Failure of the kidneys to excrete wastes may lead to accumulation of urea with marked reduction in the urine output. Renal failure are of two types, acute and chronic renal failure.

In acute renal failure the kidney stops its function abruptly, but there are chances for recovery of kidney functions. In chronic renal failure there is a progressive loss of function of the nephrons which gradually decreases the function of kidneys.

Question 22.
Write a short note on Uremia?
Answer:
Uremia is characterized by increase in urea and other non-protein nitrogenous substances like uric acid and creatinine in blood. Normal urea level in human blood is about 17-30 mg/100 mL of blood. The urea concentration rises as 10 times of normal levels during chronic renal failure.

Question 23.
Write a short note on Renal calculi?
Answer:
Renal calculi, also called renal stone or nephrolithiasis, is the formation of hard stone like masses in the renal tubules of renal pelvis. It is mainly due to the accumulation of soluble crystals of salts of sodium oxalates and certain phosphates. This result in severe pain called “renal colic pain” and can cause scars in the kidneys. Renal stones can be removed by techniques like pyleothotomy or lithotripsy.

Question 24.
Write a short note on Glomerulonephritis?
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis is also called Bright’s disease and is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli of both kidneys and is usually due to post-streptococcal infection that occurs in children. Symptoms are haematuria, proteinuria, salt and water retention, oligouria, hypertension and pulmonary oedema.

Question 25.
Write a short note on Haemodialysis?
Answer:
Malfunction of the kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea and other toxic substances, leading to kidney failure. In such patients toxic urea can be removed from the blood by a process called haemodialysis. A dialyzing machine or an artificial kidney is connected to the patient’s body. A dialyzing machine consists of a long cellulose tube surrounded by the dialysing fluid in a water bath.

The patient’s blood is drawn from a convenient artery and pumped into the dialysing unit after adding an anticoagulant like heparin. The tiny pores in the dialysis tube allows small molecules such as glucose, salts and urea to enter into the water bath, whereas blood cells and protein molecules do not enter these pores.

This stage is similar to the filtration process in the glomerulus. The dialysing liquid in the water bath consists of solution of salt and sugar in correct proportion in order to prevent loss of glucose and essential salts from the blood. The cleared blood is then pumped back to the body through a vein.

Question 26.
Write a short note on Kidney Transplantation?
Answer:
Kidney Transplantation is the ultimate method for correction of acute renal failures. This involves transfer of healthy kidney from one person (donor) to another person with kidney failure.

The donated kidney may be taken from a healthy person who is declared brain dead or from sibling or close relatives to minimise the chances of rejection by the immune system of the host. Immunosuppressive drugs are usually administered to the patient to avoid tissue rejection.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 13 Photosynthesis

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Photosynthesis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Questions 1.
Assertion (A): Increase in Proton gradient inside lumen responsible for ATP synthesis.
Reason (R): Oxygen evolving complex of PS I located on thylakoid membrane facing Stroma, releases H⁺ ions.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True.
(b) Assertion is True and Reason is False.
(c) Reason is True and Assertion is False.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are False.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True.

Question 2.
Which chlorophyll molecule does not have a phytol tail?
(a) Chl – a
(b) Chl – b
(c) Chl – c
(d) Chl – d
Answer:
(c) Chl – c

Question 3.
The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is:
(a) PS II, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS I, ferredoxin.
(b) PS I, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS II ferredoxin.
(c) PS II, ferredoxin, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS I.
(d) PS I, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS II, ferredoxin.
Answer:
(a) PS II, plastoquinone, cytochrome, PS I, ferredoxin.

Question 4.
For every CO₂ molecule entering the C₃ cycle, the number of ATP & NADPH required:
(a) 2 ATP + 2 NADPH
(b) 2 ATP + 3 NADPH
(c) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH
(d) 3 ATP + 3 NADPH
Answer:
(c) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH.

Question 5.
Identify true statement regarding light reaction of photosynthesis?
(a) Splitting of water molecule is associate with PS I.
(b) PS I and PS II involved in the formation of NDPH + H⁺.
(c) The reaction center of PS I is Chlorophyll a with absorption peak at 680 nm.
(d) The reaction center of PS II is Chlorophyll a with absorption peak at 700 nm.
Answer:
(b) PS I and PS II involved in the formation of NDPH + H⁺.

Question 6.
Two groups (A & B) of bean plants of similar size and same leaf area were placed in identical conditions. Group A was exposed to light of wavelength 400 – 450 nm and Group B to light of wavelength of 500 – 550 nm. Compare the photosynthetic rate of the 2 groups giving reasons.
Answer:
The rate of photosynthesis in group A bean plants is more than what is found in Group B plants because the rate of absorption of light is more at the wavelength is less beyond the wavelength of 500 – 550 nm.

Question 7.
A tree is believed to be releasing oxygen during night time. Do you believe the truthfulness of this statement? Justify your answer by giving reasons?
Answer:
Yes, a tree is believed to be releasing O₂ during night time because at night CAM plants fix CO₂ with the help of phospho Enol Pyruvic acid and produce oxala acetic acid, which is converted into malic acid like C₄ cycle.

Question 8.
Grasses have an adaptive mechanism to compensate. photorespiratory losses – Name and describe the mechanism.
Answer:
Rate of respiration is more in light than in dark. Photorespiration is the excess respiration taking place in photosynthetic cells due to absence of CO₂ and increase of O₂. This condition changes the carboxylase role of RUBISCO into oxygenase. C₂ Cycle takes place in chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria. RUBP is converted into PGA and a 2C – compound phosphoglycolate by Rubisco enzyme in chloroplast. Since the first product is a 2C – compound, this cycle is known as C₂ Cycle. Phosphoglycolate by loss of phosphate becomes glycolate.

Glycolate formed in chloroplast enters into peroxisome to form glyoxylate and hydrogen peroxide. Glyoxylate is converted into glycine and transferred into mitochondria. In mitochondria, two molecules of glycine combine to form serine. Serine enters into peroxisome to form hydroxy pyruvate. Hydroxy pyruvate with help of NADH + H⁺ becomes glyceric acid. Glyceric acid is cycled back to chloroplast utilising ATP and becomes Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) and v enters into the Calvin cycle (PCR cycle). Photorespiration does not yield any free energy in the form of ATP. Under certain conditions 50% of the photosynthetic potential is lost because of Photorespiration

Question 9.
In Botany class, teacher explains, Synthesis of one glucose requires 30 ATPs in C₄ plants and only 18 ATPs in C₃ plants. The same teacher explains C₄ plants are more advantageous than C₃ plants. Can you identify the reason for this contradiction?
Answer:
C₄ plants requires 30 ATPs and 12 NADPH + H⁺ to synthesize one glucose, but C₃ plants require only 18 ATPs and 12 NADPH + H⁺ to synthesize one glucose molecule. If then, how can you say C₄ plants are more advantageous? C₄ plants are more advantageous than C₃ plants because C₄ photosynthesis is advantages over C₃ plant, because C₄ photosynthesis avoids photorespiration and is thus potentially more efficient than C₃ plants. Due to the absense of photorespiration, carbon di oxide compensation point for C₄ is lower than that of C₃ plants.

Question 10.
When there is plenty of light and higher concentration of O₂, what kind of pathway does the plant undergo? Analyse the reasons.
Answer:
The rate of photosynthesis decreases when there is an increase of oxygen concentration. This Inhibitory effect of oxygen was first discovered by Warburg (1920) using green algae, Chlorella.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Photosynthesis Additional Questions & Answers

I. Choose the correct answer (1 Mark)
Question 1.
Photosynthesis is the major:
(a) endothermic reaction
(b) exothermic reaction
(c) endergonic reaction
(d) exergonic reaction
Answer:
(c) endergonic reaction

Question 2.
Who has first explained the importance chlorophyll in photosynthesis:
(a) Joseph Priestly
(b) Dutrochet
(c) Stephen Hales
(d) Lovoisier
Answer:
(b) Dutrochet

Question 3.
How many million tonnes of dry matter produced annually by photosynthesis?
(a) 1700 million tonnes
(b) 1900 million tonnes
(c) 1400 million tonnes
(d) 2000 million tonnes
Answer:
(a) 1700 million tonnes

Question 4.
Who received 1988 Nobel prize for his work on photosynthesis in Rhodobacter:
(a) Emerson and Arnold
(b) Ruben and Kamem
(c) Arnon, Allen and Whatley
(d) Huber, Michael and Dissenhofer
Answer:
(d) Huber, Michael and Dissenhofer

Question 5.
Thylakoid disc diameter is:
(a) 0.35 to 0.75 microns
(b) 0.25 to 0.8 microns
(c) 0.45 to 0.8 microns
(d) 0.50 to 0.9 microns
Answer:
(b) 0.25 to 0.8 microns

Question 6.
Indicate the correct statement:
(a) Grana lamellae have only PS I
(b) Stroma lamellae have only PS II
(c) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
(d) Stroma lamellae have both PS I and PS II
Answer:
(c) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II

Question 7.
Match the following:

A. Cyanobacteria	(i) Chlorophyll D
B. Green algae	(ii) Chlorophyll C
C. Brown algae	(iii) Chlorophyll A
D. Red algae	(iv) Chlorophyll B

(a) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (ii)
(b) A – (ii); B – (iii); C – (iv); D – (i)
(c) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)
(d) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (ii); D – (i)
Answer:
(d) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (ii); D – (i)

Question 8.
Each pyrrole ring comprises of:
(a) six carbons and one nitrogen atom
(b) three carbons and one nitrogen atom
(c) four carbons and one nitrogen atom
(d) four carbons and two nitrogen atom
Answer:
(c) four carbons and one nitrogen atom

Question 9.
Biosynthesis of chlorophyll ‘a’ requires:
(a) Mg, Fe, Cu, Zn, Mn, K and nitrogen
(b) Mg, Fe, Cu, Mo, Mn, K and nitrogen
(c) Mg, Cu, Zn, Mo, Mn, K and nitrogen
(d) Mg, Fe, Cu, Zn, Mo, K and nitrogen
Answer:
(a) Mg, Fe, Cu, Zn, Mn, K and nitrogen

Question 10.
Pheophytin resembles chlorophyll ‘a’ except that it lacks:
(a) Fe atom
(b) Mn atom
(c) Mg atom
(d) Cu atom
Answer:
(c) Mg atom

Question 11.
Almost all carotenoid pigments have:
(a) 50 carbon atoms
(b) 40 carbon atoms
(c) 30 carbon atoms
(d) 60 carbon atoms
Answer:
(b) 40 carbon atoms

Question 12.
Which one of the photosynthetic pigments is called shield pigment:
(a) carotenes
(b) chlorophyll ‘b’
(c) pheophytin
(d) carotenoids
Answer:
(d) carotenoids

Question 13.
The visible spectrum of light ranges between:
(a) 200 to 2800 nm
(b) 300 to 2600 nm
(c) 200 to 800 nm
(d) 300 to 2400 nm
Answer:
(b) 300 to 2600 nm

Question 14.
Photosynthetic rate of red light (650 nm) is equal to:
(a) 42.5
(b) 10.0
(c) 43.5
(d) 40.8
Answer:
(c) 43.5

Question 15.
Indicate the correct statement in respect to Hill’s reaction:
(i) During photosynthesis oxygen is evolved from water
(ii) Electrons for the reduction of CO₂ are obtained from H₂S.
(iii) During photosynthesis oxygen is evolved from CO₂
(iv) Electrons for the reduction of CO₂ are obtained from water

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 16.
Phosphorylation taking place during respiration is called as:
(a) Photophorylation
(b) Oxidative phosphorylation
(c) Reductive phosphorylation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Oxidative phosphorylation

Question 17.
Find out the odd one:
(a) Ferredoxin
(b) Succinate
(c) Cytochrome b₆ – f
(d) Plastocyanin
Answer:
(b) Succinate

Question 18.
In bio – energetics of light reaction, to release one electron from pigment system it requires:
(a) two quanta of light
(b) four quanta of light
(c) one quanta of light
(d) eight quanta of light
Answer:
(a) two quanta of light

Question 19.
Chemiosmatic theory was proposed by:
(a) S. Michael
(b) R. Hill
(c) P. Mitchell
(d) G. Root
Answer:
(c) P. Mitchell

Question 20.
In C₄ plants, how many ATPs and NADPH + H⁺ are utilised for the release of one oxygen molecule:
(a) 3 ATPs and 2 NADPH + H⁺
(b) 4 ATPs and 3 NADPH + H⁺
(c) 2 ATPs and 2 NADPH + H⁺
(d) 5 ATPs and 2 NADPH + H⁺
Answer:
(d) 5 ATPs and 2 NADPH + H⁺

Question 21.
The key enzyme in the carboxylation reaction is:
(a) Ribulose dehydrogenase
(b) Carboxylase
(c) Carboxylase oxygenase
(d) Carboxyl anhydrase
Answer:
(c) Carboxylase oxygenase

Question 22.
In sugarcane plant, the dicarboxylic acid pathway was first discovered by:
(a) Hatch and Slack
(b) Kortschak, Hart and Burr
(c) Calvin and Benson
(d) Mitchell and Root
Answer:
(b) Kortschak, Hart and Burr

Question 23.
In bundle sheath cells, malic acid undergoes dicarboxylation and produces 3 carbon compound:
(a) Glyceric acid and CO₂
(b) Glyceraldehyde and CO₂
(c) Pyruvic acid and CO₂
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Pyruvic acid and CO₂

Question 24.
Indicate the correct answer:
(a) C₄ plants are adapted to only rainy conditions
(b) C₄ plants are partially adapted to drought condition
(c) C₄ plants are exclusively adapted to desert condition
(d) C₄ plants are adapted to aquatic condition
Answer:
(b) C₄ plants are partially adapted to drought condition

Question 25.
Crassulacean acid metabolism or CAM cycle was first observed in:
(a) sugarcane
(b) bryophyllum
(c) mango
(d) banana
Answer:
(b) bryophyllum

Question 26.
Glycolate protects plant cells from:
(a) Photophosphorylation
(b) Photo reduction
(c) Photo oxidation
(d) Photolysis
Answer:
(c) Photo oxidation

Question 27.
The important external factors affecting photosynthesis are:
(a) light, chlorophyll, temperature
(b) light, stomatal opening, oxygen
(c) light, protoplasmic factor, oxygen
(d) light, CO₂ and oxygen
Answer:
(d) light, CO₂ and oxygen

Question 28.
Hormones like gibberellin:
(a) increases the rate of photosynthesis
(b) increase respiration
(c) decrease the rate of photosynthesis
(d) decrease the rate of transpiration
Answer:
(a) increases the rate of photosynthesis

Question 29.
Bacterial photosynthesis differs from higher plant photosynthesis in:
(a) utilizing water as electron donar
(b) releasing O₂
(c) releasing sulphur instead of oxygen
(d) utilizing SO₂ as electron donar
Answer:
(c) releasing sulphur instead of oxygen

Question 30.
Splitting of water molecule (photolysis) produces:
(a) hydrogen and oxygen
(b) electrons, protons and oxygen
(c) electrons and oxygen
(d) hydrogen, carbon di oxide and oxygen
Answer:
(b) electrons, protons and oxygen

II. Answer the following (2 Marks)

Question 1.
What is the function of plant in the universe?
Answer:
Plants are the major machinery which produce organic compounds like carbohydrates,lipids, proteins, nucleic acids and other biomolecules.

Question 2.
Define photosynthesis.
Answer:
Photosynthesis is referred as photochemical oxidation and reduction reactions carried out with help of light, converting solar energy into Chemical energy.

Question 3.
What is the site of photosynthesis?
Answer:
Chloroplasts are the main site of photosynthesis and both energy yielding process (Light reaction) and fixation of carbon dioxide (Dark reaction) that takes place in chloroplast.

Question 4.
What is thylakoid? Explain how they are arranged?
Answer:
A sac like membranous system called thylakoid or lamellae is present in stroma and they are arranged one above the other forming a stack of coin like structure called granum (plural grana).

Question 5.
Endosymbiotic hypothesis says that chloroplasts evolved from bacteria. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:
Presence of 70S ribosome and DNA gives them status of semi-autonomy and proves endosymbiotic hypothesis which says chloroplast evolved from bacteria.

Question 6.
Define photosynthetic pigment.
Answer:
A photosynthetic pigment is a pigment that is present in chloroplasts or photosynthetic bacteria which captures the light energy necessary for photosynthesis.

Question 7.
Match the following:

A. Xanthophyll	(i) Lycopene
B. Phycocyanin	(ii) Red algae
C. Carotene	(iii) Brown algae
D. Phycoerythin	(iv) Cyanobacteria

Answer:
A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii).

Question 8.
What are Xanthophylls?
Answer:
Yellow (C₄₀H₅₆O₂) pigments are like carotenes but contain oxygen. Lutein is responsible for yellow colour change of leaves during autumn season. Examples: Lutein, Violaxanthin and Fueoxanthin.

Question 9.
Write down any two properties of light.
Answer:
Two properties of light:

1. Light is a transverse electromagnetic wave.
2. It consists of oscillating electric and magnetic fields that are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the light.

Question 10.
Define absorption spectrum.
Answer:
Pigments absorb different wavelengths of light. A curve obtained by plotting the amount of absorption of different wavelengths of light by a pigment is called its absorption spectrum.

Question 11.
Define the term fluorescence.
Answer:
The electron from first singlet state (SI) returns to ground state (SO) by releasing energy in the form of radiation energy (light) in the red region and this is known as fluorescence.

Question 12.
What is known as substrate level phosphorylation?
Answer:
Phosphorylation taking place during respiration is called as oxidative phosphorylation and ATP produced by the breakdown of substrate is known as substrate level phosphorylation.

Question 13.
Define photophosphorylation.
Answer:
Phosphorylation is the process of synthesis of ATP by the addition of inorganic phosphate to ADP. The addition of phosphate here takes place with the help of light generated electron and so it is called as photophosphorylation.

Question 14.
What are the phases of dark reaction?
Answer:
Dark reaction consists of three phases:

• Carboxylation (fixation)
• Reduction (Glycolytic Reversal)
• Regeneration

Question 15.
What are significance of photo respiration?
Answer:
Significance of photo respiration:

1. Glycine and Serine synthesised during this process are precursors of many biomolecules like chlorophyll, proteins, nucleotides.
2. It consumes excess NADH + H⁺ generated.
3. Glycolate protects cells from Photo oxidation.

Question 16.
What is meant by carbon dioxide compensation point?
Answer:
When the rate of photosynthesis equals the rate of respiration, there is no exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide and this is called as carbon dioxide compensation point.

Question 17.
What, are the internal factors, that affect photosynthesis?
Answer:
Pigments, protoplasmic factor, accumulation of carbohydrates, anatomy of leaf and hormones.

Question 18.
What are the air pollutants, that affect rate of photosynthesis?
Answer:
Pollutants like SO₂, NO₂, O₃ (Ozone) and Smog affect rate of photosynthesis.

Question 19.
How does water affect the rate of photosynthesis?
Answer:
Photolysis of water provides electrons and protons for the reduction of NADP, directly. Indirect roles are stomatal movement and hydration of protoplasm. During water stress, supply of NADPH + H⁺ is affected.

Question 20.
Name any three photosynthetic bacteria.
Answer:
Three photosynthetic bacteria:

1. Chlorobacterium
2. Thiospirillum
3. Rodhospirillum

III. Answer the following. (3 Marks)

Question 1.
Mention any three significance of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Three significance of photosynthesis:

1. Photosynthetic organisms provide food for all living organisms on earth either directly or indirectly.
2. It is the only natural process that liberates oxygen in the atmosphere and balances the oxygen level.
3. Photosynthesis balances the oxygen and carbon cycle in nature.

Question 2.
How is the chlorophyll synthesized?
Answer:
Chlorophyll is synthesized from intermediates of respiration and photosynthesis. Succinic acid an intermediate of Krebs cycle is activated by the addition of coenzyme A and it reacts with a simple amino acid glycine and the reaction goes on to produce chlorophyll ‘a’. Biosynthesis of chlorophyll ‘a’ requires Mg, Fe, Cu, Zn, Mn, K and nitrogen. The absence of any one of these minerals leads to chlorosis.

Question 3.
What are phycobilins?
Answer:
They are proteinaceous pigments, soluble in water, and do not contain Mg and Phytol tail. They exist in two forms such as:

1. Phycocyanin found in cyanobacteria.
2. Phycoerythin found in rhodophycean algae (Red algae).

Question 4.
What are the conclusions of Hill’s reaction?
Answer:
The conclusions of Hill’s reaction:

1. During photosynthesis oxygen is evolved from water.
2. Electrons for the reduction of CO₂ are obtained from water.
3. Reduced substance produced, later helps to reduce CO₂.

Question 5.
What is meant by ground state?
Answer:
The action of photon plays a vital role in excitation of pigment molecules to release an electron. When the molecules absorb a photon, it is in excited state. When the light source turned off, the high energy electrons return to their normal low energy orbitals as the excited molecule goes back to its original stable condition known as ground state.

Question 6.
Explain the term phosphorescence.
Answer:
Electron from Second Singlet State (S₂) may return to next higher energy level (S₁) by losing some of its extra energy in the form of heat. From first singlet state (S₁) electron further drops to first triplet state (T₁). Triplet State is unstable having half life time of 10^-3 seconds and electrons returns to ground state with emission of light in red region called as phosphorescence. Phosphorescence is the delayed emission of absorbed radiations. Pathway of electron during Phosphorescence:
S₂ → S₁ → T₁ → S₀

Question 7.
Describe the method of carboxylation.
Answer:
The acceptor molecule Ribulose 1,5 Bisphosphate (RUBP) a 5 carbon compound with the help of RUBP carboxylase oxygenase (RUBISCO) enzyme accepts one molecule of carbon dioxide to form an unstable 6 carbon compound. This 6C compound is broken down into two molecules of 3 – carbon compound phospho glyceric acid (PGA).

Question 8.
Explain the phase – 3 of dark reaction.
Answer:
Regeneration of RUBP involves the formation of several intermediate compounds of 6 – carbon, 5 – carbon, 4 – carbon and 7 – carbon skeleton. Fixation of one carbon dioxide requires 3 ATPs and 2 NADPH + H⁺, and for the fixation of 6 CO₂ requires 18 ATPs and 12 NADPH + H⁺ during C₃ cycle. One 6 carbon compound is the net gain to form hexose sugar.

Overall equation for dark reaction:
6CO₂ + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + H⁺ → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6H₂O + 18 ADP + 18 Pi + 12 NADP⁺

Question 9.
What is meant by dicarfioxylic acid pathway?
Answer:
C₄ pathway is completed in two phases, first phase takes place in stroma of mesophyll cells, where the CO₂ acceptor mblecule is 3 – Carbon compound, phospho enol pyruvate (PEP) to form 4 – carbon Oxalo acetic acid (OAA). The first product is a 4 – carbon and so it is named as C₄ cycle. Oxalo acetic acid is a dicarbokylic acid and hence this cycle is also known as dicarboxylic acid pathway.

Question 10.
Mention the significances of C₄ cycle.
Answer:
The significances of C₄ cycle:

1. Plants having C₄ cycle are mainly of tropical and sub – tropical regions and are able to survive in environment with low CO₂ concentration.
2. C₄ plants are partially adapted to drought conditions.
3. Oxygen has no inhibitory effect on C₄ cycle since PEP carboxylase is insensitive to O₂.
4. Due to absence of photorespiration, CO₂ Compensation Point for C₄ is lower than that of C₃ plants.

Question 11.
What is the type of carbon pathway in xerophytic plants?
Answer:
Crassulacean Acid Metabolism or CAM cycle is one of the carbon pathways identified in succulent plants growing in semi – arid or xerophytic condition. This was first observed in crassulaceae family plants like Bryophyllum, Sedum, Kalanchoe and is the reason behind the name of this cycle. It is also noticed in plants from other families eg: Agave, Opuntia, Pineapple and Orchids.

Question 12.
what are the significance of CAM cycle?
Answer:
The significance of CAM cycle:

1. It is advantageous for succulent plants to obtain CO₂ from malic acid when stomata are closed.
2. During day time stomata are closed and CO₂ is not taken but continue their photosynthesis.
3. Stomata are closed during the day time and help the plants to avoid transpiration and water loss.

IV. Answer the following (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Explain in detail about absorption spectrum and action spectrum of light.
Answer:
1. Absorption spectrum: The term absorption refers to complete retention of light, without reflection or transmission. Pigments absorb different Wavelengths of light. A curve obtained by plotting the amount of absorption of different wavelengths of light by a pigment is called its absorption spectrum.

• Chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’ absorb quanta from blue and red region.
• Maximum absorption peak for different forms of chlorophyll ‘a’ is 670 to 673, 680 to 683 and 695 to 705 nm.
• Chlorophyll ‘a’ 680 (P680) and Chlorophyll ‘a’ 700 (P700) function as trap centre for PS II and PS I respectively.

2. Action Spectrum: The effectiveness of different wavelength of light on photosynthesis is measured by plotting against quantum yield. The curve showing the rate of photosynthesis at different wavelengths of light is called action spectrum. From the graph showing action spectrum, it can be concluded that maximum photosynthesis takes place in blue and red region of the spectrum. This wavelength of the spectrum is the absorption maxima for Chlorophyll (a) and Chlorophyll (b). The Action Spectrum is instrumental in the discovery of the existence of two photosystems in O₂ evolving photosynthesis.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Photo system – I and photo system – II
Answer:
Photo system – I:

1. The reaction centre is P700.
2. PS I is involved in both cyclic and non – cyclic.
3. Not involved in photolysis of water and evolution of oxygen.
4. It receives electrons from PS II during non – cyclic photophosphorylation.
5. Located in unstacked region granum facing chloroplast stroma.
6. Chlorophyll and Carotenoid ratio is 20 to 30 : 1.

Photo system – II:

1. Reaction centre is P680.
2. PS II participates in Non – cyclic pathway.
3. Photolysis of water and evolution of oxygen take place.
4. It receives electrons by photolysis of water.
5. Located in stacked region of thylakoid membrane facing lumen of thylakoid.
6. Chlorophyll and Carotenoid ratio is 3 to 7 : 1.

Question 3.
Explain the process of photolysis of photolysis water with suitable diagram.
Answer:
The process of Photolysis is associated with Oxygen Evolving Complex (OEC) or water splitting complex in pigment system II and is catalysed by the presence of Mn⁺⁺ and Cl^–. When the pigment system II is active it receives light and the water molecule splits into OH^– ions and H⁺ ions. The OH^– ions unite to form water molecules again and release O₂ and electrons. Photolysis of water is due to strong oxidant which is yet unknown and designated as Z or Yz.

Widely accepted theory proposed by Kok et al., (1970) explaining photo – oxidation of water is water oxidizing clock (or) S’ State Mechanism. It consists of a series of 5 states called as S₀, S₁, S₂, S₃ and S₄. Each state acquires positive charge by a photon (hv) and after the S₄ state it acquires 4 positive charges, four electrons and evolution of oxygen. Two molecules of water go back to the S₀. At the end of photolysis 4H⁺, 4e^– and O₂ are evolved from water.

Question 4.
Describe the process of non – cyclic photophosphorylation.
Answer:
When photons are activated reaction centre of pigment system II (P680), electrons are moved to the high energy level. Electrons from high energy state passes through series of electron carriers like pheophytin, plastoquinone, cytochrome complex, plastocyanin and finally accepted by PS I (P700). During this movement of electrons from PS II to PS I ATP is generated. PS I (P700) is activated by light, electrons are moved to high energy state and accepted by electron acceptor molecule ferredoxin reducing Substance (FRS). During the downhill movement through ferredoxin, electrons are transferred to NADP⁺ and reduced into NADPH + H⁺ (H⁺ formed from splitting of water by light).

Electrons released from the photosystem II are not cycled back. It is used for the reduction of NADP⁺ in to NADPH + H⁺. During the electron transport it generates ATP and hence this type of photophosphorylation is called non – cyclic photophosphorylation. The electron flow looks like the appearance of letter ‘Z’ and so known as Z scheme.

When there is availability of NADP⁺ for reduction and when there is splitting of water molecules both PS I and PS II are activated. Non-cyclic electron transport PS I and PS II both are involved co – operatively to transport electrons from water to MADP⁺. In oxygenic species non – cyclic electron transport takes place in three stages.

1. Electron transport from water to P680: Splitting of water molecule produce electrons, protons and oxygen. Electrons lost by the PS II (P680) are replaced by electrons from splitting of water molecule.
2. Electron transport from P680 to P700: Electron flow starts from P680 through a series of electron carrier molecules like pheophytin, plastoquinone (PQ), cytochrome b₆ – f complex, plastocyanin (PC) and finally reaches P700 (PS I).
3. Electron transport from P700 to NADP: PS I (P700) is excited now and the electrons pass to high energy level. When electron travels downhill through ferredoxin, NADP⁺ is reduced to NADPH + H⁺.

Question 5.
Explain chemiosmotic theory with suitable I diagram.
Answer:
Chemiosmotic theory was proposed by P. Mitchell (1966). According to this theory electrons are transported along the membrane through PS I and PS II and connected by Cytochrome b₆ – f complex. The flow of electrical current is due to difference in electrochemical potential of protons across the membrane. Splitting of water molecule takes place inside the membrane. Protons or H+ ions accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoid (H⁺ increase 1000 to 2000 times). As a result, proton concentration is increased inside the thylakoid lumen.

These protons move across the membrane because the primary acceptor of electron is located outside the membrane. Protons in stroma less in number and creates a proton gradient. This gradient is broken down due to the movement of proton across the membrane to the stroma through CFo of the ATP synthase enzyme. The proton motive force created inside the lumen of thylakoid or chemical gradient of H⁺ ion across the membrane stimulates ATP generation.

The evolution of one oxygen molecule (4 electrons required) requires 8 quanta of light. C₃ plants utilise 3 ATPs and 2 NADPH + H⁺ to evolve one Oxygen molecule. To evolve 6 molecules of Oxygen 18 ATPs and 12 NADPH + H⁺ are utilised. C₄ plants utilise 5 ATPs and 2 NADPH + H⁺ to evolve one oxygen molecule. To evolve 6 molecules of Oxygen 30 ATPs and 12 NADPH + H⁺ are utilised.

Question 6.
Compare and contrast the photosynthetic processes in C₃ and C₄ plants.
Answer:
Contrast the photosynthetic processes in C₃ and C₄ plants:
C₃ Plants:

• CO₂ fixation takes place in mesophyll cells only.
• CO₂ acceptor is RUBP only.
• First product is 3C – PGA.
• Kranz anatomy is not present.
• Granum is present in mesophyll cells.
• Normal Chloroplast.
• Optimum temperature 20° to 25° C.
• Fixation of CO₂ at 50 ppm.
• Less efficient due to higher photorespiration.
• RUBP carboxylase enzyme used for fixation.
• 18 ATPs used to synthesize one glucose.
• Efficient at low CO₂.
• eg: Paddy, Wheat, Potato and so on.

C₄ Plants:

• CO₂ fixation takes place mesophyll and bundle sheath.
• PEP in mesophyll and RUBP in bundle sheath cells.
• First product is 4C – OAA.
• Kranz anatomy is present.
• Granum present in mesophyll cells and absent in bundle sheath.
• Dimorphic chloroplast.
• Optimum temperature 30° to 45° C.
• Fixation of CO₂ even less than 10 ppm.
• More efficient due to less photorespiration.
• PEP carboxylase and RUBP carboxylase used.
• 30 ATPs to produce one glucose.
• Efficient at higher CO₂.
• eg: Sugar cane, Maize, Sorghum, Amaranthus and so on.

Question 7.
Give the schematic diagram of photorespiration.
Answer:
The schematic diagram of photorespiration:

Question 8.
Distinguish between photorespiration and dark respiration.
Answer:
Photo respiration:

• It takes place in photosynthetic green cells.
• It takes place only in the presence of light.
• It involves chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
• It does not involve Glycolysis, Kreb’s Cycle, and ETS.
• Substrate is glycolic acid.
• It is not essential for survival.
• No phosphorylation and yield of ATP.
• NADH₂ is oxidised to NAD⁺.
• Hydrogen peroxide is produced.
• End products are CO₂ and PGA.

Dark respiration:

• It takes place in all living cells.
• It takes place all the time.
• It involves only mitochondria.
• It involves glycolysis, Kreb’s Cycle and ETS.
• Substrate is carbohydrates, protein or fats.
• Essential for survival.
• Phosphorylation produces ATP energy.
• NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH₂.
• Hydrogen peroxide is not produced.
• End products are CO₂ and water.

CHECK YOUR GRASP
Textbook Page No: 123

Question 1.
(i) Name the products produced from Non – Cyclic photophosphorylation?
(ii) Why does PS II require electrons from water?
(iii) Can you find the difference in the Pathway of electrons during PS I and PS II?
Answer:
(i) The products of non-cyclic phosphorylation are NADPH + H⁺ and ATP.
(ii) The electrons received from water are responsible for the production of ATP and NADPH + H⁺ through electron transport system in PS I and PS II.
(iii) Yes. Electron flow starts from P680 through a series of electron carrier molecules and finally reaches P700 (PSI). From PS I the electrons travels downhill through ferredoxin, NADP⁺ is recorded to NADPH + H⁺.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Mineral Nutrition Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify correct match.

1. Die back disease of citrus	(i) Mo
2. Whip tail disease	(ii) Zn
3. Brown heart of turnip	(iii) Cu
4. Little leaf	(iv) B

(a) 1. (iii), 2. (ii), 3. (iv), 4. (i).
(b) 1. (iii), 2. (i), 3. (iv), 4. (ii).
(c) 1. (i), 2. (iii), 3. (ii), 4. (iv).
(d) 1. (iii), 2. (iv), 3. (ii), 4. (i).
Answer:
(b) 1. (iii), 2. (i), 3. (iv), 4. (ii).

Question 2.
If a plant is provided with all mineral nutrients but, Mn concentration is increased, what will be the deficiency?
(a) Mn prevent the uptake of Fe, Mg but not Ca
(b) Mn increase the uptake of Fe, Mg and Ca
(c) Only increase the uptake of Ca
(d) Prevent the uptake Fe, Mg, and Ca
Answer:
(a) Mn prevent the uptake of Fe, Mg but not Ca

Question 3.
The element which is not remobilized?
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Potassium
(c) Calcium
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Calcium

Question 4.
Match the correct combination.

Minerals	Role
(a) Molybdenum	1. Chlorophyll
(b) Zinc	2. Methionine
(c) Magnesium	3. Auxin
(d) Sulphur	4. Nitrogenase

(a) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2
(b) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
(c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
(d) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3
Answer:
(c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2

Question 5.
Identify the correct statement:
(i) Sulphur is essential for amino acids Cystine and Methionine
(ii) Low level of N, K, S and Mo affect the cell division
(iii) Non – leguminous plant Alnus which contain bacterium Frankia
(iv) Denitrification carried out by nitrosomonas and nitrobacter.

(a) (i), (ii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(c) I only correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

Question 6.
The nitrogen is present in the atmosphere in huge amount but higher plants fail to utilize it. Why?
Answer:
The higher plants do not have the association of bacteria or fungi, which are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen.

Question 7.
Why is that in certain plants deficiency symptoms appear first in younger parts of the plants while in others, they do so in mature organs?
Answer:
In certain plants, the deficiency symptom appears first in the younger part of the plant, due to the immobile nature of certain minerals like calcium, sulphur, iron, boron and copper.

Question 8.
Plant A in a nutrient medium shows whiptail disease plant B in a nutrient medium shows a little leaf disease. Identify mineral deficiency of plant A and B?
Answer:
Mineral deficiency of plant A and B:

1. Plant A is deficient of the mineral molybdenum (Mo).
2. Plant B is deficient of the mineral zinc (Zn).

Question 9.
Write the role of nitrogenase enzyme in nitrogen fixation?
Answer:
The role of nitrogenase enzyme in nitrogen fixation:

Question 10.
Explain the insectivorous mode of nutrition in angiosperms?
Answer:
Plants which are growing in nitrogen deficient areas develop insectivorous habit to resolve nitrogen deficiency.
(i) Nepenthes (Pitcher plant): Pitcher is a modified leaf and contains digestive enzymes. Rim of the pitcher is provided with nectar glands and acts as an attractive lid. When insect is trapped, proteolytic enzymes will digest the insect.

(ii) Drosera (Sundew): It consists of long club shaped tentacles which secrete sticky digestive fluid which looks like a sundew.

(iii) Utricularia (Bladder wort): Submerged plant in which leaf is modified into a bladder to collect insect in water.

(iv) Dionaea (Venus fly trap): Leaf of this plant modified into a colourful trap. Two folds of lamina consist of sensitive trigger hairs and when insects touch the hairs it will close.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Botany Mineral Nutrition Additional Questions & Answers

I. Choose the correct answer (1 Mark)
Question 1.
Plants naturally obtain nutrients from:
(a) atmosphere
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 2.
Which of the following are included under micro nutrients:
(a) sodium, carbon and hydrogen
(b) magnesium, nitrogen and silicon
(c) sodium, cobalt and selenium
(d) calcium, sulphur and potassium
Answer:
(c) sodium, cobalt and selenium

Question 3.
Who coined the term ‘Hydroponics’:
(a) Julius Von Sachs
(b) William Frederick Goerick
(c) Liebig
(d) Wood word
Answer:
(b) William Frederick Goerick

Question 4.
Selenium is essential for plants:
(a) to prevent water lodging
(b) to enhance growth
(c) to resist drought
(d) to prevent transpiration
Answer:
(a) to prevent water lodging

Question 5.
Actively mobile minerals are:
(a) nitrogen and phosphorus
(b) iron and manganese
(c) sodium and cobalt
(d) silicon and selenium
Answer:
(a) nitrogen and phosphorus

Question 6.
Copper shows deficiency symptoms first that appear in young leaves due to:
(a) less active movement of minerals to younger leaves
(b) active movement of minerals
(c) the immobile nature of mineral
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) the immobile nature of mineral

Question 7.
Molybdenum is essential for the reaction of:
(a) hydrolase enzyme
(b) nitrogenase enzyme
(c) carboxylase enzyme
(d) dehydrogenase enzyme
Answer:
(b) nitrogenase enzyme

Question 8.
Match the following:

A. Magnesium	(i) dehydrogenase
B. Nickel	(ii) ion exchange
C. Zinc	(iii) chlorophyll
D. Potassium	(iv) urease

(a) A – (ii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (iii)
(b) A – (iii); B – (ii); C – (i); D – (iv)
(c) A – (ii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (iii)
(d) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)
Answer:
(d) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)

Question 9.
Nitrogen is the essential component of:
(a) carbohydrate
(b) fatty acids
(c) protein
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) protein

Question 10.
Which of the element is involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA:
(a) calcium
(b) magnesium
(c) sulphuric
(d) potassium
Answer:
(b) magnesium

Question 11.
The deficiency of magnesium is the plant, causes:
(a) necrosis
(b) interveinal chlorosis
(c) sand drown of tobacco
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 12.
Sulphur is an essential components of amino acids like:
(a) histidine, leucine and aspartic acid
(b) valene, alkaline and glycine
(c) cystine, cysteine and methionine
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) cystine, cysteine and methionine

Question 13.
Indicate the correct statements:
(i) Iron is the essential element for the synthesis of chlorophyll and carotenoid
(ii) Iron is the activator of carboxylene enzyme
(iii) Iton is the component of cytochrome
(iv) lvon is the component of plastocyanin

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii)

Question 14.
Khaira disease of rice is caused by:
(a) deficiency of boron
(b) deficiency of zinc
(c) deficiency of iron
(d) deficiency of all the three
Answer:
(b) deficiency of zinc

Question 15.
Match the following:

A. Marginal chlorosis	(i) nitrogen
B. Anthocyanin formation	(ii) zinc
C. Hooked leaf tip	(iii) potassium
D. Little leaf	(iv) calcium

(a) A – (ii); B – (iii); C – (i); D – (iv)
(b) A – (iii), B – (ii); C – (iv); D – (i)
(c) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (ii)
(d) A – (iv); B – (iii); C – (i); D – (ii)
Answer:
(c) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (ii)

Question 16.
Increased concentration of manganese in plants will prevent the uptake of:
(a) calcium and potassium
(b) sodium and potassium
(c) boron and silicon
(d) iron and magnesium
Answer:
(d) iron and magnesium

Question 17.
Which of the statement is not correct?
(a) Aluminium toxicity causes the appearance of brown spots in the leaves.
(b) Aluminium toxicity causes the precipitation of nucleic acid.
(c) Aluminium toxicity inhibits ATPase activity
(d) Aluminium toxicity inhibits cell division.
Answer:
(a) Aluminium toxicity causes the appearance of brown spots in the leaves.

Question 18.
The techniques of Aeroponics was developed by:
(a) Goerick
(b) Amon and Hoagland
(c) Soifer Hillel and David Durger
(d) Von Sachs
Answer:
(c) Soifer Hillel and David Durger

Question 19.
Nitrogen occurs in atmosphere in the form of N₂, two nitrogen atoms joined together by strong:
(a) di – covalent bond
(b) triple covalent bond
(c) non – valent bond
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) triple covalent bond

Question 20.
The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia is termed as:
(a) nitrogen cycle
(b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) ammonification
Answer:
(c) nitrogen fixation

Question 21.
Find out the odd organism:
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Azolla
(d) Pistia
Answer:
(d) Pistia

Question 22.
The legume plants secretes phenolics to attract:
(a) Azolla
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Nitrosomonas
(d) Streptococcus
Answer:
(b) Rhizobium

Question 23.
Which are the organisms help in nitrogen fixation of lichens:
(a) Anabaena and Nostoc
(b) Anabaena alone
(c) Nostoc alone
(d) Anabaena azollae
Answer:
(a) Anabaena and Nostoc

Question 24.
Nitrogenase enzyme is active:
(a) only in aerobic condition
(b) only in anaerobic condition
(c) both in aerobic and anaerobic condition
(d) only in toxic condition
Answer:
(b) only in anaerobic condition

Question 25.
Ammonia (NH₃⁺) is converted into nitrite (NO₂^–) by a bacterium called:
(a) Nitrobacter bacterium
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Anabaena azollae
(d) Nitrosomonas
Answer:
(d) Nitrosomonas

Question 26.
Decomposition of organic nitrogen (proteins and amino acids) from dead plants and animals into ammonia is called:
(a) nitrification
(b) ammonification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) denitrification
Answer:
(b) ammonification

Question 27.
The bacteria involved in the denitrification process are:
(a) E.coli and Anabaena
(b) Streptococcus and Bacillus vulgaris
(c) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus

Question 28.
In the process of ammonium assimilation:
(a) Ammonia is converted into nitrites
(b) Ammonia is converted into atmospheric nitrogen
(c) Ammonia is converted into ammonium ions
(d) Ammonia is converted into amino acids
Answer:
(d) Ammonia is converted into amino acids

Question 29.
The transfer of amino group (NH₂) from glutamic acid to keto group of keto acid is termed as:
(a) Transamination
(b) Hydrogenation
(c) Nitrification
(d) Denitrification
Answer:
(a) Transamination

Question 30.
Monotrapa (Indian pipe) absorbs nutrients through:
(a) Rhizobium association
(b) mycorrhizal association
(c) microbial association
(d) animal association
Answer:
(b) mycorrhizal association

Question 31.
Cuscuta is a:
(a) partial parasite
(b) total root parasite
(c) obligate stem parasite
(d) partial stem parasite
Answer:
(c) obligate stem parasite

Question 32.
Indicate the correct statement:
(a) Loranthus grows on banana and coconut
(b) Loranthus grows on fig and mango trees
(c) Balanophora is a stem parasite
(d) Viscum is a root parasite
Answer:
(b) Loranthus grows on fig and mango trees

Question 33.
The association of mycorrhizae with higher plants is termed as:
(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Symbiosis
(d) Saprophytic
Answer:
(c) Symbiosis

Question 34.
In Utricularia, the bladder is a modified form of:
(a) leaf
(b) stem
(c) tentacle
(d) lamina
Answer:
(a) leaf

Question 35.
Lichens are the indicators of:
(a) carbon monoxide
(b) nitrogen oxide
(c) sulphur di oxide
(d) hydrogen sulphide
Answer:
(c) sulphur di oxide

II. Answer the following (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Define micro nutrients of plants.
Answer:
Essential minerals which are required in less concentration called are as Micro nutrients.

Question 2.
Mention any two actively mobile minerals.
Answer:
Nitrogen and Phosphorus.

Question 3.
What is the role of molybdenum in the conversion of nitrogen into ammonia?
Answer:
Molybdenum (Mo) is essential for nitrogenase enzyme during reduction of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

Question 4.
What is the role of potassium on osmotic potential of the cell?
Answer:
Potassium (K) plays a key role in maintaining osmotic potential of the cell. The absorption of water, movement of stomata and turgidity are due to osmotic potential.

Question 5.
What are the deficiency symptoms of nitrogen?
Answer:
Chlorosis, stunted growth, anthocyanin formation.

Question 6.
Explain the role of sulphur in plant biochemistry.
Answer:
Essential component of amino acids like cystine, cysteine and methionine, constituent of coenzyme A, Vitamins like biotin and thiamine, constituent of proteins and ferredoxin plants utilise sulphur as sulphate (SO₄^–) ions.

Question 7.
Define the term Siderophores.
Answer:
Siderophores (iron carriers) are iron chelating agents produced by bacteria. They are used to chelate ferric iron (Fe³⁺) from environment and host.

Question 8.
List out any two iron deficiency symptoms in plants.
Answer:
Interveinal chlorosis, formation of short and slender stalk and inhibition of chlorophyll formation.

Question 9.
What is the role of Boron in plant physiology.
Answer:
Translocation of carbohydrates, uptake and utilisation of Ca⁺⁺, pollen germination, nitrogen metabolism, fat metabolism, cell elongation and differentiation. It is absorbed as borate BO^3-  ions.

Question 10.
Write down the deficiency symptoms of molybdenum in plants.
Answer:
Chlorosis, necrosis, delayed flowering, retarded growth and whip tail disease of cauliflower.

Question 11.
Explain briefly about aluminium toxicity on plants.
Answer:
Aluminium toxicity causes precipitation of nucleic acid, inhibition of ATPase, inhibition of cell division and binding of plasma membrane with Calmodulin.

Question 12.
Define Aeroponics.
Answer:
It is a system where roots are suspended in air and nutrients are sprayed over the roots by a motor driven rotor.

Question 13.
Define nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia is termed as nitrogen fixation. Nitrogen fixation can occur by two methods:

1. Biological
2. Non – Biological.

Question 14.
Mention any two ways of non – biological nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
Two ways of non – biological nitrogen fixation:

1. Nitrogen fixation by chemical process in industry.
2. Natural electrical discharge during lightening fixes atmospheric nitrogen.

Question 15.
Match the following.

A. Lichens	(i) Anabaena Azolla
B. Anthoceros	(ii) Frankia
C. Azolla	(iii) Anabaena and Nostoc
D. Casuarina	(iv) Nostoc

Answer:
A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii).

Question 16.
Define the term Nitrate assimilation.
Answer:
The process by which nitrate is reduced to – ammonia is called nitrate assimilation and occurs during nitrogen cycle.

Question 17.
Explain.the term Transamination.
Answer:
Transfer of amino group (NH₃⁺) from glutamic acid glutamate to keto group of keto acid. Glutamic acid is the main amino acid from which other amino acids are synthesised by transamination.

Question 18.
Explain briefly about total stem parasite.
Answer:
The leafless stem twine around the host and produce haustoria. eg: Cuscuta (Dodder), a rootless plant growing on Zizyphus, Citrus and so on.

Question 19.
Give two examples of symbiotic mode of nutrition.
Answer:
Two examples of symbiotic mode of nutrition:

1. Lichens: It is a mutual association of Algae and Fungi. Algae prepares food and fungi absorbs water and provides thallus structure.
2. Mycorrhizae: Fungi associated with roots of higher plants including Gymriosperms. eg: Pinus.

Question 20.
Explain briefly about insectivorous mode of nutrition.
Answer:
Plants which are growing in nitrogen deficient areas develop insectivorous habit to resolve nitrogen deficiency.

III. Answer the following (3 Marks)

Question 1.
What are the criteria required for essential minerals in plants?
Answer:
The criteria required for essential minerals in plants:

1. Elements necessary for growth and development.
2. They should have direct role in the metabolism of the plant.
3. It cannot be replaced by other elements.
4. Deficiency makes the plants impossible to complete their vegetative and reproductive phase.

Question 2.
Explain the unclassified minerals required for plants.
Answer:
Minerals like Sodium,Silicon, Cobalt and Selenium are not included in the list of essential nutrients but are required by some plants, these minerals are placed in the list of unclassified minerals. These minerals play specific roles for example, Silicon is essential for pest resistance, prevent water lodging and aids cell wall formation in Equisetaceae (Equisetum), Cyperaceae and Gramineae.

Question 3.
Distinguish between macro and micro nutrients?
Answer:
Macro nutrients:

• Excess than 10 mmole Kg^-1 in tissue concentration or 0.1 to 10 mg per gram of dry weight.
• eg: C, H, O, N, P, K, Ca, Mg and S.

Micro nutrients:

• Less than 10 mmole Kg^-1 in tissue concentration or equal or less than 0.1 mg per gram of dry weight.
•  eg: Fe, Mn, Cu, Mo, Zn, B, Cl and Ni.

Question 4.
Explain briefly the functions and deficiency symptoms of potassium.
Answer:
Functions: Maintains turgidity and osmotic potential of the cell, opening and closure of stomata, phloem translocation, stimulate activity of enzymes, anion and cation balance by ion – exchange. It is absorbed as K⁺ ions. Deficiency symptoms: Marginal chlorosis, necrosis, low cambial activity, loss of apical dominance, lodging in cereals and curled leaf margin.

Question 5.
What is meant by Chelating agents? Explain the role of EDTA as chemical chelating agent.
Answer:
Plants which are growing in alkaline soil when supplied with all nutrients including iron will show iron deficiency. To rectify this, we have to make iron into a soluble complex by adding a chelating agent like EDTA (Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic acid) to form Fe – EDTA.

Question 6.
Explain the term critical concentration of minerals.
Answer:
To increase the productivity and also to avoid mineral toxicity knowledge of critical concentration is essential. Mineral nutrients lesser than . critical concentration cause deficiency symptoms. Increase of mineral nutrients more than the normal concentration causes toxicity. A concentration, at which 10% of the dry weight of tissue is reduced, is considered as toxic critical concentration.

Question 7.
Describe the competitive behaviour of iron and manganese.
Answer:
Iron and Manganese exhibit competitive behaviour. Deficiency of Fe and Mn shows similar symptoms. Iron toxicity will affect absorption of manganese. The possible reason for iron toxicity is excess usage of chelated iron in addition with increased acidity of soil (pH less than 5.8) Iron and manganese toxicity will be solved by using fertilizer with balanced ratio of Fe and Mn.

Question 8.
Who are people responsible for developing hydroponics?
Answer:
Hydroponics or Soil less culture: Von Sachs developed a method of growing plants in nutrient solution. The commonly used nutrient solutions are Knop solution (1865) and Amon and Hoagland Solution (1940). Later the term Hydroponics was coined by Goerick (1940) and he also introduced commercial techniques for hydroponics. In hydroponics roots are immersed in the solution containing nutrients and air is supplied with help of tube.

Question 9.
List out the free living bacteria and fungi responsible for non-symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
Free living bacteria and fungi also fix atmospheric nitrogen.

Aerobic	Azotobacter, Beijerneckia and Derxia
Anaerobic	Clostridium
Photosynthetic	Chlorobium and Rhodospirillum
Chemosynthetic	Disulfovibrio
Free living fungi	Yeast and Pullularia
Cyanobacteria	Nostoc, Anabaena and Oscillatoria.

Question 10.
Define the term Ammonification.
Answer:
Decomposition of organic nitrogen (proteins and amino acids) from dead plants and animals into ammonia is called ammonification. Organisim involved in this process are Bacillus ramosus and Bacillus vulgaris.

Question 11.
Explain briefly Catalytic amination.
Answer:
Glutamate amino acid combines with ammonia to form the amide glutamine.

Glutamine reacts with a ketoglutaric acid to form two molecules of glutamate.

(GOGAT – Glutamine – 2 – Oxoglutarate aminotransferase)

Question 12.
Compare the partial stem parasite and partial root parasite.
Answer:
The partial stem parasite and partial root parasite:

1. Partial Stem Parasite: eg: Loranthus and Viscum (Mistletoe) Loranthus grows on fig and mango trees and absorb water and minerals from xylem.
2. Partial root parasite: eg: Santalum album (Sandal wood tree) in its juvenile stage produces haustoria which grows on roots of many plants.

Question 13.
Explain the mode of nutrition in pitcher plant.
Answer:
Pitcher is a modified leaf and contains digestive enzymes. Rim of the pitcher is provided with nectar glands and acts as an attractive lid. When insect is trapped proteolytic enzymes will digest the insect.

Question 14.
What is meant by saprophytic mode of nutrition?
Answer:
Saprophytes derive nutrients from dead and decaying matter. Bacteria and fungus are main saprophytic organisms. Some angiosperms also follow saprophytic mode of nutrition. eg: Neottia. Roots of Neottia (Bird’s Nest Orchid) associate with mycorrhizae and absorb nutrients as a saprophyte. Monotropa (Indian Pipe) grow on humus rich soil found in thick forests. It absorbs nutrient through mycorrhizal association.

Question 15.
Describe briefly the method of nitrogen fixation in leguminous plants.
Answer:
Rhizobium bacterium is found in leguminous plants and fix atmospheric nitrogen. This kind of symbiotic association is beneficial for both the bacterium and plant. Root nodules are formed due to bacterial infection. Rhizobium enters into the-host cell and proliferates, it remains separated from the host cytoplasm by a membrane.

IV. Answer the following (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Write an essay on the functions and deficiency symptoms of macro nutrients.
Answer:
Macronutrients, their functions, their mode of absorption, deficiency symptoms and deficiency diseases are discussed here:
(i) Nitrogen (N): It is required by the plants in greatest amount. It is an essential component of proteins, nucleic acids, amino acids, vitamins, hormones, alkaloids, chlorophyll and cytochrome. It is absorbed by the plants as nitrates (NO₃).

Deficiency symptoms: Chlorosis, stunted growth, anthocyanin formation.

(ii) Phosphorus (P): Constituent of cell membrane, proteins, nucleic acids, ATP, NADP, phytin and sugar phosphate. It is absorbed as H₂PO₄⁺ and HPO₄^– ions.

Deficiency symptoms: Stunted growth, anthocyanin formation, necrosis, inhibition of cambial activity, affect root growth and fruit ripening.

(iii) Potassium (K): Maintains turgidity and osmotic potential of the cell, opening and closure of stomata, phloem translocation, stimulate activity of enzymes, anion and cation balance by ion – exchange. It is absorbed as K⁺ ions.

Deficiency symptoms: Marginal chlorosis, necrosis, low cambial activity, loss of apical dominance, lodging in cereals and curled leaf margin.

(iv) Calcium (Ca): It is involved in synthesis of calcium pectate in middle lamella, mitotic spindle formation, mitotic cell division, permeability of cell membrane, lipid metabolism, activation of phospholipase, ATPase, amylase and activator of adenyl kinase. It is absorbed as Ca²⁺ exchangeable ions.

Deficiency symptoms: Chlorosis, necrosis, stunted growth, premature fall of leaves and flowers, inhibit seed formation, Black heart of Celery, Hooked leaf tip in Sugar beet, Musa and Tomato.

(v) Magnesium (Mg): It is a constituent of chlorophyll, activator of enzymes of carbohydrate metabolism (RUBP Carboxylase and PEP Carboxylase) and involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. It is essential for binding of ribosomal sub units. It is absorbed as Mg²⁺ ions.

Deficiency symptoms: litter veinal chlorosis, necrosis, anthocyanin (purple) formation and Sand drown of tobacco.

(vi) Sulphur (S): Essential component of amino acids like cystine, cysteine and methionine, constituent of coenzyme A, Vitamins like biotin and thiamine, constituent of proteins and ferredoxin. plants utilise sulphur as sulphate (SO₄^–) ions.

Deficiency symptoms: Chlorosis, anthocyanin formation, stunted growth, rolling of leaf tip and reduced nodulation in legumes.

Question 2.
Describe the role of micro nutrients on plant health and function.
Answer:
Micronutrients even though required in trace amounts are essential for the metabolism of plants. They play key roles in many plants. eg: Boron is essential for translocation of sugars, molybdenum is involved in nitrogen metabolism and zinc is needed for biosynthesis of auxin. Here, we will study about the role of micro nutrients, their functions, their mode of absorption, deficiency symptoms and deficiency diseases.

(i) Iron (Fe): Iron is required lesser than macronutrient and larger than micronutrients, hence, it can be placed in any one of the groups. Iron is an essential element for the synthesis of chlorophyll and carotenoids. It is the component of cytochrome, ferredoxin, flavoprotein, formation of chlorophyll, porphyrin, activation of catalase, peroxidase enzymes. It is absorbed as ferrous (Fe²⁺) and ferric (Fe³⁺) ions. Mostly fruit trees are sensitive to iron.

Deficiency: Interveinal Chlorosis, formation of short and slender stalk and inhibition of chlorophyll formation.

(ii) Manganese (Mn): Activator of Carboxylases, oxidases, dehydrogenases and kinases, involved in splitting of water to liberate oxygen (photolysis). It is absorbed as manganous (Mn²⁺) ions.

Deficiency: Interveinal chlorosis, grey spot on oats leaves and poor root system.

(iii) Copper (Cu): Constituent of plastocyanin, component of phenolases, tyrosinase, enzymes involved in redox reactions, synthesis of ascorbic acid, maintains carbohydrate and nitrogen balance, part of oxidase and cytochrome oxidase. It is absorbed as cupric (Cu²⁺) ions,

Deficiency: Die back of citrus, Reclamation disease of cereals and legumes, chlorosis, necrosis and Exanthema in Citrus.

(iv) Zinc (Zn): Essential for the synthesis of Indole acetic acid (Auxin) activator of carboxylases, alcohol dehydrogenase, lactic dehydrogenase, glutamic acid dehydrogenase, carboxy peptidases and tryptophan synthetase. It is absorbed as Zn²⁺ ions.

Deficiency: Little leaf and mottle leaf due to deficiency of auxin, Inter veinal chlorosis, stunted growth, necrosis and Khaira disease of rice.

(v) Boron (B): Translocation of carbohydrates, uptake and utilisation of Ca⁺⁺, pollen germination, nitrogen metabolism, fat metabolism, cell elongation and differentiation. It is absorbed as borate BO^3- ions.

Deficiency: Death of root and shoot tips, premature fall of flowers and fruits, brown heart of beet root, internal cork of apple and fruit cracks.

(vi) Molybdenum (Mo): Component of nitrogenase, nitrate reductase, involved in nitrogen metabolism, and nitrogen fixation. It is absorbed as molybdate (Mo²⁺) ions.

Deficiency: Chlorosis, necrosis, delayed flowering, retarded growth and whip tail disease of cauliflower.

(vii) Chlorine (Cl): It is involved in Anion – Cation balance, cell division, photolysis of water. It is absorbed as Cl^– ions.
Deficiency: Wilting of leaf tips.

(viii) Nickel (Ni): Cofactor for enzyme urease and hydrogenase.

Deficiency: Necrosis of leaf tips.

Question 3.
Give the details of minerals and their deficiency symptoms.
Answer:
Name of the deficiency disease and symptoms:

1. Chlorosis (Overall)
   • (a) Interveinal chlorosis
   • (b) Marginal chlorosis
2. Necrosis (Death of the tissue)
3. Stunted growth
4. Anthocyanin formation
5. Delayed flowering
6. Die back of shoot, Reclamation disease, Exanthema in citrus (gums on bark)
7. Hooked leaf tip
8. Little Leaf
9. Brown heart of turnip and Internal cork of apple
10. Whiptail of cauliflower and cabbage
11. Curled leaf margin

Deficiency minerals:

1. Nitrogen, Potassium, Magnesium, Sulphur, Iron, Manganese, Zinc and Molybdenum. Magnesium, Iron, Manganese and Zinc Potassium
2. Magnesium, Potassium, Calcium, Zinc, Molybdenum and Copper.
3. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Calcium, Potassium and Sulphur.
4. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Magnesium and Sulphur
5. Nitrogen, Sulphur and Molybdenum
6. Copper
7. Calcium
8. Zinc
9. Boron
10. Molybdenum
11. Potassium

Question 4.
Give the schematic diagram of nitrogen cycle.
Answer:
The schematic diagram of nitrogen cycle:

Question 5.
Describe the modes of biological nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
Symbiotic bacterium like Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen. Cyanobacteria found in Lichens, Anthoceros, Azolla and coralloid roots of Cycas also fix nitrogen. Non – symbiotic (free living bacteria) like Clostridium also fix nitrogen. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation:
1. Nitrogen fixation with nodulation: Rhizobium bacterium is found in leguminous plants and fix atmospheric nitrogen. This kind of symbiotic association is beneficial for both the bacterium and plant. Root nodules are formed due to bacterial infection. Rhizobium enters into the host cell and proliferates, it remains separated from the host cytoplasm by a membrane.

2. Stages of Root nodule formation:

• Legume plants secretes phenolics which attracts Rhizobium.
• Rhizobium reaches the rhizosphere and enters into the root hair, infects the root hair and leads to curling of root hairs.
• Infection thread grows inwards and separates the infected tissue from normal tissue.
• A membrane bound bacterium is formed inside the nodule and is called bacteroid.
• Cytokinin from bacteria and auxin from host plant promotes cell division and leads to nodule formation

3. Non – Legume: Alnus and Casuarina contain the bacterium Frankia Psychotria contains the bacterium Klebsiella.
Nitrogen fixation without nodulation. The following plants and prokaryotes are involved in nitrogen fixation:

• Lichens – Anabaena and Nostoc
• Anthoceros – Nostoc
• Azolla – Anabaena azollae
• Cycas – Anabaena and Nostoc.

Solution To Activity
Textbook Page No: 95

Question 1.
Collect leaves showing mineral deficiency. Tabulate the symptoms like Marginal Chlorosis, Interveinal Chlorosis, Necrotic leaves, Anthocyanin formation in leaf, Little leaf and Hooked leaf. (Discuss with your teacher about the deficiency of minerals)
Answer:
Symptoms:

1. Marginal Chlorosis
2. interveinal Chlorosis
3. Necrotic leaves
4. Anthocyanin formation in leaves
5. Little leaf
6. Hooked leaf

Minerals:

1. Potassium (K)
2. Magnesium (Mg)
3. Nickel (Ni)
4. Phosphorus (P)
5. Zinc (Zn)
6. Calcium (Ca)

Textbook Page No: 98

Question 1.
Preparation of Solution Culture to find out Mineral Deficiency
1. Take a glass jar or polythene bottle and cover with black paper (to prevent algal growth and roots reacting with light).
2. Add nutrient solution.
3. Fix a plant with the help of split cork.
4. Fix a tube for aeration.
5. Observe the growth by adding specific minerals.
Answer:
The deficiency of minerals like nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, potassium and sulphur cause stunted growth in plants.

Textbook Page No: 99

Question 1.
Collect roots of legumes with root nodules.
• Take cross section of the root nodule.
• Observe under microscope. Discuss your observations with your teacher.
Answer:

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