Category: Class 9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Local Self Government

Local Self Government Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which committee was appointed by the planning commission in 1985?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) G V K Rao
(d) L M Singhvi
Answer:
(c) G V K Rao

Question 2.
The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences of prevalent local self government during the period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chola
(b) Chera
(c) Pandiya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(a) Chola

Question 3.
The 73^rd and 74^th constitutional Amendment Acts, were enacted during the year in ………
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 1990
Answer:
(a) 1992

Question 4.
……. act as the inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) Commissioner
(b) District Collector
(c) Councilors
(d) Mayor
Answer:
(b) District Collector

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …….. is known as the “Father of Local Governments”.
2. Restoration of has ……. become an article of faith during our freedom struggle.
3. …… was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the village councils during the Chola period.
4. Local Government which are functioning in the Villages are called …….
5. …… will look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.
Answers:
1. LordRipon
2. panchayats
3. Kuda Olai Murai
4. Village Panchayats
5. Executive Officer

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) Panchayat Union is formed by grouping of Districts.
(ii) District Panchayat is constituted in each village.
(iii) The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service (IAS).
(iv) In Village Panchayat the President and ward members are nominated by the people.
Answers:
(iii) is correct.

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name the taxes levied by the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Taxes

• Property Tax
• Professional Tax
• House Tax
• Taxes for connection of drinking water
• Land Tax
• Taxes levied on shops

Question 2.
List out the salient features of Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj Apt 1994.
Answer:
The salient features of the new Act are as follows:
(a) A three-tier system
(b) Gram Sabha
(c) Establishment of Election Commission
(d) Constitution of Finance Commission
(e) Reservation of seats for SC/ST’s proportionate to their population One third reservation of seats for women and
(g) Constitution of District Planning Committees.

Question 3.
Mention the important functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Functions of the Village Panchayat

• Supply of drinking water
• Maintenance of street lights
• Maintenance of roads.
• Maintenance of village libraries
• Maintenance of small bridges
• Granting permission to the housing plots
• Maintenance of drainage
• Construction of group houses
• Cleaning of streets
• Maintenance of burial grounds
• Maintenance of common lavatory facilities

Question 4.
Which are the voluntary functions of the local governments?
Answer:
According to the Tamil Nadu Local Government Act passed in 1994, the following functions to be performed as voluntary functions by the local governments.

• Maintenance of street lights in the villages
• Maintenance of markets and fairs
• Implantation of trees
• Maintenance of play grounds
• Maintenance of parking vehicles, slaughter houses and cattle sheds
• Control over places of exhibition.

Question 5.
Who is the head of the District Panchayat?
Answer:
One district Panchayat is constituted for every 50,000 people and the ward members are directly elected by the people. The Chairman is elected from one among its members and their term is 5 years.

Question 6.
Name the Urban local governments.
Answer:
Urban Local Government

• Town Panchayat
• Municipality
• Corporation.

VI Answer in paragraph.

Question 1.
Write in details about the salient features of the 73rd & 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).
Answer:
Salient Features of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts (1992)

• Panchayats and Minicipalities will be ‘institutions of self-government’.
• Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.
• Three-tier system of panchayats at village, intermediate block/taluk/mandal and district levels. Two-tier for smaller states with population below 2 million.
• Seats at all levels filled by direct elections.
  Seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and chairpersons of the Panchayats at all levels also shall be reserved for SCs and STs in proportion to their population.
• One-third of the total number of seats reserved for women. One-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women. One-third offices of chairpersons at all levels reserved for women.
• Uniform five year term and elections to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of the term. In the event of dissolution, elections must be held compulsorily within six months.

Question 2.
Describe the major problems & challenges faced by the local self governments.
Answer:
Local self governments are the crucial basis for our democracy. The Constitutional status of local self governments adds more significance to their functioning. There are, however, a few critical concerns in the working of local self governments in India. Major problems and challenges may be mentioned as below:

• Lack of clear demarcation of powers and functions of local bodies
• Allocation of funds and needs assessment are not matched
• Role of caste, class and religion in decision making at the local self governments
• Poor accountability of elected members and officials at the grassroot levels of democracy

VII. Activity

Question 1.
Meet your President, Panchayat, Municipal Chairman and discuss with him how the local self goverment administered.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Local Self Government Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… introduced the Local Self Government in 1882.
(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) Lord Rippon
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) E.V.R. Periyar
Answer:
(b) Lord Rippon

Question 2.
Panchayat Raj System was introduced in Rajasthan in
(a) 1952
(b) 1953
(c) 1958
(d) 1959
Answer:
(d) 1959

Question 3.
Kuda Olai Murai was the name of the secret ballot method exercised by ….. to elect
the village councils.
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(b) Chola

Question 4.
There are …… corporations in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 12

Question 5.
…….. was the chairman of the Erode Municipality for many years since 1917.
(a) C.N. Annadurai
(b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar
(c) M.G. Ramachandran
(d) Raja Gopalachari
Answer:
(b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Local governments which are functioning in the villages are called Village Panchayat.
(ii) The President and Ward members are indirectly elected.
(iii) Their term office is six years.
(iv) Collector acts as the Inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The area where less than 10,000 people are living is called as Town Panchayat.
(ii) Members and President of the town Panchayat are directly elected by the people.
(iii) Their term office is 5 years.
(iv) There is one Executive officer to look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Mayor is elected by the people.
Reason (R): He is a link between the members of the corporation and the government.
(a) A is wrong; R is correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answers:
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. After Independence the Gandhian ideas of ……. greatly influenced the constitution
makers.
2. ……… took some steps towards liberalizing the administration in India.
3. …… are constituted in each and every village wherever population is above 500.
4. …… is formed by grouping of villages.
5. Chennai Minicipality was constituted in …….
6. After which British Lord is Chennai Corporation building named?
7. Corporations, Municipalities’ and Town Panchayats are …… bodies.
Answers:
1. Grama Swaraj
2. Ripon
3. Village Panchayats
4. Panchayat Union
5. 1688
6. Lord Ripon
7. urban

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What do you know about the Local Self Government?
Answer:
Local Self-Governments are institutions that look after the administration of an area or a small community such as a village, a town or a city. Local Self-Government operates at the lowest level of society. It works at the grassroot level, close to the people, touching their everyday life. Local Self-Government is the management of local affairs by such local bodies which have been elected by the local people. These local bodies provide services to the local community as well as act as an instrument of democratic self-government.

Question 2.
Mention any two salient features of the 73^rd and 74^th constitution Amendment Act 1992.
Answer:

• Panchayats and Minicipalities will be ‘institutions of self-government’.
• Basic Units of Democratic System – Grama Sabhas (Villages) and Ward Committees (Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.

Question 3.
What are the functions of the Panchayat Union?
Answer:
Functions of the Panchayat Union are:

• Supply of drinking water
• Maintenance of Village Health Centres
• Maintenance of roads
• Establishment of Maternity Homes
• Establishment of Public fairs
• Establishment of Veterinary hospitals
• Maintenance of Social forests
• Repairing of Primary School buildings

Question 4.
Comment on District Panchayat.
Answer:
A District Panchayat is constituted in each district. One district Panchayat is constituted for every 50,000 people and the ward members are directly elected by the people. The Chairman is elected from one among its members and their term is 5 years.

Question 5.
What are the functions of the District Panchayat?
Answer:
The functions of the District Panchayat are:

• Advising the government about the developmental schemes of the Village Panchayat and Panchayat Union.
• Supervising the functions of District Planning Commission.

Question 6.
List down the important functions of the Mayor.
Answer:
Important functions of the Mayor

• He acts as a bridge between the members of the corporation and the government.
• He presides over the meetings of the Corporation Council.
• He receives the dignitaries from foreign countries.

VI. Answer in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the Historical origin and Development of Local Self Government in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a long history of local self-govemance as is evident Tamil Nadu, in those days was a land of village republics, with community groups undertaking many activities for their area development. This tradition reached its peak during the 10th and 11th centuries under the reign of Cholas when Village Councils used to levy taxes, improve community life and administer justice in their limited area.

These Village Councils had effective links with the Chola rulers. “Kuda Olai Murai” was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the Village Councils. With the downfall of Cholas, the state experienced a decline of the village autonomy and rise of the centralized feudal administrative system. This continued till British rules introduced local self-govemance colonial British Government.

In the post independence era, the first enactment in democratic decentralization in the state was the Madras Village Panchayats Act, 1950. Pursuant to the White Paper on the ‘Reform of Local Administration’ in 1957, the Madras Panchayats Act, 1958 and Madras District Development Council Act were enacted with the following salient features.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 The Age of Revolutions

The Age of Revolutions Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first British colony in America was ……………….
(a) New York
(b) Philadelphia
(c) Jamestown
(d) Amsterdam
Answer:
(c) Jamestown

Question 2.
The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on the side of Washington against the British was ……………..
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Lafayette
(c) Napoleon
(d) Danton
Answer:
(b) Lafayette

Question 3.
Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote the ………………
(a) Declaration of Independence
(b) Declaration of Pilnitz
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen
(d) Human Rights Charter
Answer:
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen

Question 4.
The defeat of British at …………….. paved the way for the friendship between France and America.
(a) Trenton
(b) Saratoga
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) New York
Answer:
(b) Saratoga

Question 5.
…………… was the symbol of “Royal Despotism” in France.
(a) Versailles Palace
(b) Prison of Bastille
(c) Paris Commune
(d) Estates General
Answer:
(a) Versailles Palace

Question 6.
The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated by the French Revolutionary forces at ……………..
(a) Verna
(b) Versailles
(c) Pilnitz
(d) Valmy
Answer:
(d) Valmy

Question 7.
Candide was written by …………….
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rousseau
(c) Montesquieu
(d) Danton
Answer:
(a) Voltaire

Question 8.
The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis XVI as a limited monarchy were called …………….
(a) Girondins
(b) Jacobins
(c) Emigres
(d) Royalists
Answer:
(d) Royalists

Question 9.
American War of Independence was ended with the Peace of Paris in the year ………………
(a) 1776
(b) 1779
(c) 1781
(d) 1783
Answer:
(d) 1783

Question 10.
Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was …………..
(a) Common Sense
(b) Rights of Man
(c) Bill of Rights
(d) Abolition of Slavery
Answer:
(a) Common Sense

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Postmaster General of the Postal Department of the government of Continental Congress was ……………….
2. The battle of Bunker Hill was fought on …………….
3. The …………… Act insisted on repaying the debt in gold or silver.
4. The leader of National Assembly of France was …………….
5. ………….. was guillotined for organizing a Festival of Liberty.
6. Louis XVI was arrested at ……………. with his family when he tried to escape from France.
Answers:
1. Benjamin Franklin
2. Massachusetts
3. Currency
4. Mirabeau
5. Herbert
6. Varennes

III Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
(i) The Portuguese were the pioneers of naval expeditions.
(ii) New Plymouth was named after the Quaker Perm.
(iii) Quakers have the reputation of encouraging wars. .
(iv) The English changed the name of New Amsterdam to New York.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American War of Independence was as much a civil war as a war against the British.
(ii) The British forces emerged victorious in York Town.
(iii) The nobles in France were supportive of the rising middle class.
(iv) The British Parliament repealed the Townshend Act except the tax on paper.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Merchants of Boston boycotted the British goods
Reason (R): The British Finance Minister introduced new duties on imports into American . colonies
(a) A is correct and R is not the explanation of A
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): There was a massive peasant revolt in the Vendee against conscriptions;
Reason (R): The peasants as supporters of the king did not like to fight against him.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (e)
5. (c)
6. (b)

V Answer the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Townshend Act
(a) Who introduced this Act?
Answer:
The British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced this Act.

(b) In which year was this Act passed?
Answer:
It was passed in 1767.

(c) Why did the colonists oppose the Act?
Answer:
The colonists opposed this Act as they introduced duties on imports to colonies such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

(d) Why did the merchants of Boston oppose British goods?
Answer:
In March 1770, resentment rose in Boston, when troops fired on a crowd. This incident led to intense anti-British propaganda.

Question 2.
Social life in France
(a) What was the tax collected by the Church in France?
Answer:
The church collected one tenth of the annual produce or earnings from the common people.

(b) Who was Danton?
Answer:
Danton was a great leader of the Revolution.

(c) Who were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth century France?
Answer:
Diderot and Jean d’Alembert were the Encyclopaedists of eighteenth-century France.

(d) Who provided free labour for the construction of public roads?
Answer:
The peasants provided free labour for the construction of public roads.

VI. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Who were Puritans? Why did they leave England?
Answer:
Reformers who led a religious movement to reform the Church of England dispensing with the teachings and practices of Roman Catholic Church were known as Puritans. The Stuart kings, James I and Charles I, did not tolerate their attempts to reform the Church of England. The persecution of Puritans prompted many to leave England and settle.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Quakers?
Answer:
Quakers were members of a Christian group called the Society of Friends who, while laying emphasis on the Holy Spirit, rejected outward rites and an ordained ministry. George Fox was the founder of the society in England. Quakers have the reputation of actively working for peace and opposing war.

Question 3.
Point out the significance of “the Boston Tea Party”.
Answer:
Boston Tea Party was a protest against the British Parliament which had levied tax on tea in order to promote the business of the East India Company. In December. 1773, a group of men disguised themselves as Native Americans boarded the cargo vessels and threw the tea overboard. This was done publicly before a large sympathetic crowd. It was a challenge which led to war between the rebellious colonies and England.

Question 4.
Attempt an account of “September Massacres”.
Answer:
The people of Paris angered by the action of the Swiss guards in shooting and killing many of them hunted down the supporters of monarchy under their leader Marat. In three days, from September 2, about 1500 suspected dissidents were put in prison. After a trial, they were killed and this incident is called “September Massacres”. .

Question 5.
Explain the composition of “Three Estates of France”.
Answer:
The three estates comprised of the nobles, clergy and commoners respectively.
The clergy, despite being a minority, numbering only about 130,000, occupied a preeminent position in France.
The nobility, also a minority, numbering about 110,000, was a landowning class enjoying feudal rights formed the second estate.
The middle class and the peasants together formed the Third Estate.

Question 6.
Sketch the role of Lafayette in the French Revolution.
Answer:
Lafayette, who fought the British on Washington’s side through to the conclusive battle at Yorktownin 1781, later during the French Revolution served the French National Guard as its Commander. He penned the Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen, with the help . of Jefferson, which the National Assembly adopted on August 27, 1789.

Question 7.
What was the background for the storming of Bastille Prison?
Answer:
The king shut out the commoners and the latter assembled in the Tennis-Court and took an oath that they would not disperse until they found a way out to their problems. The King tried to use force but his own soldiers refused to obey his orders. Louis then intrigued to get foreign regiments to shoot down his own people. This provoked the people to rise in revolt in Paris on 14 July 1789. They stormed the Bastille prison and set free all the prisoners.

Question 8.
What were the taxes the peasants had to pay in France on the eve of Revolution?
Answer:
The peasants paid taxes to the state such as taille (land tax), gabelle (salt tax), etc., and provided free labour (corvee) for the construction of public roads.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
“Taxation without Representation” led to the outbreak of American War of Independence – Explain.
Answer:
The Sugar Act of 1764 prohibited the import of foreign rum and imposed duties on molasses, wines, silks, coffee and other luxury items. As the Act was enforced ruthlessly, it led to protests by merchants in legislatures and town meetings. Soon the Currency Act was passed that insisted on colonies repaying the debt only in gold or silver. It was a huge burden on the colonial economy. The Quartering Act of 1765 required the colonies to pay for the cost of keeping British troops in America. The Stamp Act (1765) required that many printed materials in the colonies be produced on stamped paper produced in London, carrying an embossed revenue stamp.

The American colonists protested against all the above taxes arguing that they had to pay taxes for policies in which they had no say. The protests occurred at different levels of society. At the top, delegates from the colonies assembled and called for a boycott of trade with Britain Until the taxes were withdrawn: This apart, groups calling themselves “Sons of Liberty” sprang up in all the colonies in 1765 and 1766. The Sons of Liberty acted like a political party and instilled a new political awareness among many ordinary Americans.
The preamble of the Sugar Act provided the slogan ‘No Taxation without representation’.

Question 2.
Highlight the contribution of French Philosophers to the Revolution of 1789.
Answer:
There were many notable thinkers and writers in France in the eighteenth century. The most famous writer of the time on rationalistic and scientific subjects was Voltaire (1694 – 1778). When imprisoned and banished, he had to live at Femey near Geneva. Voltaire, Montesquieu (1689 – 1755) and Rousseau criticized the then existing conditions in France. Voltaire, was a prolific writer and activist, and was vehement in his criticism of the Church. His most famous work was Candide. His famous quote was: “those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit atrocities.” He is said to have once exclaimed, “I disapprove of what you . say, but I will defend to the death your right to say it.”

Another great writer, a contemporary of Voltaire, but younger than him, was Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712 – 1778). His political theory set the minds of many afire with new ideas and new resolves. His ideas played an important part in preparing the people of France for the great revolution. He famously said in his book Social Contract, “Man is born free, but is everywhere in chains.” He argued that the laws are binding only when they are supported by – the general will of the people.

Montesquieu (1689 — 1755), who wrote The Persian Letters and The Spirit of the Laws, also defended liberty. He put forward the theory of separation of powers: The liberty of the individual would be best protected only in a government where the powers of its three organs, viz., legislature, executive and judiciary were separate. It would put in place the necessary checks and balances to prevent any one organ from assuming more power to itself.
An Encyclopaedia also came out in Paris about this time and this was full of articles by Diderot and Jean d’Alembert. These philosophers and thinkers, as opposed to religious intolerance and political and social privileges, succeeded in provoking large numbers of ordinary people to think and act.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
If any Government becomes bankrupt like the Government of Louis XVI, what measures do you think are required to overcome the crisis?
Answer:
To avoid Bankruptcy the following steps can be followed:
(i) Maximize the Revenue
(ii) Attend mandatory credit counseling
(iii) Make ongoing payments to creditors
(iv) Attend mandatory financial-management education
(v) Make a Debt Management Plan
(vi) Settle some (or all) of the Debts
(vii) Stay out of Debts

Question 2.
Attempt a comparative study of American W ar of Independence and Indian Independence
Movement.
Answer:
Comparison between American War of Independence and Indian Independence Movement:
A. Similarities

1. Both the Americans and the Indians gained their freedom by challenging the British Empire with the use of alternating tactics and policies.
2. Both wanted to be free because they were being coerced and restricted.
3. The British Empire had a major influence on the development of Indian and American human societies.
4. Indians boycotted British products in hopes of helping the Indian economy. Similarly, the Americans boycotted British tea and other products to get the attention of the British rule.

B. Differences

1. Indians chose a peaceful way of gaining independence while Americans chose a violent way. The respective paths they chose were greatly influenced by their culture and the time periods they were in.
2. Their leaders and strategies were extremely different.
3. The American colony was actually a colony where the descendants of British people rebelled against Britain, whereas in India the rebellion was by the natives.
4. The United States relied on the assistance of France, while India had no external ally.
5. The British policy in America was to displace the native population and settle the territory as English territory, while India was more densely populated and the British policy centered on economic exploitation rather than full displacement and incorporation.
6. The American Revolution took place just before the Industrial Revolution (when colonial arms were as good as British arms). The Indian Independence Movement took place well into the Industrial Revolution (when home country arms were potentially much better).

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Attempting an account of Bastille prison.
Answer:
You can do this assignment under the guidance of your teacher.

The Age of Revolutions Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The pioneers in geographical explorations and the founding of colonies were ……………
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish
(b) The English and the Americans
(c) The Greeks and the Romans
(d) The Chinese and the Japanese
Answer:
(a) The Portuguese and the Spanish

Question 2.
The …………….. founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
(a) English
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(c) Dutch

Question 3.
The seven years of war between Britain and France took place between ……………..
(a) 1753-1760
(b) 1756-1763
(c) 1755-1762
(d) 1757-1764
Answer:
(b) 1756-1763

Question 4.
The …………… prohibited the import of foreign rum.
(a) Quartering Act of 1765
(b) Sugar Act of 1764
(c) Declaratory Act of 1766
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sugar Act of 1764

Question 5.
Merchants of …………… organized boycott of British goods.
(a) Washington
(b) New York
(c) Philadelphia
(d) Boston
Answer:
(d) Boston

Question 6.
The Spirit of Laws and the Persian letters were written by …………..
(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Voltaire
(d) Thomas Jefferson
Answer:
(b) Montesquieu

Question 7.
The French revolution exploded in …………….
(a) 1789
(b) 1788
(c) 1786
(d) 1790
Answer:
(a) 1789

Question 8.
The ‘Reign of Terror’ lasted for ……………. days in France.
(a) 44
(b) 45
(c) 46
(d) 48
Answer:
(c) 46

Question 9.
The execution of Louis XVI was on …………….
(a) 21^st Jan 1793
(b) 2^nd Sept 1792
(c) 3^rd Sept 1792
(d) 27^th July 1794
Answer:
(a) 21^st Jan 1793

Question 10.
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of …………..
(a) Danton
(b) Robespierre
(c) Napolean
(d) Herbert
Answer:
(b) Robespierre

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ……………. ship had taken a batch of Puritans from Plymouth England to America.
2. Declaration of Independence was drafted by …………
3. ………….. was the founder of the Society of Friends.
4. The native Americans were ……………
5. The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at ……………
6. The …………….. Revolution affected the life and society in the whole of Continental Europe.
7. On the eve of the French Revolution, France was going through a period of …………….
8. The middle class and the peasants together formed the …………..
9. The great leader of the French Revolution was …………….
10. The Consulate was abolished by …………….. in France.
Answers:
1. May Flower
2. Thomas Jefferson
3. George Fox
4. Red Indians
5. Philadelphia
6. French
7. economic crisis
8. Third Estate
9. Danton
10. Napolean Bonaparte

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The American Revolution was the first political Revolution.
(ii) The French Revolution provided inspiration.
(iii) The Portuguese and the Spanish were the pioneers in Geographical explorations.
(iv) Jamestown was the first American colony in America.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The American Revolution affected the life and Society in the whole of Continental Europe.
(ii) The Industrial Revolution laid the foundation for Capitalism.
(iii) The French Revolution helped to end the pre-capital feudal past.
(iv) The French Revolution exploded in 1789.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Cornwallis was bom into an aristocratic family.
(ii) Cornwallis joined the army in 1757. ‘
(iii) Cornwallis did not have an active career.
(iv) Cornwallis’s military action in the American war of Independence was not worthy.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Dutch founded a town and called it New Amsterdam.
Reason (R): The English later changed the name to New York.
(a) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
American War of Independence
(a) Who stated that no thinking man in North America desired Independence?
Answer:
George Washington

(b) Who was the first President of America?
Answer:
George Washington

(c) What were the grievances of the Americans?
Answer:
Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the 88 British Parliament to tax them against their will.

(d) What was their famous battle cry?
Answer:
“No.taxation without representation”.

Question 2.
Second Continental Congress
(a) When did the Second Continental Congress meet?
Answer:
The Second Continental Congress met on 10th May 1775 at Philadelphia.

(b) Who were the prominent members of the Congress?
Answer:
John Adams, Sam Adams, Richard Henry Lee and Thomas Jefferson were the prominent members of the Congress.

(c) What did they do?
Answer:
They organized the army gathered around Boston as the Continental Army.

(d) Under whose command it was placed?
Answer:
They placed it under the command of George Washington.

Question 3.
Voltaire the French Philosopher
(a) Who was Voltaire?
Answer:
Voltaire was a prolific writer and activist.

(b) What did he criticize?
Answer:
He criticized the Church.

(c) What was his most famous work?
Answer:
His most famous work is ‘Candide’.

(d) What was his famous quote?
Answer:
His famous quote was ‘those who can make you believe absurdities, can make you commit atrocities’. .

Question 4.
The Reign of Terror
(a) Who were the main leaders of the National Convention?
Answer:
Danton, Herbert and Robespierre were the main leaders of the National Convention.

(b) What was the law of suspects?
Answer:
The Law of Suspects made spreading of false news to divide or instigate the people a punishable crime. ‘

(c) How was the Reign of Terror ended?
Answer:
The Reign of Terror ended with the fall of Robespierre.

(d) How did Robespierre earn notoriety?
Answer:
Though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, he earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine.

VI. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Write a short note on “Plantations and the Slave Labour”.
Answer:
As the Native Americans resisted attempts to make them work in the plantations, the European planters, chiefly of tobacco, in the southern states -Virginia, Carolinas and Georgia- in their search for labour resorted to acquiring slaves from Africa.

The innocent people of Africa were captured in man-hunts and sent across the seas in a cruel and inhuman manner. In the northern States conditions were different. There were compact farms, and not huge plantations as in the south. Large numbers of workers were not needed for these farms. Thus two economic systems developed in these colonies. Native Americans had no place in either of these. So these people were gradually pushed back to the west. This was made easier by the disunity and divisions among the Native American tribes.

Question 2.
What do you know about the Native Americans?
Answer:
Even before the arrival of Europeans in America, there was an indigenous population, called Native Americans (they used to be referred to as ‘Red Indians’; it is now considered demeaning, and historians do not use this term any more), spread over the vast American continent. They belonged to various tribes and many of them were at war with each other. Besides they refused to work under conditions of slavery. Through a combination of violence and diplomacy Europeans conquered and defeated many of these tribes. Greatly reduced in numbers today they live in various reserves. :

Question 3.
What was the reaction of the American colonies for the taxes?
Answer:
The American-colonists protested against all the above taxes arguing that they had to pay taxes for policies in which they had no say. The protests occurred at different levels of society. At the top, delegates from the colonies assembled and called for a boycott of trade with Britain until the taxes were withdrawn. This apart, groups calling themselves “Sons of Liberty” sprang up in all the colonies in 1765 and 1766. The Sons of Liberty acted like a political party and instilled a new political awareness among many ordinary Americans.

Question 4.
Why was the Townshed Act introduced?
Answer:
The British Parliament however wanted to assert its control over the colonies. In 1766 it passed the Declaratory Act. It affirmed Parliament’s right to legislate for the colonies. There was not much opposition to it as it did not introduce any new taxes. Despite the withdrawal of the Stamp Act, the British still needed money to pay its troops and other expenses in the colonies. Hence, the British Finance Minister Charles Townshend introduced new duties on imports in 1767. Known as the Townshend Acts, they introduced duties on imports to colonies ‘ such as glass, paper, paint, lead and tea.

Question 5.
Why did the local tea traders boycott the foreign tea?
Answer:
The protests and boycotts made the British Parliament repeal the Townshend Acts. However, it retained the tax on tea, with the intention of encouraging the business of the East India Company by making it easy for it to take its tea to America and sell it there. This harmed the local tea trade and so it was decided to boycott this foreign tea.

Question 6.
Why didn’t the colonies begin fighting for the sake of independence?
Answer:
In 1774, a little before war began between the colonies and England, George Washington stated that no thinking man in North America desired independence. And yet he became the colonists’ commander-in-chief and later the first president of the American Republic. So the colonies did not begin fighting for the sake of independence. Their grievances were taxation and restrictions on trade. They challenged the right of the British Parliament to tax them against their will. “No taxation without representation” was their famous battle cry.

Question 7.
What were the political reasons for the French Revolution? ‘
Answer:
Louis XV succeeded his great-grandfather LoUis XlV and reigned for fifty nine years. He learnt no lesson that the king is not above law but bound by law from the English Revolution and the beheading of the King Charles I. In 1774 he was succeeded by his grandson Louis XVI.

He was entirely under the influence of his wife Marie Antoinette, who believed, more than the King, in the Divine Right Theory of Kingship – the theory that the king was representative of god on earth and therefore for all his actions he was accountable only to god and not to anybody else. Both the King and the Queen were hated by the people.

Question 8.
How did the Reign of Terror end?
Answer:
The Reign of Terrof ended with the fall of Robespierre. Robespierre, the dictator of the Convention, though he was honest, patriotic and a person of integrity, earned notoriety by sending many of his colleagues to the guillotine. In October 1795 the Convention broke up and a Directory of five members assumed power.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the results of American war of Independence.
Answer:
The immediate result of the war was America’s independence. For the first time a colonial power was overthrown by the colonised, leading to the establishment of a republican government in the United States. The colonists wanted to get rid of the feudal inequalities of Europe and they succeeded. For many followers of the Enlightenment in Europe, the language of the Declaration of Independence seemed a living fulfillment of their ideals. The Declaration of Independence of 1776 stated that “all men are bom equal.” But in reality the poor Black slaves did not fit in this. America had to fight a bitter civil war in the succeeding century, to’ abolish slavery.

By 1777 nearly all the colonies had a written constitution. These constitutions protected individual rights, freedom of press and freedom of religion. The Continental Congress had drafted the Articles of Confederation. The Church and the State were separated. Thomas Jefferson in his Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom introduced freedom of religion. It was later incorporated into the American Constitution.

The conception of people’s right to a government of their choice encouraged the Latin American revolutionaries to strive for the overthrow of the Spanish empire in South America. Mirabeau quoted the Declaration of Independence with enthusiasm during the French Revolution and the revolutionaries inspired by it were determined to fight against royal absolutism. The intellectuals of the time believed that the republican state was the only political structure in which individuals could preserve their basic freedom, including property and political rights.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of French Revolution.
Answer:
The French Revolution had many lasting results. It marked the end of the system of absolute monarchy in France. All feudal privileges were abolished and the power of clergy was curbed. The Revolution united the people of different sections and paved the way for the enhanced power of the state. It also led to the growth of feelings of nationalism and the emergence of an assertive middle class.

Revolution upheld the theory of people’ sovereignty and laid the foundation for the birth of liberal constitutional governments in Europe. Liberty, equality, and fraternity became the watchwords of freedom loving people all over the world and inspired many later day political movements for the establishment of liberal democracy in Europe and elsewhere.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 8 The Beginning of the Modern Age

The Beginning of the Modern Age Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who among the following is known as the Father of Humanism?
(a) Leonardo da Vinci
(b) Francisco Petrarch
(c) Erasmus
(d) Thomas More
Answer:
(b) Francisco Petrarch

Question 2.
The School of Athens was painted by ……………..
(a) Raphael Sanzio
(b) Michelangelo
(c) Albrecht Durer
(d) Leonardo da Vinci
Answer:
(a) Raphael Sanzio

Question 3.
William Harvey discovered ……………
(a) Heliocentric theory
(b) Geocentric theory
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Circulation of blood
Answer:
(d) Circulation of blood

Question 4.
Who wrote the 95 Theses?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Zwingli
(c) John Calvin
(d) Thomas More
Answer:
(a) Martin Luther

Question 5.
Who wrote the book Institutes of Christian Religion?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Zwingli
(c) John Calvin
(d) Cervantes
Answer:
(c) John Calvin

Question 6.
Which sailor was the first to cross the Equator?
(a) Henry, the Navigator
(b) Lopo Gonzalves
(c) Bartholomew Diaz
(d) Christopher Columbus
Answer:
(b) Lopo Gonzalves

Question 7.
…………… named the sea as Pacific Ocean as it was very calm.
(a) Columbus
(b) Amerigo Vespucci
(c) Ferdinand Magellan
(d) Vasco-da-gama
Answer:
(c) Ferdinand Magellan

Question 8.
The continent of America was named after …………..
(a) Amerigo Vespucci
(b) Christopher Columbus
(c) Vasco da Gama
(d) Hernando Cortez
Answer:
(a) Amerigo Vespucci

Question 9.
……………… was the headquarters of the Portuguese possession in the East.
(a) Manila
(b) Bombay
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Goa
Answer:
(d) Goa

Question 10.
Which among the following plants were introduced from America to Europe?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Sweet Potato
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
Answer:
(b) Sweet Potato

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by …………….
2. ……………. was known as Prince among Humanists.
3. ………….. is famous for his paintings in the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel.
4. The reformation of the Catholic Church is known as …………….
5. The chief features of Commercial Revolution were …………., …………… and ……………
Answers:
1. Ottoman Turks
2. Erasmus
3. Michelangelo
4. Counter Reformation
5. Banking, Joint-stock companies and growth of trade

III. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) Martin Luther broke away from the Catholic Church because he was discriminated.
(b) John Calvin’s government in Geneva was liberal and fun-filled.
(c) King Henry VIII had deep theological differences with the Catholic Church.
(d) Council of Trent reemphasized the importance of ceremonies and significance of the mass.
Answer:
(d) Council of Trent reemphasized the importance of ceremonies and significance of the mass.

Question 2.
(a) Discovery of new lands and sea routes shifted the economic centre from Italian city states to Spain and Portugal.
(b) Horses were native to America.
(c) During the begining of the Modem Age, State did not interfere in economic activities.
(d) The Portuguese collaborated with the Arabs in its trading activities in India.
Answer:
(a) and (d)

IV. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (b)

V. Answer the following questions briefly

Question 1.
Explain how the invention of printing press influenced Renaissance, Reformation and Geographical discoveries.
Answer:
(i) The invention of the printing press accelerated the process of modernisation. Earlier, manuscripts were written by hand on animal skin called vellum. Only the privileged few could access them. Johannes Gutenberg (1394-1468 A.D. (C.E.)) invented the printing press in Germany in the middle of the fifteenth century. The printing press enabled the production of multiple copies of a manuscript and their spread all over Western Europe.

(ii) In less than fifty years after the invention of the Gutenberg printing press, about six million books had been printed.

(iii) The invention of printing press not only spread knowledge widely, but also promoted critical thinking.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the impact of Renaissance. ‘
Answer:

• Its most important contribution was the idea of humanism.
• The introduction and practice of writing in the vernacular, starting from Dante, enriched the growth of vernacular languages which in turn provided the intellectual basis for the rise of nation-states.
• Renaissance made a beginning in criticizing the corrupt and worldly practices of the Church.
• Discovery of new land routes and remapping of the world.
• Similarly, inquisitiveness and empiricism of renaissance combined with knowledge of the classical science led to new inventions in science.

Question 3.
Outline the differences of Martin Luther with the Catholic Church.
Answer:

1. In Catholic Church, Pope was the spiritual authority, but he lived a luxurious life like, a prince.
2. The Church prescribed a number of penances for various sins.
3. The Church even began to grant pardon, known as the indulgences, for a fee.
4. Luther opposed all these activities of the Church.
5. He listed out the famous ninety five theses and-pasted them on the Church door.
6. He put forward the doctrine of justification by faith.
7. His reformation marked the first successful break from the Church and establishment of the Protestant Church.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on Counter Reformation.
Answer:

• The Protestant reformation posed a threat to the Catholic Church.
• In order to meet the challenge Pope Paul III and his successors introduced a number of rigorous reforms in the Church. They dealt with corruption severely and stopped the sale of offices.
• The Council of Trent reemphasized the importance of ceremonies and the significance of the mass.
• Further, it revitalized the Inquisition to deal with opposition to the Church. It also gave official sanction to the Society of Jesus.
• This reformation of the Catholic Church from within is known as Counter Reformation.

Question 5.
What is Columbian Exchange?
Answer:
One of the most important outcomes of the conquest of Americas by the European colonial powers was the movement of plants, animals, technology, culture and strange diseases between the Americas and Europe or between the New World and the Old World. This is known as the Columbian Exchange.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Renaissance
(a) Give reasons as to why renaissance originated in the Italian city-states.
Answer:
The Italian city-states were centres of cultural activities since the fourteenth century. With the coming of the scholars and artists from Constantinople there was a surge of enthusiasm and interest in studying classical literature and art of Greeks and Romans in the Italian city states. This creative upsurge was reflected in their writings, art, architecture and music. This cultural florescence is known as the renaissance.

(b) Name some of the important humanists and their works.
Answer:
Petrach (Father of Humanism) – My Secret Book
Dante – Divine Comedy
Machiavelli – The Prience
Erasmus – In Raise of Folly
Sir Thomas More – Utopia
Cervantes – Don Quixote

(c) List the differences between medieval art and Renaissance art.
Answer:
Renaissance paintings and sculptures were realistic and naturalistic. They improved over medieval paintings and sculptures which were stylized, unrealistic and two dimensional. They portrayed natural landscapes, human anatomy, emotions and ideas.

(d) Describe humanism.
Answer:
Humanism laid emphasis on human dignity and nature. Renaissance humanism promoted the view that humans are endowed with attributed that are to be used to achieve greatness.

Question 2.
Reformation
(а) Why did Martin Luther protest against the Church?
Answer:
Martin Luther rejected several teachings and practice of the Roman Catholic Church. He strongly disputed the Catholic view on indulgences.

(b) What is the doctrine of j ustification by faith?
Answer:
He argued that it was by faith alone that one could attain salvation. He put forward the doctrine of justification by faith. The grace of God would be bestowed by the divine will alone and not by the deeds of the people.

(c) Why did Henry VIII establish the Anglican Church? ”
Answer:
King Henry VIII longed for a son who would succeed him to the throne. For this purpose Henry wanted to marry again and therefore appealed to the Pope to annul his marriage with Catherine. However, the Holy Roman Emperor was Catherine’s nephew and he pressurized the Pope not to agree to his request.

As the Pope kept evading his decision, King Henry VIII grew impatient and broke his ties with Rome. By a series of Acts he established a separate Anglican Church. He confiscated the properties of the Catholic Church and monasteries in England and declared himself the Supreme Head of the Anglican Church.

(d) Mention the contribution of Ignatius Loyola.
Answer:
St. Ignatius Loyola founded the Society of Jesus to propagate Christianity. Its main work was through education and service to the destitute. It started a number of educational institutions, orphanages and homes for the destitute. Soon their missionaries were present in all parts of the world to spread the Catholic religion.

Question 3.
Geographical Discoveries
(a) Who is Henry, the Navigator?
Answer:
Henry thfe Navigator of Portugal laid the foundation for long distance sea voyages. He established a navigation school to train sailors. In his school, he taught them how to use navigational instruments such as the mariner’s compass and the astrolabe.

(b) List the causes for the geographical discoveries.
Answer:

1. When the Ottoman Turks blocked the land route between the East and the West, spices and other goods became costlier.
2. This intensified the urge to discover a new sea route to Asia.

(c) What led to the extinction of the natives of America?
Answer:

1. Many natives also died because of epidemic diseases brought by the colonizers.
2. The most dangerous weapons the natives had to encounter were these deadly diseases against which they were defenseless.
3. It led to the near annihilation of the natives in most parts of the Americas.

(d) What is triangular trade?
Answer:
The Trans-Atlantic Trade was a triangular trade. The European countries purchased slaves from Africa who were transported to America. In return they got sugar and other raw materials from America. The European countries profited immensely from this trade.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss how Renaissance, Reformation and Geographical discoveries heralded the modern age?
Answer:
The Italian city-states were centres of cultural activities since the fourteenth century. With the coming of the scholars and artists from Constantinople there was a surge of enthusiasm and interest in studying classical literature and art of Greeks and Romans in the Italian city states. This creative upsurge was reflected in their writings, art, architecture and music. This cultural florescence is known as the renaissance. The origin of the word renaissance is from the Italian word renascita meaning rebirth. It is called renaissance because there was a rebirth or revival of classical Greek and Latin literature.

Many scholars in Italy went in search of manuscripts of classical literature. Greek scholar Manuel Chrysoloras who taught Greek classics in Italy, Guarino and Giovanni Aurispa, to name just a few, visited Constantinople several times to collect Greek manuscripts. Later they printed what they collected. This provided stimulus to the flowering of renaissance.

The critical thinking and inquisitive spirit of Renaissance humanism helped people question such practices of the Church. Humanists such as Erasmus and Sir Thomas More, apart from condemning the corrupt practices of the Church, were also critical of its doctrine. They issued pamphlets and published books highlighting the abuses of the Catholic Church.

Attempts to reform the Church before the sixteenth century met with failure. Those who protested were punished with death by the Church. However, in the age of reason, the moves of the reformers were supported by some of the rulers of the nation-states. This they thought would provide them an opportunity to free themselves from the interference of the Church in the affairs of the state.

The Lutheran reformation opened the gates for other Protestant reformations. Though inspired by the very same reasons as that of the Lutheran reformation, they showed differences in their doctrinal approach.

Question 2.
Examine the outcome of the geographical discoveries.
Answer:
The geographical discoveries transformed the European understanding of the world. It led to the redrawing of the world map. As a result of the discovery of new lands and new sea routes, the economic centre of Europe, shifted from the Italian city states to Spain and Portugal. Both Spain and Portugal established colonies that led to their economic prosperity.

Spanish discovery of the New World led to the conquest of Mexico and South America. The voyage of Columbus was followed by further explorations by Spanish Conquistadors (Conquerors) who defeated the natives and colonized it. They brutally killed the natives in their conquest and : The the remaining were employed under harsh conditions in gold and silver mines, and in plantations. The Spanish genocide of the natives included massacre, slavery and destruction of culture. Many natives also died because of epidemic diseases brought by the colonizers.

Student Activities

Question 1.
In an outline map of World, mark the routes of:
(a) Bartholomew Diaz
(b) Vasco-da-Gama
(c) Columbus
(d) Magellan
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a brief biography of Martin Luther.
Answer:
Martin Luther was bom in 1483. He was a German professor of theology, composer, priest, monk, and a seminal figure in the Protestant Reformation. He was ordained to the priesthood in 1507. He was a scrupulous follower of the Catholic faith. However, on his visit to Rome he was shocked by the luxurious life of the officials of the Church. Luther proposed an academic discussion of the practice and efficacy of indulgences in his Ninety-five Theses of 1517.

His refusal to renounce all of his writings at the demand of Pope Leo X in 1520 and the Holy Roman Emperor Charles V at the Diet of Worms in 1521 resulted in his excommunication by the pope and condemnation as an outlaw by the Holy Roman Emperor. Luther’s reformation marked the first successful break from the Church and establishment of the Protestant Church. He died in 1546.

The Beginning of the Modern Age Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Europe was gradually moving towards urbanization due to decline of …………..
(a) Feudalism
(b) Trade
(c) Freedom
(d) Population
Answer:
(a) Feudalism

Question 2.
Cervantes of …………. wrote Don Quixote,
(a) Portugal
(b) Persia
(c) Italy
(d) Spain
Answer:
(d) Spain

Question 3.
……………… proved that earth revolved around the sun through a mathematical model.
(a) Ptolemy
(b) Galileo
(c) Copernicus
(d) Euclid
Answer:
(c) Copernicus

Question 4.
………… put forward the doctrine of justification by faith.
(a) Frederick
(b) Martin Luther
(c) Thomas More
(d) Johann Tetzel
Answer:
(b) Martin Luther

Question 5.
……….., with the support of King Ferdinand and Queen Isabella of Spain, set sail in three ships.
(a) Henry
(b) Ptolemy
(c) Columbus
(d) Amerigo Vespucci
Answer:
(c) Columbus

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Portuguese navy defeated the King of Calicut and captured Goa …………….
2. The introduction of Sugarcane led to the establishment of Sugarcane plantation in …………… islands.
3. Mercantilism refers to ……………. system.
4. The English East India Company had monopoly trade in ………………
5. Machiavelli wrote a …………… treatise called‘The Prince’.
6. The office of the Pope was known as …………..
7. ………….. founded the Society of Jesus to propagate Christianity.
8. Henry, the Navigator of Portugal laid the foundation for …………….
9. …………….. trade increased with the discovery and colonization of America.
Answers:
1. Zamorin
2. Caribbean
3. economic
4. India
5. political
6. Papacy
7. St. Ignatius Loyola
8. long-distance voyages
9. Slave

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
d. (a)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
What subject were taught in the Italian universities?
Answer:
Italian universities taught humanities namely language, grammar, rhetoric, history and ethics which prepared the students for public life, commerce and administration. The study of humanities was so popular in the Italian Universities. Students from all over the world flocked there.

Question 2.
Explain the term Inquisition.
Answer:
Inquisition was an institution of the Catholic Church to deal with heresies beliefs in opposition to the Catholic faith.Those found guilty and who recanted were awarded milder punishments and imprisonment. Those who refused to recant were burnt at the stake. The most infamous inquisition was the Spanish Inquisition.

Question 3.
Write about Zwingli and Calvin.
Answer:
Zwingli of Switzerland and John Calvin of Geneva followed Martin Luther. Zwingli worked from Zurich and was against all forms of rituals. John Calvin also apposed all forms of display of wealth. Calvin codified his views in his book Institutes of Christian Religion. He believed that church should be independent of political control on religious matters. Calvinism became more popular.

Question 4.
Bring out the main features of India at the dawn of Modern Age in Europe.
Answer:
The Mughal rule started in 1526 A.D. Vijayanagar state, founded in 1336, rose to a great power under Krishnadeva Raya. Portuguese established their empire in the East with headquarters at Goa. In Tamil Nadu, in Madurai, Nayak rule began dividing the Pandya kingdom into seventy two palayams. The arrival of Jesuit Missions and the work of St. Francis Xavier, as a member of Society of Jesus, led to conversion of fishing community to Christianity (Catholicism) in Thoothukudi region.

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Growth of trade and Rise of Towns.
(a) Where did the process urbanisation start first in Europe?
Answer:
This process of urbanisation started first in Italy because of its prosperous Mediterranean trade.

(b) Name the city states which profited due to this trade.
Answer:
Italian city-states such as Venice and Genoa profited immensely from this trade.

(c) What were the new ideas born in this Context?
Answer:
In this context, new ideas leading to the Renaissance, Refonhation and Exploration through sea voyages were bom.

(d) What did the Arabs bring?
Answer:
The Arabs brought spices from the east and then transported them by land to the ports of the Mediterranean region.

Question 2.
Fall of Constantinople.
(a) Who captured Constantinople?
Answer:
In 1453 A.D. Constantinople, the capital of the Byzantine Empire, was captured by the Ottoman Turks.

(b) What was the result?
Answer:
This acted as a catalyst for the birth of Renaissance. It also led to the discovery of new land routes. .

(c) Who moved towards the Italian City states?
Answer:
Following the Turkish occupation, a number of scholars, artists and artisans left Constantinople moving towards the Italian city states.

(d) What was promoted by them?
Answer:
Their presence and encouragement promoted the study of classical literature and art of Greeks and Romans.

Question 3.
Science during Renaissance.
(a) Who inspired the advances in Science?
Answer;
The advances in science were inspired by Ptolemy, Archimedes, Euclid and others.

(b) What was proved by Copernicus?
Answer:
Copernicus proved that earth revolved around the sun through a mathematical model.

(c) What was the contribution of Galileo?
Answer:
Galileo proved further astronomical proof with the aid of the telescope he invented.

(d) What role was played by the Church in the field of science?
Answer:
The Church continued to prevent the growth of science as it undermined its importance.

Question 4.
Vasco da Gama:
(а) When did Vasco da Gama sailed from Portugal?
Answer:
In 1497 A.D. Vasco da Gama sailed from Portugal.

(b) Where did he reach in Africa?
Answer:
He reached the Cape of Good Hope in Africa.

(c) Where did he reach on the Malabar Coast?
Answer:
1498 A.D. he reached Calicut on the Malabar Coast.

(d) Why was Vasco da Gama astounded?
Answer:
At Calicut, Vasco da Gama was astounded to find pepper and other spices, a precious commodity in Portugal, available at low prices.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write about Martin Luther.
Answer:
Martin Luther, a monk of the Augustinian Order and a Professor’ of Theology in the University of Wittenberg, was a devout Christian and a scrupulous follower of the Catholic faith. However, on his visit to Rome he was shocked by the luxurious life of the officials of the Church. Martin Luther wrote a pamphlet against the sale of indulgences, sale of offices and other corrupt practices. He listed out ninety five points and pasted them on the Church door of Wittenberg. Martin Luther signalled his revolt by publicly burning the Papal Bull.

Luther further elaborated his differences with the Church. He rejected the belief that ceremonies and penances would lead to salvation. He argued that it was by faith alone that one could attain salvation. He put forward the doctrine of justification by faith. The grace of God would be bestowed by the divine will alone and not by tfie deeds of the people. Luther’s reformation marked the first successful break from the Church and establishment of the Protestant Church.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Migration

Migration Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
According to 2011 census, the total population of India was
(a) 121 crore
(b) 221 crore
(c) 102 crore
(d) 100 crore
Answer:
(a) 121 crore

Question 2
……… has recorded the maximum number of out migrants.
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 3.
During 2015, …….. illiterates were migrants from Tamil Nadu.
(a) 7%
(b) 175%
(c) 23%
(d) 9%
Answer:
(a) 7%

Question 4.
The poorer sections of the population people migrate for ……….
(a) Survival strategy
(b) Improve their living standards
(c) Service
(d) Getting experience
Answer:
(a) Survival strategy

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Migration is enumerated ……. on ……. and bases.
2. The mobility of population is rural areas is ……. than urban areas.
3. In rural India, as per census 2011, …… percent of the population are counted as migrants.
4. …….. is the major reason for female migration.
5. Any migrant stream would consist of …….. sub streams.
Answers:
1. place of birth, place of residence
2. greater
3. 37 %
4. Saratoga
5. heterogenous

III Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (f)
5. (b)
6. (a)

IV. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Enlist the reasons for migration.
Answer:
The reasons for migration include; Work/Employment, Business, Education, Marriage and other such reasons.

Question 2.
What are the major factors responsible for female migrants in India?
Answer:
Marriage and the movement associated with marriage appear to be a major factor responsible for women’s mobility in India and Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Name four districts in Tamil Nadu which record low number of imigration.
Answer:
Cuddalore, Karur, Thiruvannamalai, Vellore, Namakkal, Salem, Dindigul, Krishnagiri, Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts record low number of emigrants.

Question 4.
What are the factors responsible for the poorer sections and better-off sections to migrate.
Answer:
The poorer sections of the people migrate for survival, but migrants from better-off sections migrate to improve their living standards.

Question 5.
List the four destinations and the percentage of migrants from Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Of the total migrants who go to foreign countries, nearly 20% have chosen to go to Singapore, while 18% to the United Arab Emirates, 16% to Saudi Arabia, 13 % to the United States of America.

Question 6.
What does the study reveal about the occupation undertaken by migrants?
Answer:
The study clearly reveals various occupations undertaken by the migrants: highly skilled proffessions on one hand and low skilled occupations on the other, along with a large number of semi-skilled occupations.

V. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
State the aims of migration policies.
Answer:
Policies to address the problem of migration in developing countries like India essentially aim at the following:
• To reduce the volume of migration: As a large part of migration is a reflection of poverty
and insecurity faced by large sections of the rural people, the focus of intervention has to be in rural areas. Rural development policies to reduce poverty and insecurity would be essential to reduce the rate of migration.

• To redirect the migrant streams: Redirection of migrant streams, away from big metropolitan cities is a desirable policy option. This policy can help in reducing spatial inequalities by suitable strategies, such as developing a more dispersed pattern of urbanisation.

Question 2.
Discuss the patterns of migration.
Answer:
The pattern of migration is very complex, comprising of a number of streams:

• rural to rural; rural to urban; urban to rural; urban to urban
• short, medium and long distance migration streams
• long-term stable migration and short-term circulatory type of movements

Each of these streams would consist of different types of migrants, (from different social classes) each with its own reason for migration. The extent and nature of these migrant streams would essentially depend on.

• pressures and aspirations experienced by people at the origin of migration
• constraints imposed on mobility at the origin of migration
• opportunities at the destination and availability of information regarding these opportunities and
• the cost of migration.

Question 3.
Elucidate about some of the interesting findings on migration in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu, two out of every five persons is reported to be a migrant in the year 2011. Incidence of migrants is higher in rural areas and larger among women. Tamil Nadu has a history of migration and people have moved for various reasons such as trade, business, employment etc, to various countries. During the colonial period, labourers had moved to other colonies seeking work and wages. In the more recent period workers from Tamil Nadu have been moving to countries in the Gulf, United States of America and Australia. In 2015, an independent research study was conducted to understand the level, nature and pattern of migration in Tamil Nadu. This study has made some interesting findings, as discussed below:

• Of the total migrants in Tamil Nadu, 65 percent have migrated or moved abroad while 35 percent have moved within the country.
• Chennai district has recorded the maximum number of emigrants followed by Coimbatore, Ramanathapuram and Tiruchirapalli districts.
  Cuddalore, Karur, Thiruvannamalai, Vellore, Namakkal, Salem, Dindigul, Krishnagiri, Nilgirfs and Dharmapuri districts record low number of emigrants. This study also provides information about the sex and destination of migrants Tamil Nadu.
• Of the total migrants who go to foreign countries, nearly 20% have chosen to go to Singapore, while 18% to the United Arab Emirates, 16% to Saudi Arabia, 13 % to the United States of America; and Malaysia, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Australia and England are also refered as important destinations for migrants from Tamil Nadu in the year 2015.
• Of the international migrants, 15 percent are women, while 85 percent are men.

Question 4.
Analyse the educational qualification of migrants from Tamil Nadu in 2015.
Answer:
On the question of educational qualifications of migrants from Tamil Nadu, the study reveals that in 2015 about 7 % were illiterates; 30 % have completed. Class X; 10 % have completed Class XII; 15 % had undergone vocational training; 11 % were graduates; 12% were professionally qualified and 11 % had Post Graduate degrees.

VI Write the correct statement

Question 1.
In recent times workers from Tamil Nadu are moving to Africa.
Answer:
In the more recent period workers from Tamil Nadu have been moving to countries in the Gulf, United States of America and Australia.

Question 2.
In Tamil Nadu, the extent of migration is much higher in urban areas compared to rural areas.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu the extent of migration is much higher in rural areas.

Question 3.
Any migrant stream would consist of homogenous sub streams.
Answer:
Any migrant stream would consist of heterogenous-sub streams.

Question 4.
Two out of every 10 persons is reported to be a migrant.
Answer:
Two out of every 5 persons is reported to be a migrant.

VII. Project & Activity

Question 1.
Prepare statistical data by interacting with your class mates and school mates and find out how many families have migrated.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Prepare an album of pictures on Rural to Rural, Rural to Urban, Urban to Rural and Urban to Urban migration.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

VIII. Life Skills

Question 1.
Collect data on various languages spoken in your class and represent through a pie chart.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Migration Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The percentage of migrants in Tamil Nadu is ……… percent.
(a) 40
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 41
Answer:
(c) 43

Question 2.
The percent of female migrants in 2011 ……. literally means “rule of the people”.
(a) 53
(b) 52
(c) 51
(d) 50
Answer:
(a) 53

Question 3.
Out of 7.2 crore people ….. crore people were counted as migrants.
(a) 3.11
(b) 3.13
(c) 3.12
(d) 3.14
Answer:
(b) 3.13

Question 4.
The largest migration corridor in the world in 2010 was …….
(a) Mexico
(b) Australia
(c) Dubai
(d) Saudi
Answer:
(a) Mexico

Question 5.
Of the International migrants % are women.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 15

II. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (c)

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. The percentage of migrants in Tamil Nadu in 2011 is ………
2. The male migrants in Tamil Nadu is …… in 2011.
3. Movement related to …… and ……. appears to be the driving force for migration
among men.
Answers:
1. 43
2. 35
3. work, employment

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
The percentage of migrants was at a much higher rate in Tamil Nadu. Comment.
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu out of 7.2 crore people, 3.13 crore people were counted as migrants, in 2011. That is, the percentage of migrants was 37 percent in the country, while it was at a much higher rate in Tamil Nadu at 43 percent.

Question 2.
Write a short note on “Female Migration”.
Answer:
However, an examination of .data clearly indicates that a larger proportion of females are reported to be migrants compared to males. In the country as a whole, 53 percent are female migrants while 23 percent are male migrants, in 2011. In Tamil Nadu, the picture is very similar, with more than half the females (52%) reporting their status as migrants, by place of last residence, and 35 percent are male migrants.

Question 3.
What does the recent study say about the mobility in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In the more recent period workers from Tamil Nadu have been moving to countries in the Gulf, United States of America and Australia. In 2015, an independent research study was conducted to understand the level, nature and pattern of migration in Tamil Nadu.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
On what factors the extent and nature of migration depend?
Answer:
Each of these streams would consist of different types of migrants, (from different social classes) each with its own reason for migration. The extent and nature of these migrant streams would essentially depend on.

• pressures and aspirations experienced by people at the origin of migration
• constraints imposed on mobility at the origin of migration
• opportunities at the destination and availability of information regarding these opportunities
• the cost of migration

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

Question 1.
Find the value of x in the given figure.

Solution:
In the cyclic quadrilateral ABCD
∠ABC = 180° – 120° = 60°
∠BCA = 90°
∴ x = ∠BAC = 180°- (90° + 60°) = 30°

Question 2.
In the given figure, AC is the diameter of the circle with centre O. If ∠ADE = 30°; ∠DAC = 35° and ∠CAB = 40°.
Find
(i) ∠ACD
(ii) ∠ACB
(iii) ∠DAE

Solution:
(i) ∠ACD = 180°- (90° + 35°) = 180°- 125° = 55°
(ii) ∠ACB = 180°- (90°+ 40°)= 180° – 130° = 50°
(iii) ∠ADC = 90°
∠CAE = 180° – 120° = 60°
∴ ∠DAE = 60°- 35° = 25°

Question 3.
Find all the angles of the given cyclic quadrilateral ABCD in the


Solution:

Question 4.
In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral where diagonals intersects at P such that ∠DBC = 40° and ∠BAC = 60° find
(i) ∠CAD
(ii) ∠BCD

Solution:

Question 5.
In the given figure, AB and CD are the parallel chords of a circle with centre O. Such that AB = 8 cm and CD = 6 cm. If OM ⊥ AB and OL ⊥ CD distance between LM is 7 cm. Find the radius of the circle?

Solution:
In the figure LM = 7 cm

Question 6.
The arch of a bridge has dimensions as shown, where the arch measure 2 m at its highest point and its width is 6 m. What is the radius of the circle that contains the arch?

Solution:

Question 7.
In figure ∠ABC = 120°, where A,B and C are points on the circle with centre O. Find ∠OAC ?

Solution:

Question 8.
A school wants to conduct tree plantation programme. For this a teacher allotted a circle of radius 6 m ground to nineth standard students for planting sapplings. Four students plant trees at the points A, B, C and D as shown in figure. Here AB = 8 m, CD = 10 m and AB ⊥ CD. If another student places a flower pot at the point P, the intersection of AB and CD, then find the distance from the centre to P.

Solution:

ONPM is a rectangle with all the angles 90° and with length \(\sqrt{20}\) cm, breadth \(\sqrt{11}\) cm.

We need to find OP which is the diagonal of the rectangle ONPM.

Question 9.
In the given figure, ∠POQ = 100° and ∠PQR = 30°, then find ∠RPO.
Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.3

Question 1.
The diameter of the circle is 52 cm and the length of one of its chord is 20 cm. Find the distance of the chord from the centre.
Solution:
The distance of the chord from the centre O

Question 2.
The chord of length 30 cm is drawn at the distance of 8cm from the centre of the circle. Find the radius of the circle.
Solution:

Question 3.
Find the length of the chord AC where AB and CD are the two diameters perpendicular to each other of a circle with radius 4 \(\sqrt{2}\) cm and also find ∠OAC and ∠OCA.
Solution:
∆OAC is an isoceles triangle with one angle 90°
∴ ∠OAC + ∠OCA = 180° – 90°

2∠OAC = 90°
∠OAC = 45°
∴ ∠OCA = 45°

Question 4.
A chord is 12cm away from the centre of the circle of radius 15 cm. Find the length of the chord.
Solution:

Question 5.
In a circle, AB and CD are two parallel chords with centre O and radius 10 cm such that AB = 16 cm and CD = 12 cm determine the distance between the two chords?

Solution:
The distance between the two chord FE = OE + OF

∴ Distance between the chords is 14 cm

Question 6.
Two circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm intersect at two points and the distance between their centres is 4 cm. Find the length of the common chord.
Solution:

The length of the common chord AB = AD + BD = (3 + 3) cm = 6 cm

Question 7.
Find the value of x° in the following

Solution:

Question 8.
In the given figure, ∠CAB = 25°, find ∠BDC, ∠DBA and ∠COB

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.2

Question 1.
The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 2 : 4 : 5 : 7. Find all the angles.
Solution:
In a quadrilateral the angles add upto 360°.
Let’s call the angles 2x, 4x, 5x, 7x
2x + 4x + 5x + 7x = 360°
18x = 360°

A = 2x = 2 × 20° = 40°
B = 4x = 4 × 20° = 80°
C = 5x = 5 × 20° = 100°
D = 7x = 7 × 20° = 140°

Question 2.
In a quadrilateral ABCD, ∠A = 12° and ∠C is the supplementary of ∠A. The other two angles are 2x – 10 and x + 4. Find the value of x and the measure of all the angles.
Solution:
∠A = 72°
∠C = 180° – 72° (∵ Supplementary at ∠A) = 108°
The other two angles are 2x – 10 and x + 4.
2x – 10 + x + 4 + 108° + 12° = 360°

3x + 174° = 360°
3x = 360° – 174°

∴ ∠A = 72°
∠B = 2x – 10 = 2(62)- 10 = 124 – 10 = 114°
∠C = 108°
∠D = x + 4 = 62 + 4 = 66°

Question 3.
ABCD is a rectangle whose diagonals AC and BD intersect at O. If ∠OAB = 46°, find ∠OBC.
Solution:
∠ABC = 90°

∠OAB + ∠OBC = 90°
46° + ∠OAB = 90°
∠OBC = 90° – 46° = 44°

Question 4.
The lengths of the diagonals of a Rhombus are 12 cm and 16 cm. Find the side of the rhombus.
Solution:
Let ABCD be a rhombus with AC and BD as its diagonals.
We know that the diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles.
Let O be the intersecting point of both the diagonals
Let AC = 16 cm and BD = 12 cm


use Pythagoras theorem, we have
AB² = OA² + OB²
AB² = 100
∴ AB = 10 cm

Question 5.
Show that the bisectors of angles of a parallelogram form a rectangle.
Solution:
Given ABCD is a parallelogram. Draw the angular bisectors AP, BP, CR and DR of the angles ∠A, ∠B, ∠C and ∠D respectively.
Now to prove : PQRS is a rectangle.
Proof: A rectangle is a parallelogram with one angle 90°.
First we will prove PQRS is a parallelogram.
Now AB || CD and AD is transversal. [ ∴ Interior angles on the same side of transversal are supplementary]
[Opposite sides of a parallelogram are parallel]

Also lines AP and DR intersects
So ∠PSR = ∠DS A
∴ ∠PSR = 90° [∵ Vertically opposite angles]
Similarly we can prove that ∠SPQ = 90°, ∠PQR = 90° and ∠SRQ = 90°
∴ ∠PSR = ∠PQR and ∠SPQ = ∠SRQ
∴ Both pair of opposite angles of PQRS is a parallelogram.
Also ∠PSR = ∠PQR = ∠SPQ = ∠SRQ = 90°
∴ PQRS is a parallelogram with one angle 90°.
∴ PQRS is a rectangle. Hence proved.

Question 6.
If a triangle and a parallelogram lie on the same base and between the same parallels, then prove that the area of the triangle is equal to half of the area of parallelogram.
Solution:
Given: ∆ABE and parallelogram ABCD have the same base and are between the same parallel lines (i.e) l₁ || l₂.

Perpendicular distance between l₁ and l₂ = P (say).
Prove that: area of (∆ABE) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × area of the parallelogram ABCD
Proof: Area of ∆ABE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × base × height
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × AB × (Perpendicular distance between l₁
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × AB × P ….(1)
Area of parallelogram ABCD = base × height.
∴ Area of parallelogram ABCD = AB × P …. (2)
From (1) and (2),
Area of ∆ABE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × Area of parallelogram ABCD.
Hence proved.

Question 7.
Iron rods a, b, c, d, e, and f are making a design in a bridge as shown in the figure. If a || b, c || d, e || f, find the marked angles between
(i) b and c
(ii) d and e
(iii) d and f
(iv) c and f.

Solution:
Since l, m are two parallel lines and PQ, RS, TU, VW are transversal.
Then ∠1 = ∠QOR [vertically opposite angles]
∠1 = 30° [∴ ∠QOR = 30°]
Also, PQ and TU are parallel and m and l are transversal.

Also ∠3 + ∠4 = 180°
⇒ 75° + ∠4 = 180°
∠4 = 180° – 75° = 105°
Hence,
(i) 30°
(ii) 105°
(iii) 75°
(iv) 105°

Question 8.
In the given figure ∠A = 64° , ∠ABC = 58°. If BO and CO are the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB respectively of ∆ABC, find x° and y°.
Solution:
In ∆ABC, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
⇒ 64° + 58° + ∠C = 180°
⇒ 122°+ ∠C = 180°
⇒ ∠C = 180°- 122° = 58°

Also BO and CO are the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB respectively

Question 9.
In the given Fig. if AB = 2, BC = 6, AE = 6, BF = 8, CE = 7, and CF = 7, compute the ratio of the area of quadrilateral ABDE to the area of ACDF.

Solution:
Given: AB = 2,
BC = 6,
AE = 6,
BF = 8,
CE = 7 and
CF = 7
Consider ∆AEC and ∆BCF,
In ∆AEC,
AC = 8,
AE = 6,
CE = 7
In ∆BCF,
BF = 8,
BC = 6,
CF = 7
∴ ∆AEC ≅ ∆BCF
∴ Area of ∆AEC = Area of ∆BCF
Subtract.area of ∆BDC both sides, we get
Area of ∆AEC – Area of ∆BDC = Area of ∆BCF – Area of ∆BDC
⇒ Area of quadrilateral ABDE = Area of ∆CDF
∴ The required ratio is 1 : 1

Question 10.
In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle and EFGH is a parallelogram. Using the measurements given in the figure, what is the length d of the segment that is perpendicular to \(\overline{\mathbf{H E}}\) and \(\overline{\mathbf{F G}}\) ?

Solution:
Area of ABCD = length × breadth.
= DC × BC = 10 × 8 = 80.
Area of ∆AEH = Area of ∆CGF [since they are congruent by RHS rule]
Similarly, Area of ∆BEF = Area of ∆DGH
∴ Area of parallelogram = EFGH = Area of rectangle ABCD – 2(area of ∆AEH) – 2(area of ∆BEF)

Question 11.
In parallelogram ABCD of the accompanying diagram, line DP is drawn bisecting BC at N and meeting AB (extended) at P. From vertex C, line CQ is drawn bisecting side AD at M and meeting AB (extended) at Q. Lines DP and CQ meet at O. Show that the area of triangle QPO is \(\frac{9}{8}\) of the area of the parallelogram ABCD.

Solution:

Area of ∆QDP = Area of ∆QMA + Area of ∆MNO + Area of MNBS + Area of ∆MAB
= Area of ∆DCM + Area of ∆MNO + Area of MNBA + Area of ∆NDC
= 2Area of ∆OMN + Area of ∆MNO + 4 Area of ∆OMN + 2 Area of ∆OMN

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.1

Question 1.
In the figure, AB is parallel to CD, find x

Solution:
(i) From the figure
∠1 = 140° (∴ corresponding angles are equal)
∠2 = 40° (∴ ∠1 + ∠2= 180°)
∠3 = 30° (∵ ∠3 + 150= 180°)
∠4 = 110° (∵ ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 = 180°)
∴ ∠x = 70° (∵ ∠4 + ∠x = 180°)

(ii) From the figure
∠1 = 48°
∠3 = 108° (∠1 +24° + ∠3 = 180°)
∠4 = 108° (If two lines are intersect, then the vertically the opposite angles are equal)
∠5 = 72° (∵ ∠3 + ∠5 = 180°)
∴ ∠3 + ∠4 + ∠5 = 108° + 108° + 72°
x = 288°

(iii) From the figure
∠D = 53° ( ∵ ∠B and ∠D are alternate interior angles)
Sum of the three angles of a triangle is 180°
∠x° = 180°- (38°+ 53°)
= 180°- 91° = 89°

Question 2.
The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, find the measure of each angle of the triangle.
Solution:
Let the angles be x, 2x and 3x respectively.
Sum of the three angles of a triangle = 180°

The 3 angles of the triangle are 30°, 60°, 90°.

Question 3.
Consider the given pairs of triangles and say whether each pair is that of congruent triangles. If the triangles are congruent, say ‘how’; if they are not congruent say ‘why’ and also say if a small modification would make them congruent:

Solution:
(i) Consider ∆PQR and ∆ABC
Given, RQ = BC
PQ = AB
∆ABC is not congruent to ∆PQR
If PR = AC, then ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR

(ii) Consider ∆ABD and ∆BCD for the triangles to be congruent.
Given, AB = DC
AD = BC and AB is common side.
∴ By SSS rule ∆ABD ≅ ∆BCD.

(iii) Consider ∆PXY and ∆PXz,
Given, XY = XZ
PY = PZ and PX is common
∴ By SSS rule ∆PXY ≅ ∆PXZ.

(iv) Consider ∆OAB and ∆ODC,
Given, OA = OC

∠ABO = ∠ODC and ∠AOB = ∠DOC (vertically opposite angles)
∴ By AAS rule, AOAB = AODC.

(v) Consider ∆AOB and ∆DOC,
Given, AO = OC
OB = OD


and ∠AOB = ∠DOC [vertically opposite angles]
∴ By SAS rule, ∆AOB = ∆DOC.

(vi) Consider ∆AMB and ∆AMC,
Given, AB = AC

∠AMB = ∠AMC = 90°
∴ AM is common.
∴ By RHS rule
∆AMB ≅ ∆AMC.

Question 4.
∆ABC and ∆DEF are two triangles in which AB = DF, ∠ACB = 70°, ∠ABC = 60°; ∠DEF = 70° and ∠EDF = 60°. Prove that the triangles are congruent.
Solution:

∴ By ASA rule ∆ABC ≅ ∆FDE

Question 5.
Find all the three angles of the ∆ABC

Solution:
Exterior angle = Sum of the two opposite interior angles.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.12

Question 1.
Solve by the method of elimination
(i) 2x – y = 3; 3x + y = 7
(ii) x – y = 5; 3x + 2y = 25
(iii) \(\frac{x}{10}+\frac{y}{5}\) = 14; \(\frac{x}{8}+\frac{y}{6}\) = 15
(iv) 3(2x + y) = 7xy; 3(x + 3y) = 11xy
(v) \(\frac{4}{x}\) + 5y = 7; \(\frac{3}{x}\) + 4y = 5
(vi) 13x + 11y = 70; 11x + 13y = 74
Solution:
(i) 2x – y = 3 ………….. (1)
3x + y = 7 ………… (2)

Substitute x = 2 in (1)
2(2) – y = 3
4 – y = 3
-y = 3 – 4
-y = -1
∴ Solution: x = 2; y = 1
Verification:
Substitute x = 2, y = 1 in (2)
3(2) + 1 = 7 = RHS
∴ Verified.

Substitute y = 2 in (1)
x – 2 = 5
x = 5 + 2
x = 7
∴ Solution: x = 7, y = 2
Verification:
Substitute x = 7, y = 2 in (2)
3(7) + 2(2) = 21 + 4 = 25 = RHS
∴ Verified.

Substitute y = 30 in (1)
x + 2 (30) = 140
x + 60 = 140
x = 140 – 60
x = 80
∴ Solution: x = 80; y = 30
Verification:
Substitute x = 80, y = 30 in (2)
3(80) + 4(30) = 240 + 120 = 360 = RHS
∴ Verified.

(iv) 3(2x +y) = 7xy ⇒ 6x + 3y = 7xy ………. (1)
3(x + 3y) = 11xy ⇒ 3x + 9y = 11xy ………….. (2)


Substitute a = 1 in (5)
6b + 3(1) = 7
6b + 3 = 7
6b = 7 – 3
b = \(\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)
∴a = \(\frac{1}{x}\) = 1 ⇒ x = 1
b = \(\frac{1}{y}=\frac{2}{3}\) ⇒ y = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
∴ Solution: x = 1; y = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Substitute y = 4 in (1)
13x + 11 (4) = 70
13x + 44 = 70
13x = 70 – 44 = 26
x = \(\frac{26}{13}\) = 2
∴ Solution: x = 2; y = 4

Question 2.
The monthly income of A and B are in the ratio 3:4 and their monthly expenditures are in the ratio 5 : 7. If each saves ₹ 5,000 per month, find the monthly income of each.
Solution:
Let the monthly income of A and B be 3x and 4x respectively.
Let the monthly expenditure of A and B be 5y and 7y respectively.
∴ 3x – 5y = 5000 ……… (1)
4x – 7y = 5000 ……….. (2)

Substitute y = 5000 in (1)
3x – 5 (5000) = 5000
3x – 25000 = 5000
3x = 5000 + 25000
3x = 30000
x = 10000
∴ Monthly income of A is 3x = 3 × 10000 = ₹ 30000
Monthly income of B is 4x = 4 × 10000 = ₹ 40000

Question 3.
Five years ago, a man was seven times as old as his son, while five year hence, the man will be four times as old as his son. Find their present age.
Solution:
Let the man’s present age = x
Five years ago his age is = x – 5
Let his son’s age be = y
5 years ago his son’s age = y – 5
∴ x – 5 = 7(y – 5)
x – 5 = 7y – 35
x – 7y = -35 + 5
x – 7y = – 30 ……….. (1)
After 5 years, man’s age will be = x + 5
His son’s age will be = y + 5
∴ x + 5 = 4(y + 5)
x + 5 = 4y + 20
x – 4y = 20 – 5
⇒ x – 4y = 15 ………….. (2)

Substitute y = 15 in (1)
x – 7 (15) = -30
x – 105 – 30
x = – 30 + 105
x = 75
∴ Man’s Age = 75, His son’s Age =15

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Additional Questions

Exercise 5.1

Question 1.
State whether the following statements are true/false.
(i) (5, 7) is a point in the IV quadrant.
(ii) (-2, -7) is a point in the III quadrant.
(iii) (8, -7) lies below the x-axis.
(iv) (-2, 3) lies in the II quadrant.
(v) For any point on the x-axis its y-coordinate is zero.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) True
(v) True

Question 2.
Locate the points
(i) (3, 5) and (5, 3)
(ii) (-2, -5) and (-5, -2) in the rectangular coordinate system.
Solution:

Question 3.
In which quadrant does the following points lie?
(i) (5, 2)
(ii) (-5, -8)
(iii) (-7, 1)
(iv) (8, -3)
Solution:
(i) I quadrant
(ii) III quadrant
(iii) II quadrant
(iv) IV quadrant.

Question 4.
Write down the ordinate of the following points.
(i) (7, 5)
(ii) (2, 9)
(iii) (-5, 8)
(iv) (7, -4)
Solution:
(i) 5
(ii) 9
(iii) 8
(iv) -4 (ordinate is the y-coordinate)

Exercise 5.2

Question 1.
Find the distance between the following pairs of points.
(i) (-4, 0) and (3, 0)
(ii) (-7, 2) and (5, 2)
Solution:
(i) The points (-4, 0) and (3, 0) lie on the x-axis. Hence,

(ii) The points (5,2) and (-7,2) lie on a line parallel to the x-axis. Hence the distance

Question 2.
Show that the three points (4, 2), (7, 5) and (9, 7) lie on a straight line.
Solution:
Let the points be A(4, 2), B(7, 5) and C(9, 7). By the distance formula.

Hence the points A, B and C are collinear.

Question 3.
Determine whether the points are vertices of a right triangle A(-3, -4), B(2, 6) and C (-6, 10).
Solution:

Hence ABC is a right angled triangle since the square of one side is equal to sum of the squares of the other two sides.

Question 4.
Show that the points (a, a), (-a, -a) and (\(-a \sqrt{3}, a \sqrt{3}\)) form an equilateral triangle.
Solution:
Let the points be represented by A (a, a), B(-a, -a) and C(\(-a \sqrt{3}, a \sqrt{3}\)) using the distance formula.

Since all the sides are equal the points form an equilateral triangle.

Question 5.
Prove that the points (-7, -3), (5, 10), (15, 8) and (3, -5) taken in order are the corners of a parallelogram.
Solution:
Let A, B, C and D represent the points (-7, -3), (5, 10), (15, 8) and (3, -5) respectively.

i.e. The opposite sides are equal. Hence ABCD is a parallelogram.

Question 6.
Show that the following points A (3, 1) B(6, 4) and C(8, 6) lies on a straight line.
Solution:
Using the distance formula, we have

Therefore the points lie on a straight line.

Question 7.
If the distance between the points (5, -2), (1, a) is 5 units. Find the value of a.

Solution:

Exercise 5.3

Question 1.
A, B and C are vertices of ∆ ABC. D, E and F are mid points of sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the coordinates of A, D and F are (-3, 5), (5, 1) and (-5, -1) respectively. Find the coordinates of B, C and E.
Solution:

Question 2.
If A(10, 11) and B(2, 3) are the coordinates of end points of diameter of circle. Then find the centre of the circle.
Solution:

Question 3.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (3, 1) and (5, 13) internally in the ratio 3 : 5.
Solution:

Exercise 5.4

Question 1.
Using section formula, show that the points A(7, -5), B(9, -3) and C(13, 1) are collinear.
Solution:

Question 2.
A car travels at an uniform speed. At 2pm it is at a distance of 5 km at 6 pm it is at a distance of 120 km. Using section formula, find at what distance it will reach 2 mid night.
Solution:

Question 3.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the point A(3, 7) and B(-11, -2) in the ratio 5 : 1.
Solution:

Exercise 5.5

Question 1.
Find the centroid of the triangle whose vertices are (2, -5), (5, 11) and (9, 9)
Solution:

Question 2.
If the centroid of a triangle is at (10, -1) and two of its vertices are (3, 2) and (5, -11). Find the third vertex of the triangle.
Solution:

Exercise 5.6

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
The point (-2, 7) lies is the quadrant
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV
Hint:
(-, +) lies in II^nd quadrant
Solution:
(2) II

Question 2.
The point (x, 0) where x < 0 lies on
(1) OX
(2) OY
(3) OX’
(4) OY’
Hint:
(-, 0) lies on OX’
Solution:
(3) OX’

Question 3.
For a point A(a, b) lying in quadrant III.
(1) a > 0, b < 0
(2) a < 0, b < 0
(3) a > 0, b > 0
(4) a < 0, b > 0
Hint:
(-, -) lies in III^rd quadrant
Solution:
(2) a < 0, b < 0

Question 4.
The diagonal of a square formed by the points (1, 0) (0, 1) and (-1, 0) is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
(4) 8
Hint:

Solution:
(1) 2

Question 5.
The triangle obtained by joining the points A(-5, 0) B(5, 0) and C(0, 6) is
(1) an isosceles triangle
(2) right triangle
(3) scalene triangle
(4) an equilateral triangle
Hint:
Triangles having two sides equal are called isosceles.
Solution:
(a) an isosceles triangle

Text Book Activities

Activity 1.
Plot the following points on a graph sheet by taking the scale as 1cm = 1 unit. Find how far the points are from each other? A (1, 0) and D (4, 0). Find AD and also DA. Is AD = DA? You plot another set of points and verify your result.

Solution:
AD = DA is correct.