Category: Class 9

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Dialogue Writing

Exercises
1. Write a dialogue between a customer and a shop keeper.
Answer:
Customer : Good morning sir.
Shop Keeper : Good morning. What do you want?
Customer : I want an LED TV.
Shop Keeper : Which brand do you like, sir?
Customer : I want Philips TV.
Shop Keeper : What features do you want in it?
Customer : I want 40 inches along with 3D provision.
Shop Keeper : Here it is, sir. It costs Rs. 50,000/-.
Customer : Could I pay the money through debit card?
Shop Keeper : Yes sir. May I pack this for you?
Customer : Yes.

2. Write a dialogue with a minimum five utterances between a doctor and a patient who complains of stomachache.
Answer:
Patient : Good morning, doctor. I have stomach ache.
Doctor : Good morning. Since when?
Patient : From yesterday, doctor.
Doctor : Did you eat oily food from some platform stalls?
Patient : Yes doctor. I took non-veg items from a platform shop.
Doctor : The pain is due to bacterial infection. Take these tablets and tonic twice a day after food.
Patient : O.K. doctor. How much is the bill amount?
Doctor : It is Rs. 200. Take care of your health.
Patient : Thank you doctor.

3. Write a dialogue between you and your mother about the upcoming food carnival in your school.
Answer:
Daughter : Mummy, there will be a food carnival in our school.
Mother : Oh, It is very nice. When will it be organized?
Daugher : Coming weekend Mummy.
Mother : Do you know who are the participants?
Daughter : My teacher told that around 100 students of classes XI and XII would participate.
Mother : What type of food will they prepare? .
Daughter : They will prepare national and international delicacies that represent various states.
Mother : Will there be fast food stalls?
Daughter : Definitely such stalls will not be allowed. Only traditional food items will be prepared by them.
Mother : That is very good.
Daughter : My teacher instructed that each and every student should bring their parents to the carnival, Mummy.

4. WrIte a dialogue with at least 5 utterances between the manager of a restaurant and an angry customer who finds a fly in his soup.
Answer:
Waiter : Here’s your soup, Sir.
Customer : Thank you. (tastes the hot soup). What’s this? Eek! A fly in my soup. (shouts) Waiter! No, I’d better talk to the manager.
Manager : Is something wrong?
Customer : It is the soup that is wrong.
Manager : What happened, sir?
Customer : I ordered for a vegetarian soup but ¡ was served a non-veg soup.
Manager : A non-veg. soup? In this hotel?
Customer : Yes, certainly. See this.
Manager : Oh, I’m extremely sorry. Waiter, get him another bowl of soup.
Customer : Oh, no, thank you, not another non-veg. soup.

5. Write a dialogue with at least five utterances between a bank manager and a student who wants to open a bank account.
Answer:
Student : Good morning sir, I wish to open a Savings Bank account.
Banker : Good morning. Go through this application, please.
Student : Application seeks information about my address, occupation and income details.
Banker : Yes. Please fill it.
Student : How much should I deposit initially?
Banker : You should deposit at least 500/- If you need a cheque book, you have to maintain a minimum balance of 1000/-
Student : Should I produce any documents?
Banker : Yes, bring a xerox copy of your ration card and you need to give two passport size photos. An account holder of this bank should give a letter of introduction.
Student : Sure, Sir. Thank you.
Banker : Come with all the necessary papers and meet the clerk.
Student : 0k sir, Thank you!

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Article Writing

An article is a piece of written work, the purpose of which is to propagate news, inform about results of research, analyze academic information, express opinions or persuade through suggestions.

Components of an article :
Title – it should be catchy enough to draw the reader’s attention
Byline – the name of the writer of the article Introduction – outlines the topic
Body – builds upon the topic; consists of two to four paragraphs
Conclusion – summarises and offers final opinions

Tips for writing articles :

• Be brief and concise.
• Cover the essential elements of who, what, when, where, how and why?
• Focus on the theme or topic of the article. Do not deviate from it.
• Use simple language.

Exercises
1. Write an article for your school magazine. Describing your experience about the Clean India Campaign.
Answer:

Clean India Campaign

– by Anitha

The ‘Clean India Campaign’ or ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’ launched by our Prime Minister, Mr. Narendra Modi was implemented to fulfill the vision of a clean India. But it has not been as effective as it should have been opinion polls conducted in various cities of India suggested that nearly two-thirds of the residents surveyed felt there was no impact of the campaign on their city or surroundings. The fact remains that the government alone cannot bring about a change unless we the people take initiatives to keep our surroundings clean. It is all about changing our attitude which cannot be changed by imposing fines of punishments.

There is a significant percentage of our population who are totally unaware of and neglect basic cleanliness hygiene. These are people who don’t even think once before littering on the road or throwing garbage anywhere and everywhere. Their lack of awareness has led to the ineffectiveness of such cleanliness initiatives. It is important to sensitize people on the importance of hygiene and cleanliness through awareness programs in electronic, print and social media. Enlightened people need to work with not only individuals but also organizations to make those people aware of the importance of cleanliness.

2. Write an article for your school magazine. Describing your experience about River Pollution.
Answer:

River Pollution

– by Rama

It is indeed unfortunate that rivers, which are our largest source of water are victims of pollution. Countless tanneries, chemical plants, textile mills, slaughter houses, hospitals contribute to pollution of rivers by dumping untreated waste into it. People who do not have the proper living conditions in India, resort to carrying out all their daily activities like bathing, washing and defecation, on the bank of rivers, and thus pollute them. Discharge of sewage and other domestic waste into the rivers is yet another environmentally hazardous practice, that is polluting the rivers. Religious practices also demand that floral offerings be cast-off in rivers and the ashes, after cremating a person should also be poured into rivers.
Unfortunately one concludes despite laws dealing with the task of prevention and control of river pollution there is no end to the misery we humans inflict on our rivers.

3. Write an article for your school magazine. Describing your experience about Serve Mankind.
Answer:

Serve Mankind

– by Bala

Men represent society in a Microform. God made man to serve those who need the service. It may be in any field or in any form. But the best form is “Voluntary Community Work” which means that the work should be done not for an individual but for all. For example, I see that the village is full of garbage. Let us together dig pits far away from the village and bury these garbage there, which will turn to manure in a couple of years’ time.

At the same time, the removal of the garbage will give a better look to the village. The second community work for our village is to make drains. Let us control the dirty water and direct it to the pits where the garbage has been buried. But this is not the work done by one or two men. Let the people realise that the best service to God is to serve His creation.

4. Write an article for your school magazine. Describing your experience about school picnic.
Answer:

SCHOOL PICNIC TO MAMALLAPURAM

– by Srinivasan

School picnics are the most awaited ones. They are with great fun. The memories of school picnics are the one to be cherished for a lifetime. This year’s picnic was destined to be at Mamallapuram which is situated around 60 km from Chennai. On the day of the picnic, we reported to the school assembly hall at 5 a.m. Since it was the last week of December, the weather was very cold. The school bus departed at sharp 5.10 a.m. in the morning. Almost one and half hour travel to the heritage town felt like a matter of few minutes. We reported to the guest house at around 6.30 a.m., we were all provided welcome drinks. Then we left for the Shore Temple.

Sunrise at Shore Temple is an unforgettable sight. Five Rathas, Cave Temple, Tiger Cave, Elephant and other creatures carved in granite, Arjuna’s Penance, Lord Krishna’s Butter Ball (a huge stone almost spherical in shape) are the important sculptures to be seen there. It was the most exciting part of the picnic. Then we had lunch, followed by some fun activities. The time had passed so soon that we couldn’t even realize the day was over. This was indeed a day I will remember for a long time.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Speech Writing (on a given

topic)

Exercises
1. How do you prepare a speech for the morning assembly, stressing on the importance of ‘Sound mind in a sound body?
Answer:

Sound Mind In A Sound Body

Respected teachers and students,
Warm greetings to all of you.
I am here to deliver a speech on “Sound mind in a sound body”.

‘A sound mind in a sound body’ is the adage. It is true and worthy. The mind when free from pain or physical stress thinks clearly and remains active. It has the ability to march towards its goal as there are no stress psychologically and physically due to fear and illness. Active exercises, fresh air, activities like cycling, swimming and walking refresh the mind and keep it cheerful and relaxed. To overcome our stress we should play our favorite game, be it chess, cricket or any other game and remain calm and relaxed. Hence sports are an essential part of life.

Thank you for listening to my speech.

2. Prepare a speech in about 80-100 words of the morning assembly on highlighting the importance of Saving Water.
Answer:

Saving Water

Water is used by us for various purposes. Water is used for drinking. The human body depends on water for survival. Water is used for cooking food too. The water that we need for consuming must be clean, potable water. If humans use dirty or contaminated water for these purposes they can fall sick and die from the diseases. Therefore, for good health we need clean drinking water to be available for our use. Water is also needed for farming. We also use water to maintain personal hygiene. We also need water to wash our clothes, as also to keep our homes and surroundings clean.

3. Prepare a speech in about 80-100 words of the morning assembly on highlighting the importance conservation of Nature.
Answer:

Conservation Of Nature

Nature fulfills our basic requirement to live by providing us air, water, land, sunlight and plants. These resources are further used to manufacture various things that make life more convenient and comfortable for human beings. As a result, many of these resources are depleting at a fast pace and if it continues this way then the survival of human beings, as well as other living beings on Earth, would become very difficult. Conservation of nature means the preservation of forests, land, water bodies and conservation of resources such as minerals, fuels, natural gases, etc. to ensure that all these continue to be available in abundance.

4. Prepare a speech in about 80 – 100 words of the morning assembly on highlighting the importance of Saving Trees.
Answer:

Saving Trees

Respected teachers and students,
Warm greetings to all of you.
I am here to deliver a speech on “Saving Trees”.

Trees play a significant role in our daily life. Trees provide oxygen. They absorb carbon dioxide, thereby reducing the global warming. They provide food for us and also for forest animals. Trees offer habitation to birds, insects, lichen and fungi. Their trunks provide the hollow cover needed by species such as bats, wood-boring beetles, owls and woodpeckers. They benefit the environment by the way of preventing soil erosion and flooding. They reduce the speed of the wind. They act as natural air conditioners by cooling the roadsides by their shade. They are helpful for children to play in and discover their sense of adventure. They also help in protecting us from the harmful effect of ultra-violet rays. So it is our responsibility to save trees.

Thank you for listening to my speech.

5. Prepare a speech in about 80-100 words on Peacock.
Answer:

Peacock

Peacock is one of the most beautiful birds on the earth. It is particularly known for its colourful feathers that are a sight to behold. It looks best when it dances merrily in » the rain. Peacock is the national bird of India. It finds several references in the Indian mythology and history. It is known for its metallic blue and green colour and spectacular feather. These feathers are also considered auspicious and are used to bring in good luck and prosperity. Peacock has inspired many notable artists in the past and continues to do so.

6. Prepare a speech in about 80-100 words of the morning assembly on highlighting the Importance of Saving Pets.
Answer:

Saving Pets

Respected teachers and students,
Warm greetings to all of you.
I am, here to deliver a speech on “Saving Pets”.

Saving the life of a pet animal like a dog or a cat is our moral responsibility. There are so many ways in which we can save pets. A person can adopt his pet and encourage his friends and family to adopt pet. Most people don’t realize that they are unknowingly supporting the puppy mill industry when they purchase animals from pet stores or buy a puppy online. A person may talk with the owners of pet stores and ask them to feature homeless pets for adoption instead. We can add an advocacy message in the signature line of our email to help educate people about the issue.

Instead of buying pet animals, we can adopt them. We can use our social networking skills to promote adoptable animals. Most rescue groups need volunteers who can help with a variety of professional services. So as a volunteer, we can save a lot of lives. There are lots of ways to provide assistance without giving a donation. However, donations allow shelters and rescue groups to increase adoptions, promote spay/neuter, create lifesaving programs, educate the public about animal welfare issues, and much more. A person can save lives by fostering homeless animals.

Thank you for listening to my speech.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 8 Sound

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Sound Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following vibrates when a musical note is produced by the cymbals in a orchestra?
(a) stretched strings
(b) stretched membranes
(c) air columns
(d) metal plates
Answer:
(a) stretched strings

Question 2.
Sound travels in air:
(a) if there is no moisture in the atmosphere.
(b) if particles of medium travel from one place to another.
(c) if both particles as well as disturbance move from one place to another.
(d) if disturbance moves.
Answer:
(b) if particles of medium travel from one place to another.

Question 3.
A musical instrument is producing continuous note. This note cannot be heard by a person having a normal hearing range. This note must then be passing through ………….
(a) wax
(b) vacuum
(c) water
(d) empty vessel
Answer:
(d) empty vessel

Question 4.
The maximum speed of vibrations which produces audible sound will be in ……………..
(a) seawater
(b) ground glass
(c) dry air
(d) Human blood
Answer:
(a) seawater

Question 5.
The sound waves travel faster
(a) in liquids
(b) in gases
(c) in solids
(d) in vacuum
Answer:
(c) in solids

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Sound is a ………… wave and needs a material medium to travel.
2. Number of vibrations produced in one second is …………..
3. The velocity of sound in solid is …………. than the velocity of sound in air.
4. Vibration of object produces …………..
5. Loudness is proportional to the square of the …………..
6. …………… is a medical instrument used for listening to sounds produced in the body.
7. The repeated reflection that results in persistence of sound is called ……………..

Answer:

1. longitudinal
2. frequency of wave
3. faster
4. Sound
5. amplitude
6. ECG
7. reverberation

III. Match the following.

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Tuning fork	(i) The point where density of air is maximum
(b) Sound	(ii) Maximum displacement from the equilibrium position
(c) Compressions	(iii) The sound whose frequency is greater than 20,000 Hz
(d) Amplitude	(iv) Longitudinal wave
(e) Ultrasonics	(v) Production of sound

Answer:
(a) (v)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iii)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Through which medium sound travels faster, iron or water? Give reason.
Answer:
Sound travels faster through iron as solids are packed together tighter than liquids and gases.

Question 2.
Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is ‘hertz’. Define.
Answer:
The SI unit of frequency is hertz (Hz). The number of vibrations (complete waves or cycles) produced in one second is called frequency of the wave.

Question 3.
What is meant by supersonic speed?
Answer:
When the speed of any object exceeds the speed of sound in air (330 m s-1) it is said to be travelling at supersonic speed.

Question 4.
How does the sound produced by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ears?
Answer:
When an object vibrates, it forces the neighbouring particles of the medium to vibrate. These vibrating particles then force the particles adjacent to them to vibrate. In this way vibrations produced by an object are transferred till it reaches the ear.

Question 5.
You and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?
Answer:
No, as there is no medium on moon for the sound to travel.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe with diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are produced.
Answer:
Sound is also a longitudinal wave. Sound can travel only when there are particles which can be compressed and rarefied. Compressions are the regions where particles are crowded together. Rarefactions are the regions of low pressure where particles are spread apart. A sound wave is an example of a longitudinal mechanical wave. Below figure represents the longitudinal nature of sound wave in the medium.

Question 2.
Verify experimentally the laws of reflection of sound.
Answer:
The laws of reflection are:

• The angle in which the sound is incident is equal to the angle in which sound is reflected.
• Direction of incident sound, direction of the reflected sound and the normal are in the same plane.

Take two metal tubes A and B. Keep one end of each tube on a metal plate as shown in figure. Place a wrist watch c at the open end of the tube A and interpose a cardboard between A and B. Now at a particular inclination of the tube B with the cardboard, ticking of the watch is clearly heard. The angle of reflection made by the tube B with the cardboard is equal to the angle of incidence made by the tube A with the cardboard.
For example, if the angle of incidence is 20° on the left side of a protractor (see figure arrangement), the angle of reflection at which we are able to hear the sound clearly will also be at 20° on the right side of the protractor.
∴ ∠ i = ∠ r    ➝ verifying Law I
We will also further observe that pipe 1, pipe 2 i.e, the incident ray, reflected ray and the normal lie on the same plane, verifying law II.

Question 3.
List the applications of sound.
Applications of ultrasound
Answer:

• Ultra sound can be used in cleaning technology. Minute foreign particles can be removed from objects placed in a liquid bath through which ultrasound is passed.
• Ultrasounds can also be use d to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks.
• Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts of the heart and form the image of the heart. This technique is called ‘echo cardiography’.
• Ultrasound may be employed to break small ‘stones’ formed in the kidney into fine grains. These grains later get flushed out with urine.

Question 4.
Explain how does SONAR work?
Answer:
SONAR stands for Sound Navigation And Ranging. Sonar is a device that uses ultrasonic waves to measure the distance, direction and speed of underwater objects. Sonar consists of Science – 9 (Physics)
a transmitter and a detector and is installed at the bottom of boats and ships. The transmitter produces and transmits ultrasonic waves. These waves travel through water and after striking the object on the seabed, get reflected back and are sensed by the detector.

The detector converts the ultrasonic waves into electrical signals which are appropriately interpreted. The distance of the object that reflected the sound wave can be calculated by knowing the speed of sound in water and the time interval between transmission and reception of the ultrasound. Sonar technique is used to determine the depth of the sea and to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarine, icebergs etc.

VI. Numerical problem.

Question 1.
The frequency of a source of sound is 600 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
Answer:
The number of vibrations (complete waves or cycles) produced in one second is called frequency of the wave.
Hence, in one minute 600 x 60 vibrations are produced = 36000 (Need clarification)

Question 2.
A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 750 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top?
(Given g = 10 m s^{– 2} and speed of sound = 340 ms^{– 1})
Height = 750m
h = ut + 0.5 gt²
The initial velocity is 0
750 = 0.5 × 10 × t²
t = 10sec
Speed of sound is 340m/sec
So, time taken to travel 750m upwards is,
\(\frac { 750 }{ 340 }\) = 2.20s
time taken = 10 + 2.20 = 12.2 sec.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Sound In Text Problems

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength of 15 cm. How much time will it take to travel 1.5 km?
Solution:
v = nλ
n = 2 kHz = 2000Hz
λ = 15 cm = 0.15 m
0.15 × 2000 = 300ms^{– 1}
Time(t) = \(\frac{\text { Distance (d) }}{\text { Velocity (v) }}\)
The sound will take 5 s to travel a distance of 1.5 km.

Question 2.
What is the wavelength of a sound wave in air at 20° C with a frequency of 22 MHz?
Solution:
λ = v/n
Here, v = 344 m s^{– 1}
n = 22 MHz = 22 × 10⁶ Hz
λ = \(\frac { 344 }{ 22 }\) × 10⁶ = 15.64 × 10⁶ m = 15.64 µm.

Question 3.
A man fires a gun and hears its echo after 5 s. The man then moves 310 m towards the hill and fires his gun again. If he hears the echo after 3 s, calculate the speed of sound.
Solution:
Distance (d) = velocity (v) × time (t)
Distance travelled by sound when gun fires first time, 2d = v × 5 …………. (1)
Distance travelled by sound when gun fires second time, 2d – 620 = v × 3 …………… (2)
Rewriting equation (2) as,
2d = (v × 3) + 620 ……………. (3)
Equating (1) and (3), 5v = 3v + 620
2v = 620 .
Velocity of sound, v = 310 m s^{– 1}

Question 4.
A ship sends out ultrasound that returns from the seabed and is detected after 3.42 s.
If the speed of ultrasound through sea water is 1531m s^{– 1}, what is the distance of the seabed from the ship?
Solution:
We know, distance = speed × time
2d = speed of ultrasound × *time
2d = 1531 × 3.42
∴ d = \(\frac{5236}{2}\) = 2618 m
Thus, the distance of the seabed from the ship is 2618 m or 2.618 km.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Sound Additional Questions

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
“Sound needs a medium for propagation”. Justify with an experiment.
Answer:

Sound needs a material like air, water, steel, etc. for its propagation. It cannot travel through vacuum. This can be demonstrated by the Bell-Jar experiment.

An electric bell and an airtight glass jar are taken. The electric bell is suspended inside the airtight jar. The jar is connected to a vacuum pump. If the bell is made to ring, we will be able to hear the sound of the bell. Now when the jar is evacuated with the vacuum pump, the air in the jar is pumped out gradually and the sound becomes feebler and feebler. We will not hear any sound, if the air is fully removed (if the jar has vacuum).

Question 2.
Name the characteristics that describe a sound.
Answer:
A sound wave can be described completely by five characteristics viz – amplitude, frequency, time period, wavelength and velocity or speed.

Question 3.
What does the intensity of sound heard at a place depend on?
Answer:
The intensity of sound heard at a place depends on the following factors;

1. Amplitude of the source
2. Distance of the observer
3. Surface area of the source
4. Density of the medium
5. Frequency of the source.

Question 4.
Why is sound wave called longitudinal wave?
Answer:
As the vibration of the particles of the medium are along the direction of wave propagation, sound waves are longitudinal waves.

Question 5.
What is sound and how is it produced?
Answer:
Sound is a form of energy which produces the sensation of hearing. It is produced due to vibrations of different objects, eg. stretched vibrating wires and vibrating drums, etc.

Question 6.
How can two whales in the sea, hundreds of kilometers apart, communicate?
Answer:
Sound travels about 5 times faster in water than in air. Therefore, two whales in the sea, hundreds of kilometers apart can communicate easily.

Question 7.
What is a stethescope? What is the principle on which it works?
Answer:
Stethescope is a medical instrument used for listening to sounds produced in the body. In stethescopes, the sounds reach doctor’s ears by multiple reflections that happen in the connecting tube.

Question 8.
What is an ECG? How does it help in the field of medicine?
Answer:
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is one of the simplest and oldest cardiac investigations available. In ECG, the sound variations produced by heart is converted into electric signals. Thus an ECG is simply a representation of the electrical activity of the heart muscle as it changes with time. Usually it is printed on paper for easy analysis. The sum of this electrical activity, when amplified and recorded for just a few seconds is known as an ECG.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 9 Universe

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Universe Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who proposed the heliocentric model of the universe?
(a) Tycho Brahe
(b) Nicolaus Copernicus
(c) Ptolemy
(d) Archimedes
Answer:
(b) Nicolaus Copernicus

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of outer solar system?
(a) Mercury
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 3.
Ceres is a …………..
(a) Meteor
(b) Star
(c) Planet
(d) Astroid
Answer:

Question 4.
The period of revolution of planet A around the Sun is 8 times that of planet B. How many
times is the distance of planet A as great as that of planet B?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 5.
The Big Bang occurred years ago.
(a) 13.7 billion
(b) 15 million
(c) 15 billion
(d) 20 million
Answer:
(a) 13.7 billion

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The speed of Sun in km/s is ……………..
2. The rotational period of the Sun near its poles is ………………..
3. India’s first satellite is …………….
4. The third law of Kepler is also known as the Law of ………………
5. The number of planets in our Solar System is ………………

Answer:

1. 250
2. 36 days
3. Aryabhatta
4. Harmonies 5.8

III. True or False.

1. ISS is a proof for international cooperation – True.
2. Halley’s comet appears after nearly 67 hours -False.
   Correct statement: Halley’s comet appears after nearly every 76 years.
3. Satellites nearer to the Earth should have lesser orbital velocity – False.
   Correct statement: Nearer the object to the Earth, the faster is the required orbital velocity.
4. Mars is called the red planet – True

IV. Answer very briefly.

Question 1.
What is solar system?
Answer:
The Sun and celestial bodies which revolve around it form the solar system. It consists of large number of bodies such as planets, comets, asteroids and meteors.

Question 2.
Define orbital velocity.
Answer:
The horizontal velocity that has to be imparted to a satellite at the determined height so that it makes a circular orbit around the planet is called orbital velocity.

Question 3.
Define time period of a satellite.
Answer:
Time taken by the satellite to complete one revolution round the Earth is called time period.
Time period, T = Distance covered/Orbital velocity
T = 2πr/v

Question 4.
What is a satellite? What are the two types of satellites?
Answer:
A body moving in an orbit around a planet is called satellite. The two types of satellites are natural and artificial. Earth’s natural satellite is the moon.

Question 5.
Write a note on the inner planets.
Answer:
The planets are spaced unevenly. The first four planets are relatively close together and close to the Sun. They form the inner solar system. The four planets grouped together in the inner solar system are Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. They are called inner planets.
They have a surface of solid rock crust and so are called terrestrial or rocky planets. Their insides, surfaces and atmospheres are formed in a similar way and form similar pattern. Our planet, Earth can be taken as a model of the other three planets.

Question 6.
Write about comets in brief.
Answer:
Comets are lumps of dust and ice that revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits. Their period of revolution is very long. When approaching the Sun, a comet vaporizes and forms a head and tail. Some of the biggest comets even seen had tails 160 million (16 crores) km long. Many comets are known to appear periodically. One such comet is Halley’s Comet, which appears after nearly every 76 years. It was last seen in 1986. It will next be seen in 2062.

Question 7.
State Kepler’s laws.
Answer:
In the early 1600s, Johannes Kepler proposed three laws of planetary motion.
First Law – The Law of Ellipses
The path of the planets about the Sun is elliptical in shape, with the center of the Sun being located at one of the foci.

Second Law – The Law of Equal Areas
An imaginary line drawn from the center of the Sun to the center of the planet will sweep out equal areas in equal intervals of time.

Third Law – The Law of Harmonies
The ratio of the squares of the periods of any two planets is equal to the ratio of the cubes of their semi major axis from the Sun.

Question 8.
What factors have made life on Earth possible?
Answer:
The Earth where we live is the only planet in the solar system which supports life. Due to its right distance from the Sun it has the right temperature, the presence of water and suitable atmosphere and a blanket of ozone. All these have made continuation of life possible on the Earth. The axis of rotation of the Earth is not perpendicular to the plane of its orbit. The tilt is responsible for the change of seasons on the Earth.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account of all the planets in the solar system.
Answer:
The planets are spaced unevenly. The first four planets are relatively close together and close to the Sun. They form the inner solar system. Farther from the Sun is the outer solar system, where the planets are much more spread out. Thus the distance between Saturn and Uranus is much greater (about 20 times) than between the Earth and the Mars.

The four planets grouped together in the inner solar system are Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. They are called inner planets. They have a surface of solid rock crust and so are called terrestrial or rocky planets. Their insides, surfaces and atmospheres are formed in a similar way and form similar pattern. Our planet, Earth can be taken as a model of the other three planets.

The four large planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune spread out in the outer solar system that slowly orbit the Sun are called outer planets. They are made of hydrogen, helium and other gases in huge amounts and have very dense atmosphere. They are known as gas giants and are called gaseous planets. The four outer planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune have rings whereas the four inner planets do not have any rings. The rings are actually tiny pieces of rock covered with ice.

Question 2.
Discuss the benefits of ISS.
Answer:
International Space Station (ISS), is a large spacecraft which can house astronauts. It goes around in low Earth orbit at approximately 400 km distance. It is also a science laboratory. Its very first part was placed in orbit in 1998 and its core construction was completed by 2011. It is the largest man-made object in space which can also be seen from the Earth through the naked eye. The first human crew went to the ISS in 2000. Ever since that, it has never been unoccupied by humans. At any given instant, at least six humans will be present in the ISS. According to the current plan ISS will be operated until 2024, with a possible extension until 2028. After that, it could be deorbited, or recycled for future space stations.

The ISS is intended to act as a scientific laboratory and observatory. Its main purpose is to provide an international lab for conducting experiments in space, as the space environment is nearly impossible to reproduce here on Earth. The microgravity environment present in the ISS provides ideal conditions for doing many scientific researches especially in biology, human biology, physics, astronomy and meteorology.

Question 3.
Write a note on orbital velocity.
Answer:
Nowadays many artificial satellites are launched into the Earth’s orbit. The first artificial satellite Sputnik was launched in 1956. India launched its first satellite Aryabhatta on April 19, 1975. Artificial satellites are made to revolve in an orbit at a height of few hundred kilometres. At this altitude, the friction due to air is negligible. The satellite is carried by a rocket to the desired height and released horizontally with a high velocity, so that it remains moving in a nearly circular orbit. The horizontal velocity that has to be imparted to a satellite at the determined height so that it makes a circular orbit around the planet is called orbital velocity.

The orbital velocity of the satellite depends on its altitude above Earth. Nearer the object to the Earth, the faster is the required orbital velocity. At an altitude of 200 kilometres, the required orbital velocity is little more than 27,400 kph. That orbital speed and distance permit the satellite to make one revolution in 24 hours. Since Earth also rotates once in 24 hours, a satellite stays in a fixed position relative to a point on Earth’s surface. Because the satellite stays over the same spot all the time, this kind of orbit is called ‘geostationary’.

Orbital velocity can be calculated using the following formula.
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}}\)
where; G = Gravitational constant (6.673 × 10^{– 11}Nm²kg^{– 2})
M = Mass of the Earth (5.972 × 10²⁴kg)
R = Radius of the Earth (6371 km)
h = Height of the satellite from the surface of the Earth.

VI. Conceptual questions.

Question 1.
Why do some stars appear blue and some red?
Answer:
Stars are the fundamental building blocks of galaxies. Stars were formed when the galaxies were formed during the Big Bang. Stars produce heat, light, ultraviolet rays, x-rays, and other forms of radiation. They are largely composed of gas and plasma (a superheated state of matter).

The brightness of a star depends on their intensity and the distance from the Earth. Stars also appear to be in different colours depending on their temperature. Hot stars are white or blue, whereas cooler stars are orange or red in colour.

Question 2.
How is a satellite maintained in nearly circular orbit?
Answer:
Artificial satellites are made to revolve in an orbit at a height of few hundred kilometres. At this altitude, the friction due to air is negligible. The satellite is carried by a rocket to the desired height and released horizontally with a high velocity, so that it remains moving in a nearly circular orbit.

Question 3.
Why are some satellites called geostationary?
Answer:
Since Earth also rotates once in 24 hours, a satellite stays in a fixed position relative to a point on Eqrth’s surface. Because the satellite stays over the same spot all the time, this kind of orbit is called ‘geostationary’.

Question 4.
A man weighing 60 kg in the Earth will weigh 1680 kg in the Sun. Why?
Answer:
Mass of the man = 60Kg
w = m × g
m = 60Kg, g = 274.13m/s²
The sun’s gravtiational acceleration is 30 times more than that of the earth. So the person would weigh 16,447N on the surface of sun.

VII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
Calculate the speed with which a satellite moves if it is at a height of 36,000 km from the Earth’s surface and has an orbital period of 24 hr (Take R = 6370 km). [Hint: Convert hr into seconds before doing calculation]
Answer:
T = 2π(R+h)/v
86400 = 2 × 3.14 × (6370 + 36000)/v
v = 6.28 × 42370
266083.6 km/sec
S = d/t
= 266083/24
= 11086.79 km/h

Question 2.
At an orbital height of 400 km, find the orbital period of the satellite.
Answer:
h = 400 × 10³m, R = 6371 × 10³m,
v = 7616 × 10³ kms^{– 1}.
Substituting the values,
T = 2π(R+h)/v
T = 6.28 × \(\frac { 6771 }{ 7616 }\)
T = 5.583 × 10³s = 5583 .
T ≈ 93 min

Activity

Question 1.
Watch the sky in the early morning. Do you see any planet? What is its name? Find out with the help of your teachers.
Answer:
The planet that can be observed in the early morning is ‘Venus’.

Question 2.
Prepare a list of Indian satellites from Aryabhatta to the latest along with their purposes.
Answer:

Satellite	Launch Date	Purpose
Aryabhatta	19 April 1975	India’s first satellite.
Bhaskara-I	7 June 1979	First experimental remote sensing satellite. Carried TV and microwave cameras.
Rohini Technology Payload	10 August 1979	Intended for measuring in-flight performance of first experimental flight of SLV-3, the first Indian launch vehicle. Did not achieve orbit.
Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment	19 June 1981	First experimental communication satellite. Provided experience in building and operating a payload experiment three-axis stabilised communication satellite.
INSAT-1A	10 April 1982	First operational multipurpose communication and meteorology satellite. Procured from USA. Worked for only six months.
IRS-1A	17 March 1988	Earth observation satellite. First operational remote sensing satellite.
INSAT-2A	10 July 1992	First satellite in the second-generation Indian- built INSAT-2 series. Has enhanced capability over INSAT-1 series. Still in service.
INSAT-2E	3 April 1999	Multipurpose communication and meteorological satellite.
GSAT-1	18 April 2001	Experimental satellite for the first developmental flight of Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle, GSLV-D1.
CARTOSAT-2	10 January 2007	Advanced remote sensing satellite carrying a panchromatic camera capable of providing scene-specific spot images.
RISAT-2	20 April 2009	Radar imaging satellite used to monitor India’s borders and as part of anti-infiltration and anti-terrorist operations. Launched as a co-passenger with ANUS AT.

Oceansat-2 (IRS-P4)	23 September 2009	Gathers data for oceanographic, coastal and atmospheric applications. Continues mission of Oceansat-1.
StudSat	PSLV-C15	First Indian pico-satellite (weighing less than 1 kg). Developed by a team from seven engineering colleges from Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.              .
Jugnu	12 October 2011	Nano-satellite weighing 3 kg developed by IIT Kanpur
INSAT-3D	26 July 2013	INSAT-3D is the meteorological Satellite with advanced weather monitoring payloads.
GSAT-7	30 August 2013	GSAT-7 is the advanced multi-band communication satellite dedicated for military use.
SCATSAT-1	26 September 2016	Miniature satellite to provide weather forecasting, cyclone prediction, and tracking services to India.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Universe In Text Problems

Question 1.
Can you calculate the orbital velocity of a satellite orbiting at an altitude of 500 km?
Data: G = 6.673 × 10^{– 11} SI units;
M = 5.972 × 10²⁴ kg; R = 6371000 m;
h = 500000 m.
Solution:
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 5.972 \times 10^{24}}{(6371000+500000)}}\)
∴ v = 7613 ms^{– 1} or 7.613 kms^{– 1}

Question 2.
At an orbital height of 500 km, find the orbital period of the satellite.
Solution:
h = 500 × 10³m, R = 6371 × 10³m,
v = 7616 × 10³ kms^{– 1}.
T = \(\frac{2 \pi(\mathrm{R}+\mathrm{h})}{\mathrm{v}}=2 \times \frac{22}{7} \times \frac{(6371+500)}{7616}\)
= 5.6677 × 10³s = 5667 s.
This is T ≈ 95 min

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Universe Additional Questions

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the composition of sun? How was it formed?
Answer:
Three quarters of the sun has hydrogen gas and one quarter has helium gas. It is over a million times as big as earth. Hydrogen atoms combine or fuse together to form helium under enormous pressure. This process is called nuclear fusion which releases enormous amount of energy as light and heat. It is this energy which makes sunshine and provide heat. The sun is situated at the centre of the solar system.

At the time of the Big Bang, hydrogen gas condensed to form huge clouds, which later concentrated and found numerous galaxies. Some hydrogen gas was left free in our galaxy. With time some changes occured due to which this free floating hydrogen gas concentrated and paved the way for formation of sun and the solar system.

Question 2.
What is a star? What is its composition and how was it formed?
Answer:
Stars are the fundamental building blocks of galaxies. Stars were formed when the galaxies were formed during the big bang. Stars produce heat, light, ultra violet rays and other forms of radiation. They are largely composed of gas and plasma. Stars are built by hydrogen gases. Hydrogen atom fuse together to form helium atoms and in the process they produce large amount of heat.

Question 3.
How is the pole star distinguished from other stars? Explain.
Answer:
Pole star was one of the most familiar stars for travellers in earlier times when there were no instruments or devices to find directions at night. It appears stationary because it is situated in the northern direction along the axis of rotation of the Earth.

Question 4.
What is the difference between a meteor and a meteorite?
Answer:
Meteors are stony or rocky bodies scattered throughout the solar system and are very small in size. The meteors are also called shooting stars. They travel at a high speed, these pieces come closer to the Earth’s atmosphere and are attracted by the gravitational force of Earth. Some are dust particles left behind by comets and other are pieces of asteroids which have collided. These are quite small, some may be as small as a sand grain.

Meteors while travelling across the Earth’s atmosphere are fast moving and get heated up to a very high temperature by air friction. The heat produced is so high, that the meteor starts glowing and then burnt and lost. The path of the meteor appears as a streak of light in the night sky. Very large meteors are able to survive from such heat destruction and actually reach the Earth’s surface. These meteors are called meteorites.

Question 5.
What is microgravity?
Answer:
It is a condition in which people or objects appear to be weightless. The effects of microgravity can be seen when astronauts and objects float in space. ‘Micro’ means small, so microgravity refers to a condition where gravity is so small. Many things seem to act differently in microgravity. Fire bums differently. Without the pull of gravity, flames are mere sound.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 2 Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Motion Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The area under velocity-time graph represents the
(a) velocity of the moving object
(b) displacement covered by the moving object
(c) speed of the moving object
(d) acceleration of the moving object
Answer:
(d) acceleration of the moving object

Question 2.
Which one of the following is most likely not a case of uniform circular motion?
(a) Motion of the Earth around the Sun
(b) Motion of a toy train on a circular track
(c) Motion of a racing car on a circular track
(d) Motion of hour’s hand on the dial of the clock
Answer:
(a) Motion of the Earth around the Sun

Question 3.
Which of the following graph represents uniform motion of a moving particle?

Answer:
(b)

Question 4.
The centrifugal force is
(a) a real force
(b) the force of reaction of centripetal force
(c) virtual force
(d) directed towards the centre of the circular path
Answer:
(c) virtual force

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Speed is a quantity whereas velocity is a quantity.
2. The slope of the distance-time graph at any point gives
3. Negative acceleration is called
4. Area under velocity-time graph shows

Answer:

1. scalar, vector
2. speed
3. retardation (or) deceleration
4. displacement

III. True or False.

1. The motion of a city bus in a heavy traffic road is an example for uniform motion.
2. Acceleration can get negative value also.
3. Distance covered by a particle never becomes zero but displacement becomes zero.
4. The velocity-time graph of a particle falling freely under gravity would be straight line parallel to the x axis.
5. If the velocity-time graph of a particle is a straight line inclined to X-axis then its displacement – time graph will be a straight line.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

IV. Assertion and Reason Type Question.

Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: The accelerated motion of an object may be due to change in magnitude of velocity or direction or both of them.
Reason: Acceleration can be produced only by change in magnitude of the velocity. It does not depend the direction.
Answer:
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

Question 2.
Assertion: The Speedometer of a car or a motor-cycle measures its average speed.
Reason: Average velocity is equal to total displacement divided by total time taken.
Answer:
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 3.
Assertion: Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not zero.
Reason: The displacement is the shortest distance between initial and final position.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

V. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (D)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (B)

VI. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Define velocity.
Answer:
Velocity is the rate of change of displacement. It. is the displacement in unit time.

Question 2.
Distinguish distance and displacement.
Answer:

S.No.	Distance	Displacement
1.	The actual length of the path traveled by a moving body irrespective of the direction	The change in position of a moving body in a particular direction
2.	Scalar quantity	Vector quantity

Question 3.
What do you mean by uniform motion?
Answer:
An object is said to be in uniform motion if it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time how so ever big or small these time intervals may be.

Question 4.
Compare Speed and Velocity.
Answer:

S.No.	Speed	Velocity
1.	The rate of change of distance	The rate of change of displacement
2.	Scalar quantity	Vector quantity
3.	Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { time taken }}\)	Velocity = \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { time taken }}\)

Question 5.
What do you understand about negative acceleration?
Answer:
If v < u, i.e. if final velocity is less than initial velocity, the velocity decreases with time and the value of acceleration is negative. It is called negative acceleration. It is also called as retardation (or) deceleration.

Question 6.
Is the uniform circular motion accelerated? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
When an object is moving with a constant speed along a circular path, the velocity changes due to the change in direction. Hence it is an accelerated motion.

Question 7.
What is meant by uniform circular motion? Give two examples of uniform circular motion.
Answer:
When an object moves with constant speed along a circular path, the motion is called uniform circular motion.
Ex. (i) Revolution of Earth around the Sun
(ii) Revolution of Moon around the Earth.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Derive equations of motion by graphical method.
Answer:
An object is in motion with initial velocity u attains a final velocity v in time t due to acceleration a, with displacement S.
Let us try to derive these equations by graphical method. Equations of motion from velocity – time graph:

Graph shows the change in velocity with time for an uniformly accelerated object. The object starts from the point D in the graph with velocity u. Its velocity keeps increasing and after time t it reaches the point B on the graph.
The initial velocity of the object = u = OD = EA
The final velocity of the object = v = OC = EB
Time = t = OE = DA
Also from the graph we know that, AB = DC

For First equation of motion
By definition, acceleration = change in velocity / time
= (final velocity – initial velocity)/time
= (OC – OD) / OE = DC / OE
a = DC/t
DC = AB = at
From the graph EB = EA + AB
v = u + at ….(1)
This is first equation of motion.

For Second equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of quadrangle DOEB
s = area of the quadrangle DOEB
s = area of the rectangle DOEA + area of the triangle DAB
= (AE × OE) + (1/2 × AB × DA)
s = ut + 1/2at² ….(2)
This is second equation of motion.

For Third equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of the quadrangle DOEB. Here DOEB is a trapezium. Then
s = area of trapezium DOEB
= 1/2 × sum of length of parallel side × distance between parallel sides
= 1/2 × (OD + BE) × OE
s = 1/2 × (u + v) × t
Since a = (v – u) / t or t = (v – u)/a
Therefore = 1/2 × (v + u) × (v – u)/a .
2as = v² = u² + 2as
v² = u² + 2as ………(3)
This is third equation of motion.

Question 2.
Explain different types of motion.
Answer:
In physics, motion, can be classified as below.

1. Linear motion: Motion along a straight line.
2. Circular motion: Motion along a circular path.
3. Oscillatory motion: Repetitive to and fro motion of an object at regular interval of time. Random motion: Motion of the object which does not fall in any of the above categories.
4. Uniform and Non-uniform motion:
   • Uniform motion: Consider a car which covers 60 km in the first hour, 60 km in second horn-, and another 60 km in the third hour and so on. The car covers equal distance at equal interval of time. We can say that the motion of the car is uniform. An object is said to be in uniform motion if it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time howsoever big or small these time intervals may be.
   • Non-uniform motion: Now, consider a bus starting from one stop. It proceeds slowly when it passes through a crowded area of the road. Suppose, it manages to travel merely 100 m in 5 minutes due to heavy traffic and is able to travel about 2 km in 5 minutes when the road is clear. Hence, the motion of the bus is non-uniform i.e. it travels unequal distances in equal intervals of time.

VIII. Exercise problems.

Question 1.
A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20m. If its velocity increases uniformly at the rate of 10 ms^{– 2}. With what velocity will it strike the ground? After what time will it strike the ground?
Given: height = 20 m
acceleration = 10 ms^{– 2}
Formula: For free falling body,

1. v = gt
2. s = 1/2 gt²
   Solution:
   time taken to strike the ground
   s = 1/2 gt²
   20m = 1/2 × 10 ms ^{– 2} × t²
   t² = \(\frac{40 m}{10 m s^{-2}}\) = 4s ²
   ∴ t = 2s
3. Velocity of the ball when it strikes ground v = gt
   v = 10ms^{– 2} × 2s
   v = 20ms^{– 1}

Question 2.
An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2 m and 20 s?
Given: Diameter of circular track = 200m
time to complete = 40s
Formula: Circumference of circular track = d. π m
speed = distance/time
Solution:
Circumference of the track = d.π
= 200 × 3.14 = 628m
speed = \(\frac{628 m}{40 s}\) = 15.7 ms^{– 1}
Distance covered in 2 min 20 s = speed × time
In the given time athlete covers 31/2 rounds = 2198m

The final position of athlete is as shown in figure (A – initial position, B – final position)
∴ Displacement = Distance × time
= 200 m

Question 3.
A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 ms^{– 2}. What distance it covers in 10 s after the start?
Given: acceleration = 4ms^{– 2}.
time = 10s and initial velocity = 0
Formula: s = ut + 1/2 at²
Solution:
distance covered s = 0 × t + 1/2 × 4 ms^{– 2} × (10 s)².
s = 1/2 × 4 ms^{– 2} × 100 s²
= 1/2 × 400m
= 200m

Solved Examples.

Question 1.
An object travels 16 m in 4 s and then another 16 m in 2 s. What is the average speed of the object?
Solution:
Total distance travelled by the object =16m + 16m = 32m
Total time taken = 4s + 2s = 6s
Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Total distance travelled }}{\text { total time taken }}\) = \(\frac{32}{6}\) = 5.33 ms^{– 1}
Therefore, the average speed of the object is 5.33 ms^{– 1}.

Question 2.
A sound is heard 5 s later than the lightning is seen in the sky on a rainy day. Find the distance of location of lightning? Given the speed of sound = 346 ms^{– 1}
Solution:
Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { time }}\)
Distance = speed x time = 346 x5 = 1730 m
Thus, the distance of location of lightning = 1730 m

Question 3.
The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 6 ms^{– 2} in the opposite direction to the motion. If the car takes 2 s to stop after the application of brakes, calculate the distance traveled during this time.
Solution:
We have been given a = – 6 ms^{– 2}, t = 2s and v = 0
From the equation of motion,
v = u + at
0 = u + (- 6 × 2) .
0 = u – 12 ∴ u = 12 ms^{– 1}
s = ut + 1/2 at²
= (12 × 2) + 1/2 (- 6 × 2 × 2) .
= 24 – 12 = 12m
Thus, the car will move 12 m before it stops after the application of brakes.

Question 4.
A 900 kg car moving at 10 ms^{– 1} takes a turn around a circle with a radius of 25 m.
Determine the acceleration and the net force acting upon the car.
Solution:
When the car turns around circle, it experiences centripetal acceleration a = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)
a = \(\frac{(10)^{2}}{25}=\frac{100}{25}\) ∴ a = 4ms^{– 2}
Net force acting upon the car,
F = ma = 900 × 4 = 3600N

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Look around you. You can see many things: a row of houses, large trees, small plants, flying birds, running cars and many more. List the objects which remain fixed at their position and the objects which keep on changing their position.
Answer:

1. The objects which remain fixed at their position, and do not change their position are a row of houses, large trees and small plants.
2. The objects which keep on changing their position are flying birds, running cars and buses.

Question 2.
Tabulate the distance covered by a bus in a heavy traffic road in equal intervals of time and do the same for a train which is not in an accelerated motion. From your table what do you understand?
Answer:
The bus covers unequal distance in equal intervals of time but the train covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.
(The students can do this activity by themselves)

Question 3.
Observe the motion of a car as shown in the figure and answer the following questions:

Compare the distance covered by the car through the path ABC and AC. What do you observe? Which path gives the shortest distance to reach D from A? Is it the path ABCD or the path ACD or the path AD?
Answer:

1. AB + BC
   ABC = 4m + 3m=7m
   AC = 5 m
2. AB + BC + CD
   ABCD = 4m + 3m + 4m = 11m
   ACD = AC + CD = 5m + 4m = 9m
   AD = 3 m
   The shortest distance to reach D from A will be AD, that is 3 m.

Question 4.
Take a large stone and a small eraser. Stand on the top of a table and drop them simultaneously from the same height?
What do you observe? Now, take a small eraser and a sheet of paper. Drop them simultaneously from the same height?
What do you observe? This time, take two sheets of paper having same mass and crumple one of the sheets into a ball. Now, drop the sheet and the ball from the same height. What do you observe?
Answer:
Both the stone and the eraser have reached the surface of the Earth almost at the same time in the absence of air medium (vacuum). But in air medium, due to friction, air offers resistance to the motion of free falling objects. The eraser reaches the first, the sheet of paper reaches later. The air resistance exerted on the sheet of paper is much higher than that of the eraser. The paper crumpled into a ball reaches ground first and plain sheet of paper reaches later, although they have equal mass. The air resistance offer to the plain sheet of paper is much higher than that offered to the paper ball. This is because the magnitude of air resistance depends on the area of objects exposed to air.

Question 5.
Take a piece of thread and tie a small piece of stone at one of its ends. Rotate the stone to describe a circular path with constant speed by holding the thread at the other end. Now, release the thread and let the stone go. Can you tell the direction in which the stone moves after it is released?
Answer:
The stone moves along the straight line tangential to the circular path. This is because once the stone releases, it continues to move along the direction it has been moving at that instant.

Question 6.
Take a piece of rope and tie a small stone at one end. Hold the other end of the rope and rotate it such that the stone follows a circular path.
Do you experience any pull or push in your hand?

In this activity, a pulling force that acts away from the centre is experienced. This is called as centrifugal force.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Motion Additional Questions:

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The area under velocity time graph represents ………….
(a) Velocity of the moving object
(b) Displacement covered by the moving object
(c) Speed of the moving object
Answer:
(b) Displacement covered by the moving object

Question 2.
Unit of acceleration is ………………
(a) ms^{– 1}
(b) ms^{– 2}
(c) ms
(d) ms²
Answer:
(b) ms^{– 2}

Question 3.
When a body starts from rest, the acceleration of the body after 2 second in ………………. of its displacement.
(a) Half
(b) Twice
(c) Four times
(d) One fourth
Answer:
(a) Half

II. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
A bus travels, a distance of 20 km from Chennai central to airport in 45 minutes. What is the average speed?
Given: Distance = 20 km = 20,000 m
Time = 45 min = 2700 s
Formula: Average speed = \(\frac{\text { Total Distance }}{\text { Total Time taken }}\)
Solution:
Average speed = \(\frac{20 \mathrm{km}}{45 \mathrm{min}}=\frac{20,000 \mathrm{m}}{2700 \mathrm{s}}\)
= \(\frac{200 m}{27 s}\) = 7.4 ms ^{– 1}

Question 2.
Why did the actual speed differ from average, speed?
Answer:
Actual speed gives instantaneous speed of a body at any instant but average speed is the total distance covered by total time taken.

Question 3.
Mention the uses of velocity-time graph.
Answer:

1. Area covered under velocity – time graph gives us the displacement
2. Slope of the velocity – time graph gives us the acceleration.

Question 4.
The speed of a particle is constant. Will it have acceleration? Justify with an example.
Answer:

1. When a particle is moving with a constant speed along a straight line, it has no acceleration.
2. When a particle is moving with a constant speed along a circular path, the velocity changes due to the change in direction. Hence it has a acceleration.
   Ex. Revolution of Earth around the Sun.

Question 5.
Distinguish distance and displacement of a moving object.
Answer:

S.No.	Distance	Displacement
1.	The actual length of the path traveled by a moving body irrespective of the direction	The change in position of a moving body in a particular direction
2.	Scalar quantity	Vector quantity

III. Answer the following Question briefly.

Question 1.
Derive the three equations of motion by graphical method.
An object is in motion with initial velocity u attains a final velocity v in time t due to acceleration a, with displacement s.
Let us try to derive these equations by graphical method. Equations of motion from velocity-time graph:

Graph shows the change in velocity with time for an uniformly accelerated object. The object starts from the point D in the graph with velocity u. Its velocity keeps increasing and after time t it reaches the point B on the graph.
The initial velocity of the object = u = OD = EA
The final velocity of the object = v = OC = EB
Time = t = OE = DA
Also from the graph we know that, AB = DC

For First equation of motion
By definition, acceleration = change in velocity / time
= (final velocity – initial velocity)/time
= (OC – OD) / OE = DC / OE
a = DC/t
DC = AB = at
From the graph EB = EA + AB
v = u + at …….(1)
This is first equation of motion.

For Second equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of quadrangle DOEB
s = area of the quad-rectangle DOEB
s = area of the rectangle DOEA + area of the triangle DAB
= (AE × OE) + (1/2 × AB × DA)
s = ut + 1/2at² ….(2)
This is second equation of motion.

For Third equation of motion
From the graph the distance covered by the object during time t is given by the area of the quadrangle DOEB. Here DOEB is a trapezium. Then
s = area of trapezium DOEB
= 1/2 × sum of length of parallel side × distance between parallel sides
= 1/2 × (OD + BE) × OE
s = 1/2 × (u + v) × t
since a = (v – u) / t or t = (v – u)/a
Therefore s = 1/2 × (v + u) × (v – u)/a
2as = v² – u²
v² = u² + 2 as ………..(3)
This is third equation of motion.

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
In a 100 m race, the winner takes 10s to reach the finishing point. The average speed of the winner is ……….. ms^{– 1}.
Answer:
(b) 10

II. Choose correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) Action and reaction forces act on same object
(b) Action and reaction forces act on different objects
Both (a) and (b) are possible
Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
Answer:
(a) is wrong
(b) is correct.

III. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
A motorcycle travelling at 20 ms^{– 1} has an acceleration of 4 ms^{– 2}. What does it explains about the velocity of the motorcycle?
Answer:

It explains that the motorcycle travels with uniform velocity.

Question 2.
Complete the following sentences.
(a) The acceleration of the body that moves with a uniform velocity will be …………….. .
Answer:
constant

(b) A train travels from A to station B with a velocity of 100 km/h and returns from station B to station A with a velocity of 80 km/h. Its average velocity during the whole journey in ……………. and its average speed is ……………… .
Answer:
zero, 90 km/h

Question 3.
Distinguish speed and velocity.
Answer:

S.No.	Speed	Velocity
1.	The rate of change of distance	The rate of change of displacement
2.	Scalar quantity	Vector quantity
3.	Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { time taken }}\)	Velocity = \(\frac{\text { Displacement }}{\text { time taken }}\)

Question 4.
What is meant by negative acceleration?
Answer:
If v < u, i.e. if final velocity is less than initial velocity, the velocity decreases with time and the value of acceleration is negative. It is called negative acceleration. It is also called as retardation (or) deceleration.

IV. Answer the following Question.

Question 1.
A boy moves along the path ABCD. What is the total distance covered by the boy? What is his net displacement?
(a) Total distance covered by a boy = 110 m
(b) Net displacement = \(\sqrt{30^{2}+40^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{2500}\)
= 50 m

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Textual Exercise

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
(a) police officers
(b) firefighters
(c) Insurance agents
(d) emergency medical technicians
Answer:
(c) Insurance agents

Question 2.
‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for …….
(a) Fire
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Riot
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 3.
When you happen to see fire break out you will make a call to ……
(a) 114
(b) 112
(c) 115
(d) 118
Answer:
(b) 112

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is untrue?
(a) ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire.
(b) ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake.
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
Answer:
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
(a) Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast.
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
Answer:
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.

II. Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
Answer:
On a daily basis, police officers, firefighters, and emergency medical technicians are our community’s first responders, whether during fire, flood or acts of terrorism.

Question 2.
What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery.

Question 3.
Though Japan has the densest seismic network Indonesia has the most earthquakes. Why?
Answer:
Japan is in a very active seismic area and it has the densest seismic network in the world.
Indonesia is in a very active seismic zone, but because it is larger than Japan, it has more earthquakes.

Question 4.
How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?
Answer:
It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

Question 5.
What should you do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Tsunami.
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700-800 km per hour, with waves 10-30 meter high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

Question 2.
What do you do if you are indoors during an earthquake?
Answer:
If indoors-

1. DROP to the ground; take COVER by getting under a sturdy table or other piece of furniture and HOLD ON until the shaking stops. If there is no table or desk near you, cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
2. Protect yourself by staying under the lintel of an inner door, in the comer of a room, under a table or even under a bed.
3. Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls and anything that could fall (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
4. Stay inside until the shaking stops and afterwards it is safe to go outside.

Question 3.
How do you respond to Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should find out if your home, school, workplace or other frequently visited locations are in tsunami hazard areas along the sea-shore.
2. Plan evacuation routes from your home, school, workplace, or any other place you could be, where tsunamis poses a risk.
3. Use a weather radio or stay tuned to a local radio or television station to keep informed of local watches and warnings.
4. Discuss tsunamis with your family. Everyone should be aware of what to do when tsunami strikes. Discussing tsunamis ahead of time will help reduce fear and save precious time in an emergency. Review flood safety and precautionary measures with your family.

Question 4.
What should you do if you are trapped in a car during a civil unrest?
Answer:
If trapped in a car;

1. Keep abreast of the current news if you are in a volatile area.
2. If you come across a demonstration, don’t become inquisitive, just leave the area and find another route to your intended destination.
3. Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.

Question 5.
Write three sentences about what to do during fire.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

1. Know your building’s evacuation plan.
2. Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
3. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.

HOTs

Question 1.
Why should you cut off all the branches of trees below 3 metres of height standing near your house?
Answer:

1. Old and overgrown branches might fall and injure people.
2. They may cause damage to electricity and telephone lines, houses, cars and other belongings.
3. Broken branches and leaves may create gutter.
4. Large root systems can cause damage to the foundation of your house.
5. Constant shade from the Sun will cause dampness on the roof.

To prevent all these problems you should trim and prune all trees and vegetation within 3 metres height standing near your house.

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is measured using seismograph.
(a) Earthquake
(b) heat
(c) Pressure
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Earthquake

Question 2.
This country is in a very active seismic area.
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 3.
…….. tops in riot in the world.
(a) India
(b) Iraq
(c) Nigeria
(d) Syria
Answer:
(d) Syria

Question 4.
Tsunamis can travel 700-800 kms per hour with waves …….. metres high.
(a) 10 – 30
(b) 10 – 40
(c) 10 – 60
(d) 10 – 50
Answer:
(a) 10 – 30

Question 5.
This is not the cause for fire.
(a) Lightning strikes
(b) Sparks during arid conditions
(c) The eruptions of volcanoes
(d) Ocean waves
Answer:
(d) Ocean waves

II. Very short answers:

Question 1.
What does Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Disaster Management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery.

Question 2.
What does Modern Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Earth Quake”.
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden vibration of the part of the earth caused by plate movements. It occurs along the plate boundaries. The place inside the earth where an earthquake originates is focus. The point on the earth’s surface above the called a focus is called an epicentre. The damage caused by the earthquake is the highest near the epicentre.

Question 4.
If you are in a vehicle, what will you do during an earthquake? If in a moving vehicle
Answer:

1. Stop as quickly as safety permits. Avoid stopping near or under buildings, trees, overpasses and utility wires.
2. Proceed cautiously once the earthquake has stopped. Avoid roads, bridges or ramps that might have been damaged by the earthquake.

Question 5.
Give an account of Tsunami?
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700 – 800 km per hour, with waves 10 – 30 meter high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

III. Short Answers:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Disaster Response?
Answer:
Disaster response entails restoring physical facilities, rehabilitation of affected population, restoration of lost livelihoods and reconstruction efforts to restore the infrastructure lost or damaged. The Response Phase focuses primarily on emergency relief: saving lives, providing first aid, restoring damaged systems (communications and transportation), meeting the basic life requirements of those impacted by disaster (food, water and shelter) and providing mental health and spiritual support and care.

Question 2.
What to do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

Question 3.
What to do if you are caught in a riot?
Answer:

1. If you find yourself caught up in a demonstration, keep to the edge of the crowd where it is safer. At the first opportunity, break away and seek refuge in a nearby building or find a suitable doorway or alley and stay there until the crowd passes.
2. When leaving the fringe of the demonstration, just walk away – don’t run as this will draw attention to you.
3. In the event that you are arrested by the police/military, do not resist. Go along peacefully and contact your law advisor to help you resolve your predicament.
4. If you are caught up in the crowd, stay clear of glass shop fronts, moreover, move with the flow.
5. If shooting breaks out, drop to the ground and cover your head and neck, and lie as flat as you can.

Question 4.
Write aboutthe Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

1. Know your building’s evacuation plan.
2. Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
3. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.
4. If you encounter smoke during your evacuation, stay low to the floor.
5. Know the outside rally point for your building.
6. Know the locations of fire extinguishers, fire alarm pull stations and exits.

IV. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Disaster Management cycle with Diagram.
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery. Disaster management involves all levels of government. Non-governmental and community based organizations play a vital role in the process.

Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields. Crisis management is important, but is only a part of the responsibility of a disaster manager.

The traditional approach to disaster management has a number of phased sequences of action or a continuum. These can be represented as a disaster management cycle. We mainly focus on the way how the community should respond to disasters.

Question 2.
Explain “Fire”.
Answer:
Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods. They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush and deserts, and with blowing wind, can spread rapidly.
Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.

The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, eruption of volcanoes and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.

A side-effect of wildfires which also threatens inhabited areas is smoke. Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

On an average, in India, every year, about 25,000 persons die due to fires and related causes. Female accounts for about 66% of those killed in fire accidents. It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 11 Colonialism in Asia and Africa

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. was brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(a) Spice islands
(b) Java island
(c) Penang island
(d) Malacca
Answer:
(c) Penang island

Question 2.
In 1896 ………….. states were formed into the Federated Malay States.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 3.
…………… was the only part of Indo-China which was directly under French Control.
(a) Annam
(b) Tong king
(c) Cambodia
(d) Cochin-China
Answer:
(d) Cochin-China

Question 4.
The Discovery of gold in the ………….. led to a large number of British miners settled in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Transvaal
(b) Orange Free State
(c) Cape Colony
(d) Rhodesia
Answer:
(a) Transvaal

Question 5.
…………… became the first European power to establish trade with India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) French
(c) Danes
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Question 6.
Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………………
(a) Adowa
(b) Dahomey
(c) Tonking
(d) Transvaal
Answer:
(a) Adowa

Question 7.
Indentured labour system was a form of …………….
(a) contract labour system
(b) slavery
(c) debt bondage
(d) serfdom
Answer:
(c) debt bondage

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. Conference resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European Powers.
2. Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………….. in 1896.
3. The settlement made with the zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is ……………
4. …………… was the author of a book called “Notebook from Prison”.
5. …………. were money lenders in the Tamil speaking areas.
Answers:
1. Berlin Colonial
2. Adowa
3. the Permanent Settlement
4. Antonio Gramsci
5. Nattukottai Chettiyars

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Until the last quarter of the 19th century, Africa south of Sahara was unknown to the world.
(ii) The coastal states of Gold Coast became a British colony in 1864.
(iii) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 500 years.
(iv) The famine of 1876-78 occurred in Odhisha.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 2.
(i) The French had occupied Java and Sumatra in 1640.
(ii) The Dutch began their conquest of the English Settlements by capturing Malacca.
(iii) Berlin Conference met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin.
(iv) The possessions of Sultan of Zanzibar were divided into French and German spheres of influence.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (i) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): (A) In the Madras Presidency, the famine of 1876-78 was preceded by droughts.
Reason (R): Because of the colonial government’s policy of Laissez Faire in the trade of food- grains.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Berlin Conference agreed to the rule of Leopold II in Congo Free State.
Reason (R): Leopold II, King of Belgium, showed interest in Congo.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer all questions given under each heading

Question 1.
Colonialism in India
(i) When did the East India Company acquire the Diwani Right?
Answer:
The Company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.

(ii) When were the Gurkhas conquered by the British?
Answer:
The British conquered the Gurkhas in 1816.

(iii) When was slavery abolished in British India?
Answer:
Slavery was abolished in India in 1843.

(iv) When did Burma become a part of the Madras Presidency?
Answer:
There was British rule in Burma from 1824 to 1948.

Question 2.
South Africa
(i) Name the states possessed by the British in South Africa.
Answer:
The British possessed Natal, Cape Colony of South Africa.

(ii) What were the territories held by the Dutch?
Answer:
The Dutch held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State.

(iii) Who was the Prime Minister of Cape colony?
Answer:
Cecil Rhodes was the Prime Minister of Cape Colony..

(iv) How long did Boer Wars last?
Answer:
Boer War lasted for three years from 1899 to 1902.

VI. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Distinguish between Colonialism and Imperialism.
Answer:

Colonialism	Imperialism
Colonialism is a process of domination, involving’the subjugation of one people by another.	Imperialism, on the other hand, draws attention to the way one country exercises power over another, whether through settlement, sovereignty, or indirect mechanisms of control.

Question 2.
Write a note on Zulu tribe.
Answer:
The Zulu tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, represented by renowned warriors like Shaka Zulu who played a prominent role in building the largest Zulu nation in south-eastern Africa.

Question 3.
State the three phases in the colonialisation of Indian economy.
Answer:
The process of the colonialisation of India can be divided into three phases:
(a) Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism
(b) Phase II Industrial Capitalism
(c) Phase III Financial Capitalism

Question 4.
Colonel Pennycuiek.
Answer:
Colonel Pennycuiek was an army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar river draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river.

Question 5.
Explain Home Charges.
Answer:
The East India Company remitted to England what was called Home Charges – the dividends on East India’s stock, interest on debt, savings from salaries and the pensions of officers and establishments and buildings in the India Office, London, transporting cost of British troops to and from India.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the economic impact of British Rule in India.
Answer:
Governor General Cornwallis, himself a big landlord in England, wanted to create landlords in India on the English model. There were already revenue farmers under the Mughals. Cornwallis came to a settlement with them, treating them as landlords. The outcome was that for the first time in India there was a class of zamindars or landlords with a right to own, bequeath and inherit land. The cultivators, on the other hand, were reduced to the position of mere tenants. The British dealt with the landlords or zamindars directly, and gave them total freedom to do what they liked with their tenants. This settlement made with the zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is called the Permanent Settlement (1793). The Ryotwari System was a different revenue system introduced in south India.

Under the system, the peasant was the proprietor and paid tax on the land. The government dealt with him directly, without the intervention of a middleman or a tax-farmer. He was entitled to remain in possession of land acquired by him so long as he paid the land revenue. In case of default, apart from eviction and attachment of livestock, even household property or .personal belongings could be attached. The Ryotwari System introduced the concept of private property in land. The individual holders were registered and permitted to sell, lease out, mortgageor transfer their right over the land.

Question 2.
Explain the process of colonisation in Africa.
Answer:
Until the last quarter of nineteenth century, Africa south of the Sahara (Sub- Saharan Africa) was almost unknown to the outside world. The interior of Africa was unexplored. After 1875, European penetration and colonisation began on a large scale. The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European powers. European colonisation of Africa was thus accomplished smoothly, without any outbreak of war amongst major European powers. The invasion, occupation, colonisation and annexation of African territories by European powers between 1881 and 1914, the era of Imperialism, is called the Scramble for Africa or the Partition of Africa.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Prepare an album with pictures and images of famines that affected different parts of India during the British colonial rule.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Attempt an account of the cultural relations between India and Southeast Asia.
Answer:
(i) Southeast Asia was under Indian influence starting around 200 BC until around the 15th century, when Hindu-Buddhist influence was absorbed by local politics.

(ii) Kingdoms in the southeast coast of the Indian subcontinent had established trade, cultural and Political relations with Southeast Asian Kingdoms in Burma, Thailand, Indonesia, Malay Peninsula, Cambodia and Vietnam.

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the merits and demerits of the British rule in India.
Answer:
The merits of British Rule in India
In the cause of humanity:

1. Abolition of Sati
2. Destruction of Dacoits, Thugs and infanticide
3. Elimination of Pindarees and other such pests of Indian Society
4. Allowing remarriage of Hindu widows and Charitable aid in the time of famine

Demerits of British Rule in India

1. Divide and Rule Policy
2. Exploitation of resources
3. Impalement of Tax Structure
4. Loss of lives

Question 2.
Explore the impact of colonialism in British Burma.
Answer:
British rule in Burma, also known as British Burma lasted from 1824 to 1948 from the Anglo Burmese wars through the creation of Burma as province of British India to the establishment of an independently administered colony and finally independence.

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term colony comes from the ………….. word colonus, meaning farmer.
(a) Latin
(b) Roman
(c) Arabic
(d) Greek
Answer:
(a) Latin

Question 2.
………….. area in South East Asia was independent.
(a) Burma
(b) Siam (Thailand)
(c) Malaya
(d) Phillipines
Answer:
(b) Siam (Thailand)

Question 3.
The Portuguese conquered the great international emporium of …………. for the king of Portugal.
(a) Dutch East Indies
(b) French Indo-China
(c) Malacca
(d) Phillipines
Answer:
(c) Malacca

Question 4.
The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in …………….
(a) 1941
(b) 1641
(c) 1741
(d) 1841
Answer:
(b) 1641

Question 5.
In 1819 …………… established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch.
(a) Albuquerque
(b) Rudyard Kipling
(c) Stamford Raffles
(d) Cecil Rhodes
Answer:
(c) Stamford Raffles

Question 6.
The …………… had occupied Java and Sumatra (Indonesia) as early as 1640.
(a) The Dutch
(b) The English
(c) The French
(d) The Spanish
Answer:
(a) The Dutch

Question 7.
During World War II …………….. fell to the Japanese.
(a) Malaya
(b) Thailand
(c) Burma
(d) Phillipines
Answer:
(c) Burma

Question 8.
The ………….. troops invaded Zulu territory and divided it into thirteen chiefdoms
(a) The French
(b) The Japanese
(c) The British
(d) The Dutch
Answer:
(c) The British

Question 9.
This country in Africa managed to evade European Colonialism ……………
(a) Nigeria
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Uganda
(d) Kenya.
Answer:
(b) Ethiopia

Question 10.
The Mullai Periyar Dam Construction was completed in 1895 by an army Engineer and civil servant …………..
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Arthur Cotton
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Governor General Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The term “South East Asia” has only been used since the …………
2. By 1826 …………… and had been linked with Penang to form the Strait Settlements.
3. ………….. was the capital of Indo-China under the French Government.
4. Spain ruled the Phillipines for over ……………. years.
5. Most Indonesians were ………….. and …………… and worked in plantations.
6. In 1890 ………… the Prime Minister of Cape Colony encouraged British expansion to the North of the Transvaal.
7. The ………….. tribe was known for its string fighting spirit, in South-eastern Africa.
8. …………….. was used for slave trading posts on the coast.
9. Ethiopia, with its traditional polity, was ruled by the ……………..
10. The Portuguese Sailor …………… arrived in Calicut in 1498.
Answers:
1. Second World War
2. Singapore, Malacca
3. Hanoi
4. 300
5. Fishermen, Peasants
6. Cecil Rhodes
7. Zulu
8. Nigeria
9. Emperor Menelik
10. Vasco da Gama

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) When European traders crossed the Indian Ocean at the close of the 15th century, they came for the spices of south-east Asia.
(ii) Penang Island had been brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(iii) The Dutch were interested in politics but focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.
(iv) Spain ruled the Phillipines for over 200 years.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The interior of Africa was unexplored.
(ii) The coastal states of Gold coast became a British colony in 1854.
(iii) Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world.
(iv) The British encouraged irrigation in the first half of nineteenth century.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in 1641.
Reason (R): After establishing a base at Batavia in 1619, they interfered in succession disputes among the neighbouring Sultans.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Money lending had been practised since time immemorial. Earlier the lenders lent at their own risk.
Reason (R): But the British enacted a law allowing them to attach land or property in default of repayment.
(a) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R is correct and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong .
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Colonialism in Indonesia
(a) Who had occupied Java and Sumatra?
Answer:
The Dutch had occupied Java and Sumatra.

(b) Were the Dutch interested in politics?
Answer:
No, they weren’t interested in politics.

(c) What was the focus of the Dutch on Indonesia?
Answer:
They focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.

(d) How did they improve Indonesia from the beginning of 19th century?
Answer:
They adopted measures for the social and economic advancement of the people

Question 2.
Indentured Labour
(a) What was Indentured labour system?
Answer:
It was a form of debt bondage, a penal contract system.

(b) How many Indians were transported under this system?
Answer:
3.5 million Indians were transported to various British colonies to provide labour for the plantations.

(c) In which year was it started?
Answer:
It was started in 1843.

(d) What was its result?
Answer:
It resulted in the development of a large Indian diaspora, which spread from the Indian Ocean to Pacific Ocean, as well as contributing to the growth of Indo-Caribbean and Indo-African population.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did Europe justify their colonisation?
Answer:
In world history, no continent possessed so many colonies and justified their access to the world by means of a civilising mission as did modem Europe. Practically the whole non- Westem world was under one European power or the other for about four centuries until decolonisation happened after World War II.

Question 2.
Comment on Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier.
Answer:
Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier who conquered Goa and Malacca, and his successors’ were interested in the spice trade. Towards this end they built a chain of fortified trading stations linked by naval power. Initially, they did not interfere with the native rulers.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Malay Settlements”.
Answer:
Between 1874 and 1895 there was a civil war between the remaining five Malay States. The British intervened and signed an agreement with each of the sultans. British Residents were appointed to the courts of sultans, who had to act in accordance with the advice given by the Residents. In 1896 four of the states were formed into the Federated Malay States. In 1900 there were the Straits Settlements, the four Federated Malay States and Johore. The population was about a million, of whom, half were Malay and the remainder were Chinese. Most of the merchants, planters and workers in the ports and big plantations were Chinese. Economically Malaya was prosperous.

Question 4.
Give a short account of Burma.
Answer:
The British conquered Burma after fighting three wars. Burma remained part of India from 1886 to 1937. Burma was administered by a Lieutenant Governor with the assistance of a nominated Legislative Council. Burma teak was shipped overseas. In addition, Burma with its rich soil became a big exporter of rice and most of south India was dependent on Burmese rice. During World War II when Burma fell to the Japanese, south India experienced acute scarcity of rice leading to a famine.

Question 5.
Who ruled the Phillippines?
Answer:
Spain ruled the Philippines for over 300 years, imposing its language, culture and religion. Consequently the population became predominantly Roman Catholic. Nationalism developed among the Filipinos during the latter part of the nineteenth century. There were two serious revolts in 1872 and 1896, which were crushed by the Spanish colonial government. In 1898, however, Spain was defeated by the United States in a war over Cuba, and as a result Philippines became an American colony.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Congo River basin?
Answer:
The Berlin Conference of 1884 – 85, also known as the Congo Conference or West Africa Conference, met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin in Central Africa. The conference proposed by Portugal to discuss its claim to control the Congo river basin was rejected. The general act of the Conference of Berlin declared the Congo River basin to be neutral and guaranteed freedom for trade and shipping for all states in the basin.

Question 7.
How did the Europeans colonise Rhodesia?
Answer:
The British South African Company founded in 1889 conducted an expedition with 600 men- each of them were promised a 3,000 acre farm. The African king was tricked into believing that all that the Europeans wanted was gold. But they had come with a definite plan of colonising the Bechuanaland. During the next ten years African opposition was crushed. White immigrants were provided with farm lands and railways, and a telegraph system developed. The colony came to be called Rhodesia, after Cecil Rhodes.

Question 8.
How did the British emerge as a territorial power in India?
Answer:
The British conquered all the regional powers, in particular the most potential challengers, the Mysore Sultans and the Marathas, by defeating, them in three Anglo-Mysore and three Anglo- Maratha Wars. The conquest of the Gurkhas (1816), the Sindhis (1843) and the Sikhs (1849) enabled them to emerge as a territorial power in India. .

Question 9.
What does Mercantalism refer to?
Answer:
Mercantilism refers to a number of prevailing economic theories applied by the state in its effort to attain wealth and power. Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world. Spain’s power and wealth were found in the treasure pouring into Spain from its colonies. The more colonies a country had, the richer it would be. In sum, European countries pursued Mercantilism as a kind of national economic policy designed to maximize their trade, especially to maximize the accumulation of gold and silver.

Question 10.
What do you mean by “The Indenture system”?
Answer:
The Indenture system was a penal contract system. The contract made punishable the refusal of an indentured labourer to work or his abstention from work, or his defiance of the orders of his master or absconding, by forfeiture of wages or imprisonment with or without hard labour.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
How did the British colonise South Africa? Explain the Boer War.
Answer:
In South Africa the British possessed Natal, Cape Colony, while the Dutch (locally known as the Boers) held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State. In 1886 the discovery of gold in the Transvaal led to a large number of British miners settling in and around Johannesburg. The Boers feared and hated the miners whom they called Uitlanders (foreigners). In 1890, Cecil Rhodes, the Prime Minister of Cape Colony, encouraged British expansion to the north of the Transvaal. This worsened the relations between the Boers and the British. Denied of their political rights the British miners revolted. This led to the Boer War which lasted three years (1899-1902).

In the end the Boer army was defeated and Pretoria was occupied. The Boers suffered greatly in the war. Their farms and crops were destroyed and Boer women and children were confined to internment camps. The shortage of food, beds, medical and sanitary facilities caused the death of 26,000 people. The British annexed the two Boer states but promised self government in due course. Boer states were given full responsible government in 1907. After discussions over the years the four states finally decided to form a.union and South Africa as a state was bom in 1909.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Famine in British India
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
Colonel Pennycuick was an army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar river draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river. Though Pennycuick and other British engineers went ahead with the construction, braving nature’s fury and the dangers of poisonous insects and wild animals, the constmction was disrupted by relentless rain. Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, Pennycuick went to England and sold his family property to mobilise money to fund the project, which was completed in 1895. The Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga and Ramanathapuram districts.

(b) Famine in British India.
The Bengal famine of 1770, took a heavy toll of about 10 million people or nearly one- third of the population in Bengal. This is how British mle commenced in India. Similarly the British mle ended with a terrible Bengal famine of 1943 that claimed the lives of nearly three millions. Amartya Sen, awarded the Nobel Prize in 1998, who as a young boy saw people dying on the streets of Kolkata wrote a path-breaking study of it.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Road Safety

Road Safety In-Text Exercise

I. Look at the diagram given and answer the following.

Question 1.
Which road use category causes the highest number of deaths? Could you give any three possible reasons? What would you suggest as the related safety rules?
Answer:

1. Two-wheelers, Cars, Taxis, Vans & LMV’s and Trucks.
2. Carelessness, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side.
3. Insufficient headlights.

Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design
   • Road infrastructure

Question 2.
How could pedestrians save themselves from road accidents?
Answer:

1. Never use cell phones while crossing the roads.
2. Follow the road rules.
3. See both sides while crossing.
4. Never take short cuts.
5. Avoid distractions.

II. Look at the diagram carefully and answer the following.

Source: WHO Global Burden of Disease Project, Version 1 (2002)

Question 1.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide? Why?
Answer:
Age group 15-29 tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide. This is due to carelessly projecting their body parts outside vehicles, travelling on footboards, and catching a running bus or train.

Question 2.
Give some inference on the striking difference between the number of road accident deaths of males and females.
Answer:

1. The number of road accident deaths of females are less compared to males.
2. The reasons are: they follow road rules, they are cautious and responsible.

Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is the main cause of death in roads.
(a) Drink and drive
(b) Use of helmet
(c) Vehicle design
(d) Road conditions
Answer:
(a) Drink and drive

Question 2.
Every minute a child is killed in an accident worldwide.
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 3.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths world wide?
(a) 60+
(b) 15 – 29
(c) 30 – 44
(d) 45 – 59
Answer:
(b) 15 – 29

Question 4.
Road accidents are the leading cause of
(a) sales of helmet
(b) increased traffic signals
(c) more number of speed breakers
(d) death by injury
Answer:
(d) death by injury

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Each year an estimate of ……. million people are killed in road crashes.
2. …….. in the pedestrians contribute to road accidents.
3. ……. and ……. are excluded from road accidents.
4. India has the worst road accident rate world wide with ……. deaths annually.
Answers:
1. 1.2
2. Carelessness
3. Internationa acts, natural disasters
4. 1,30,000

III. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write short notes on ‘road accidents’.
Answer:
Road accident refers to any accident involving at least a vehicle, occurring on a road open to public transport, and in which at least one person is injured or killed. Intentional acts (murder, suicide) and natural disasters are excluded from road accidents.

Road accidents are the leading cause of death by injury and the tenth-leading cause of all deaths globally. An estimated 1.2 million people are killed in road crashes each year, and as many as 50 million people are injured.

Question 2.
Mention the different factors that contribute to road accidents.
Answer:
Drivers: Over-speeding, rash driving, violation of rules, failure to understand signs, fatigue, alcohol
Pedestrians: Carelessness, illiteracy, crossing at wrong places, jaywalkers Passengers: Projecting their body parts outside vehicles, talking to drivers, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side, travelling on footboards, catching a running bus etc.
Vehicles: Failure of brakes or steering, tyre burst, insufficient headlights, overloading Road Conditions: Potholes, damaged roads, eroded roads merging of rural roads with highways and illegal speed breakers.
Weather conditions: Fog, snow, heavy rainfall, wind storms, hail storms.

Question 3.
Which are the top 10 cities of India contributing to maximum road accidents?
Answer:
The top ten cities are: Chennai, Delhi, Bangaluru, Indore, Kolkata, Bhopal, Mumbai, Jabalpur, Jaipur and Hyderabad.

Question 4.
What are the preventive measures for accidents?
Answer:
Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design,
   • Road infrastructure

Question 5.
State the rules to Ensure safety for children.
Answer:
It is important for children to know about road safety rules and regulations. Here are a few basic road safety rules for children:

1. Know Your Signals
2. Stop, Look and Cross
3. Pay Attention – Listen
4. Don’t Run On Roads
5. Always Use Sidewalks
6. Never Stick Hands outside the Vehicle
7. Never Cross Road at Bends
8. Don’t Rush.

Question 6.
What are the direct consequences of accidents?
Answer:
Direct Consequences of Accidents are:

1. Fatality (Death)
2. Injury
3. Damage to Property

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 10 Industrial Revolution

Industrial Revolution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who established the first steamboat service?
(a) Arkwright
(b) Samuel Crompton
(c) Robert Fulton
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(c) Robert Fulton

Question 2.
Why was Manchester considered ideal for textile production?
(a) availability of land
(b) rich human resources
(c) better living condition
(d) cool climate
Answer:
(d) cool climate

Question 3.
Who invented the sewing machine?
(a) Elias Howe
(b) Eli-Whitney
(c) Samuel Crompton
(d) Humphrey Davy
Answer:
(a) Elias Howe

Question 4.
Which family introduced steam engine in France?
(a) de Wendel
(b) de Hindal
(c) de Arman
(d) de Renault
Answer:
(a) de Wendel

Question 5.
Who called Slater, the father of American Industrial Revolution? .
(a) F.D. Roosevelt
(b) Andrew Jackson
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(b) Andrew Jackson

Question 6.
Which of the following is observed to commemorate the Hay Market Massacre?
(a) Independence Day
(b) Farmers Day
(c) Labour Day
(d) Martyrs Day
Answer:
(c) Labour Day

Question 7.
Where was Zollverein Customs Union formed?
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) America
Answer:
(b) Germany

Question 8.
Who produced the first batch of automobiles in France?
(a) Louis Renault
(b) Armand Peugeot
(c) Thomas Alva Edison
(d) McAdam
Answer:
(b) Armand Peugeot

Question 9.
What was the invention that removed seeds from cotton?
(a) Rolling Mill
(b) Cotton Gin
(c) Spinning Mule
(d) Spinning Jenny
Answer:
(b) Cotton Gin

Question 10.
Which of the following was used as fuel in olden days to smelt iron?
(a) Coke
(b) Charcoal
(c) Firewood
(d) Paper
Answer:
(b) Charcoal

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. called for voting rights to men in England.
2. …………… changed the way roads were built around the world.
3. ………….. discovered a faster and cheaper method of production of steel.
4. …………. advocated scientific socialism.
5. The first railroad line started in Germany was in the year ………….
Answers:
1. The Chartist
2. John Loudon McAdam
3. Henry Bessemer
4. Karl Marx
5. 1835

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) British mine owners were faced with the problem of water seeping into their mines
(ii) Employing human labour was cheap for this work
(iii) Newton invented a steam engine to pump water out of mines
(iv) Water had to be removed to get coal in mines
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Trade Unions were formed by labourers to get their rights
(ii) Germany’s political setup was the most significant challenge for the industrial revolution
(iii) To protect capitalists Karl Marx advocated socialism
(iv) There were no natural resources in Germany.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Workers had rights to get holidays.
Reason (R): There were laws to protect the workers.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is not correct explanation of A
Answer:
(b) Both A & R are wrong

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Slater was called the Father of the American Industrial Revolution.
Reason (R): His spinning textile mill was duplicated and his techniques became popular.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both. A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Labour Movement
(a) Which Act prohibited the formation of associations of workers?
Answer:
Combination Laws of 1799 prohibited the formation of associations of workers.

(b) Name the Bill which granted voting rights to propertied middle class?
Answer:
The Reform Bill of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.

(c) When were the Combination Laws repealed?
Answer:
The Combination Laws were repealed in 1824.

(d) What were the demands of the Chartists?
Answer:
The Chartists called for voting rights to every man over twenty-one years of age, secret ballot (voting), abolition of property qualification for members of the parliament, annual parliamentary elections and equal representation.

Question 2.
Transportation and Communication
(a) Which was the first railway line opened in England?
Answer:
The first railway line in England was opened between Stockton and Darlington in 1825.

(b) How were the produced goods transported to markets?
Answer:
The goods were transported through new networks of canals, roads and railroads.

(c) How was the steamboat invented in the US called?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807.

(d) Who sailed from New York to Albany?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807 that sailed from New York to Albany.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What was the condition of labourers houses during Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to, leading to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

Question 2.
Account for urbanisation in England.
Answer:
With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world. This resulted in the flow of population from villages to industrial towns. Population growth, migration and urbanisation were the major social changes taking place during this period. In pre-industrial society, over 80% of people lived in rural areas. As the migration from the countryside began to intensify, small towns became large cities. The city of London grew from a population of two million in 1840 to five million in forty years. –

Question 3.
Attempt a note on Haymarket Massacre.
Answer:
Haymarket Massacre
A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair 1 May 1887 is observed as the Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.

Question 4.
What do you know of Louis Renault?
Answer:
In 1898, Louis Renault built the quadricycle, from which he began to produce in large quantities under his company, the Societe Renault Freres (Company Renault Brothers).

Question 5.
Highlight any two important results of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
The invention of flying shuttle by John Kay and the inventions of Hargreaves, Arkwright and Crompton within thirty years accelerated the process of spinning and weaving. Because of loss of market for hand-woven cotton goods, India lost her old industrial position and became an exporter of raw material. Weavers who were eking out an independent livelihood were thrown out of employment because of flooding of British factory-made cheap cotton fabrics in Indian markets.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the causes for the Second Industrialization in the USA.
Answer:
A shift from manual labour-based to more technical and machine-based manufacturing industry marked the Industrial Revolution in the United States. Samuel Slater, a citizen of England, having worked at a cotton mill from age 10, had gained enough experience to operate a mill. On learning that Americans were interested in the hew techniques, Slater departed for New York in 1789 illegally. Slater offered his services to Moses Brown, a leading Rhode Island industrialist, who had earlier made an unsuccessful attempt to operate a mill.

Brown agreed and in consequence the mill became operational in 1793, being the first water-powered roller spinning textile mill in the Americas. By 1800, Slater’s mill had been duplicated by many other entrepreneurs as Slater grew wealthier and his techniques more and more popular. Andrew Jackson, the U.S. President hailed him as “Father of the American Industrial Revolution.”

The United States in the nineteenth century began to show technological innovation. Robert Fulton established the steamboat service on the Hudson River. Samuel F.B. Morse’s invention of the telegraph and Elias Howe’s invention of the sewing machine came before the Civil war (1860-1865).

After the Civil War, industrialisation went on at a frantic pace. In 1869, the first transcontinental railroad was completed to transport people, raw materials and products. There was unprecedented urbanisation and territorial expansion in the US. As a result, between 1860 and 1900, fourteen million immigrants came to the country, providing workers for a variety of industries. The invention of electric bulb by Thomas Alva Edison (1879) and telephone by Alexander Graham Bell (1885) changed the world beyond recognition.

Andrew Carnegie established the first steel mills in the U.S for mass production. He acquired business interests in the mines that produced the raw materials for steel, the mills and ovens that created the final product and the railroad and shipping lines that transported goods, thus controlling every aspect of the steelmaking process. John D. Rockefeller merged the operation of many large companies to form a trust. His Standard Oil Trust came to monopolise 90% of the industry and reduced competition. These monopolies affected the smaller companies and even threatened them.

The U.S. government supported the industrial growth by providing land for construction of railroads and protected the American industry from-foreign competition. The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of the transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society. Young people raised on farms saw greater opportunities in the cities and moved there, as did millions of immigrants from Europe. Providing housing for all the new residents of cities was a problem, and many workers found themselves living in urban slums; open sewers ran alongside the streets, and the water supply was often contaminated, causing disease.

Question 2.
What were the effects of Industrial Revolution of England on India?
Answer:
Until the middle of eighteenth century, England was an agricultural country and India was known for its excellence in manufactures as well as in agriculture. In the first quarter of eighteenth century, in the context of Indian cotton manufactures flooding in England, a law was enacted prohibiting the use of Indian calicoes and silks. The invention of flying shuttle by John Kay and the inventions of Hargreaves, Arkwright and Crompton within thirty years accelerated the process of spinning and weaving. When the British established their foothold in Bengal as a territorial power, the look from Bengal and the Carnatic provided the required capital, and helped accomplish Industrial Revolution in England.

The weavers of Bengal suffered at the hands of the Company’s officials and their agents, who first insisted on payment of a transit duty for the commodities they carried from one place to another and later for cultivation of commercial crops required for British industries in England. The English deliberately destroyed Indian industry by dumping the Indian markets with their machine- made cheap cotton piece goods. Because of loss of market for hand-woven cotton goods, India lost her old industrial position and became an exporter of raw material.

By the first quarter of nineteenth century the export of Dacca muslin to England stopped. Even the export of raw cotton from India had steadily dwindled owing to the competition from -USA. Weavers who were eking out an independent livelihood were thrown out of employment because of flooding of British factory-made cheap cotton fabrics in Indian markets.

The Collector of Madurai reported that families of about 5000 weavers did not have the means to take more than one meal of fice a day. The Collector of Tirunelveli observed that the weaving population has ‘outrun its means of. subsistence and trammels of caste prevent them from taking to other work.’ Millions died of starvation in famines. To escape starvation deaths, peasants and artisans had to move out of the country opting to working on plantations in British Empire colonies as indentured (penal contract) labourers under wretched service and living conditions.

VIII. Activity 

Question 1.
Organize a debate on the positive and negative aspects of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
Points for debate Positive Aspects:

1. It provides more job opportunities
2. More quicker and efficient production
3. Cheaper prices
4. Spectacular motivation
5. Improved quality of life
6. Urbanization

Negative Aspects:

1. Pollution
2. Unsafe
3. Dirty
4. Long working hours
5. Reduced life expectancy
6. Overpopulated cities.

Question 2.
Prepare a list of fabrics and designs and the places of production in India.
Answer:
Some of the many types of cotton fabrics are:
Broad cloth: A tightly woven lustrous cotton cloth with fine embedded cresswise ribs.
Canvas: Rugged, woven cloth made with coarse yam.
Chenille: A fuzzy cotton yam of fabric that has pile protruding around its weave, named after the French word for caterpillar.
Common types of fabric:
Silk, Cotton, Linen, Wool, Leather, Jute, Georgette, Chiffon, etc.
Top 10 textile companies in India:

1. Bombay Dyeing and Manufacturing Company Ltd. (Wadala)
2. Bombay Rayon Fashion Ltd.
3. Fab India Overseas Pvt. Ltd.
4. Grasim Industries Ltd.
5. JCT Ltd.
6. Karnataka Silk Industries
7. Raymond Ltd.
8. The Lakshmi Mills Company Ltd.
9. Vardhman Textiles
10. Arvind Mills

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of the inventions made at the time of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Write an assignment on the modern plastic road being made by used plastics.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.
Hint- The common plastics used are:
(i) polyethylene, terephthalate
(ii) polyvinyl chloride
(iii) high and low density polyethylene

Industrial Revolution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What were the new basic materials used?
(a) Iron and Steel
(b) Copper
(c) Lead
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(a) Iron and Steel

Question 2.
Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) England

Question 3.
Who invented the flying shuttle?
(a) John Kay
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) James Watt
(d) Richard Arkwright
Answer:
(a) John Kay

Question 4.
Who discovered a faster and cheaper method of producing Steel?
(a) Samuel Crompton
(b) John Kay
(c) Eli Whitney
(d) Henry Bessemer
Answer:
(d) Henry Bessemer

Question 5.
Who improved the Railway transport system in the country?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Sir Humphrey Davy
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(b) George Stephenson

Question 6.
Whose road pattern came to be adopted world over?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Henry Bessemer
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(a) John Loudon McAdam

Question 7.
Who became the workshop of the world?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) England

Question 8.
The textile capital of the world is …………….
(a) Liverpool
(b) Lancashire
(c) Manchester
(d) London
Answer:
(c) Manchester

Question 9.
Which town brought British technology of refining cast iron?
(a) Mulhouse
(b) Saint-Chamond
(c) Lorraine
(d) Paris
Answer:
(a) Mulhouse

Question 10.
Who invented the sewing machine? .
(a) Samuel F.B. Morse
(b) Thomas Alva Edison
(c) Elias Howe
(d) Alexander Graham Bell
Answer:
(c) Elias Howe

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ………….. manufacture was at the heart of the Industrial Revolution.
2. Iron and steel helped quicken the process of ……………
3. ……………. road came to be adpoted world over.
4. The first railway line in England was opened between ……………. and …………… in 1825,
5. The Industrial Revolution helped create opportunities for ……………. for all members of the family.
6. ……………. was very poor in early industrial factories and mines.
7. The …………. of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.
8. …………. had the natural resources required for an industrial revolution.
9. …………. merged the operation of many large companies to form a trust.
10. To commemorate the Hay Market Massacre …………….. is observed as labour day.
Answers:
1. Textile
2. Industrialization
3. Macadamised
4. Stockton and Darlington
5. employment
6. Safety
7. Reform Bill
8. Germany
9. John D. Rockfeller
10. 1^st May

III. (a) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

(b) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Society transformed from an agrarian economy to machine-production.
(ii) Industrial Revolution started first in England and spread to other parts of the world.
(iii) The term Industrial Revolution was popularized by the French economic historians.
(iv) There is no impact on Society and Politics by Industrial Revolution.
(a) (i) is incorrect
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) By the first quarter of 19^th century the export of Dacca muslin to England was encouraged.
(ii) India became an exporter of raw materials.
(iii) British factory-made cheap Cotton fabrics in Indian markets.
(iv) The English deliberately destroyed the Indian Industry.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world.
Reason (R): There was however a general decline in agriculture.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society.
Reason (R): Young people raised on farms saw greater opportunities in the cities and moved there as did millions of immigrants from Europe.
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Invention of Steam Power
(а) What problems did the mine owners face?
Answer:
In the 18^th century the British mine owners faced with the problem of water seeping into the mines.

(b) What did they do?
Answer:
They employed labourers to pump the water out.

(c) What did the British Engineer do at this juncture?
Answer:
The British Engineer Thomas Newcomen invented a contrive to pump the water out of mines.

(d) Was it successful?
Answer:
No, it consumed too much fuel.

Question 2.
Impact of Industrial Revolution on Labour Class
(a) What was the result of Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
It resulted in increased air and water pollution.

(b) How did it help the people?
Answer:
It helped the people by creating opportunities of employment for all the members of the family.

(c) Was there safety in the mines?
Answer:
No, safety was very poor.

(d) How was the living condition for the labour class?
Answer:
The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to, leading to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What is Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
In the latter half of the 18th Century major changes occurred in the method of production that changed the history of humankind. This profound transformation is described as the Industrial Revolution. Goods began to be produced not by hand but by machines. This increased the volume of goods produced exponentially.

Question 2.
Mention any three attributes of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:

1. Use of new basic material: iron and steel.
2. Use of new energy sources: coal, electricity, petroleum.
3. Development in transportation and communication.

Question 3.
Why did Industrial Revolution begin in England first? Give three reasons.
Answer:

1. England had abundant resources and possessed colonies, with India being “the brightest jewel in the British Crown”.
2. Access to coal, iron and raw cotton from the colonies.
3. England possessed the required infrastructure for textiles, developed by immigrant artisans from the Netherlands. ‘

Question 4.
How was Iron produced in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days iron ore was smelted in brick furnaces. Charcoal was used as fuel. The iron produced was not sturdy and strong. It had to be smelted again. Finally, coke (produced from coal) was used to produce iron. But this was a costly method.

Question 5.
How was the death of the miners reduced?
Answer:
As miners used oil lamps in the mines the risk of explosion was high leading to the death of miners. This was reduced by the invention of a safety lamp by Sir Humphrey Davy in 1815.

Question 6.
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. Comment.
Answer:
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. As production increased raw materials had to be brought from afar to the factories. After the goods were produced they had to be transported to the markets. As a result new networks of canals, roads and railroads were built. Macadamised roads and George Stephenson’s steam locomotive helped to improve road and railway transport system in the country.

Question 7.
What were the effects of Industrial Revolution in England in general?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution led to the expansion of trade, the production of more food, emergence of factory workers as a new class. The rise and growth of cities resulting in rapid urbanisation and organised workingclass movements, seeking voting rights and regulation of their service conditions brought about a new dynamics in politics.

Question 8.
Mention the socio-economic consequences of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
While the peasants were pauperized and the working class suffered, the middle class became wealthy by investing capital in trade and industry. The governments of the day were influenced by them. All legislations safeguarded their interests. Labourers were not permitted to form trade unions. It was under these circumstances that Socialism as a new ideology was bom in Europe Karl Marx advocated scientific socialism for the protection of the working class from the exploitative policies of the capitalist class. By the latter half of the nineteenth century there were strong working class movements all over western. Europe which demanded economic as well as political rights.

Question 9.
Give an account of the entry of Industrial Revolution in France.
Answer:
France did not possess as much natural resources as England. The political instability caused by the French Revolution and the prolonged Napoleonic Wars wrecked the country. Many of those French businessmen who had sought refuge in Britain during the Revolution, on their return to France after Napoleonic Wars, used British technology. This helped to accomplish industrial revolution in their country.

Question 10.
Highlight the Industrial Revolution in Germany.
Answer:
Germany surpassed the home of the industrial revolution, Great Britain, and proved a competitor to the United States. In electrics, Germany offered companies like Siemens. In chemicals, Germany excelled in the production of potassium salt, dyes, pharmaceutical products, and synthetics. Companies like Bayer and Hoechst led the chemical industry of Germany. Germany became a leader in the automobile industry. Daimler and Benz became the most popular brands of automobiles in Germany and the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the working class strikes with special reference to Hay Market Massacre.
Answer:
The difficult working conditions in the factories, long hours of work, low wages, exploitation of women and children contributed to the growth of labour unions. After the Civil War, workers organized strikes. One major strike was the Great Railroad Strike of 1877. Wage cuts in the railroad industry, in the context of a prolonged economic depression, led to the strike, which began in West Virginia and spread to three additional states over a period of 45 days before being crushed by a combination of vigilantes, National Guardsmen, and Federal Army.

Haymarket Massacre
A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight-hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair 1 May 1887 is observed as the Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.