Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
The number of electrons that have a total charge of 9650 coulombs is ………..
(a) 6.22 x 1023
(b) 6.022 x 1024
(c) 6.022 x 1022
(d) 6.022 x 10-34
Answer:
(c) 6.022 x 1022
Hint: IF = 96500 C = 1 mole of e = 6.023 x 1023 e
9650 C = \(\frac{6.22 \times 10^{23}}{96500} \times 9650\) = 6.022 x 1022

Question 2.
Consider the following half cell reactions:
Mn2+ + 2e → Mn E° = – 1.18V
Mn2+ → Mn3+ + e E = – 1.51V
The E for the reaction 3Mn2+ → Mn+2Mn3+, and the possibility of the forward reaction are respectively.
(a) 2.69V and spontaneous
(b) – 2.69 and non spontaneous
(c) 0.33V and Spontaneous
(d) 4.18V and non spontaneous
Answer:
(b) – 2.69 and non spontaneous
Hint: Mn+ + 2e → Mn(E0red) = 1.18V
2[Mn2+ → Mn3+ + e] (E0ox) = – 1.51V
3Mn2++ → Mn3+ + 2Mn3+ + (E0cell) = ?
E0red = (E0ox) + (E0cell)
= – 1.51 – 1.18 and non spontaneous
= – 2.69 V
Since E° is – ve ∆G is +ve and the given forward cell reaction is non – spontaneous.

Question 3.
The button cell used in watches function as follows
Zn(s) + Ag2O(s) + H2O(1) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2Ag(s) + Zn2+(aq) + 2OH(aq) the half cell potentials are
Ag2O(s) + H2O(1) + 2e →2Ag(S) + 2OH(aq) E° = 034V. The cell potential will be
(a) 0.84V
(b) 1.34V
(c) 1.10V
(d) 0.42V
Answer:
(c) 1.10V
Hint: Anodic oxidation: (Reverse the given reaction)
(E0ox ) = 0.76V cathodic reduction
E0cell = (E0ox) + (E0red) = 0.76 + 0.34 = 1.1V

Question 4.
The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol dm-3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 x 10-3S cm-1at 298 K is ………….
(a) 2.88 S cm2 mo1-1
(b) 11.52 S cm2 mol-1
(c) 0.086 S cm2 mol-1
(d) 28.8 S cm2 mol-1
Answer:
(b) 11.52 S cm2 mol-1
Hint:
A = \(\frac { k }{ M }\) x 10-3 mol-1 m3
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-2
= 11.52 S cm2 mol-1

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-3
Calculate A0HOAC using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution in water at 25°C.
(a) 517.2
(b) 552.7
(c) 390.7
(d) 217.5
Answer:
(c) 390.7
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-4
(426.2 + 91) – (126.5) = 390.7

Question 6.
Faradays constant is defined as
(a) charge carried by I electron
(b) charge carried by one mole of electrons
(c) charge required to deposit one mole of substance
(d) charge carried by 6.22 X 1010 electrons
Answer:
(b) charge carried by one mole of electrons
Hint:
IF = 96500 C = 1 charge of mole of e = charge of 6.022 x 1023 e

Question 7.
How many faradays of electricity are required for the following reaction to occur
MnO4 → Mn2+
(a) 5F
(b) 3F
(C) IF
(d) 7F
Answer:
(a) 5F
Hint:
7MnO4 + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O
5 moles of electrons i.e., 5F charge is required.

Question 8.
A current strength of 3.86 A was passed through molten Calcium oxide for 41 minutes and 40 seconds. The mass of Calcium in grams deposited at the cathode is (atomic mass of Ca is 40g / mol and IF = 96500C).
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 2
Hint: m = ZIt
41mm 40sec = 2500 seconds
= \(\frac { 40 x 3.86 x 2500 }{ 2 x 96500 }\)
Z = \(\frac { m }{ n x 96500 }\) = \(\frac { 40 }{ 2 x 96500 }\)
= 2g

Question 9.
During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.1 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3A is ………..
(a) 55 minutes
(b) 107.2 minutes
(c) 220 minutes
(d) 330 minutes
Answer:
(b) 107.2 minutes
Hint: \(\frac { m }{ ZI }\) (mass of 1 mole of Cl2 gas = 71)
t = \(\frac { m }{ ZI }\) mass of 0.1 mole of Cl2 gas = 7.1 g mol-1)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-6

Question 10.
The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 A in 60 seconds is (charge of electron = 1.6 x 10-19C)
(a) 6.22 x 1023
(b) 6.022 x 1020
(c) 3.75 x 1020
(d) 7.48 x 1023
Answer:
(c) 3.75 x 1020
Hint: Q = It
= 1A x 60S
96500 C charge 6.022 x 1023 electrons
60 C charge = \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{96500} \times 960\)
= 3.744 x 1020 electrons

Question 11.
Which of the following electrolytic solution has the least specific conductance?
(a) 2N
(b) 0.002N
(c) 0.02N
(d) 0.2N
Answer:
(b) 0.002N
Hint: In general, specific conductance of an electrolyte decreases with dilution. SO, 0.002N solution has least specific conductance.

Question 12.
While charging lead storage battery
(a) PbSO4 on cathode is reduced to Pb
(b) PbSO4 on anode is oxidised to PbO4
(c) PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb
(d) PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to Pb
Answer:
(c) PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb.
Hint: Charging: anode: PbSO4(s) + 2e → Pb (s) + SO4-2 (aq)
Cathode: PbSO4(s) + 2H2O (1) → PbO2 (s) + SO4-2 (aq) + 2e

Question 13.
Among the following cells
I. Leclanche cell
II. Nickel – Cadmium cell
III. Lead storage battery
IV. Mercury cell
Primary cells are …………
(a) I and IV
(b) I and III
(c) III and IV
(d) II and III
Answer:
(a) I and IV

Question 14.
Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because
(a) Zinc is lighter than iron
(b) Zinc has lower melting point than iron
(c) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron
(d) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
Answer:
(d) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
Hint: E0Zn+|Zn = – 0.76V and E0Fe2+|Fe = 0.44V. Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron, iron cannot be coated on zinc.

Question 15.
Assertion: pure iron when heated in dry air is converted with a layer Of rust.
Reason: Rust has the composition Fe3O4
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) both assertion and reason are false.
Hint: Both are false

  1. Dry air has no reaction with iron
  2. Rust has the composition Fe2O3 x H2O

Question 16.
In H2 – O2 fuel cell the reaction occur at cathode is ……….
(a) O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + 4e → 4OH(aq)
(b) H+(aq) + OH(aq) → H2O (l)
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O (g)
(d) H+ + e → 1/2 H2
Answer:
(a) O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + 4e → 4OH(aq)

Question 17.
The equivalent conductance of M/36 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 6mho cm2 and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2. The dissociation constant of this acid is ………….
(a) 1.25 x 10-16
(b) 6.25 x 10 -6
(c) 1.25 x 10-4
(d) 6.25 x 10-5
Answer:
(b) 6.25 x 10 -6
Hint: α = \(\frac { 6 }{ 400 }\)
Ka = α2C = \(\frac { 6 }{ 400 }\) x \(\frac { 6 }{ 400 }\) x \(\frac { 1 }{ 36 }\)
= 6.25 x 10-6

Question 18.
A conductivity cell has been calibrated with a 0.01M, 1:1 electrolytic solution (specific conductance (K = 1.25 x 10-3 S cm-1 ) in the cell and the measured resistance was 800Ω at 250 C . The cell constant is,
(a) 10-1 cm-1
(b) 10-1 cm-1
(c) 1 cm-1
(d) 5.7 x 10-12
Answer:
(c) 1 cm-1
Hint: R = p.\(\frac { 1 }{ A }\)
Cell constant = \(\frac { R }{ ρ }\) = k.R \((\frac { 1 }{ ρ } =k)\) = 1.25 x 10-3 f-1cm-1 x 800Ω = 1cm-1

Question 19.
Conductivity of a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB (1:1 electrolyte) at 298K is 1.85 x 10-5 S m-1. Solubility product of the saltAB at 298K (Λ0m)AB = 14 x 10-3 S m2 mol-1.
(a) 5.7 x 10-2
(b) 1.32 x 1012
(c) 7.5 x 10-12
(d) 1.74 x 10-12
Answer:
(d) 1.74 x 10-12

Question 20.
In the electrochemical cell: Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M)||CuSO4 (1.0M)|Cu , the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that CuSO4 changed to 0.0 1M, the emf changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?
(a) E1 < E2
(b) E1 > E2
(c) E2 = 0↑E1
(d) E1 = E2
Answer:
(b) E1 > E2
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-7

Question 21.
Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-8
Then the species undergoing disproportional is …………..
(a) Br2
(b) BrO4
(c) BrO3
(d) HBrO
Answer:
(d) HBrO
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-9
(Ecell)A = – 1.82 + 1.5 = – 0.32V
(Ecell)B = – 1.5 + 1.595 = + 0.095V
(Ecell)C = 1.595 + 1.0652 = – 0.529V
The species undergoing disproportionation is HBrO

Question 22.
For the cell reaction
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I(aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2(aq)
EC0cell = 0.24V at 298K. The standard Gibbs energy (∆, G0 ) of the cell reactions is …………
(a) – 46.32 KJ mol-1
(b) – 23.16 KJ mol-1
(c) 46.32 KJ mol-1
(d) 23.16 KJ mor-1
Answer:
(a) – 46.32 KJ mol-1

Question 23.
A certain current liberated 0.504gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be liberated by the same current flowing for the same time in a copper sulphate solution?
(a) 31.75
(b) 15.8
(c) 7.5
(d) 63.5
Answer:
(b) 15.8

Question 24.
A gas X at 1 atm is bubble through a solution containing a mixture of 1MY and 1MZ-1 at 25°C . If the reduction potential of Z > Y> X, then
(a) Y will oxidize X and not Z
(b) Y will oxidize Z and not X
(c) Y will oxidize both X and Z
(d) Y will reduce both X and Z
Answer:
(a) Y will oxidize X and not Z

Question 25.
Cell equation: A2+ + 2B → A2+ + 2B
A2+ + 2e → AE° = + 0.34V and log10 K = 15.6 at 300K for cell reactions find E° for
B1 + e → B
(a) 0.80
(b) 1.26
(c) – 0.54
(d) – 10.94
Answer:
(a) 0.80

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry Short Answer

Question 1.
Define anode and cathode
Answer:

  1. Anode: The electrode at which the oxidation occur is called anode.
  2. Cathode: The electrode at which the reduction occur is called cathode.

Question 2.
Why does conductivity of a solution decrease on dilution of the solution?
Answer:
Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration (on dilution of the solution) both for weak as much as for strong electrolytes. ¡t is because the number of ions per unit volume that carry the current is a solution decreases on dilution.

Question 3.
State Kohlrausch Law. How is it useful to determine the molar conductivity of weak electrolyte at infinite dilution.
Answer:
Kohlrausch’s law:
It is defined as, at infinite dilution the limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte is equal to the sum of the limiting molar conductivities of its constituent ions.

Determination of the molar conductivity of weak electrolyte at infinite dilution.
It is impossible to determine the molar conductance at infinite dilution for weak electrolytes experimentally. However, the same can be calculated using Kohlraushs Law. For example, the molar conductance of CH3COOH, can be calculated using the experimentally determined molar conductivities of strong electrolytes HCI, NaCI and CH3COONa.
Λ°CH3COONa = λ°Na+ + λ°CH3COONa …….(1)
Λ°HCl = λ°H+ + λ°Cl ………………(2)
Λ°NaCl = λ°Na+ + λ°Cl …………….(3)
Equation (1) + Equation (2) – Equation (3) gives,
(Λ°CH3COONa) + (Λ°HCl) – (Λ°NaCl) = λ°H+ + λ°CH3COONa = Λ°CH3COONa

Question 4.
Describe the electrolysis of molten NaCI using inert electrodes.
Answer:
1. The electrolytic cell consists of two iron electrodes dipped in molten sodium chloride and they are connected to an external DC power supply via a key.

2. The electrode which is attached to the negative end of the power supply is called the cathode and the one is which attached to the positive end is called the anode.

3. Once the key is closed, the external DC power supply drives the electrons to the cathode and at the same time
pull the electrons from the anode.

Cell reactions:
Na+ ions are attracted towards cathode, where they combines with the electrons and reduced to liquid sodium.
Cathode (reduction)
Na+(I) + eNa(1)
E0 = – 2.7 1V
Similarly, Cl ions are attracted towards anode where they losses their electrons and oxidised to chlorine gas. Anode (oxidation)
2Cl(1) Cl2(g) + 2e
E° = – 1 .36V
The overall reaction is,
2Na+(l) + 2Cl(l) → 2Na(l) + Cl2(g) (g)
E0 = 4.07 V
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-10
The negative E° value shows that the above reaction is a non spontaneous one. Hence, we have to supply a voltage greater than 4.07V to cause the electrolysis of molten NaCI. In electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occur at the cathode as in a galvanic cell, but the sign of the electrodes is the reverse i.e., in the electrolytic cell cathode is -ve and anode is +ve.

Question 5.
State Faraday’s Laws of electrolysis.
Answer:
Faraday’s laws of electrolysis:
1. First law:
The mass of the substance (M) liberated at an electrode during electrolysis is directly proportional to the quantity of charge (Q) passed through the cell. M α Q

2. Second law:
When the same quantity of charge is passed through the solutions of different electrolytes, the amount of substances liberated at the respective electrodes are directly proportional to their electrochemical equivalents. M α Z

Question 6.
Describe the construction of Daniel cell. Write the cell reaction.
Answer:
The separation of half reaction is the basis for the construction of Daniel cell. It consists of two half cells.

Oxidation half cell:
The metallic zinc strip that dips into an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate taken in a beaker.

Reduction half cell:
A copper strip that dips into an aqueous solution of copper sulphate taken in a beaker.

Joining the half cell:
The zinc and copper strips are externally connected using a wire through a switch (k) and a load (example: volt meter). The electrolytic solution present in the cathodic and anodic compartment are connected using an inverted U tube containing a agar-agar gel mixed with an inert electrolyte such as Kl1, Na2SO4 etc.,

The ions of inert electrolyte do not react with other ions present in the half cells and they are not either oxidised (or) reduced at the electrodes. The solution in the salt bridge Voltmeter
cannot get poured out, but through which the ions can move into (or) out of the half cells. When the switch (k) closes the circuit, the electrons flows from zinc strip to copper strip. This is due to the following redox reactions which are taking place at the respective electrodes.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-11

Anodic oxidation:
The electrode at which the oxidation occur is called the anode. In Daniel cell, the oxidation take place at zinc electrode, i.e., zinc is oxidised to Zn2 ions and the electrons. The Zn2 ions enters the solution and the electrons enter the zinc metal, then flow through the external wire and then enter the copper strip. Electrons are liberated at zinc electrode and hence it is negative ( – ve).
Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e (loss of electron-oxidation)

Cathodic reduction:
As discussed earlier, the electrons flow through the circuit from zinc to copper, where the Cu2+ ions in the solution accept the electrons, get reduced to copper and the same get deposited on the electrode. Here, the electrons are consumed and hence it is positive (+ve).
Cu2+(aq) + 2e → Cu(s) (gain of electron-reduction)

Salt bridge:
The electrolytes present in two half cells are connected using a salt bridge. We have learnt that the anodic oxidation of zinc electrodes results in the increase in concentration of Zn2+ in solution. i.e., the solution contains more number of Zn2+ ions as compared to SO42- and hence the solution in the anodic compartment would become positively charged.

Similarly, the solution in the cathodic compartment would become negatively charged as the Cu2+ ions are reduced to copper i.e., the cathodic solution contain more number of SO2-4 ions compared to Cu2+.

Completion of circuit:
Electrons flow from the negatively charged zinc anode into the positively charged copper electrode through the external wire, at the same time, anions move towards anode and cations are move towards the cathode compartment. This completes the
circuit.

Consumption of Electrodes:
As the Daniel cell operates, the mass of zinc electrode gradually decreases while the mass of the copper electrode increases and hence the cell will function until the entire metallic zinc electrode is converted in to Zn2+ the entire Cu2+ ions are converted in to metallic copper.
Daniel cell is represented as
Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-12

Question 7.
Why is anode in galvanic cell considered to be negative and cathode positive electrode?
Answer:
A galvanic cell works basically in reverse to an electrolytic cell. The anode is the electrode where oxidation takes place, in a galvanic cell, it is the negative electrode, as when oxidation occurs, electrons are left behind on the electrode.

The anode is also the electrode where metal atoms give up their electrons to the metal and go into solution. The electron left behind on it render ¡t effectively negative and the electron flow goes from it through the wire to the cathode.

Positive aqueous ions in the solution are reduced by the incoming electrons on the cathode. This why the cathode is a positive electrode, because positive ions are reduced to metal atoms there.

Question 8.
The conductivity of a 0.01%M solution of a 1:1 weak electrolyte at 298K is 1.5 x 10-4 S cm-1.

  1. molar conductivity of the solution
  2. degree of dissociation and the dissociation constant of the weak electrolyte

Given that
λ0cation = 248.2 S cm2 mol-1
λ0anion = 51.8 S cm2 mol-1
Answer:
1. Molar conductivity
C = 0.01M
k = 1.5 x 10-4 S cm-1
(or)
K = 1.5 x 10-2 S m-1
\(\frac{\kappa \times 10^{-3}}{\mathrm{C}}\) S m-1 mol-1 m3 = \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{-2} \times 10^{-3}}{0.01}\) S m2 mol-1
Λm = 1.5 x 10-3 s m-1

2. Degree of dissociation
α = \(\frac{\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}}{\Lambda_{\infty}^{\circ}}\) (or) α = \(\frac{\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}}{\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^{\circ}}\)
= (248.2 + 51.8)S cm2 mol-1
= 300 S cm2 mol-1
Ka = \(\frac{\alpha^{2} C}{1-\alpha}\)
= \(\frac{(0.05)^{2}(0.01)}{1-0.05}\)
Ka = 2.63 x 10-5

Question 9.
Which of 0.1M HCI and 0.1 M KCI do you expect to have greater molar conductance and why?
Answer:
Compare to 0.1M HCI and 0.1 M KCI, 0.1M HCl has greater molar conductance.

  1. Molar conductance of 0.1M HCl = 39.132 x 10-3 S m2 mol-1.
  2. Molar conductance of 0.1 M KCl = 12.896 x 10-3 S m2 mol-1

Because, H+ ion in aqueous solution being smaller size than K+ ion and H+ ion have greater mobility than K ion. When mobility of the ion increases, conductivity of that ions also increases. Hence, 0. 1M HCI solution has greater molar conductance than 0.1 M KCI solution.

Question 10.
Arrange the following solutions in the decreasing order of specific conductance.

  1. 0.01M KCI
  2. 0.005M KCI
  3. 0.1M KCI
  4. 0.25 M KCI
  5. 0.5 M KCI

Answer:
0.005M KCl > 0.01M KCI > 0.1M KCI > 0.25KCl > 0.5 KCI.
Specific conductance and concentration of the electrolyte. So if concentration decreases, specific conductance increases.

Question 11.
Why is AC current used instead of DC in measuring the electrolytic conductance?
Answer:
1. AC current to prevent electrolysis of the solution.

2. If we apply DC current to the cell the positive ions will be attracted to the negative plate and the negative ions to the positive plate. This will cause the composition of the electrolyte to change while measuring the equivalent conductance.

3. So DC current through the conductivity cell will lead to the electrolysis of the solution taken in the cell. To avoid such a electrolysis, we have to use AC current for measuring equivalent conductance.

Question 12.
0.1M NaCI solution is placed in two different cells having cell constant 0.5 and 0.25cm-1 respectively. Which of the two will have greater value of specific conductance.
Answer:
The specific conductance values are same. Because the reaction (cation) of cell constant does not change.

Question 13.
A current of 1 .608A is passed through 250 mL of 0.5M solution of copper sulphate for 50 minutes. Calculate the strength of Cu2+ after electrolysis assuming volume to be constant and the current efficiency is 100%.
Answer:
Given, I = I .608A
t = 50 min (or) 50 x 60 = 3000 S
V = 250 mL
C = 0.5M
η = 100%
The number of Faraday’s of electricity passed through the CuSO4 solution
Q = It
= Q = 1.608 x 3000
Q = 4824C
Number of Faraday’s of electricity = \(\frac { 4824C }{ 96500C }\) = 0.5F
Electrolysis of CuSO4
Cu2+(aq) + 2e → Cu(s)
The above equation shows that 2F electricity will deposit 1 mole of Cu2+
0.5F electicity will deposit \(\frac { 1mol }{ 2F }\) x 0.5F = 0.025 mol
Initial number of molar of Cu2+ in 250 ml of solution = \(\frac { 1mol }{ 250mL }\) x 250mL = 0.125 mol
Number of molar of Cu2+ after electrolysis 0.125 – 0.025 = 0.1 mol
Concentration of Cu2+ = \(\frac { 0.1mol }{ 250mL }\) X 1000 mL = 0.4 M

Question 14.
Can Fe3+ oxidises Bromide to bromine under standard conditions?
Given:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-58
Answer:
Required half cell reaction
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-59
E0cell = (E0ox) + (E0red) = – 1.09 + 0.771 = – 0.319V
We know that ∆G° = – nFE0cell
If E0cell is -ve; ∆G is +ve and the cell reaction is non-spontaneous.
Hence, Fe3+ cannot oxidise Bromide to Bromine.

Question 15.
Is it possible to store copper sulphate in an iron vessel for a long time?
Given:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-60
Answer:
E0cell = (E0ox) + (E0red) = 0.44 V + 0.34V = 0.78V
These +ve E0cell values shows that iron will oxidise and copper will get reduced i.e., the vessel
will dissolve. Hence it is not possible to store copper sulphate in an iron vessel.

Question 16.
Two metals M1 and M2 have reduction potential values of – xV and + yV respectively. Which will liberate H2 in H2SO4?
Answer:
Metals having negative reduction potential acts as powerful reducing agent. Since M1 has – xV, therefore M1 easily liberate H2 in H2SO4. Metals having higher oxidation potential will liberate H2 from H2SO4. Hence, the metal M1 having + xV, oxidation potential will liberate H2 from H2SO4.

Question 17.
Reduction potential of two metals M1 and M2 are
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-13
Predict which one Is better for coating the surface of iron.
Given:Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-61
Answer:
Oxidation potential of M1 is more +ve than the oxidation potential of Fe which indicates that it will prevent iron from rusting.

Question 18.
Calculate the standard emf of the cell: Cd | Cd2+|| Cu2+ | Cu and determine the cell reaction. The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+ | Cu and Cd2+ | Cd are 0.34V and – 0.40 volts respectively. Predict the feasibility of the cell reaction.
Answer:
Cell reactions:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-14
Cd(s) + 2e Cd2+ + Cu(s)
E0cell = (E0ox) + (E0red) = 0.4 + 0.34
emf is +ve, so ∆G is (-)ve, the reaction is feasible.

Question 19.
In fuel cell H2 and O2 react to produce electricity. In the process, H2 gas is oxidised at the anode and O2 at cathode. If 44.8 litre of H2 at 25°C and also pressure reacts in 10 minutes, what is average current produced? If the entire current is used for electro deposition of Cu from Cu2+, how many grams of Cu deposited?
Answer:
Oxidation at anode:
2H2(g) + 4OH (aq) → 4H2O (1) + 4e
1 mole of hydrogen gas produces 2 moles of electrons at 25°C and 1 atm pressure, 1 mole of hydrogen gas occupies = 22.4 litres
∴no. of moles of hydrogen gas produced = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{mole}}{22.4 \text { litres }}\) x 44.8 litres = 2 moles of hydrogen
∴2 of moles of hydrogen produces 4 moles of electro i.e., 4F charge. We know that Q = It
I = \(\frac { Q }{ t }\) = \(\frac{4 \mathrm{F}}{10 \mathrm{mins}}\) = \(\frac { 4×96500 }{ 10x60s }\)
I = 643.33 A
Electro deposition of copper
Cu2+(aq) + 2e → Cu(s)
2F charge is required to deposit
1 mole of copper i.e., 63.5 g
If the entire current produced in the fuel cell i.e., 4 F is utilised for electrolysis, then 2 x 63.5 i.e., 127.0 g copper will be deposited at cathode.

Question 20.
The same amount of electricity was passed through two separate electrolytic cells containing solutions of nickel nitrate and chromium nitrate respectively. If 2.935g of Ni was deposited in the first cell. The amount of Cr deposited in the another cell? Given: molar mass of Nickel and chromium are 58.74 and 52gm-1 respectively.
Answer:
Ni2+ (aq) + 2e → Ni (s)
Cr2+(aq) + 3e → Cr(s)
The above reaction indicates that 2F charge is required to deposit 58.7 g of Nickel form nickel nitrate and 3F charge is required to deposit 52g of chromium. Given that 2.935 gram of Nickel is deposited 2F
The amount of charge passed through the cell = \(\frac { 2F }{ 58.7g }\) x 2.935g = 0.1F
If 0. IF charge is passed through chromium nitrate the amount of chromium deposited
= 52g x 0.IF = 1.733g

Question 21.
0.1M copper sulphate solution in which copper electrode is dipped at 25C. Calculate the electrode potential of copper.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-62
Answer:
Given that
[Cu2+] = 0.1 M
E0Cu2+|Cu = 0.34
Ecell = ?
Cell reaction is Cu2+(aq) + 2e → Cu (s)
Ecell = E0 – \(\frac { 0.0591 }{ n }\) log \(\frac{[\mathrm{Cu}]}{\left[\mathrm{Cu}^{2+}\right]}\) = 0.34 – \(\frac { 0.0591 }{ 2 }\) log \(\frac { 1 }{ 0.1 }\)
= 0.34 – 0.0296 = 0.31 V

Question 22.
For the cell Mg(s) | Mg2+(aq) || Ag+ (aq) | Ag (s), calculate the equilibrium constant at 25°C and maximum work that can be obtained during operation of cell. Given:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-63
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-15
E0cell = (E0ox) + (E0red) = 2.37 + 0.80 = 3.17 V
Overall reaction
Mg + 2Ag+ → Mg2+ + 2Ag
∆G° = -nFE°
= – 2 x 96500 x 3.17
= – 6.118 x 105 J
We know that Wmax = ∆G°
Wmax = + 6.118 x 105 J
Relationship between ∆G° and Keq is,
∆G = – 2.303 RT logKeq
∆G = – 2.303 x 8.314 x 298 log Keq [25°C = 298 K]
log Keq = \(\frac{6.118 \times 10^{5}}{2.303 \times 8.314 \times 298}\) = \(\frac{6.118 \times 10^{5}}{5705.84}\)
log Keq = 107.223
Keq = Antilog (107.223)

Question 23.
8.2 x 1012 litres of water is available in a lake. A power reactor using the electrolysis of water in the lake produces electricity at the rate of 2 x 106 Cs-1 at an appropriate voltage. How many years would it like to completely electrolyse the water in the lake. Assume that there is no loss of water except due to electrolysis.
Answer:
Hydrolysis of water:
At anode: 2H2O → 4H+ + O2 + 4e …………..(1)
At cathode: 2H2O + 2e → H2 + 2OH
Overall reaction: 6H2O → 4H + 4OH +2H2 + O2
(or)
Equation (1) + (2) x 2
= 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
According to Faraday’s Law of electrolysis, to electrolyse two mole of Water
(36g ≃ 36 mL. of H2O), 4F charge is required alternatively, when 36 mL of water is electrolysed,
the charge generated = 4 x 96500 C.
When the whole water which is available on the lake is completely electrolysed the amount of charge generated is equal to
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-16
Given that in 1 second, 2 x 106 C is generated therefore, the time required to generate
96500 x 1015 C is = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{S}}{2 \times 10^{6} \mathrm{C}}\) x 96500 x 1015C = 48250 x 109 S
Number of year = \(\frac{48250 \times 10^{9}}{365 \times 24 \times 60 \times 60}\) 1 year = 365 days
= 1.5299 x 106
= 365 x 24 hours
= 365 x 24 x 60 min
= 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 sec

Question 24.
Derive an expression for Nernst equation.
Answer:
Nernst equation is the one which relates the cell potential and the concentration of the species involved in an electrochemical reaction.
Let us consider an electrochemical cell for which the overall redox reaction is,
Answer:
xA + yB = lC + mD
The reaction quotient Q is,
\(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{1}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{x}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{y}}}\)
We know that,
∆G = ∆G0 + RT ln Q
∆G = – nFEcell
∆G0 = -nFE0cell
equation (1) becomes
– nFEcell = -nFE0cell + RT ln Q
Subsitute the Q value in equation (2)
– nFEcell = – nFE0cell + RT ln \(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{1}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{x}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{y}}}\). ………..(3)
Divide the whole equation (3) by – nF
Ecell = E°cell – \(\frac { RT }{ nF }\) ln \(\left(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{1}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{x}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{y}}}\right)\)
Ecell = E°cell – \(\frac { 2.303RT }{ nF }\) log \(\left(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{1}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{x}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{y}}}\right)\) ……………(4)
This is called the Nernst equation.
At 25°C (298 K) equation (4) becomes,
Ecell = E°cell – \(\frac { 2.303×8.314×298 }{ nx96500 }\) log \(\left(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{1}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{x}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{y}}}\right)\)
Ecell = E°cell – \(\frac { 0.0591 }{ n }\) log \(\left(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{1}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{m}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{x}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{y}}}\right)\)

Question 25.
Write a note on sacrificial protection.
Answer:
In this method, the metallic structure to be protected is made cathode by connecting it with more active metal (anodic metal). So that all the corrosion will concentrate only on the active metal. The artificially made anode thus gradually gets corroded protecting the original metallic structure. Hence this process is otherwise known as sacrificial anodic protection. Al, Zn and Mg are used as sacrificial anodes.

Question 26.
Explain the function of H2 – O2 fuel cell.
Answer:
In this case, hydrogen act as a fuel and oxygen as an oxidant and the electrolyte is aqueous KOH maintained at 200°C and 20 – 40 atm. Porous graphite electrode containing Ni and NiO serves as the inert electrodes. Hydrogen and oxygen gases are bubbled through the anode and cathode, respectively.
Oxidation occurs at the anode:
2H2(g)+ 4OH-(aq) → 4H2O(1) + 4e
Reduction occurs at the cathode O2(g) + 2 H2O(1) + 4e → 4 OH (aq)
The overall reaction is 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(1)
The above reaction is the same as the hydrogen combustion reaction, however, they do not react directly ie., the oxidation and reduction reactions take place separately at the anode and cathode respectively like H2 – O2 fuel cell. Other fuel cell like propane – O2 and methane O2 have also been developed.

Question 27.
Ionic conductance at infinite dilution of Al3+ and SO42- are 189 and 160 mho cm2 equiv-1. Calculate the equivalent and molar conductance of the electrolyte Al2(SO4) at infinite dilution.
Answer:
1. Molar conductance
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-20
= (2 x 189) + (3 x 160)
= 378 + 480
= 858 mho cm2 mol-1

2. Equivalent conductnace
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-21
= \(\frac { 189 }{ 3 }\) + \(\frac { 160 }{ 2 }\)
= 143 mho cm2 (g equiv)-1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Calculate the molar conductance of 0.01M aqueous KCI solution at 25°C . The specific conductance of KCl at 25°C is 14.114 x 10-2 Sm-1.
Answer:
Concentration of KCI solution = 0.01 M.
Specific conductance (K) = 14.114 x 10-2 S m-1
Molar conductance (Λm) = ?
Λm = \(\frac{\kappa \times 10^{-3}}{M}\) = \(\frac{14.114 \times 10^{-2} \times 10^{-3}}{0.01}\)
S m-1 mol-1 m3
Λm = 14.114 x 10-5 x 102 = 14.114 x 10-3 Sm2 mol-1

Question 2.
The resistance of 0.15M solution of an electrolyte is 50. The specific conductance of the solution is 2.4 Sm-1. The resistance of 0.5 N solution of the same electrolyte measured using the same conductivity cell is 480Ω. Find the equivalent conductivity of 0.5 N solution of the electrolyte.
Answer:
Given that R1 = 50Ω
R2 = 480Ω
K1 =2.4Sm-1
K2 = ?
N1 = 0.15N
N2 = 0.5N
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-22
= 5 x 10-4sm2 gram equivalent-1
We know that
\(\frac{\text { Cell constant }}{\mathrm{R}}\)
\(\frac{\kappa_{2}}{\kappa_{1}}\) = \(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}\)
k2 = k1 x \(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}\) = 2.4 Sm-1 x \(\frac{50 \Omega}{480 \Omega}\) = 0.25 Sm-1

Question 3.
The emf of the following cell at 25°C is equal to 0.34v. Calculate the reduction potential of copper electrode.
Pt(s) | H2(g,1atm) | H+ (aq,1M) || Cu2+(aq,1M) | Cu(s)
Answer:
SHE Value is zero
cell = E°R – E°L
= 0.34 – 0 = 0.34V
The reduction potential of copper electrode = 0.34V

Question 4.
Using the calculated emf value of zinc and copper electrode, calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C.
Zn (s) | Zn2+ (aq, 1M) || Cu2+(aq, 1M) | Cu (s)
Answer:
cell = E°R – E°L
Ezn/zn2+ = 0.76V
ECu/Cu2+ = 0.76V
cell = 0.76 – (- 0.34V)
cell = 0.76 – (- 0.34)
cell = + 1.1 V

Question 5.
Write the overall redox reaction which takes place in the galvanic cell,
Pt(s) | Fe2+(aq),Fe2+(aq) || MnO4(aq), H+(aq), Mn2+(aq) || Pt(s)
Answer:
At Anode half cell – 5Fe2+(aq) → 5Fe3+(aq) + 5e
At cathode half cell – MnO4(aq) + 8H+(aq) + 5e → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(1)
Overall redox reaction – 5Fe2+(aq) + MnO4(aq) + 8H+(aq) → 5Fe3+(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(1)

Question 6.
The electrochemical cell reaction of the Daniel cell is
Zn (s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
What is the change in the cell voltage on increasing the ion concentration in the anode compartment by a factor 10?
Answer:
Zn (s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
ln the case E°cell = 1.1V
Reaction quotient Q for the above reaction is, Q = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{Zn}^{2+}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{Cu}^{2+}\right]}\)
Ecell = E°cell – \(\frac { 0.0591 }{ n }\) log \(\frac{\left[Z n^{2+}\right]}{\left[C u^{2+}\right]}\)
If suppose concentration of Cu2+ is 1 .OM then the concentration of Zn2+ is 10M (why because,
ion concentration in the anode compartment increased by a 10 factor)
Ecell = 1.1 – \(\frac { 0.0591 }{ n }\) log \((\frac { 10 }{ 1 })\)
= 1.1 – 0.02955             ……………….(1)
= 1.070 V (cell voltage decreased)
Thus, the initial voltage is greater than E° because Q < 1. As the reaction proceeds, [Zn2+] in the anode compartment increases as the zinc electrode dissolves, while [Cu2+] in the cathode compartment decreases as metallic copper is deposited on the electrode.

During this process, the Q = [Zn2+] [Cu2+] steadily increases and the cell voltage therefore steadily decreases. [Zn2+] will continue to increase in the anode compartment and [Cu2+] will continue to decrease in the cathode compartment. Thus the value of Q will increase further leading to a further
decrease in value.

Question 7.
A solution of a salt of metal was electrolysed for 150 minutes with a current of 0.15 amperes. The mass of the metal deposited at the cathode is 0.783g. calculate the equivalent mass of the metal.
Answer:
Given,
I = 0.15 amperes
t = 150 mins
= t = 15O x 6Osec
= t = 9000sec
Q = It
= Q = 0.15 x 9000 coulombs
= Q = 1350 coulombs
Hence, 135 coulombs of electricity deposit is equal to 0.783g of metal.
96500 coulombs of electricity, \(\frac { 0.783 x 96500 }{ 1350 }\) = 55.97 gm of metal
Hence equivalent mass of the metal is 55.97

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry Example Problems

Question 1.
A conductivity cell has two platinum electrodes separated by a distance 1.5 cm and the cross sectional area of each electrode is 4.5 sq cm. Using this cell, the resistance of 0.5 N electrolytic solution was measured as 15?. Find the specific conductance of the solution.
Solution.
k = \(\frac { 1 }{ 15Ω }\) x \(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{m}}{4.5 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{m}^{2}}\) = 2.22S m-1
l = 1.5cm = 1.5 x 102m
A = 4.5 cm2 x (10-4)m2
R = 15Ω

Question 2.
Calculate the molar conductance of 0.025M aqueous solution of calcium chloride at 25°C. The specific conductance of calcium chloride is 12.04 x 102S m3.
Answer:
Molar conductance
Λm = \(\frac{\left(\mathrm{Sm}^{-1}\right) \times 10^{-3}}{\mathrm{M}}\) mol-1 m3
= \(\frac{\left(12.04 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{Sm}^{-1}\right) \times 10^{-3}}{0.025}\) mol-1 m3 = 581 . 6 10-2 S m2 mol1

Question 3.
The resistance of a conductivity cell is measured as 190Ω using 0.1M KCI solution (specific conductance of 0.1M KCI is 1.3 Sm-1). When the same cell is filled with 0.003M sodium chloride solution, the measured resistance is 6.3K?. Both these measurements are made at a particular temperature. Calculate the specific and molar conductance of NaCl solution.
Answer:
Given that
K = 1.3 S m-1 (for 0.1 M KCI solution)
R = 190Ω
\(\left(\frac{l}{A}\right)\) = k.R = (1.3 S m-1) (190?) = 247m-1
k(NaCl) = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{(\mathrm{NaCT})}}\)\(\left(\frac{l}{A}\right)\) = \(\frac{1}{6.3 \mathrm{K} \Omega}\) (247m-1)
= 39.2 x 10-3Sm-1
Λm = \(\frac{\kappa \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \mathrm{m}^{3}}{\mathrm{M}}\) = \(\frac{39.2 \times 10^{-3}\left(\mathrm{Sm}^{-1}\right) \times 10^{-3}\left(\mathrm{mol}^{-1} \mathrm{m}^{3}\right)}{0.003}\)
Λm = 13.04 x 10-3Sm2 mol-1

Question 4.
The net redox reaction of a galvanic cell is given below
2 Cr (s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq) + 3Cu(s)
Write the half reactions and describe the cell using cell notation.
Answer:
Anodic oxidation: 2Cr(s) → 2Cr3+(aq) + 6e …………..(1)
Cathodic reduction: 3Cu2+ + 6e → 3Cu(s) ………….(2)
Cell Notation is: Cr(s) | CI3+(aq) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s)

Question 5.
Let us calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C using Nernst equation.
Cu (s) | Cu2+(0.25 aq, M) || Fe3+(0.05 aq M) | Fe2+(0.1 aq M) | pt(s)
Answer:
Given: Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-25
Half reactions are
Cu (s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e ……………(1)
2 Fe3+(aq) + 2e → 2Fe2+(aq) ……………(2)
the overall reaction is Cu (s) + 2 Fe3+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Fe2+(aq), and n = 2
Apply Nernst equation at 25°C
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-26
Given standard reduction potetial of Cu2+ | Cu is o.34
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-64

Question 6.
A solution of silver nitrate Is electrolysed for 20 minutes with a current of 2 amperes. Calculate the mass of silver deposited at the cathode.
Answer:
Electrochemical reaction at cathode is Ag+ + e Ag (reduction)
m = ZIt
m = \(\frac{108 \mathrm{gmol}^{-1}}{96500 \mathrm{Cmol}^{-1}} \times 2400 \mathrm{C}\)
m = 2.68 g
z = \(\frac{\text { molarmass of } \mathrm{Ag}}{(96500)}\) = \(\frac{108}{1 \times 96500}\)
I = 2Ag
t = 20 x 60s = 1200s
It = 2A x 1200S = 2400C

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry 1 Marks Questions And Answers

I. Choose the best answer and write it.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an example of conductor?
(a) PVC
(b) Bakelite
(c) Aluminium
(d) Rubber
Answer:
(c) Aluminium

Question 2.
Which one of the following can act as an insulator?
(a) Bakelite
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) NaCI Solution
Answer:
(a) Bakelite V

Question 3.
Which form of energy is converted to electrical energy in batteries?
(a) tidal energy
(b) Chemical energy
(c) mechanical energy
(d) atomic energy
Answer:
(b) Chemical energy

Question 4.
Electro chemical reactions are generally ………..
(a) Reduction reactions
(b) oxidation reactions
(c) Redox reactions
(d) condensation reactions
Answer:
(c) Redox reactions

Question 5.
Consider the following statements.
Answer:
(i) Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but one form of energy can be converted to another form
(ii) In batteries, electrical energy is converted to chemical energy.
(iii) Electrochemjcal reactions are redox reactions.

Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) i & ii only
(b) ii only
(c) i only
(d) iii only
Answer:
(b) ii only

Question 6.
Which one of the following represents Ohm’s law?
(a) V = IR
(b) R = \(\frac { 1 }{ V }\)
(c) I = \(\frac { V }{ R }\)
(d) R = VI
Answer:
(a) V = IR

Question 7.
The unit of resistivity is …………
(a) Ω m-1
(b) Ω m
(c) m-1Ohm2
(d) Ω-1m-1
Answer:
(b) Ω m

Question 8.
When cell constant is unit, the resistance is known as …………
(a) specific resistance
(b) conductance
(c) specific conductance
(d) equivalent conductance
Answer:
(a) specific resistance

Question 9.
The unit of specific resistance is equal to ………..
(a) Ohm metre
(b) Ohm-1 metre
(c) Ohm-1 metre-1
(d) Ohm
Answer:
(a) Ohm metre

Question 10.
Which is the SI unit of conductance?
(a) Siemen-1 (or) S-1
(b) Siemen (or) S
(c) Sm-1
(d) S-1m-1
Answer:
(b) Siemen (S)

Question 11.
Which one of the following represents specific conductance (kappa)?
(a) \(\frac { I }{ C }\) . \(\frac { l }{ a }\)
(b) \(\frac { I }{ P }\) . \(\frac { a }{ I }\)
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) . \(\frac{a}{l^{2}}\)
(d) \(\frac { I }{ P }\) . \(\frac { l }{ a }\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { I }{ P }\) . \(\frac { l }{ a }\)

Question 12.
Which one is the unit of specific conductance?
(a) Ohm m
(b) Ohm-1 m
(c) Ohm m-1
(d) Ohm-1 m-1.
Answer:
(d) Ohm-1m-1

Question 13.
Which one of the following formula represents equivalent conductance?
(a) \(\frac { I }{ P }\).\(\frac { l }{ a }\)
(b) \(\frac { I }{ P }\).\(\frac { A }{ l }\)
(c) C x \(\frac { l }{ a }\)
(d) \(\frac{\kappa \times 10^{-3}}{N}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\kappa \times 10^{-3}}{N}\)

Question 14.
The unit of equivalent conductance is …………
(a) Sm2g equivalenr’
(b) Sm-1
(c) Ohm-1m-1
(d) Ohm m
Answer:
(a) Sm2g equivalent-1

Question 15.
Consider the following statements:
(i) Solvent of higher dielectric constant show very low conductance in solution.
(ii) Conductance is directly proportional to viscosity of the medium.
(iii) Molar conductance of a solution increases with increase in dilution.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 16.
Consider the following statements:
(i) If the temperature of the electrolytic solution increases, conductance decreases.
(ii) Conductivity increases with the decrease in viscosity.
(iii) Molar conductance of a solution decreases with increase in dilution.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) & (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(a) (i) & (iii)

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used to measure conductivity of ionic solutions?
(a) metre scale
(b) wheat stone bridge
(c) Dynamo
(d) Ammeter
Answer:
(b) wheat stone bridge

Question 18.
Which of the following is used to calculate the conductivity of strong electrolytes?
(a) Kohlraush’s law
(b) Henderson equation
(c) Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation
(d) Ostwald’s dilution law
Answer:
(c) Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation

Question 19.
Which one of the following represents Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-28
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-29

Question 20.
The value of A in Debye – Huckel and Onsagar equation is ……….
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-30
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-31

Question 21.
The value of B in Debye Huckel and onsagar equation is …………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-32
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-33

Question 22.
Kohlrausch’s law is applied to calculate
(a) molar conductance at infinite dilution of a weak electrolyte
(b) degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte
(c) solubility of a sparingly soluble salt
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 23.
In which of the following interconversion of electrical energy into chemical energy and vice versa take place?
(a) electrochemical cell
(b) electric cell
(c) Dynamo
(d) AC generator
Answer:
(a) electrochemical cell

Question 24.
Consider the following statements:
(i) In Galvanic cell, chemical energy is’converted into electrical energy.
(ii) In electrolytic cell, electrical energy is converted into chemical energy.
(iii) In voltaic cell, electrical energy is converted into chemical energy.

Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (ii) only
(d) (i) only
Answer:
(b) (iii) only

Question 25.
In Galvanic cell, the Zinc metal strip placed gets ………….
(a) Oxidised
(b) reduced
(c) hydrolysed
(d) condensed
Answer:
(a) Oxidised

Question 26.
Consider the following statements:
(i) In Galvanic cell, Zinc is oxidised to Zn2+ ions and Cu2+ ions are reduced to copper
(ii) In Galvanic cell, Zn2+ ions are reduced to Zinc and copper is oxidised to Cu2+ ions
(iii) In Galvanic cell, Zn and copper both get oxidised.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(a) (i) only

Question 27.
The salt bridge used in Daniel cell contains
(a) Na2SO4 + NaCl
(b) Agar-Agar gel + Na2SO4
(c) Silica gel + CuSO4
(d) ZnSO4 + CuSO4
Answer:
(b) Agar-Agar gel + Na2SO4

Question 28.
Consider the following statements.
(i) In Daniel cell, when the switch (k) closes the circuit, the electrons flow from Zinc strip to copper strip.
(ii) In Daniel cell, when the switch (k) closes the circuit, the electrons flow from copper strip to Zinc strip
(iii) In Daniel cell, when the Switch (k) opens the circuit, the electrons flow from Zinc to copper.
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(a) (i) only

Question 29.
Which one of the following can act as an inert electrode?
(a) Graphite
(b) Copper
(c) Platinum
(d) either a (or) e
Answer:
(a) either a (or) c

Question 30.
The SI unit of cell potential is ………….
(a) Ampere
(b) Ohm
(c) Volt
(d) Ohm-1
Answer:
(c) Volt

Question 31.
The emf of Daniel cell Zn(s) + Zn2+aq(1m) || Cu2+aq(1m) | Cu(S) iS equal to …………
(a) – 1.107 Volts
(b) 1.107 Volts
(c) 3.4 Volt
(d) 7.6 Volt
Answer:
(b) 1.107 Volts

Question 32.
Which instrument is used to measure potential difference?
(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Wheat stone bridge
(d) metre bridge
Answer:
(b) Voltmeter

Question 33.
The value of EMF of standard hydrogen electrode at 25°C is …………
(a) maximum
(b) zero
(c) negative
(d) positive
Answer:
(b) zero

Question 34.
The electrode used in SHE is made of ………….
(a) graphite
(b) copper
(c) platinum
(d) iron
Answer:
(c) Platinum

Question 35.
What is the charge of one electron?
(a) 1.602 x 1019C
(b) 1.6 x 10-19C
(c) 9645C
(d) 96488C
Answer:
(b) 1.6 x 10-19C

Question 36.
The maximum work that can be obtained from a galvanic cell is ………..
(a) + nFE
(b) – nFE
(c) 2F
(d) 96500 F
Answer:
(b) – nFE

Question 37.
For all spontaneous cell reactions, the value of ?G should be ………….
(a) constant
(b) zero
(c) negative
(d) positive
Answer:
(c) negative

Question 38.
The value of one Faraday is equal to …………..
(a) 96400 C
(b) 96500 C
(c) 1 .602 x 10-19C
(d) 1 .602 x 1019C
Answer:
(b) 96500 C

Question 39.
The relationship between standard free energy change and equilibrium constant is expressed as ………..
(a) ΔG° = -RTInkeq
(b) ΔG = RTlnkeq
(c) ΔG° = \(-\frac{1}{\mathrm{RT} \ln \mathrm{k}_{\mathrm{eq}}}\)
(d) ΔG = RTlogeq
Answer:
(a) ΔG° -RThilc

Question 40.
Which equation relates the cell potential and the concentration of the species involved in an electro chemical reaction?
(a) Henderson equation
(b) Arrhenius equation
(c) Debye Huckel Onsagar equation
(d) Nemst equation
Answer:
(a) Nernst equation

Question 41.
Which one of the following is Nernst equation.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-34
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-35

Question 42.
Gibbs free energy can be related to cell emf as follows.
(a) ΔG° = – nFEcell
(b) ΔG° = – nFE°cell
(c) ΔG = nFEcell
(d) ΔG° = nFE°cell
Answer:
(b) ΔG° = – nFE°cell

Question 43.
Which one of the following represents Faraday’s first law?
(a) m = ZIt
(b) m = \(\frac { Z }{ It }\)
(c) m = \(\frac { It }{ Z }\)
(d) Z = mIt
Answer:
(a) m = ZIt

Question 44.
When 1 coulomb of electric current is passed the amount of substance deposited or liberated is known as ………..
(a) equivalent mass
(b) electro chemical equivalent
(c) molar mass
(d) 1 Faraday
Answer:
(b) electro chemical equivalent

Question 45.
The value of electro chemical equivalent is equal to ………..
(a) \(\frac{96500}{\text { Equivalent mass }}\)
(b) \(\frac{96500}{\text { Molar mass }}\)
(c) \(\frac{\text { Molar mass }}{96500}\)
(d) \(\frac{\text { Equivalent mass }}{96500}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\text { Equivalent mass }}{96500}\)

Question 46.
The mathematical expression of Faraday’s second law is …………
(a) m = ZIt
(b) \(\frac{m_{1}}{E_{1}}=\frac{m_{2}}{E_{2}}=\frac{m_{3}}{E_{3}}\)
(c) \(\frac{m_{1}}{Z_{1}}=\frac{m_{2}}{Z_{2}}=\frac{m_{3}}{Z_{3}}\)
(d) \(Z=\frac{m}{I t}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{m_{1}}{Z_{1}}=\frac{m_{2}}{Z_{2}}=\frac{m_{3}}{Z_{3}}\)

Question 47.
Which one of the following is used in cell phone, dry cell in flashlight?
(a) Zn – Cu battery
(b) Li – ion battery
(c) Ag – Cu battery
(d) Na, NaCI battery
Answer:
(b) Li – ion battery

Question 48.
The primary batteries are ………..
(a) rechargeable
(b) non – rechargeable
(c) reversible
(d) renewable
Answer:
(b) non – rechargeable

Question 49.
Consider the following statements.
(i) The secondary batteries are rechargeable
(ii) Primary batteries are non – rechargeable
(iii) Batteries are used as a source of AC current at a constant voltage.
Which of the above statement is I are not correct?
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (i) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(b) (iii) only

Question 50.
The anode and cathode used in Leclanche cell are ………… respectively.
(a) Zinc, Graphite rod with MnO2
(b) Graphite rod in MnO2 and Zinc container
(c) Zn container and copper rod
(d) Copper container and Zinc rod
Answer:
(a) Zinc, Graphite rod with MnO2

Question 51.
Which electrolyte is used in Leclanche cell?
(a) ZnSO4 + CuSO4
(b) NH4CI + ZnCl2
(c) NaCI + CuSO4
(d) MnSO4 + MnO2
Answer:
(b) NH4Cl + ZnCl2

Question 52.
Which one of the following is used as cathode in Mercury button cell?
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc amalgamated with mercury
(d) HgO mixed with graphite
Answer:
(c) Zinc amalgamated with mercury

Question 53.
Which one of the following is used as anode in Mercury button cell?
(a) HgO mixed with graphite
(b) Zinc amalgamated with mercury
(c) Copper amalgamated with Mercury
(d) HgO mixed with Copper
Answer:
(a) HgO mixed with graphite.

Question 54.
The value of cell emf of Mercury button cell is ………..
(a) 1.35V
(b) – 076V
(c) 0.34V
(d) 100V
Answer:
(a) 1.35 V
Which one of the following is used in pacemakers, cameras and electronic watches?
(a) Li-ion battery
(b) Leclanche cell
(c) Galvanic cell
(d) Mercurry button cell
Answer:
(d) Mercury button cell

Question 56.
The electrolyte used in Mercury button cell is ………….
(a) Paste of kOH and ZnO
(b) CuSO4 + ZnSO4
(c) NaCl + MgCl2
(d) NH4CI + ZnCl2
Answer:
(a) Paste of kOH and ZnO

Question 57.
Which of the following is an example of secondary batteries?
(a) Mercury button cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(c) Lead storage battery
(d) Daniel cell
Answer:
(c) Lead storage battery

Question 58.
Which of the following act as cathode and anode in Lead storage battery?
(a) Lead plate bearing PbO2, spongy Lead
(b) Spongy lead, lead plate bearing PbO2
(c) Lead Copper
(d) Mercury oxide, PbO
Answer:
(a) Lead plate bearing PbO2, Spongy lead

Question 59.
Which one of the following is used as an electrolyte Lead storage battery?
(a) PbSO4
(b) H2SO4
(c) CuSO4
(d) HNO3
Answer:
(b) H2SO4

Question 60.
The emf of lead storage battery is …………
(a) +1.1 V
(b) 2.4V
(c) 2V
(d) 11 . 2V
Answer:
(c) 2 V

Question 61.
The Lead storage battery is used in …………
(a) pacemakers
(b) automobiles
(c) electronic watches
(d) flash light
Answer:
(b) automobiles

Question 62.
Which one of the following is used in automobiles, trains and in inverters?
(a) Lithium ion battery
(b) Mercurry button cell
(c) Lead storage battery
(d) Leclanche cell
Answer:
(c) Lead storage battery

Question 63.
Which one of the following is used as an anode in Lithium ion battery?
(a) Porous graphite
(b) Lithium
(c) CoO2
(d) Copper
Answer:
(a) Porous graphite

Question 64.
which one of the following is used as cathode in Lithium ion battery?
(a) Porous graphite
(b) Lithium
(c) CoO2
(d) Chromium
Answer:
(c) CoO2

Question 65.
Which one of the following is used in cellular phones, Laptop computers and in digital camera?
(a) Mercury button cell
(b) Lithium – ion battery
(c) H2O2 fuel cell
(d) Leclanche cell
Answer:
(b) Lithium – ion battery

Question 66.
Which one of the following is used as an electrolyte in H2O2 fuel cell?
(a) Aqueous CuSO4
(b) Aqueous CoO2
(c) Aqueous KOH
(d) NH4CI + ZnCI2
Answer:
(c) Aqueous KOH

Question 67.
Which one of the following is an example for electrochemical process?
(a) Chrome plating
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Galvanisation
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) All the above

Question 68.
The formula of rust is ………..
(a) Fe2O3
(b) Fe2O3.xH2O
(c) FeO
(d) FeO.xH2O
Answer:
(b) Fe2O3.xH2O

Question 69.
Which one of the following is / are very important for rusting’?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Both a & b
(d) H2O
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 70.
The electro plating of Zinc over a metal is called …………..
(a) Electrolysis
(b) Redox reaction
(c) Galvanisation
(d) Passivation
Answer:
(c) Galvanisation

Question 71.
Consider the following statements.
(i) The standard reduction potential (E°) is a measure of oxidising tendency of the species.
(ii) The standard oxidation potential (E°) is a measure of oxidising tendency of the species.
(iii) The standard oxidation potential (E°) is a measure of redox tendency of the species.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 72.
On the basis of the electrochemical theory of aqueous corrosion, the reaction occuring at the cathode is …………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-65
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-66
Hint:
2H+(aq) + 2e → 2H2
2H+ + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)O2 → H2O
2H+ + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)O2 +2e → H2O
Balancing the above equation
4H+(aq) + O2 + 4e → 2H2O

Question 73.
The standard reduction potential for the half reactions are as ………..
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e E° = +0.76V
Fe → Fe2+ + 2eE° = + 041 V.
So for cell reaction F2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe is ………….
(a) – 0.35V
(b) +0.35V
(c) +1.17V
(d) – 1.117V
Answer:
(b) +0.35V
Hint:
In the reaction F2+ + Zn° → Zn2+ + Fe°
emf = Ecathode – Eanode
= – 0.41 – (- 0.76)
= – 0.41 + 0.76
emf = + 0.35V

Question 74.
The standard emf for the given cell reaction Zn + Cu2+ → Cu + Zn2+ is 1.10V at 25°C. The emf for the cell reaction when 0.1 M Cu2+ and 0.1 M Zn2+ solutions are used at 25°C is ……….
(a) 1.10V
(b) 0.110V
(c) – 1.10V
(d) – 110V
Answer:
(a) 1.10V
Hint:
Ecell = E°cell – \(\frac { 0.0592 }{ 2 }\) log\(\frac{\left(Z n^{2+}\right)}{\left(C u^{2+}\right)}\)
= 1.10 – \(\frac { 0.0592 }{ 2 }\) log \(\frac { 0.1 }{ 0.1 }\)
= 1.10 – \(\frac { 0.0592 }{ 2 }\) log 1
= 1.10 – \(\frac { 0.0592 }{ 2 }\) x 0
= 1.10V

Question 75.
Which amount of chlorine gas liberated at anode, if 1 ampere current is passed for 30 minutes from NaCI solution?
(a) 0.66 moles
(b) 0.33 moles
(c) 0.66 g
(d) 0.33 g
Answer:
(c) 0.66 g
Hint:
2Cl → Cl2 + 2e
Q = It.
Amount of current passed = 1 x 30 x 60 = 1800C
The amount of Cl2 liberated by passing 1800 coulomb of electric charge
= \(\frac{1 \times 1800 \times 71}{2 \times 96500}\)
= 0.66g

Question 76.
When Zinc piece is kept in CuSO4 solution the copper gets precipitated due to standard potential of Zinc is …………
(a) > copper
(b) < copper
(c) > Sulphate
(d) < Sulphate
Answer:
(b) < copper
Hint:
Standard potential of zinc < copper.

Question 77.
Which equation shows the relation between electrode potential (E) standard electrode potential (E°) and concentration of ions in solution is ………..
(a) Kohlrausch’s equation
(b) Nernst equation
(c) Ohm’s equation
(d) Faraday’s equation
Answer:
(b) Nernst equation

Question 78.
The standard electrode potential of SHE at 298K is ………
(a) 0.05 V
(b) 0.01 V
(c) 0.0 V
(d) 0.11 V
Answer:
(c) 0.0 V

Question 79.
The reaction Zn2+ + 2e → Zn has a standard potential of – 0.76 V. This means
(a) Zn cannot replace hydrogen from acids
(b) Zn is a reducing agent
(c) Zn is an oxidising agent
(d) Zn2+ is a reducing agent
Answer:
(b) Zn is a reducing agent.
Hint:
Since E0Zn2+/Zn is negative, so Zn has a greater tendency to be oxidised than hydrogen. Hence it can act as reducing agent.

Question 80.
K, Ca and Li metals may be arranged in the decreasing order of their standard electrode potentials as ……..
(a) K, Ca, Li
(b) Ca, K, Li
(c) Li, Ca, K
(d) Ca, Li, K
Answer:
(b) Ca, K, Li

Question 81.
The correct order of chemical reactivity with water according to electrochemical series ………….
(a) K > Mg > Zn > Cu
(b) Mg > Zn > Cu > K
(c) K > Zn > Mg > Cu
(d) Cu > Zn > Mg > K
Answer:
(a) K > Mg > Zn > Cu
Hint:
The standard reduction potential of K+, Mg2+, Zn2+, Cu2+ increases in this order.

Question 82.
For a spontaneous reaction, the ΔG, the equilibrium constant (K) and E°cell will be respectively
(a) ve, > 1, + ve
(b) + ve , > 1, – ve
(c) – ve, < 1, – ve (d) – ve, > 1, – ve
Answer:
(a) – ve, > 1, + ve.

Question 83.
E° values of mg2+/mg is – 2.37 V, Zn2+/ Zn is – 0.76V, and Fe2+ / Fe is – 0.44 V. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Zn will reduce Fe2+
(b) Zn will reduce mg2+
(c) mg oxidises Fe
(d) Zn oxidises Fe
Answer:
(a) Zn will reduce Fe2+
Hint:
E0Zn2+/Zn<E0Fe2+/Fe So Zn will reduce Fe2+. Zinc cannot reduce Mg2+ because
\(\mathbf{E}_{\mathbf{Z n}^{2+} / \mathbf{z n}}^{\circ}>\mathbf{E}_{\mathrm{Mg}^{2+} / \mathrm{Mg}}^{\circ}\) On similar reason mg and Zn cannot oxidise Fe.

Question 84.
In which cell, the free energy of a chemical reaction is directly converted into electricity?
(a) Leclanche cell
(b) Fuel cell
(c) Lead storage battery
(d) Lithium ion battery
Answer:
(b) Fuel cell

Question 85.
Which of the following has the highest electrode potential?
(a) Li
(b) Cu
(c) Au
(d) Al
Answer:
(c)Au

Question 86.
Consider the following statements.
(i) A salt bridge is used to eliminate liquid junction potential
(ii) The Gibbs free energy change ∆G is related with electro motive force (E) as ∆G = – nFE.
(iii) Nernst equation for a single electrode potential is E = E° – \(\frac { RT }{ nF }\) In \(a_{m} n^{4}\)
(iv) The efficiency of a hydrogen oxygen fuel cell is 23%.

Which of the above statement is / are not correct?
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iv) only
(d) (i) only
Answer:
(c) (iv) only

Question 87.
The specific conductance of 0.1 N KCl solution at 23°C is 0.012 Ohm-1 cm-1. The resistance of the cell containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 Ohm. The cell constant will be …………
(a) 0.142 cm-1
(b) 0.66 cm-1
(c) 0.9 18 cm-1
(d) 1.12 cm-1
Answer:
(c) 0.66 cm-1
Hint:
k x \(\frac { 1 }{ R }\) x cell constant
Cell constant = k x R
= 0.012 x 55
= 0.66 cm-1

Question 88.
Which of the following reaction is used to make a fuel cell?
(a) Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3(s) → CdO(s) + 2Ni (OH) + H2O(1)
(b) Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq) → 2 PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(1)
(c) 2H2(g) + O(s) + 2H2O(1)
(d) 2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+(ag) + 2Fe4(s) + 2H2O(1)
Answer:
(c) 2H2(g) + O(s) + 2H2O(1)

When lead storage battery is charged
(a) PbO2 is dissolved
(b) PbSO4 is deposited on lead electrode
(c) PbSO4 is deposited on lead electrode

Question 89.
Which colourless gas evolves when NH4CI reacts with Zinc in a dry cell battery?
(a) NH3
(b) N2
(c) H2
(d) Cl2
Answer:
(c) H2
Hint: 2NH4Cl + Zn → 2NH3 + ZnCl2 + H2

Question 91.
A cell from the following which converts electrical energy into chemical energy?
(b) Electro chemical cell
(d) Lithium – ion battery
(a) dry cell
(c) Electrolytic cell
Answer:

Question 92.
When 9.65 Coulombs of electricity is passed through a solution of silver nitrate (Atomic weight of Ag = 107.85g), the amount of silver deposited is ……………
(a) 10.8 mg
(b) 5.4 mg
(c) 16.2 mg
(d) 21.2 mg
Answer:
(a) 10.8 mg
Hint:
WAg = \(\frac{E_{A g} \times Q}{96500}\) = \(\frac{108 \times 9.65}{96500}\)
= 1.08 x 10-2

Question 93.
What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 Faraday’s of electricity through a cupric salt (Atomic weight of Cu = 63.5)
(a) 2.0g
(b) 3.175g
(c) 63.5g
(d) 127.0g
Answer:
(c) 63.5 g
Hint:
Cu2+ + 2e → Cu
2 Faraday’s will deposit 1g atom of Cu = 63.5 g

Question 94.
In electrolysis of a fused salt, the weight of the deposit on an electrode will not depend on ….
(a) temperature of the bath
(b) current intensity
(c) electro chemical equivalent of ions
(d) time for electrolysis.
Answer:
(a) temperature of the bath

Question 95.
The mass deposited at an electrode is directly proportional to ………..
(a) atomic weight
(b) equivalent weight
(c) molecular weight
(d) atomic number
Answer:
(b) equivalent weight

Question 96.
Which solution will show the highest resistance during the passage of current?
(a) 0.05 N NaCl
(b) 2N NaCI
(c) 0.1N NaCI
(d) 1N NaCI
Answer:
(b) 2N NaCl

Question 97.
In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow from
(a) anode to cathode through the solution
(b) cathode to anode through the solution
(c) anode to cathode through the external circuit
(d) cathode to anode through the external circuit
Answer:
(c) anode to cathode through the external circuit

Question 98.
Rusting of iron is catalysed by which of the following?
(a) Fe
(b) O2
(c) Zn
(d) H
Answer:
(d) H

Question 99.
The conductivity of strong electrolyte is ………..
(a) increase on dilution slightly
(b) decrease on dilution
(c) does not change with dilution
(d) depend upon density of electrolyte itself
Answer:
(a) increase on dilutions lightly

Question 100.
Which one is not a conductor of electricity?
(a) NaCl(aqueous)
(b) NaCl(solid)
(c) NaCl(molten)
(d) Ag(metal)
Answer:
(b) NaCl(solid)
Hint:
In solid state, NaCl does not dissociate into ions so it does not conduct electricity.

Question 101.
The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration
(a) 0.00 1 m
(b) 0.005 m
(c) 0.002 m
(d) 0.004 m
Answer:
(a) 0.001 m
Hint:
molar conductance α \(\frac{1}{\text { molarity }}\)

Question 102.
Resistance of 0.2 m solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ohm-1. The specific conductance of the solution is 1.3 Sm-1. If resistance of 0.4 m solution of the same electrolyte is 260 Ohm-1, its molar conductivity is ……..
(a) 62.5 Sm2 mol-1
(b) 6250 Sm2 mol-1
(c) 6.25 x 10-4 Sm2 mol-1
(d) 625 x 10-4 Sm2 mol-1
Answer:
(c) 6.25 x 10-4 Sm2 mol-1

Question 103.
Saturated solution of KCI (or) Na2SO4 is used to make salt bridge because
(a) velocity of K+ is greater than that of Cl
(b) velocity of Cl is greater than that of K+
(c) velocity of both K+ and Cl-1 are nearly the same
(d) KCI is highly soluble in water.
Answer:
(c) velocity of both K+ and Cl are nearly the same

Question 104.
Which of the following electrolytic solutions has the least specific conductance?
(a) 0.02 N
(b) 0.2 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 0.002 N
Answer:
(d) 0.002 N

Question 105.
An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to ……….
(a) increase in both the number of ions and ionic mobility of ions
(b) increase in number of ions
(c) increase in ionic mobility of ions
(d) 100% ionization of electrolyte at normal dilution
Answer:
(c) increase in ionic mobility of ions

Question 106.
Li occupies higher position in the electrochcmical series of metals as compared to Cu, since
(a) the standard reduction potential of Li+/Li is lower than that of Cu2+/Cu
(b) the standard reduction potential of Cu2+/Cu is lower than that of Li+/Li
(c) the standard oxidation potential of Li/Li+ is lower than that of Cu/Cu2+
(d) Li is smaller in size as compared to Cu.
Answer:
(a) the standard reduction potential of Li+/Li is lower than that of Cu2+/Cu

Question 107.
The one which decreases with dilution is …………
(a) conductance
(b) specific conductance
(c) equivalent conductance
(d) molar conductance
Answer:
(b) specific conductance

Question 108.
Corrosion of iron is essentially an electrochemical phenomenon where the cell reactions are …………..
(a) Fe is oxidised to Fe2+ and dissolved oxygen in water is reduced to OH
(b) Fe is oxidised to Fe2+ and H2O is reduced to O22-
(c) Fe is oxidised to Fe2+ and H2O is reduced to O2
(d) Fe is oxidised to Fe2+ and H2O is reduced to O2
Answer:
(a) Fe is oxidised to Fe2+ and dissolved oxygen in water is reduced to OH-2

Question 109.
A button cell used in watches functions as following.
Zn(s) + Ag2O(s) + H2O(1) → 2 Ag(s) + Zn2+(aq)+ 2OHsup>-(aq).
If half cell potentials are Zn2+(aq) + 2e → Zn(s)
E° = – O.76V
Ag2O(s) + H2O(1) +2e 2Ag(s) + 2OH(aq)E0 = 0.34V
The cell potential will be ………..
(a) 1.10V
(b) 0.42V
(c) 0.84V
(d) 1.34V
Answer:
(a) 1.10V
Hint:
Cell potential = Ecathode – Eanode
= 0.34 – (- 0.76)
= 0.34 + 0.76
= 1.10V

Question 110.
Among the following cells Leclanche cell
(I) Nickel – cadmium cell
(II) Lead storage battery
(III) and Mercury Cell
(IV) primary cells are
(a) I & II
(b) I & III
(c) II & III
(d) I & IV
Answer:
(d) I & IV

II. Fill in the blanks.

  1. ……… is defined as the resistance of an electrolyte confined between two electrodes having unit cross sectional area and separated by a unit distance
  2. The reciprocal of the specific resistance is called the and represented by the symbol ………
  3. The SI unit of specific conductance is ………
  4. The relation between equivalent conductance and the specific conductance is given as ………
  5. Conductivity increases with the ……… in viscosity.
  6. m values of the weak electrolytes can be determined using ………
  7. ……… is a device in which a spontaneous chemical reaction generates an electric current.
  8. ……… is a device that converts electrical energy into chemical energy.
  9. The salt bridge contains a agar-agar gel mixed with an inert electrolyte such as ………
  10. The SI unit of cell potential is ………
  11. The reference electrode SHE has emf of exactly ……… volt
  12. The value of charge of one electron is equal to ………
  13. For a spontaneous cell reaction, the should be ………
  14. ……… is a process in which electrical energy is used to cause a non-spontaneous chemical reaction.
  15. The negative E° values shows that the reactions are ………
  16. ……… is defined as the amount of a substance deposited or liberated at the electrode by a charge of 1 Coulomb.
  17. ……… batteries are used in cell phones.
  18. ……… cell is used in pacemakers, electronic watches and cameras.
  19. ………battery is used in automobiles.
  20. Rusting of iron is an ……… process.

Answer:

  1. Specific resistance (or) Resistivity
  2. Specific conductance, Kappa(k)
  3. Sm-1
  4. Λ = \(\frac{\kappa \times 10^{-3}}{N}\)
  5. decrease
  6. Kohlraush’s law
  7. Galvanic (or) Voltaic cell
  8. Electrolytic cell
  9. KCl (or) Na2SO4
  10. Volt (V)
  11. zero
  12. 1.6 x 10-19C
  13. negative
  14. Electrolysis
  15. non – spontaneous
  16. electro chemical equivalent
  17. Li-ion
  18. Mercury button
  19. Lead storage
  20. electro chemical

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-37
Answer:
i. c d a b

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-38
Answer:
ii. c a d b

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-39
Answer:
iii. d c a b

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-40
Answer:
iv. c a d b

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-41
Answer:
i. b c d a

Question 6.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-42
Answer:
i. c a d b

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): If the temperature of the electrolytic solution increases, conductance also increases.
Reason (R): Increase in temperature increases the kinetic energy of the ions and decreases the attractive force between the oppositely charged ions and hence conductivity increases.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Molar conductance of a solution increases with increase in dilution.
Reason (R): For a strong electrolyte, inter ionic forces of attraction decreases with dilution and so conductivity increases. For a weak electrolyte, degree of dissociation increases with dilution and conductivity increases.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is not the explanation of A
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion(A): AC current is used in wheatstone bridge arrangement to measure conductivity of ionic solution.
Reason (R): If DC current is used in wheatstone bridge arrangement, it will lead to electrolys is of the solution taken in the cell. So AC current is used to prevent electrolysis.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Strong electrolytes have low molar conductivity at high concentration.
Reason (R): For a strong electrolyte, at high concentration, the number of constituent ions of the electrolyte is high and hence the attractive force between the oppositely charged ions is also high
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 5.
Assertion(A): In Daniel cell, the salt bridge contains an agar-agar gel mixed with an inert electrolyte KCl (or) Na2SO4.
Reason (R): The ions of inert electrolyte do not react with other ions present in half cells and they are not either oxidised or reduced at electrodes.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Current stops flowing when Ecell = 0
Reason (R): At Ecell = 0, Equilibrium of the cell reaction is attained.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Copper Sulphate can be stored in a Zinc vessel.
Reason (R): Zinc is less reactive than Copper.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Copper Sulphate can be stored in a Zinc vessel.
Reason (R): Zinc is less reactive than Copper.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 8.
Assertion(A): As a lead storage battery gets discharged. density of electrolyte present in it decreases.
Reason (R): Lead and Lead dioxide both react with sulphuric acid to form lead sulphate.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

Question 9.
Assertion(A): The cell potential of mercury cell is 1.35V which remains constant.
Reason (R): In mercury cell, the electrolyte is a paste of KOH and ZnO.
(a) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion(A): If an iron rod is dipped in CuSO4 solution, then blue colour of the solution turns red.
Reason (R): Iron is more reactive than copper and so iron displaces copper from CuSO4 solution.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Find the odd one out and give the reasons.

Question 1.
(a) I α V
(b) I = \(\frac { V }{ R }\)
(c) V = IR
(d) R = \(\frac { I }{ V }\)
Answer:
(d) R is the odd one, and other three represents Ohm’s law

Question 2.
(a) m = Zit
(b) Z = \(\frac { m }{ It }\)
(c) m α It
(c) \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{Z}_{1}}$\) = \($\frac{\mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{Z}_{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{1}}{\mathrm{Z}_{1}}$\) = \($\frac{\mathrm{m}_{2}}{\mathrm{Z}_{2}}\) = is the odd one, all the others are Faraday’s I law but (ci) is Faraday’s ¡I law

Question 3.
(a) Pacemaker
(b) electronic watches
(c) trains
(d) cameras
Answer:
(c) train, Lead storage battery is used in trains, but in all others mercury button cell is used up.

Question 4.
(a) Automobiles
(b) Pacemaker
(c) Train
(d) Inverters
Answer:
(b) Pacemaker. In pacemaker mercury button cell is used whereas in other three, lead storage battery is used up.

Question 5.
(a) Cellular phone
(b) Laptop
(c) Digital Camera
(d) Electronic watch
Answer:
(d) Electronic watch. ¡n this mercury button cell is used whereas in others Li-ion battery is used up.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry 2 Mark Questions and Answers

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
At a constant temperature, the current flowing through the cell (I) is directly proportional to the voltage across the cell (V).
I α V(or) I = \(\frac { V }{ R }\)
V = IR

Question 2.
Define Resistivity. Give its unit.
p (rho) is called the specific resistance (or) resistivity and it is defined as the resistance of an electrolyte confined between two electrodes having unit cross sectional area and are separated by a unit distance. Unit of resistivity is Ohm metre (Ω m)

Question 3.
Define conductance and give its unit.
Answer:
The reciprocal of the resistance \((\frac { 1 }{ 2 })\) is known as the conductance of an electrolytic solution.
The SI unit of conductance is Ohm-1 (or) Siemen (S)

Question 4.
Define specific conductance. Give its SI unit.
Answer:
The specific conductance is defined as the conductance of a cube of an electrolytic solution of unit dimensions. The SI unit of specific
k = C . \(\frac { l }{ A }\)
conductance is Sm-1

Question 5.
What Is meant by resistance? Give its unit.
Answer:
Resistance is the opposition that a cell offers to the flow of electric current through it.
R α \(\frac { l }{ A }\)
The SI unit of R = Ohm (Ω)

Question 6.
What is molar conductance? Give its SI unit.
Answer:
The conductance of a conductivity cell in which the electrodes are separated by 1m and having V m3 of electrolytic solution that contains 1 moIe of an electrolyte is known as molar conductance.
Λm = k x V
The SI unit of Λm = S m2 mol-1

Question 7.
Define equivalent conductance. Give its SI unit.
Answer:
Equivalent conductance is defined as the conductance of ‘V’ m3 of electrolytic solution containing one gram equivalent of electrolyte in a conductivity cell in which the electrodes are one metre apart.
Λ = \(\frac{\kappa \times 10^{-3}}{N}\)
The SI unit of A = S m2 gm equivalent’

Question 8.
What are electro chemical cells? Mention its types.
Answer:
Electro chemical cell is a device which inter converts chemical energy into electrical energy and vice versa. It consists of two separate electrodes which are in contact with an electrolyte solution. Electro chemical cells are classified into two types.

  1. Galvanic cell and
  2. Electrolytic cell.

Question 9.
Distinguish between galvanic cell and electrolytic cell.
Answer:
Galvanic Cell

  1. It is a device in which a spontaneous chemical reaction generates an electric current.
  2. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy. It is commonly known as Battery.
  3. e.g., Daniel cell, Dry cell.
  4. A salt bridge is used in this.

Electrolytic cell

  1. It is a device in which an electric current from an external source drives a non spontaneous reaction
  2. It converts electrical energy into chemical energy.
  3. e.g., Electrolysis of molten NaCI.
  4. Na salt bridge is used.

Question 10.
What is meant by Faraday? How is it calculated?
Answer:
One Faraday is defined as the charge of one mole of electron.
Charge of one electron = 1.6 x 10-19C
Charge of 1 mole of electrons = 6.023 x 1023 x 1.602 x 10-19C
= 6.023 x 1023 x 1.602 x 10-19C
= 96488 C
i.e., IF ≃ 965O0C

Question 11.
Define corrosion. Give one example.
Answer:
The redox process which causes the deterioration of metal is called corrosion. Rusting of iron is an example of corrosion. It is an electro chemical process.

Question 12.
Can you store copper sulphate solution in a zinc pot?
Answer:
Zinc is more reactive than copper. Hence, it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution as follows
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu (s) So, we cannot store copper sulphate solution in a zinc pot.

Question 13.
Why does the conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution?
Answer:
Conductivity of a solution is the conductance of ions present in a unit volume of solution. On dilution the number of ions per unit volume decreases. Hence, the conductivity decrease.

Question 14.
Suggest a way to determine 10m value of water.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-67
We find out
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-68
Then
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-69

Question 15.
Write the chemistry of recharging the lead storage battery, highlighting all the materials that are involved during recharging? .
A lead storage battery consists of anode made up of lead, cathode made up of grid of lead packed with lead dioxide (PbO2) and 38% solution of sulphuric acid is used as an electrolyte. When the battery is in use, the following reaction take place:
Anode: Pb(s) + SO42-(aq) → PbSO4(s) + 2e
Cathode: PbO2(s) + SO42-(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(1)
On charging the battery, the reverse reaction takes place, i.e. PbSO4 deposited on the electrode is converted back into Pb and PbO2 and H2SO4 regenerated.

Question 16.
What is meant by cell constant?
Answer:
Cell constant is the ratio of the distance between the electrodes (l) and the area of cross-section (A). It is denoted by 1. Its unit is cm-1. Its SI unit is m-1.

Question 17.
State two advantages of H2 – O2 fuel cell over ordinary cells.
Answer:

  1. It is highly efficient.
  2. It is pollution free

Question 18.
Why Om for CH3COOH cannot be determined experimentally?
Answer:
Molar conductivity of weak electrolytes keeps on increasing with dilution and does not become constant even at very large dilution.

Question 19.
Which will have greater molar conductivity and why?
Answer:
Sol. (A) 1 mol KCI dissolved in 200 cc of the solution.
Sol. (B) 1 mol KCI dissolved in 500 cc of the solution.
Sol. (B) will have greater molar conductivity because
λm = k x V
with dilution K decreases but V increases, so that product will increase more.

Question 20.
Raju and his father were going in a boat in the river. Raju’s father was going to throw away the cell used in watches and hearing aids into the water. Raju prevented him doing so.

  1. As a student of chemistry, why would you advise Raju’s father not to throw the cell in the water body?
  2. What is the value associated with the above decision?

Answer:

  1. The watch cells are made up of mercury. This mercury will pollute the water. Water contaminated with mercury leads to accumulation of mercury in the body of fishes and other aquatic life.
  2. It helps in keeping the environment safe from pollution due to mercury.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry 3 Mark Questions And Questions

VII.Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain about conductivity cell with an example.
Answer:
1. Sodium chloride (or) potassium chloride is dissolved in a solvent like water, the electrolyte is completely dissociated to give its constituent ions (cations and anions).

2. When an electric field is applied to such an electrolytic solution, the ions present in the solution carry charge from one electrode to another. PLattnium electrode and thereby they conduct electricity. electrode

3. The conductivity of the electrolytic solution is measured using a conductivity cell, solution
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-43

Question 2.
Explain about the factors affecting electrolytic conductance. Conductivily Cell
Answer:

  1. If the interionic attraction between the oppositely charged ions ofsolute increases, the conductance will decrease.
  2. Solvent of high dielectric constant show high conductance in solution.
  3. Conductance is inversely proportional to the viscosity of the medium. i.e., conductivity increases with the decrease in viscosity.
  4. If the temperature of the electrolytic solution increases, conductance also increases.
  5. Molar conductance of a solution increases with increase in dilution. This is because, for a strong electrolyte, inter ionic force of attraction decrease with dilution.
  6. For a weak electrolyte, degree of dissociation increases with dilution.

Question 3.
Explain about the variation of molar conductivity with concentration by Kohiraush studies?
Answer:
Kohiraush observed that, increase of molar conductance of an electrolytic solution with the increase in dilution. He deduced the following empirical relationship between the molar conductance (Λm) and concentration of the
Λm = Λ0m – k\(\sqrt { c }\)
For strong electrolytes such as KCl, NaCl the plot ΛmVs\(\sqrt { c }\), gives a straight line. It is also observed that the plot is not a linear one for weak electrolyte.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-44

Question 4.
For strong electrolytes the molar conductivity increases on dilution and reaches a maximum value at infinite dilution. Justify this statement.
Answer:
For a strong electrolyte, at high concentration, the number of constituent ions of the electrolyte in a given volume is high and hence the attractive force between the oppositely charged ions is also high. The ions also experienced a viscous drag due to greater solvation. These factors attribute for the low molar conductivity at high concentration.

When the dilution increases, the ions are far apart and the attractive forces decreases. At infinite dilution, the ions are so far apart, the interaction between them becomes insignificant and hence the molar conductivity increases and reaches a maximum value at infinite dilution.

Question 5.
For weak electrolyte, sudden increase In molar conductance with dilution. Prove this statement.
Answer:
For a weak electrolyte, at high concentration the plot is almost parallel to concentration axis with slight increase in conductivity as the dilution increases. When the concentration approaches zero, there is a sudden increase in the molar conductance and the curve is almost parallel to Am axis. This is due to the fact that the dissociation of the weak electrolyte increases with the increase in dilution (Ostwald’s dilution law).

Question 6.
Explain about Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation.
Answer:
The influence of ion-ion interactions on the conductivity of strong electrolytes was studied by Debye and Huckel.
They considered that each ion is surrounded by an ionic atmosphere of opposite sign, and derived an expression relating the molar conductance of strong electrolytes with the concentration by It was further developed by Onsagar. For a uni – univalent electrolyte the Debye Huckel and Onsagar equation is given below.
Λm = Λ°m (A + B Λ°m) \(\sqrt { c }\)
Where A and B are constants which depend only in the nature of the solvent and temperature.

Question 7.
What are the values of A and B in Debye Huckel and Onsagar equation?
Answer:
Debye Huckel and Onsagar equation is
Λm = Λ°m (A + B Λ°m) \(\sqrt { c }\)
Where
\(\mathrm{A}=\frac{82.4}{\sqrt{\mathrm{DT}} \mathrm{n}}\)
\(B=\frac{8.20 \times 10^{5}}{3 \sqrt{D T}}\)
D = Dielectric constant of the medium
η = Viscosity of the medium
T = Temperature in Kelvin

Question 8.
How will you calculate degree of dissociation of weak electrolytes and dissociation constant using Kohlrausch’s law?
Answer:
1. The degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte can be calculated from the molar conductivity at a given concentration and the molar conductivity in infinite dilution using the formula

2. According to Ostwald’s dilution law Ka = \(\frac{\alpha^{2} C}{1-\alpha}\)
Substituting a value in the above equation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-45

Question 9.
How would you calculate the solubility of sparingly soluble salt using Kohlrausch’s law?
Answer:
1. Substances like AgCl, PbSO4 are sparingly soluble in water. The solubility product can be determined using conductivity experiments.

2. Let us consider AgCl as an example
AgCI(s) → Ag+ + Cl
Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl]

3. Let the concentration of [Ag+] be ‘C’ mol L-1.
If [Ag+] = C, then [Cl] is also equal to C mol L-1.
Ksp = C.C
Ksp = C2.

4. The relationship between molar conductance and equivalent conductance is
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-46
Substitute the concentration value in the relation Ksp = C2
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-47

Question 10.
What is the relationship between molar mass and electro chemical equivalent. Derive the equation.
Answer:
1. Consider the following general electro chemical redox reaction
Mn+(aq) + ne → M(s)

2. We can infer from the above equation that ‘n’ moles of electrons are required to precipitate

3. The quantity of charge required to precipitate 1 mole of Mn+ = Charge of ‘n’ moles of electrons = nF

4. In other words, the mass of the substance deposited by one coulomb of charge. Molar mass (M)
Electro chemical equivalent Mn+ = \(\frac{\text { Molar mass }(\mathrm{M})}{\mathrm{n}(96500)}\)
(or)
Z = \(\frac{\text { Equivalent mass }}{96500}\)

Question 11.
What is meant by standard reduction potential? What is its application?
Answer:
1. The standard reduction potential (E°) is a measure of the oxidising tendency of the species.
2. The greater the E° value means greater is the tendency shown by the species to accept electrons and undergo reduction.
3. So higher the E° values, lesser is the tendency to undergo corrosion.

Question 12.
What is meant by Electro chemical series? Mention the top most and the least placed element in that series.
Answer:
1. The standard aqueous electrode potential at 298 K for various metal-metal ion electrodes are arranged in the decreasing order of their standard reduction potential values is known as electro chemical series.

2. The strongest reducing agent is Li which has E° value as – 3.05 and it is in bottom of the series.

3. The strongest oxidising agent is F which has E° value as + 2.87 is the first element in that series.

Question 13.
Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.002 M) —‘ Ni2+(0.160 M) + 2 Ag(s)
Given that E°cell = 1.05 V
Answer:
Applying Nernst equation to the given cell reaction:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-48
= 1.05 – 0.14 V = 0.91 V

Question 14.
If a current of 0.5 ampere flows through a metallic wire for 2 hours, then how many electrons would flow through the wire?
Answer:
Q (coulomb) = 1 (ampere) x t(sec)
= 0.5 ampere x 2 x 60 x 60 = 3600C
A flow of IF, i.e., 96500 C is equivalent to the flow of 1 mole of electrons
i.e., 6.023 x 1023electrons
3600 C is equivalent to flow of electrons
= \(\frac{6.02 \times 10^{23}}{96500}\) x 3600 2.246 x 1022 electrons,

Question 15.
What are fuel cells? Write the electrode reactions of a fuel cell which uses the reaction of hydrogen with oxygen?
Answer:
A fuel cell is similar to a galvanic cell, it generates electricity directly by the electrochemical conversion of gaseous or liquid fuels fed into the cell as required.
At anode: H2(g) + 2OH(aq) → 2H2O(l) + 2e
At cathode: O2(g) + 2H2O(1) + 4e → 4OH(aq)
Overall reaction : 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)

Question 16.
Write the cell reaction which occur ¡n the lead storage battery

  1. When the battery is in use,
  2. When the battery is charging.

Answer:
1. Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(1)
At anode: Pb(s) + SO2-4 → PbSO4(s) + 2e
At cathod: PbO4(s) + SO2-4(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e → PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(1)

2. 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(s) → PbSO4(s) + 2H2SO4(aq)

Question 17.
Describe the composition of anode and cathode in a mercury cell. Write the electrode reactions for this cell.
Answer:
Mercury cell: It consists of zinc mercury amalgam as anode, a paste of HgO and Carbon black is used as cathode. The electrolyte is a paste of KOll and ZnO.
At anode: Zn (amalgam) + 2OH → ZnO(s) + H2O(l) + 2e
At cathode: HgO(s) + H2O + 2e → Hg(1) + 2OH
The net reaction : Zn (amalgam) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l)

Question 18.
How much copper is deposited on the cathode of an electrolytic cell If a current of 5 ampere is passed through a solution of copper sulphate for 45 minutes?
Answer:
[Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol-1, IF = 96,500 C mol-1]
Cu2+(aq) + 2e → Cu(s)
m = Z xI x t
= \(\frac{63.5}{2 \times 96500}\) x 5amp x 45 x 60 = \(\frac { 857250 }{ 193000 }\) = 4.44g

Question 19.
How much time would it take in minutes to deposit 1.18 g of metallic copper on a metal object when a current of 2.0 A is passed through the electrolytic cell containing Cu2+ ions?
Answer:
[Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol-1, IF = 96,500 C mol-1]
m = Z x I x t
1.18 = \(\frac{63.5}{2 \times 96500}\)
t = \(\frac{1.18 \times 2 \times 96500}{2 \times 63.5}\)
= 1793.23 sec
= \(\frac { 1793.23 }{ 60 }\) = 29.88 min

Question 20.
What is a salt bridge? What is it used for?
Answer:
A salt bridge is a U – shaped tube containing concentrated solution of an inert electrolyte like KCl, KNO3, K2SO4, etc., or a solidified solution of an electrolyte such as agar-agar and gelatine. It is used,

  1. To complete the electrical circuit by allowing ions to flow from one solution to the other without mixing the two solutions.
  2. To maintain the electrical neutrality of the solutions in the two half cells.

Question 21.
Calculate emf of the following cell of 25°C.
Answer:
Fe | Fe2+(0.001M) || H+(0.01M) | H2(g) (1 bar) pt
E0(Fe2+/Fe) = – 0.44V
E0(H+/H2) = 0.00V
Cell reaction
Fe + 2H+ Fe2+ + H2
E0cell = E0cathode – E0anode
E0cell = 0.44 – \(\frac{0.0591}{2}\) 10 g \(\frac{\left[10^{-3}\right]}{\left[10^{-2}\right]^{2}}\)
= 0.44 – \(\frac{0.0591}{2}\) 10g 10
= 0.44 – \(\frac{0.0591}{2}\)
E0cell = 0.4105V

Question 22.
What is corrosion? CO2 is always present in natural water. Explain its effect (increases, stops or no effect) on rusting of Fe.
Answer:
Corrosion is a process of slowly eating away of the metal due to the attack of atmospheric gases on thc surface of metal resulting into the formation of compounds such as oxides, suiphides, carbonates, suiphates, etc.

Factors affecting corrosion are:

  1. Reactivity of metal
  2. Presence of impurities
  3. Presence of air and moisture
  4. Strains in metals
  5. Presence of electrolytes

CO2 increases the rusting of iron because greater the number of W ions, faster the rusting will take place.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Electro Chemistry 5 Marks Question

VIII.Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
How would you measure the conductivity of ionic solutions?
Answer:
1. The conductivity of an electrolytic solution is determined by using a wheatstone bridge arrangement in which one resistance is replaced by a conductivity cell filled with the electrolytic solution of unknown conductivity.

2. In the measurement of specific resistance of a metallic wire, a DC power supply is used. Here AC is used for this measurement to prevent electrolysis. Because DC current through the conductivity cell leads to the electrolysis of the solution taken in the cell.

3. A wheatstone bridge is constituted using known resistances P,Q, a variable resistance S and conductivity cell. An AC source (550 Hz to 5 KHz) is connected between the junctions A and C. A suitable detector is connected between the junctions B and D.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-49

4. The variable resistance S is adjusted until the bridge is balanced and in this canditions, there is no current flow through the detector.

5. Under balanced condition
P/Q = R/S
R = P/Q x S ………..(1)
The resistance of the electrolytic solution (R) is calculated from the known resistance values P, Q and the measured S value using the equation (1).

6. Specific conductance (or) conductivity of an electrolyte can be calculated from the resistance value (R) using the following expression

7. The value of cell constant is usually provided by the cell manufacturer. Alternatively the cell constant may be determined using KCI solution whose concentration and specific conductance are known.

Question 2.
Explain about SHE (Standard Hydrogen Electrode).
Answer:
1. It is impossible to measure the emf of a single electrode, but we can H2 out H2 measure the potential difference between two electrodes (Ecell) using a voltmeter.

2. To calculate the emf of a single electrode, we need a reference electrode whose emf is known. For that purpose, Standard Hydrogen
Electrode (SHE) is used as the reference electrode.

3. SHE has been assigned an orbitary emf of exactly zero volt.

4. It consists of platinum electrode in contact with 1M HC1 solution and 1 atm hydrogen gas.

5. The hydrogen gas bubbled through the solution at 25°C. SHE can act as cathode as well as an anode.

6. The Half cell reactions are given below:
If SHE is used as a cathode, the reduction reaction is
2H2 + 2e + H2(g,1 atm) E°= 0 volt
If SHE is used as an anode, the oxidation reaction is
H2(g, 1 atm) 2H+( aq, 1M) + 2e E° = 0 volt.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-50

Question 3.
How would you determine the reduction potential of Zn/Zn2+(aq)? (or) How will you calculate the reduction potential of Half cell?
Answer:
1. Consider the zinc electrode dipped in zinc sulphate solution using SHE
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-51

2. Step 1:
The following galvanic cell is constructed using SHE
Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq.1M) | H2(g.1atm) | Pt(s)

3. Step 2:
The emf of the above galvanic cell is measured using a voltmeter. In this case the measured emf of the above galvanic cell is 0.76 V

4. Calculation:
We know that.
cell = (E°ox)zn|zn2+ + (E°red)SHE
cell = 0.76 + 0V
= 0.76 V
This oxidation potential corresponds to the below mentioned half cell reaction which takes place at the cathode
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e (oxidation)
(y) The emf of the reverse reaction will give the reduction potential
Zn2+ + 2e → Zn
(E°red)zn2+|zn = – 0.76V

Question 4.
Derive the relationship between Gibb’s free energy and maximum work obtained from galvanic cell and equilibrium constant.
Answer:
1. In a galvanic cell, chemical energy is converted into electrical energy. The electrical energy produced by the cell is equal to the product of the total charge of the electrons and emf of the cell which drives these electrons between the electrodes.

2. If ‘n’ is the number of moles of electrons exchanged between the oxidising and reducing
agent in the overall cell reaction, then the electrical energy produced by the cell is given
as below.
Electrical energy = change of ‘n’ moles of electrons x Ecell ……………..(1)
Charge of I mole of electrons = one Faraday = 1F
Charge of n moles of electrons = nF ……………..(2)

3. Electrical energy = nFEcell …………….(3)
This energy is used to do electric work. Therefore the maximum work that can be obtained from a galvanic cell is
Here the – ve sign is introduced to indicate that work is done by the system on the surroundings.

4. Second law of thermodynamics states that the maximum work done by the system is equal to the change in Gibbs free energy of the system
Wmax = ΔG …………..(5)

5. ΔG = – nFEcell (6)
For a spontaneous cell reactions, the AG should be negative. The above expression indicates that Ecell should be positive to get a negative AG value.

6. When all the cell components are in their standard state, the equation (6) becomes
ΔG° = – nFE°cell …………….(7)

7. The standard free energy change is related to the equilibrium constant as per the following equation.
ΔG° = – RT In Keq …………..(8)
Comparing equations (7) and (8)
nFE°cell = RT In Keq …………..(9)
nFE°cell = \(\frac { 2.303RT }{ nF }\) log Keq ………………(10)

Question 5.
Describe about the working principle of Leclanche cell.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-52
1. Leclanche cell:
Anode: Zinc container
Cathode: Graphite rod in contact with MnO2
Electrolyte: Ammonium chloride and Zinc chloride in water.
emf of the cell = 1.5 V

2. Cell reaction:
Oxidation at anode
Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e ……………(1)
Reduction at cathode
2NH+4 (aq) + 2e → 2NH3(aq) + H2(aq)

3. The hydrogen gas is oxidised to water by MnO2
H2(g)+ 2MnO2(s) → Mn2O3(s) + H2O(1) ……(3)
Adding equations 1,2,3 the overall redox reaction
Zn(s) + 2NH+4(aq) + 2MnO2(s) → Zn2+(aq) + Mn2O3(s) + H2O(1) + 2NH3 …………….(4)

4. The ammonia produced at the cathode combines with Zn2+ to form a complex ion [Zn (NH3)4]2+(aq). As the reaction proceeds, the concentration of NH4+ will decrease and the aqueous NH3 will increase which lead to the decrease in the emf of the cell.

Question 6.
Explain about the construction and uses of mercury button cell.
Answer:
1. Mercury button cell:
Anode: Zinc Amalgamated with mercury
Cathode: HgO mixed with graphite
Electrolyte: Paste of KOH and ZnO.

2. Oxidation occurs at anode:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-70

3. Reduction occurs at cathode
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-71
Hg(s) + 2OH(aq)
Overall reaction is
Zn(s) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(1)

4. Cell emf: about 1.35 V
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-53

5. Uses:
It has higher capacity and longer life. It is used in pacemakers, electronic watches, cameras.

Question 7.
Describe about lead storage battery construction and its uses.
Answer:
Lead storage battery:
1. Anode – Spongy lead
Cathode – Lead plate bearing PbO2
Electrolyte – 38% by mass of H2SO4 with density 1.2 g/ml

2. Oxidation occurs at the anode
Pb(s) → Pb2+(aq) + 2e ………..(1)
The Pb2+ ions combine with SO42- to form PbSO4 precipitate
Pb2+(aq) + SO42- → PbSO4(s)         …………(2)

3. Reduction occurs at the cathode
PbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2e → + 2H2O(1)     ……….(3)
The Pb2+ ions also combines with SO42- ions to form sulphuric acid to form PbSO4 Precipitate
Pb2+(aq) + SO2-2+ → PbSO         ………….(4)

4. The overall reaction is,
(1) + (2) + (3) + (4)
Pb(s) + pbO2(s) + 4H+(s) + 2SO2-4(s) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(1)

5. The emf of a single cell is about 2V. Usually six such cells are combined in series to produce 12 volts.

6. The emf of the cell depends on the concentration of H2SO4. As the cell reaction uses SO42- ions, the concentration H2SO4 decreases. When the cell potential falls to about 1.8V, the cell has to be recharged.

7. Recharge of the cell – During recharge process, the role of anode and cathode is reversed and H2SO4 is regenerated. Oxidation occurs at cathode (now anode)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-54
Reduction occurs at anode (now cathode)
PbSO4(s) + 2e → Pb(s) + SO2-4(sq)
Overall reaction
2 pbSO4(s) + 2H2O(1) → pb(s) + pbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2SO2-4(aq)
The above reaction is exactly the reverse of redox reaction which takes place while discharging.

8. Uses: Lead storage battery is used in automobiles, trains, inverters.

Question 8.
Describe about lithium-ion battery and its uses.
Answer:
1. Lithium-ion battery
Anode – Porous graphite
Cathode – Transition metal oxide as CoO2
Electrolyte – Lithium salt in an organic solvent

2. At the anode oxidation occurs
Li(s) → Li+(aq) + e
At the cathode reduction Occurs.
Li+ + CoO2(s) + e → Li CoO2(s)

3. Overall reactions
Li(s) + CoO2 → Li CoO2(s)

4. Both electrodes allow Li ions to move in and out of their structures. During discharge the Li ions produced at the anode moves towards cathode through the non-aquaeous electrolyte.

5. When a potential greater than the emf produced by the cell is applied across the electrode, the cell reaction is reversed and now the Li+ ions move from cathode to anode where they become embedded on the porous electrode. This is known as intercalation.

6. Uses: This Li-ion battery is used in cellular phones, Laptop computer and digital camera.

Question 9.
What is corrosion? Explain about the electrochemical mechanism of corrosion.
Answer:
1. The metal is oxidised by oxygen in the presence of moisture. The redox process which causes the deterioration of metal is called corrosion.

2. Corrosion of iron is known as Rusting and it is an electrochemical process.

3. Electrochernical mechanism of corrosion – The formation of rust requires both oxygen and water. Since it is an electrochemical redox process, it requires both an anode and cathode in different places on the iron. The iron surface and a droplet of water on the surface form a tiny galvanic cell.

The region enclosed by water is exposed to low amount of oxygen and it act as anode. The remaining area has high amount of oxygen and it act as cathode. So based on oxygen amount, an electrochem leal cell is formed.
Fe(s) → Fe2+(aq) + 2e
O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e → 2H2O(1)

4. At anode:
2Fe(s) → 2Fe2+(aq) + 4e E° = 1.23V
The electrons move through the iron metal from the anode to the cathode area where the oxygen dissolved in water is reduced to water.

5. At cathode:
The reaction of atmospheric carbondioxide with water gives carbonic acid which furnishes the H+ ions for reduction.
O2(s) + 4H+(g) + 4H+(aq) → 2H2O(1)
E° = 1.23 V
= + 1.67V

6. The electrical circuit is completed by the migration of ions through water droplet. The overall redox reaction is
2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+(aq) → 2Fe3+(aq) + 2H2O(1).
E°= 0.44+ 1.23
= + 1.67 V

7. The positive emf value indicates that the reaction is spontaneous.

8. The Fe2+ ions are further oxidised to Fe3+ which on further reaction with oxygen to form rust.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-55

Question 10.
Explain about the various protection methods to prevent corrosion.
1. Coating metal surface by paint

2. Galvanizing – By Coating with another metal such as zinc. Zinc is stronger oxidising agent than iron and hence it can be more easily corroded than iron. i.e., instead of iron, zinc is oxidised.

3. Cathodic protection: In this technique, unlike galvanizing, the entire surface of the metal to be protected need not be covered with a protecting metal instead, metals such as Mg (or) Zn which is corroded more easily than iron can be used as sacrificial anode and the iron material act as cathode. So iron protected but Mg or Zn gets corroded.

4. Passivation – The metal is treated with strong oxidising agent such as Conc. HNO3. As a result, a protective layer is formed on the surface of the metal.

5. Alloy formation – The oxidising tendency of iron can be reduced by forming its alloy with other more anodic metals. Example – Stainless steel, an alloy of Fe and Cr.

Question 11.
(a) Give reasons for the following

  • Rusting of iron is quicker in saline water than in ordinary water.
  • Aluminium metal cannot be produced by the electrolysis of aqueous solution of aluminium salt.

(b) Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.1 M KCI solution is 1oo ohms. If the resistance of the sanie cell when filled with 0.02 M KCI solution is 520 ohms, calculate the conductivity and molar conductivity of 0.02 M KCI solution. Conductivity of 0.01 M KCI solution is 1.29 S m-1.
Answer:
(a)
1. It is because in saline water, there are inore H4 ions. Greater the number of H4 ions, quicker the rusting will take place.

2. It is because aluminium metal is more reactive than hydrogen and it will react with H2O.

(b)
Cell constant = Conductivity (k) x Resistance (R)
= 1.29 S m-1 x 100Ω
= 1.29 m-1 = 1.29 cm-1
λm = \(\frac { 100k }{ M }\)
k = \(\frac { 1 }{ R }\) x \(\frac { l }{ A }\)
k = \(\frac { 1 }{ 520Ω }\) x 1.29 cm-1, where
k = 2.48 x 10-3S cm-1
λm = \(\frac{100 \times 0.248 \times 10^{-2}}{0.02}\)
= 124 S cm2 mol1

Question 12.
1. State two advantages of H2 – O2 fuel cell over ordinary cell.
2. Silver is electron deposited on a metallic vessel of total surface area 900 cm2 by passing a current of 0.5 amp for two hours. Calculate the thickness of silver metal deposited. [Given: Density of silver = 10.5 g cm-3 Atomic mass of silver = 108 u. IF = 96500 C mol-1].
Answer:
1.

  • It is highly efficient and do not produce pollution.
  • The H2O so produced can be used by astronauts for drinking purpose.

2.
m = Z x l x t
m = \(\frac{108}{96500}\) x 0.5 x 2 x 60 x 60
= \(\frac{108 \times 5}{965 \times 10}\) x 2 x 6 x 6 = 4.03g
4.03g = V x d
4.03 g = V x 10.5 g cm-3
V = Area x thickness
v = 4.03
= 900 cm2 x thickness
Thickness = \(\frac{4.03}{10.5}\)
\(\frac{0.338 \mathrm{cm}^{3}}{900 \mathrm{cm}^{2}}\) = 4.26 x 10-4cm

Question 13.
Distinguish between Leclanche cell and Lead storage battery.
Answer:
Leclanche Cell

  1. It is a primary cell
  2. It is a non-rechargeable cell
  3. Anode : Zinc container
    Cathode : Graphite rod in contact with MnO2
  4. Electrolytes: Ammonium chloride and zinc chloride in water
  5. Emf of the cell = 1.5 V

Lead storage battery

  1. It is a secondary cell
  2. It is rechargeable cell
  3. Anode : Spongy lead
    Cathode : Lead plate bearing PbO2
  4. Electrolytes: 38% by mass of H2SO4 with density 1.2 g/ml
  5. emf of the cell 2 V.

Question 14.
Account for the following

  1. Aluminium undergo slow corrosion than iron.
  2. H2 – O2 fuel cell ¡s more useful than other cells.

Answer:
1. Aluminium, copper, silver also undergo corrosion but at a slower rate than iron. For eg., let us consider the reduction of Aluminium
Al(s) → Al3+(aq) + 3e
Al3+ which reacts with oxygen in air to form a protective coating of AI2O3. This coating act as a protective film for the inner surface. So further corrosion is prevented.

2. H2 – O2 fuel cell is more advanced. Because it is highly efficient. it is pollution free. In this, H2 – O2 fuel cell, energy of combustion of fuel is directly converted to electrical energy.

Common Errors

  1. Units of electrical quantities may get confused.
  2. Writing cell notation may be difficult.

Rectifications

1.Resistance – R ohm (Ω)
Potential difference – V = Volt
Amount of current – 1 = ampere
Specific resistance (ohm m) (Ω m)
Conductivity = Siemen = S
Specific conductance – k = S m-1
Molar conductance = S m2 mol-1
Equivalent conductance = S m2 gram equivalent-1
Cell constant = m-1

2. Easy way is (AC)
solid I aqueous solution II aqueous solution I soLid
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Electro Chemistry-56

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Text Book Evaluation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The correct structure of the product ‘A’ formed in the reaction
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-1
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-2 .1
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-2

Question 2.
The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of …………..
(a) nucleophilic substitution
(b) electrophilic substitution
(c) electrophilic addition
(d) Nucleophilic addition
Answer:
(d) Nucleophilic addition

Question 3.
Reaction of acetone with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is ………….
(a) Grignard reagent
(b) Sn / HCl
(c) hydrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution
(d) hydrocyanic acid
Answer:
(c) hydrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution

Question 4.
In the following reaction,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-3
Product ‘X’ will not give
(a) Tollen’s test
(b) Victor meyer test
(c) Iodoform test
(d) Fehiing solution test
Answer:
(b) Victor meyer test
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-4
(x) reduces tollens reagent and Fehiing solution aind it also answers iodoform test.

Question 5.
In the following reaction,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-5
(a) Formaldelyde
(b) diacetoneammonia
(c) hexamethylenetetraamlne
(d) oxime
Answer:
(c) hexamethylenetetraamlne
Hint:
X – HCHO
Y – (CH2)6 N4

Question 6.
Predict the product Z in the following series of reactions
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-6
iSamacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-7
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-7.1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-8

Question 7.
Assertion: 2, 2 – dirnethyl propanoic acid does not give HVZ reaction.
Reason: 2 – 2, dimethyl propanoic acid does, not have – a hydrogen atom
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-9

Question 8.
Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity in the given compounds
(a) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > CICH2COOH
(b) FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > CH3COOH
(c) CH3COOH > CICH2COOH > FCH2COOH > Br – CH2COOH
(d) ClCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ICH2COOH
Hint.
– I effect increases the acidity. If electronegativity is high, – I effect is also high.

Question 9.
Benzoic acid
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-10
(a) anilinium chloride
(b) O – nitro aniline
(c) benzene diazonium chloride
(d) m – nitro benzoic acid
Answer:
(c) benzene diazonium chloride
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-11

Question 10.
Ethanoic acid
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-12
2 – bromoethanoic acid. This reaction is called ……………
(a) Finkeistein reaction
(b) Haloform reaction
(c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky reaction
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky reaction

Question 11.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-13
(a) acetylchloride
(b) chioro acetic acid
(c) α – chiorocyano ethanoic acid
(d) none of these
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-14

Question 12.
Which one of the following reduces tollens reagent ………
(a) formic acid
(b) acetic acid
(c) benzophenone
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) formic acid
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-15

Question 13.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-16
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-17
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-17.1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-18

Question 14.
The TUPAC name of
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-19……………………
(a) but – 3 – enoicacid
(b) but 1 – ene – 4 – oicacid
(c) but 2 – ene – 1 – oic acid
(d) but – 3 – ene – 1 – oicacid
Answer:
(a) but – 3 – enoicacid
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-20

Question 15.
Identify the product formed in the reaction
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-21
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-22
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-22 .1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-23Group is reduced to CH2 – (Wolff – Kishner reduction)

Question 16.
In which case chiral carbon is not generated by reaction with HCN
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-24
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-24.1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-25

Question 17.
Assertion: p – N, N – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde undergoes benzoin condensation
Reason: The aldehydic (- CHO) group is meta directing
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-26

Question 18.
Which one of the following reaction is an example of disproportionation reaction …………….
(a) Aldol condensation
(b) cannizaro reaction
(c) Benzoin condensation
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) cannizaro reaction
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-27

Question 19.
Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the corresponding alcohol and acid …………
(a) Phenylmethanal
(b) ethanal
(c) ethanol
(d) methanol
Answer:
(a) Phenylmethanal

Question 20.
The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is ………..
(a) Tollens reagent
(b) Fehling’s solution
(c) 2, 4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(d) semicarbazide
Answer:
(b) Fehling’s solution

Question 21.
Phenyl methanal is reacted with concentrated NaOH to give two products X and Y. X reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen X and Y are ………….
(a) sodiumbenzoate and phenol
(b) Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol
(c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-28

Question 22.
In which of the following reactions new carbon – carbon bond is not formed?
(a) Aldol condensation
(b) Friedel craft reaction
(c) Kolbe’s reaction
(d) Wolf kishner reduction
Answer:
(d) Wolf kishner reduction

Question 23.
An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn – H2O gives propanone and ethanol in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product “B” is ……………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-29
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-30
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-31

Question 24.
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their ………………
(a) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(b) formation of carboxylate ion
(c) formation of intramolecular H – bonding
(d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding
Answer:
(d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding

Question 25.
Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-32
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-33
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-34

II. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
How is propanoic acid is prepared starting from

  1. an alcohol
  2. an alkyihalide
  3. an alkene

Preparation of propanoic acid from,
Answer:
1. Alcohol:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-35

2. Alkylhalide:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-36

3. Alkene:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-37

Question 2.
A Compound (A) with molecular formula C2H3N on acid hydrolysis gives(B) which reacts with thionyichioride to give compound(C). Benzene reacts with compound (C) in presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give compound (C). Compound (C) on reduction with gives (D). Identify (A), (B), (C) and D. Write the equations.
Answer:
1. Compound (A) with molecular formula C2H3N is methyl cyanide. (CH3CN)

2. Methyl cyanide (A) on hydrolysis gives acetic acid (B)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-38

3. Acetic acid (B) with thionyl chloride to give acetyl chloride (C)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-39

4. Benzene reacts with acetyl chloride (C) in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give acetophenone (D)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-40

5. Acetyl chloride (C) on reduced in the presence of Pd / H2 and Barium sulphate, to gives acetaldehyde (E).
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-41

Question 3.
Identify X and Y
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-42
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-43

Question 4.
Identify A, B and C
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-44
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-45

Question 5.
A hydrocarbon A(molecular formula C8H10) on ozonolysis gives B(C4H6O2 ) only. Compound C( C3H5Br) on treatment with magnesium in dry ether gives (D) which on treatment with CO2 followed by acidification gives (B). Identify A, B, C and D.
Answer:
1. Molecular formula C8H10 is 1, 2 – dicyclopropylethyne.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-46

2. 1, 2 – dicyclo propyl ethyne (A) on ozonolysis to give cyclo propyl carboxylic acid (B)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-47

3. Compound C3H5Br is Bromo cyclo propane (C), which on reacts with Mg in dry ether gives Grignard reagent (D) which on treatment with CO2 followed by acidification gives cyclo propyl carboxylic acid (B).
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-48

Question 6.
Identify A, B, C and D
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-49
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-50

Question 7.
An alkene (A) on ozonolysis gives propanone and aldehyde (E). When (B) is oxidised (C) is obtained. (C) is treated with Br2 JP gives (D) which on hydrolysis gives (E). When propanone is treated with HCN followed by hydrolysis gives (F). Identify A, B, C, D and E and F.
Answer:
1. 2 – methyl – but – 2 – ene (A) on ozonolysis gives propanone and acetaldehyde (B)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-51

2. Acetaldehyde (B) is oxidised to give acetic acid (C), which on further treated with Br2 / P give monobromo acetyl bromide (D) which on hydrolysis gives monobromo acetic acid (E).
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-52

3. Propanone is treated with HCN followed by hydrolysis to gives 2 – methyl – 2 – hydorxy propanoic acid (F)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-53

Question 8
How will you convert benzaldehyde into the following compounds?

  1. benzophenone
  2. benzoic acid
  3. 2 – hydroxyphenylaceticacid.

Answer:
1. conversion of benzaldehyde into benzophenone.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-54

2. conversion of benzaldehyde into benzoic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-55

3. conversion of benzaldehyde into 2 – hydroxy phenyl acetic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-56

Question 9.
What is the action of HCN on

  1. propanone
  2. 2, 4 – dichiorobenzaldehyde.

Answer:
1. Propanone reacts with HCN.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-57

2. 2, 4 – dichlorobenzaldehyde reacts with HCN.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-58

Question 10.
A carbonyl compound A having molecular formula C5H10O forms crystalline precipitate with sodium bisuiphate and gives positive iodoform test. A does not reduce Fehling solution. Identify A.
Answer:
1. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-59

2. Pentan – 2 – one gives positive iodoform test, but it does not reduce Fehling’s solution.

3. Hence carbonyl compound A having molecular formula C5H10O is pentan – 2 – one.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-60

Question 11.
Write the structure of the major product of the aldol condensation of benzaldehyde with acetone.
Answer:
Step 1:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-61

Step 2:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-62

Step 3:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-63

Step 4:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-64

Question 12.
How are the following conversions effected

  1. propanal into butanone
  2. Hex – 3 – yne into hexan – 3 – one.
  3. phenylmethanal into benzoic acid
  4. phenylmethanal into benzoin

Answer:
1. propanal into butanone
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-65

2. Hex – 3 – yne into hexan – 3 – one
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-66

3. phenylmethanal into benzoic acid
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-67

4. phenylmethanal into benzoin
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-68

Question 13.
Complete the following reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-69
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-70

Overall reaction:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-71

Question 14.
Identify A, B and C
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-72
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-73

Question 15.
When ketones are undergo oxidation, the C – C bond Is cleaved. When a strong oxidising agent is used to oxidise 2, 5 – dimethyl hexan – 3 – one mention the products with their names.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-74

Question 16.
How will you convert following conversion?

  1. Acetic acid into acetic anhydride
  2. Methyl acetate into ethyl acetate
  3. Methyl acetate into acetamide
  4. Acetyl chloride into acetophenone
  5. Sodium acetate into ethane
  6. Ethanal into lactic acid
  7. Toluene into benzoic acid
  8. Benzaldehyde into malachite green
  9. Benzaldehyde into Cinnamic acid
  10. Ethyne into acetaldehyde

Answer:
1. Conversion of Acetic acid into acetic anhydride
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-75

2. Conversion of Methyl cyanate into acetamide.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-76

3. Conversion of Methyl cyanate into acetamide.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-77

4. Conversion of Acetyl chloride into acetophenone.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-78

5. Conversion of Sodium acetate into ethane.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-79

6. Conversion of Ethanal into lactic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-80

7. Conversion of Toluene into benzoic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-81

8. Conversion of Benzaldehyde into malachite green.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-82

9. Conversion of benzaldehyde into cinnamic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-83

10. Conversion of Ethyne into acetaldehyde.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-84

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Evaluate yoursel

Question 1.
Write the IUPAC name for the following compound.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-85
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-86

Question 2.
Wrtie all possible structural isomers and position isomers for the ketone represented by the molecular formula C5H10O.
Answer:
Molecular formula C5H10O exhibits following possible ketone structural isomers and position isomers.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-87

Question 3.
What happens when the following alkenes are subjected to reductive ozonolysis.

  1. propene
  2. 1 – Butene
  3. Isobutylene

Answer:
1. propene
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-88

2. 1 – Butene
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-89

3. Isobutylene
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-90

Question 4.
What happens when n-propyl benzene is oxidised using H+ / KMnO4?
Answer:
When n – propyl benzene is oxidised with H+ / KMnO4 to gives benzoic acid.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-91

Question 5.
How will you prepare benzoic acid using Crignard reagent.
Answer:
Preparation of benzoic acid using Grignard reagent:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-92

Question 6.
Why acid anhydride are preferred to acyl chloride for carrying out acylation reactions?
Answer:
Acid anhydride are preferred to acyl chloride for carrying out acylation reactions. Because

  1. Easily available
  2. Cheap
  3. Easy to prepare
  4. Easily undergo acylation without irritating odours

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Which one of the following aldehyde is derived from vitamin B, function as a co – enzyme?
(a) Pyridoxal
(b) Formaldehyde
(c) Ethanal
(d) Propanal
Answer:
(a) Pyridoxal

Question 2.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of Bakelite?
(a) Methanal
(b) Ethanal
(c) Phenyl methanal
(d) Butanal
Answer:
(a) Methanal

Question 3.
Which is used as a drug to reduce fever?
(a) Diethyl ether
(b) Acetone
(c) Acetophenone
(d) Paracetamol
Answer:
(d) Paracetamol

Question 4.
The IUPAC name of Acrolein is
(a) Prop – 2 – enal
(b) Propanal
(c) Ethenal
(d) 1 – butanal
Answer:
(a) Prop – 2 – enal

Question 5.
The IUPAC name of crotanaldehyde CH3 – CH = CH – CHO is …………….
(a) Prop – 2 – enal
(b) But – 2 – enal
(c) Ethenal
(d) Phenyl methanal
Answer:
(b) But – 2 – enal

Question 6.
The IUPAC name of is
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-93 …………………..
(a) Glyceraldehyde
(b) Acrolein
(c) 2, 3 – dihydroxy propanal
(d) Butanal
Answer:
(c) 2, 3 – dihydroxy propanal

Question 7.
Which one of the following is called Mesityl oxide?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-151
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-152

Question 8.
Which one of the following is called 3 – oxopentanal?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-153
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-154

Question 9.
Which one of the following is names as 3 – methyl cyclopentanone?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-155
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-156

Question 10.
Which one of the following is the hybridised state of C atoms in carbonyl carbon?
(a) sp
(b) sp3d
(c) sp3
(d) sp2
Answer:
(d) sp2

Question 11.
Which of the following reagent is used to get aldehyde from alcohol by oxidation method?
(a) Na2Cr2O7
(b) KMnO4
(c) PCC
(d) LiAlH4
Answer:
(c) PCC

Question 12.
The product formed when but – 2 – ene is on ozonolysis is ………….
(a) Propanone
(b) Methanal
(ç) Ethanal
(d) Butanal
Answer:
(ç) Ethanal

Question 13.
Which one of the following should be ozonolysed to get a mixture of ethanal and propanone?
(a) Propene
(b) But – 2 – ene
(c) Ethylene
(d) 2 – methyl – but – 2 – ene
Answer:
(d) 2 – methyl – but – 2 – ene

Question 14.
The products formed when propene is ozonolysed are …………….
(a) HCHO + CH3CHO
(b) CH3CHO
(c) HCOOH + CH3COOH
(d) CH3COCH3
Answer:
(a) HCHO + CH3CHO

Question 15.
Identify the products formed when But- 1-ene undergoes reductive ozonolysis?
(a) HCHO + CH3CHO
(b) HCHO + CH3CH2CHO
(c) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO
(d) HCHO + CH3COCH3
Answer:
(b) HCHO + CH3CH2CHO

Question 16.
Which one of the following should be subjected to reductive ozonolysis to get only formal dehyde?
(a) CH ≡ CH
(b) CH3 – CH = CH2
(c) CH2 = CH2
(d) CH3 – CH3
Answer:
(c) CH2 = CH2

Question 17.
What are the products formed when Isobutylene is subjected to ozonolysis?
(a) HCHO + CH3CHO
(b) CH3COCH3 + HCHO
(c) CH3CHO + CH3COCH
(d) CH3COCH3 + CH3CH2CHO
Answer:
(b) CH3COCH3 + HCHO

Question 18.
Which one of the following is formed when acetylene is hydrolysed in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4?
(a) Ethanal
(b) Ethylene
(c) Ethane
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(d) Ethanol

Question 19.
Hydrolysis of prop – 1 – yne in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 gives ……………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-157
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-158

Question 20.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-159
Answer:
(a) CaCO3 + H2
(b) CO2 + H2O + Ca
(c) HCHO + CaCO3
(d) CO + H2O + Ca(OH)2
Answer:
(c) HCHO + CaCO3

Question 21.
Calciwn acetate on dry distillation gives …………
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Propanone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Propanal
Answer:
(b) Propanone

Question 22.
Which of the following calcium salts are required to get ethanal by dry distillation process?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-160
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-161

Question 23.
The conversion of acetyl chloride to acetaldehyde by the action of Pd/BaSO4 is called ………………..
(a) Perkin’s reaction
(b) Stephens reaction
(c) Clemmenoon reduction
(d) Rosenmund reduction
Answer:
(d) Rosenmund reduction

Question 24.
Which of the following cannot be prepared by Rosenmund reduction method?
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Formaldehyde
(c) Ketone
(d) Both b & c
Answer:
(d) Both b & c

Question 25.
In Rosenmunds reduction, the action of BaSO4 is …………….
(a) Promoter
(b) Catalyst poison
(c) Positive catalyst
(d) Negative catalyst
Answer:
(b) Catalyst poison

Question 26.
Which one of the following is an intermediate product in Stephen’s reaction?
(a) Amines
(b) Amides
(c) Imines
(d) Amino acid
Answer:
(c) Imines

Question 27.
Which one of the following is used as selective reducing agent in the conversion of cyanide to aldehyde?
(a) Raney Ni
(b) LiAlH4
(c) SnCl2 / HCl
(d) DIBAL – H
Answer:
(d) DIBAL – H

Question 28.
Identify the product formed when benzaldehyde reacts with chromyl chloride?
(a) Benzoic acid
(b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Phenyl methanol
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(b) Benzaldehyde

Question 29.
The conversion reaction of Benzene to Benzaldehyde is known as ……………..
(a) Rosenmund reduction
(b) Stephen reduction
(c) Gattermann koch reaction
(d) Friedel – crafts reaction
Answer:
(c) Gattermann koch reaction

Question 30.
Which one of the following is used to convert acetyl chloride to acetone?
(a) CdCl2
(b) CrO2CI2
(c) Cu2CI2
(d) NaCl
Answer:
(a) CdCl2

Question 31.
Which one of the following is the best method to prepare alkyl aryl ketone and diaryl ketones?
(a) Stephen reaction
(b) Knoevengal reaction
(c) Ciemmenson reduction
(d) Friedel crafts reaction
Answer:
(d) Friedel crafts reaction

Question 32.
The product formed when Benzoyl chloride reacts with benzene is ………….
(a) Benzyl benzoate
(b) Benzophenone
(c) Benzyl chloride
(d) Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
(b) Benzophenone

Question 33.
Which one of the following is used as catalyst in Friedel Crafts reaction?
(a) Anhydrous ZnCl2
(b) Anhydrous CuCl2
(c) Anhydrous AlCl3
(d) Androus CaCl2
Answer:
(c) Anhydrous AlCl3

Question 34.
During nucleophilic addition reaction, the hybridisation of carbon changes from
(a) sp2 to sp3
(b) sp3 to sp2
(c) sp to sp3
(d) dsp2 to sp3
Answer:
(a) sp2 to sp3

Question 35.
Which one of the following is formed as a product when ethanal is treated with 2 equivalent of methanol?
(a) 1, 1 – dimethoxy methane
(b) 1 ,2 – dimethoxy ethane
(c) 1, 1 – dimethoxy ethane
(d) 1, 1 – diethoxy ethane
Answer:
(c) 1, 1 – dimethoxy ethane

Question 36.
Which aldehyde does not give aldimine with etheral ammonia solution?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-162
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-163

Question 37.
Identify the product formed when acetaldehyde reacts with ammonia?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-164
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-165

Question 38.
Which one of the following is formed when methanal reacts with ammonia?
(a) Tetramethylene hexamine
(b) Hexamethylene tetramine
(c) Formaldehyde ammonia
(d) Aldimine
Answer:
(b) Hexamethylene tetramine

Question 39.
Which one of the following is used as, an urinary antiseptic?
(a) Urotropine
(b) Urea formaldehyde
(c) Formalin
(d) Aldimm
Answer:
(a) Urotropine

Question 40.
Which one of the reactions gives an explosive RDX?
(a) Nitration of phenol
(b) Nitration of glycol
(c) Nitration of urotropine
(d) Nitration of glycerol
Answer:
(c) Nitration of urotropine

Question 41.
Which one of the following is called hydrobenzamide?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-166
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-167

Question 42.
Which one of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with ammonia?
(a) Benzalamine
(b) Benzylamine
(c) Hydrobenzarnide
(d) Benzarnide
Answer:
(c) Hydrobenzarnide

Question 43.
Which rule governes the oxidation of unsymmetrical ketone?
(a) Markovnikoff’s rule
(b) Popoff s rule
(c) Antimarkovnikoff s rule
(d) Hund’s rule
Answer:
(b) Popoff s rule

Question 44.
What are the products formed when 2-butanonc is oxidised by conc – HNO3?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-168
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-169

Question 45.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-170
In this reaction A and B are …………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-171
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-172

Question 46.
Name the product formed Acetaldehyde reacts with Zinc amalgam and conc.HCl?
(a) Propane
(b) Ethane
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(b) Ethane

Question 47.
The reagent used in the Conversion of Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-173 group into – CH2 – group is …………..
(a) Zn + Hg / HCl
(b) NH2 – NH2 + C2H5ONa
(c) mg / Hg / H2O
(d) either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) either (a) or (b)

Question 48.
The product formed when Acetone is subjected to Clemmenson reduction is ……………..
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Propanoic acid
(c) Propane
(d) Propanal
Answer:
(c) Propane

Question 49.
Which one of the following is formed when acetone is treated with magnesium amalgam and water?
(a) Pinacol
(b) Acetyl acetone
(c) Aceto acetic ester
(d) 1 ,2 – dimethyl butane 1, 2 – diol
Answer:
(a) Pinacol

Question 50.
Which one of the following does not undergo halo form reaction?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-174
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-175

Question 51.
Which one of the following undergoes halo form reaction?
(a) HCHO
(b) C6H5CHO
(c) CH3CHO
(d) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH
Answer:
(c) CH3CHO

Question 52.
Which one of the following is formed when acetaldehyde is warmed with dilute NaOH?
(a) But – 2 – enal
(b) Butan – 1 – al
(c) 3 – hydroxy butanal
(d) 2 – hydroxybutanoic acid
Answer:
(c) 3 – hydroxy butanal

Question 53.
The IUPAC naine of Acetaldol is ……………
(a) 3 – hydroxy butanal
(b) Aldol
(c) 2 – hydroxy butanal
(d) Butanal
Answer:
(a) 3 – hydroxy butanal

Question 54.
Which one of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with acetaldehyde?
(a) Cinnamic acid
(b) Cinnamaldehyde
(c) Benzylidene acetone
(d) 3 – hydroxy propanal
Answer:
(b) Cinnamaldehyde

Question 55.
The crossed aldol condensation product of the reaction between Formaldehyde and Acetaldehyde is ………………
(a) 3 – hydroxy propanol
(b) 3 – hydroxy propanal
(c) 2 – hydroxy butanal
(d) 3 – hydroxy butanal
Answer:
(b) 3 – hydroxy propanal

Question 56.
The reaction of benzaldehyde with 50% NaOH is called …………..
(a) Benzoin condensation
(b) Claisen – schmidt reaction
(c) Perkin’s reaction
(d) Cannizaro reaction
Answer:
(d) Cannizaro reaction

Question 57.
The reaction of phenyl methanal and ethanal in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as ……………..
(a) Cannizaro reaction
(b) Aldol condensation
(c) Claisen – schmidt condensation
(d) Perkin’s reaction
Answer:
(c) Claisen – schmidt condensation

Question 58.
What is the second step in Cannizaro reaction mechanism?
(a) Attack of OH on carbonyl carbon
(b) Acid base reaction
(c) Protonation of carbonyl oxygen
(d) Hydride ion transfer
Answer:
(d) Hydride ion transfer

Question 59.
The first step take place in Cannizaro reaction mechanism is ……………..
(a) Aftack of OH on carbonyl carbon
(b) Protonation of carbonyl oxygen
(c) Acid base reaction
(d) Hydride ion transfer
Answer:
(a) Aftack of OH on carbonyl carbon

Question 60.
Which one of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with alcoholic KOH?
(a) Benzyl alcohol
(b) Potassium henzoate
(c) Benzoin
(d) Benzoic acid
Answer:
(c) Benzoin

Question 61.
What is the name of the reaction of alcoholic KOH with Benzaldehyde’?
(a) Cannizaro reaction
(c) Benzoin condensation
(b) Perkin’s reaction
(d) Aldol condensation
Answer:
(c) Benzoin condensation

Question 62.
Which one of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with acetic anhydride?
(a) Cinnamaldehyde + Acetaldehyde
(b) Cinnamic acid + Acetic acid
(c) Benzyl alcohol + Benzoic acid
(d) Benzal aniline + Acetic acid
Answer:
(b) Cinnamic acid + Acetic acid

Question 63.
What is the name of the reaction between Benzaldehyde and acetic anhydride?
(a) Peridn’s reaction
(b) Knoerenagal reaction
(c) Cannizaro reaction
(d) Kolbe’s reaction
Answer:
(a) Peridn’s reaction

Question 64.
What are the reagents required to prepare Benzal aniline (or) Schiff’s base?
(a) Benzyl amine + Ammonia
(b) Benzal amine + Ammonia
(c) Benzaldehyde + Aniline
(d) Phenol + Aniline
Answer:
(c) Benzaldehyde + Aniline

Question 65.
Which one of the following is the formula of Schiff’ s base’?
(a) C6H5 – NH NH2
(b) C6H5 CH = N – C6H5
(b) Perkin’s reaction
(d) Aldol condensation
Answer:
(b) C6H5 CH = N – C6H5

Question 66.
Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in Knoevenagal reaction?
(a) Pyrimidine
(b) Pyridine
(c) PCC
(d) CdCl2
Answer:
(b) Pyridine

Question 67.
Which one is formed when Benzaldehyde reacts with Malonic acid in the presence of Pyridine?
(a) Cinnamaldehyde
(b) Benzoin
(c) Hydrobenzamide
(d) Cinnamic acid
Answer:
(d) Cinnamic acid

Question 68.
Name the product formed when Benzaldehyde reacts with N,N – dimethyl aniline in the presence of conc.H2SO4?
(a) Cinnamic acid
(b) Skiffs base
(c) Malachite green dye
(d) p – hydroxy azodye
Answer:
(c) Malachite green dye

Question 69.
Identify the product formed when benzaldehyde reacts with chlorine in the presence of conc.FeCl3?
(a) m – chlorobenzaldehyde
(b) O – chlorobenzaldehyde
(c) p – chiorobenzaldehyde
(d) Benzoyl chloride
Answer:
(a) m – chlorobenzaldehyde

Question 70.
Identify the product formed when benzaldehyde reacts with chlorine in the absence of catalyst?
(a) p – chiorobenzaldehyde
(b) O – chiorobenzaldehyde
(c) Benzoyl chloride
(d) m – chlorobenzaldehyde
Answer:
(c) Benzoyl chloride

Question 71.
Which one of the following is used to test ketones?
(a) lodoform test
(b) Tollen’s reagent test
(c) Fehling’s solution test
(d) Benedict’s solution test
Answer:
(a) lodoform test

Question 72.
Which one of the following is not used to identify aldehydes?
(a) Benedict’s solution test
(b) Fehling’s solution test
(c) Dye test
(d) Tollen’s reagent test
Answer:
(c) Dye test

Question 73.
What is the colour change take place when Fehling’s solution is added to an aldehyde?
(a) Red to blue
(b) Blue to red
(c) Red to green
(d) Green to blue
Answer:
(b) Blue to red

Question 74.
Which one of the following is used for preserving biological specimens?
(a) Urotropine
(b) Formalin
(c) Schiff’s base
(d) Benzoin
Answer:
(b) Formalin

Question 75.
Which one of the following is formed when phenol is heated with formalin?
(a) Bakelite
(b) PVC
(c) Polyurethane
(d) Polyester
Answer:
(a) Bakelite

Question 76.
RDX is otherwise named as …………….
(a) Cyclonite
(b) Cyclohexane
(c) 1, 4 – dione
(d) Cyclohexanol
Answer:
(a) Cyclonite

Question 77.
Which one of the following is used as a hypnotic?
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Formalin
(c) Paraldehyde
(d) Formaldehyde
Answer:
(c) Paraldehyde

Question 78.
Which one of the following is used in silvering of mirrors?
(a) Paraldehyde
(b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Acetone
(d) Acetaldehyde
Answer:
(d) Acetaldehyde

Question 79.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of smokeless powder (cordite)?
(a) Acetone
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Formaldehyde
Answer:
(a) Acetone

Question 80.
Which one of the following is used as nail polish remover?
(a) CH3CHO
(b) HCHO
(c) CH3COCH3
(d) C6H5COCH3
Answer:
(c) CH3COCH3

Question 81.
Which is used in the manufacture of thermosoftening plastic perspex?
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Formaldehyde
(c) Acetone
(d) Acetophenone
Answer:
(c) Acetone

Question 82.
Which of the following is called hyphone?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-176
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-300

Question 83.
Which of the following is used in the preparation of benzhydrol drop?
(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Benzophenone
(c) Acetophenone
(d) Benzoin
Answer:
(b) Benzophenone

Question 84.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Terminal olefins gives Formaldehyde as one of the product
(ii) Oxidation of alcohols using pcc yield carboxylic acids
(iii) Catalytic dehydrogenation of alcohols give either aldehyde or ketone.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (ii) only
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(a) (ii) only

Question 86.
Consider the following statements:
(i) Formaldehyde is a gas at room temperature and acetaldehyde is a volatile liquid.
(ii) The oxidation of symmetrical ketones is governed by Popoti’s rule.
(iii) Aliphatic aldehyde react with primary amines in the presence of base gives Schiff’s base.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (ii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 87.
The JUPAC name of isSamacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-177
(a) Benzene carboxylic acid
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) 2 – phenyl ethanoic acid
(d) 2 – phenyl acetic acid
Answer:
(c) 2 – phenyl ethanoic acid

Question 88.
The formula of malonic acid is …………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-178
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-301

Question 89.
The IUPAC name of HOOC – (CH2)4 – COOH is ………………
(a) Adipic acid
(b) Butane dioic acid
(c) Hexane diolc acid
(d) Glutaric acid
Answer:
(c) Hexane diolc acid

Question 90.
Which one of the following is the formula of Succinic acid?
(a) HOOC – CH2 – COOH
(b) HOOC – (CH2)2 – COOH
(c) HOOC – (CH2)4 – COOH
(d) HOOC – (CH)3 – COOH
Answer:
(b) HOOC – (CH2)2 – COOH

Question 91.
Consider the following statements.
(i) In – COOH group, the centre carbon atom and both the oxygen atoms are in sp3 hybridisation.
(ii) RCOOH can be represented as a resonance hybrid of two canonical structures.
(iii) Carboxylic carbon is less electrophilic than carbonyl carbon because of the reasonan structure.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) only
(d) (i) & (ii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) only

Question 92.
Which one of the following reacts with methyl magnesium iodide followed by acid hydrolysis yield acetic acid?
(a) Solid CO2
(b) HCHO
(c) CH3CHO
(d) CH3CN
Answer:
(a) Solid CO2

Question 93.
Which one of the following acid cannot be prepared from grignaid reagent by the action of dry ice?
(a) CH3COOH
(b) C6H5COOH
(c) CH3 – CH2COOH
(d) HCOOH
Answer:
(d) HCOOH

Question 94.
Which one of the following is formed as a product when Benzoic anhydride is hydrolysed?
(a) Benzoin
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) Benzyl alcohol
(d) Benzaldehyde
Answer:
(b) Benzoic acid

Question 95.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Carboxylic acids have higher boiling point than aldehyde and ketone due to the association of carboxylic acid.
(ii) Vinegar is 60 to 80% solution of acetic acid in water
(iii) Higher carboxylic acids are insoluble in water due to increased hydrophobic interaction of hydrocarbon part.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct’?
(a) (iii) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) only

Question 96.
Which one of the following is formed when ethanoic acid is treated with HI and Red phosphorous?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethyne
(d) Methane
Answer:
(a) Ethane

Question 97.
What will be the product formed when sodium acetate is treated with sodalime?
(a) C2H6
(b) CH4
(c) CH3COOH
(d) (CH3CO)2O
Answer:
(b) CH4

Question 98.
The reaction of electrolysis of sodium acetate to form ethane is known as ………………..
(a) Kolbe’s electrolytic decarboxylation
(b) Perkin’s reaction
(c) Clemmenson reaction
(d) Cannizaro reaction
Answer:
(a) Kolbe’s electrolytic decarboxylation

Question 99.
Sodium formate solution on electrolysis gives at anode.
(a) Methane + CO2
(b) Ethane + CO2
(c) H2 + CO2
(d) Formic acid
Answer:
(c) H2 + CO2

Question 100.
Which one of the following is formed when acetic acid is heated with phosphorous pentoxide?
(a) CH3COCH3
(b) CH3CONH2
(c) CH4
(d) (CH3CO)2O
Answer:
(d) (CH3CO)2O

Question 101.
The reaction of acetic acid with Cl2 and red phosphorous is named as ………………
(a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(c) HeII – volhard – zelinsky reaction
(d) Knoevenagal reaction
Answer:
(c) HeII – volhard – zelinsky reaction

Question 102.
Which one of the following does not undergo friedel crafts reaction?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-179
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-180

Question 103.
Which one of the following can act as a reducing agent?
(a) C6H5COOH
(b) HCOOH
(c) CH3COOH
(d) CH3 – CH2COOH
Answer:
(b) HCOOH

Question 104.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Carboxylic acids turn red litmus blue.
(ii) Carboxylic acids give brisk efferrescence with NaHCO3
(iii) Carboxylic acid is warmed with alcohol and conc. H2SO4 gives fruity odour ester.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(a) (i) only

Question 105.
Which is one the correct order of strength of carboxylic acid?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-182
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-181
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-183

Question 106.
The correct increasing order acid strength of carboxylic acid is …………
(a) F – CH2 – COOH > I – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2 – COOH > Br – CH2 – COOH
(b) Br – CH2 – COOH > F – CH2COOH > I – CH2COOH > Cl – CH2 – COOH
(c) F – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2COOH > Br – CH2COOH > I – CH2COOH
(d) Br – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2 – COOH > I – CH2COOH > F – CH2COOH
Answer:
(c) F – CH2 – COOH > CI – CH2COOH > Br – CH2COOH > I – CH2COOH

Question 107.
The increasing order of acid strength is ………….
(a) CH3COOH > CI2CHCOOH > CCI3CCOOH > ClCH2COOH
(b) CI3CCOOH > CI2CH COOH > CICH2COOH > CH3COOH
(c) CH2COOH < CI2CH COOH < CCl3CCOOH < ClCH2COOH
(a) Cl2CH – COOH < CCI3COOH < ClCH2COOH < CH3COOH
Answer:
(b) CI3CCOOH > CI2CH COOH > CICH2COOH > CH3COOH

Question 108.
The relative acidities of various organic compounds are ……………
(a) RCOOH > ArOH > H2O > ROH > RC ≡ CH
(b)RCCH > ArOH > ROH > H2O > RCOOH
(c) ROH > R ≡ CH > ArOH > RCOOH > H2O
(d) H2O > ROH > RCOOH > ArOH > RC ≡ CH
Answer:
(a) RCOOH > ArOH > H2O > ROH > RC ≡ CH

Question 109.
The correct order of the basicity of the leaving group is …………..
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-184
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-185

Question 110.
The conversion of Ethyl acetate to propyl acetate by the action of propyl alcohol is named as
(a) Esterification
(b) Transesterfication
(c) Acid hydrolysis of ester
(d) Alkaline hydrolysis of ester
Answer:
(b) Transesterfication

Question 111.
Ethyl acetate undergoes self condensation in the presence of strong base to give ………………..
(a) Ethyl aceto acetate + Ethanol
(b) Ethyl aceto acetate + Acetic acid
(c) Ethyl aceto propionate + propanol
(d) Ethyl ethanoate + Ethanoic acid
Answer:
(a) Ethyl aceto acetate + Ethanol

Question 112.
Methyl cyanide on acid hydrolysis gives
(a) Acetyl chloride
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Acetamide
(d) Acetic anhydride
Answer:
(c) Acetamide

Question 113.
Which one of the following is the product formed when acetamide is treated with P2O5?
(a) Acetonitrile
(b) Methylamine
(c) Ethyl cyanide
(d) Methanamine
Answer:
(a) Acetonitrile

Question 114.
Identify the product formed when acetamide reacts with LiAIH4?
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Aceto nitrite
(c) Ethyl amine
(d) Ethylcyanide
Answer:
(c) Ethyl amine

Question 115.
Which one of the following is used as a medicine in the treatment of gout?
(a) CH3COOH
(b) C6H5COOH
(c) CH3CONH2
(d) HCOOH
Answer:
(d) HCOOH

Question 116.
Which one of the following is used as a coagulating agent for rubber latex?
(a) Ethanoyl chloride
(b) Butanoic acid
(c) Methanoic acid
(d) Benzoic acid
Answer:
(c) Methanoic acid

Question 117.
Which one of the following is used as food preservative?
(a) Sodium formate
(b) Sodium acetate
(c) Sodium benzoate
(d) Acetamide
Answer:
(c) Sodium benzoate

Question 118.
Which one of the following is used in detection and estimation of – OH and – NH2 group in organic compounds?
(a) Acetic anhydride
(b) Acetyl chloride
(c) Acetamide
(d) Ethyl acetate
Answer:
(b) Acetyl chloride

Question 119.
Which one of the following is used in the preparation of medicine like aspirin and phenacetin?
(a) Acetyl chloride
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Acetamide
(d) Acetic anhydride
Answer:
(d) Acetic anhydride

Question 120.
Which one of the following is used in the preparation of Artificial fruit essences?
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Acetamide
(c) Ethyl acetate
(d) Acetic anhydride
Answer:
(c) Ethyl acetate

Question 121.
Acetone and acetaldehyde are differentiated by ………….
(a) NaOH + I2
(b) Ag(NH3)2+ (Tollens’s reagent)
(c) I2
(d) NaOH + NH3
Answer:
(b) Ag(NH3)2+ (Tollens’s reagent)

Question 122.
The most suitable reagent for the conversion of is R – CH2OH → RCHO …………..
(a) KMnO4
(b) K2Cr2O7
(c) CrO3
(d) Pcc
Answer:
(d) Pcc

Question 123.
Which of the following will not give iodoform test?
(a) Isopropyl alcohol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Eth anal
(d) Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
(d) Benzyl alcohol

Question 124.
Products of the following reaction …….
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-186
(a) CH3CHO + CH3CH = CHO
(b) CH3COOH + CH3CH2CHO
(c) CH3COOH + HOOCCH2CH3
(d) CH3COOH + CO2
Answer:
(b) CH3COOH + CH3CH2CHO

Question 125.
Identify the reagents X and Y are ………………
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-187
(a) X = MgCl2 Y = CH3CH = CH2
(b) X = CH3 MgCI Y = C6H5COCH3
(c) X = CH3 MgCI Y = (CH3)3C – OH
(d) X = C6H5 MgCI Y = (CH3)3C – OH
Answer:
(c) X = CH3 MgCI Y = (CH3)3C – OH

Question 126.
Reduction of > C = O to – CH2 can be carried out with ……………
(a) Ni
(b) Na/C2H5OH
(c) NH2 – NH2 + C2HONa
(d) LiAIH4
Answer:
(c) NH2 – NH2 + C2HONa

Question 127.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) FeCl3 is used in the detection of phenols
(b) Fehlings solution is used in the detection of aldehyde
(c) Tollen’s reagent is used in the detection of unsaturation
(d) NaHSO3 is used in the detection of carbonyl compounds
Answer:
(c) Tollen’s reagent is used in the detection of unsaturation

Question 128.
Which of the following products is formed when Benzaldehyde is treated with CH3MgBr and the addition product so obtained is subjected to acid hydrolysis?
(a) Secondary alcohol
(b) Primary alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Tertiary alcohol
Answer:
(a) Secondary alcohol

Question 129.
The reagent used to distinguish formaldehyde and acetaldehyde is …………..
(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Fehling’s solution
(c) Schiff’s reagent
(d) Caustic soda solution
Answer:
(d) Caustic soda solution

Question 130.
Which of the followìng will not give halo form test?
(a) Ethanal
(b) Ethanol
(c) Propan – 2 – one
(d) Pentan – 3 – one
Answer:
(d) Pentan – 3 – one

Question 131.
Which of the following does not turn schiff’s reagent to pink?
(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Acetone
(d) Acetaldehyde
Answer:
(c) Acetone

Question 132.
Which will not give acetamide on reaction with ammonia?
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Acetyl chloride
(c) Acetic anhydride
(d) methyl formate
Answer:
(d) methyl formate

Question 133.
The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example of ………….. reaction.
(a) N ucleophilic substitution
(b) Electrophil ic addition
(c) Nucleophilic addition
(d) Electrophilic substitution
Answer:
(c) Nucleophilic addition

Question 134.
Cinnamic acid is formed when C6H5CHO condenses with (CH3CO)2O in the presence of ……………
(a) Conc.H2SO4
(b) CH3COONa
(c) Na metal
(d) Anhydrous ZnCI2
Answer:
(b) CH3COONa

Question 135.
The molecular formula of Urotropine is …………..
(a) (CH2)6N4
(b) (CH2)4N6
(c) (CH2)2N2
(d) (CH2)6N6
Answer:
(a) (CH2)6N4

Question 136.
Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic produced by …………….
(a) HCHO + C6H5CH2OH
(b) HCHO + C6H5OH
(c) CH3CHO + C6H5OH
(d) HCHO + CH3COCH3
Answer:
(b) HCHO + C6H5OH

Question 137.
Aldehydes and ketones are reduced to hydrocarbon by the action of ………….
(a) LiAlH4
(b) H2 / Pd + BaSO4
(c) Na + Hg/HCI
(d) NH2 – NH2 / C2H5ONa
Answer:
(d) NH2 – NH2 / C2H5ONa

Question 138.
What is the name of the reaction when benzaldehyde changes into Benzyl alcohol?
(a) Friedel – crafts reaction
(b) Kolbe’s reaction
(c) Cannizaro reaction
(d) Wurtz reaction
Answer:
(c) Cannizaro reaction

Question 139.
Aldehyde turns pink with …………..
(a) Benedict solution
(b) Schiff ‘s base
(c) Fehiing solution
(d) Tollen’s reagent
Answer:
(b) Schiff ‘s base

Question 140.
Which of the following would undergo aldol condensation?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-188
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-189

Question 141.
Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% NaOH solution to give the corresponding alcohol and acid?
(a) Butanal
(b) Phenyl methanal
(c) Phenol
(d) Ethanal
Answer:
(b) Phenyl methanal

Question 142.
Hexa methylene tetramine is used as ………………
(a) analgesic
(b) antipyretic
(c) Urinary antiseptic
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) Urinary antiseptic

Question 143.
The compound which gives acetone on ozonolysis is …………
(a) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(b) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2
(c) C6H5CH = CH2
(d) CH3 – CH = CH2
Answer:
(b) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2

Question 144.
Predict the product X in the sequence of the reaction
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-190
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-191
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-192

Question 145.
From which of the following, tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium iodide?
(a) HCHO
(b) CH3COCH3
(c) CH3CHO
(d) CO2
Answer:
(b) CH3COCH3

Question 146.
Tdentifý the product “C” in the sequence of the reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-193
(a) CH3CH2NH2
(b) CH3CH2OH
(c) CH2 = CH2
(d) CH3CHO
Answer:
(c) CH2 = CH2

Question 147.
O3 reacts with CH2 = CH2 to form ozonide. On hydrolysis it forms …………….
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-194
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-195

Question 148.
Ethyne on reaction with water in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 gives …………….
(a) Propanone
(b) Ethanal
(c) Ethane
(d) Ethanol
Answer:
(b) Ethanal

Question 149.
Which of the aldehyde is most reactive?
(a) C6H5CHO
(b) CH3CHO
(c) HCHO
(d) CH3 – CH2 – CHO
Answer:
(c) HCHO

Question 150.
Acetaldehyde does not answer
(a) lodoform test
(b) Lucas test
(c) Benedict test
(d) Tollen’s reagent test
Answer:
(b) Lucas test

II. Fill In the blanks.

  1. The aldehyde Pyridoxal function as a ………….
  2. p – acetylated amino phenol is used to reduce ………….
  3. The TUPAC name of CH3 – CH = CH – CHO is ………….
  4. The TUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CHO is ………….
  5. The formula of mesityl oxide is ………….
  6. The name ofSamacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-196 is ………….
  7. But – 2 – ene gives 2 moleafethanal by ………….
  8. …………. Olefines give formaldehyde as one of the product.
  9. Hydration of …………. in the presence of 40% dilute sulphuric acid and 1% HgSO4 gives Ethanal.
  10. Calcium formate on …………. gives methanal and CaCO3.
  11. Dry distillation of …………. gives propanone and CaCO3.
  12. Tn Rosenmund’s reduction reaction …………. is the catalyst and …………. is the catalytic poison.
  13.  …………. selectively reduces alkyl cyanide to form imines which on hydrolysis gives aldehyde.
  14. Side chain oxidation of toluene in the presence of KMnO4 gives ………….
  15. The oxidising agent used to convert toluene to benzaldehyde is ………….
  16. Acetyl chloride reacts with …………. to form acetone.
  17. Addition of …………. finds application in. the separation and purification of carbonyl compounds.
  18. Aliphatic aldehyde except …………. react with an ethereal solution of ammonia to form aldimines.
  19. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form …………. which is used to treat urinary infection.
  20. Nitration of Urotropine under controlled condition gives an explosive ………….
  21. RDX is also called …………. or ………….
  22. With ammonia, benzaldehyde form a complex condensation product called ………….
  23. The oxidation of unsymmetrical ketone is governed by ………….
  24. The reducing agent used in Clemmensen reduction is ………….
  25. The reducing agent used in woif-kishner reduction is ………….
  26. Symmetric diols are called ………….
  27. Aldehydes which do not have …………. undergo disproportionation reaction (or) cannizaro reaction.
  28. The reagent used in the conversion of Benzaldehyde to Benoin is ………….
  29. In Knoevenagal reaction …………. act as the basic catalyst.
  30. The formula of Benzal aniline (or) Schiffs base is ………….
  31. Benzaldehyde condenses with N, N – dimethyl aniline in the presence of strong acids to form ………….
  32. …………. is ammoniacal silver nitrate solution.
  33.  …………. is a mixture of CuSO4 + Sodium citrate + NaOH.
  34. 40% aqueous solution of formaldehyde is known as …………..
  35. Paraldehyde is used in medicine as ………….
  36. Acetone is used in the manufacture of thermo softening plastic ………….
  37. …………. is used in perfumery and as a hypnotic under the name hyphone.
  38.  …………. cannot be prepared by grignard reagent since the acid contains only one carbon atom.
  39. Most of carboxylic acid exist as …………. in its vapour state.
  40. …………. is 6 to 8% solution of acetic acid in water.
  41. …………. is used to convert acetic acid to ethane at 473 K.
  42. …………. reaction is generally used for the preparation of esters of higher alcohol from that of a lower alcohol.
  43. Formic acid is used in medicine for treatment of ………….
  44. The conversion of acetamide to methylamine by the action of caustic alkali and Bromine is known as ………….
  45. …………. is used as food preservative.
  46. …………. is used in the detection and estimation of – OH, – NH2, groups in organic compounds.
  47. …………. is used in the preparation of artificial fruit essences.
  48. The conversion of Benzene to Benzaldehyde by the action of carbon monoxide and HCl is known as ………….
  49. The product formed when formaldehyde condensed with acetone is ………….
  50. Benzaldehyde condenses with acetaldehyde to form ………….

Answer:

  1. Coenzyme
  2. Fever
  3. But – 2 – enal
  4. Prop – 2 – enal
  5. (CH3), C = CHCOCH3
  6. 3-Oxo pentanal
  7. Ozonolysis
  8. Terminal
  9. Ethyne
  10. Dry distillation
  11. Calcium ethanoate
  12. Pd, BaSO4
  13. Diisobutvl aluminum hydride
  14. Benzoic acid
  15. CrO2Cl2 Chromyl chloride
  16.  Dimethyl cadmium
  17.  NaHSO3
  18. Formaldehyde
  19. Urotropinc (or) Hexamethylene tetramine
  20. RDX (or) Research and development explosive
  21. Cyclonite(or)cyclotrimethylene trinitramine
  22. Hydrobenzamide
  23. Popott’s rule
  24. Zn + Hg / conc.HCl
  25. NH2 – NH2 + C2H5ONa
  26. Pinacol
  27. a – hydrogen atom
  28. Alcoholic KCN
  29. Pyridine
  30. C6H5CH = N – C6H5
  31. Triphenyl methane dye or malachite green dye
  32.  Tollen’s reagent
  33. Benedict’s solution
  34. Formalin
  35. Hypnotic
  36. Perspex
  37. Acetophenone
  38. Formic acid HCOOH
  39. Dimer
  40. Vinegar
  41. HI + Red P
  42. Transesterification
  43. Gout
  44. Hoff mann’s degradation
  45. Sodium benzoate
  46. Acetyl chloride
  47. Ethyl acetate
  48. Gattermann – koch reaction
  49. 4 – hydroxy – butane – 2 – one
  50. Cinnamaldehyde

III. Match the following.
Match the column I and II using the code given below the column.

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-197
Answer:
(a) 3 2 4 1

Question 2.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-198
Answer:
(b) 3 1 4 2

Question 3.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-199
Answer:
(c) 3 4 1 2

Question 4.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-200
Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 5.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-201
Answer:
(d) 3 4 1 2

Question 6.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-202
Answer:
(a) 2 3 1 4

Question 7.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-203
Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 8.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-204
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 9.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-205
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 10.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-206
Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 11.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-207
Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 12.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-208
Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): In Rosenmund’s reduction, BaSO4 act as catalyst pòison.
Reason (R): In Rosenmund’s reduction, BaSO4 act as catalytic poison to pd catalyst so that aldehyde cannot be further reduced ti alcohol.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Aldehydes and ketones have high high boiling point as compared to hydrocarbon and ether of comparable molecular mass.
Reason (R): It is due to weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of the dipole – dipole interactions.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A): The boiling point of aldehydes and ketones are much lower those of corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids.
Reason (R): Alcohols and carboxylic acids possess intermolecular hydrogen bonding and so have high boiling point.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Aldehydes and ketones have high dipole moment.
Reason (R): The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones contain a double bond between carbon and oxygen. Oxygen is more electronegative than carbon and it attracts the shared pair of electron which makes the carbonyl group as polar.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Addition of sodium bisuiphite finds application in the separation and purification of carbonyl compound.
Reason (R): The bisuiphite addition compound is water soluble and the solution is treated with mineral acid to regenerate the carbonyl compounds.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Acetaldehyde does not undergo cannizaro reaction.
Reason (R): Cannizaro reaction is a characteristic of aldehyde having no α – H atom. Acetaldehyde contains 3 α – H atoms.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R. is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Acetaldehyde and acetone are readily undergo aldol condensation reaction in the presence of dilute base.
Reason (R): Aldehyde or ketone having α – hydrogen atom add together to give aldol or ketol.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Carboxylic acids have higher boiling point than aldehyde and ketone of comparable molecular mass.
Reason (R): This is due to more association of carboxylic acid. Molecules through intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 9.
Assertion(A): Lower aliphatic carboxylic acids arc miscible with water but higher carboxylic acids are insoluble in water.
Reason (R): Lower carboxylic acids are able to form hydrogen bond with water whereas higher carboxylic acids have increased hydrophobic interaction of hydrocarbon part.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation Of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation Of A.

Question 10.
Assertion(A): Carboxylic acid do not give the characteristic reaction of carbonyl group as given by aldehyde and ketone.
Reason (R): The carbonyl carbon of carboxylic acid is involved in resonance.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 11.
Assertion(A): Benzoic acid does not undergo friedel crafts reaction.
Reason (R): This is due to the strong deactivating nature of the carboxyl group
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Formic acid can act as a strong reducing agent
Reason (R): Formic acid contains both aldehyde as well as an acid group.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 13.
Assertlon(A): Trichioro acetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid.
Reason (R): Cl is a electron withdrawing group and acidity increases with increasing number of electron withdrawing substituents on the α – carbon.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct reason of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason of A.

V. Find the odd one out and give the reasons.

Question 1.
(a) Methanal
(b) Ethanal
(c) Phenyl metbanal
(d) Prop – 2 – enal
Answer:
(c) Phenyl metbanal
It is an aromatic aldehyde where as others are aliphatic aldehydes.

Question 2.
(a) Formic acid
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Propanoic acid
Answer:
(d) Propanoic acid
It can act as reducing agent where as other acids are not act as reducing agents.

Question 3.
(a) HCHO
(b) C6H5CHO
(c) CCI3CHO
(d) CH3CHO
Answer:
(d) CH3CHO
CH3CHO. It contains α – H atom and undergoes aldol condensation where as others do not have α – H atoms and they undergo cannizaro reactions.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids 2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the name of the following compounds.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-99

Question 2.
What happens But – 2 – ene is ozonised followed by hydrolysis?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-100

Question 3.
Explain the action of ozone with 2 – methyl but – 2 – ene followed by hydrolysis with zinc?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-101

Question 4.
What happens when Ethyne is hydrolysed in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-102

Question 5.
How would you convert prop – 1 – yne to propanone?
Answer:
Prop – 1- lyne on hydrolysis with HgSO4 and H2SO4 gives propanone as product.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-103

Question 6.
Explain about the dry distillation of Calcium ethanoate.
Calcium ethanoate on dry distillation gives propanone as product.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-104

Question 7.
Explain Rosenmund reduction.
Answer:
Aldehydes can be prepared by the hydrogenation of acid chloride, in the presence of palladium supported by Barium sulphate. This reaction is called Rosenmund reduction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-105
In the above reaction, BaSO4 act as a catalytic poison to palladium catalyst, so that aldehyde cannot be further reduced to alcohol.

Question 8.
Explain Stephen’s reaction.
Answer:
In Stephen’s reaction, alkyl cyanide are reduced using SnCl2 / HCI, imines arc formed which on hydrolysis gives corresponding aldehyde.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-106

Question 9.
Explain the action of Diisobutyl aluminium hydride (DIBAL – H) and H2O with hex – 4 – en nitrile.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-107

Question 10.
Explain about Cattermann – koch reaction.
Answer:
Benzene reacts with carbon monoxide and HCl in the presence of AlCl3 and CuCl to give Benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as Gattermann – Koch reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-108

Question 11.
How would you manufacture benzaldehyde from toluene?
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-109
This is the commercial method for the manufacture of Benzaldehyde.

Question 12.
Explain the action of dialkyl cadmium with acetyl chloride?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-110

Question 13.
Explain the nucleophilic addition of HCN with eth anal?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-111

Question 14.
Which reaction finds application in the separation and purification ofcarbonyl compound? Explain.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-112
The bisuiphite compound is water soluble and the solution is treated with minerai acid to regenerate the carbonyl compound. So the above reaction is used in the separation and purification of carbonyl compound.

Question 15.
Complete the following reactions.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-113

Question 16.
What Is Clemmensen reduction ? Explain it.
Answer:
Aldehyde and ketones when heated with zinc amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid give hydrocarbons. This reaction is known as Clemmensen reduction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-114

Question 17.
Complete the following reactions.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-115
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-116

Question 18.
Explain Wolf Kishner reduction with suitable example.
Answer:
Wolf Kishner reduction:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-117

Question 19.
How would you obtain chloroform from acetone?
Answer:
When acetone is treated with chlorine and alkali, chloroform is formed.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-118

Question 20.
What happen when alcoholic KCN reacts with Benzaldehyde? (or) explain Benzoin condensation.
Answer:
Benzaldehyde reacts with alcoholic KCN to form Benzoin.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-119

Question 21.
Explain about SchilT’s reagent test?
Answer:
Dilute solution of aldehyde when added to Schifl’s reagent (Rosaniline hydrochloride dissolved in water and its red colour decolourised by passing SO2) yields its red colour. This is known as Schiffs’ test for aldehyde. Ketones do not give this test. Acetone however gives a positive test but slowly.

Question 22.
What are used of Urotropine? Give its structure.
Answer:
This is the structure of Urotropme (Hexamethylene tetramine)
1. Urotropine is used as a medicine to treat urinary infection.

2. Nitration ofUrotropine under controlled condition gives an explosive RDX (Research and development explosive). It is also called cyclonite or cyclotri methylene trinitramine.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-120

Question 23.
Mention the uses of aromatic ketone.
Answer:

  1. Acetophenone has been used in perfumery arid as a hypnotic under the name hyphone.
  2. Benzophenone is used in perfumery and in the preparation of benzhydrol drop.

Question 24.
Write the structure and IUPAC name of the following compounds?

(i) Malonic acid

(ii) Succinic acid

(iii) Glutaric acid

(iv) Adipic acid

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-120

Question 25.
Starting from methyl magnesium iodide, how would you prepare acetic acid?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-123

Question 26.
Convert phenyl magnesium bromide into Benzoic acid?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-302

Question 27.
Explain the hydrolysis reaction of the following with equation?

  1. (CH3CO)2O
  2. (C6H5CO)2O

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-303

Question 28.
Explain the action of alkaline potassium permanganate with toluene?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-124

Question 29.
Lower aliphatic carboxylic acids are miscible with water but higher carboxylic acids are insoluble in water. Give reason. (or) Acetic acid is soluble in water but hexanoic acid in insoluble in water. Why?
Answer:
Aliphatic acids are miscible with water due to the formation of hydrogen bonds with water. Higher carboxylic acids are insoluble in water due to increased hydrophobic interaction of hydrocarbon part. Thats why acetic acid is soluble in water whereas hexanoic acid is insoluble in water.

Question 30.
What is Vinegar? How will you get glacial acetic acid?
Answer:

  1. Vinegar is 6 to 8% solution of acetic acid in water.
  2. Pure acetic acid is called glacial acetic acid. Because it forms ice like crystal when cooled.

When aqueous acetic acid is cooled at 289.5 K, acetic acid solidifies and forms ice like crystals, where as water remains in liquid state and removed by filtration. This process is repeated to obtain glacial acetic acid.

Question 31.
Explain the action of the following reagents with acetic acid.

(i) PCI5

(ii) SOCI2

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-125

Question 32.
Complete the following reactions.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-126
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-127

Question 33.
What happens when thionyl chloride reacts with benzoic acid?
Answer:
When Benzoic acid reacts with thionyl chloride, Benzoyl chloride is formed as product.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-128

Question 34.
Explain Kolbe’s electrolytic decarboxylation.
Answer:
The aqueous solution of sodium or potassium salts of carboxylic acid on electrolysis gives alkanes at anode. This reaction is called kolbe’s electrolysis.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-129

Question 35.
What happens when ammonia reacts with acetic acid?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-130

Question 36.
Explain the action of heat on acetic acid in the presence of phosphorous pentoxide.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-131

Question 37.
Explain the a – halogenation take place in acetic acid. (or) Explain IIell-Volhard-zelinsky reaction (HVZ reaction)?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-132
Carboxylic acids having an α – hydrogen are halogenated at the α – position on treatment with chlorine or bromine in the presence of small amount of red phosphorus to form a – halo carboxylic acids. This reaction is known as Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky reaction (HVZ reaction)

Question 38.
Acidity increases with increasing number of electron rithdrawing substituents on the α – carbon. Explain with example.
Answer:
Acidity increases with increasing number of electron withdrawing substituents on the α – carbon atom. For example,
Cl3C – COOH > Cl2CH – COOH > Cl – CH2COOH > CH3COOH
The effect of various, electron withdrawing groups on the acidity of a carboxylic acid follows the order,
– NO2 > – CN > – F > – Cl > – Br > – I > Ph

Question 39.
Trichloro acetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid. Give reason.
Answer:
Cl is an electron withdrawing substituent. Acidity increases with the increasing number of electron withdrawing substituents on the α – carbon. So trichioro acetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid. CCI3COOH is more acidic than CH3COOH.

Question 40.
Fluoro acetic acid is more acidic than iodoacetic acid. Give reason.
Answer:
Acidity increases with increasing electro negativity of the substituents. F is more electro negative.
F – CH2 – COOH > Cl – CH2COOH > Br – CH2 – COOH > 1 – CH2 – COOH
So Fluoro acetic acid is more acidic than iodoacetic acid.

Question 41.
What are carboxylic acid derivatives? Give four examples.
Answer:
1. Carboxylic acid derivatives are compounds in which carboxylic acid – OH group is replaced by the atom or the group.

2. Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-133

Question 42.
Which is the best method to prepare acetyl chloride from acetic acid? why?
Answer:
Acetyl chloride is prepared from acetic acid by the action of thionyl chloride. This method is superior to others as the by products being gases escape leaving the acid chloride in the pure state.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-134

Question 43.
Acetyl chloride fumes when exposed to air. Give reason.
Answer:
Acetyl chloride emit pale fumes of hydrogen chloride when exposed to air on account of their reaction with water vapour.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-135

Question 44.
What happens when acetyl chloride is treated with ethanol?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-136
This reaction is also known as alcoholysis.

Question 45.
Explain ammonolysis reaction of acid chloride (or) what happens when ammonia reacts with acetvl chloride?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-137

Question 46.
What happens when acetic anhydride reacts with ethyl alcohol?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-138

Question 47.
Explain the reaction of ammonia with acetic anhydride.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-139

Question 48.
Complete the following reaction.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-140
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-141

Question 49.
What is transesterification? Explain with example.
Answer:
Esters of an alcohol can react with atiother alcohol in the presence of a mineral acid to give the ester of second alcohol. The interchange of alcohol portions of the esters is termed transesterification.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-142

Question 50.
Explain the action of ammonia with ethyl acetate.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-142

Question 51.
How is ethyl acetate react with PCL5?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-143

Question 52.
What happens when methyl cyanide is partially hydrolysed by cold conc. HCl?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-144

Question 53.
Explain the action of P2O5 with acetamide with equation.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-145

Question 54.
Describe Hoffmann degradation reaction. (or) How would you obtain methyl amine from acetamide?
Answer:
Acetamide reacts with bromine in the presence of caustic alkali to form a primary amine carrying one carbon less than the parent amide.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-48

Question 55.
How would you preparate ethyl amine from acetamide?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-147

Question 56.
What are the used of acetyl chloride?
Answer:

  1. Acetyl chloride is used as acetylating agent in organic analysis
  2. it is used in the detection and estimation of – OH, – NH2 groups in organic compounds.

Question 57.
Arrange the following compounds ¡n increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition reactions.

  1. Ethanal, Propanal, Propanone, Butanone
  2. Benzaldehyde, p – Tolualdehyde, p – Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone

Answer:

  1. Butanone < Propanone < Propanal <Ethanal
  2. Acetophenone < p – Tolualdehyde < Benzaldehyde < p – Nitrobenzaldehyde

Question 58.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

(i) PhCH2CH2COOH

(ii) (CH3)2C = CHCOOH

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-148

  1. 3 – Phenylpropanoic acid
  2. 3 methylbut – 2 – enoje acid
  3. 2 – methylcyclohexane carboxylic acid
  4. 2, 4, 6 – Trinitorbenzoic acid or 2, 4, 6, – Trinitrobenzene carboxylic acid

Question 59.
Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol? Why?
Answer:
In carboxylate ion -ve charge is delocalised over two oxygen atoms whereas in phenoxide ion the -ve charge is delocalised over one oxygen atom. Therefore carboxylate ion is more stable than phenoxide ion and that is why carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols.

Question 60.
How is aminoethane obtained from ethanal (acetaldehyde)?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-304

Question 61.
Why HCOOH does not give Hell – Voihard Zelinsky reaction but CH3COOH does?
Answer:
CH3COOH contains α – hydrogen atom and hence gives HVZ reaction but HCOOH does not contain an α – hydrogen atom and hence does not give HVZ reaction.

Question 62.
Write IUPAC names of the following.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-149
Answer:

  1. 3 – Methylpent – 2 – 3n 3 – 1, 5 – dioic acid
  2. 6 – Bromo -3 – hydroxy- 5 – nitrobenzoic acid

Question 63.
Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pair of compounds.

  1. Phenol and Benzoic acid
  2. Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone

Answer:

  1. By adding feme chloride, phenol will give violet colour whereas benzoic acid will not react.
  2. Adding I2 and NaOH, Acetophenone will give yellow ppt. of iodoform whereas benzaldehyde will not react.

Question 64.
Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pair of compounds.

  1. Propanoyl chloride and propanoic acid
  2. Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone

Answer:
1. On adding NaHCO3, solution to each of them, propanoyl chloride will not react whereas propanoic acid will give brisk èfferevescence due to the evolution of CO2.

2. On adding I2 and NaOH, Acetophenone will give yellow ppt, of iodoform whereas benzaldehyde will not react

Question 65.
Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pair of compounds.

  1. Propanal and propanone
  2. Benzaldehyde and Benzoic acid

Answer:

  1. On adding Tollen’s reagent, propanal will give silver mirror whereas propanone does not react.
  2. On adding NaHCO3 solution, benzaldehyde will not react whereas benzoic acid will give brisk effervescence due to the evolution of CO2.

Question 66.
Out of acetophenone and benzophenone, which one will give iodoform test? Write the reaction involved. (The compound should have CH3CO group to show the iodoform test).
Answer:
Acetophenone (C6H5COCH3) contains the group (CH3CO) attached to the carbon atom and hence give lodoform test while benzophenone does not contain this group and hence does not give iodoform test.

Question 67.
Why does methanal not give aidol condensation while ethanol forms an aldol?
Answer:
This is because only those compounds which haie α – hydrogen atoms can undergo aldol condensation reactions. Ethanol possesses α – hydrogen and therefore undergoes aldol condensation. Methanal does not have α – hydrogen atoms, hence does not undergo aldol condensation reactions.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids 3 Mark Questions and Answers.

Question 1.
Draw the structure and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

(i) Acrolein

(ii) Crotonaldehyde

(iii) Glyceraldehyde

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-209

Question 2.
Draw the structure and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

(i)  Mesityl oxide

(ii) Acetophenone

(iii) Benzophenone

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-210

Question 3.
Explain about the structure of carbonyl group.
Answer:
1. The carbonyl carbon

is sp2 hybridised and carbon – oxygen bond is similar to carbon carbon double bond in alkenes. The carbonyl carbon forms three o bonds using their three sp2 hybridised orbital. One of the sigma bond is formed with oxygen and the other two with hydrogen and carbon (in aldehydes) or with two carbons (in ketones). All the three ‘a’ bonded atoms arc lying on the same plane.

2. The fourth valence electron of carbon remains in its unhybridised ‘2p’ orbital which lies perpendicular to the plane and it overlaps with 2p orbital of oxygen to form a carbon – oxygen bond.

3. The oxygen atom has two non-bonding pairs of electrons, which occupy its remaining two P orbitais. Oxygen, the second most electro negative atom attracts the shaired pair of electron between the carbon and oxygen towards itself and hence the bond is polar. This polarisation contributes to the reactivity of aldehydes and ketones.

Question 4.
How are the following compounds are prepared by the dry distillation of calcium salt of carboxylic acids?

(i) Methanal

(ii) Ethanal

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-211

Question 5.
How will you prepare benzaldehyde from methyl benzene? (or) Explain Etard reaction.
Answer:
When chromylchloridc is used as an oxidising agent, toluene gives benzaldehyde. This reaction is called Etard reaction. Acetic anhydride and CrO3 can also be used for this reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-212

Question 6.
How would you prepare the following compounds by Friedel Crafts acylation?

(i) Acetophenone

(ii) Benzophenone

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-213

Question 7.
Aldehydes and ketones have high boiling point as compared to hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular mass and less than that of alcohols. Give reason.
Answer:
Aldehydes and ketones have high boiling point as compared to hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular mass. It is due to the weak molecular association in aldehyde and ketone arising out of the dipole-dipole interactions.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-214
These dipole – dipole interactions are weaker than intermolecular H – bonding. The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are much lower than those of corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids which possess inter molecular hydrogen bonding.

Question 8.
Explain the mechanism of nucleophilic addition reactions of aldehyde and ketone?
Answer:
1. Nucleophilic addition reaction is the most common reactions of aldehydes and ketones. The carbonyl carbon cames a small degree of positive charge.

2. Nucleophile such as CN can attack the carbonyl carbon and uses its bond pair to forni a new carbon – nucleophile’ a ‘bond, at the same time two electrons from the carbon – oxygen double bond move to the most electronegative oxygen atom.

3. This results in the formation of an alkoxide ion. In this process, the hybridisation of carbon changes from sp2 to sp3
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-215
The tetrahedral intermediate can be protonated by water or an acid to form an alcohol.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-216

Question 9.
How acetone reacts with the following reagents?

(i) NH2OH

(ii) NH2 – NH2

(iii) C6H5NH – NH2

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-217

Question 10.
What is Urotropine? How is It prepared? Mention Its structure and uses.
Answer:
1. Urotropine is hexamethylene tetramine. N

2. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form hexamethylene tetramine, which is called Urotropine. HC CH1 CH
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-218

3. Urotropine is used as a medicine to treat urinary infection.

4. Nitration of Urotropine under controlled condition gives an explosive RDX (Research and development explosive). It is also called cyclonite or cyclotri methylene trinitramine.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-219

Question 11.
What is popoff ‘s rule? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The oxidation of unsymmetrical ketones is governed by Popoff’s rule. It states that during the oxidation of an unsymmetrical ketone, a (C – CO) bond is cleaved in such a way that the keto group stays with the smaller alkyl group. Example:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-220

Question 12.
Explain the action of magnesium amalgam and water with acetone?
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-221

Question 13.
Describe crossed aldol condensation with two examples.
Answer:
Aldol condensation can takes place between two different aldehyde or ketones or between one aldehyde and one ketone is called crossed or mixed aldol condensation. E.g.,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-222

Question 14.
Explain Claisen – Schmidt condensation.
Answer:
Benzaldehye condenses with acetaldehyde or acetone in the presence of dil. alkali at room temperature to form unsaturated aldehyde (or) ketone. This type of reaction is called Claisen – Schmidt condensation.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-223

Question 15.
What is crossed cannizaro reaction? Explain It.
Answer:
When Cannizaro reaction (Auto redox reaction) takes place between two different aldehyde, the reaction is called as crossed cannizaro reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-224
In crossed cannizaro reaction more reactive aldehyde is oxidized and less reactive aldehyde is reduced.

Question 16.
How will you prepare malachite green dye from Benzaldehyde?
Answer:
Benzaldehyde condenses with tertiary aromatic amines like N, N – dimethyl aniline in the presence of strong acids to triphenyl methane dye.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-225

Question 17.
How Is chlorine react with Benzaldehyde?

 

  • In the presence of catalyst
  • In the absence of catalyst

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-226

Question 18.
Explain about 3 test for aldehyde
Answer:
1. Tollen’s reagent test:
When an aldehyde is warmed with Tollens reagent(Ammonical silver nitrate), a bright silver mirror is produced due to the formation of silver metal. This reaction is also called silver mirror test for aldehydes.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-227

2. Fehlings solution Test:
Fehlings solution is prepared by mixing equal volumes of Fehlings solution ‘A’ containing aqueous copper sulphate and Fehlings solution ‘B’ containing alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartarate (RocheLle salt) When aldehyde is warmed with Fehlings solution deep blue colour solution is changed to red precipitate of cuprous oxide.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-228

3. Benedict’s solution Test:
Benedict’s solution is a mixture of CuSO4 + sodium citrate + NaOH. Cu2+ is reduced by aldehyde to give red precipitate of cuprous oxide.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-229

Question 19.
Mention the uses of formaldehyde.
Answer:

  1.   40% aqueous solution of formaldehyde is called formalin. It is used for preserving biological specimens.
  2. Formalin has hardening effect, hence it is used for tanning.
  3. Formalin is used in the production of thermo setting plastic known as bakelite, which is obtained by heating phenol with formalin.

Question 20.
What are the uses of acetaldehyde?
Answer:

  1. Acetaldehyde is used for silvering of mirrors
  2. Paraldehyde is used in medicine as a hypnotic.
  3. Acetaldehyde is used in the commercial preparation of organic compounds like acetic acid, ethyl acetate etc.,

Question 21.
Write about the uses of Acetone.
Answer:

  1. Acetone is used as a solvent, in the manufacture of smokeless powder (cordite)
  2. It is used as a nail polish remover.
  3. It is used in the preparation of suiphonal, a hypnotic.
  4. It is used in the manufacture of thermosoftening plastic Perspex.

Question 22.
What are the uses of Benzaldehyde?
Answer:

  1. as a flavoring agent
  2. in perfumes
  3. in dye intermediates
  4. as starting material for the synthesis of several other organic compounds like cinnamaldehyde, cinnamic acid, benzoyl chloride etc.

Question 23.
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling pint than aldehyde, keton and even alcohols of comparable molecular masses. Give reason.
Answer:
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling point due to more association of acid molecules through inter molecular hydrogen bonding.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-230
In fact, most of the carboxylic acids exist as dimer in its vapour phase.

Question 24.
What happens when ethanoic acid reacts with the following reagents?

  1. LiAIH4
  2. Red P, Hl

Answer:
1. When ethanoic acid reacts by LiAIH4, partial reduction take place and ethanol is formed as a product.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-231

2. When ethanoic acid is treated with HI and red phosphorous, complete reduction take place and alkane is formed as a product.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-232

Question 25.
Explain the action of sodalime with sodium acetate. Name the type of reaction involved in ¡t.
Answer:
When sodium acetate is treated with sodalime, methane is formed.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-233
Removal of CO2 from carboxyl group take place in it and this is called decarboxylation

Question 26.
Explain about electrophilic substitution in Benzoic acid with example.
Answer:
Benzoic acid undergoes electrophilic substitution. The carboxyl group is a deactivating and meta directing group.
1. Halogenation.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-234

2. Nitration
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-235

3. Sulphonation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-236

Quesiton 27.
Formic acid act as reducing agent. Prove this statement.
Answer:
1. Formic acid contains both an aldehyde as well as an acid group. Hence, like other aldehydes, formic acid can easily be oxidised and therefore acts as a strong reducing agent.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-237

2. Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent (ammonical silver nitrate solution) to metallic silver.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-238

3. Formic acid reduces Fehling’s solution. It reduces blue coloured cupric ions to red coloured cuprous ions.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-239

Question 28.
Give three test for carboxylic acid.
Answer:

  1. In aqueous solution, carboxylic acid turn blue litmus red.
  2. Carboxylic acids give brisk effervescence with. sodium bicarbonate due to the evolution of carbon – di – oxide.
  3. When carboxylic acid is warmed with alcohol and conc H2SO4 it forms an ester, which is detected by its fruity odour.

Question 29.
Write a note about acidity of carboxylic acids.
Answer:
1. Carboxylic acids undergo ionisation to produce W and carboxylate ions in aqueous solution. The carboxylate ion is stabilised by resonance which make the Carboxylic acid to donate the proton easily.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-240

2. The resonance structure of carboxylate ion are given below.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-241

3. The strength of carboxylic acid can be expressed in terms of the dissociation constant(Ka):
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-242
The stronger the acid, the large will be its Ka value.
PKa = – log Ka
A strong acid will have higher ka value but smaller pKa value, the reverse is true for weak acid.

Question 30.
Formic acid is more stronger than acetic acid. Justify this statement. The electron releasing groups (+I groups) increase the relative charge on the carboxylate ion and destabilise it and hence the loss of proton becomes difficult.
+ I groups are CH3, – C2H5, – C3H7
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-243

Question 31.
Explain the order of relative reactivity of acid derivatives.
Answer:
1. The reactivity of the acid derivatives follows the order
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-244

2. The above order of reactivity can be explained in terms of
Basicity of the leaving group
(b) Resonance effect

3. Weaker bases are good leaving groups. Hence acyl derivatives with weaker bases as leaving groups (L) can easily rupture the bond and are more reactive. The correct order of the basicity of the leaving group is
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-245
Hence the reverse is the order of reactivity.

4. Lesser the electronegativity of the group, greater would be the resonance stabilization as shown below.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-246
This effect makes the molecule more stable and reduces the reactivity of the acyl compound. The order of electronegativity of the leaving groups follows the order – Cl > – OCOR > – OR > – NH2. Hence the order of reactivity of the acid derivatives with nucleophilic reagent follows the order
Acid halide > Acid anhydride> esters> Acid amides

Question 32.
Explain the following reaction with acetyl chloride

  1. ammonolysis.

Answer:
Reaction with ammonia is known as arninonolysis
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-247

Question 33.
Explain the action of the following reagents with acetyl chloride?

  1. Pd / BaSO4
  2. LiAIH4

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-248

Question 34.
Describe about Claisen condensation.
Answer:
Esters containing at least one α – hydrogen atom undergo self condensation in the presence of a strong base such as sodium ethoxide to form β – keto ester. This reaction is known as Claisen condensation.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-249

Question 35.
Acid amides are generally amphoteric in nature. Justify this statement.
Answer:
1. Amides behave both as weak acid as well as weak base and thus show amphoteric character. This can be proved by the following reactions.

2. Acetamide (as base) reacts with hydrochloric acid to form salt
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-250

3. Acetamide (as acid) reacts with sodium to form sodium salt and hydrogen gas is liberated
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-251

Question 36.
Mention the uses of formic acid?
Answer:
Formic acid. It is used

  1. for the dehydration of hides.
  2. as a coagulating agent for rubber latex
  3. in medicine for treatment of gout
  4. as an antiseptic in the preservation of fruit juice

Question 37.
What are the uses of acetic acid?
Answer:
Acetic acid is used

  1. as table vinegar
  2. for coagulating rubber latex
  3. for manufacture of cellulose acetate and poiy vinylacetate

Question 38.
Indicate the uses of Benzoic acid.
Answer:
Benzoic acid is used

  1. as food preservative either in the pure form or in the form of sodium benzoate
  2. in medicine as an urinary antiseptic
  3. for manufacture of dyes

Question 39.
What are the uses of acetic anhydride?
Answer:
Acetic anhydride is used

  1. acetylating agent
  2. in the preparation of medicine like aspnn and phenacetin
  3. for the manufacture plastics like cellulose acetate and poly vinyl acetate.

Question 40.
Mention the uses of Ethyl acetate?
Answer:
Ethyl acetate is used

  1. in the preparation of artificial fruit essences.
  2. as a solvent for lacquers.
  3. in the preparation of organic synthetic reagent like ethyl acetoacetate.

Question 41.
Give reasons for the following.

  1. Carboxylic acids do not give characteristic reactions of carboxyl group
  2. Treatment of benzaldehyde with HCN gives a mixture of two isomers which cannot be separated even by careful fractional distillation.
  3. Sodium bisuiphite is used for the purification of aldehydes and ketones.

Answer:
1. It is due to reasonance
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-252

2. It is because we get two optical isomers which have same physical properties, therefore, cannot be separated by fractional distillation.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-253

3. Aldehydes and ketones form addition compounds with NaHSO3 whereas any impurities do not. On hydrolysis, we get pure aldehydes and ketones back again.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-254

Question 42.

(i) Describe the preparation of acetic acid from acetylene.

(ii) How can the following be obtained from acetic acid:

(a) Acetone

(b) Acetaldehyde

(iii) In what way can acetic acid be distinguished from acetone?

(iv) Why carboxylic acid do not give the characteristic reactions of a carbonyl group?

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-255

(iii). Add I2 and NaOH. Acetone will give yellow precipitate of iodoform whereas acetic acid does not react to give any yellow precipitate.(or) Add sodium bicarbonate solution Acetone will not react, but acetic acid will give brisk effervescence due to the evolution of CO2.

(iv). Carboxylic acid does not give the characteristic reactions of carbonyl group due to reasonance effect by the virtue of which it does not have free
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-256
carbonyl group.

Question 43.
Account for the following

  1. Cl – CH2COOH is a stronger acid than CH3COOH
  2. Carboxylic acids do not give reactions of carbonyl group.

Answer:
1. MonochLoroacetic acid is comparatively stronger acid than acetic acid. This is due to – Cl as a – I group

2. Carboxylic acids do not give reactions of carbonyl group because the lone pair of electrons on the oxygen attached to hydrogen in the – COOH group are involved in resonance, which makes the carbon less electrophilic.

Question 44.
A group of students were given to study the properties of aldehydes and ketones in the lab. They recorded a few observation of their physical properties.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-257

  1. Why are aldehydes more reactive and moreioiuble than ketones?
  2. What values of students are seen from the above act?

Answer:

  1. Aldehydes are more soluble in water because they form hydrogen bond with water molecule.
  2. Critical thinking

Question 45.
How will you distinguish between methanol and ethanol?
Answer:
By Iodoform test:
Ethanol having α – methyl group will give yellow ppt of iodoform whereas methanol, which do not have α – methyl group, will not give ppt. of iodoform.

Question 46.
There are two – NH2 group in semicarbazide. However, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazone. Why?
Answer:
Although semicarbazide has two – NH2 groups but only one of them is involved in resonance as shown below.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-258
As a result, e density on one of the – NH2 group is reduced and hence it does not act as nucleophile. One pair of the other – NH2 group is not involved in resonance and hence it is available for nucleophilic attack.

Question 47.
Explain why o – hydroxybenzaldehyde is a liquid at room temperature while p – hydroxybenzaldehyde is a high melting solid?
Answer:
Due to intramolecular H – bonding orthohydroxy benzaldehyde exists as discrete molecule whereas due to intermolecular H – bonding, p – hydroxybenzaldehyde exists as associated molecules. To break these intermolecular H – bonds, a large amount of energy is needed.

Consequently, p – hydroxybenzaldehyde has a much higher m.pt. and b.pt. than that of o – hydroxy benzaldehyde. As a result, o -hydroxy benzaldehyde is a liquid at room temperature while p – hydroxy benzaldehyde is a high melting solid.

Question 48.
A compound ‘X’ (C2H4O) on oxidation gives ‘Y’ (C2H4O2), ‘X’ undergoes haloform reaction. On treatment with HCN ‘X’ form a product ‘Z’ which on hydrolysis gives 2 – hydroxy propanoic acid.

  1. Write down the structures of ‘X’ and ‘Y’
  2. Name the product when ‘X’ reacts with dii NaOH.
  3. Write down the equations for the reaction involved.

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-259
Structure of Y (CH3COOH)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-260

Question 49.

1. How will you prepare

  • Acetic anhydride and
  • Acetyl chloride from acetic acid?

Write the reactions involved in each case.
2. Why is the boiling point of an acid anhydride higher than the acid from which it is derived?
Answer:
1.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-261

2. Acid anhydrides are bigger sized molecules than the corresponding acids, therefore have more surface area, more van der Waals’ forces of attraction and hence higher boiling points.

Question 50.
Suggest a reason for the large difference in the boiling point of butanol and butanal, although they have the same solubility in water.
Answer:
The b.pt. of butanol is higher than that of butanal because butanol has strong intermolecular H – bonding while butanal has weak dipole – dipole interactions. However both of them will form H – bond with water and hence are soluble.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids 5 Mark Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain the action of ammonia with the following compounds.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-262

Answer:
(i).  Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form hexa methylene tetramine, which is also known as UrotroDine.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-263

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-264

Question 2.
Explain the mechanism of aldol condensation.
Answer:
In presence of dilute base NaOH, or KOH, two molecules of an aldehyde or ketone having α – hydrogen add together to give 3 – hydroxyl aldehyde (aldol) or – hydroxyl ketone (ketol). The reaction is called aldol condensation reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-265
Mechanism
The mechanism of aldol condensation of acetaldehyde takes place in three steps.
Step 1:
The carbanion is formed as the α – hydrogen atom is removed as a proton by the base.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-266

Step 2:
The carbanion attacks the carbonyl carbon of another unionized aldehyde to form an alkoxide ion.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-267

Step 3:
The alkoxide ion formed is protonated by water to form aldol.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-268
The aldol rapidly undergoes dehydration on heating with acid to form a, f3 unsaturated aldehyde.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-269

Question 3.
Explain the mechanism of Cannizaro reaction.
Answer:
1. In the presence of concentrated aqueous or alcoholic alkali, aldehydes which do not have α – hydrogen atom undergo self oxidation and reduction to give a mixture of alcohol and a salt of carboxylic acid. This reaction is called Cannizaro reaction.

2. Benzaldehyde on treatment with concentrated NaOH (50%) gives benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-270

Mechanism
Cannizaro reaction involves three steps.
3. Step 1:
Attack of OH on the carbonyl carbons.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-271

4. Step 2:
Hydride ion transfer
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-272

5. Step 3:
Acid – base reaction
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-273

Question 4.
Explain

  1. Perkin’s reaction
  2. Knocvenagal reaction.

Answer:
1. Perkin’s reaction
When an aromatic aldehyde is heated with an aliphatic acid anhydride in the presence of the sodium salt of the acid corresponding to the anhydride, condensation takes place and an α, β unsaturated acid is obtained. This reaction is known as Perkin’s reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-274

2. Knoevenagal reaction
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-275

Question 5.
Explain about electrophilic substitution reactions of Benzaldehyde and acetophenone.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-276

Question 6.
How would you prepare acetic acid from the following compounds.

  1. Ethyl alcohol
  2. Methyl cyanide
  3. Ethyl acetate

Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-277

Question 7.
What is esterification? Explain the mechanism of esterification.
Answer:
When carboxylic acids are heated with alcohols in the presence of conc. HCI (or) dry HCI gas, esters are formed. This reaction is reversible and is called esterification.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-278

Question 8.
An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (C) on dehydration gives but -1-ene. Write equations for the reactions involved.
Answer:
The relevant equations for all the reactions involved may be explained as follows.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-279

Question 9.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula CH6 reacts with Br2 in the presence of FeCI3 gives (B) of formula C6HBr. B on treatment with mg in the presence of dry ether gives (C) compound (C) on treatment with dry ice followed by hydrolysis gives a compound (D) of molecular formula C7H6O2. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-280

Question 10.
A simplest aromatic hydrocarbon (A) reacts with methyl chloride in the presence of AICI3 gives (B) C7H8. Compound (B) reacts with Br2 along with light gives (C) of molecular formula C7H7Br (C) reacts with alcohol KCN gives (D) (C8H7N) (D) on acid hydrolysis gives (E) of formula C8H8O2. Identify A,B,C,D,E and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-281

Question 11.
An organic compound (A) is a calcium salt of acetic acid. (A) on dry distillation gives (B) of formula C3H6O. (B) on reaction with LiAIH4 gives (C) of formula C3H8O (C) on heating with conc. H2SO4 gives (D) of molecular formula C3H6. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:

Question 12.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C7H8O on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 gives (B) of formula C7H6O. (B) on reaction with CI2 in the presence of catalyst FeCl3 gives (C) of formula C7HOCl. (B) on reaction with CI2 in the absence of catalyst gives C7H5OCI. Identify A,B, C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-282

Question 13.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C7H6O reacts with acedaldehyde In the presence of sodium ethoxide gives (B) of formula C9H8O an unsaturated aldehyde. Compound (A) reacts with acetic anhydride in the presence of sodium acetate gives (C) and (D) of formula C9HO2 & C2H4O2 respectively. Identify AB,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:
1. From the molecular formula (A) is identified as Benzaldehyde C6H5CHO.Benzaldehyde reacts with acetaldehyde to give cinnamaldehyde as B in Claisen condensation reaction.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-283

2. Benzaldehyde reacts with acetic anhydride (Oerkin’s reaction) to give cinnamic acid (C) as product.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-284

Question 14.
An aromatic aldehyde (A) of molecular C7H6O reacts with acidified KMnO4 to give (B) of molecular formula C7H6O2 calcium salt of compound (B) on dry distillation gives (C) of molecular formula C13H10O Compound (C) on Clemmenson’s reduction, gives (D) of formula C13H12O. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:
1. From the molecular formula (A) is identified as Benzaldehyde C6H5CHO.Benzaldehyde on reaction with acidified KMnO4 undergoes oxidation to give Bcnzoic acid as compound (B)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-285

2. Calcium salt of Benzoic acid on dry distillaiton gives Benzophenone as compound (C)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids-286

3. Benzophenone undergoes Clemmenson reduction in the presence Zn amalgam and HCI gives Diphenyl methane as (D)

Question 15.
A simplest aromatic hydrocarbon (A) of formula C6H6 reacts with Bromine to gives (B) of molecular formula C6H5Br. (B) on treatment with magnesium metal in the presence of dry ether gives (C) . (C) on reaction with formaldehyde followed by acid hydrolysis gives (D) of formula C7H8O. Identify AB,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:
1. From the molecular formula (A) is identified as Benzene C6H6, Benzene reacts with Bromine to give bromobenzene as (B)

2. Bromobenzene reacts with Mg in the presence of dry ether gives phenyÍ magnesium bromide (Grignard reagent) as compound (C)

3. Phenyl magnesium bromide react with formaldehyde followed by acid hydrolysis gives Benzyl alcohol as product (D)

Question 16.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H3N on acid hydrolysis gives (B) of molecular formula C2H4O2 calcium salt of (B) gives (C) of molecular formula C3H6O. Compound (C) on reduction of hydrazine and sodium ethoxide gives (D) of molecular formula C3H8. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:
1.
2.
3. Wolf – Kishner reduction

Question 17.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C7H8 on reaction with hot alkaline KMnO4 gives (B) of formula C7H6O2 which gives brisk effervescence with NaHCO3 solution. (B) on reaction with sodium hydroxide gives (C) of formula C7H5O2Na. Compound (C) on treatment with sodalime gives (D) the simplest aromatic hydrocarbon.
Answer:
1. From the molecular formula (A) is identified as Toluene. Toluene on treatment with hot alkaline KMnO4, oxidation take place and the product (B) formed is Benzoic acid.

2. Benzoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to give sodium benzoate as compound (C)

3. Sodium benzoate on reaction with sodalime (NaOH + CaO) decarboxylation take place and the product (D) formed is Benzene.

Question 18.
An organic compound (A) molecular formula C3H6O is resistant to oxidation but form a compound (B) (C3H8O) on reduction (B) reacts with HBr to form a bromide (C) which on treatment with alcoholic KOH forms an alkene (D) (C3H6). Deduce the structures of A,B,C and D.
Answer:

Question 19.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C6H6O gives violet colour with neutral FeCI3. (A) on reaction with zinc dust gives (B) of formula C6H6 (B) on treatment with acetvl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AICI3 gives (C) of formula C8HO. (C) on Clemmenson reduction gives (D) of formula C8H10O. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:

Question 20.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C3H6O reduces Tollen’s reagent on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis gives (B) of formula C4H10O. (B) gives blue colour in victor meyer test. (B) on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives (C) of formula C4H8O (C) on reaction with hydrazine and sodium ethoxide gives (D) of molecular formula C4H10. identify A,B,C,D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) reduces Tollen’s reagent it must be an aldehyde. From the formula, it is identified as CH3 – CH2 – CHO propanal.

2. Propanal on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by acid hydrolysis gives (B) as Butan – 2 – ol. It must be a secondary alcohol and gives blue colour with victor meyer’s test. H

3.

4. Wolf – Kishner reduction.

Question 21.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C7H6O2 reacts with PCI5 to give (B) of formula C7H5OCl (B) on treatment with ammonia gives (C) of formula C7H7NO (C) on treatment with phosphorous pentoxide gives (D) of formula C7H5N. Identify A,BC,D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:

Question 22.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C3H6 on hydration in the presence of H2SO4 gives (B) C3H5O which gives blue colour In victor meyer’s test. (B) on treatment with Cu at 573 K gives C3H6O a compound (C) on self condensation in the presence of magnesium amalgam and water gives (D) of formula C6H14O2. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:

Question 23.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H4O reduces tollen’s reagent to silver mirror. (A) on treatment with C2H5MgBr followed by acid hydrolysis gives (B) of formula C4H10O. (B) on reaction with Cu at 573 K gives (C) of formula C4H8O which does not reduce tollen’s reagent but answers iodoform test. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaction involved.
Answer:

Question 24.
An unknown aldehyde ‘A’ on reacting with alkali gives a b – hydroxy – aldehyde, which loses water to form an unsaturated aldehyde, 2 – butenal. Another aldehyde ‘B’ undergoes disporportionation reaction in the presence of conc. alkali to form products C and D. C is – an aryl alcohol with formula C7H8O.

  1. Identify A and B.
  2. Write the sequence of reactions involved
  3. Name the product, when ‘B’ reacts with Zn amalgam and hydrochloric acid.

Answer:

1. ‘A’ is acetaldehyde ‘B’ is Benzaldehyde

2. reactuib are shown above.

Question 25.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C4H8 is symmetric alkene. (A) on ozonolysis gives 2 moles (B) of molecular formula C2H4O. (B) on reaction with ammonia gives (C) of molecular formula C2H5N.
Answer:
1. (A) is a symmetric alkene. From the molecular formula, it is identified as But – 2 – ene

2. But – 2 – ene on ozonolysis gives 2 moles of acetaldehyde as product (B)

3.

Question 26.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H4O2 gives brisk effervescence with sodium carbonate. (A) on reaction with thiony chloride gives (B) of formula C2H3OCI. (B) on reaction with Pd/BaSO4 gives (C) of molecular formula C2H4O that reduces Tollen’s reagent to silver mirror. (C) on reaction with dilute NaOH gives (D) of molecular formula C4H8O2. identify A,B,C,D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. (A) gives brisk effervescence with Na2CO3 means it must be a carboxylic acid. So (A) must be CH3COOH Acetic acid.

2. Acetic acid reacts with thionyl chloride to give acetyl chloride CH3COCI as (B)

3. Acetyl chloride reacts with Pd/BaSO4, it undergoes Rosenmund’s reduction to give acetaldehyde as (C)

4. When acetaldehyde is warmed with dilute NaOH, it undergoes aldol condensation to

Question 27.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C7H8 reacts with CI2 in the presence of ho light gives (B) of formula C7H6C12. (B) on hydrolysis at 373 k gives (C) of formula C7H6O. (C) on treatment with 50% NaOH gives (D) and (E). Identify A,B,CD,E and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. From the molecular formula (A) is identified as Toluene. ToÍuene reacts with Cl2 in the presence of light gives Benzal chloride as (B)

2. Benzal chloride on hydrolysis at 373 k gives Benzaldehyde as (C)

3. Benzaldehyde when warmed with dilute NaOH undergoes cannizaro reaction to give Benzyl alcohol (D) and sodium benzoate (E)

Question 28.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H3OCI on reaction with pd and BaSO4 gives (B) of formula C2H4O. (B) on reaction with LiAIH4 gives (C) of formula C2H6O. (B) on reaction with 12 and NaOH gives (D) of formula CH2ONa and iodoform. identify A,B,CD and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. From the molecular formula (A) is identified as CH3COCl (Acetyl chloride)

2. Acetyl chloride on treatment with Pd and BaSO4 gives acetaldehyde CH3CHO as (B)

3. Acetaldehyde on reaction with LiAIH4 gives ethyl alcohol as (C)

4. Acetaldehyde when treated with I2 and NaOH gives sodium formate (D) and iodoform CHI3 as products.

Question 29.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C7H6O gives brisk effervescence with Na2CO3. Sodium salt of (A) on treatment with sodalime gives (B) a simplest aromatic hydrocarbon. (B) on reaction with acetyichioride in the presence of anhydrous AICI3 gives (C) of formula C8H8O. (C) on treatment with conc. nitric acid and conc. sulphuric acid gives (D) of formula C8H7NO3. Identify A,BC,D,E and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. (A) gives brisk effervescence with Na2CO3 solution and it must be a carboxylic acid. (A) gives brisk effervescence with NNa2CO3 solution and it must be a carboxylic acid. (A) is C6H5COOH benzoic acid.

2. Sodium salt of benzoic acid on reaction with sodalime (decarboxylation) produces benzene as (B)

3. Benzene on treatment with acetyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 gives acetophenone as (C)

4. Acetophenonc on reaction with conc. HNO3 and cone. H2SO4 gives m – nitro acetophenone as (D)

Question 30.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H6O on reaction with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives (B) of molecular formula C2H4O which on further oxidation gives (C) of molecular formula C2H4O2. Compound (C) reacts with (A) in the presence of conc. H2SO4 gives (D) of molecular formula C4H8O2. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaction Involved.
Answer:
1. An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H6O is identified as ethanol.

2. Ethanol on oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives first acetaldehyde as (B) which on further oxidation gives acetic acid as (C)

3. Ethanol reacts with acetic acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4, esterification take place to give ethyl acetate as product (D)

Question 31.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H4O2 gives brisk effervescence with Na2CO3. Acetyl chloride reacts with sodium acetate to give C4H6O3 as (B). (B) on reaction with PCI5 gives (C) of formula C2H10CI. (C) on reaction with ammonia gives (D) of molecular formula C2H5NO. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. Compound (A) gives brisk effervescence with Na2CO3 and so it must be a carboxylic acid. CH3COOH (acetic acid) is compound A.

2. Acetyl chloride on heating with sodium acetate to give acetic anhydride as (B)

3. Acetic anhydride reacts with PCI5 to give acetyl chloride CH3COCI as (C)

4. Acetyl chloride on treatment with ammonia gives acetamide as (D)

Question 32.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H4O2 reacts with PCI5 to give (B) of formula C2H3OCI. (B) on treatment with ammonia gives (C) of formula C2H5NO. (C) on reaction with Br2 and KOH gives CH5N as (D). Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. The organic compound (A) is identified as CH3COOH (Acetic acid).

2. Acetic acid reacts with PCI5 to form acetyl chloride as (B)

3. Acetyl chloride on reaction with ammonia gives acetamide as (C)

4. Acetamide on treatment with Br2, and KOH gives methylamine as (D)

Question 33.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H5NO on treatment with LiAIH4 gives (B) of formula C2H7N. (A) on treatment with Br2 and excess of caustic alkali gives (C) of formula CH5N. (A) on treatment with phosphorous pentoxide gives (D) of molecular formula C2H3N Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reaclions involved.
Answer:
1. The organic compound (A) is identified as CH3CONH2 acetamide.

2. Acetamide on treatment with LiAlH4 gives ethylamine as product (B)

3. Acetamide on reaction with Br2 and caustic alkali gives methyl amine as (C)

4. Acetamide on treatment with P2O5 gives Aceto nitrile (or) methyl cyanide as (D)

Question 34.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C2H5NO on reaction with P2O5 gives C2H3N(B). (B) on hydrolysis gives (C) of formula C2H4O2 (C) on reaction with LiMB4 gives (D) formula C2H6O. Identify A,B,C,D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified as CH3CONH2 acetarnide.

2. Acetamide on reaction with P2O5 gives methyl cyanide as (B)

3. Methyl cyanide on acid hydrolysis gives acetic acid CH3COOH as (C)

4. Acetic acid on reaction with LiAlH4 gives ethanol as (D)

Errors

  1. Aldehydes IUPAC names
  2. Ketone – IUPAC name
  3. Ozonolysis – easy way to remember the products. Students may feel difficult in writing equation
  4. Clemmenson reduction and Wolf – Kishner reduction may get confused

Rectifications

1. The name should end with the word – al, HCHO – methanal, Aldehyde – Al, Alcohol – ol

2. The name should end with the word – one.  Propanone

3. By the either side of = bond, add one oxygen atom as products

4. The products are same, only catalyst are different

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Textual Evaluation Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by …….. .
(a) λp ∝ λe
(b) λp ∝ \(\sqrt { { \lambda }_{ e } } \)
(c) λp ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { { \lambda }_{ e } } } \)
(d) λp ∝ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(d) λp ∝ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\)
Hint:
de broglie wavelength of electron, λe = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mE } } \)
∴ ie λe ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { E } } \) ⇒ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\) ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ E } \) …… (1)
de-Broglie wavelength of proton
λp = \(\frac { hc }{ E } \)
λp ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ E } \) …… (2)
From (1) and (2)
\({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\) ∝ λp i.e., λp ∝ \({ \lambda }_{ e }^{ 2 }\)

Question 2.
In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage is changed to 224 kV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would …….. .
(a) increase by 2 times
(b) decrease by 2 times
(c) decrease by 4 times
(d) increase by 4 times
Answer:
(c) decrease by 4 times
Hint:
At Voltage, V = 14 kV
de-Broglie wavelength of electron,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-1
de-Broglie wavelength of electron is decreased by 4 times

Question 3.
A particle of mass 3 x 10-6 g has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity
6 x 106 ms-1 The velocity of the particle is …….. .
(a) 1.82 x 10-18 ms-1
(b) 9 x 10-2 ms-1
(c) 3 x 10-31 ms-1
(d)1.82 x 10-15 ms-1
Answer:
(d)1.82 x 10-15 ms-1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-2
Velocity of the particle
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-3

Question 4.
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is \(\frac { V }{ 4 }\). The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is ………. .
(a) 4λ
(b) 5λ
(c) \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) λ
(d) 3λ
Answer:
(d) 3λ
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-4
On solving we get, λ0 = 3λ

Question 5.
If a light of wavelength 330 nm is incident on a metal with work function 3.55 eV, the electrons are emitted. Then the wavelength of the emitted electron is (Take h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js) ……… .
(a) < 2.75 x 10-9 m
(b) ≥ 2.75 x 10-9 m
(c) < 2.75 x 10-12um
(d) ≤ 2.75 x 10-10um
Answer:
(a) < 2.75 x 10-9 m
Hint:
Maximum KE of emitted electron is
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-5
de-Broglie wavelength of emitted electron
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-6
The Two wavelength of the emitted electron is < 2.75 x 10-9 m

Question 6.
A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength λ and \(\frac { λ }{ 2 }\) . If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function at the surface of material is …….. .
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
(b) \(\frac { 2hc }{ λ }\)
(c) \(\frac { hc }{ 3λ }\)
(d) \(\frac { hc }{ 2λ }\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { hc }{ 2λ }\)
Hint:
KE1 = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – Φ ……. (2)
3KE1 = \(\frac { 2hc }{ λ }\) – Φ
KE1 = \(\frac { 2hc }{ 3λ }\) – \(\frac { Φ }{ 3λ}\) ….. (2)
Equating (1) and (2)
\(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – Φ = \(\frac { 2hc }{ 3λ }\) – \(\frac { Φ }{ 3λ}\)
\(\frac { hc }{ 3λ }\) = \(\frac { 2Φ }{ 3λ}\) ⇒ Φ = \(\frac { hc }{ 2λ }\)

Question 7.
In photoelectric emission, a radiation whose frequency is 4 times threshold frequency of a certain metal is incident on the metal. Th en the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be ……….. .
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-7
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-8
Hint:
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-9

Question 8.
Two radiations with photon energies 0.9 eV and 3.3 eV respectively are falling on a metallic surface successively. If the work function of the metal is 0.6 eV, then the ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be ………..
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 9
Answer:
(b) 1 : 3
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-10
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-11

Question 9.
A light source of wavelength 520 nm emits 1.04 x 1015 photons per second while the second source of 460 nm produces 1.38 x 1015 photons per second. Then the ratio of power of second source to that of first source is ……… .
(a) 1.00
(b) 1.02
(c) 1.5
(d) 0.98
Answer:
(c) 1.5
Hint:
Power:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-12

Question 10.
The mean wavelength of light from sun is taken to be 550 nm and its mean power is 3.8 x 1026 W. The number of photons received by the human eye per second on the average from sunlight is of the order of ………. .
(a) 1045
(b) 1042
(c) 1054
(d) 1051
Answer:
(a) 1045
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-13

Question 11.
The threshold wavelength for a metal surface whose photoelectric work function is 3.313 eV is
(a) 4125 Å
(b) 3750 Å
(c) 6000 Å
(d) 2062.5 Å
Answer:
(b) 3750 Å
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-14

Question 12.
A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a sensitive plate of photoelectric work function 1.235 eV. The kinetic energy of the photo electrons emitted is be (Take h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js)
(a) 0.58 eV
(b) 2.48 eV
(c) 1.24 eV
(d) 1.16 eV
Answer:
(c) 1.24 eV
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-15

Question 13.
Photons of wavelength λ are incident on a metal. The most energetic electrons ejected from the metal are bent into a circular arc of radius R by a perpendicular magnetic field having magnitude B. The work function of the metal is ……… .
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-16
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-17
Hint:
Magnetic lorentz force = Centripetal force
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-18
From Einstein’s photo electric equation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-19

Question 14.
The work functions for metals A, B and C are 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5.0 eV respectively. The metals which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are ………. .
(a) A only
(b) both A and B
(c) all these metals
(d) none
Answer:
(b) both A and B
Hint:
Energy of radiation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-20
E = 3.04 eV
Since energy of incident radiation is greater than the work function of metals A and B. So metal A and B will emit photoelectrons.

Question 15.
Emission of electrons by the absorption of heat energy is called ……… emission.
(a) photoelectric
(b) field
(c) thermionic
(d) secondary
Answer:
(c) thermionic

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why do metals have a large number of free electrons?
Answer:
In metals, the electrons in the outer most shells are loosely bound to the nucleus. Even at room temperature, there are a large number of free electrons which are moving inside the metal in a random manner.

Question 2.
Define work function of a metal. Give its unit.
Answer:
The minimum energy needed for an electron to escape from the metal surface is called work function of that metal. It’s unit is electron volt (eV).

Question 3.
What is photoelectric effect?
Answer:
The ejection of electrons from a metal plate when illuminated by light or any other electromagnetic radiation of suitable wavelength (or frequency) is called photoelectric effect.

Question 4.
How does photocurrent vary with the intensity of the incident light?
Answer:
Photocurrent – the number of electrons emitted per second is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident light.

Question 5.
Give the definition of intensity of light and its unit.
Answer:
Intensity of light refer to the strength or brightness or amount of light produced by a specific source. It’s unit is candela (cd)

Question 6.
How will you define threshold frequency?
Answer:
For a given surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place only if the frequency of incident light is greater than a certain minimum frequency called the threshold frequency.

Question 7.
What is a photo cell? Mention the different types of photocells.
Answer:
photocells: Photo electric cell or photo cell is a device which converts light energy into electrical energy. It works on the principle of photo electric effect.
Types:

  • Photo emissive cell
  • Photo voltaic cell
  • Photo conductive cell

Question 8.
Write the expression for the de Broglie wavelength associated with a charged particle of charge q and mass m, when it is accelerated through a potential V.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = eV
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is v = \(\sqrt { \frac { 2ev }{ m } } \)
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2emV } } \)

Question 9.
State de Broglie hypothesis.
Answer:
De Broglie hypothesis, all matter particles like electrons, protons, neutrons in motion are associated with waves.

Question 10.
Why we do not see the wave properties of a baseball?
Answer:
Due to the large mass of a baseball, the de Broglie wavelength
[λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\)] associated with a moving baseball is very small. Hence its wave nature is not visible.

Question 11.
A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de Broglie wavelength. Justify.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)
i.e. λ ∝ \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { m } } \)
As me << mp, so λe >> λp
Hence protons have greater de-Broglie wavelength.

Question 12.
Write the relationship of de Broglie wavelength λ associated with a particle of mass m in terms of its kinetic energy K.
Answer:
Kinetic energy of the particle, K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = \(\frac { { P }^{ 2 } }{ 2m } \)
p = \(\sqrt { 2mK } \)
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)

Question 13.
Name an experiment which shows wave nature of the electron. Which phenomenon was observed in this experiment using an electron beam?
Answer:

  • Davisson – Germer experiment confirmed the wave nature of electrons.
  • They demonstrated that electron beams are diffracted when they fall on crystalline solids.

Question 14.
An electron and an alpha particle have same kinetic energy. How are the de Broglie wavelengths associated with them related?
Answer:
[λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\)]
Kinetic energy of the particle K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = \(\frac { { P }^{ 2 } }{ 2m } \) = \(\frac { { h }^{ 2 } }{ 2m{ \lambda }^{ 2 } } \)
i.e. λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \) ; λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { m} } \)
\(\frac { { \lambda }_{ e } }{ { \lambda }_{ \alpha } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { m }_{ \alpha } }{ { m }_{ e } } } \)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by electron emission? Explain briefly various methods of electron emission.
Answer:
Electron emission:
1. Free electrons possess some kinetic energy and this energy is different for different electrons. The kinetic energy of the free electrons is not sufficient to overcome the surface barrier.

2. Whenever an additional energy is given to the free electrons, they will have sufficient energy to cross the surface barrier. And they escape from the metallic surface.

3. The liberation of electrons from any surface of a substance is called electron emission.

There are mainly four types of electron emission which are given below.
(i) Thermionic emission:
When a metal is heated to a high temperature, the free electrons on the surface of the metal get sufficient energy in the form of thermal energy so that they are emitted from the metallic surface. This type of emission is known as thermionic emission.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-21
The intensity of the thermionic emission (the number of electrons emitted) depends on the metal used and its temperature.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-22
Examples: cathode ray tubes, electron microscopes, X-ray tubes etc.

(ii) Field emission:
Electric field emission occurs when a very strong electric field is applied across the metal. This strong field pulls the free electrons and helps them to overcome the surface barrier of the metal.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-23
Examples: Field emission scanning electron microscopes, Field-emission display etc.

(iii) Photo electric emission:
When an electromagnetic radiation of suitable frequency is incident on the surface of the metal, the energy is transferred from the radiation to the free electrons. Hence, the free electrons get sufficient energy to cross the surface barrier and the photo electric emission takes place. The number of electrons emitted depends on the intensity of the incident radiation.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-24
Examples: Photo diodes, photo electric cells etc.

(iv) Secondary emission:
When a beam of fast moving electrons strikes the surface of the metal, the kinetic energy of the striking electrons is transferred to the free electrons on the metal surface. Thus the free electrons get sufficient kinetic energy so that the secondary emission of , electron occurs.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-25
Examples: Image intensifies, photo multiplier tubes etc.

Question 2.
Briefly discuss the observations of Hertz, Hallwachs and Lenard.
Answer:
Hertz observation:
1. In 1887, Heinrich Hertz first became successful in generating and detecting electromagnetic wave with his high voltage induction coil to cause a spark discharge between two metallic spheres.

2. When a spark is formed, the charges will oscillate back and forth rapidly and the electromagnetic waves are produced.

3. The electromagnetic waves thus produced were detected by a detector that has a copper wire bent in the shape of a circle. Although the detection of waves is successful, there is a problem in observing the tiny spark produced in the detector.

4. In order to improve the visibility of the spark, Hertz made many attempts and finally noticed an important thing that small detector spark became more vigorous when it was exposed to ultraviolet light.

5. The reason for this behaviour of the spark was not known at that time. Later it was found that it is due to the photoelectric emission.

6. Whenever ultraviolet light is incident on the metallic sphere, the electrons on the outer surface are emitted which caused the spark to be more vigorous.

Hallwachs’ observation:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-26

8. In 1888, Wilhelm Hallwachs, a German physicist, confirmed that the strange behaviour of the spark is due to the action of ultraviolet light with his simple experiment.

9. A clean circular plate of zinc is mounted on an insulating stand and is attached to a gold leaf electroscope by a wire. When the uncharged zinc plate is irradiated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp, it becomes positively charged and the leaves will open.

10. Further, if the negatively charged zinc plate is exposed to ultraviolet light, the leaves will close as the charges leaked away quickly. If the plate is positively charged, it becomes more positive upon UV rays irradiation and the leaves will open further.

11. From these observations, it was concluded that negatively charged electrons were emitted from the zinc plate under the action of ultraviolet light.

Lenard’s observation:
1. In 1902, Lenard studied this electron emission phenomenon in detail. The apparatus consists of two metallic plates A and C placed in an evacuated quartz bulb. The galvanometer G and battery B are connected in the circuit.

2. When ultraviolet light is incident on the negative plate C, an electric current flows in the circuit that is indicated by the deflection in the galvanometer. On other hand, if the positive plate is irradiated by the ultraviolet light, no current is observed in the circuit.

3. From these observations, it is concluded that when ultraviolet light falls on the negative plate, electrons are ejected from it which are attracted by the positive plate A. On reaching the positive plate through the evacuated bulb, the circuit is completed and the current flows in it.

4. Thus, the ultraviolet light falling on the negative plate causes the electron emission from the surface of the plate.

Question 3.
Explain the effect of potential difference on photoelectric current.
Answer:
Effect of potential difference on photoelectric current:
1.  To study the effect of potential difference V between the electrodes on photoelectric current, the frequency and intensity of the incident light are kept constant. Initially the potential of A is kept positive with respect to C and the cathode is irradiated with the given light.

2. Now, the potential of A is increased and the corresponding photocurrent is noted. As the potential of A is increased, photocurrent is also increased. However a stage is reached where photocurrent reaches a saturation value (saturation current) at which all the photoelectrons from C are collected by A. This is represented by the flat portion of the graph between potential of A and photocurrent.

3. When a negative (retarding) potential is applied to A with respect to C, the current does not immediately drop to zero because the photoelectrons are emitted with some definite and different kinetic energies.

4. The kinetic energy of some of the photoelectrons is such that they could overcome the retarding electric field and reach the electrode A.

5. When the negative (retarding) potential of A is gradually increased, the photocurrent starts to decrease because more and more photoelectrons are being repelled away from reaching the electrode A. The photocurrent becomes zero at a particular negative potential V0, called stopping or cut-off potential.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-27

6. Stopping potential is that the value of the negative (retarding) potential given to the collecting electrode A which is just sufficient to stop the most energetic photoelectrons emitted and make the photocurrent zero.

7. At the stopping potential, even the most energetic electron is brought to rest. Therefore, the initial kinetic energy of the fastest electron (Kmax ) is equal to the work done by the stopping potential to stop it (eV0 ).
Kmax = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \({ mv }_{ max }^{ 2 }\) = eV0 …. (1)
Where vmax is the maximun speed of the emitted photoelectron.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-28
= 5.93 x 105 \(\sqrt { { V }_{ 0 } } \) …. (2)
From equation (1),
Kmax = eVo (in joule) (or) Kmax = (V0 ) (in eV)

8. From the graph, when the intensity of the incident light alone is increased, the saturation current also increases but the value of V0 remains constant.

9. Thus, for a given frequency of the incident light, the stopping potential is independent of intensity of the incident light. This also implies that the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is independent of intensity of the incident light.

Question 4.
Explain how frequency of incident light varies with stopping potential.
Answer:
Effect of frequency of incident light on stopping potential:
1. To study the effect of frequency of incident light on stopping potential, the intensity of the incident light is kept constant. The variation of photocurrent with the collector electrode potential is studied for radiations of different frequencies and a graph drawn between them. From the graph, it is clear that stopping potential vary over different frequencies of incident light.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-29

2. Greater the frequency of the incident radiation, larger is the corresponding stopping potential. This implies that as the frequency is increased, the photoelectrons are emitted with greater kinetic energies so that the retarding potential needed to stop the photoelectrons is also greater.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-30

3. Now a graph is drawn between frequency and the stopping potential for different metals. From this graph, it is found that stopping potential varies linearly with frequency. Below a certain frequency called threshold frequency, no electrons are emitted; hence stopping potential is zero for that reason. But as the frequency is increased above threshold value, the stopping potential varies linearly with the frequency of incident light.

Question 5.
List out the laws of photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Laws of photoelectric effect:
1. For a given frequency of incident light, the number of photoelectrons emitted is directly proportional to the intensity of the incident light. The saturation current is also directly proportional to the intensity of incident light.

2. Maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons is independent of intensity of the incident light.

3. Maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons from a given metal is directly proportional to the frequency of incident light.

4. For a given surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place only if the frequency of incident light is greater than a certain minimum frequency called the threshold frequency.

5. There is no time lag between incidence of light and ejection of photoelectrons.

Question 6.
Explain why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light.
Answer:
Failures of classical wave theory:
From Maxwell’s theory, light is an electromagnetic wave consisting of coupled electric and magnetic oscillations that move with the speed of light and exhibit typical wave behaviour. Let us try to explain the experimental observations of photoelectric effect using wave picture of light.

1. When light is incident on the target, there is a continuous supply of energy to the electrons. According to wave theory, light of greater intensity should impart greater kinetic energy to the liberated electrons (Here, Intensity of light is the energy delivered per unit area per unit time). But this does not happen. The experiments show that maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons does not depend on the intensity of the incident light.

2. According to wave theory, if a sufficiently intense beam of light is incident on the surface, electrons will be liberated from the surface of the target, however low the frequency of the radiation is. From the experiments, we know that photoelectric emission is not possible below a certain minimum frequency. Therefore, the wave theory fails to explain the existence of threshold frequency.

3. Since the energy of light is spread across the wavefront, the electrons which receive energy from it are large in number. Each electron needs considerable amount of time (a few hours) to get energy sufficient to overcome the work function and to get liberated from the surface. But experiments show that photoelectric emission is almost instantaneous process (the time lag is less than 10“9 s after the surface is illuminated) which could not be explained by wave theory.

Question 7.
Explain the quantum concept of light.
Answer:
Concept of quantization of energy:
Max Planck proposed quantum concept in 1900 in order to explain the thermal radiations emitted by a black body and the shape of its radiation curves. According to Planck, matter is composed of a large number of oscillating particles (atoms) which vibrate with different frequencies. Each atomic oscillator – which vibrates with its characteristic frequency – emits or absorbs electromagnetic radiation of the same frequency. It also says that

1. If an oscillator vibrates with frequency v, its energy can have only certain discrete values, given by the equation.
En = nhυ n = 1, 2, 3 ………..
where A is a constant, called Planck’s constant.

2. The oscillators emit or absorb energy in small packets or quanta and the energy of each quantum is E = hυ.
This implies that the energy of the oscillator is quantized – that is, energy is not continuous as believed in the wave picture. This is called quantization of energy.

Question 8.
Obtain Einstein’s photoelectric equation with necessary explanation. Einstein’s explanation of photoelectric equation:
Answer:
1.  When a photon of energy hv is incident on a metal surface, it is completely absorbed by a single electron and the electron is ejected.

2.  In this process, a part of the photon energy is used for the ejection of the electrons from the metal surface (photoelectric work function Φ0) and the remaining energy as the kinetic energy of the ejected electron. From the law of conservation of energy,
hυ = Φ0 + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 …… (1)
where m is the mass of the electron and u its velocity
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-31

3. If we reduce the frequency of the incident light, the speed or kinetic energy of photo electrons is also reduced. At some frequency V0 of incident radiation, the photo electrons are ejected with almost zero kinetic energy. Then the equation (1) becomes
0 = Φ0
where vQ is the threshold frequency. By rewriting the equation (1), we get
hυ = hυ0 + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 …… (2)
The equation (2) is known as Einstein’s Photoelectric equation.
If the electron does not lose energy by internal collisions, then it is emitted with maximum kinetic energy Kmax. Then
Kmax = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \({ mv }_{ max }^{ 2 }\)
where nmax is the maximum velocity of the electron ejected. The equation (1) is rearranged as follows:
Kmax = hυ – Φ0

Question 9.
Explain experimentally observed facts of photoelectric effect with the help of Einstein’s explanation.
Answer:
Explanation for the photoelectric effect:
The experimentally observed facts of photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of . Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

1. As each incident photon liberates one electron, then the increase of intensity of the light (the number of photons per unit area per unit time) increases the number of electrons emitted thereby increasing the photocurrent. The same has been experimentally observed.

2. From Kmax = hυ – Φ0, it is evident that Kmax is proportional to the frequency of the light and is independent of intensity of the light.

3.  As given in Einstein’s photoelectric equation, there must be minimum energy (equal to the work function of the metal) for incident photons to liberate electrons from the metal surface. Below which, emission of electrons is not possible. Correspondingly, there exists minimum frequency called threshold frequency below which there is no photoelectric emission.

4. According to quantum concept, the transfer of photon energy to the electrons is instantaneous so that there is no time lag between incidence of photons and ejection of electrons.

Question 10.
Give the construction and working of photo emissive cell.
Answer:
Photo emissive cell:
Its working depends on the electron emission from a metal cathode due to irradiation of light or other radiations.
Construction:
1. It consists of an evacuated glass or quartz bulb in which two metallic electrodes – that is, a cathode and an anode are fixed.

2. The cathode C is semi-cylindrical in shape and is coated with a photo sensitive material. The anode A is a thin rod or wire kept along the axis of the semi-cylindrical cathode.

3. A potential difference is applied between the anode and the cathode through a galvanometer G.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-32

Working:
4.  When cathode is illuminated, electrons are emitted from it. These electrons are attracted by anode and hence a current is produced which is measured by the galvanometer.

5. For a given cathode, the magnitude of the current depends on
(i) the intensity to incident radiation and (ii) the potential difference between anode and cathode.

Question 11.
Derive an expression for de Broglie wavelength of electrons.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic
energy acquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = evacuated
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is v = \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2emV } } \)
Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-33
For example, if an electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100V, then its de Broglie wavelength is 1.227 A. Since the kinetic energy of the electron, K = eV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with electron can be also written as
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)

Question 12.
Briefly explain the principle and working of electron microscope.
Answer:
Electron Microscope:
Principle:
1. This is the direct application of wave nature of particles. The wave nature of the electron is used in the construction of microscope called electron microscope.

2. The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the radiation used for illuminating the object under study. Higher magnification as well as higher resolving power can be obtained by employing the waves of shorter wavelengths.

3. De Broglie wavelength of electron is very much less than (a few thousands less) that of the visible light being used in optical microscopes.

4. As a result, the microscopes employing de Broglie waves of electrons have very much higher resolving power than optical microscope.

5. Electron microscopes giving magnification more than 2,00.000 times are common in research laboratories.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-34
Working:
1. The electron beam passing across a suitably arranged either electric or magnetic fields undergoes divergence or convergence thereby focussing of the beam is done.

2. The electrons emitted from the source are accelerated by high potentials. The beam is made parallel by magnetic condenser lens. When the beam passes through the sample whose magnified image is needed, the beam carries the image of the sample.

3. With the help of magnetic objective lens and magnetic projector lens system, the magnified image is obtained on the screen. These electron microscopes are being used in almost all branches of science.

Question 13.
Describe briefly Davisson – Germer experiment which demonstrated the wave nature of electrons.
Answer:
Davisson – Germer experiment:
1. De Broglie hypothesis of matter waves was experimentally confirmed by Clinton Davisson and Lester Germer in 1927. They demonstrated that electron beams are diffracted when they fall on crystalline solids.

2. Since ciystal can act as a three-dimensional diffraction grating for matter waves, the electron waves incident on crystals are diffracted off in certain specific directions.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-35

3. The filament F is heated by a low tension (L.T.) battery. Electrons are emitted from the hot filament by thermionic emission. They are then accelerated due to the potential difference between the filament and the anode aluminium cylinder by a high tension (H.T.) battery.

4. Electron beam is collimated by using two thin aluminium diaphragms and is allowed to strike a single crystal of Nickel.

5. The electrons scattered by Ni atoms in different directions are received by the electron detector which measures the intensity of scattered electron beam.

6. The detector is rotatable in the plane of the paper so that the angle Φ between the incident
beam and the scattered beam can be changed at our will.

7. The intensity of the scattered electron beam is measured as a function of the angle θ.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-36

8. From the graph shows the variation of intensity of the scattered electrons with the angle 0 for the accelerating voltage of 54V. For a given accelerating voltage V, the scattered wave shows a peak or maximum at an angle of 50° to the incident electron beam.

This peak in intensity is attributed to the constructive interference of electrons diffracted from various atomic layers of the target material.

9. From the known value of interplanar spacing of Nickel, the wavelength of the electron wave has been experimentally calculated as 1.65 Å.

10. The wavelength can also be calculated from de Broglie relation for V = 54 V from equation.
λ = \(\frac { 12.27 }{ \sqrt { V } } \) Å = \(\frac { 12.27 }{ \sqrt { 54 } } \)
λ = 1.67 Å

11. This value agrees well with the experimentally observed wavelength of 1.65 Å. Thus this experiment directly verifies de Broglie’s hypothesis of the wave nature of moving particles.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Numerical problems

Question 1.
How many photons per second emanate from a 50 mW laser of 640 nm?
Answer:
P = 50 mW
λ = 640 nm
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Number of photons emanate per second np = \(\frac { P }{ E }\) =\(\frac { Pλ }{ hc }\)
= \(\frac { 50\times { 10 }^{ 3 }\times 640\times { 10 }^{ -9 } }{ 6.6\times { 10 }^{ -34 }3\times { 10 }^{ 8 } } \) = \(\frac { 32000\times { 10 }^{ -6 } }{ 19.8\times { 10 }^{ -26 } } \) = 1616.16 x 10-6
np = 1.61 x 101017 s-1

Question 2.
Calculate the maximum kinetic energy and maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted when the stopping potential is 81 V for the photoelectric emission experiment.
Answer:
V0 = 81 V
e= 1.6 x 10-19 C
m = 9.1 x 10-31 kg
Maximum kinetic energy of electron,
Kmax = eVo
= 1.6 x 10-19 x 81
= 129.6 x 10-19
= 1.29 x 10-17
Kmax = 1.3 x 10-17 J
aximum velocity of photoelectron,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-37

Question 3.
Calculate the energies of the photons associated with the following radiation:
(i) violet light of 413 nm
(ii) X-rays of 0.1 nm
(iii) radio waves of 10 m.
Answer:
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Energy of photon, E = hυ
E = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-38
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-39

Question 4.
A 150 W lamp emits light of mean wavelength of 5500 Å . If the efficiency is 12%, find out the number of photons emitted by the lamp in one second.
Answer:
P= 150W
λ = 5500 Å
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Number of photons emitted per second n = \(\frac { pλ }{ hc }\)
If the efficiency is 12%, η = \(\frac { 12 }{ 100 }\) = 0.12
n = \(\frac { pηλ }{ hc }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-40
n = 5 x 1019

Question 5.
How many photons of frequency 1014 Hz will make up 19.86 J of energy?
Answer:
Total energy emitted per second = Power x time
19.86 J = Power x is
∴ Power = 19.86 W
Number of photons, n = \(\frac { p }{ E }\) = \(\frac { p }{ hυ }\)
= \(\frac { 19.86 }{ 6.6\times { 10 }^{ -34 }\times { 10 }^{ 14 } } \) = 3.009 x 1020
n = 3 x 1020
np = 3 x 1020

Question 6.
What should be the velocity of the electron so that its momentum equals that of 4000 Å wavelength photon.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of electron
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\)
v = \(\frac { h }{ mλ }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-41
v = 1811 ms-1

Question 7.
When a light of frequency 9 x 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface, photoelectrons are emitted with a maximum speed of 8 x 105ms-1. Determine the threshold frequency of the surface.
Answer:
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \({ mv }_{ max }^{ 2 }\) = h (υ-υ0)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-42
= 9 x 014-4.4 x 1014
υ0 = 4.6 x 1014 Hz

Question 8.
When a 6000 Å light falls on the cathode of a photo cell and produced photoemission. If a stopping potential of 0.8 V is required to stop emission of electron, then determine the:

  1. frequency of the light
  2. energy of the incident photon
  3. work function of the cathode material
  4. threshold frequency
  5. net energy of the electron after it leaves the surface.

Answer:
Wavelength, λ = 6000 Å= 6000 x 10-10 m
stopping potential, V0 = 0.8 V
1. Frequency of the light, υ = \(\frac { c }{ λ }\)
= \(\frac { 3\times { 10 }^{ 8 } }{ 600\times { 10 }^{ -10 } } \) = 5 x 104 x 10-18
υ = 5 x 1014 Hz

2. Energy of the incident photon,
E = hυ = 6.6 x 10-34 x 5 x 1014
= 33 x 10-20 J
= \(\frac { 33\times { 10 }^{ -20 } }{ 1.6\times { 10 }^{ -19 } } \) = 20.625 x 10-1
E = 2.06 eV

3. Work function of the cathode material.
W0 = hυ – eV0
= \(\left(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 5 \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\right)\) – \(\left(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 0.8}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\right)\) = 2.06-0.8
W0 = 1.26 eV

4. Threshold frequency, W0 = hυ0
υ0 = \(\frac{W_{0}}{h}\) = \(\frac{1.26 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) = 0.3055 x 1015
υ0 = 3.05 x 1014 Hz

5. Net energy of the electron after it leaves the surface
E = (υ – υ0)
= 6.6 x 10-34 (5 x1014 – 3.06 x 1014
= 6.6 x 10-34 x 1.94 x 1014
E = 12.804 x 10-20 J
= \(\frac{1.2804 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)
E = 0.8 e V

Question 9.
A 3310 Å photon liberates an electron from a material with energy 3 x 10-19 J while another 5000 Å photon ejects an electron with energy 0.972×10-19 J from the same material. Determine the value of Planck’s constant and the threshold wavelength of the material.
Answer:
They energy of ejected electron is given by E = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – \(\frac { hc }{ { \lambda }_{ 0 } } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-43
Subtracting (2) from (1), we get
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-43.1
Threshold Wavelength,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-44

Question 10.
At the given point of time, the earth receives energy from Sun at 4 cal cm-2 min-1. Determine the number of photons received on the surface of the Earth per cm2 per minute. (Given : Mean wavelength of Sun light = 5500 Å)
Answer:
E= 4 calorie
= 4 x 4.184 J
λ = 5500 Å
Number of photons received on the surface of the earth, from E = nhυ
n = \(\frac { E λ}{ hc }\)
= \(\frac{4 \times 4.184 \times 5500 \times 10^{-10}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}\) = \(\frac{9.2048 \times 10^{-10}}{19.8 \times 10^{-26}}\) = 4648 x 1016
= 4.648 x 1019
n = 4.65 x 1019

Question 11.
UV light of wavelength 1800 Å is incident on a lithium surface whose threshold wavelength 4965 Å. Determine the maximum energy of the electron emitted.
Answer:
λ = 1800 x 10-10 m
λ0 = 4965 x 10-10m
h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Maximum kinetic energy of electron,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-45

Question 12.
Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a proton whose kinetic energy is equal to 81.9 x 10-15 J. (Given: mass of proton is 1836 times that of electron).
Answer:
mp = 1.67 x 10-27 kg
K.E = 81.9 x 10-15 J
de-Broglie wavelength of proton, λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-46
λ = 4 x 10-14 m

Question 13.
A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated with the same potential. Which one of the two has (i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and (ii) less kinetic energy? Explain.
Answer:
(i) Using de-Broglie wavelength formula, the dueteron and alpha particle are accelerated with same potential. So, both their velocities are same.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-47
(ii) For same potential of acceleration, KE is directly proportional to the ‘q’
Charge of duetron is +e
Charge of alpha is +2e
So, Kd = \(\frac {{ K }_{α}}{ 2 }\)
Charge of alpha particle is more than the duetron.

Question 14.
An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 81V. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength correspond?
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron beam accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2meV } } \) = \(\frac { 1.23 }{ \sqrt { V } } \) nm
V = 81 V, so λ = \(\frac { 1.23 }{ \sqrt { 81 } } \) x 10-9 m
λ = 1.36 Å
X-ray is the part of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength corresponds. X-ray has the wavelengths ranging from about 108 to 10-12 m.

Question 15.
The ratio between the de Broglie wavelengths associated with protons, accelerated through a potential of 512 V and that of alpha particles accelerated through a potential of X volts is found to be one. Find the value of X.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength of accelerated charge particle
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mqV } } \)
λ ∝ \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { mqV } } \)
Ratio of wavelength of proton and a-particle.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-48

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of
energy 3 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential, in volt, is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Answer:
(b) 4
Hint:
Stopping potential, V0 = \(\frac { { K }_{ max } }{ e } \) = \(\frac { 4eV }{ e }\) = 4v

Question 2.
If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ, it implies that they have the same-
(a) energy
(b) momentum
(c) velocity
(d) angular momentum
Answer:
(b) momentum
Hint: Momentum, p = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\)
As both electron and proton have same λ, so they have the same momentum

Question 3.
An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V in vacuum. Its final velocity will be-
(a) \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)
(b) \(\sqrt { \frac { eV }{ m } } \)
(c) \(\frac { ev }{ 2m }\)
(d) \(\frac { ev }{ m }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)
Hint:
K.E. gained by an electron when accelerated through a potential difference V,
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = eV or v = \(\sqrt { \frac { 2eV }{ m } } \)

Question 4.
The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately
(a) 540 nm
(b) 400 nm
(c) 310 nm
(d) 220 nm
Answer:
(c) 310 nm
Hint:
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{ W }\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4.0 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = m = 310 x 10-9 m = 310 nm

Question 5.
Sodium and copper have work function 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then, the ratio of their threshold wavelength is nearest to-
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
Answer:
(c) 2 : 1
Hint:
\(\frac{\lambda_{0}(\mathrm{Na})}{\lambda_{0}(\mathrm{Cu})}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}_{0}(\mathrm{Cu})}{\mathrm{W}_{0}(\mathrm{Na})}\)

Question 6.
The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240 eV nm)
(a) 3.09 eV
(b) 1.41 eV
(c) 1.51 eV
(d) 1.68 eV
Anwer:
(b) 1.41 eV
Hint:
Kmax = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) W0 or W0 = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) – Kmax
= \(\frac { 1240 }{ 400 }\)-1.68 = 3.10-1.68 = 1.42ev

Question 7.
4 eV is the energy of the incident photon and the work function is 2 eV. The stopping potential will be
(a) 2V
(b) 4V
(c) 6V
(d) 2√2V
Answer:
(d) 2√2V
Hint:
eV0= hv- W0 = 4eV – 2eV = 2eV
∴ V0= \(\frac { 2ev }{ e }\) = 2v

Question 8.
A light having wavelength 300 nm falls on a metal surface work function of metal is 2.54 eV. What is stopping potential?
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 2.59 V
(c) 1.60 V
(d) 1.29 V
Answer:
(a) 1.4 V
Hint:
eV0 = hu – W0 = 2eV – 0.6 eV = 1.4 eV
∴ V0= \(\frac { 1.4eV }{ e }\) = 1.4eV

Question 9.
If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(b) 2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ √2 }\)
(d) √2
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ √2 }\)
Hint:
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{K}}}\)
When kinetic energy is doubled, λ’ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \times 2 K}}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ √2 }\)λ

Question 10.
If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 16 times, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 60%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 75%
Hint:
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{K}}}\) ; \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \times 16 K}}\) = \(\frac { λ }{ 4 }\)
% change in de-Broglie wavelength, \(\frac { λ-λ’ }{ λ }\) = [1-\(\frac { λ }{ λ’ }\)] x 100 [1-\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)] x 100 = 75%

Question 11.
When a proton is accelerated through IV, then its kinetic energy will be
(a) 1 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 1840 eV
(d) 0.54 eV
Answer:
(a) 1 eV
Hint:
K = qV = e x 1V= 1 eV

Question 12.
The kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 volts, is
(a) 416.6 cal
(b) 6.636 cal
(c) 1.602 x 10-17 J
(d) 1.6 x 104 J
Answer:
(c) 1.602 x 10-17 J
Hint:
K = eV = 1.602 x 10(c) 1.602 x 10-19 x 100 J
= 1.602 x 10(c) 1.602 x 10-17 J

Question 13.
Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends upon
(a) frequency
(b) intensity
(c) nature of atmosphere surrounding the electron
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) frequency
Hint:
Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends on the frequency of incident radiation.

Question 14.
The work function of photometal is 6.626 eV. What is the threshold wavelength?
(a) 3921 Å
(b) 1875 Å
(c) 1867 Å
(d) 4433 Å
Answer:
(b) 1875 Å
Hint:
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{{ W }_{ 0 }}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8} \times 10^{10}}{6.626 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) Å = 1875 Å

Question 15.
The number of photo-electrons emitted for light of a frequency υ (higher than the threshold frequency υ0) is proportional to
(a) Threshold frequency (υ0)
(b) Intensity of light
(c) Frequency of light (υ)
(d) υ – υ0
Answer:
(b) Intensity of light
Hint:
Photoelectric current oc Intensity of incident light

Question 16.
The speed of an electron having a wavelength of 10-10 m is
(a) 7.25 x 106 ms-1
(b) 6.26 x 106 ms-1
(c) 5.25 x 106 ms-1
(d) 4.24 x 106 ms-1
Answer:
(a) 7.25 x 106 ms-1
Hint:
As λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\)
∴ v = \(\frac { h }{ mλ }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 10^{-10}}\) = 7.25 x 106 ms-1

Question 17.
If an electron and a photon propagate in the form of waves having the same wavelength, it implies that they have the same
(a) energy
(b) momentum
(c) angular momentum
(d) velocity
Answer:
(b) momentum
Hint:
As both electron and photon have same de-Broglie wavelength (λ = h /p), so they have the same momentum P.

Question 18.
Electron volt is a unit of
(a) Energy
(b) potential
(c) current
(d) charge
Answer:
(a) Energy
Hint:
Electron volt is a unit of energy

Question 19.
Photon of frequency u has a momentum associated with it. If c is the velocity of radiation, then the momentum is
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
(b) \(\frac { υ }{ c }\)
(c) hυc
(d) \(\frac { h }{ { c }^{ 2 } } \)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
Hint:
P = \(\frac { E }{ { c }^{ 2 } } \) = \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)

Question 20.
The time taken by a photoelectron to come out after photon strikes is approximately
(a) 10-14 s
(b) 10-10 s
(c) 10-16 s
(d) 10-1 s
Answer:
(b) 10-10 s
Hint:
The time lag between the incident of photon and the emission of photoelectrons is 10-10 s approximately.

Question 21.
Cathode rays consist of
(a) photons
(b) electrons
(c) protons
(d) α-particles
Answer:
(b) electrons

Question 22.
The momentum of photon whose frequency is f is
(a) \(\frac { hf }{ c }\)
(b) \(\frac { hc }{ f }\)
(c) \(\frac { h }{ f }\)
(d) \(\frac { c }{ hf }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hf }{ c }\)
Hint:
p = mc = \(\frac { { mc }^{ 2 } }{ { c } } \) = \(\frac { hf }{ c }\)

Question 23.
The energy of photon of wavelength λ is
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
(b) hλc
(c) \(\frac { λ }{ hc }\)
(d) \(\frac { hλ }{ c }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)
Hint:
E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\)

Question 24.
The ratio of the energy of a photon with λ = 150 nm to that with λ = 300 nm is
(a) 2
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(c) 2
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
(a) 2
Hint:
\(\frac {{ E }_{ 1 }}{ { E }_{ 2 } }\) = \(\frac {{ λ }_{ 2 }}{ { λ }_{ 1 } }\) = \(\frac { 300 }{ 150 }\) = 2

Question 25.
Photons of 5.5 eV energy fall on the surface of the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy 4.0 eV. The stopping voltage required for these electrons is
(a) 5.5 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 9.5 V
(d) 4.0 V
Answer:
(d) 4.0 V
Hint:
Stopping potential = \(\frac { { K }_{ max } }{ e } \) = \(\frac { 4.0ev }{ e }\) = 4.0V

Question 26.
The wavelength of photon is proportional to (where υ = frequency)
(a) υ
(b) √υ
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ √υ }\)
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ υ }\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ υ }\)
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { c }{ υ }\) i.e., λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ υ }\)

Question 27.
What is the energy of a photon whose wavelength is 6840 Å?
(a) 1.81 eV
(b) 3.6 eV
(c) – 13.6 eV
(d) 12.1 eV
Answer:
(a) 1.81 eV
Hint:
E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) = \(\frac { 12400ev Å }{ 8840 Å }\) = 1.81 eV

Question 28.
Momentum of photon of wavelength λ is
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
(b) zero
(c) \(\frac { hλ }{{ c }^{ 2 }}\)
(d) \(\frac { hλ }{c}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)
Hint:
p = mc = \(\frac {{ mc }^{ 2 }}{c}\) = \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\)

Question 29.
The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s will be
(a) 5 x 10-22
(b) 0.33 x 106
(c) 7 x 10-24
(d) 10-22
Answer:
(a) 5 x 10-22
Hint:
P = \(\frac { E }{ c }\) = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{MeV}}{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{ms}^{-1}}\) = \(\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-13} \mathrm{J}}{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{ms}^{-1}}\) = 5.33 x 10-22 Kg ms-1

Question 30.
If we consider electrons and photons of same wavelength then will have same
(a) momentum
(b) angular momentum
(c) energy
(d) velocity
Answer:
(a) momentum
Hint:
As p = h/λ, so electrons and photons having the same wavelength λ will have the same momentum p.

Question 31.
Photoelectric effect can be explained by
(a) corpusular theory of light
(b) wave nature of light
(c) Bohr’s theory
(d) quantum theory of light
Answer:
(d) quantum theory of light

Question 32.
Which of the following waves can produce photoelectric effect?
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrared
(c) radiowaves
(d) X-rays
Answer:
(d) X-rays
Hint:
Electromagnetic radiation, being of high frequency such as X-rays can produce photoelectric effect.

Question 33.
Which light when falls on a metal will emit photoelectrons?
(a) uv radiation
(b) infrared radiation
(c) radio waves
(d) microwaves
Answer:
(a) uv radiation
Hint:
Ultraviolet radiation, being of high frequency, can emit photoelectrons from metals.

Question 34.
In photoelectric effect, the KE of electrons emitted from the metal surface depends upon
(a) intensity of light
(b) frequency of incident light
(c) velocity of incident light
(d) both intensity and velocity of light
Answer:
(b) frequency of incident light
Hint:
The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends upon the frequency of incident light.

Question 35.
In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light has a certain minimum
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) amplitude
(d) angle of incidence
Answer:
(b) frequency
Hint:
For photoelectric emission, the incident light must have a certain minimum frequency, called threshold frequency.

Question 36.
Number of ejected photoelectrons increases with increases
(a) in intensity of light
(b) in wavelength of light
(c) in frequency of light
(d) never
Answer:
(a) in intensity of light
Hint:
Number of ejected photoelectrons increases with the increase in intensity of light.

Question 37.
By photoelectric effect, Einstein proved
(a) E = hυ
(b) K.E. = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)mv2
(c) E = mc2
(d) E = \(\frac {{ -Rhc }^{ 2 }}{{ n }^{ 2 }}\)
Answer:
(a) E = hυ
Hint:
Einstein explained photoelectric effect on the basis of planck’s quantum theory of radiation and hence supported the relation : E = hυ

Question 38.
A photocell employs photoelectric effect to convert
(a) change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current
(b) Change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage
(c) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current
(d) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photo cathode
Answer:
(c) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current
Hint:
It indicates that threshold frequency is greater than that of ultraviolet light. As X-rays have greater frequency than uv rays, so they can cause photoelectric effect.

Question 39.
When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate there photoelectric effect does not occur, it occurs by incident of
(a) infrared rays
(b) X-rays
(c) radio waves
(d) microwave
Answer:
(b) X-rays
Hint:
It indicates that threshold frequency is greater than that of ultraviolet light. As X-rays have greater frequency than UV rays, so they can cause photoelectric effect.

Question 40.
The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodiune corresponds to a wavelength of 5000 Å. Its function is
(a) 4 x 10-19 J
(b) 1J
(c) 2 x 10-19 J
(d) 3 x 10-19 J
Answer:
(a) 4 x 10-19 J
Hint:
W0 = \(\frac { hc }{{ λ }_{ 0 }}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5000 \times 10^{-10}}\) J = 4 x 10-19 J

Question 41.
The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut off wavelength for this surface is
(a) 3000 Å
(b) 2062.5 Å
(c) 4125 Å
(d) 6000 Å
Answer:
(a) 3000 Å
Hint:
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{{ W }_{ 0 }}\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4.125 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) m = 3 x 10-7 m = 3000 Å

Question 42.
Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface. Kinetic energy of fastest electrons emitted is (work function = 4.2 eV)
(a) 3.2 x 10-21 J
(b) 3.2 x 10-19 J
(c) 7 x 10-25 J
(d) 9 x 10-32 J
Answer:
(b) 3.2 x 10-19 J
Hint:
Kmax = hυ- W0 = 6.2 eV – 4.2 eV
= 2.0 eV = 2.0 x 1.6 x 10-19 J =3.2 x 10-19 J

Question 43.
The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10 ms-1 is approximately (planck’s constant, h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js)
(a) 10-33 m
(b) 10-31 m
(c) 10-16 m
(d) 10-25 m
Answer:
(a) 10-33 m
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{60 \times 10^{-3} \times 10}\) ≈ 10-33 m

Question 44.
The wavelength of de-Broglie wave is 2 μm, then its momentum (h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js) is
(a) 3.315 x 10-28 kg ms-1
(b) 1.66 x 10-28 kg ms-1
(c) 4.97 x 10-28 kg ms-1
(d) 9.9 x 10-28 kg ms-1
Answer:
(a) 3.315 x 10-28 kg ms-1
Hint:
p = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\) = \(\frac{6.03 \times 10^{-34} \mathrm{Js}}{2 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{m}}\) = 3.315 x 10-28 kg ms-1

Question 45.
What is de-Broglie wavelength of electron having energy 10 KeV?
(a) 0.12 Å
(b) 1.2 Å
(c) 12.2 Å
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 0.12 Å
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { 12.3 }{ √v }\) Å = \(\frac { 12.3 }{ \sqrt { 10\times { 10 }^{ 3 } } } \) = 0.12Å

Question 46.
Which one of the following property does not support wave theory of light?
(a) Light obeys laws of reflection and refraction
(b) Light waves get polarised
(c) Light shows photoelectric effect
(d) Light shows interference
Answer:
(c) Light shows photoelectric effect
Hint:
Photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave theory of light.

Question 47.
de-Broglie wavelength λ associated with neutrons is related with absolute temperature T as
(a) λ ∝ T
(b) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ T }\)
(c) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √T }\)
(d) λ ∝ T2
Answer:
(c) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √T }\)
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 3mKT } } \) ⇒ λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √T }\)

Question 48.
As the intensity of incident light increases
(a) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons increases
(b) photoelectric current decreases
(c) photoelectric current increases
(d) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons decreases
Answer:
(c) photoelectric current increases
Hint:
As the intensity of incident light increases, photoelectric current increases.

Question 49.
The de Broglie wave corresponding to a particle of mass m and velocity u has a wavelength associated with it
(a) \(\frac { h }{ mυ }\)
(b) hmυ
(c) \(\frac { mh }{ υ }\)
(d) \(\frac { m }{ hυ }\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac { h }{ mυ }\)
Hint:
de-Broglie wavelength, λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ mυ }\)

Question 50.
If particles are moving with same velocity, then which has maximum de-broglie wavelength?
(a) Proton
(b) α-particle
(c) Nevtron
(d) β-particle
Answer:
(d) β-particle
Hint:
As λ = h/mv, of the given particles β – particle is the lightest, so it will have maximum de-Broglie wavelength.

Question 51.
The dual nature of light is exhibited by
(a) diffraction and photoelectric effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) refraction and interference
(d) diffraction and reflection
Answer:
(a) diffraction and photoelectric effect
Hint:
Diffraction exhibits wave nature while photoelectric effect exhibits particle nature. Hence these two phenomena exhibit dual nature of light.

Question 52.
If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will-
(a) remain unchanged
(b) become four time
(c) become two times
(d) become half
Answer:
(d) become half
Hint:
As λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) when momentum p is doubled, wavelength will become half the initial value.

Question 53.
Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de-Broglie wavelength?
(a) β – particle
(b) α – particle
(c) proton
(d) neutron
Answer:
(a) β – particle
Hint:
λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ m}\)
As β – particle (an electron) has the smallest mass, so it has the longest de-Broglie wavelength.

Question 54.
What is the de-Broglie wavelength of the a-particle accelerated through a potential difference of V volt? (mass of a-particle = 6.6455 x 10-27 kg)
(a) \(\frac { 0.287 }{ √V }\) Å
(b) \(\frac { 12.27 }{ √V }\) Å
(c) \(\frac { 0.101 }{ √V }\) Å
(d) \(\frac { 0.202 }{ √V }\) Å
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 0.101 }{ √V }\) Å
Hint:
K = qV = 2eV
λ = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2m\times 2eV\quad } } \) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 4meV } } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-49

Question 55.
A proton and an a – particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of proton to the de-Broglie wavelength of alpha particle will be
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2√2 :1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1:1
Answer:
(b) 2√2 :1
Hint:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-50

Question 56.
Proton and α – particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. What is same for both of them?
(a) Time period
(b) Energy
(c) Frequency
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(d) Momentum
Hint:
λ = h/p, when wavelength λ is same, momentump is also same.

Question 57.
The shortest wavelength of X-ray emitted from an X-ray tube depends upon.
(a) the current in the tube
(b) the voltage applied to the tube
(c) the nature of the gas in the tube
(d) the atomic number of the target material
Answer:
(b) the voltage applied to the tube
Hint:
λmin = \(\frac { hc }{ eV }\) i.e.,λmin ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ V }\)

Question 58.
An X-ray tube operates on 30 kV. The minimum wavelength emitted is h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, c = 3 x 108 m/s, e = 1.6 x 10-19C.
(a) 6.6 Å
(b) 0.133 Å
(c) 1.2 Å
(d) 0.4 Å
Answer:
(d) 0.4 Å
Hint:
λmin = \(\frac { hc }{ eV }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 30 \times 10^{3}}\) m = 0.4 Å

Question 59.
The potential difference between the cathode and the target in a coolidge tube is 120 kV. What can be the minimum wavelength (in Å) of the X-rays emitted by this tube?
(a) 0.4 Å
(b) 0.3 Å
(c) 0.2 Å
(d) 0.1 Å
Answer:
(d) 0.1 Å
Hint:
λmin = \(\frac { 12375 }{ V }\) = Å = \(\frac { 12375 }{{ 120×10 }^{3}}\) Å = 0.1Å

Question 60.
The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28 eV, 2.30 eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their respective threshold frequencies would be
(a) pt > AL > K
(b) Al > pt > K
(c) K > AL > pt
(d) Al > K > pt
Answer:
(a) pt > AL > K
Hint:
As W0 = hv0 i.e., W0 ∝ V0
V0 (pt) >0 (AL) >V0 (K)

Question 61.
Among the following four spectral regions, the photons has the highest energy in
(a) Infrared
(b) Violet
(c) Red
(d) Blue
Answer:
(b) Violet
Hint:
E = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\) Photon in violet region has least λ and hence highest energy.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define electron volt. Express it value in joule.
Answer:
It is the kinetic energy gained by an electron when it is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 volt.
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
1 MeV = 1.6 x 10-13J

Question 2.
What are photoelectrons?
Answer:
These are the electrons emitted from a metal surface when it is exposed to electro magnetic radiations of a suitable frequency.

Question 3.
Define the term ‘stopping potential’ in relation to photoelectric effect.
Answer:
The minimum negative potential given to the anode of a photo-cell for which the photoelectric current becomes zero is called stopping potential.

Question 4.
Give some important uses of photo-cells.
Answer:
Applications of photo cells:

  1. Photo cells have many applications, especially as switches and sensors.
  2. Automatic lights that turn on when it gets dark use photocells, as well as street lights that switch on and off according to whether it is night or day.
  3. Photo cells are used for reproduction of sound in motion pictures and are used as timers to measure the speeds of athletes during a race.

Question 5.
Why is a photo-cell also called an electric eye?
Answer:
Like an eye, a photo-cell can distinguish between a weak and an intense light. But a photocell gives a measure of light intensity in terms of photoelectric current. So it is also called an electric eye.

Question 6.
On what principle is an electron microscope based?
Answer:
As electron microscope exploits the wave nature of an accelerated beam of electrons (having a very small wavelength) to provide high magnifying and resolving powers.

Question 7.
What are X-ray spectra?
Answer:
X-rays are produced when fast moving electrons strike the metal target. The intensity of the X-rays when plotted against its wavelength gives a curve called X-ray spectrum.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe an experimental arrangement to study photoelectric effect.
Answer:
Experimental setup:
1.  The apparatus is employed to study the phenomenon of photoelectric effect in detail .

2.  S is a source of electromagnetic waves of known and variable frequency v and intensity I. C is the cathode (negative electrode) made up of photosensitive material and is used to emit electrons.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-51

3. The anode (positive electrode) A collects the electrons emitted from C. These electrodes are taken in an evacuated glass envelope with a quartz window that permits the passage of ultraviolet and visible light.

4. The necessary potential difference between C and A is provided by high tension battery B which is connected across a potential divider arrangement PQ through a key K. C is connected to the centre terminal while A to the sliding contact J of the potential divider.

5. The plate A can be maintained at a desired positive or negative potential with respect to C. To measure both positive and negative potential of A with respect to C, the voltmeter is designed to have its zero marking at the centre and is connected between A and C. The current is measured by a micro ammeter μA in series.

6. If there is no light falling on the cathode C, no photoelectrons are emitted and the microammeter reads zero. When ultraviolet or visible light is allowed to fall on C, the photoelectrons are liberated and are attracted towards anode.

7. As a result, the photoelectric current is setup in the circuit which is measured using micro ammeter.

8.  The variation of photocurrent with respect to-

  1.  intensity of incident light
  2. the potential difference between the electrodes
  3. the nature of the material and
  4. frequency of incident light can be studied with the help of this apparatus.

Question 2.
Write down the characteristics of photons.
Answer:
Characteristics of photons:
According to particle nature of light, photons are the basic constituents of any radiation and possess the following characteristic properties:
(i) The photons of light of frequency v and wavelength λ will have energy, given by
E = hυ = \(\frac { hc }{ λ }\).

(ii) The energy of a photon is determined by the frequency of the radiation and not by its intensity and the intensity has no relation with the energy of the individual photons in the beam.

(iii) The photons travel with the velocity of light and its momentum is given by p

(iv) Since photons are electrically neutral, they are unaffected by electric and magnetic fields.

(v) When a photon interacts with matter (photon-electron collision), the total energy, total linear momentum and angular momentum are conserved. Since photon may be absorbed or a new photon may be produced in such interactions, the number of photons may not be conserved

Question 3.
Briefly explain the nature of light, (wave-particle duality)
Answer:
The nature of light: wave – particle duality
We have learnt that wave nature of light explains phenomena such as interference, diffraction and polarization. Certain phenomena like black body radiation, photoelectric effect can be explained by assigning particle nature to light. Therefore, both theories have enough experimental evidences.

In the past, many scientific theories have been either revised or discarded when they contradicted with new experimental results. Here, two different theories are needed to answer the question: what is nature of light?
It is therefore concluded that light possesses dual nature, that of both particle and wave. It behaves like a wave at some circumstances and it behaves like a particle at some other circumstances.

In other words, light behaves as a wave during its propagation and behaves as a particle during its interaction with matter. Both theories are necessary for complete description of physical phenomena. Hence, the wave nature and quantum nature complement each other.

Question 4.
Derive de-Broglie wave equation (wavelength) for a material particle.
Answer:
De Broglie wave length:
The momentum of photon of frequency v is given by
p = \(\frac { hυ }{ c }\) = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\) since c = υλ
The wavelength of a photon in terms of its momentum is
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) …(1)
According to de Broglie, the above equation is completely a general one and this is applicable to material particles as well. Therefore, for a particle of mass m travelling with speed v , the wavelength is given by
λ = \(\frac { h }{ mv }\) = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) ….. (2)
This wavelength of the matter waves is known as de Broglie wavelength. This equation relates the wave character (the wave length λ) and the particle character (the momentum p) through Planck’s constant.

Question 5.
Explain the production of X-rays.
Answer:
Production of x-rays:
X-rays are produced in x-ray tube which is essentially a discharge tube. A tungsten filament F is heated to incandescence by a battery. As a result, electrons are emitted from it by thermionic emission.
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-52
The electrons are accelerated to high speeds by the voltage applied between the filament F and the anode. The target materials like tungsten, molybdenum are embedded in the face of the solid copper anode. The face of the target is inclined at an angle with respect to the electron beam so that x-rays can leave the tube through its side.

When high-speed electrons strike the target, they are decelerated suddenly and lose their kinetic energy. As a result, x-ray photons are produced. Since most of the kinetic energy of the bombarding electrons gets converted into heat, targets made of high-meltmg-point metals and a cooling system are usually employed.

Question 6.
Briefly explain the concept of continuous X-ray spectra.
Answer:
Continuous x-ray spectra:
When a fast moving electron penetrates and approaches a target nucleus, the interaction between the electron and the nucleus either accelerates or decelerates it which results in a change of path of the electron. The radiation produced from such decelerating electron is called Bremsstrahlung or braking radiation
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-53

The energy of the photon emitted is equal to the loss of kinetic energy of the electron. Since an electron may lose part or all of its energy to the photon, the photons are emitted with all possible energies (or frequencies). The continuous x-ray spectrum is due to such radiations.

When an electron gives up all its energy, then the photon is emitted with highest frequency υ0 (or lowest wavelength λ0 ). The initial kinetic energy of an electron is given by eV where V is the accelerating voltage. Therefore, we have
0 = eV (or) \(\frac { hc }{{ λ }_{0}}\) = ev
λ0 = \(\frac { hc }{eV}\)
where λ0 is the cut-off wavelength. Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get
λ0 = \(\frac { 122400 }{V}\) Å
The relation given by equation is known as the Duane – Hunt formula.
The value of λ0 depends only on the accelerating potential and is same for all targets. This is in good agreement with the experimental results. Thus, the production of continuous x-ray spectrum and the origin of cut – off wavelength can be explained on the basis of photon theory of radiation.

Question 7.
Write down the applications of X-rays.
Answer:
Applications of x-rays:
X-rays are being used in many fields. Let us list a few of them.
1. Medical diagnosis:
X-rays can pass through flesh more easily than through bones. Thus an x-ray radiograph containing a deep shadow of the bones and a light shadow of the flesh may be obtained. X-ray radiographs are used to detect fractures, foreign bodies, diseased organs etc.

2. Medical therapy:
Since x-rays can kill diseased tissues, they are employed to cure skin diseases, malignant tumours etc.

3. Industry:
X-rays are used to check for flaws in welded joints, motor tyres, tennis balls and wood. At the custom post, they are used for detection of contraband goods.

4. Scientific research:
X-ray diffraction is important tool to study the structure of the crystalline materials – that is, the arrangement of atoms and molecules in crystals.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Additional Numerical Problems

Question 1.
If a light of wavelength 4950 Å is viewed as a continuous flow of photons, what is the energy of each photon in eV? (Given h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, c = 3 x 108 ms-1)
Solution:
Here λ = 4950 Å = 4950 x 10-10 m
Energy of each photon,
E = \(\frac { hc }{λ}\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{4950 \times 10^{-10}}\) = 4 x 10-19 J
= \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)eV
E = 2.5 eV

Question 2.
Monochromatic light of frequency 6 x 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 x 10-3w.
(i) What is the energy of each photon in the light?
(ii) How many photons per second, on the average, are emitted by the source?
Solution:
(i) Energy of each photon,
E = hυ = 6.6 x 10-34 x 6 x 1014
E = 3.98 x 10-19J
(ii) If N is the number of photons emitted per second by the source, then
Power transmitted in the beam = N x energy of each photon
P = N
N = \(\frac { P }{ E }\) = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-3}}{3.98 \times 10^{-19}}\)
N = 5 x 1015 Photons per second.

Question 3.
Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a metal surface of work function 1.9 eV. Find:
(i) the energy of photons in eV
(ii) the K.E of photoelectrons and
(iii) the stopping potential.
Solution:
Here λ = 5000 Å = 5 x 10-7 m
W0 = 1.9 ev
(i) Energy of a photon,
E = \(\frac { hc }{λ}\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5 \times 10^{-7}}\) J = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{5 \times 10^{-7} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}} e V\) eV
E = 2.475 eV
(ii) K.E of a photoelectron,
K.E = hυ – W0 = 2.475 – 1.9 = 0.575 eV
(iii) Let V0 be the stopping potential. Then
eV0 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = K.E of a photoelectron
V0 = \(\frac { 0.575 }{ e }\) eV
V0 = 0.575 V

Question 4.
If photoelectrons are to be emitted from a potassium surface with a speed 6 x 106 ms-1, what frequency of radiation must be used? (Threshold frequency for potassium is 4.22 x 1014 Hz, h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, me = 9.1 x 10-31 kg)
Solution:
Here, v = 6 x 106 ms-1
V0 = 4.22 x 1014 Hz
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
k.E = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2 = h (υ – υ0)
υ = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \(\frac {{ mv }^{2}}{ h }\) + υ0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x \(\frac{9.1 \times 10^{-31}+\left(6 \times 10^{6}\right)^{2}}{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}\) + 4. 22 x 10-14
= (2.48 x 1014) + (4. 22 x 1014)
υ = 6.7 x1014 Hz

Question 5.
The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?
Solution:
Here V0 = 1.5 V
Kmax = eV0 = 1.5 eV
= 1.5 x 1.6 x 10-19 J
Kmax = 24 x 10-19 J

Question 6.
What is the (a) momentum, (b) speed, and (c) de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
Solution:
Kinetic energy, K.E = 120 eV = 120 x 1.6 x 10-19
K = K.E = 1.92 x 10-17 J
(a) Momentum of an electron, P = \(\sqrt { 2mK } \)
P = \(\sqrt{2 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 1.92 \times 10^{-17}}\)
P = 5.91 x 10-24 kg ms-1
(b) Speed of an electron,
v = \(\frac { p }{ m }\) = \(\frac{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31}}\) = 6.5 x 106 kg ms-1
(c) de-Broglie wavelength,
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{5.91 \times 10^{-24}}\) = 1.117 x 10-10 = 0.112 x 10-9 m
λ = 0.112 nm

Question 7.
An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1 nm. Find, (a) their momenta (b) the energy of the photon, and (c) kinetic energy of electron.
Solution:
(a) Both electron and photon have same wavelength. so, they have same momentum also,
P = \(\frac { h }{ λ }\) = \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}}{1 \times 10^{-9}}\) = 6.6 x 10-25 kg ms-1
(b) Energy of a photon,
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-54
(c) Kinetic energy of electron,
K = \(\frac {{ p }^{2}}{ 2m }\)
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-55
K = 1.49 eV

Question 8.
Find the ratio of de-broglie wavelengths associated with two electron beams accelerated through 25 V and 36 V respectively.
Solution:
de-Broglie wavelength associate with potential difference λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √V }\)
\(\frac {{ λ }_{1}}{ { λ }_{2} }\) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { V }_{ 2 } }{ { V }_{ 1 } } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { 36 }{ 25 } } \) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 5 }\) ⇒ λ1 : λ2 = 6 : 5

Question 9.
A proton and an alpha particle, both initially at rest, are accelerated so as to have the same kinetic energy. What is the ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength?
Solution:
de-Broglie wavelength,
λ = \(\frac { h }{ p }\) = \(\frac { h }{ \sqrt { 2mK } } \)
i.e.
λ ∝ \(\frac { 1 }{ √m}\) [mα = 4mp]
\(\frac {{ λ }_{p}}{ { λ }_{α} }\) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { m }_{ α } }{ { m }_{ p } } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { { 4m }_{ p } }{ { m }_{ p } } } \) = \(\sqrt { \frac { 4 }{ 1 } } \) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\)
λp : λα = 2: 1

Question 10.
Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Find the ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter-56

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 28 Company Secretary

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 28 Company Secretary

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 28Company Secretary Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 28th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Company Secretary Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Mention the status of a Company Secretaiy in a company _______
(a) A member
(b) A director
(c) An independent
(d) An employee contractor
Answer:
(d) An employee contractor

Question 2.
Who can become a secretary for a company?
(a) Individual person
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Co-operative societies
(d) Trade unions
Answer:
(a) Individual person

Question 3.
Which meeting will be held only once in the life time of the company?
(a) Statutory
(b) Annual General
(c) Extra-ordinary
(d) Class General
Answer:
(a) Statutory

Question 4.
Board Meetings to be conducted minimum _______ times in a year.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 5.
Who is not entitled to speak at the annual general meeting of the company?
(a) Auditor
(b) Shareholder
(c) Proxy
(d) Directors
Answer:
(c) Proxy

Question 6.
Mention the company which need not convene the Statutory Meeting.
(a) Widely held public
(b) Private Limited
(c) Public Limited
(d) Guarantee having a share capital
Answer:
(b) Private Limited

Question 7.
From the date of its incorporation the First Annual General Meeting is to be conducted within _______ months.
(a) Twelve
(b) Fifteen
(c) Eighteen
(d) Twenty one
Answer:
(b) Fifteen

Question 8.
What percentage of shareholders is needed to pass special resolution?
(a) It must be unanimous
(b) Not less than 90%
(c) Not less than 75%
(d) More than 50%
Answer:
(c) Not less than 75%

Question 9.
A special resolution must be filed with the Registrar within _______
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 60 days
Answer:
(c) 30 days

Question 10.
A special resolution is required to _______
(a) redeem the debentures
(b) declare dividend
(c) appoint directors
(d) appoint auditor
Answer:
(d) appoint auditor

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is a Secretary?
Answer:
The person who is responsible for the general performance of an organization is called company secretary.

Question 2.
Define Meeting.
Answer:
A company meeting must be convened and held in perfect compliance with the various provisions of the Act and the rules framed thereunder.

Question 3.
What is Resolution?
Answer:
As per the Companies Act 2013, for taking any decision or executing any transaction, the consent of the shareholders, the Board of Directors and other specified is required. The decisions taken at a meeting are called resolutions

Question 4.
Write short note on ‘Proxy’.
Answer:
‘Proxy’ means a person being the representative of a shareholder at the meeting of the company. Proxy can be present at the meeting but he cannot vote.

Question 5.
What is Vote?
Answer:
The word ‘Vote’ originated from Latin word ‘Votum’ indicating one’s wishes or desire. By casting his vote one formally declares his opinion or wish in favour of or against a proposal or a candidate to be elected for an office.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Special Resolution?
Answer:
A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority. The number of votes, cast in favour of the resolution should be three times the number of votes cast against it.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Statutory Meeting?
Answer:
According to Companies Act, every public company, should hold a meeting of the shareholders within 6 months but not earlier than one month from the date of commencement of business of the company. This is the first general meeting of the public company, which is called the Statutory Meeting. This meeting is conducted only once in the lifetime of the company.

Question 3.
What do you understand by ‘Poll’?
Answer:
Poll means tendering or offering vote by ballot to a specially appointed officer, called the polling officer. Under the Companies Act, poll means exercising voting right in proportion to shareholder’s contribution to the paid-up capital of a limited company having a share capital.

Question 4.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority, i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

  1. To change or rectify the name of the company
  2. To alter the share capital of the company
  3. To redeem the debentures

Question 5.
What resolution requires special notice?
Answer:
There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting. The intention to propose any resolution must be notified to the company. The following matters require special notice before they are discussed in the meeting:-

  1. To appoint an auditor, a person other than a retiring auditor
  2. To provide expressly that a retiring Auditor shall not be reappointed
  3. To remove a director before the expiry of his period of office
  4. To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Elaborate the functions of the Company Secretary.
Answer:
The functions of the Company Secretary may be divided into two types. They are:

  1. Statutory functions
  2. Non-Statutory functions

Statutory Functions: As the principal officer of the company, the secretary must observe all the legal formalities in respect of the provisions of the Companies Act and other laws, for the activities of the company.
According to Companies Act 2013:

  1. To sign document and proceedings requiring authentication by the company
  2. To maintain share registers and register of directors and of contracts.
  3. TO give notice to register for increase in the share capital
  4. To send notice of general meeting to every member of the company
  5. To prepare minutes of every general meeting and board meeting within 30 days

Non-Statutory Functions: The secretary has to discharge non-statutory functions in relation to directors, shareholders and office and staff.
Functions in Relation to Directors: A company secretary acts under the full control of the board of directors and carry out the instructions of the directors.

The secretary will arrange board meetings issuing notice, and preparing agenda of meetings, recording the attendance and minutes of meetings.

Functions in Relation to Shareholders: The company secretary must serve in the best interests of the shareholders.
He has to arrange the issue of allotment letters, call letters, letters of regret, share certificates, and share warrants to Shareholders.

Functions in Relation to Office and Staff: The secretary is responsible for smooth functioning of the office work. He exercises an overall supervision, control and co-ordination of all clerical activities in the office.

Question 2.
Discuss the liabilities of Company Secretary.
Answer:
As an officer, a company secretary has extensive duties and liabilities. The success of the company depends upon his efficient functions and capacity to perform.
Liabilities:

  1. It is duty of the secretary to arrange for Board meetings and shareholders annual general meeting.
  2. The secretary controls and supervises the day-to-day activities of the company.
  3. Also he should prepare details for issue of allotment letters, share certificates and dividend warrants.
  4. To arrange for filing statement in lieu of prospectus.
  5. The secretary should send notice of general meeting to every member of the company.
  6. Being a principal officer, a company secretary can sign contracts and proceedings of company meetings.
  7. (He is liable to maintain share registers and register of directors and contracts.
  8. To prepare minutes of every general meeting and Board meetings within 30 days.

Question 3.
Briefly state different types of company meetings.
Answer:
A Company can convene meetings to discuss the performance of the company and also to take decisions. Under the companies Act 2013, company meetings may be classified as below:
(i) Meetings of Shareholders: The meeting held for the shareholders of the company is shareholders meeting. This may be divided as follows: .
(a) Statutory Meeting: Every public company should hold a meeting of the shareholders within 6 months but not earlier than one month from the commencement of the business.
(b) Annual General Meeting: Every year a meeting is held to transact the ordinary business of the company. It is called annual general meeting.
(c) Extra-Ordinary General Meeting: If any meeting conducted in between two annual general meetings to deal with some urgent or special or extraordinary nature of business is called as extra-ordinary general meeting.

(ii) Meeting of the Board of Directors: To decide policy matters of the company, the board of directors meet frequently, which is known as meeting of the board of directors.
(a) Board Meetings: Meetings of the directors are called board meetings. It may be convened to discuss the business and take formal decisions.
(b) Committee Meetings: Every listed company and every other public company having a capital of ?10 crore is required to have audit committee. The meeting held by this committee is known as committee meetings.

(iii) Special Meeting:
(a) Class Meeting: Meetings held by a particular class of share or debenture holders is
known as Special or Class meeting, e.g. preference shareholders or debenture holders meeting. .
(b) Meetings of the Creditors: These are not meetings of a company. Meetings held with the creditors to discuss any crisis about the financial matters.

Question 4.
Describe the different types of resolutions which company may pass with suitable matters required for each type of resolution.
Answer:
A motion, with or without the amendments which is put to vote at a meeting and passed with the required quorum becomes resolution. Resolution may be classified into three types. They are: Ordinary resolution, Special resolution and resolution requiring special notice.
(i) Ordinary Resolution: An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority.
Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:
(a) To change or rectify the name of the company
(b) To alter the share capital of the company
(c) To redeem the debentures
(d) To declare the dividends
(e) To appoint the directors

(ii) Special Resolution: A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority.
Special Resolution is required for the following matters:
(a) To change the registered office of the company
(b) To alter the Articles of Association
(c) To commence any new business
(d) To appoint the auditor for the company

(iii) Resolution requiring Special Notice: There are certain matters specified in the Companies Act, 2013 which may be discussed at a general meeting only if a special notice is given at least 14 days before the meeting.
The following matters require special notice:
(a) To remove a director before the expiry of his period
(b) To appoint a director in the place of a director so removed

Question 5.
Explain different types of open and secret types of voting.
Answer:
The word ‘Vote’ originated from Latin word ‘Votum’ indicating one’s wishes or desire. He can vote formally by expressing his opinion or wish in favour or against a proposal.
Types of Voting: There are two methods of voting viz, open and secret procedures.
(i) Open Voting: This type of voting has no secrecy as all the members assembled can see – voting. There are two types of open voting namely voice voting and voting by show of hands.
(a) By Voice: Voice voting is a popular type of voting in which the chairman allows the members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue ‘Yes’ for approval and ‘No’ for rejection.
(b) By Show of Hands: Under this method, the chairman requests the members to raise their hands for the proposal.

(ii) Secret Procedure: Secret procedure is adopted to decide certain vital issues. It may be of two types:
(a) By Ballot: Under this system, ballot paper bearing serial number is given to the members to record their opinion by marking with the symbol.
(b) Postal Ballot: Big companies or big associations having members scattered all over . the country follow this method of voting. Under this method, the members or voters fill
in the ballot papers sent by the company and return them in sealed covers.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Company Secretary Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A statutory meeting can be held within _________ months.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 2.
The word ‘Vote’ originated from the Latin word _________ indicating one’s wishes or desires.
(a) Votum
(b) _______
(c) _______
(d) _______
Answer:
(a) Votum

Question 3.
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a _________ majority.
(a) simple
(b) special
(c) high
(d) low
Answer:
(a) simple

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the various kinds of meetings of shareholders.
Answer:
The meetings of the shareholders can be divided into three kinds: They are

  1. Statutory meeting
  2. Annual general meeting
  3. Extra-ordinary general meeting

Question 2.
Write a note on class meeting.
Answer:
Meetings, which are held by a particular class of share or debenture holders is known as class meeting, e.g. preference shareholders meetings or debenture holders meeting.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How the company secretary is appointed?
Answer:
As per section 2 (247, 203, 204) of companies Act 2013, the provisions are given for appointment of company secretary. Only an individual who is a member of Institute of Company Secretaries of India can be „ appointed as a company secretary. There are two methods of appointment of company secretary. They are given below:

  1. By the Promoters: The first secretary of a company is appointed by the promoters at pre-incorporation stage.
  2. By the First board of Directors: After the company has been registered, the first board of directors appoints the secretary at the first board meeting.

Case study

Case 1:
Mr R, as the secretary of the Muraliviki Co., signed a letter to its bank, forwarding a ‘resolution’ of the board of directors. The resolution named three directors and instructed the bank to pay cheques signed by any two of them and countersigned by the secretary. Specimen signatures were attached. The instruction was entirely in accordance with the company’s memorandum and articles. However, there had never been any proper appointment of directors or a secretary by the company. Those who had formed the company had assumed their roles. Following the letter, the bank had honoured cheques in accordance with the instructions contained in the letter. The question was, whether, the company was bound by the cheques. Comment.
Answer:
Yes, the company was bound liable for the cheques given.
Because, the company has instructed the bank to pay cheques signed by any two of the director and countersigned by the Secretary. So the bank honoured the cheques issued by the company.

Case 2:
A contract between Muthumani Ltd and Mr. V, one of its director is referred to a general meeting for its approval. At the meeting, Mr. V voted for the resolution and all others against it. But as V held majority of shares and was entitled to majority of votes, the resolution was passed. Is the contract binding on the company?
Answer:
No. The contract is not binding the company. Because the director Mr.V is having majority of shares. So the resolution is passed by Mr.V, by having majority of votes.

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 27 Company Management

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 27th Commerce Chapter 27 Company Management Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 27 Company Management Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 27th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 27 Company Management

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 27 Company Management Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 27th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Company Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A person shall hold office as a director in ______ companies as per the Companies Act,2013.
(a) 5 companies
(b) 10 companies
(c) 20 companies
(d) 15 companies
Answer:
(c) 20 companies

Question 2.
Which Director is appointed by a Financial institution?
(a) Nominee
(b) Additional
(c) Women
(d) Shadow
Answer:
(a) Nominee

Question 3.
A Private Company shall have a minimum of ______
(a) Seven directors
(b) Five directors
(c) Three directors
(d) Two directors
Answer:
(d) Two directors

Question 4.
A Public Company shall have a minimum of ______ Directors.
(a) Twelve
(b) Seven
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 5.
A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of Rs. ______ or more may have a Director, elected by such small shareholders.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer:
(c) Five

Question 6.
Under the companies Act, which one of the following powers can be exercised by the Board of Directors?
(a) Power to sell the company’s undertakings
(b) Power to make call
(c) Power to borrow money in excess of the paid up capital
(d) Power to reappoint an auditor
Answer:
(b) Power to make call

Question 7.
Which director need not hold qualifying shares?
(a) Directors appointed to Central Government
(b) Directors appointed to Shareholders
(c) Directors appointed to Managing Director
(d) Directors appointed to Board of Directors
Answer:
(a) Directors appointed to Central Government

Question 8.
What is the status of Directors who regulate money of the company?
(a) Banker
(b) Holder
(c) Agent
(d) Trustees
Answer:
(d) Trustees

Question 9.
According to Companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the _______
(a) Central Government
(b) Company Law Tribunal
(c) Company in General Meeting
(d) Board of Directors
Answer:
(c) Company in General Meeting

Question 10.
The Board of Directors can exercise the power to appoint directors in the case of _______
(a) Additional Directors
(b) Filling up the Casual vacancy
(c) Alternate Directors
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Director.
Answer:
The Companies Act 2013 section 2 (34) defines a director appointed to the board of a Company is:
“A Person who is appointed or elected member of the Board of Directors of a company and has the responsibility of determining and implementing policies along with others in the board.

Question 2.
Name the companies required to appoint KMP.
Answer:
Following Companies are required to appoint KMP:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 27 Company Management

Question 3.
Who is whole time Director?
Answer:
A whole time Director is one who devotes whole of his time of working hours to the company and has a significant personal interest in the company as the source of his income.

Question 4.
Who is called as Managing Director?
Answer:
A Managing Director is one who is employed by the company and has substantial powers of management over the affairs of the company subject to superintendence, direction and control of the board.

Question 5.
Who can be Executive Director?
Answer:
An executive director is a Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or Managing Director of an organization, company, or corporation, who is responsible for making decisions to complete the mission and for the success of the organisation.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate Executive and Non-Executive Directors.
Answer:

Basis for Difference Executive Director Non-Executive Director
1. Meaning An Executive Director can be either a whole-time Director of the Company or a Managing Director. A Non- Executive Director is a Director who is neither a Whole-time Director nor a Managing Director.

Question 2.
When are alternative directors appointed?
Answer:
Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute to a director who may be absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months.

Question 3.
Who is a shadow director?
Answer:
A shadow director is a person who is not the member of Board but has some power to run it and can be appointed as the director but according to his/her wish.

Question 4.
What is causal vacancy?
Answer:
If a director is absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months, then it is called casual vacancy. It may be filled by the appointment of alternate director. The appointment ’must be authorised by the articles of association by passing a resolution in the meeting.

Question 5.
State the minimum number of Directors for a private company.
Answer:
Under section 149 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that the requirement of Minimum/ Maximum Number of Directors in a Company.,

Private company:
In case of One Person Company: The requirement of directors is one.
Other Priv ate Companies: The minimum requirement of Directors is two.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who are the KMP?
Answer:
Companies Act, 2013 has introduced many new concepts and Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) is one of them. KMP covers the traditional roles of managing director and whole time director and also includes some functional heads.
Key Managerial Personnel: The definition of the term Key Managerial Personnel is contained in Section 2(51) of the Companies Act, 2013. This Section states:

  1. The Chief Executive Officer
  2. The Managing Director or Manager
  3. The Company Secretary
  4. The Whole-time Director
  5. The Chief Financial Officer
  6. Such other officer as may be prescribed

Question 2.
Explain composition of the board of directors.
Answer:
Composition of the Board off Directors:

  1. General Optimum Combination: Board of Directors shall have an optimum combination of executive and non-executive directors with at least one woman director.
  2. When the non-executive Director is the Chairperson: In this case, at least one-third of the board of directors shall comprise of independent directors.
  3. When the non-executive chairperson is a promoter or is related to any promoter or person occupying management positions at the level of board of director or at one level below the Board of Directors: In this case, at least one half of the board of directors of the company shall consist of Independent Directors.

Question 3.
Briefly explain different types of Directors.
Types of Directors as per Companies Act 2013:
Answer:

  1. Residential Director: According to Section 149 (3) of Companies Act 2013, every company should appoint a director who has stayed in India for’a total period of 182 days.
  2. Independent Director: An independent director is an alternate director other than a Managing Director who is known as Whole time director or Nominee director.
  3. Small shareholder’s Director: Small shareholders can appoint a single director in a listed company.
  4.  Nominee Director: A director nominated by any financial institution in pursuance of the provisions of law.
  5. Additional Directors: Any Individual can be appointed as Additional Directors by a company.
  6. Alternate Directors: Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute who may be absent from India, for a period of 3 months.

Question 4.
State the qualification of directors.
Answer:
Qualifications of Director: As regards to the qualification of directors, there is no direct provision in the Companies Act, 2013. In general, a director shall possess appropriate skills, experience and knowledge in the fields of finance, law, management, sales, marketing, research and other disciplines related to the business. The following are the qualifications:

  1. A director must be a person of sound mind.
  2. A director must hold share qualification, if the article of association provides such.
  3. A director must be an individual.
  4. A director should be a solvent person.
  5. A director should not be convicted by the Court for any offence, etc.

Question 5.
List the disqualification of a directors.
Answer:
Disqualifications of a Director: Section 164 of Companies Act, 2013, has mentioned the disqualification as follows:
A person shall not be capable of being appointed director of a company, if the director is
(a) Of unsound mind
(b) An undercharged insolvent
(c) Has been convicted by a court for any offence
(d) Has not paid any call in respect of shares of the company held by him
(e) An order disqualifying him for appointment as director has been passed by a court
(f) He has not got the Director Identification Number

Question 6.
Explain how director of a company can be removed from the office.
Answer:
A Director of Company can be removed from his Office before the expiry of his term by ‘

  1.  the Shareholders
  2. the Central Government
  3. the Company Law Board

(i) Removal by shareholders (Sec- 169): A company may, by giving a special notice and passing an ordinary resolution, remove a director before the expiry of his period of office.

(ii) Removal by the Central Government: The Central Government has been empowered to remove managerial personnel from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board under the following situations:
(a) Where a person concerned in the conduct and management of the affairs of a company has been guilty of fraud and negligence.
(b) If the business is managed by a person without sound business principles.
(c) Where the business of a company has been managed by such a person, who likes to cause injury or damage to the business.

(ii) Removal by the Company Law Board: If an application has been made to the Company Law Board against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a director, then the Company Law Board may order to terminate the director.

Question 7.
What is the maximum limit for the Managerial remuneration?
Answer:
Managerial Remuneration: The Managerial remuneration is payable to a person’s appointed u/s 196 of the Act. The Term remuneration means any money or its equivalent given for their services.

Adequate profits: A Public Company can pay remuneration to its directors including Managing Director and Whole-time Directors, and its managers which shall not exceed 11% of the net profit.

Maximum Remuneration Payable by a Company to its Managerial Personnel – No adequate Profits: Remuneration Payable by a company in case where there is no profit or inadequacy of

Where Effective Capital is Limit of yearly Remuneration payable shall not exceed (Rupees)
(i) less than ₹ 5 Crore ₹ 30 lakh
(ii) Above ₹ 5 Crore and less than ₹ 100 Crore ₹ 42 lakh
(iii) ₹ 5 Crore and above but less than ₹ 100 Crore ₹ 60 lakh
(iv) ₹ 250 Crore and above ₹ 60 lakh plus 9.91% of the effective capital in excess of ₹ 250 Crore

Question 8.
What are the duties of a director?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as a trustees of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors:

Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as apart of Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

  1. Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
  2. Appointment of First Auditors
  3. Passing of resolutions at board meetings
  4. Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

General duties of Directors:

  1. Delegating power to any committee
  2. Issuing instructions to employees for implementation of policy
  3. Appointing their subordinates like Managing director, Manager, Secretary and other employees
  4. Act in Good faith in order to promote the objectives of the company

Question 9.
State the powers of the directors.
Answer:
Powers of Directors: The directors must have powers to carry on objectives of the company. The powers may be of four types:

  1. Statutory Powers of Directors
  2. Managerial Powers of Directors
  3. Powers only with a resolution
  4. Other Powers

Statutory Powers: The following powers must be used in the Board meeting:

  1. Power to make calls on shareholders in respect of money unpaid on their shares
  2. Power to issue debentures
  3. Power to borrow money other than on debentures
  4. Power to invest the funds of the company
  5. Power to approve financial statement and Board report Managerial Powers:
  6. Power to allot, forfeit or transfer shares of company
  7. Power to decide the terms and conditions to issue debentures
  8. Power to appoint Managing Director, Manager and Secretary of the company.

Powers only with a resolution:

  1. To sell or lease any asset of the company
  2. To issue bonus shares
  3. To allow time to the director for repayment of the loan

Other Powers:

  1. Power to fill casual vacancy
  2. Power to appoint the first auditor of the company
  3. Power to appoint alternative directors, additional directors
  4. Power to remove key managerial personnel

Question 10.
State the Criminal liabilities of Directors.
Directors will be liable with a fine and imprisonment or both for fraud of non-compliance of any statutory provisions in the following situations where:

  1. There is mis-statement in Prospectus
  2. There is failure to file return on allotment with the registrar
  3. Failure to give notice to the registrar for conversion of share into stock
  4. Failure to issue Share Certificate and Debenture Certificate
  5. There is default in holding Annual General Meeting
  6. There is failure to provide Financial Statements

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Company Management Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A company may appoint more than 15 directors after passing a ______ resolution.
(a) special
(b) ordinary
(c) usual
(d) commanding
Answer:
(a) special

Question 2.
A person can hold the position of Directorship in different companies up to the maximum of ______
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 18
(d) 20
Answer:
(d) 20

Question 3.
An ______ can be either a whole time director of the company or a Managing Director.
(a) Executive Director
(c) Non-Executive Director
(b) First Director
(d) Residential Director
Answer:
(a) Executive Director

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on independent director.
Answer:
According to Section 149 (6), an independent director is an alternate director other than a Managing Director, who is known as Whole Time Director or Nominee Director.

Question 2.
Who is a ‘First Director’?
Answer:
A ‘First Director’ means a director who holds office from the date of incorporation of the company. The first directors are usually named in the Articles of Association.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How a director is removed by the Company Law Board?
Answer:
There are three methods of removal of director from the company.
They are:
(a) Removal by shareholders- If the shareholders feel that the policies pursued by the director are not appropriate, then they can remove the director by passing an ordinary resolution in a general meeting.
(b) Removal by the Central Government- The Central Government has been empowered to remove managerial personnel from office on the recommendation of the Company Law Board.
(c) Removal by the Company Law Board- If an application has been made to the Company Law Board against the oppression and mismanagement of the company’s affairs by a director, then the Company Law Board may order for the termination of the director’s tenure.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation

Students who are interested in learning of 11th English Writing Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation Questions and Answers can use Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th English Chapter Wise Pdf. First check in which chapter you are lagging and then Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers Summary, Activity, Notes Chapter Wise. Students can build self confidence by solving the solutions with the help of Tamilnadu State Board English Solutions. English is the scoring subject if you improve your grammar skills. Because most of the students will lose marks by writing grammar mistakes. So, we suggest you to Download Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Solutions according to the chapters.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation

Check out the topics covered in Writing Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Writing Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

A. Tabular Representation Of Data
(i) Study the following table pertaining to the monthly expenditure of two families and write three sentences on your inference about the data:

 

Heads of Expenses The Sridharan’s The Hariharan’s
Food 35% 30%
Transport 10% 5%
Education 25% 20%
Recreation 15% 10%
Savings 10% 25%
Miscellaneous 5% 10%

Answer:

  • The Sridharans are more lavish than the Hariharan’s
  • They spend more money on food and recreation and enjoy life without much worry about the future.
  • The Hariharans are judicious in spending and save more for a rainy day.

 

(ii) Study the table and write three inferences on Agricultural yield (Rice) in India.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation 1
Answer:
(i) West Bengal tops in the cultivation of rice in terms of area under the plow. Next, Punj ab is doing sound rice cultivation with good yield. Thirdly, Andhra is doing fanning and cultivating rice successfully.

 

(iii) Study the following calendar and write three sentences of your inferences in March, 2018.
Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation 2
Answer:
(i) There are four Sundays.
(ii) There are five Saturdays.
(iii) There are 22 working days for Government organizations in March 2018.

B. PIE-CHART
(i) Study the pie-chart given and answer the questions that follow:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation 3
(a) What are the two types of movies liked by equal percentage of people?
(b) Which type of movie is preferred by most number of people?
(c) Which type is least enjoyed and favoured by people?
Answer:
(a) Science fiction based movies and comedies are liked by equal percentage of people.
(b) Romantic movies are preferred by most number of people.
(c) Drama is least enjoyed and favoured by people.

 

(ii) Study the pie-chart given and answer the questions that follow:
Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation 4
(a) What gets the maximum attention in Saravana’s home?
(b) Does the family spend a lot on education? How?
(c) What is your opinion about Saravana’s spending habit?
Answer:
(a) Food gets the maximum attention in Saravana’s home.
(b) No, the family spends only 10% of the income on education.
(c) He is a spendthrift. He spends more on entertainment and less on health and education.

 

C. Dialogue Writing
(i) Build up a conversation between a Principal and a parent.
Parent : Good morning, Sir. I was told that you wanted to meet me.
Principal : Good morning. Please sit down. Your son has got excellent drawing skills.
Parent : I am really glad to hear it. But what about his studies, Sir?
Principal : Please don’t get upset. He is a clever boy. He can do well in studies also.
Parent : How can I help him?
Principal : I have given him the address of a nearby Art school.
Parent : Thanks, Sir. I shall send him in the weekends.
Principal : This is a cheque for his fees there.
Parent : Thank you so much, Sir.
Principal : He has earned it. He only painted all the boards. He will become a great artist one day.

 

(ii) Build up a dialogue between an employer and a candidate at the interview.
Candidate : Good morning, Sir.
Employer : Welcome. Please sit down. Give me your certificates.
Candidate : Here they are! Along with the letter from Prof. Vašanth.
Employer : You mean Prof. Vasanth from American college?
Candidate : Yes, Sir. He was impressed with my acting as Othello.
Employer : Great! Have you participated in debates and elocution contests.
Candidate : Yes, Sir. These are my certificates.
Employer : Do you have experience in documenting?
Candidate : I video-documented NSS work during tsunami, Sir.
Employer : Do you have experience in edking newsletters?
Candidate : Yes, Sir.
Employer : Great. We are looking for a talented person to work as Media Documentation Officer. Will you accept the job for Rs 20,000 per month?
Candidate : Yes, Sir. Thanks.

 

(iii) Build up a dialogue between a policeman and a tourist who needs some guidance.
Tourist : Excuse me, Sir.
Police : Yes. How can I help you?
Tourist : Thank you, Sir. I just need to know the way to Chennai Airport.
Police : It is just five kilometers from here. By. what mode do you plan to go?
Tourist : I shall take a bus.
Police : Then cross the road to the opposite side. Take bus route No. 18G.
Tourist : Does the bus stop right at the Airport?
Police : Yes, right in front of the airport at Tirusulam stop.
Tourist : Thank you very much, Sir. Very kind of you.
Police : You’re most welcome.

 

Build up a dialogue between two friends regarding the use of plastics.
A : Hello… How are you?
B : Hello… Fine, nice to meet you.
A : It seems you are on your way to the bazaar.
B : Quite right. How do you know?
A : The cloth bag in your hand of course.
B : Your guess is absolutely right.
A : I haven’t brought any. The shopkeeper will give carrybags.
B : Yes. But they are plastic or polythene. We should not use them.
A : Why? What’s wrong?
B : Plastic bag pollutes the soil. It is non-bio-degradable. Cloth bag is simple but bio-degradable.
A : Thank you. I will carry a cloth bag hereafter.

 

(v) Write a dialogue with at least five utterances between a Post Master and a student who wants to open a savings account in the post office.
Student : Good morning, Sir.
PM : Good morning. What shall I do for you?
Student : Sir, I want to open a savings account.
PM : Have you brought your Aadhar card?
Student : Yes, Sir.
PM : Have you brought two copies of passport size photograph of yourself?
Student : Yes, Sir.
PM : Fill in this application. How much do you want to deposit now?
Student : Rs 500, Sir.
PM : That is good to start with.
Student : Thank you, Sir.

 

D. E-MAIL
E-mail is one of the fastest and latest ways of communication. It is concise and one needs to be more technical. In such communication both the addresser and addressee need an E-mail ID where one can write a message. It is communicated through a server. So at both ends there should be a computer or laptop to receive the message.

Hints for writing E-mail

– Maintain brevity,
– Make it personal.
– Answer swiftly.
– Use proper structure & layout.
– Do not write in CAPITALS.
– Do not overuse Reply to All.
– Be careful with formatting.
– Use a meaningful subject.
– Use simple and lucid language.
– Use templates for frequently used responses.
– Do not attach unnecessary files.
– Do not overuse the high priority option.
– Revise/Review the e-mail before you send it.
– Take care with .abbreviations and emoticons.
– Do not use e-mail to discuss confidential matter.

 

Layout of an E-mail
Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation 5

 

Solved Questions
(i) You are Seema/Suresh, living at Chennai, Tamil Nadu. Write an e-mail to the health officer of your city drawing his attention to the unsanitary conditions of your locality.
Answer:

To health@mcd.nic.in
From seema@gmail.com
Subject Insanitation in locality
Sir

I would like to draw your kind attention to the unsanitary conditions that have pervaded in our locality.

It is a new locality where one can find big and beautiful buildings. When it was brought into being a few years ago, the municipal authorities had given a word to look into the needs of the residents. Unfortunately, their promises proved to be. mere words. The roads of our locality are all muddy and take a shabby look whenever it rains. During sunny days, people spread dust in the surroundings. Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal Interpretation

The drains stink as they are not regularly cleaned. Since there are no dustbins around, people throw the waste material on the roadside. Flies and mosquitoes buzz about all the time. These conditions have made residents vulnerable to diseases. I, therefore, request you to please look into the matter seriously and take steps to curb the situation.

We will be thankful if you do accordingly and help us.
Yours sincerely
Seema

(ii) You are Varghese/Mary. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s sister during summer vacation. Write an e-mail to him/her regretting your inability to attend it.
Answer:

To ancy2132@gmail.com
From mary529@gmail.com
Subject Inability to attend the wedding
Dear Ancy
Thank you for your cordial invitation on the occasion of your sister’s wedding. I, however, regret my inability to be with you on this happy occasion as we shall be leaving for Ooty for the summer holidays on 1 May, 20XX. Please excuse my absence. Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Writing Non-Verbal InterpretationDo convey my regards and best wishes to the couple.Yours sincerely
Varghese/Mary

 

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Questions and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7

Integrate the following with respect to x.

Question 1.
\(\frac{1}{9-16 x^{2}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q1

Question 2.
\(\frac{1}{9-8 x-x^{2}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q2

Question 3.
\(\frac{1}{2 x^{2}-9}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q3

Question 4.
\(\frac{1}{x^{2}-x-2}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q4

Question 5.
\(\frac{1}{x^{2}+3 x+2}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q5
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q5.1

Question 6.
\(\frac{1}{2 x^{2}+6 x-8}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q6

Question 7.
\(\frac{e^{x}}{e^{2 x}-9}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q7

Question 8.
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{9 x^{2}-7}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q8
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q8.1

Question 9.
\(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}+6 x+13}}\right)\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q9

Question 10.
\(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}-3 x+2}}\right)\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q10

Question 11.
\(\frac{x^{3}}{\sqrt{x^{8}-1}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q11

Question 12.
\(\sqrt{1+x+x^{2}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q12

Question 13.
\(\sqrt{x^{2}-2}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q13

Question 14.
\(\sqrt{4 x^{2}-5}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q14
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q14.1

Question 15.
\(\sqrt{2 x^{2}+4 x+1}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q15

Question 16.
\(\frac{1}{x+\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.7 Q16

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Questions and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6

Integrate the following with respect to x.

Question 1.
\(\frac{2 x+5}{x^{2}+5 x-7}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q1

Question 2.
\(\frac{e^{3 \log x}}{x^{4}+1}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q2

Question 3.
\(\frac{e^{2 x}}{e^{2 x}-2}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q3

Question 4.
\(\frac{(\log x)^{3}}{x}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q4

Question 5.
\(\frac{6 x+7}{\sqrt{3 x^{2}+7 x-1}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q5

Question 6.
\((4 x+2) \sqrt{x^{2}+x+1}\)
Solution:
\((4 x+2) \sqrt{x^{2}+x+1}\)
Let f(x) = x2 + x + 1
then f'(x) = 2x + 1
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q6

Question 7.
x8 (1 + x9)5
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q7

Question 8.
\(\frac{x^{e-1}+e^{x-1}}{x^{e}+e^{x}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q8

Question 9.
\(\frac{1}{x \log x}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q9

Question 10.
\(\frac{x}{2 x^{4}-3 x^{2}-2}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q10
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q10.1

Question 11.
ex (1 + x) log(x ex)
Solution:
ex (1 + x) log(x ex) = (ex + x ex) log (x ex)
Let z = x ex, Then dz = d(x ex)
dz = (x ex + ex) dx (Using product rule)
So ∫ ex (1 + x) log (x ex) dx
= ∫ log (x ex) (ex + x ex) dx
= ∫ log z dz
= z (log z – 1) + c
= x ex [log (x ex) – 1] + c

Question 12.
\(\frac{1}{x^{2}\left(x^{2}+1\right)}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q12

Question 13.
\(e^{x}\left[\frac{1}{x^{2}}-\frac{2}{x^{3}}\right]\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q13

Question 14.
\(e^{x}\left[\frac{x-1}{(x+1)^{3}}\right]\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q14

Question 15.
\(e^{3 x}\left[\frac{3 x-1}{9 x^{2}}\right]\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.6 Q15

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Questions and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5

Integrate the following with respect to x.

Question 1.
x e-x
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q1

Question 2.
x3 e3x
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q2

Question 3.
log x
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q3

Question 4.
x log x
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q4

Question 5.
xn log x
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q5

Question 6.
\(\boldsymbol{x}^{\boldsymbol{5}} \boldsymbol{e}^{\boldsymbol{x}^{2}}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q6
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q6.1
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q6.2
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.5 Q6.3

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4 Questions and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4

Integrate the following with respect to x.

Question 1.
2 cos x – 3 sin x + 4 sec2 x – 5 cosec2 x
Solution:
∫2 cos x – 3 sin x + 4 sec2 x – 5 cosec2 x
= 2 ∫ cos x dx – 3 ∫ sin x dx + 4 ∫ sec2 x – 5 ∫ cosec2 x dx
= 2 sin x + 3 cos x + 4 tan x + 5 cot x + c

Question 2.
∫ sin3 x dx
Solution:
We know that, sin 3x = 3 sin x – 4 sin3 x
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4 Q2

Question 3.
\(\frac{\cos 2 x+2 \sin ^{2} x}{\cos ^{2} x}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4 Q3

Question 4.
\(\frac{1}{\sin ^{2} x \cos ^{2} x}\)
[Hint: sin2 x + cos2 x = 1]
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4 Q4

Question 5.
\(\sqrt{1-\sin 2} x\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4 Q5
Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.4 Q5.1