Category: Class 12

Get Tamilnadu Board Class 12 Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter wise Study Material to score good marks in the exam. Various chapters with subtopics are explained clearly in Samacheer Kalvi Class 12 Bio Zoology Solutions Material. All the Samacheer Kalvi Class 12 Bio Zoology Book Solutions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms Questions, answers, Notes, Guide, Pdf along with the explanations are provided by the subject experts. Students can easily learn Tamilnadu Board Class 12 Chapter wise Bio Zoology with the help of the step by step guide provided on our site. Learn all the Samacheer Kalvi Class 12 Bio Zoology concepts to attempt the exam with more confidence. Read all the concepts of Tamilnadu Board Solutions for Class 12 Bio Zoology Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Reproduction in Organisms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which type of parthenogenesis are only males produced?
(a) Arrhenotoky
(b) Thelytoky
(c) Amphitoky
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(a) Arrhenotoky

Question 2.
Animals giving birth to young ones:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Ovoviviparous
(c) Viviparous
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(c) Viviparous

Question 3.
The mode of reproduction in bacteria is by ___________
(a) Formation of gametes
(b) Endospore formation
(c) Conjugation
(d) Zoospore formation
Answer:
(c) Conjugation

Question 4.
In which mode of reproduction variations are seen?
(a) Asexual
(b) Parthenogenesis
(c) Sexual
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(c) Sexual

Question 5.
Assertion and reasoning questions:
In each of the following questions there are two statements. One is assertion (A) and other is reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If both A and R are false
I. Assertion: In bee society, all the members are diploid except drones.
Reason: Drones are produced by parthenogenesis.
A B C D
II. Assertion: Off springs produced by asexual reproduction are genetically identical to the parent.
Reason: Asexual reproduction involves only mitosis and no meiosis.
A B C D
III. Assertion: Viviparous animals give better protection to their off springs.
Reason: They lay their eggs in the safe places of the environment.
A B C D
Answer:
(I) A (II) A (III) C

Question 6.
Name an organism where cell division is itself a mode of reproduction.
Answer:
Amoeba

Question 7.
Name the phenomenon where the female gamete directly develops into a new organism with an avian example.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis is the phenomenon where the unfertilized female gamete (egg) develops into a new individual,
e.g. Turkey

Question 8.
What is parthenogenesis? Give two examples from animals.
Answer:
Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis. It was first discovered by Charles Bonnet in 1745.
E.g. Honey bees, Aphis.

Question 9.
Which type of reproduction is effective – Asexual or sexual and why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is highly effective than asexual reproduction since the off springs produced are genetically different from parents causing variations. Variation leads to evolution.

Question 10.
The unicellular organisms which reproduce by binary fission are considered immortal. Justify.
Answer:
In unicellular organisms during binary fission, the entire cell (organism) divides completely to form two daughter cells which later on develop into adult and the process goes on repeatedly during each division leading to immortality of cell (organism). Hence unicellular organisms like amoeba are ‘biologically immortal’.

Question 11.
Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred as a clone?
Answer:
Off springs developed by asexual reproduction are referred as clones since they are genetically & morphologically similar to this parent.

Question 12.
Why are the off springs of oviparous animal at a greater risk as compared to off springs of viviparous organisms?
Answer:
Oviparous animals are egg-layers. The eggs containing embryo are laid out of their body and are highly susceptible to environmental factors (temperature, moisture etc.) and predators. Whereas, in viviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the body of female and comes out as young ones. Hence off springs of oviparous animals are at risk compared to viviparous animal.

Question 13.
Give reasons for the following:

1. Some organisms like honey bees are called parthenogenetic animals
2. A male honey bee has 16 chromosomes whereas its female has 32 chromosomes

Answer:

1. Among honey bees, the queen bee and worker bees develop from fertilized eggs whereas the drones develop from unfertilized eggs. Hence the honey bees are parthenogenetic animals showing incomplete parthenogenesis.
2. Female honey bees (Queen or worker bees) are diploid having 32 chromosomes since they develop from the fertilized egg. On the other hand, the male honey bees (drones) develop from unfertilized egg possessing only 16 chromosomes (i.e., Haploid)

Question 14.
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Binary fission in amoeba and multiple fission in Plasmodium
(b) Budding in yeast and budding in Hydra
(c) Regeneration in lizard and Planaria
Answer:
(a) Binary fission in amoeba and multiple fission in Plasmodium

1. Binary fission in amoeba: In binary fission of amoeba, the plane of division is hard to observe. The nucleoli disintegrates. The nucleus divides mitotically forming two nucleus. The cell constricts in middle, so the cytoplasm divides forming two daughter cells.
2. Multiple fission: In Multiple fission of plasmodium, the oocyte or schizont divides into many similar daughter cells simultaneously. Nucleus undergoes repeated mitosis producing many nuclei without the division of cytoplasm. Later the cytoplasm divides & encircles each nucleus forming many daughter cells oocyte undergoes sporogony forming sporozoites. Schizont undergoes schizogony forming merozoites.

(b) Budding in yeast and budding in Hydra:

1. Budding in Yeast: Yeast is xxxx cellular organism in which the bud develops as a small protuberance following the nuclear division and finally detached to new individual.
2. Budding in Hydra: Hydra is a multicellular organism where the bud xxxxxx from the parents body, grows gradually and finally gets detached.

(c) Regeneration in lizard and Planaria:

1. Regeneration of Lizard: If the tail of the lizard is cut and removed, a new tail will regenerate in damaged part. In lizard only the new tail is regenerated.
2. Regeneration of Planaria: If a planarian worm get cut then each half regenerates the lost part resulting in two worms.
   In planaria, the cut removed part developed into an entire worm.

Question 15.
How is juvenile phase different from reproductive phase?
Answer:

1. Juvenile phase: Juvenile phase is the period of growth between the brith of an organism and before its reproductive maturity.
2. Reproduction phase: Reproductive phase is the period of growth after juvenile phase when an individual attain reproductive maturity and reproduces.

Question 16.
What is the difference between syngamy and fertilization?
Answer:
Syngamy & fertilization both are more similar terms with a difference that syngamy refers to the process of fusion of two gametes forming zygote while fertilization refers to the process of being fertile.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Reproduction in Organisms Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Transverse binary fission is noticed in ___________
(a) Amoeba
(b) Planaria
(c) Ceratium
(d) Vorticella
Answer:
(b) Planaria

Question 2.
Multiple fission occurring in the oocyte of plasmodium is called ___________
(a) Schizogony
(b) Merogamy
(c) Syngamy
(d) Sporogony
Answer:
(d) Sporogony

Question 3.
Taenia solium requires ___________ as a secondary host to complete its life cycle.
(a) Mosquito
(b) pig
(c) dog
(d) human
Answer:
(b) pig

Question 4.
Which type of parthenogenesis only females are produced?
(a) Arrhenotoky
(b) Amphitoky
(c) Thelytoky
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Thelytoky

Question 5.
Which among the following animal is not a continuous breeder?
(a) Hen
(b) Rabbit
(c) Honey bees
(d) Frogs
Answer:
(d) Frogs

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:
a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

Question 7.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding parthenogenesis.
(a) Development of sperm without fertilization.
(b) It was first discovered by Charles Bonnet.
(c) Honey bees exhibit incomplete parthenogenesis.
(d) Amphitoky is a type of natural parthenogenesis.
Answer:
(a) Development of sperm without fertilization.

Question 8.
Oblique binary fission is seen in ___________
Answer:
Dinoflagellates

Question 9.
The process by which gravid proglottids of tapeworm gets cut off is called ___________
Answer:
apolysis

Question 10.
The concept of regeneration was first noticed in ___________
Answer:
Hydra

Question 11.
Fusion of small sized, morphologically different gametes is called ___________
Answer:
merogamy

Question 12.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Oviparous animals lays eggs.
(b) Viviparous animals give rise to young ones.
(c) Ovoviviparous animals lays eggs and then hatch it to young ones.
(d) Amphibians are oviparous animals.
Answer:
(c) Ovoviviparous animals lays eggs and then hatch it to young ones.

Question 13.
Assertion (A): Organisms show three phases in their life cycle.
Reason (R): Juvenile phase is a degenerative phase.
(a) A is correct R but is incorrect.
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) R is the correct explanation for A
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct R but is incorrect.

Question 14
Match the statements.

Answer:
a – iii, b – iv, c-i, d- ii.

Question 15.
The ploidy of males produced by arrhenotoky parthenogenesis is
Answer:
haploid

Question 16.
Identify the mismatched pair.
(a) Paedogenesis – Liver fluke
(b) Strobilation – Aurelia
(c) Amphitoky – Honey bee
(d) Encystment – Amoeba
Answer:
(c) Amphitoky – Honey bee

Question 17.
Identify the proper sequence.
(a) juvenile phase, senescent phase, vegetative phase
(b) juvenile phase, maturity phase, senescent phase
(c) vegetative phase, maturity phase, juvenile phase
(d) senescent phase, juvenile phase, vegetative phase
Answer:
(b) juvenile phase, maturity phase, senescent phase

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

Question 19.
Which of the following types of asexual reproduction is noticed in Amoeba?
(a) Sporulation
(b) Encystment
(c) Binary fission
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 20.
Pick out the organism whose fertilization occurs internally.
(a) reptiles
(b) sponges
(c) pisces
(d) amphibians
Answer:
(a) reptiles

Question 21.
Assertion (A): Asexual reproduction is called blastogenic reproduction.
Reason (R): It is accomplished by mitotic and meiotic divisions.
(a) A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) Both A and R are incorrect
(d) R is the correct explanation for A
Answer:
(6) A is correct but R is incorrect

Question 22.
Egg laying hen is an example for ___________
(a) Thelytoky
(b) Ovovivipary
(c) Vivipary
(d) Ovipary
Answer:
(d) Ovipary

Question 23.
Assertion (A): Syngamy refers to the fusion of two haploid gametes.
Reason (R): Syngamy leads to zygote formation.
(a) A and R are correct.
(b) A and R are incorrect.
(c) R is not the right explanation for A
(d) A is correct but R is incorrect.
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct.

Question 24.
Human beings are an example for ___________ breeders.
Answer:
continuous

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Why asexual reproduction is called as somatogenic reproduction?
Answer:
Asexual reproduction is usually by amitotic or mitotic division of the somatic (body) cells, – hence is also known as somatogenic or blastogenic reproduction.

Question 2.
Name the four types of fission seen in animals.
Answer:
Binary fission, Multiple fission, Sporulation and Strobilation.

Question 3.
Define fission.
Answer:
Fission is the division of the parent body into two or more identical daughter individuals.

Question 4.
Differentiate between transverse binary fission and longitudinal binary fission.
Answer:
Transverse binary fission:

1. Plane of division runs along the transverse axis of the organism
2. Example: Paramecium

Longitudinal binary fission:

1. Plane of division runs along the longitudinal axis of the organism.
2. Example: Euglena

Question 5.
Define Plasmotomy with example.
Answer:
Plasmotomy is the division of multinucleated parent into many multinucleate daughter individuals with the division of nuclei. Nuclear division occurs later to maintain normal number of nuclei. Plasmotomy occurs in Opalina and Pelomyxa (Giant Amoeba).

Question 6.
What do you mean by regeneration in living organisms? Mention its types.
Answer:
Regeneration is the regrowth of injured region.
It is of two types:

1. Morphallaxis
2. Epimorphosis.

Question 7.
How is the fertilization of amphibians differs from aves based on site?
Answer:
In amphibians the fertilization is external (taking place outside the body of female organism) whereas internal fertilization takes place in aves.

Question 8.
What is Paedogamy?
Answer:
Paedogamy is the sexual union of young individuals produced immediately after the division of the adult parent cell by mitosis.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on conjugation.
Answer:
Conjugation is the temporary union of the two individuals of the same species. During their union both individuals, called the conjugants exchange certain amount of nuclear material (DNA) and then get separated. Conjugation is common among ciliates,
e.g. Paramecium, Vorticella and bacteria (Prokaryotes).

Question 10.
Classify animal breeding based on time.
Answer:
On the basis of time, breeding animals are of two types: seasonal breeders and continuous breeders. Seasonal breeders reproduce at particular period of the year such as frogs, lizards, most birds, deers etc., Continuous breeders continue to breed throughout their sexual maturity
e.g. honey bees, poultry, rabbit etc.

Question 11.
Define Vivipary.
Answer:
Vivipary is a condition in which animals give rise to live young ones after being nourished in the uterus though the placenta.
E.g. human.

Question 12.
List out the four types of binary fission.
Answer:

1. Simple irregular binary fission
2. Transverse binary fission
3. Longitudinal binary fission
4. Oblique binary fission

Question 13.
Repeated fission is a type of multiple fission. Yes or No? Why?
Answer:
Yes. If multiple fission produces four or many daughter individuals by equal cell division and the young ones do not separate until the process is complete, then this division is called repeated fission
e.g. Vorticella.

Question 14.
Define apolysis.
Answer:
The detachment of gravid proglottids either singly or in groups from the body of tapeworm is called apolysis.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 15.
Compare schizogony with sporogony of plasmodium.
Answer:
Schizogony:

1. In schizogony, the multiple fission occurs in the schizont.
2. It results in the formation of merozoites.

Sporogony:

1. In sporogony, the multiple fission occurs in the oocyte.
2. It results in the formation of sporozoites.

Question 16.
Write a short note on encystment in amoeba.
Answer:
During unfavorable conditions (increase or decrease in temperature, scarcity of food) Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three-layered, protective, chitinous cyst wall around it and becomes inactive. This phenomenon is called encystment. When conditions become favourable, the encysted Amoeba divides by multiple fission and produces many minute amoebae called pseudopodiospore or amoebulae.

The cyst wall absorbs water and breaks off liberating the young pseudopodiospores, each with a fine pseudopodia. They feed and grow rapidly to lead an independent life.

Question 17.
How exogenous buds are developed by Hydra?
Answer:
When buds are formed on the outer surface of the parent body, it is known as exogenous budding e.g. Hydra. In Hydra when food is plenty, the ectoderm cells increase and form a small elevation on the body surface. Ectoderm and endoderm are pushed out to form the bud. The bud contains an interior lumen in continuation with parent’s gastrovascular cavity. The bud enlarges, develops a mouth and a circle of tentacles at its free end. When fully grown, the bud constricts at the base and finally separates from the parent body and leads an independent life.

Question 18.
Apolysis favours Taenia solium. How?
Answer:
In the tapeworm, Taenia solium the gravid (ripe) proglottids are the oldest at the posterior end of the strobila. The gravid proglottids are regularly cut off either singly or in groups from the posterior end by a process called apolysis. This is very significant since it helps in transferring the developed embryos from the primary host (man) to find a secondary host (pig).

Question 19.
What is autogamy?
Answer:
In autogamy, the male and female gametes are produced by the same cell or same organism and both the gametes fuse together to form a zygote
e.g. Actinosphaerium and Paramecium.

Question 20.
What is exogamy?
Answer:
In exogamy, the male and female gametes are produced by different parents and they fuse to form a zygote. So it is biparental. e.g. Human – dioecious or unisexual animal.

Question 21.
Give the definition for

1. Arrhenotoky
2. Thelytoky
3. Amphitoky

Answer:

1. Arrhenotoky: In this type only males are produced by parthenogenesis
   eg: honey bees
2. Thelytoky: In this type of parthenogenesis only females are produced by parthenogenesis.
   e.g: Solenobia
3. Amphitoky: In this type parthenogenetic egg may develop into individuals of any sex.
   e.g: Aphis.

Question 22.
What is Incomplete parthenogenesis? Explain with example.
Answer:
Incomplete parthenogenesis is a type of reproduction in which both sexual reproduction and parthenogenesis occurs. Example: In honey bees, the fertilized eggs develop into queen bee and worker bees, whereas the unfertilized eggs develop into drones (male).

Question 23.
Explain briefly on the nature of Ovovivipary.
In Ovoviviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the egg and remains in the mother’s body until they are ready to hatch. This method of reproduction is similar to viviparity but the embryos have no placental connection with the mother and receive their nourishment from the egg yolk. Ovoviviparity is seen in fishes like shark.

Question 24.
Point out any six modes of asexual reproduction seen in animals.
Answer:

1. fission
2.  budding
3. fragmentation
4. sporulation
5. regeneration
6. gemmule formation.

Question 25.
Enumerate the types of syngamy.
Answer:

1. Autogamy
2. Exogamy
3. Hologamy
4. Paedogamy
5. Merogamy
6. Isogamy
7. Anisogamy
8. Conjugation

Question 26.
Name the types of animals based on embryonic development with an example for each.
Answer:

1. Oviparous animals
   e.g. Birds
2. Viviparous animals
   e.g. Human beings
3. Ovoviviparous animals
   e.g. Shark

Question 27.
Write a short note on phases of life cycle.
Answer:

1. Juvenile phase – Period of growth between birth of an individual and reproductive maturity.
2. Reproductive phase – Period of growth when an organism attain reproductive maturity and produces new off springs.
3. Senescent plane – Period of growth when the structure and functioning of body starts degenerating.

Question 28.
What is a Paedogenesis?
Answer:
In paedogenetic parthenogenesis (paedogenesis) the larvae produce a new generation of larvae ” by parthenogenesis. It occurs in the sporocysts and Redia larvae of liver fluke. It is also seen in the larvae of some insects,
e.g. Gall fly.

Question 29.
Draw and label a gemmule of sponge.
Answer:

Question 30.
Differentiate between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual Reproduction:

1.  Involves only one parent
2. Only mitotic cell division takes place.
3. Off springs are genetically identical to parent.
4. Gametes are not produced

Sexual Reproduction:

1. Involves two parents (male & female)
2. Both mitosis & meiosis takes place.
3. Off springs genetically differ from the parents.
4. Gametes are produced.

5 – mark Questions

Question 31.
Describe the regeneration process noticed in living organism.
Answer:
Regeneration is regrowth in the injured region. Regeneration was first studied in Hydra by Abraham Trembley in 1740. Regeneration is of two types, morphallaxis and epimorphosis. In morphallaxis the whole body grows from a small fragment e.g. Hydra and Planaria. When Hydra is accidentally cut into several pieces, each piece can regenerate the lost parts and develop into a whole new individual. The parts usually retain their original polarity, with oral ends, by developing tentacles and aboral ends, by producing basal discs.

Epimorphosis is the replacement of lost body parts. It is of two types, namely reparative and restorative regeneration. In reparative regeneration, only certain damaged tissue can be regenerated, whereas in restorative regeneration severed body parts can develop
e.g. star fish, tail of wall lizard.

Question 32.
Given an account on following terms.

1. Hologamy
2. Isogamy
3. Anisogamy
4. Merogamy
5. Paedogamy

Answer:

1. Hologamy: In Hologamy, the adult individuals do not produce gametes, but they themselves act as gametes and fuse to form new individuals.
   E.g : Trichonympha
2. Isogamy : Fusion of morphologically & physiologically similar gametes.
   E.g : Monocystis.
3. Anisogamy : Fusion of morphologically & physiologically dissimilar gametes.
   Eg: Vertebrates.
4. Merogamy : Fusion of small sized morphologically different gametes (merogametes)
5. Paedogamy : Fusion of young individuals produced immediately after the mitotic division of adult parent cell.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Question

Question 1.
Under threat or attack, garden lizard loses a part of its tail which trembles and avert the attention of predators, so that the lizard escapes later the tail regrown for lizard. The same phenomenon can also be noticed in organisms like starfish etc. What do you call this phenomenon? Define it.
Answer:
Regeneration is the regrowth in the injured region.

Question 2.
Complete the table.

Answer:
A – Only males
B – Only Females
C – Both Males & Females

Question 3.
In Vivipary, how the developing embryoes are nourished?
Answer:
In Vivipary, the embryo develops inside the womb of females body, hence they are nourished by the mother through placenta.

Question 4.
How Charles Bonnet and Abraham Trembley contributed to Biological filed?
Answer:
Charles Bonnet discovered the process of parthenogenesis. Abraham Trembley was the first to study the concept of Regeneration in the Hydra

Question 5.
‘A’ and ‘B’ are the male & female sex cells respectively which look alike and performs similar functions. ‘A’ and ‘B’ fuse to form a new individual ‘D’ Which type of gametic fusion does this represent? Give an example.
Answer:
Isogamy Eg: Monocystis

Question 6.
Complete the flow chart by mentioning the ploidy of cells in boxes.
Answer:

1. Queen Bee Worker Bee – Diploid (2n)
2. Drones (Male Bee), Egg, sperm – Haploid (n)

Question 7.
Meiosis is a type of cell division where the chromosomal number is reduced to half the number daughter cells. Which type of cellular division occurs in the drones to produces spermatozoa? Why?
Answer:
The gonadal cells of drones undergo mitosis to form sperms. Because the drones are haploid in nature since they develop from unfertilized eggs. To avoid further reduction in chromosome no. and maintain the chromosomal constancy, (instead of undergoing meiosis), mitosis will take place leading to formation of haploid gametes.

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Companies Act 2013 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Company will have to issue the notice of situation of Registered Office to the Registrar of Companies with in _____ days from the date of incorporation.
(a) 14 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 30 Days
(d) 60 Days
Answer:
(c) 30 Days

Question 2.
How does a person who envisages the idea to form a company called?
(a) Director
(b) Company Secretary
(c) Registrar
(d) Promoter
Answer:
(d) Promoter

Question 3.
For which type of capital a company pays the prescribed fees at the time of registration?
(a) Subscribed Capital
(b) Authorised Capital
(c) Paid-up Capital
(d) Issued Capital
Answer:
(b) Authorised Capital

Question 4.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from the existing shareholders?
(a) Equity Shares
(b) Right Shares
(c) Preference Shares
(d) Bonus Shares
Answer:
(b) Right Shares

Question 5.
Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the company within the town or village or city.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Special
(c) Either Ordinary or Special
(d) Board
Answer:
(d) Board

Question 6.
Who can issue stock?
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) One Person
(d) Small
Answer:
(a) Public

Question 7.
Specify the document which comes under the Negotiable Instrument Act.
(a) Share Certificate
(b) Share
(c) Share Warrant
(d) Stock
Answer:
(c) Share Warrant

Question 8.
The shares which are offered to the existing shareholder at free of cost is known as _____
(a) Bonus Share
(b) Equity Share
(c) Right Share
(d) Preference Share
Answer:
(a) Bonus Share

Question 9.
The shares which are offered first to the existing shareholder at reduced price is known as _____
(a) Bonus Share
(b) Equity Share
(c) Right Share
(d) Preference Share
Answer:
(c) Right Share

Question 10.
The Companies Act 2013 Prohibits the issue of shares at _____ to the public.
(a) Premium
(b) Par
(c) Discount
(d) Both at par and Premium
Answer:
(c) Discount

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is called as Promoters?
Answer:
Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person. The person who envisage the idea is called a ‘promoter’.

Question 2.
What is Share?
Answer:
The term Share is viewed by a layman as a fraction or portion of total capital of the company which have equal denomination.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Equity Share?
Answer:
The share of a company which do not have any preferential rights with regard to dividend and repayment of share capital at the time of liquidation of a company, is called as equity share or ordinary share.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Preference Share?
Answer:
The term ‘preference shares’ means that part of the share capital the holders of which have a preferential right over payment of dividend (fixed amount or rate) and repayment of share capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 5.
What is Sweat Equity Shares?
Answer:
Sweat Equity Shares means issue of shares to employees or directors at a lower price for cash or other than Cash.

Question 6.
What is Bonus Shares?
Answer:
Bonus share means to utilize the company’s reserves and surpluses. Issue of shares to existing shareholders without taking any consideration is known as Bonus Shares.

Question 7.
What is Right Shares?
Answer:
The right shares are primarily issued to the existing equity shareholders through a letter of an issue, on pro rata basis.

Question 8.
What is Private placement?
Answer:
Private placement means offer of securities or invitation to subscribe to securities to a select group of persons through private placement offer letter.

Question 9.
Define Share Warrant.
Answer:
A share warrant is a negotiable instrument, issued by the public limited company only against fully paid up shares. It is also termed as a document of title because the holder of the share warrant is entitled to the number of shares mentioned in it.

Question 10.
What is Debentures?
Answer:
When a company needs funds for extension and development purpose without increasing its share capital, it can borrow from the general public by issuing certificates for a fixed period of time and at a fixed rate of interest. Such a loan certificate is called a debenture.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between shares and stocks.
Answer:

Basis for Difference	Shares	Stocks
1. Meaning	The term ‘share’ means a fraction or unit of the total capital of the company which have equal denomination.	Stock is created from fully paid shares by passing resolution in the general meeting. The Articles of Association of the company must permit this conversion.
2. Denomination	All the shares are of equal denomination.	The denomination of stocks may. differ.
3. Paid up value	Shares can be partly or fully paid up.	Stock can only be fully paid up.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Issue of Securities at Premium?
Answer:
When shares are issued at a price above the face or nominal value, they are said to be issued at a premium. For example, a share having the face value of Rs. 10 is issued at Rs. 12. Here, Rs.2 is the premium. The amount of share premium has to be transferred to an account called the ‘ Securities Premium Account’

Question 3.
What is issue of shares at discount? What conditions should be fulfilled?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price below the face value they are said to be issued at a discount. For example, a share having the face value of Rs 10 is issued at Rs 8. The companies act 2013, prohibits the issue of shares at discount (Section 53), except sweat Equity share.

Question 4.
State condition stipulated for capital subscription at the time of promotion.
Answer:
For capital subscription, steps to be taken are listed below:

1. The fulfilling formalities to raise necessary capital.
2. Adhering to SEBI guidelines in this regard.
3. Observing guidelines for Disclosure and investor protection issued by SEBI.
4. Issuing prospectus.
5. Appointing official banker of the company for receiving application from the investors.

Question 5.
Explain different kinds of preference shares.
Answer:
There are eight types of preference shares:

1. Cumulative Preference shares: As the word indicates, all dividends are carried forward until specified.
2. Non-cumulative Preference shares: These are opposite of cumulative.
3. Redeemable Preference shares: Such preference shares can be claimed after a fixed period or after giving due notice. ,
4. Non-Redeemable Preference shares: Such shares cannot be redeemed during the lifetime of the company.
5. Convertible Preference shares: The shares can be converted into equity shares after a time period. .
6. Non-convertible Preference shares: Non-convertible preference shares cannot be, at any time, converted into equity shares.
7. Participating Preference shares.
8. Non-Participating Preference shares.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write the difference between Debentures and Shares.
Answer:
Debentures:

1. Debentures mean a loan.
2. Debenture holder gets fixed rate of Interest.
3. Debentures generally have a charge on the assets of the company.
4. Debentures can be issued at a discount.
5. Debenture holders do not have any voting right.
6. Interest on debentures is payable even if there are no profits.
7. Interest paid on debenture is a business expense.

Shares:

1. Shares are part of the capital of a company.
2. Shareholders gets dividends with a varying rate.
3. Shares do not carry any such charge.
4. Shares cannot be issued at a discount.
5. Shareholders enjoy voting right.
6. Dividend is payable only if there is profit.
7. Dividend is not a business expense.

Question 2.
Brief different stages in Formation of a Company.
Answer:
Section 3 (1) of the Act states that a company may be formed for any lawful purpose by-
(a) seven or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a public company;
(b) two or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a private company;
(c) one person, where the company to be formed is to be One Person Company.
The process of formation of company consists of different stages:
1. Promotion: Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person.

2. Registration: The second stage in the formation of the company is incorporation or – registration. In this stage, the promoter has to fix name of the company, prepare the necessary documents (Memorandum and Articles of Association), fix the registered office, and name of the directors. After this, certificate of incorporation is issued.

3. Capital Subscription: A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two stages. One of them is capital subscription. The steps for this is:

1. Formalities for raising capital
2. Issuing prospectus
3. Appointing official banker
4. Pass resolution to make allotment

4. Commencement of Business: As per section 11 of the Act, a company having share capital should file with the Registrar, declaration stating that

1. Every subscriber has paid the value of shares.
2. Paid up capital is not less than Rs.5 lakhs for a public limited company and Rs.1 lakh in case of a private limited company.
3. It has filed the Registrar, regarding the verification of registered office. After fulfilling these details, the Registrar will issue certificate of commencement of business.

Question 3.
What are the various kinds of Debentures?
Answer:
Debenture is a document issued by the company for acknowledging the loan from the public. Debentures are classified into different categories on the basis of:

1. Convertibility of the Instrument
2. Security of the Instrument
3. Redemption ability; and
4. Registration of Instrument.

1. On the basis of convertibility:
(a) Non-Convertible Debentures: These instruments cannot be converted into equity shares.
(b) Partly Convertible Debentures: Apart of these instruments are converted into equity shares.
(c) Fully Convertible Debentures: These are fully convertible into equity shares.
(d) Optionally Convertible Debentures: The investor can have the option to either convert the debentures at a price decided by the issuer or agreed upon at the time of issue.

2. On the basis of Security:
(a) Secured Debentures: These instruments are secured by a charge on the fixed assets of the issuer company.
(b) Unsecured Debentures: These instruments are unsecured against the assets.

3. On the basis of Redeemability:
(a) Redeemable Debentures: It refers to the debentures which will be redeemed in future.
(b) Irredeemable Debentures: It is a debenture, in which no specific time is specified by the companies to pay back the money.

4. On the basis of Registration:
(a) Registered Debentures: These are issued in the name of a particular person, who is registered by the company.
(b) Bearer Debentures: These are issued to the bearer and are negotiable instruments, and are transferred by mere delivery.

Question 4.
What formalities need to be fulfilled for companies having share capital to commence business?
Answer:
A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two more stages. One of them is capital subscription, steps to be taken at this stage are listed below:

1. The fulfilling formalities to raise necessary capital.
2. Following the SEBI guidelines in this regard.
3. Issuing prospectus.
4. Appointing official banker of the company for receiving application from the investors.
5. Passing resolution for making allotment by director.
6. Despatch allotment letters to allottees.
7. Filing allotment return with the Registrar.
8. Issuing share certificates in exchange for their allotment letter.
9. Ensuring collection of minimum subscription.

Question 5.
Write the difference between Share Certificate and Share Warrant.
Answer:
Share Certificate:

1. A share certificate is an instrument in writing for the legal proof of the ownership.
2. Every company must issue share certificate to its shareholders.
3. Normally, the holder of the share certificate is to be the member of the company.
4. The share certificate is issued by the company within three months of the allotment of shares.
5. No need to authorized in the Articles of Association to issue share certificate.

Share Warrant:

1. A share warrant is a negotiable instrument, issued against fully paid up shares.
2. There is no compulsion of the issue of share warrants by the company.
3. Generally, the holder of the share warrant is not the member of the company.
4. Shares warrant can be issued only when the shares are fully paid up.
5. The issue of a share warrant must be authorized in the Articles of Association of the company.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Companies Act 2013 Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer
Question 1.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

Answer:
(c) 3,1,4,2

Question 2.
The first two stages of formation of a company are
(i) Issue of prospectus
(ii) Promotion
(iii) Issue of share certificate
(iv) Registration
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iv)

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 26th Commerce Chapter 26 Companies Act 2013 Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 24th Commerce Chapter 24 Types of Entrepreneurs Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 24 Types of Entrepreneurs Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 24th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 24 Types of Entrepreneurs

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 24 Types of Entrepreneurs Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 24th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Types of Entrepreneurs Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Choose the type of entrepreneur that isn’t based on function:
(a) Innovative
(b) Classical
(c) Fabian
(d) Drone
Answer:
(c) Fabian

Question 2.
Choose the type of Entrepreneur that is not based on Motivation:
(a) Pure
(b) Corporate
(c) Spontaneous
(d) Induced
Answer:
(c) Spontaneous

Question 3.
Which of the following is the Activity of a Business Entrepreneur?
(a) Production
(b) Marketing
(c) Operation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Find the odd one out in context of Trading Entrepreneur.
(a) Selling
(b) Commission
(c) Buying
(d) Manufacturing
Answer:
(d) Manufacturing

Question 5.
Corporate Entrepreneur is also called as  _________
(a) Intrapreneur
(b) Promoter
(c) Manager
(d) Shareholder
Answer:
(b) Promoter

Question 6.
Poultry, Flowers, Fruits, etc., are called allied products of _________ entrepreneur.
(a) Corporate
(b) Retail
(c) Trading
(d) Agricultural
Answer:
(d) Agricultural

Question 7.
_________ Entrepreneur Supply Services Unlike.
(a) Hoteliers
(b) Banking
(c) Airlines
(d) Livestock
Answer:
(d) Livestock

Question 8.
Motive of a Pure Entrepreneur is _________
(a) Rendering service
(b) Earning profit
(c) Attaining status
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(d) Both b and c

Question 9.
Which of these is based on Technology?
(a) Modem
(b) Professional
(c) Corporate
(d) Industrial
Answer:
(c) Corporate

Question 10.
Which of the below is not a characteristic of a Fabian Entrepreneur?
(a) Conservative
(b) Risk averse
(c) Sceptical
(d) Adaptive
Answer:
(d) Adaptive

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the other name of business entrepreneur?
Answer:
The term entrepreneur means the. person who takes steps for commencing the business. So he is otherwise called as organiser or proprietor.

Question 2.
Mention the other name for corporate entrepreneur.
Answer:
Corporate entrepreneur is called promoter. He/she takes initiative necessary to start an entity under corporate format.

Question 3.
Who are agricultural entrepreneur?
Answer:
Agricultural entrepreneurs are those entrepreneurs who raise farm products and market them.

Question 4.
State the name of the.following ventures:
a. Started by individuals for profit motive
b. Started by Government
c. Started by individuals and Government together
d. Started as a family business
Answer:
a. Private entrepreneur
b. State entrepreneurship
c. Induced entrepreneur
d. Classical entrepreneur

Question 5.
Give some examples of pure entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Dhirubai Ambani, Jamshedji Tata, T.V. Sundaram Iyengar, Seshadriji, Birla, Narayanamurthi, and Azim Premji are few examples of pure entrepreneurship.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is a private entrepreneur?
Answer:
Ventures started by individual either singly or collectively at their own risk after mobilising – various, resources in order to earn profit are called private entrepreneurship.

Question 2.
What is political environment?
Answer:
To commence business, various factors are needed. Apart from all other factors, political environment is also essential. It means that the concessions, incentives provided by the government drive them to enter into venture. The government also provides support in the form of loans, subsidies and other taxes.

Question 3.
List down few examples of pure entrepreneurship.
Answer:
Pure entrepreneurs are individuals who are propelled to enter into venture by psychological and economic motives. They nurture desire of starting a particular venture and earning high profit there from and thus attaining a social status. They apply their knowledge, skill and insight in making the venture a great’ success in order to earn maximum profit out of the venture. Dhirubai Ambani, Jamshedji Tata, T.V. Sundaram Iyengar, Seshadriji, Birla, Narayanamurthi, and Azim Premji are few examples of pure entrepreneurship.

Question 4.
How does a professional entrepreneur operate?
Answer:
Professional entrepreneur is one who is having a rich expertise in starting a venture but lack interest in continuing the venture as a manager or as a owner. He/she simply sells out the venture started by him to someone else after its successful take-off.

Question 5.
Explain, about the agricultural entrepreneur.
Answer:
Agricultural entrepreneurs are those entrepreneurs who raise farm products and market them. They use the various inputs like labour, fertilizer, insecticide, water technology, etc., to raise the products and market their products either directly or through co-operative entities or through brokers or through tie up with large retailers.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail on classification according to the type of business.
Answer:
Classification of Entrepreneur according to the type of business:

(i) Business Entrepreneur: He is called solo entrepreneur. He is the one who finds out an idea for a new product or service and establish a business enterprise.

(ii) Trading Entrepreneur: Trading entrepreneurs are those who restrict themselves to buying and selling finished goods.

(iii) Industrial Entrepreneur: These are entrepreneurs who manufacture products to cater to

(iv) Corporate Entrepreneur: He is called as promoter. He takes initiative necessary to start an entity under corporate format.

(v) Agricultural Entrepreneur: These entrepreneurs are those who raise farm products and market them.

Question 2.
Discuss the nature of functional entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Nature of functional entrepreneurs:

(i) Innovative Entrepreneur: He is a person who introduces new project. They observe the environment regarding information to the new venture.

(ii) Imitative Entrepreneur: He refers to the person who simply imitates existing knowledge or technology already in advance countries. Redesigning of products suited to the local conditions.

(iii) Fabian Entrepreneur: These are said to be conservatives and sceptical about any changes in their organisation. They are of risk-averse.

(iv) Drone Entrepreneur: Drone entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes in the environment. They used to operate in the-niche market.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the rural and urban entrepreneur.
Answer:

S. No.	Rural Entrepreneur	Urban Entrepreneur
1.	It refers to the person who starts business in rural areas.	It refers to the person who commences business in urban areas.
2.	These entrepreneurs start doing business in the villages and small towns.	They will do their business in state capital, towns, district headquarters, municipalities, etc.
3.	They may be agricultural and trading entrepreneurs.	They may be industrial or corporate entrepreneur.
4.	The availability of material and labour is easy. So the cost of operation tends to be low.	The availability of material and labour may be difficult. So the cost of operation may be high.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Types of Entrepreneurs Additional Questions and Answers

I. A. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The entrepreneurs classified on the basis of type of business are __________
(i) Industrial entrepreneur
(ii) Technical entrepreneur
(iii) Professional entrepreneur
(iv) Business entrepreneur
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

B. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Entrepreneur who commences his entrepreneurial activity in urban areas is called as __________
Answer:
urban entrepreneur

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is a service entrepreneur?
Answer:
The entrepreneurs enter into the business of giving service products to end consumers. Example: Banking, Insurance and Transport services.

Question 2.
Write a short note on retail entrepreneurs.
Answer
Retail entrepreneurs are those who enter into venture of distributing the end product to final consumer. They used to buy the goods from numerous wholesalers.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who are industrial entrepreneurs?
Answer:
Industrial entrepreneurs are those persons who manufacture products to cater the needs of the consumers. They may be small, medium and large entrepreneurs. Industrial entrepreneurs mobilise the resources of various types’.

Question 2.
Who are technical entrepreneurs?
Answer:
Technical entrepreneurs are those craftsmen like welder, fitter, turner, carpenter and goldsmith, photographer, weaver who start small business. They manufacture products/service of high quality. They simply focus on production rather than on marketing.

We as a team believe the information prevailing regarding the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 24th Commerce Chapter 24 Types of Entrepreneurs Questions and Answers has been helpful in clearing your doubts to the fullest. For any other help do leave us your suggestions and we will look into them. Stay in touch to get the latest updates on Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for different subjects in the blink of an eye.

Enhance your subject knowledge with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 23th Commerce Chapter 23 Elements of Entrepreneurship Questions and Answers and learn all the underlying concepts easily. Make sure to learn the subject from Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 23 Elements of Entrepreneurship Questions and Answers PDF on a day to day basis and score well in your exams. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 23th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers are given after enormous research by people having high subject knowledge and for better scoring grade. You can rely on them and prepare any topic of Commerce as per your convenience easily.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 23 Elements of Entrepreneurship

Students those who are looking for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions Chapter 23 Elements of Entrepreneurship Questions and Answers Concepts can find them all in one place from our site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions. Simply click on the links available to prepare the corresponding topics of Samacheer Kalvi 23th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers easily. Clarify all your queries from chapter wise different questions to be familiar with the kind of questions appearing in the exam. Thus, you can increase your score and get higher grade in the final exam.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Elements of Entrepreneurship Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the below is a factor of production?
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Entrepreneurship
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
Entrepreneur is not classified as ________
(a) Risk Bearer
(b) Innovator
(c) Employee
(d) Organizer
Answer:
(b) Innovator

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
(a) Spirit of enterprise
(b) Flexibility
(c) Self Confidence
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?
(a) Planning
(b) Marketing
(c) Organizing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Organizing

Question 5.
Which of the below is a commercial function?
(a) Accounting
(b) Coordination
(c) Discovery of idea
(d) Planning
Answer:
(a) Accounting

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention any two features of entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Features of Entrepreneurs:

1. Spirit of Enterprise: Entrepreneur should be bold enough to encounter risk arising from the venture undertaken.
2. Self Confidence: Entrepreneur should have a self confidence in order to achieve high goals in the business.

Question 2.
List down the managerial functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer:

1. Planning
2. Organising
3. Directing
4. Controlling
5. Coordination

Question 3.
List down the promotional functions of entrepreneurs.
Answer:

1. Discovery of Idea
2. Determining the business objectives
3. Detailed Investigation
4. Choice of form of enterprise
5. Fullfillment of the formalities
6. Preparation of Business Plan
7. Mobilisation of funds
8. Procurement of Machines and Materials

Question 4.
Define Intrapreneur.
Answer:
Intrapreneur is one who thinks and acts like an entrepreneur for the firm’s development during the course of employment in an organisation.

Question 5.
List the problems faced by the women entrepreneurs.
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows:-

1. Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and small loans from friends and relatives.
2. Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations.
3. Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.
4. Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.
5. Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Entrepreneur.
Answer:
The person who establishes business is termed as entrepreneur. The output of an entrepreneurial process ends up in establishing an enterprise.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Entrepreneur and Manager.
Answer:

Basis of difference	Entrepreneur	Manager
Motive	The very motive of an entrepreneur is to start a venture by setting of an entity.	The very motive of manager is to render service in an entity setup for execution of venture.
Status	Entrepreneur is owner of the entity.	Manager is a salaried employee in the entity set up for carrying on the venture.
Risk Bearing	Entrepreneur bears the eventual risk and uncertainty in operating the enterprise.	Manager doesn’t bear any risk in the venture, where the venture is unsuccessful he/she simply quits the enterprise.

Question 3.
List down the commercial functions of Entrepreneur and explain them shortly.
Answer:
Commercial Functions of Entrepreneur:

(i) Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development, product design, etc.

(ii) Marketing: Entrepreneur has to carry out following functions pertaining to marketing aspect namely consumer research, product planning and development, standardisation, packaging, pricing, warehousing, distribution, promotion etc.

(iii) Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business at a particular day.

(iv) Finance: In the sphere of financial function, an entrepreneur has to take decisions like choosing the right type of financing, framing the best dividend policy, acquiring of funds, efficiently managing fixed and current assets, maximising shareholders wealth and investing of funds efficiently and effectively.

(v) Human Resource Management: Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and accordingly decide the size of manpower required for various slots of organisational structure.

Question 4.
Explain the promotional functions of entrepreneur.
Promotional Functions of Entrepreneur
Answer:
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Determining the business objectives: Entrepreneur has to develop business objectives in the backdrop of nature of business and type of business activity i.e. nature of business, manufacturing or trading, type of business organisation chosen so that he/she can organise the venture in accordance with the objectives determined by him/her.

(iii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iv) Choice of form of enterprise: Entrepreneur has to choose the appropriate form of organisation suited to implement the venture. There are various forms of organisation namely sole proprietor, partnership, company and co-operatives etc. which are in existence.

(v) Fulfilment of the formalities: Having chosen the appropriate type of organisation, entrepreneur has to take necessary steps to establish the form of organisation chosen. As regards sole trader, the formalities are barest minimum. In the case of partnership firm, entrepreneur has to arrange for partnership deed and he has to get the deed registered.

(vi) Preparation of Business Plan: Entrepreneur has to prepare a business plan or project report of the venture that he is proposing to take up.

(vii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(viii) Procurement of Machines and Materials: Entrepreneur has to locate the various sources of supply of machineries, equipments and materials.

Question 5.
Explain the commercial functions of entrepreneur.
Answer:
(i) Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development, product design, etc. The efficient and effective performance of production function depends on the proper production planning and control to a major extent.

(ii) Marketing: Entrepreneur has to carry out following functions pertaining to marketing aspect namely consumer research, product planning and development, standardisation, packaging, pricing, warehousing, distribution, promotion etc. The term marketing mix denotes the combination of four components namely product, price, promotion and physical distribution in the case of physical products and three more components are included in the case of service products namely people, process and physical evidence.

(iii) Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business at a particular day. Besides, cash flow and fund flow statements are prepared to ensure the adequacy of funds and cash for meeting various working capital needs of the business.

(iv) Finance: In the sphere of financial function, an entrepreneur has to take decisions like choosing the right type of financing, framing the best dividend policy, acquiring of funds, efficiently managing fixed and current assets, maximising shareholders wealth and investing of funds efficiently and effectively.

(v) Human Resource Management: Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and accordingly decide the size of manpower required for various slots of organisational structure. After determining the required manpower, the entrepreneur has to organise for recruitment procedure

selecting manpower, induction and training, determining compensation structure and incentives, designing motivation programmes, structuring wellbeing measures for employees, putting in place safety mechanism at workplace, performance evaluation and career advancement and structuring social security programmes.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How do you classify entrepreneurs?
Answer:
Entrepreneurs are now broadly classified into three groups namely risk bearer, organiser and
innovator.

1. Entrepreneur as a risk bearer : Entrepreneurs acts as an agent combining all factors of production to produce a product or service in order to sell at uncertain price in future.

2. Entrepreneur as an organiser : Entrepreneur is one who brings together various factors of production and creates an entity to produce product or service and supervise and coordinates several functions in the process.

3. Entrepreneur as an innovator : According to Joseph A. Schumpeter in the year 1934 used innovation as a criterion to define an individual as entrepreneur. According to him, entrepreneur is one who

• • Introduces a brand new product in the market.
  • Institutes new technology to produce a new product.
  • Discovers new course of supply of raw materials.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
Characteristics of an Entrepreneur:

1. Spirit of Enterprise: Entrepreneur should be bold enough to encounter risk arising from Elements of Entrepreneurship 145 the venture undertaken.

2. Self-confidence: Entrepreneur should have self-confidence in order to achieve high goals in the business.

3. Flexibility: Entrepreneur should not doggedly stick to decisions in a rigid fashion.

4. Innovation: Entrepreneur should contribute something new or something unique to meet the changing requirements of customers namely new product, new method of production or distribution, adding new features to the existing product, uncovering a new territory for business, innovating new raw material, etc.

5. Resource Mobilisation: Entrepreneur should have the capability to mobilise both tangible inputs like manpower, money materials, technology, market, method etc., which are scattered over a wide area and certain intangible inputs like motivation, morale and innovativeness.

Question 3.
Distinguish between an Entrepreneur and an Intrapreneur.
Answer:

Question 4.
Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs.
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs.
They are as follows:-

1. Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.
2. Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations.
3. Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.
4. Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.
5. Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

Question 5.
Explain in detail the various functions of an entrepreneur.
Answer:
The functions of an entrepreneur is divided into
(a) Promotional functions,
(b) Managerial functions
(c) Commercial functions.

(a) Promotional functions:
(i) Discovery of Idea: The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation. A person may conceive his own ideas or develop the ideas contributed by others. Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and exposure of entrepreneur, keen observation of environment, education, training, market survey, environmental scanning and so on.

(ii) Detailed Investigation: Entrepreneur should investigate commercial feasibility of the product proposed to be produced and conduct market study to ascertain the potential demand for the product.

(iii) Mobilisation of funds: Entrepreneur has to take steps to mobilise capital needed to implement the venture. Entrepreneur has to estimate the fixed capital and working capital required for running the project.

(b) Managerial functions:
(i) Planning: In this function, the entrepreneur has to lay down the objectives, goals, vision, mission, policies, procedures, programmes, budget, schedules etc., for enabling the venture to proceed towards established destinations.

(ii) Directing: In this function, the entrepreneur has to motivate, lead, guide and communicate with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

(c) Commercial functions:
(i) Production or Manufacturing: Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured, research and development.

(ii) Accounting: Entrepreneur has to arrange to prepare trading and profit and loss account in order to know the profit or loss incurred out of operation of the business and prepare balance sheet to know the financial status of business.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 22 The Negotiable Instruments Act 1881

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce The Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Negotiable Instrument Act was passed in the year ________
(a) 1981
(b) 1881
(c) 1994
(d) 1818
Answer:
(b) 1881

Question 2.
Negotiable Instrument is freely transferable by delivery if it is a ________ instrument.
(a) Order
(b) Bearer
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Bearer

Question 3.
The transferee of a Negotiable Instrument is the one ________
(a) Who transfer the instrument
(b) On whose name it is transferred
(c) Who enchases it
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) On whose name it is transferred

Question 4.
Number of parties in a bill of exchange are ________
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 5.
Section 6 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 deals with ________
(a) Promissory Note
(b) Bills of exchange
(c) Cheque
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Cheque

Question 6.
________ cannot be a bearer instrument.
(a) Cheque
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Bills of exchange
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Cheque

Question 7.
When crossing restrict further negotiation ________
(a) Not negotiable crossing
(b) General Crossing
(c) A/c payee crossing
(d) Special crossing
Answer:
(a) Not negotiable crossing

Question 8.
Which endorsement relieves the endorser from incurring liability in the event of dishonour?
(a) Restrictive
(b) Facultative
(c) Sans recourse
(d) Conditional
Answer:
(b) Facultative

Question 9.
A cheque will become stale after ________ months of its date.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 10.
Document of title to the goods exclude ________
(a) Lorry receipt
(b) Railway receipt
(c) Airway bill
(d) Invoice
Answer:
(d) Invoice

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Negotiable Instrument?
Answer:
A negotiable instrument is a document which entitles a person to a certain sum of money and which is transferable from one person to another by mere delivery or by endorsement and delivery.

Question 2.
Define Bill of Exchange.
Answer:
According to section 5 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, “a bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the – instrument”.

Question 3.
List three characteristics of a Promissory Note.
Answer:
Characteristics of a Promissory Note:

1. A promissory note must be in writing.
2. The promise to pay must be unconditional.
3. It must be signed by the maker.

Question 4.
What is meant by a cheque?
Answer:
According to section 6 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 defines a cheque as “a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand”.

Question 5.
Define Endorsement.
Answer:
“When the maker or holder of a negotiable instrument signs the name, otherwise that as such maker for the purpose of negotiation, on the back or face thereof, or on a slip of paper annexed thereto.”

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the nature of a Negotiable Instrument.
Answer:
A negotiable instrument is transferable from one person to another without any formality, such as affixing stamp, registration, etc. When the instrument is held by holder in due course in the process of negotiation, it is cured of all defects in the instrument with respect to ownership. Though a bill, a promissory note or a cheque represents a debt, the transferee is entitled to sue on the instrument in his own name in case of dishonour, without giving notice to the debtor that he has become its holder.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Negotiability and Assignability.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of a bill of exchange?
Answer:
Characteristics of a Bill of Exchange:

1. A bill of exchange is a document in writing.
2. The document must contain an order to pay.
3. The order must be unconditional.
4. The instrument must be signed by the person who draws it.
5. The name of the person on whom the bill is drawn must .be specified in the bill itself.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Bill of Exchange and Promissory Note.
Answer:

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention the presumptions of Negotiable Instruments.
Answer:
Presumptions of Negotiable Instrument:

1. Every negotiable instrument is presumed to have been drawn and accepted for consideration.
2. Every negotiable instrument bearing, a date is presumed to have been made or drawn on such a date.
3. It is presumed to have been accepted within a reasonable time after the date and before its maturity.
4. The transfer of a negotiable instrument is presumed to have been made before maturity.
5. When a negotiable instrument has been lost, it is presumed to have been duly stamped.
6. The holder of a negotiable instrument is presumed to be a holder in due course.

Question 2.
Distinguish a cheque and a bill of exchange.
Answer:

Question 3.
Discuss in detail the features of a cheque.
Answer:
A cheque is a negotiable instrument drawn on a particular banker.
Features:
(i) Instrument in Writings:
A cheque or a bill or a promissory note must be an instrument in writing. Though the law does not prohibit a cheque being written in pencil, bankers never accept it because of risks involved. Alternation is quite easy but detection is impossible in such cases.

(ii) Unconditional Orders:
The instrument must contain an order to pay money. It is not necessary that the word ‘order’ or its equivalent must be used to make the document a cheque. It does not cease to be a cheque just because the world ‘please’ is used before the word pay. Further the order must be unconditional.

(iii) Drawn on a Specified Banker Only:
The cheque is always drawn on a specified banker. A cheque vitally differs from a bill in this respect as latter can be drawn on any person including a banker. The customer of a banker can draw the cheque only on the particular branch of the bank where he has an account.

(v) A Certain Sum of Money Only:
The order must be for payment of only money. If the banker is asked to deliver securities, the document cannot be called a cheque. Further, the sum of money must be certain.

(v) Payee to be Certain:
The cheque must be made payable to a certain person or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument. The word, person includes corporate bodies, local authorities, associations, holders of office of an institution etc.

(vi) Signed by the Drawer:
The cheque is to be signed by the drawer. Further, it should tally with specimen signature furnished to the bank at the time of opening the account.

Question 4.
What are the requisites for a valid endorsement?
Answer:
If an endorsement is to be valid, it must possess the following requisites:

1. Endorsement is to be made on the face of the instrument or on its back.
2. When there is no space for making further endorsements a piece of paper can be attached
3. Endorsement for only a part of the amount of the instrument is invalid.
4. Endorsement is complete only when delivery of the instrument is made.
5. Signing in block letters does not constitute regular endorsement.
6. If the payee is an illiterate person, he can endorse it by affixing his thumb impression on the instrument.

Question 5.
Explain the different kinds of endorsements. .
Answer:
When the person signs on the back of the instrument to transfer his interest, it is known as endorsement. The endorsement are of various types:
(i) Blank or general endorsement:
When the endorser puts his mere signature on the back of an instrument without mentioning the name of the person to whom the endorsement is made, it is called Blank Endorsement

(ii) Endorsement in full or special endorsement:
If the endorser, in addition to his signature, mentions the name of the person to whom it is endorsed, is known as endorsement in full or special endorsement.

(iii) Conditional endorsement:
When the endorser of a negotiable instrument makes his liability dependent upon the happening of an event which may or may not happen, it is called conditional endorsement,

(iv) Restrictive endorsement:
When an endorsement restricts or prohibits further negotiability of the instrument, it is called Restrictive Endorsement.

(v) Partial Endorsement:
Where the endorsement seeks to transfer only a part of the amount payable under the instrument, the endorsement is called Partial Endorsement.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce The Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker is
(a) promissory note
(b) cheque
(c) hundi
(d) share
Answer:
(b) cheque

Question 2.
Grace days allowed to a Bill of exchange for calculation of due date is
(a) 4
(b) 10
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 3

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is an nalgesic?
(a) Streptornycin
(b) Chloromycetin
(c) Asprin
(d) Penicillin
Answer:
(c)Asprin

Question 2.
Dettol is the mixture of ……………
(a) Chioroxylenol and bithionol
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol
(c) phenol and iodine
(d) terpineol and bithionol
Answer:
(b) Chioroxylenol and a – terpineol

Question 3.
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statement is not true.
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics
(b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues
(c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant
(d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants
Answer:
(a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

Question 4.
Saccharin, an artificial sweetener is manufactured from ……………..
(a) cellulose
(b) toluene
(c) cyclohexene
(d) starch
Answer:
(b) toluene

Question 5.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called …………….
(a) antagonists
(b) agonists
(c) enzymes
(d) molecular targets
Answer:
(a) antagonists

Question 6.
Aspirin is a/an ……………..
(a) acetylsalicylic acid
(b) benzoyl salicylic acid
(c) chlorobenzoic acid
(d) anthranilic acid
Answer:
(a) acetylsalicylic acid

Question 7.
Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

Answer:

Question 8.
Natural rubber has ………..
(a) alternate cis – and trans – configuration
(b) random cis – and trans-configuration
(c) all cis – configuration
(d) all trans – configuration
Answer:
(c) all cis – conflguration

Question 9.
Nylon is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
Answer:
(a) polyamide

Question 10.
Terylene is an example of …………..
(a) polyamide
(b) polythene
(c) polyester
(d) poly saccharide
Answer:
(c) polyester

Question 11.
Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

Answer:

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?
(a) HDPE
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 6
(d) PHBV
Answer:
(d) PHBV

Question 13.
Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is ………….
(a) ethane
(b) prop – 2 – enenitrile
(c) chioroethene
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane
Answer:
(d) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrafluoroethane

Question 14.
Assertion: 2 – methyl – I ,3 – butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber
Reason: Natural rubber is formed through aniònic addition polymerisation.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(c) assertion is true but reason is false

Question 15.
An example of antifertility drug is ………….
(a) novesirol
(b) seldane
(c) salvarsan
(d) Chioramphenicol
Answer:
(a) novestrol

Question 16.
The drug used to induce sleep is …………..
(a) paracetamol
(b) bithional
(c) chioroquine
(d) equanil
Answer:
(d) equanil

Question 17.
Which of the following is a co – polymer?
(a) Orlon
(b) PVC
(c) Teflon
(d) PHBV
Answer:
(d) PHBV

Question 18.
The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is ……………
(a) polystyrene
(b) PAN
(c) polyester
(d) polythene
Answer:
(b) PAN

Question 19.
Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
(b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
(c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
Answer:
(d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain

Question 20.
A mixture of chioroxylenol and terpinecol acts as ……………
(a) antiseptic
(b) antipyretic
(c) antibiotic
(d) analgesic
Answer:
(a) antiseptic

II. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which chemical is responsible for the antiseptic properties of dettol?
Answer:
1. Chloroxylenol and

2. Terpineol are the chemicals responsible for the antiseptic properties of dettol. But among these two, chloroxylenol plays more important role. Chioroxylenol is an antiseptic and disinfectant which is used for skin disinfection and cleaning surgical instruments.

Question 2.
What are antibiotics?
Answer:
Antibiotics is a chemical substance produced by one microorganism, that selectively inhibits the growth of another micro organism. Example : penicillins and cephalosporins.

Question 3.
Name one substance which can act as both analgesic and antipyretic.
Answer:
Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a chemical substance which lowers body temperature (to normal) and also reduces body pain. Therefore it acts as both antipyretic and analgesic.

Question 4.
Write a note on synthetic detergents.
Answer:
1. Synthetic detergents are formulated products containing either sodium salts of alkyl hydrogen suiphates or sodium salts of long chain alkyL benzene suiphonic acids.

2. Synthetic detergents are three types. They are

• anionic detergents – sodium lauryl sulphate.
• Cationic detergents – n – hexadecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride.
• Non-ionic detergents – Pentaerythrityl stearate.

3. Synthetic detergents can be used even in hard water, while soaps cannot be used in hard water.

4. The cleansing action of detergents are similar to the cleansing action of soaps.

5. When detergents are dissolved in water its hydrocarbon part attaches itself to grease and oil particles. Whereas its ionic part remains attached to water. Therefore when dirty clothes are agitated in solution of detergents then dirty particles sticks to the hydrocarbon part of detergents and at the same time the water loving ionic part pulls away this dirt from clothes.

Question 5.
How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
Answer:
An tisep tics

1. Antiseptics are chemical substance which prevent the growth of micro organizers and may even kill them but are not harmful to living tissues.
2. They are generally applied to living tissues such as wounds, cuts bulks and diseased surfaces.
3. All the antiseptics are disinfectants.
4. They are not ingested or swallowed.
5. e.g., Povidone – iodine, Benzalkonium – Chloride

Disinfectants

1. Disinfectants are chemical substances which kill microorganism or stop their growth but are harmful to human tissues.
2. Disinfectants are applied to inanimated objects such as floors, drainage system, instruments etc.
3. All the disinfectants are not antiseptics.
4. They can be injected or swallowed.
5. e.g. Alcohol, chlorine compunds.

Question 6.
What are food preservatives?
Answer:
Food preservatives are chemical substances are capable of inhibiting, retarding or arresting the process of fermentation, acidification or other decomposition of food by growth of micro organisms.
Examples:

1. Acetic acid is used mainly as a preservative for preparation of pickles.
2. Sodium meta suiphite is used as preservative for fresh vegetables and fruits.
3. Sodium benzoate is used as preservative for juices.

Question 7.
Why do soaps not work ¡n hard water?
Answer:
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long – chain falty acids. Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions. When soaps are dissolved in hard water, these ions displace sodium or potassium from insoluble calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids. These insoluble salts separate as scum.

This is the reason why soaps do not work in hard water.

Question 8.
What are drugs? How are they classified?
Answer:
A drug is a substance that is used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefits of the recipient. it is used for the purpose of diagnosis, prevention cure or relief of a disease.

Classification of drugs:
Drugs care classified based on their proportions such as chemical structure, pharmacological effect, target system, site of action etc.

1. Classification based on the chemical structure:
In this classification, drugs with a common chemical skelton are classified into a single group. For example, ampicillin, amoxicillin, methiceillin etc. all have similar structure and are classified into a single group called penicillin.

Similarly we have other group of drugs such as opiates, steroids, catecholamines etc. Compounds having similar chemical structure are expected to have similar chemical properties. However, their biological actions are not always similar.

2. Classification based on the pharmacological effect:

• In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on their biological effect that they produce on the recipient.
• For example, the medicines that have the ability to kill the pathogenic bacteria are grouped as antibiotics.
• This kind of grouping will provide the full range of drugs that can be used for a particular disease.

3. Classification based on the target system:

• In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on the biological system (or) process that they target in the recipient.
• This classification is more specific than the pharmacological classification.
• For example, the antibiotics streptomycin and erythromycin inhibit the protein synthesis (target) in bacteria and are classified in a same group. However their mode of action is different.
• Streptomycin inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis, while erythromycin prevents the incorporation of new aminoacids to the protein.

4. Classification based on the site of action:

1. The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors etc, which are referred as drug targets.
2. We can classify the drug based on the drug target with which it binds.
3. This classification is highly specific compared to the others. These compounds often have a common mechanism of action, as the target is the same.

Question 9.
How the tranquilizers work in body?
Answer:

1. They are neurologically active drugs.
2. Tranquilizer acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransitter dopamine in the brain.
3. This drug is used for treatment of stress anxiety, depression, sleep disorders and severe mental diseases like schizophrenia.

 

Question 10.
Write the structural formula of aspirin.
Answer:

Question 11.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents.
Answer:
Mechanism of cleansing action of soaps and detergents:
1. The cleansing action of both soaps and detergents from their ability to lower the surface tension of water, to emulsify oil or grease and to hold them in a suspension in water.

2. This ability is due to the structure of soaps and detergents.

3. In water a sodium soap dissolves to form soap anions and sodium cations. For example, the following chemical equation shows the ionisation of sodium palmitate.

4. A soap anion consists of a long hydrocarbon chain with a carboxylate group on one end. The hydrocarbon chain, which is hydrophobic, is soluble in oils or grease. The ionic part is the carboxylate group which is hydrophilic, is soluble in water.

5. In water, detergent dissolves to form detergent anions and sodium cations. For example the following chemical equations show the ionisation of sodium alkyl sulphate and sodium alkyl benzene sulphate.

6. The following explains the cleansing action of a soap or detergent on a piece of cloth with a greasy stain.

1. A soap or detergent anion consists of a hydrophobic part and a hydrophilic part.
2. Soap or detergent reduces the surface tension of water. Therefore the surface of the cloth is wetted thoroughly.
3. The hydrophobic parts of the soap or detergents anions are soluble in grease.
4. The hydrophilic parts of the anions are soluble in water.
5. Scrubbing or mechanical agitation helps to pull the grease away from the cloth and the grease is broken into smaller droplets.
6. Repulsion between the droplets causes the droplets to be suspended in water, fonning an emulsion.
7. Thus the droplets do not coagulate or,redeposit on the cloth. Rinsing washes away the droplets.

Question 12.
Which sweetening agent are used to prepare sweets for a diabetic patient?
Answer:
Artificial sweetening agents such as,

1. saccharin
2. Alitame
3. Aspartame

can be used in preparing sweets for diabetic patients.

Question 13.
What are narcotic and non – narcotic drugs. Give examples.
Answer:
1. Narcotic drug is an addictive drug that reduces pain, induces sleep and may alter mood or behaviour. Example: Morphine and codeine.

2. Non – narcotic drug are chemical substance (medications) used to control pain and inflammation. They are available at drugstores without a prescription or by prescription when given at higher doses. Example: Acetaminophen and paracetamol.

Question 14.
What are anti fertility drugs? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially drugs are chemical substances which suppress the action of hormones that promote pregnancy. These drugs actually reduce the chances of pregnancy and act as a protection. Antifertility drugs are made up of derivatives of synthetic progesterone or a combination of derivatives of oestrogen and progesterone. Example : Ethynylestradiol, menstranol and norcthynodrel etc.

Question 15.
Write a note on co – polymer.
Answer:

1. A polymer containing two or more different kinds of monomer units is called a co-polymer.
2. Co – polymers have properties quite different from the homopolymers.
3. The structural units of co-polymers are derived from the different monomers may be present in regular, alternation or in random order or strings of several units of one kind may alternate with strings of another.
4. For example, Buna – S, Buna – N, Nylon – 6,6 etc. Buna – S contains styrene and butadiene monomer units.

Question 16.
What are bio degradable polymers? Give examples.
Answer:

1. The materials that are readily decomposed by micro organisms in the environment are called biodegradable.
2. Natural polymers degrade on their own after certain period of time but the synthetic polymers do not.
3. The biopolymers which disintergrates by themselves in biological systems during a
4. certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis and to some extent by oxidation are called biodegradable polymers.

Examples:

1. Polyhydroxy butyrate (PHB)
2. Polyhydroxy butyrate – co – hydroxyl valerate (PHBV)
3. Polylactic acid (PLA)

Question 17.
How is terylene prepared?
Answer:
The monomers are ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid or dimethýlterephthalate. When these monomers are mixed and heated at 500K in the presence of zinc acetate and antimonytrioxide catalyst, terylene (or dacron) is formed.

Question 18.
Write a note on vulcanization of rubber.
Answer:

1. Natural rubber is very soft and brisky. it has high water absorption capacity and low tensile strength. Its properties can be improved by a process called vulcanization.
2. Natural rubber is mixed with 3 – 5% sulphur and heated at 100 – 150°C causes cross linking of the cis – 1, 4 polyisoprene chains through disuiphide ( – S – S – ) bonds.
3. The physical properties of rubber can be altered by controlling the amount of sulphur that is used for vulcanization. When 3 to 10% sulphur is used the resultant rubber is somewhat harder but flexible.
4. Following properties of rubber CH₃

Question 19.
Classify the following as linear, branched or cross linked polymers …………………..

1. Bakelite
2. Nylon
3. polvthene

Answer:

1. Bakelite – cross linked polymer
2. Nylon – Linear polymer
3. Polythene – Linear polymer

Question 20.
Differentiate thermoplastic and thermosetting.
Answer:
Difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting:
Thermoplastic

1. They soften on heating and harden on cooling, and they can be remoulded.
2. They consists of linear long çhain polymers and low molecular weights polymers.
3. All the polymer chains are held together by weak Vanderwaals forces.
4. They are weak, soft and less brittle.
5. They are formed by additon polymerisation
6. They are soluble in organic solvents.
7. Example: PVC, polythene, polystrene etc.

Thermosetting

1. They do not soften on heating and they cannot be remoulded.
2. The consist of three dimensional network structure and high molecular weight polymers.
3. All the polymer chains are linked by strong covalent.
4. They are strong, hard and more brittle.
5. They are formed by condensation polymerisation.
6. They are insoluble in organic solvents.
7. Example: Bakelite, melamine etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 1 mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
The substance that is used to modify physiological system for the benefit of the recipient is called …………….
(a) a drug
(b) a dye
(c) a food preservative
(d) soap
Answer:
(a) a drug

Question 2.
Which one interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response?
(a) Detergent
(b) cleansing agent
(c) medicine
(d) food preservative
Answer:
(c) medicine

Question 3.
The ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and a minimum curative dose is called …………..
(a) iso electric point
(b) therapeutic index
(c) critical point
(d) iso thermal point
Answer:
(b) therapeutic index

Question 4.
Which one of the following does not belong to penicillin group?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) catecholamine
(d) mithicillin
Answer:
(c) catecholamine

Question 5.
Which of the following does belongs to penicillin group drugs?
(a) Mithicillin
(b) opiates
(c) steroids
(d) catecholamine
Answer:
(a) Mithicillin

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) atenolol
(c) amlodipine
(d) propranolol
Answer:
(a) erythromycin

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) amoxicillin
(b) cefixime
(c) amlodipine
(d) ampiciflin
Answer:
(c) amlodipine

Question 8.
Which one of the following is an example tbr antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amoxicillin
(c) cefixime
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(a) atenolol

Question 9.
Which of the following does not belongs to antihypertensive drug?
(a) atenolol
(b) amlodipine
(c) propranolol
(d) erythromycin
Answer:
(d) erythromycin

Question 10.
Which one of the following inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis?
(a) streptomycin
(b) erythromycin
(c) atenolol
(d) amlodipine
Answer:
(a) streptomycin

Question 11.
Which one of the following prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein?
(a) atenolol
(b) streptomycin
(c) erythromycin
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(c) erythromycin

Question 12.
Which one of the following inhibits the bacterial growth?
(a) p – amino benzoic acid
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) folic cid
(d) sodium benzoate
Answer:
(b) sulphanilamide

Question 13.
Which of the following is needed by many bacteria to produce folic acid?
(a) PABA
(b) DHPS
(c) TNB
(d) GTN
Answer:
(a) PABA

Question 14.
Which of the following is called PABA?
Answer:
(a) p – nitro benzanilic acid
(b) p – amino butyric acid
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid
(d) p – amido benzene suiphonyl chloride
Answer:
(c) p – amino benzene suiphonic acid

Question 15.
Which one of the following binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function?
(a) antacids
(b) antioxidant
(c) antibiotics
(d) antagonists
Answer:
(d) antagonists

Question 16.
Which of the following is used in the reduced sleepiness?
(a) caffeine
(b) morphine
(c) suiphanilide
(d) p – aminobenzene sulphonic acid
Answer:
(a) caffeine

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used as painkiller?
(a) lodoform
(b) chloropicrin
(c) morphine
(d) coffeine
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 18.
Which of the following is not an example of antacid?
(a) Histamine
(b) cimetidine
(c) ranitidine
(d) erythromycin
Answer:
(d) erythromycin

Question 19.
Which one of the following is used as an antacid?
(a) magnesium hydroxide
(b) aluminium hydroxide
(c) ranitidine
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 20.
Which one of the following is used to treat stress, anxiety, depression, sleep disorder and schizopherenia?
(a) Tranquilizer
(b) antibiotic
(c) analgesic
(d) opioids
Answer:
(a) Tranquilizer

Question 21.
Which one of the following is an example for tranquilizer?
(a) cimetidine
(b) diazepam
(c) histamine
(d) PABA
Answer:
(b) diazepam

Question 22.
Identify the medine that is used to treat stress, anxiety. depression and schizophrenia.
(a) valium
(b) cimetidinc
(c) chiorofom
(d) adenosine
Answer:
(a) valium

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation?
(a) antibiotic
(b) antiseptic
(c) antioxidant
(d) antipyretic
Answer:
(d) antipyretic

Question 24.
Which one of the following is an anti inflamatory drug?
(a) morphine
(b) coheinc
(c) aspirin
(d) histidine
Answer:
(c) aspirin

Question 25.
Which one of the following is used to cure headache, muscle strain, arthritis?
(a) acetaminophen
(b) ibuprofen
(c) aspirin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 26.
Which one of the foLlowing is used in the prevention of heart attacks?
(a) aspirin
(b) ibuprofen
(c) paracetamol
(d) morphine
Answer:
(a) aspirin

Question 27.
Which one of the following is an example of an àntipyretic?
(a) acetyl salicylic acid
(b) methyl salicylate
(c) paraldehyde
(d) diethyl ether
Answer:
(a) acetyl salicylic acid

Question 28.
Which one of the following is a non steroidal anti inflammatory drug?
(a) aspirin
(b) morphine
(c) haloperidol
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(d) ibuprofen

Question 29.
Which of the following is a major tranquilizer?
(a) diazepam
(b) valium
(c) clozapine
(d) alprazolm
Answer:
(c) clozapine

Question 30.
Which of the following is a minor tranquilizer?
(a) haloperidol
(b) clozapine
(c) morphine
(d) valium
Answer:
(d) valium

Question 31.
Consider the following statements
(i) Tranquilizers act on the central nervous system by blocking the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
(ii) Histamines stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
(iii) The antibiotic cimetidine inhibits the bacterial growth.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (¡) & (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 32.
Consider the following statements
(i) Acetaminophen reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin
(ii) opioids relieve pain and produce sleep and are addictive
(iii) Aspirin finds useful in the pain of terminal cancer.
Which of the above statement is/arc not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

Question 33.
Which of the following are addictive and poisonous drug?
(a) ibuprofen
(b) aspirin
(c) morphine
(d) paracetamol
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 34.
Which of the following are used for post operative pain and pain of terminal cancer?
(a) morphine, codeine
(b) ibuprofen, aspirin
(c) methyl salicylate, salicylic acid
(d) histidine, ranitidine
Answer:
(a) morphine, codeine

Question 35.
Which one of the following is an local anaesthetic?
(a) lidocaine
(b) Propofol
(c) iso flurane
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(a) lidocaine

Question 36.
Which one of the following is an example of general anaesthetic?
(a) propofol
(b) isoflurane
(c) ranitidine
(d) omeprazole
Answer:
(b) isoflurane

Question 37.
Identify the intraveneous general anaesthetics?
(a) milk of magnesia
(b) lidocaine
(c) omeprazole
(d) iso fharane
Answer:
(d) iso fharane

Question 38.
Which one of the following is an inhalational general anaesthetic?
(a) procain
(b) iso fiurane
(c) lidocaine
(d) rabeprazole
Answer:
(b) iso fiurane

Question 39.
Which one of the following is an antacid?
(a) omeprazole
(b) rabeprazole
(c) milk of magnesia
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 40.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Propofol cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
(ii) Ibuprofen is used for major surgical procedures.
(iii) Lidocaine is used to relieve burning sensation in the chest / throat area.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 41.
Which one of the following is not an antacid?
(a) propofol
(b) ranitidine
(c) omeprazole
(d) rabeprazole
Answer:
(a) propofol

Question 42.
Which one of the following is used to provide relief from the allergic effects?
(a) cetrizine
(b) ampicillin
(c) erythromycin
(d) milk of magnesia
Answer:
(a) cetrizine

Question 43.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis?
(a) eryLhromycin
(b) azithromycin
(c) penicillin
(d) cetrizine
Answer:
(c) penicillin

Question 44.
Which of the following is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastrointestinal tract and skin infections?
(a) ampicillin
(b) penicillin
(c) terfenadine
(d) azithromycin
Answer:
(d) azithromycin

Question 45.
Which one of the following is used to treat urinary tract infection and respiratory infections?
(a) doxycycline
(b) karamycin
(c) ciprolloxacin
(d) ibuprofen
Answer:
(c) ciprolloxacin

Question 46.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of cholera, acne vulgaris?
(a) fluoro quinolone
(b) aminoglycosides
(c) tetracycline
(d) macrolides
Answer:
(c) tetracycline

Question 47.
Which one of the following is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria?
(a) kanamycin
(b) gentamycin
(c) neomycin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 48.
Which one of the following inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase?
(a) doxy cycline
(b) kanamycin
(c) ciprofloxacin
(d) aspirin
Answer:
(c) ciprofloxacin

Question 49.
Which one of the following is an antiseptic?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) alcohol
(c) menstranol
(d) chlorine compounds
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen peroxide

Question 50.
Which one of the following is used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery?
(a) povidone – iodine
(b) ethynyles tradiol
(c) norethindrone
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
Answer:
(a) povidone – iodine

Question 51.
Consider the following statements
(i) Oestrogen, menstranol are synthetic hormones that suppresses ovulation / fertilisation,
(ii) Norethindrone used in birth control pills.
(iii) Chlorine compounds are used to reduce the risk of infection during surgery.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 52.
Which one of the following is used as a preservative for the preparation of pickles and preservation of vegetables?
(a) sodium acetate
(b) acetic acid
(c) sodium carbonate
(d) salicylic acid
Answer:
(b) acetic acid

Question 53.
Which one is used as preservatives for fresh vegetables and fruits?
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Palm oil
(c) sodium meta suiphite
(d) sulphur dioxide
Answer:
(c) sodium meta suiphite

Question 54.
Which one of the following is used as an emulsifier?
(a) sodium meta suiphite
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) sodium bi carbonate
Answer:
(b) sucrose ester of palmiticacid

Question 55.
Which method is used to preserve food?
(a) pasteurisation & irration
(b) chilling and freezing
(c) drying and dehydration
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 56.
Which one of the following act as an antioxidant?
(a) Palmîtic acid
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene
(c) sodium benzoate
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(b) butyl hydroxy toluene

Question 57.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
(ii) Flouring agents reduces the aroma of the food.
(iii) Antioxidants produce the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) & (iii)

Question 58.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Sorbitol
(b) mannitol
(c) xylitol
(d) cresol
Answer:
(d) cresol

Question 59.
Which of the following is not a sugar substituent?
(a) Butyl hydroxy toluene
(b) Butylated hydroxy anisole
(c) Aspartame
(d) Ascorbic acid
Answer:
(c) Aspartame

Question 60.
Identify the artificial sweeteners.
(a) Saccharin, sucralose
(b) culutaric acid, glycollic acid
(c) BHT, BHA
(d) GTN, TNG
Answer:
(a) Saccharin, sucralose

Question 61.
Glyceryl ester of long chain fatty acids are called …………..
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) antiseptic
(d) antibiotic
Answer:
(a) soap

Question 62.
Which one of the following describes the quality of soap?
(a) TFT value
(b) TFM value
(c) PPM value
(d) TFP value
Answer:
(b) TFM value

Question 63.
Sodium salt of long chain allyl benzene sulphomc acids are called ……………….
(a) soap
(b) detergent
(c) disinfectant
(d) antiseptic
Answer:
(b) detergent

Question 64.
Which one of the following is an anionic detergent?
(a) n – hexa decyl tri methyl ammonium chloride
(b) Peifla erythntyl stearate
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(d) 3 – hydroxy – 2, 2 bis (hydroxy methyl) propyl heptonoate
Answer:
(c) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 65.
Which of the following is an example of catìonic detergent?
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) sodium pahnitate
(c) sodium dodecyl benzene suiphonate
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride
Answer:
(d) n – hexa decyl timethyl ammonium chloride

Question 66.
Which one of the following is an example of non-ionic detergent?
(a) sodium lauryl sulphate
(b) n – hexa decyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate
(d) N, N, N – trimethyl hexa decan – 1 – aminium chloride
Answer:
(c) Penta erythrityl stearate

Question 67.
Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) cellulose, silk
(b) PVC, Polythene
(c) Buna – N, Buna – S
(d) Bakelite, Nylon 6,6
Answer:
(a) cellulose, silk

Question 68.
Which one of the following is a synthetic rubber?
(a) Neoprene
(b) cellulose
(c) silk
(d) poly isoprene
Answer:
(a) Neoprene

Question 69.
Which one of the following is a semisynthetic polymer?
(a) poly isoprene
(b) viscose rayon
(c) nylon
(d) terylene
Answer:
(b) viscose rayon

Question 70.
Which one of the following is not a cross linked polymer?
(a) poly propylene
(b) bakelite
(c) melamine
(d) urea formaldehyde
Answer:
(a) poly propylene

Question 71.
Identify the thermo setting plastic?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) neoprene
(c) melamine
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(c) melamine

Question 72.
Which of the following is a thermoplastic?
(a) bakelite
(b) melamine
(c) urea formaldehyde
(d) polystrene
Answer:
(d) polystrene

Question 73.
Which one of the following is an elastomer?
(a) nylon 6,6
(b) terylene
(c) buna – S
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(c) buna – S

Question 74.
Which one of the following is an example for addition polymer?
(a) polyethylene
(b) PVC
(c) teflon
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 75.
Which one of the following is an example of condensation polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) polyester
(c) PVC
(d) teflon
Answer:
(b) polyester

Question 76.
Which one of the following is not an additional polymer?
(a) poly ethylene
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon 66
(d) teflon
Answer:
(c) Nylon 66

Question 77.
Consider the following statements
(i) Nylon-6, 6 are polymerchains form fibres by hydrogen bonding.
(ii) Thermoplastic become hard on heating and soft on cooling and cannot be remoulded.
(iii) Cellulose and silk are synthetic polymers.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct? ,
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) & (iii)

Question 78.
Which one of the following is used as an free radical initiator in the preparation of polystrene?
(a) hydrogen peroxide
(b) methyl chloride
(c) Benzoyl peroxide
(d) Benzyl peroxide
Answer:
(c) Benzoyl peroxide

Question 79.
Which mechanism is followed in the synthesis of polystrene?
(a) free radical polymerisation
(b) cationic polymensation
(c) Anionic polymerisation
(d) SN¹ mechanism

Question 80.
Which one of the polymer is used as insulation for cables, making toys?
(a) HDPE
(b) LDPE
(c) teflon
(d) orlon
Answer:
(b) LDPE

Question 81.
Which one of the following catalyst is used in the preparation of high density polyethylene?
(a) benzoyi peroxide
(b) zeigler natta catalyst
(c) ammonium per sulphate
(d) hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(b) zeigler natta catalyst

Question 82.
Identify the zeiglar natta catalyst.
(a) TiCI₄ + (C₂H₅)₃AI
(b) (C₂H₅)₄Pb + TiCl₄
(c) AICl₃ + HCI
(d) ZnCI₂ + Cone. HCI
Answer:
(a) TiCI₄ + (C₂H₅)₃AI

Question 83.
Which of the following is used to make bottles and pipes?
(a) LDPE
(b) Terylene
(c) PVC
(d) HDPE
Answer:
(a) LDPE

Question 84.
Which polymer is used in preparing non-sticking utensils?
(a) orlon
(b) PAN
(c) teflon
(d) HDPE
Answer:
(c) teflon

Question 85.
Which one of the following is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters?
(a) orlon
(b) terylene
(c) polyester
(d) nylon
Answer:
(a) orlon

Question 86.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of Nylon 6, 6?
(a) caprolactam + hydrazine
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine
(c) methanal + ammonia
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(b) adipic acid + hexa methylene diamine

Question 87.
Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) polyethylene
(d) terylene
Answer:
(c) polyethylene

Question 88.
Which one is used in the manufacture of nylon-6?
(a) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(b) succinic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid
(d) adipic acid + hexamethylene tetramine
Answer:
(c) ∈-amino carproic acid

Question 89.
Which one of the following is the other name of nylon 6, 6?
(a) poly urethane
(b) urotropine
(c) poly caprolactum
(d) poly hexametheylene adipamide
Answer:
(d) poly hexametheylene adipamide

Question 90.
Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of tyrecards fabrics?
(a) nylon 6, 6
(b) nylon 6
(c) orlon
(d) dacron
Answer:
(b) nylon 6

Question 91.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of terylene?
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid
(b) phthalic auhydride + phenol
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(a) ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid

Question 92.
Name the catalyst used in the preparation of terylene?
(a) zeiglar natta catalyst
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide
(c) benzoyi peroxide
(d) ammonium persuiphate
Answer:
(b) zincacetate + antimony oxide

Question 93.
Which one of the following is used as glass reinforcing material in safety helmets?
(a) nylon
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
Answer:
(c) terylene

Question 94.
What are the raw materials required for the manufacture of bakelite?
(a) ethane 1, 2 – diol + benzene 1, 4 – dicarboxylic acid
(b) phenol + methanal
(c) adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
(d) isoprene + methanal
Answer:
(b) phenol + methanal

Question 95.
Linear polymer of phenol formal dehyde is called
(a) novolac
(b) bakelite
(c) terylene
(d) orlon
Answer:
(a) novolac

Question 96.
Which one of the following is used to prepare combs and pens?
(a) navolac
(b) soft bakelite
(c) hard bakelite
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(a) navolac

Question 97.
Which one of the following thermo setting plastic is used in paints?
(a) melamine
(b) hard bakelite
(c) navolac
(d) soft bakelite
Answer:
(c) navolac

Question 98.
Which one of the following is used for making unbreakable crockery?
(a) phenol formal dehyde
(b) melamine formal dehyde
(c) urea formal dehyde
(d) navolac
Answer:
(b) melamine formal dehyde

Question 99.
What are the raw materials required to prepare Buna – S rubber?
(a) phenol + methanal
(b) melamine + methanal
(c) styrene + butadiene
(d) adipic acid + methanal
Answer:
(c) styrene + butadiene

Question 100.
Which one of the following element is used in vulcanization of rubber?
(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen
(c) carbon
(d) sulphur
Answer:
(d) sulphur

Question 101.
Which one of the following is a natural rubber?
(a) Buna-S
(b) Buna-N
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(c) cis – 1, 4 – poly isoprene

Question 102.
The raw material is used in the manufacture of ieoprene?
(a) isoprene
(b) chloroprene
(c) 1, 3 – buta diene
(d) vinyl chloride
Answer:
(b) chloroprene

Question 103.
Which one of the following rubber is used in the manufacture of chemical container and conveyer belts?
(a) Buna – N
(b) neo prene
(c) Buna – S
(d) poly isoprene
Answer:
(b) neo prene

Question 104.
The raw materials required for the manufacture of Buna – N are …………..
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene
(b) chloro prene + buta – 1, 3 – diene
(c) terephthalic acid + ethane 1, 2 – diol
(d) phenol + methanal
Answer:
(a) acrylonitrile + Buta – 1, 3 – diene

Question 105.
Which of the following are required to prepare Buna – S?
(a) vinyl cyanide + 1, 3 – butadiene
(b) chioro prene + buta -1, 3 – diene
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene
(d) isoprene + styrene
Answer:
(c) buta – 1, 3 – diene + styrene

Question 106.
Which of the following used in medical field such as surgical sutures, 1asma substitute?
(a) PHBV
(b) PLA
(c) PCE
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 107.
Which one of the following is not an example of biodegradable plastic?
(a) polyhydroxy butyrate
(b) poly glycollic acid
(c) polythene
(d) poly caprolactone
Answer:
(c) polythene

Question 108.
Which of the following is an example for bio degradable plastic?
(a) polystyrene
(b) poly vinyl chloride
(c) bakelite
(d) polylactic acid
Answer:
(d) polylactic acid

Question 109.
Which one of the following is used in orthopaedic devices and in controlled release of drugs?
(a) PHB
(b) PHBV
(c) PGA
(d) PLA
Answer:
(b) PHBV

Question 110.
Glycine and e-amino caproic acid polymenses to give …………..
(a) glycyl amine
(b) nylon 6, 6
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6
(d) orlon
Answer:
(c) Nylon – 2 Nylon 6

Question 111.
Which one of the following is used in making automobiles and foot wear?
(a) Bun – S
(b) Buna – N
(c) natural rubber
(d) neoprene
Answer:
(a) Bun – S

Question 112.
Which one of the following is used as an insulator and making conveyor belts?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) neoprene
(d) Buna – N
Answer:
(c) neoprene

Question 113.
Which type of nylon is used in making brushes, synthetic fibres, parachute, ropes and carpets?
(a) nylon – 2
(b) nylon – 6
(c) nylon 6,6
(d) nylon – 2, nylon 6
Answer:
(c) nylon 6,6

Question 114.
Which one is used in making non-breakable cups and laminated sheets?
(a) bakelite
(b) urea formaldehyde
(c) PHBV
(d) teflon
Answer:
(b) urea formaldehyde

Question 115.
Which of the polymer is used in making fibres, safety belts, lyre cords and ropes?
(a) terylene
(b) orlon
(c) Nylon
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(a) terylene

Question 116.
Identify the monomer of nylon – 2.
(a) adipic + Hexamethylene tetramine
(b) caprolactam
(c) vinyl chloride
(d) chioroprene
Answer:
(b) caprolactam

Question 117.
Which of the following is a fibre?
(a) nylon
(b) neoprene
(c) PVC
(d) bakelite
Answer:
(a) nylon

Question 118.
Identify the food preservative which is most commonly used by food producers?
(a) sodium cloride
(b) sodium sulphate
(c) baking soda
(d) benzoic acid
Answer:
(a) sodium cloride

Question 119.
Which of the following act as an antiseptic and disinfectant respectiely?
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol
(b) 1% phenol, 0.2% phenol
(c) 2% phenol, 20% phenol
(d) 20% phenol, 2% phenol
Answer:
(a) 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol

Question 120.
Identify the narcotic which is used as an analgesic.
(a) phenol
(b) equanil
(c) morphine
(d) cetrizine
Answer:
(c) morphine

Question 121.
What type of drug pencillin is?
(a) anaesthetic
(b) antibiotic
(c) antipyretic
(d) analgesic
Answer:
(b) antibiotic

Question 122.
Ranitidine is used as an …………
(a) antioxidant
(b) antiseptic
(c) antacid
(d) antibiotic
Answer:
(c) antacid

Question 123.
Aspirin is chemically named as ………….
(a) methyl salicylate
(b) ethyl salicylate
(c) o – hydroxy benzoic acid
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
Answer:
(d) acetyl salicylic acid

Question 124.
Which of the following can be used an analgesic without causing addiction and any modification?
(a) morphine
(b) n – acetyl paraminophenol
(c) diazepam
(d) tetra hydro catenol
Answer:
(c) diazepam

Question 125.
Tranquilisers are substances used for the treatment of ……………..
(a) cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) mental diseases
(d) blood infection
Answer:

Question 126.
Which of the following represents a synthetic detergent?

Answer:

Question 127.
Which of the following represents a soap?
(a) C₁₇H₃₅COOk
(b) C₁₇H₃₅COOH
(c) C₁₅H₃₁COOOH
(d) (C₁₇H₃₅COO)₂Ca
Answer:
(a) C₁₇H₃₅COOk

Question 128.
Which of the following drug is an analgesic?
(a) iodex
(b) valium
(c) analgin
(d) quinine
Answer:
(c) analgin

Question 129.
An antipyretic is …………
(a) chioro quinine
(b) paracetamol
(c) morphine
(d) ranitidine
Answer:
(b) paracetamol

Question 130.
Streptomycin is effective in the treatment of ……………
(a) tuberculosis
(b) malaria
(c) typhoid
(d) cholera
Answer:
(a) tuberculosis

Question 131.
A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, bronchitis etc is ………………….
(a) streptomycin
(b) aspirin
(c) penicillin
(d) paracetamol
Answer:
(c) penicillin

Question 132.
The substances which affect the central nervous system and induce sleep are called ………………..
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antioxidants
(d) antipyretic
Answer:
(a) tranquilizers

Question 133.
The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is ……………

Answer:

Quesiton 134.
Which of the following acts as an antioxidant in edible oils?
(a) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
Answer:
(d) Vitamin E

Question 135.
Which of the following is an antidiabatic drug?
(a) insulin
(b) inulin
(c) chioroquine
(d) aspirin
Answer:
(a) insulin

Question 136.
Which of the following terms means pain killer?
(a) antibiotics
(b) analgesic
(c) antiseptic
(d) antioxidant
Answer:
(b) analgesic

Question 137.
The artificial sweetener containing chlorine that has the appearance and taste as the sugar and is stable at cooking temperature is …………….
(a) aspartame
(b) saccharin
(c) sucralose
(d) alitame
Answer:
(c) sucralose

Question 138.
The role of phosphate in detergent powder is …………..
(a) control pH level of the detergent water mixture
(b) remove Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions from water that causes hardness of water
(c) provide whiteness to the fabric
(d) more soluble in soft water
Answer:
(b) remove Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions from water that causes hardness of water

Question 139.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) erythromycin
(b) oxytocin
(c) penicillin
(d) tetracycline
Answer:
(b) oxytocin

Question 140.
Commonly used antiseptic ‘dettoP is a mixture of …………..
(a) O – chloro phenozylenol + terpeneol
(b) O – cresol + terpenol
(c) phenol + terpeneol
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol
Answer:
(d) chioroxylenol + terpeneol

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as ……………..
2. The drug which interacts with macro molecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapautic and useful biological response is called ………………
3. ……………..is a substance that is used to modifS’ or explore physiological systems for the benefit of the recepient.
4. Higher the value of …………….. safer is the drug
5. The medicines that have ability to kill the pathogenic bacteria are grouped as ……………..
6. Proteins which act as biological catalysts are called …………….. and those which are important for communication systems are called ……………..
7. Many bacteria need …………….. in order to produce an important coenzyme, folic acid
8. When adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces ……………..
9. Morphine that used as a pain killer suppress the …………….. that causes pain.
10. Histames stimulate the secretion of …………….. by activating the receptor in the stomach wall.
11. …………….. acts on the central nervous system by blocking the neuro transmitter dopamine in the brain.
12. …………….. reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
13. …………….. are drugs that used to reduce fever and prevent platelet coagulation
14. …………….. relieve pain and produces steeps and they are additive.
15. …………….. neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
16. …………….. cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous SyStem.
17. …………….. anaesthetics are often used for major surgical procedures.
18. …………….. provide relief from allergic effects.
19.  …………….. inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
20. …………….. inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
21. …………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms applied to living tissues.
22. …………….. stop or slow down the growth of microorganisms used on inanimate objects.
23. The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called ……………..
24. Flavouring agents added to food enhance the …………….. of the food.
25. …………….. are substances which retard the oxidative deteriorations of food.
26. Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called ……………..
27. Chemically soap is a …………….. or …………….. salt of higher fatty acids.
28. …………….. is a sodium salt alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
29. The quality of soap is described interrns of …………….. and the …………….. quantity in the soap better is its quality
30. …………….. become soft on heating and hard on cooling and they can be remoulded.
31. …………….. donot become soft on heating but set to an infusible mass upon heating.
32. In the manufacture of Teflon. the monomer used is ……………..
33. …………….. is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters
34. …………….. is a monomer which polymerises to give nylon – 6.
35. Para hydroxyl methyl phenols poíymerises to give a linear polymer called ……………..
36. The monomer of natural rubber is ……………..
37. For the vulcanization of natural rubber …………….. is used and heated to 100° 150°C.
38. …………….. polymers are used in medical field such as surgical sutures, plasma substitute.
39. A drug that binds to the receptor site should inhibit its natural function is called ……………..
40. …………….. reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin-induced increase in temperature.

Answer:

1. chemotheropy
2. medicine
3. Drug
4. therapeutic index
5. antibiotics
6. enzymes, receptors
7. PABA
8. sleepiness
9. neuro transmitters
10. HCI
11. Tranquilizers
12. Analgesics
13. Antipyretic
14. Narcotic Analgegics (or) opioids
15. Antacids
16. General anaesthetics
17. Inhalational general
18. Antihistamines
19. Antimicrobials
20. Fluoroquinolones
21. Antiseptic
22. Disinfectants
23. food additives
24. aroma
25. Antioxidant
26. artificial sweatness
27. sodium, potassium
28. Detergent
29. TFM, TFM
30. Thermoplastic
31. Thermosetting
32. tetra fluoroethylene
33. orIon (or) PAN
34. Caprolactam
35. novolac
36. cis – isoprene (OR) 2 – methyl buta- 1, 3 – diene
37. sulphur
38. Biodegradable
39. antagonists
40. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (or) NSAIDS

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 5.

Answer:
(a) 3 2 4 1

Question 6.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

Question 7.

Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 11.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 12.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 13.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

Question 14.

Answer:
(a) 2 4 1 3

Question 15.

Answer:
(b) 2 3 4 1

Question 16.

Answer:
(a) 2 3 4 1

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer the drug.
Reason (R): Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug and the minimum curative dose.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R dOes not explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is.wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R Is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): In all living systems, the biochemical reactions are catalysed by enzymes. This principle is applied to kill many pathogens.
Reason (R): The enzyme actions are highly essential for normal functioning of the system.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 3.
Assertion(A): The drugs acts as an inhibitor to the enzyme catalyst.
Reason (R): A drug molecule that has a similar geometry (shape) as the substrate is administered, it can also bind to the enzyme and inhibit its activity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Aspirin is an antipyretic and useful in the prevention of heart attacks.
Reason (R): Aspirin reduces fever and also prevent platelet coagulation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Opioids produces coma and even death.
Reason (R): Opioids releive pain and produce sleep and drugs are addictive and also poisonous in nature.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Milk of magnesia and aluminium hydroxide are usually used as antacids.
Reason (R): Mg(OH)₂ and Al(OH)₃ are weak bases and they neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Procaine and Lidocaine are local anaesthetics and cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness.
Reason (R): They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 8.
Assertion(A): Antioxidant such as butyl hydroxy toluene (BHT) and butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) are added as good additives.
Reason (R): Antioxidants retard the oxidative deterioration of food which contain fat and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 9.
Assrtion(A): Saccharin, sucralose are artificial sweeteners.
Reason (R): Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 10.
Assertlon(A): Sulphur dioxide and suiphites are also used as food additive.
Reason (R): They act as antimicrobial agents, antioxidant and enzyme inhibitors.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R does not explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Asscrtion(A): During soap preparation, common salt is added to the reaction mixture.
Reason (R): Common salt decreases the solubility of soap and it helps to precipitate out from the aqueous solution.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Higher the TFM quantity in the soap, better is its quality.
Reason (R): The quality of the soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). Grade I soap should have 76% minimum TFM value.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Natural rubber becomes strong and elastic when heated with sulphur.
Reason (R): Natural rubber is mixed with 3 – 5% sulphur and heated at 100 – 150°C causes cross linking of the cis – 1, 4 – polyisoprene chains through disulphide – s – s bonds.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 14.
Assertion(A): Artificial sweeteners are added to the food to control the intake of calories.
Reason (R): Most of the artificial sweeteners are inert and do not metabolise in the body,
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Penicillin (G) is an antihistamine.
Reason (R): Penicillin G is effective against gram positive as well as gram negative bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

Question 16.
Assertlon(A): Enzymes have active sites that hold substrate molecule for a chemical reaction.
Reason (R): Drugs compete with natural substate by attaching covalently to the active site of enzyme.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Transparent soaps are made by dissolving soaps in ethanol.
Reason (R): Ethanol made things invisible.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R Is wrong.

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Sodium chloride is added to precipitate soap after saponification.
Reason (R): Hydrolysis of esters of long chain fatty acids by alkali produces soap in colloidal form.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 19.
Assertlon(A): Aspirin has antipyretic properties.
Reason (R): Aspirin gives relief from pain.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 20.
Assertlon(A): Bithional is added to soap as an antiseptic.
Reason (R): Bithional is a suipha drug and destroy bacteria.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

VI. Find out the correct pair.

Question 1.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, methiceillin, cetrizine, cephalosporin.
Answer:
Cetrizine. It is an antihistamine whereas others belongs to penicillin group.

Question 2.
Aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, erythromycin, cimetidine, ranitidine.
Answer:
Erythromycin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antacids.

Question 3.
Halo peridol, clozapine, aiprazolam, aspirin, diazepam.
Answer:
Aspirin. It is an analgesic and antipyretic whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 4.
Acetamino phenol, ibuprofen, aspirin, morphine.
Answer:
Morphine. It is an opioids (narcotic analgesic) whereas others are non narcotic analgesics.

Question 5.
Morphine, heroin, hydrocodone, codeine, ibuprofen.
Answer:
Ibuprofen. It is a non narcotic analgesic whereas others are narcotic analgesics.

Question 6.
Procaine, lidocaine, cemitidine, propofol, iso flurane.
Answer:
Ccmitidine. It is an antacid whereas others are anaesthetics.

Question 7.
Omeprazole, rabeprazole, iso flurane, ranitidine, cemitidine.
Answer:
Isoflurane. It is an anaesthetic whereas others are antacids.

Question 8.
Cetrizine, levocetrizine, trefenadine, ampicillin, desloratatide.
Answer:
Ampicillin. It is antimicrobial whereas others are antihistamines.

Quesiton 9.
Penicillin, ampicillin, cephalosorins, hydrogen peroxide, carbapenems.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide. it is an antiseptic where as other are antimicrobials.

Question 10.
Hydrogen peroxide, povidone – iodine, chlorine compounds, benzalkonium chloride.
Answer:
Chlorine compounds. It is a disinfectant whereas others arc antiseptic.

Question 11.
Ethynylestradiol, menstranol, hydrogen peroxide, norethindrone, norethynodrel.
Answer:
Hydrogen peroxide. It is an antiseptic and a disinfectant whereas otheres are antifertility drugs.

Question 12.
Sodium benzoate, salt of sorbic acid, acetic acid, sodium bi carbonate, sodium meta suiphite.
Answer:
Sodium bi carbonate. It is a baking soda whereas others are food preservatives.

Question 13.
BIIT, BHA, SO₂, Vitamin E, sorbitol.
Answer:
Sorbitol. It is a sugar substituent where as others are antioxidants.

Question 14.
Saccharin, butyl hydroxy toluene, aspartane, sucralose, alitaine.
Answer:
Butyl hydroxy toluene, It is an antioxidant where as others are artificial sweetening agents.

Question 15.
Cellulose, polyester, silk.
Answer:
Polyester. It is a synthetic polymer whereas others are natural polymer.

Question 16.
PVC, polythene, LDPE, cellulose, HDPE, bakelite
Answer:
Cellulose, It is a natural polymer whereas others are synthetic polymers.

Question 17.
Polythcne, PVC, Bakelite, polystrene.
Answer:
Bakelite. It is thermosetting plastic whereas others are thermoplastic.

Question 18.
Nylon 66, polyethylene, PVC, teflon.
Answer:
Nylon 66. It is a condensation polymer whereas others are addition polymers.

Question 19.
Neoprene, bakelite, Buna – S, Buna – N.
Answer:
Bakelite. It is a thermosetting plastic whereas others are synthetic rubber.

Question 20.
Nylon 66, Nylon 6, terylene, teflon, bakelite, melamine.
Answer:
Teflon. It is an additional polymer whereas others are condensation polymers.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 2 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the term

1. medicine
2. chemotherapy

Answer:
1. Medicine:
The drug which interacts with macromolecular targets such as proteins to produce a therapeutic and useful biological response is called medicine.

2. Chemotherapy:
The specific treatment of a disease using medicine is known as chemotherapy.

Question 2.
Define the term therapeutic index.
Answer:
1. Therapeutic index is defined as the ratio between the maximum tolerated dose of a drug (above which it becomes toxîc) and the minimum curative dose (below which the drug is ineffective).

2. Higher the value of therapeutic index, safer is the drug.

Question 3.
Write about the classification of drugs based on the target system.
Answer:
1. In this classification, the drugs are grouped based on the biological system that they target in the recepient. For example, the antibiotics streptomycin and erthyromycin inhibit the protein synthesis in bacteria and are classified in the same group.

2. However their mode of action is different. Streptomycin inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis, while erythromycin prevents the incorporation of new amino acids to the protein.

Question 4.
Explain about the classification of drug based on the site of action.
1. The drug molecule interacts with biomolecules such as enzymes, receptors which are referred as drug targets. The drug is classified based on the drug target with which it binds.

2. This classification is highly specilic compared to others. These compounds often have a common mechanism of action, as the target is the same.

Question 5.
What are

1. antagonists
2. agonists.

Answer:

1. The drugs which binds to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called antagonists.
2. There are drugs which mimic the natural messenger by switching on the receptor. Those type of drugs are called agonists.

Question 6.
What is the difference between an agonist and antagonist?
Answer:

1. Agonist and antagonist act in opposite directions. Agonist is a substance which combines with cell receptor to produce some reaction that is typical for that substance.
2. On the other hand antagonist is the chemical which opposes or reduces the natural function.

Question 7.
Explain the action of agonist and antagonist with proper example.
Answer:
When adenosine binds to the adenosine receptors, it induces sleepiness. So adenosine is an agonist. On the other hand, the antogonist drug coffeine binds to the adenosine receptor and makes it inactive. This results in the reduced sleepiness (wakefulness).

Question 8.
Why ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide?
Answer:
To treat acidity, weak base such as magnesium hydroxide is used. But this weak base make the stomach alkaline and trigger the production of much acid. This treatment only relieves the symptoms and does not control the cause. But ranitine stimulate the secretion of HCI by activating the receptor in the stomach wall which binds the receptor and inactivate them. So ranitine is a better antacid than magnesium hydroxide.

Question 9.
What is meant by non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs? Give example.
Answer:
Non – steroidal anti inflammatory drugs reduces fever by causing the hypothalamus to override a prostaglandin – induced increase in temperature. eg., ibuprofen.

Question 10.
What are narcotic analgesics? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Narcotic analgesics are opioids that relieve pain and produce sleep. These drugs are addictive. In poisonous dose, these produces coma and ultimately death. eg, morphine, codeine,
2. These drugs are used for short term or long term relief of severe pain. Mainly used for post operative pain. Pain of terminal cancer.

Question 11.
What are general anaesthetics? Give example.
Answer:

1. General anaesthetics are drugs cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system. e.g., propofol, iso flurane.
2. They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 12.
What are local anaesthetics? Give example. Mention its uses.
Answer:

1. Local anaesthetics cause loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibre to the brain. e.g., procaine, lidocaine
2. They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

Question 13.
Draw the structure of propofol? Mention its use.
Answer:
Propofol structure:

Question 14.
What are antihistamines? Give example and mention its use.
Answer:

1. Antihistamines block histamine release from histamine – 1 receptors.
2. eg., cetirizine, terfenadine, levocetirizine.
3. It is used to provide relief from the allergic effects.

Question 15.
What are antimicrobials? Mention its function and its uses.
Answer:

1. Antimicrobials inhibits bacterial cell wall biosynthesis.
2. e.g., penicillin, ampicillin.
3. It is used to treat skin infections, dental infections, ear infections, respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, urinary tract infections and gonorrhoea.

Question 16.
Draw the structure of penicillin? Give its use.
Answer:

Penicillin is used to treat all type of infections pneumonia, urinary tract infections.

Question 17.
Draw the structure of ampicillin
Answer:

Question 18.
Write a note about macrolids.
Answer:

1. Macrolids targets bacterial ribosomes and prevent protein production. e.g., erythromycin, azithromycin
2. It is used to treat respiratory tract infections, genital, gastro intestinal tract and skin infections.

Question 19.
What are fluoroquinolones? Give its function and uses.
Answer:

1. Fluoro quinolones inhibits bacterial enzyme DNA gyrase.
2. e.g., clinafloxacin, ciprofloxacin
3. It is used to treat urinary tract infections, skin infections and respiratory infections, pulmonary infections in cystic fibrosis.

Question 20.
What are tetracydines? Mention its function and uses.
Answer:

1. Tetracyclines inhibit the bacterial protein synthesis via interaction with the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. eg., doxycycline, minocycline.
2. It is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease, infections of the respiratory tract, cholera.

Question 21.
What are aminoglycosides? Give its function and uses.
Answer:

1. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thus stopping bacteria from making proteins.
2. It is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria.

Question 22.
What are food additives? Give example.
Answer:

1. The substances which are not naturally a part of the food and added to improve the quality of food are called food additives.
2. e.g., Aroma compounds, antioxidants, preservatives, stabilizers, food colours, buffering substances are food additives.

Question 23.
Explain about antioxidants.
Answer:

1. Antioxidants are substances which retard the oxidative deteriotations of food. Food containing fats and oils is easily oxidised and turn rancid, .
2. To prevent the oxidation of fats and oils, chemical BHT (butyl hydroxy toluene), BHA (butylated hydroxy anisole) are added as antioxidants.
3. These materials readily undergo oxidation by reacting with free radicals generated by the oxidation of oils there by stop the chain reaction of oxidation of food.
4. Sulphur dioxide, suiphites are also used as antioxidant and also act as antimicrobial agents and enzyme inhibitors.

Question 24.
What are sugarsubstituents? Give example.
Answer:
The compounds that are used like sugars for sweetening, but are metabolised without the influence of insulin are called sugar substituents. e.g., sorbitol, xylitol, mannitol.

Question 25.
What are artificial sweetening agents? Give example.
Answer:
Synthetic compounds which imprint a sweet sensation and possess no or negligible nutritional value are called artificial sweeteners. e.g., saccharin, aspartame, sucralose, alitame.

Question 26.
Define TFM value.
Answer:

1. The quality of a soap is described in terms of total fatty matter (TFM value). It is defined as the total amount of fatty matter that can be separated from a sample after spliting with mineral acids.
2. Higher the TFM value in the soap, better is its quality.
3. As per BIS standards, Grade I soaps should have 76% minimum TFM value.

Quesiton 27.
Write a note about natural rubber and give Its structure.
Answer:
1. Rubber is a naturally occuring polymer. It is obtained from the latex that excludes from cuts in the bark of rubber tree.

2. The monomer unit of natural rubber is cis – iso prene (2 – methyl buta – 1,3 – diene). Thousands of isoprene units are linearly linked together in natural rubber. NaturaL rubber is not so strong (or) elastic. The properties of natural rubber can be modified by the process called vulcanization.

Question 28.
How is neoprene prepared? Give its use.
Answer:
1. The free radical polymerisation of the monomer 2 – chloro buta 1,3 – diene (chioroprene) gives neoprene.

2. It is used in the manufacture of chemical container, conveyer belts.

Question 29.
How Is Buna – N prepared? Give its use.
Answer:
1. Buna – N is prepared by the polymerisation of acrylonitile and buta – 1, 3 – diene

2. It is used in the manufacture of hoses and tank linings.

Question 30
How would you prepare Buna – S? Give its use.
Answer:
Buna – S is prepared by the polymerisation of buta – 1, 3 – diene and styrene in the ratio of 3 : 1 in the presence of sodium.

Uses:
It is used in making pneumatic tires in shoe heels and soles, and in gaskets.

Question 31.
How will you prepare PHBV? Give its use?
Answer:
1. The biodegrable polymer PHBV (Poly hydroxy butyrate-co hydroxyl valerate) is prepared by the polymerisation of monomers 3 – hydroxy butanoic acid and 3 – hydroxy pentanoic acid.

2. It is used in orthopacdic devices añd in controlled release of drugs.

Question 32.
How would you prepare Nylon – 2 – Nylon – 6 polymers?
Answer:
Nylon – 2 – Nylon 6 is a co polymer which contains polyamide linkages. It is obtained by the condensation polymerisation of monomers glycine and E-amino caproic acid.

Question 33.
What are natural and synthetic polimers? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
Natural polymers:
Polymers which are found in nature, i.e., in animal and plants are called natural polymers. For example, proteins, starch, cellulose etc.

Synthetic polymers:
Man – made polymers are called synthetic polymers. For example plastics, synthetic fibres.

Question 34.
Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.
Answer:
Homopolyers:
Polymers whose repeating structural units are dervied from only one type of monomer units are called homopolymers. For example, polythene, PVC, PAN etc.

Copolymers:
Polymers whose repeating units are derived from two or more types of monomer molecules are called co-polymers. For example, l3una – S, Buna – N, Nylon 6, 6 etc.

Question 35.
How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymerisation?
Answer:
Addition polymerisation:
In this type of polymerisation, a large number of molecules of same or different monomers simply add to the other unit, leading to the formation of macromolecule. Addition polymerisation generally occurs among molecules containing double and triple bonds.

Condensation polymerisation:
In this type of polymerisation two or more bifunctional molecules undergo a series of independent condensation reactions usually with the elimination of simple molecules like water, alcohol, ammonia etc.

Question 36.
What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon – 6 and Nylon 6, 6?
Answer:
Nylon 6 – Caprolactam. Nylon 6,6 – Adipic acid and Hexamethylenediamine

Question 37.
Write the names and structure of the monomers of the following polymers:

1. Buna – S
2. Buna – N
3. Dacron
4. Neoporene

Answer:
1. Butadiene, CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂ ; Styrene, C₆H₅ – CH = CH₂

2. Butadiene, CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂ ; Acrylonitrile,

3. Terephthalic acid, ; Ethylene glycol (Ethane – 1, 2 – diol)

4. Chloroprene, ; 2 – Chloro – 1, 3 – butadine is the monomer of neoprene.

Question 38.
How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
Answer:
Dacron is obtained by condensation polymerisation of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid with the elimination of water molecules:

Question 39.
What is a biodegradable polymer? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.
Answer:
Polymers which disintegrate by themselves over a period of time due to environmental degradation by bacteria, etc. are called biodegradable polymers. Example: PHBV (poly hydroxy butrate – co – β hydroxyvalcrate)

Question 40.
What is the difference between elastomers and fibres? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Elastomers

1. These are rubber like solids with elastic properties.
2. These are held by the weak inter – molecular forces.
3. Example: Buna-S and Buna-N.

Fibres

1. These are th thread forming solids which possess high tensile strength and high modulus.
2. These are held together by strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding.
3. Example: Nylon 6, 6 and polyesters (terylene)

Question 41.
What are thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Thermoplastics:
Thermoplastics are linear polymers which can be repeatedly softened on heating and hardened on cooling and hence can be used again and again without any change in chemical composition and mechanical strength.

Thermosetting polymers:
Thermosetting polymers, are permanently setting polymers. On heating in a mould, they get hardened and set and cannot be softened again. This hardening on heating is due to cross linking between different polymeric chains which give rise to a three dimensional network solid. Example – Bakelite.

Question 42.
Differentiate between addition and condensation polymers based on the mode of polyrnerisation. Give one example of each type. 1
Answer:
Addition polymers

1. They are formed by adding monomers to a growing polymer chaìn without loss of any molecule.
2. They are formed from unsaturated compounds.
3. Example: Polyethene, polypropene.

Condensation polymers

1. They are formed by combining monomers together with the loss of small molecules like H₂O, NH₃, CO₂ etc.
2. Monomers have di or polyfunctional groups.
3. Example: Nylon – 6, 6, Nylon – 6, Terylene.

Question 43.
Distinguish between ‘chain growth potymerisatlon and step growth polymerisation’ and give one example of each.
Answer:
Chain growth polymerisation

1. Only one repeating unit is added at a time.
2. Reaction is fast and polymer is formed at once. Example – polythene.

Step growth polymerisatlon

1. Any two species present can react.
2. Polymer is formed in gradual steps. Examply – Nylon-6, 6.

Question 44.
How are biopolymers more beneficial than synthetic polymers?
Answer:
Durability of synthetic polymers is advantageous, however it presents a serious waste disposable problem. In renewal of the disposable problem, biodegradable polymers are useful to us. Biopolymers arc safe in use. They disintegrate by themselves in biological system during a certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis and to some extent by oxidation and hence, are biodegradable. As a result, they do not cause any pollution.

Question 45.
Give the method of preparation of polyacrylonitrile?
Answer:
The addition polymerisation of acrylonitrile in the presence of a peroxide catalyst leads to the formation of polycrylonitrile. It is used as a substitute for wool in making fibres such as orlon or acrilan.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 3 mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the structures of

1. Suiphanilamide
2. p – nltro benzoic acid

Answer:
1. Suiphanilamide

2. p – nitro benzoic acid:

Question 2.
Draw the structure of

1. Adenosine (Agonist)
2. Caffeine (Antagonist)

Answer:
1. Adenosinc (Agonist)

2. Caffeine (Antagonist)

Question 3.
Explain about

1. Analgesics
2. Antlinflammatory drugs
3. Antipyretlcs

Answer:
1. Analgesics:
They alleviate pain by reducing local inflammatory response. They reduce the pain without causing impairment of consciousness.
Example: Paracetamol (Crocin).

2. Anti inflammatory drug:
They are used for short term pain relief and for modest pain like head ache, muscle strain, bruising or arthritis.
Example: Ibuprofen, Aspirin.

3. Antipyretics:
These drugs have many effects such as reducing fever, and preventing platelet coagulation.
Example: Aspirin.

Question 4.
Explain about anaesthetics with their types.
Answer:
1. Local anaesthetics: It causes loss of sensation in the area in which it is applied without losing consciousness. They block pain perception that is transmitted via peripheral nerve fibres to the brain. Example: Procaine, Li do Caine. They are often used during minor surgical procedures.

2. General anaesthetics:
They cause a controlled and reversible loss of consciousness by affecting central nervous system.
Example: Propofol, Isoflurane. They are often used for major surgical procedures.

Question 5.
Draw the structure of

1. procaine
2. Lidocaine

Answer:
1. Procaine

2. Lidocaine

Question 6.
Explain about antacids?
Answer:

1. Antacids neutralise the acid in the stomach that causes acidity.
2. They are used to relieve burning sensation in the chest, throat area caused by acid reflux. Example – Milk of magnesia, alumminium hydroxide, Ranitidine, Cemitidino, Omeprazole, Rabeprazole.

Question 7.
Distinguish between Antiseptic and Disinfectants.
Answer:
1. Antiseptic:
They are the drugs used to stop (or) slow down the growth of micro organism and they are applied to living tissue (body). Example: H₂O₂.

2. Disinfectant:
They are the drugs used to stop or slow the growth of micro organism and they are applied on inanimate objects (non living surfaces). Example: Chlorine compounds.

Question 8.
What are the advantages of food additives?
Answer:

1. Uses of preservatives reduce the product spoilage and extend the shelf-life of food.
2. Addition of vitamins and minerals reduces the mall nutrient.
3. Flavouring agents enhance the aroma of the food.
4. Antioxidants prevent the formation of potentially toxic oxidation products of lipids and other food constituents.

Question 9.
Differentiate soap and detergents?
Answer:
Soap

1. Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid.
2. Soaps are made from animal (or) plant fats and oils.
3. Soaps have lesser cleansing action.
4. Soaps are bio degradable.
5. Soaps are less effective in hard water.
6. They have a tendency to form a scum in hard water.
7. Example: Sodium palmitate.

Detergent

1. Detergent is sodium salt of alkyl hydrogen sulphate or alkyl benzene suiphonic acid.
2. Detergents are made from petrochemicals.
3. Detergents have more cleansing action.
4. Detergents are non – bio degradable.
5. Detergents are more effective even in hard water.
6. They do not form scum with hard water.
7. Example: Sodium lauryl sulphate.

Question 10.
What is LDPE? Give its preparation and uses.
Answer:
1. LDPE is low density poiy ethylene. It is formed by heating ethene at 2000 to 300°C under oxygen as a catalyst. This reaction follows free radical mechanism. The peroxide formed from oxygen acts as a free radical initiator.

2. LDPE is used as insulation for cables, making toys.

Question 11.
What is HDPE? Cive its preparation and use.
Answer:

1. IIDPE is high density polyethylene. it is prepared by the polymerisation of ethylene at. 373k and 6 to 7 atm. using zeiglar Natta Catalyst)
2. 
3. It is used to make bottles, pipes.

Question 12.
What is Orlon? Give its preparation and use.
Answer:
1. Orlon is poiy acrylonitrite (PAN). It is prepared by the addition of polymerisation of vinyl cyanide using a peroxide initiator.

2.

3. It is used as a substitute of wool for making blankets, sweaters etc.

Question 13.
How will you prepare Nylon 6,6.? Give its use.
Answer:
1. Nylon 6,6 can be prepared by mixing equimolar adipic acid and hexamethylene diaminc. With the elimination of water to form amide bonds.

2.

3. It is used in textiles, manufacture of cards.

Question 14.
How will you prepare Nylon – 6? Give its use.
1. Capro tactum on heating at 533k in an inert atmosphere with traces of water gives E amino caproic acid which polymerises to give Nylon 6.

2.

3. It is used in the manufacture of tyre cards, fabrics.

Question 15.
What is bakeite? How is it prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
1. Bakelite is a thermo setting plastic. It is prepared from the monomers such as phenol and formaldehyde. The condensalion polymerisation take place in the presence of acid or base catalyst.

2. Phenol reacts with methanal to form ortho or para hydroxyl methyl phenols which on further reaction with phenol gives linear polymer called novolac. Novolac on further healing with formaldehyde undergoes cross linkages to form bakelite.

3.

4.

1. Novolac is used in paints.
2. Soft bakelites are used in making glue for binding laminated wooden planks and in varnishes.
3. Hard bakelites are used to prepare combs, pens.

Question 16.
How Is melamlue prepared? Give its use?
Answer:
Melamine and formaldehyde are the monomers. They undergo condensation polymerisation to form melamine formaldehyde resin.

Uses : It is used in making unbreakable crockery.

Question 17.
How is urea formaldehyde prepared?
Answer:
It is formed by condensation polymerisation of the monomers urea and formaldehyde. Uses – it is used in decorative laminates, textiles, wrinkle resistant fabrics, paper and glue wood.

Question 18.
Mention one use of each of the following:

1. Ranitidine
2. Paracetamol
3. Tincture of iodine.

Answer:

1. Rnitidine is used as an antacid.
2. Paracetamol is used to bring down the body temperature during high fever.
3. Tincture of iodine is used as an antiseptic. It is 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol and water.

Question 19.
Describe the following with suitable examples:

1. Preservatives
2. Artificial sweetening agents.

Answer:
1. Preservatives:
Preservatives are the substances which are used to prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. Examples – Sodium benzoate, Common salt.

2. Artificial sweetening agents:
These are the chemical substances which are used to create sweet taste in food items in place of sugar.

Question 20.
Give one important use of each of the following:

1. Bithional
2. Chioramphenicol
3. Streptomycin
4. Paracetamol

Answer:

1. Bithional is added to soap so as to impart antiseptic properties to the soap.
2. Chioramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic used in curing typhoid, meningitis.
3. Streptomycin is used for the treatment of T.B (Tuberculosis).
4. Paracetamol is an antipyretic used in bringing down temperature in high fever.

Question 21.
What are detergents? How are they classified? Why are detergents preferred over soaps?
Answer:
Detergents are suiphonate or hydrogen sulphate salts of long chain hydrocarbons containing 12-18 carbon atoms.
Types of detergents

1. Cationic detergents
2. Anionic detergents
3. Non-ionic detergents

Advantages of detergents over soaps: Unlike soaps they work well even with hard water. They can work well even in acidic water. They are more effective than soaps.

Question 22.

1. What class of drug is Ranitidine?
2. If water contains dissolved Ca²⁺ ions, out of soaps and synthetic detergents, which will you use for cleaning clothes?
3. Which of the following is an antisepctic? 0.2% phenol, 1% phenol.

Answer:

1. It is an antacid.
2. In this case we use synthetic detergents because it give foam with hard water.
3. 0.2% solution of phenol acts as antiseptic.

Question 23.
Define the following by giving one example of each:

1. Antiseptics
2. Antioxidants
3. Narcotic analgesics

Answer:

1. Antiseptics are the chemicals applied to the living tissues either to kill or prevent the growth of micro organisms. Example : dettol.
2. Antioxidants are the compounds which retards the action of oxygen on food and reduces its rate of decomposition by oxidation. Example: BHA.
3. Narcotic analgesics are the chemicals used for the relief of pst operative pain. Example – morphine.

Question 24.
In order to wash clothes which cleaning agent what will you prefer and why: soap or synthetic detergents? Give one advantage of soaps and synthetic detergents each.
Answer:
Soaps have straight hydrocarbon chains and are easily degraded by bacteria present in the sewage water and hence, do not cause water pollution. Most of the detergents are non – biodegradable and hence cause water pollution of rivers and waterways. So, one will prefer soap.

Question 25.
Name the action of the following on the human body.

1. Aspirin
2. Penicillin
3. Phenacetin
4. Morphine
5. Analgin
6. Luminal
7. Seconal
8. Streptomycin

Answer:

1. Aspirin is an analgesic which is used for relieving pain. It also prevents heart attack.
2. Penicillin is an antibiotic used against large number of infections caused by various cocci, gram positive bacteria, etc. It is an effective drug for pneumonia, bronchitis, sore throat.
3. Phenacetin is an antipyretic drug used to bring down the temperature of body in high fever.
4. Morphine is an strong analgesic. It is a narcotic drug. It cause addiction. It gives relief from acute pain, induce sleep and unconsciousness in higher doses.
5. Analgin is an antipyretic and analgesic. It brings down the temperature of body in fever and give relief from pain.
6. Luminal produces sleep and it is a habit forming drug. It is also called a sedative tranquilliser.
7. Seconal is an antidepressant (tranquiliser). Sometimes the patients are highly depressed and loses self – confidence. This drug produces feeling of well being and improved efficiency.
8. Streptomycin is used as an antibiotic. It is used to cure tuberculosis.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life 5 mark Questions

Question 1.
Explain free radical polymerisation with example.
Answer:
1. When alkenes are heated with free radical initiator such as benzoyl peroxide, they undergo polymerisation reaction. For example, styrene polymerises to polystrene when it is heated with a peroxide initator. The mechanism involves the following steps.

2. Initiation – Formation of free radical.

3. Propagation step.

4. Chain growth will continue with the successive addition of several thousands of monomer units.

5. Termination:
The above chain reaction can be stopped by stopping the supply of monomer or by coupling of two chains or reaction with an impurity such as oxygen.

Question 2.
How are polymers classified on the basis of forces operating between their molecules? To which of these classes does nylon-6,6 belong?
Answer:

1. Elastomers: The polymer chains are held together by weak intermolecular forces. Example – Buna – S, Buna – N, Neoprene.
2. Fibres: They have strong forces of attraction. Example – Polymides, (Nylon 6,6), polyesters.
3. Thermoplastics: They are long chain molecules capable of repeatedly softening on heating and hardening on cooling. Example – Polythene, polystyrene.
4. Thermosetting plastics: They do not become soft on heating and cannot be remoulded. Example – Bakelite, Nylon – 6,6, belong to fibres.

Common Errors

1. Medicines – Molecular fonnula are not given only structural fotmula are drawn.

Rectifications

1. It is written by counting the C, H, O, N in the compound. For example. Aspirin on Acetyt salicylic acid.

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chapter 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Text Book Evaluation

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following reagent can be used to convert nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) Sn / HCl
(b) ZnHg / NaOH
(c) LiAIH₄
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Sn / HCl

Question 2.
The method by which aniline cannot be prepared is ……………
(a) degradation of benzamide with Br₂ / NaOH
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.
(c) Hydrolysis of phenylcyanide with acidic solution
(d) reduction of nitrobenzene by Sn / HCI
Answer:
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.

Question 3.
Which one of the following will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction?
(a) CH₃CONHCH₃
(b) CH₃CH₂CONH₂
(c) CH₃CONH₂
(d) C₆H₅CONH₂
Answer:
(a) CH₃CONHCH₃
Only primary amides undergo hoffmann bromamide reaction

Question 4.
Assertion : Acetamide on reaction with KOH and bromine gives acetic acid
Reason : Bromine catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide.
(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion,
(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false
(d) both assertion and reason are false
Answer:
(d) both assertion and reason are false

Question 5.

(a) bromomethane
(b) a – bromo sodium acetate
(c) methanamine
(d) acetamide
Answer:
(c) methanamine

Question 6.
Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

Answer:
(c) (CH₃)₃CNO₂ – 3⁰ nitroalkane

Question 7.
this reaction is known as ………………
(a) Friedel – crafts reaction
(b) HVZ reaction
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 8.
The product formed by the reaction an aldehyde with a primary amine
(a) carboxylic acid
(b) aromatic acid
(c) schiff ‘s base
(d) ketone
Answer:
(c) schiff ‘s base

Question 9.
Which of the following reaction is not correct.

Answer:

P – nitrosation takes places, the product is

Question 10.
When aniline reacts with acetic anhydride the product formed is …………….
(a) o – aminoacetophenone
(b) m – aminoacetophcnone
(c) p – aminoacetophenone
(d) acetanilide
Answer:
(d) acetanilide

Question 11.
The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amine solution is ………….
(a) N(CH₃)₃ > N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)H₂ > NH₃
(b) N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)₃ > NH₃
(c) NH₃ > N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)₃
(d) N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₃ > NH₃
Answer:
(d) N(CH₃)₂H > N(CH₃)H₂ > N(CH₃)₃ > NH₃

Question 12.

(a) H₃PO₂ and H₂O
(b) H⁺ / H₂O
(c) HgSO₄ / H₂SO₄
(d) Cu₂Cl₂
Answer:
(a) H₃PO₂ and H₂O

Question 13.

(a) C₆H₅ – OH
(b) C₆H₅ – CH₂OH
(c) C₆ H₅ – CHO
(d) C₆H₅NH₂
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅ – OH

Question 14.
Nitrobenzene on reaction with at 80 – 100°C forms which one of the following products?
(a) 1, 4 – dinitrobenzene
(b) 2, 4, 6 – tirnitrobenzene
(c) 1, 2 – dinitrobenzene
(d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene
Answer:
(d) 1, 3 – dinitrobenzene

Question 15.
C₅H₁₃N reacts with HNO₂ to give an optically active compound – The compound is …………..
(a) pentan – 1 – amine
(b) pentan – 2 – amine
(c) N,N – dimethylpropan – 2 – amine
(d) N – methylbutan – 2 – amine
Answer:
(d) N – methylbutan – 2 – amine

Question 16.
Secondary nitro alkanes react with nitrous acid to form …………..
(a) red solution
(b) blue solution
(c) green solution
(d) yellow solution
Answer:
(b) blue solution

Question 17.
Which of the following amines does not undergo acetylation?
(a) t – butylamine
(b) ethylamine
(c) diethylamine
(d) triethylamine
Answer:
(d) triethyl amine (3°amine)

Question 18.
Which one of the following is most basic?
(a) 2, 4 – dichloroaniline
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
(c) 2, 4 – dinitroaniline
(d) 2, 4 – dibromoaniline
Answer:
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
CH₃ is a +1 group, all other – I group. +1 group increase the electron density on NH₂ and hence increases the basic nature.

Question 19.
When

is reduced with Sn / HCI the pair of compounds formed are ………..
(a) Ethanol, hydrozylamme hydrochloride
(b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide
(c) Ethanol, NH₂OH
(d) C₃H₅NH₂, H₂O
Answer:
(a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine hydrochloride

Question 20.
TUPAC name for the amine
is ………………
(a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3 – methyl pentane
(b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3 – amino pentane
(c) 3 – N, N – trimethyl pentanamine
(d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl amino) – 3 – methyl pentane
Answer:
(d) 3 – (N, N – Dimethyl amino) – 3 – methyl pentane

Question 21.

Product ‘P’ in the above reaction is ………………

Answer:

Question 22.
Ammonium salt of bcnzoic acid is heated strongly and the product so formed is reduced and then treated with NaNO₂ / HCl at low temperature. The final compound formed is ……………
(a) Benzene diazonium chloride
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) Nitrosobenzene
Answer:
(b) Benzyl alcohol

Question 23.
Identify X in the sequence give below.
+ Methanoic acid

Answer:

Question 24.
Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is ……………..

Answer:

Question 25.
The major product of the following reaction


Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write down the possible isomers of lthe C₄H₉NO₂ give their IUPA names.
Answer:

Question 2.
There are two isomers with the formula CH₃NO₂. How will you distinguish between them?
Answer:
CH₃NO₂ has two isomers. They are
1. CH₃ – NO₂ (Nitromethane)
2.

Question 3.
What happens when

1. 2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCI
2. Nitrobenezen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium.
3. Oxidation of tert – butylamine with KMnO₄
4. Oxidation of acetoneoxime with triuluoroperoxy acetic acid.

Answer:
1. 2 – Nitropropane boiled with HCI:
2 – nitropropane upon hydrolysis with boiling HCl give a ketone (2 – propanone) and nitrous oxide.

2. Nitrobenezen electrolytic reduction in strongly acidic medium:
Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives aniline but in strongly acidic medium, it gives p – aminophenol obviously through the acid – cataLysed rearrangement of the initially formed phenyihydroxylamine.

3. Oxidation of tert – butylamine with XMnO₄:
In general, primary amines, in which the – NH₂ group is attached to a tertiary carbon can be oxidised with KMnO₄ to the corresponding nitro compound in excellent yield. Therefore 3° – butylamine oxidised to give 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane.

4. Oxidation ofacetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid:
Oxidation ofacetoneoxime with trifluoroperoxy acetic acid gives 2 – nitropropane.

Question 4.
How will you convert nitrobenzene into

1. 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
2. o and p – nitrophenol
3. m – nitro aniline
4. azoxybenzene
5. hydrozabenzene
6. N – phenylhydroxylamine
7. aniline

Answer:
1. Conversion of nitrobenzene into 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene:

2. Conversion of nitrobenzene into o and p – nitrophenol:
(a) Method I:
Nitrobenzene heated with solid KOH at 340 K gives a low yield of a mixture of 0 – and P – nitrophenols.

(b) Method II:

3. Conversion of nitrobenzene into m – nitro aniline:

4. Conversion of nitrobenzene into azoxybenzene:

5. Conversion of nitrobenzene into hydrazobenzene:

6. Conversion of nitrobenzene into N – phenylhydrozylamine:

7. Conversin of nitrobenzene into aniline:

Question 5.
Identify compounds A,B and C in the following sequence of reactions.


Answer:

Question 6.
Write short flotes on the following

1. Hoffmann’s bromide reaction
2. Ammonolysis
3. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
4. Schotten – Baumann reaction
5. Carbylamine reaction
6. Mustard oil reaction
7. Coupling reaction
8. Diazotisation
9. Gomberg reaction

Answer:
1. Hoffmann’s bromide reaction:
When Amides are treated with bromine in the presence of aqueous or ethanolic solution of KOH, primary amines with one carbon atom less than the parent amides are obtained.

2. Ammonolysis:
When Alkyl halides (or) benzylhalides are heated with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, mixtures of 1°, 2° and 3° amines and quaternary ammonium salts are obtained.

3. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis:
Gabriel synthesis is used for the preparation of Aliphatic primary amines. Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic KOH forms potassium salt of phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide followed by alkaline hydrolysis gives primary amine.

4. Schotten – Baumann reaction:
Aniline reacts with benzoylchloride (C₆H₅COCl) in the presence of NaOH to give N – phenyl benzamide. This reaction is known as Schotten Baumann reaction. The acylation and benzoylation are nucleophilic substitutions.

5. Carbylamine reaction:
Aliphatic (or) aromatic primary amines react with chloroform and alcoholic KOH to give isocyanides (carbylamines), which has an unpleasant smell. This reaction is known as carbylamines test. This test used to identify the primary amines.

5. Mustard oil reaction:
When primary amines are treated with carbon disuiphide (CS₂), N – alkyldithio carbonic acid is formed which on subsequent treatment with HgCI₂, give an alkyl isothiocyanate.

6. Coupling reaction:
Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with electron-rich aromatic compounds like phenol, aniline to form brightly coloured azo compounds. Coupling generally occurs at the para position. If para position is occupied then coupling occurs at the ortho position. Coupling tendency is enhanced if an electron-donating group is present at the para – position to  group. This is an electrophilic substitution.

7. Diazotisation:
Aniline reacts with nitrous acid at low temperature (273 – 278 K) to give benzene diazonium chloride which is stable for a short time and slowly decompose seven at low temperatures. This reaction is known as diazotization.

8. Gomberg reaction
Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with benzene in the presence of sodium hydroxide to give biphenyl. This reaction in known as the Gomberg reaction.

Question 7.
How will you distinguish between primary secondary and tertiary alphatic amines.
Answer:

Question 8.
Account for the following

1. Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction
2. Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines
3. pk_b of aniline is more than that of methy lamine
4. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines.
5. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not
6. Amines are more basic than amides
7. Although amino group is o – and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m – nitroaniline.

Answer:
1. Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction:
Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AiCl₃ to form a salt.

Due to the presence of a positive charge on N – atom in the salt the group  acts as a strongly deactivating group. As a result, it reduces the electron density in the benzene ring and which inhibits the electrophilic substitution reaction. Therefore aniline does not under go Friedel – Crafts reaction.

2. Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines:
The diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines due to dispersal of the positive charge on the benzene ring as shown below.

3. pK_b of aniline is more than that of methylamine:
In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N – atom is delocalized over the benzene ring. As a result electron density on the nitrogen decreases. In contrast in CH₃NH₂, +I effect of CH₃ increases the electron density on the N-atom. Therefore, aniline is a weaker base than methylamine and hence its pK value is more than that of methyl amine.

4. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines:
Gabriel phthalimide reaction gives pure 10 amine without any contamination of 2° and 3°-amines. Therefore it is preferred for synthesising primary amines.

5. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not:
Ethylamine when added to water forms intermolecular H – bonds with water. And therefore it is soluble in water. But aniline does not form H – bond with water to a very large extent due to the presence of a large hydrophobic – C₆H₅ group. Hence, aniline is insoluble in water.

6. Amines are more basic than amides:
In simple amines, the lone pair of electrons is on nitrogen and hence available for protonation. In amides on the other hand, the electron pair on nitrogen is delocalised to the carboxyl oxygen through resonance and thus it is not available for protonation. So amines are more basic than amides.

7. Although amino group is o – and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m – nitroaniline:
Nitration is usually carried out with a mixture of conc HNO₃ and conc H₂SO₄. In the presence of these acids, most of aniline gets protonated to form anilinium ion. Therefore, in the presence of acids, the reaction mixture consists of aniline and anilinium ion.

Now – NH₂, group in aniline is O, P – directing and activating while the – NH₃ group is anilinium ion is meta – directing and deactivating. Whereas nitration of aniline (due to steric hindrance at o – position) mainly gives p-nitroaniline, the nitration of anilinium ion gives m – nitro aniline. In actual practice, approximately a 1 : 1 mixture of P and m – nitroaniline is formed.

Question 9.
Arrange the following

1. In increasing order of solubility in water, C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH , C₂H₅NH₂
2. In increasing order of basic strength
   • aniline, p – toludine and p – nitroaniline
   • C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅NH₂, p – Cl – C₆H₄ – NH₂
3. In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase.
   C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₃NH , (C₂H₅)₃N and NH₃
4. In Increasing order of boiling point
   C₂H₅OH , (CH₃)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂
5. In decreasing order of the pK_b values
   C₂H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, (C₂H)₂NH₄ and CH₃NH₂
6. Increasing order of basic strength C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂, (C₆H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂
7. In decreasing order of basic strength
   

Answer:
1. Solubility decreases with increase in molecular mass of amines due to increase in the size of a hydrophobic hydrocarbon part and with decrease in the number of H – atoms on the N – atom which undergo H – bonding.

Now among the given compounds C₆H₅NH₂ has the highest molecular mass of 93 followed by (C₂H₅)₂NH with molecular mass of 73 with C₂H₅NH₂ has the lowest molecular mass of 45. Thus the solubility increases in the order in which molecular mass decreases.

2. (a) The electron – donating groups increases the basic strength of amines while the electron – withdrawing groups decrease the basic strength of amines. Therefore p – nitroaniline is the weakest base followed by aniline while p – toluidine, which has methyl group and therefore it is the strongest base. Basic strength increases in the order. P – nitro aniline < aniline < p – toluidine

(b) Chlorine atom has both – I effect and + R effect since – I effect out weights the + R effect, therefore p – chloro aniline is weak base than aniline. Aikyl groups are electron – donating groups. ”

As a result the electron density on the nitrogen atom increases in the ethylamine and thus they can donate lone pair of electrons niore easily. Therefore Ethylamine is more base than aromatic amines.

Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N – atom over the benzene ring, C₆H₅NH, and C₆H₅NHCH₃ are far less basic than C₂H₅NH₂. Further due to +1 effect of the CH₃ group, C₆H₅NHCH₃ is little more basic than C₆H₅NH₂. Therefore increasing order basic strength is

3. In the gas phase, solvent effects i.e., stabilization of the conjugate acids due to H – bonding, are absent. Therefore, in the gas phase, basic strength mainly depends upon the +1 effect of the alkyl groups. Since the +1 effect increases with the number of ailcyl groups,

therefore the basic strength of the amines decreases as the number of ethyl groups decreases from three in (C₂H₅)₃N to two in (C₂H₅)₂NH to one in C₂H₅NH₂ and zero in NH₃. Basic strength in the gas phase decreases in the order is,
(C₂H₅)₃N > (C₂H₅)₂N > C₂H₅NH₂ > NH₃

4. Since the electro negativity of O is higher than that of N, therefore, alcohols form stronger H – 0bonds than amines. In other words, the boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of amines of comparable molecular masses. Therefore the boiling point of C₂H₅OH (46) is higher than those of (CH₃)₂NH (45) and C₂H₅NH₂ (45).

Further since the extent of H – bonding depends upon the number of H-atoms on the N-atom. Therefore 1° – amines with two H – atoms on the N – atom have higher boiling points than 2° – amines having only one H – atom. Therefore the boiling point of C₂H₅NH₂ is higher than that of(CH₃)₂NH. Increasing order of boiling point is,
(CH₃)₂NH < C₂H₅NH < CH₅OH

5. Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N – atom over the benzene ring, C₆H₅NHCH₃ is far less basic than C₂H₅NH₂, (C₆H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂. Among C₂H₅NH₂ and (C₂H₅), NH, (C₂H₅)₂NH is more basic than C₂H₅NH₂ due to greater +1 effect of the two C₂H5 groups and stabilization of its conjugate acid by H – bonding.

Compare to Ethyl and methyl group, C₂H₅ – group has more +1 effect than CH₃ – group. Therefore methylamine is weak base than ethylamine. Combining all these facts the relative basic strength of these four amines decreases in the order.

(C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > CH₃NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃. Since a stronger base has a lower pK_b value therefore, pK_b values decrease in the reverse order. C₆H₅NHCH₃ > CH₃NH₂ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₅)₂NH

6. Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N-atom over the benzene ring, all aromatic amines are less basic than alkylamines i.e., CH₃NH₂. Presence of electron – donating groups ( – CH₃) on the N – atom increases the basicity of substituted aniline with respect to C₆H₅NH₂.

In (C₆H₅)₂NH, the lone pair of electrons on the N – atom is delocalized over two benzene rings instead of one in C₆H₅NH₂, therefore (C₆H₅)₂NH is much less basic than C₆H₅NH₂. Combining all the three trends together, the basic strength of the four amines increasing in the order.
(C₆H₅)₂NH < C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅N (CH₃)₂ < CH₃NH,

7. Aliphatic amines are more basic than aromatic amines. Therefore CH₃CH₂NH₂ and CH₃NH₂ are more basic. Among the ethylamine and methylamine. ethylamine was experienced more +1 effect than methylamine and hence ethylamine is more basic than methylamine.

Nitrogroup has a powerful electron withdrawing group and they have both – R effect as well as – I effect. As a result, all the nitro anilines are weaker bases than aniline. In P – nitroaniline

both – R effect and – I effect of the NO₂ group decrease the basicity. Therefore decreasing order of basic strength is,

Ethylamine > Methylamine > Aniline > p – nitro aniline

Question 10.
How will you prepare propan – 1 – amine from

1. butane nitrile
2. propanamide
3. 1 – nitropropane

Answer:
1. Preparation of propan -1- amine from butane nitrile.
Butane nitrile treated with acid hydrolysis followed by Hoffmann’s bromamide degradation. gives propan – 1 – amine.

2. Preparation of propan – 1 – amine from propanamide.
When propanamide is treated with LiAIH₄ in the presence of water gives propan – 1 – amine.

3. Preparation of propan – 1 – amine from 1 – nitropropane.

Reduction of 1 – Nitropropane using H₂ / Ni or Fe / HCl gives propan – 1 – amine.

Question 11.
Identify A,B,C and D

Answer:

Question 12.
How will you convert dlethylamine into

1. N, N – dlethylacetamide
2. N – nitrosodiethylamine

Answer:
1. Conversion of diethylamine into N, N – diethylacetamide.

Diethylamine react with acetyichioride in the presence of pyridine to form N, N – diethyl acetamide.

2. Conversion of diethylamine into N – nitrosodiethylamine.

Question 13.
Identify A,B and C

Answer:

Question 14.
Identify A, B, C and D

Answer:

Question 15.
Complete the following reaction

Answer:

Question 16.
Predict A, B, C and D for the follwing reaction.

Answer:

Question 17.
A dibromo derivative (A) on treatment with KCN followed by acid hydrolysis and heating gives a monobasic acid (B) along with liberation of CO₂. (B) on heating with liquid ammonia followed by treating with Br₂ / KOH gives (C) which on treating with NaNO₂ and HCI at low temperature followed by oxidation gives a monobasic acid (D) having molecular mass 74. Identify A to D.
Answer:

Question 18.
Identify A to E in the following frequncy of reactions.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Evaluate Yourself

Question 1.
Write all possible isomers for the following compounds.

1. C₂H₅ – NO₂
2. C₃H₇ – NO₂

Answer:
1. Possible isomers for C₂H₅NO₂ as following

(a) CH₃ – CH₂ – NO₂ – Nitroethane

(b) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – N = O – Ethyl nitrite

(c)

(d) H₂N – CH₂ – COOH – Glycine (amino acid)

(e)

(f)

(g)

2. Possible isomers for C₃H₇NO₂ as follows.

(a) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – NO₂ – 1 – Nitropropane

(b) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – O – N = O – propane – 1 – nitrite

(c)

(d)

(e)

(f) H₂N – CH₂ – CH₂ – COOH – Alanine

Question 2.
Find out the product of the following reactions

Answer:

Question 3.
Predict the major product that would be obtained on nitration of the following compounds.

Answer:

Question 4.
Draw the structure of the following compounds

1. Neopentylamine
2. Tert – butylamine
3. α – amino propionaldehyde
4. tribenzylamine
5. N – ethyl – N – methylhexan – 3 – amine

Answer:
1. Neopentylamine:

2. Tert – butylamine

3. α – amino propionaldehyde

4. tribenzylamine

5. N – ethyl – N – methylhexan – 3 – amine

Question 5.
Give the correct IUPAC names for the following amines.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds Additional Question

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Quesiton 1.
Which one of the following play an important role in bioregulation and neurotransmission?
(a) Acid derivatives
(b) Carbonyl compounds
(c) Organic derivatives of ammonia
(d) Aromatic hydro carbons
Answer:
(c) Organic derivatives of ammonia

Question 2.
Which of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves, skin and red blood cells?
(a) Vitamin B₁₂
(b) Vitamin B₆
(c) Vitamin B₁
(d) Vitamin C
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B₆

Question 3.
Which one of the following is needed to maintain the health of nerves and skin?
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Cobalamine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Histamine
Answer:
(a) Pyridoxine

Question 4.
Which one of the following is act as neurotransmitter?
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Histamine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Cyano cobalamine
Answer:
(c) Dopamine

Question 5.
Which one of the following dilates blood vessels?
(a) Histamine
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Dopamine
Answer:
(a) Histamine

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an example of primary nitro alkane?
(a) 2 – nitropropane
(b) Ethyl nitrite
(c) Nitro ethane
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
Answer:
(c) Nitro ethane

Question 7.
2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane belongs to
(a) 1° nitro alkane
(b) 3° nitro alkane
(c) 2° nitro alkane
(d) nitro arenes
Answer:
(b) 3° nitro alkane

Question 8.
Which of the following is an example for 2° nitro alkane?

Answer:

Question 9.
Which one of the following is an example for nitro arenes?
(a) C₆H₅ – CH₂ NO₆
(b) C₆H₅NH₂
(c) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – NO
(d) C₆H₅NO₂
Answer:
(d) C₆H₅NO₂

Question 10.
The IUPAC name of
is ………………
(a) 1 – nitro butane
(b) 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane
(c) Isobutyl nitrate
(d) 1 – Nitro iso butane
Answer:
(b) 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane

Question 11.
Which one of the following is the structure of 2, 2 – dimethyl – 1 – nitro propane?

Answer:

Question 12.
1 – nitrobutane and 2 – methyl – 1 – mtropropane are belong to ……………..
(a) position isomerism
(b) functional isomerism
(c) Tautomerism
(d) chain isomerism
Answer:
(d) chain isomerism

Question 13.
Which of the following pair shows functional isomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane
(b) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane
(d) 2 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane
Answer:
(b) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite

Question 14.
Which of the following pair shows position isomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro butane and butyl nitrite
(b) Nitro methane and methyl nitrite
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane
(d) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – methyl – 1 – nitro propane
Answer:
(c) 1 – nitro butane and 2 – nitro butane

Question 15.
Nitro methane and methyl nitrite are the examples of ……………
(a) Position isomerism
(b) chain isomerism
(c) metarnersm
(d) Tautomerism
Answer:
(d) Tautomerism

Question 16.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitro form of alkane dissolves in NaOH instantly
(ii) Nitro form of alkane decolourises FeCI₃ solution
(iii) Nitro form of alkane are more acidic
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii)

Question 17.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Aci form of nitro alkanes dissolves in NaOH slowly.
(ii) Aci form of nitro alkane gives reddish brown colour with FeCl₃
(iii) Aci form of nitro alkane’s electrical conductivity is low.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (ii) only
(b) (i) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(a) (ii) only

Question 18.
Which one of the following does not exhibit tautomerism?
(a) 1 – nitro ethane
(b) Nitro methane
(c) methyl nitrite
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane
Answer:
(d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane

Question 19.
Identify the compound which does not exhibit tautomerism?

Answer:

Question 20.
The correct decreasing order of acidity of nitro alkane is …………….

Answer:

Question 21.
Which one of the following mechanism is followed by the reaction of Ethyl bromide with ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite ……………
(a) SN¹
(b) SN²
(c) SNⁱ
(d) E₁
Answer:
(b) SN²

Question 22.
Which one of the following is formed when Ethyl bromide reacts with ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite?
(a) Nitro methane
(b) 2 – Nitro propane
(c) 1 – nitro propane
(d) nitro ethane
Answer:
(d) nitro ethane

Question 23.
Which method is used to separate the mixture of nitroalkane?
(a) Crystallization
(b) zone refining
(c) fractional distillation
(d) sublimation
Answer:
(c) fractional distillation

Question 24.
Which of the following is formed when ethane is heated with conc. HNO₃ at 675 K?
(a) Nitro propane
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Nitro methane
(d) both (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) both (ii) and (iii)

Question 25.
What is the product formed when α – chioro acetic acid is boiled with aqueous solution of sodium nitrite?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Nitromethane
(c) Acetamide
(d) α – chloro acetamide
Answer:
(b) Nitromethane

Question 26.
Which one of the following reagent is used to convert teritary butylamine to tertiary nitro alkane?
(a) Aqueous KMnO₄
(b) Cone HNO₃
(c) Sn / HCI
(d) alcoholic KOH
Answer:
(a) Aqueous KMnO₄

Question 27.
The reagent used in the conversion of acetaldoxime to nitro ethane (1°) is …………
(a) aqueous KMnO₄
(b) trifluoro peroxy acetic acid
(c) alcoholic KOH
(d) Cone. HNO₃
Answer:
(b) trifluoro peroxy acetic acid

Question 28.
Which of the following is called oil of mirbane?
(a) Nitro methane
(b) Nitro propane
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(c) Nitro benzene

Question 29.
On direct nitration of nitro benzene gives ………………
(a) 0 – dinitro benzene
(b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) p – dinitro benzene
(d) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrobenzene
Answer:
(b) m – dinitro benzene

Question 30.
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group by ……………
(a) Caro’s acid
(b) Fuming mixture of conc. HNO₃ + conc. H₂SO₄
(c) NaNO₂ + HCI
(d) Ethanolic KNO₂
Answer:
(a) Caro’s acid

Question 31.
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group by ………….
(a) Caro’s acid
(b) marshall’s acid
(c) Peroxy trifluoro acetic acid
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 32.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitro alkanes have high points because of their highly polar nature
(ii) Alkyl nitrites have lower boiling points than nitro alkanes.
(iii) Nitro alkanes are readily soluble in water due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding formation.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 33.
The reagent used to convert Nitromethane to methyl amine is ……..
(a) Zn/NH₄Cl
(b) Sn/HCI
(c) H₂SO₅
(d) H₂S₂O₈
Answer:
(b) Sn/HCI

Question 34.
The reagent used to convert Nitromethane to N – methyl hydroxylamine is …………
(a) Sn/HCl
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Ni
(d) Pd/BaSO₄
Answer:
(b) Zn/NH₄CI

Question 35.
Which one of the following is formed when ethyl nitrite is treated with Sn/HCl?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethanamide
Answer:
(c) Ethyl alcohol

Question 36.
The product formed when nitro ehtane is boiled with conc. HCl is ……………
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ethyl chloride
(c) Ethanoyl chloride
(d) Amino ehtane
Answer:
(a) Acetic acid

Question 37.
Which one of the following is formed when 2- nitro propane is boiled with conc.HCI?
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Propanoic acid
(c) Propanoyl chloride
(d) Acetone
Answer:
(d) Acetone

Question 38.
Which of the following does not react with conc. HCI?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane
(c) 2 – nitro propane
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(b) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane

Question 39.
Acid (or) Basic hydrolysis of ethyl nitrite gives ………….
(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Ethanol
(d) Aceto nitrile
Answer:
(c) Ethanol

Question 40.
Which one of the following is formed when nitro methane reacts with chlorine and NaOH?
(a) CH₃CI
(b) CH₃COCl
(c) CCI₃NO₂
(d) CHCI₂NO₂
Answer:
(c) CCI₃NO₂

Question 41.
Which one of the following reagent is used to convert Nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) Sn/HCI
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Fe/H₂O_(g)
(d) Zn/NaOH
Answer:
(a) Sn/HCI

Question 42.
Which one of the following is the best reagent used to convert Nitrobenzene into Nitroso benzene?
(a) Sn/HCI
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Fe/H₂O_(g)
(d) SnCl₂ + KOH
Answer:
(c) Fe/H₂O_(g)

Question 43.
Identify the reagent used to convert Nitrobenzene into hydrazo benzene?
(a) Zn/NaOH
(b) Zn/NH₄CI
(c) Sn/HCI
(d) SnCI₂ + KOH
Answer:
(a) Zn/NaOH

Question 44.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with Fe/H₂O_(Steam)?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) Nitroso benzene
(d) Azobenzene
Answer:
(c) Nitroso benzene

Question 45.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with Zn/NaOH?
(a) Phenyl amine
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) Azo benzene
(d) Hydrazo benzene
Answer:
(d) Hydrazo benzene

Question 46.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with SnCI₂/KOH?
(a) Azo benzene
(b) Azoxy benzene
(c) Hydrazo benzene
(d) Nitroso benzene
Answer:
(a) Azo benzene

Question 47.
Which of the following is formed when nitro benzene undergoes electrolytic reduction?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenyl hydroxylamine
(c) p – amino phenol
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 48.
Which of the following can be used to reduce nitrobenzene to aniline?
(a) LiAIH₄
(b) Sn + HCI
(c) Pt/H₂
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 49.
What will be the product formed when nitrobenzene is treated with conc. HNO₃ and conc.H₂SO₄ at 373K?
(a) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene
(b) 1, 4 – dinitro benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene

Question 50.
Which one of the following is formed when nitrobenzene is treated with cone. HNO₃ and H₂SO₄ 473 K?
(a) 1, 2 – din itro benzene
(b) 1, 4 – dintro benzene
(c) 1, 3 – dinitro benzene
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
Answer:
(d) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene

Question 51.
What will be the product formed when 1, 3, 5 – trinito toluene is treated with acidified Na₂Cr₂O₇ and sodalime?
(a) TNB
(b) TNT
(c) TNG
(d) GTN
Answer:
(a) TNB

Question 52.
What is the IUPAC name of

(a) Tertiary butyl amine
(b) Trimethyl amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine
(d) N – methyl ethanamine
Answer:
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine

Question 53.
Which one of the following is called (N – ethyl – N – methyl) propanamine?

Answer:

Question 54.
The IUPAC name of
is ……………..
(a) Methyl iso propyl amine
(b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine
(c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine
(d) propan – 1 – amine
Answer:
(b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine

Question 55.
What is the IUPAC name of

(a) Ethyl methyl isopropylamine
(b) N, N – dimethyl methanamine
(c) N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine
(d) N – ethyl – N – methyl propan -2 – amine
Answer:
(d) N – ethyl – N – methyl propan -2 – amine

Question 56.
Which one of the following is called Hexane – 1, 6 – diamine?

Answer:

Question 57.
Which one of the following is the TUPAC name of CH₂ = CH – CH₂ – NH₂?
(a) Isopropyl amine
(b) Allylamine
(c) 1 – amino propane
(d) prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine
Answer:
(d) prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine

Question 58.
Which one of the following is the structure of phenyl methanamine?

Answer:

Question 59.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Nitrogen atom of amines is trivalent and carries a lone pair of electron.
(ii) Nitrogen atom of amines is Sp2 hybridised.
(iii) Amines posses pyramidal geometry.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 60.
What is the C – N – C bond angle of trimethylamine?
(a) 109°. 5′
(b) 107°
(c) 108°
(d) 108°. 31’
Answer:
(c) 108°

Question 61.
Which one of the following is the geometry of amines?
(a) Tetrahedral
(b) Pyramidal
(c) Planar triangle
(d) square planar
Answer:
(b) Pyramidal

Question 62.
Which one of the following is formed when cyano methane reacts with LiAIH₄?
(a) Ethanamine
(b) Methane
(c) Methanoic acid
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(a) Ethanamine

Question 63.
The reducing agent used in mendius reaction is …………
(a) H₂/Ni
(b) LiAIH₄
(c) Na/C₂H₅OH
(d) Sn/HCI
Answer:
(c) Na/C₂H₅OH

Question 64.
The product formed when methyl isocyanide is reduced by Na(Hg)/C₂H₅OH is …………
(a) Isopropyl amine
(b) Ethanamine
(c) N – methyl methanamine
(d) N – ethyl methanamine
Answer:
(c) N – methyl methanamine

Question 65.
Which one of the following is formed when acetamide reacts with LiAlH₄ and H₂O?
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Ammonium acetate
(d) N – methyl ethanamine
Answer:
(b) Ethylamine

Question 66.
In which reaction acetamide is changed to methylamine by the action of Br₂/KOH?
(a) Gapriel phthalimide synthesis
(b) Hoffmann degration reaction
(c) Mendius reaction
(d) Mustard oil reaction
Answer:
(b) Hoffmann degration reaction

Question 67.
Which one of the reaction is used in the synthesis of aliphatic primary amines?
(a) Hoffmann ammonolysis
(b) Rosenmund’s reduction
(c) Carbylamine reaction
(d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Answer:
(d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

Question 68.
The conversion of ethanol into all types of amines by the action of ammonia along with Alumina is …………
(a) HVZ reaction
(b) Sabatier – mailhe method
(c) Carbylamine reaction
(d) Mendius reaction
Answer:
(b) Sabatier – mailhe method

Question 69.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Amines have higher boiling point than alcohols.
(ii) Lower aliphatic amines are colourless gases whereas higher amines have fish like small.
(iii) Aniline and arylamines are colourless but when exposed to air they become coloured due to oxidation.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 70.
The correct order of basic strength in the case of ailcyl substituted amines is …………

Answer:

Question 71.
The correct order of basic strength in the case of substituted ethyl amines is ………….

Answer:

Question 72.
The relative basicity of amine follows the order as ………….
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine
(b) Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > Arylamine > Alkyl amine > N – aralkylamine
(c) Arylamine Alkyl amine N – aralkylanilne
(d) N – aralkylamine < Arylamine < Ammonia < Alkyl amine < Aralkyl amine Answer: (a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine
Answer:
(a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine

Question 73.
Identify the name of the reaction in which aniline reacts with Benzoyl chloride to form N – Phenyl benzamide?
(a) Hoffmann degradation reaction
(b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(d) Mustard oil reaction
Answer:
(c) Schotten – Baumann reaction

Question 74.
Which one of the product is formed when aniline reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of NaOH?
(a) N – Phenyl benzamide
(b) N – Phenyl ethanamide
(c) Benzamide
(d) N – Benzyl aniline
Answer:
(b) N – Phenyl ethanamide

Question 75.
Which one of the following is formed as product when ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid?
(a) Ethyl nitrite
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethane nitrile
Answer:
(c) Ethanol

Question 76.
Identify X in the following reaction?


Answer:

Question 77.
The reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at low temperature is known as …………
(a) Carbylamme reaction
(b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Sand meyer’s reaction
Answer:
(c) Diazotisation

Question 78.
Which one of the product is formed with N-methyl aniline reacts with nitrous acid?
(a) Anilinium chloride
(b) N – nitroso methyl phenylamine
(c) Benzene diazonium chloride
(d) Benzylamine
Answer:
(b) N – nitroso methyl phenylamine

Question 79.
Which one of the réaction is called Libermann’s nitroso set?
(a) N – methyl aniline Conc.  N – nitroso methyl phenylamine.
(b)  Benzene diazonium chloride.
(c) Aniline + CHCI₃ + 3KOH → Phenyl iso cyanide.
(d) Methyl amine + CHCl₃ + 3KOH → Methyl iso cyanide.
Answer:
(a) N – methyl aniline Conc.  N – nitroso methyl phenylamine.

Question 80.
The conversion of N – methyl aniline into N – nitrosomethyl phenyl amine is known as …………
(a) Carbylamine reaction
(b) mustard oil reaction
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Libermann’s nitroso test
Answer:
(d) Libermann’s nitroso test

Question 81.
Which one of the following reaction is used to identify primary amines?
(a) Schotten – Baumann reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction
(d) Gattermann reaction
Answer:
(b) Carbylamine reaction

Question 82.
The reaction between methylamine and CS₂ is known as ……………
(a) mustard oil reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer’s reaction
(d) Gabriel phthalirnide synthesis
Answer:
(a) mustard oil reaction

Question 83.
Which one of the following is formed when aniline reacts with CS₂ followed by hydrolysis by cone. HCI?
(a) Phenyl isocyanide
(b) phenyl cyanide
(c) Phenvi isothio cyanate
(d) Benzene diazonium chloride
Answer:
(c) Phenvi isothio cyanate

Question 84.
Consider the following reaction.
(i) Aniline does not undergo friedel – crafts reaction
(ii) Aromatic amine on treatment with NaNO₂ + HCI gives diazonium slats.
(iii) Aniline is more basic than ammonia.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 85.
Which one of the following is formed when aniline reacts with cone. H₂SO₄?
(a) Zwitter ion
(b) Acetanilide
(c) Suiphanilic acid
(d) p – sulphonic bcnzoic acid
Answer:
(c) Suiphanilic acid

Question 86.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Benzene diazonium chloride aqueous solution are neutral to litmus.
(ii) The stability of arene diazonium salt is due to the dispersal of the positive charge over the ring.
(iii) Benzenediazonium chloride is reddish brown colour liquid.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (iii) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 87.
Identify the product formed when Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phosphinic acid?
(a) Benzene
(b) Chioro benzene
(c) Phenol
(d) cyano benzene
Answer:
(a) Benzene

Question 88.
The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride into chlorobenzene is known as …………
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Sand meyer reaction
(d) Coupling reaction
Answer:
(c) Sand meyer reaction

Question 89.
Identify X and Y in the following reaction

(a) C₆H₅CI + N₂
(b) C₆H₆ + N₂
(c) C₆H₅CI + NH₄CI
(d) C₆H₅CI + H₂
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅CI + N₂

Question 90.
Which one of the following is formed when benzene diazonium chloride is boiled with water?
(a) Benzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Chiorobenzene
(d) Aniline
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 91.
Complete the following reaction.


Answer:

Question 92.
What is the name of the reaction in which benzene diazonium chloride react with benzene to give Biphenyl?
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(b) Gomberg reaction
(c) Gattermann reaction
(d) Baltz – schiemann reaction
Answer:
(b) Gomberg reaction

Question 93.
Which one of the following reagent reacts with ben.zene diazonium chloride to give biphenyl?
(a) Chioro benzene
(b) Bromobenzene
(c) Benzene
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(c) Benzene

Question 94.
Which one of the following is formed when Benzene dia.zonium chloride reacts with Aniline?
(a) p – hydroxy azo benzene
(b) 2 – phenyl azo – 4 – methyl
(c) Biphenyl
(d) p – amino azo benzene
Answer:
(d) p – amino azo benzene

Question 95.
Which one of the following should react with Benzene diazonium chloride to get orange dye?
(a) Aniline
(b) phenol
(c) 0 – cresol
(d) P – cresol
Answer:
(b) phenol

Question 96.
Aniline + Benzene diazonium chloride → X. Identify X.
(a) orange dye
(b) yellow dye
(c) malachite green dye
(d) madder dye
Answer:
(b) yellow dye

Question 97.
Which one of the following is the IUPAC name of CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂CN?
(a) Propiono nitrite
(b) Butane cyanide
(c) Isobutyro nitnie
(d) Butane nitrile
Answer:
(d) Butane nitrile

Question 98.
Which one of the following is formed when methyl magnesium bromide reacts with cyanogen chloride?
(a) methane nitrile
(b) ethane nitrite
(c) Acetamide
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(b) ethane nitrite

Question 99.
The reagent used in the conversion of CH₃CONH₂ into CH₃CN is …………
(a) Br₂/KOH
(b) conc. HNO₃
(c) Sn/HCI
(d) P₂O₅
Answer:
(d) P₂O₅

Question 100.
The product of complete hydrolysis of Ethane nitrite is …………
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethyl nitrate
(c) Nitro ethane
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(d) Acetic acid

Question 101.
What is the name of the reaction that take place between Ethane nitrile and Ethyl propionate?
(a) Coupling reaction
(b) Levine and hauser acetylation
(c) Diazotisation
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(b) Levine and hauser acetylation

Question 102.
Which one of the following is formed when methyl iso cyanide ùndergoes acid hydrolysis?
(a) Dimethyl amine + H₂O
(b) Acetic acid + Formic acid
(c) Methyl amine + Formic acid
(d) Methyl cyanide + Ammonia
Answer:
(c) Methyl amine + Formic acid

Question 103.
The product formed when methyl isocyanide is heated to 250°C is …………
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Methyl cyanide
(c) Ethyl Cyanide
(d) Amino ethane
Answer:
(b) Methyl cyanide

Question 104.
Which one of the following is used a fuel for cars?
(a) CH₃NO₂
(b) CH₃NH₂
(c) CH₃N
(d) CH₃NC
Answer:
(a) CH₃NO₂

Question 105.
Chloropicrin is used as ……….
(a) antiseptic
(b) analgesic
(c) insecticide
(d) fertilizer
Answer:
(c) insecticide

Question 106.
Which one of the following is used as a fuel additive and precursor to explosive?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Nitro methane
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(d) Nitro ethane

Question 107.
Which one of the following is known as sweet spirit of nitre?
(a) 10 % solution of methyl nitrite
(b) 4% solution of ethyl nitrite
(c) 10% solution of ethyl nitrite
(d) 40% solution of methanal
Answer:
(b) 4% solution of ethyl nitrite

Question 108.
Which one of the following is used as diuretic?
(a) Nitro methane
(b) Nitrobenzene
(c) ethyl nitrite
(d) Oil of mirbane
Answer:
(c) ethyl nitrite

Question 109.
Which of the following is used to produce lubircating oils in motors and machinery?
(a) Nitro benzene
(b) m – dinitro benzene
(c) 1, 3, 5 – trinitro benzene
(d) Nitro glycerine
Answer:
(a) Nitro benzene

Question 110.
Which of the following is used in the manufacture of aniline, synthetic rubber, dyes and explosives like TNT, TNB?
(a) Nitro ethane
(b) Aminobenzene
(c) Nitro benzene
(d) Benzene diazonium chloride
Answer:
(c) Nitro benzene

Question 111.
Which of the following is used in textile industries and also as a solvent in perfume industries?
(a) Alkyl cyanide
(b) Alkyl iso cyanide
(c) Alkyl iso thio cyanate
(d) Alkyl amine
Answer:
(a) Alkyl cyanide

Question 112.
Which one of the following is used as an anticancer agent used to stomach and colon cancer?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Cobalamine
(c) mitomycin C
(d) Streptomycin
Answer:
(c) mitomycin C

Question 113.
In the Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of KOH and Br₂ used per mole of amine produced are …………..
(a) four moles of KOH and two moles of Br₂
(b) two moles of KOH and two moles of Br₂
(c) four moles of KOH and one moles of Br₂
(d) one moles of KOH and one moles of Br₂
Answer:
(c) four moles of KOH and one moles of Br₂

Question 114.
What is the product obtained in the following reaction?


Answer:

Question 115.
The reagent with which the following reaction is best accomplished is ………….

(a) H₃PO₃
(b) H₃PO₄
(c) H₃PO₂
(d) NaHSO₃
Answer:
(c) H₃PO₂

Question 116.
The amine “A” when treated with nitrous acid gives yellow oily substance. The amine “A” is …………
(a) Triethylamine
(b) Trimethylamine
(c) aniline
(d) Ethyl methyl amine
Answer:
(d) Ethyl methyl amine

Question 117.
Which one of the following amide will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction?
(a) CH₃CONH₂
(b) CH₃CONHCH₃
(c) C₆H₅CONH₂
(d) CH₃CH₂CONH₂
Answer:
(b) CH₃CONHCH₃

Question 118.
Replacement of diazonium group by fluorine is known as …………..
(a) Gattennann reaction
(b) Sandmeyer reaction
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction
(d) Comberg reaction
Answer:
(c) Baltz – Schiemann reaction

Question 119.
Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which are has the smallest pK value?
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₃N
(c) C₆H₅NH₂
(d) (CH₃)₃NH
Answer:
(d) (CH₃)₃NH

Question 120.
Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
(a) Trimethyl amine
(c) Dimethyl amine
(d) methyl amine
(b) Aniline
Answer:
(c) Dimethyl amine

Question 121.
Diethyl amine when treated with nitrous acid yields
(a) Diethyl ammonium nitrite
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) N – nitroso diethyl amine
(d) Triethyl ammonium nitrate
Answer:
(c) N – nitroso diethyl amine

Question 122.
Which one of the following on reduction with Lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?
(a) Methyl iso cyanide
(b) Acetamide
(c) Methyl cyanide
(d) Nitro ethane
Answer:
(a) Methyl iso cyanide

Question 123.
The action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives
(a) Ethane
(b) ammonia
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethyl nitrite
Answer:
(c) Ethyl alcohol

Question 124.
Indicate which nitrogen compound amongst the following would undergo Hoffmann reaction with Br₂ and strong KOH to furnish primary amine kNH₂.

Answer:

Question 125.
The correct order of basicity of the following compounds is …………..

(a) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
(d) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)

Question 126.
Which of the following would be most reactive towards nitration?
(a) Benzene
(b) nitrobenzene
(c) Toluene
(d) Chiorobenzene
Answer:
(b) nitrobenzene

Question 127.
Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form.
(a) Schiff’s base
(b) carbylamine
(c) Imine
(d) acetaldoxime
Answer:
(a) Schiff’s base

Question 128.
Which of the following is the strongest base?

Answer:

Question 129.
A primary amine is formed from an amide by the treatment of bromine and alkali. The primary amine has ……………
(a) 1 Carbon atom less than amide
(b) 1 carbon atom more than amide
(c) 1 hydrogen atom less than amide
(d) 1 Hydrogen atom more than amide
Answer:
(a) 1 Carbon atom less than amide

Question 130.
Liebermann’s nitroso reaction is used for testing ………….
(a) 1° amine
(b) 2° amine
(c) 3° amine
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) 2° amine

Question 131.
A nauseating smell in the carbylamine test for primary amines is due to the formation of …………
(a) iso cyanide
(b) chloroform
(c) cyanide
(d) iso thiocyanate
Answer:
(a) iso cyanide

Question 132.
A positive carbylamine test is given by …………
(a) N, N – dimethyl aniline
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline
(c) N – methyl – 0 – methyl aniline
(d) p – methyl benzylamine
Answer:
(b) 2, 4 – dimethyl aniline

Question 133.
When primary amine is heated with CS₂ in the presence of excess of mercuric chloride, it gives isothiocyanate. This reaction is called ……………..
(a) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
(b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Perkin’s reaction
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
Answer:
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction

Question 134.
Diazo – coupling reaction is useful to prepare some
(a) Dyes
(b) proteins
(c) pesticides
(d) plastics
Answer:
(a) Dyes

Question 135.
Carbylamine test is used in the detection of …………
(a) aliphatic 2° amine
(b) Aromatic 1° amine
(c) Aliphatic l amine
(d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine
Answer:
(d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine

Question 136.
Which of the following amine will not react with nitrous acid to give nitrogen?

Answer:

Question 137.
Which of the following compound is expected to be more basic?
(a) Aniline
(b) Methylamine
(c) Ethylamine
(d) Hydroxylamine
Answer:
(c) Ethylamine

Question 138.
Nitro group in Nitro benzene is a ………….
(a) ortho directing group
(b) Meta directing group
(c) Para directing group
(d) ortho and para directing group
Answer:
(b) Meta directing group

Question 139.
Which of the following amines would undergo diazotisation?
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) C₂H₅NH₂
(c) C₆H₅NH₂
(d) (CH₃)₂NH
Answer:
(c) C₆H₅NH₂

Question 140.
Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary and tertiary amines by reacting with.
(a) CHCI₃ and alkali
(b) CH₃I
(c) CHCl₃ alone
(d) Zn dust
Answer:
(a) CHCI₃ and alkali

Question 141.
A solution of methylamine …………..
(a) turns blue litmus red
(b) turns red litmus blue
(c) does not effect red or blue litmus
(d) Bleaches litmus
Answer:
(b) turns red litmus blue

Question 142.
Oil of mirbane is ………..
(a) Aniline
(b) Nitro ethane
(c) p – amino azo benzene
(d) Nitro benzene
Answer:
(d) Nitro benzene

Question 143.
Identify the product Z in the series of the reaction ………….

(a) CH₃CHO
(b) CH₃CONH₂
(c) CH₃COOH
(d) CH₃CH₂NHOH
Answer:
(c) CH₃COOH
Solution:

Question 144.
Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by ……….
(a) Br₂ / KOH
(b) HCIO₄
(c) NH₃
(d) HNO₂
Answer:
(d) HNO₂

Question 145.
Aniline on treatment with excess bromine water gives
(a) Anilinium bromide
(b) O – bromo aniline
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline
(d) p – bromo aniline
Answer:
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline

Question 146.
Which of the following is not used as an explosive?
(a) Trinitro toluene
(b) Trinitro benzene
(c) Trinitro glycerine
(d) Nitro benzene
Answer:
(d) Nitro benzene

Question 147.
Which of the following has a pyramidal structure?
(a) Trimethyl amine
(b) Water
(c) Acetylene
(d) Methane
Answer:
(a) Trimethyl amine

Question 148.
Which one of the following reacts with benzaldehyde to give schiff’s base.
(a) Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(b) formaldehyde
(c) Aniline
(d) Potassium cyanide
Answer:
(c) Aniline

Question 149.
Ethyl amine can be prepared by the action of bromine and caustic potash on
(a) Acetamide
(b) propionamide
(c) Formamide
(d) Methyl Eyanide
Answer:
(b) propionamide

Question 150.
Which of the following reaction will not give primary amine?

Answer:

Question 151.
Which of the following compound is the strongest base?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Aniline
(c) Methyl amine
(d) N – methyl aniline
Answer:
(c) Methyl amine

Question 152.
Azo dyes are prepared from ………….
(a) Phenol
(b) Aniline
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(d) Both (i) and (ii)

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. is an organic compound needed to maintain the health of nerves, skin and red blood cells.
2. Plants synthesis and to protect them from being eaten away by insect ………….. and ………….. other animals.
3. ………….. compounds are the important constituents of explosives, drugs, dyes, fuels, polymers, synthetic rubbers.
4. Dopamine act as …………..
5. ………….. dilates blood vessels.
6. Tertiary nitro alkanes donot exhibit ………….. due to the absence of a-H atom.
7. Aci form of nitro alkanes gives ………….. colour with ferric chloride.
8. Aci form of nitro alkanes are otherwise called ………….. or …………..
9. Laboratory preparation of Nitro ethane from ethyl bromide follows ………….. mechanism
10. Except ………….. other alkanes gives a mixture of nitro alkanes due to C – C cleavage by nitration of alkanes.
11. Oxidation of acetaldoxime with ………….. gives 1 – nitro ethane.
12. ………….. is suspected to cause genetic damage and be harmful to the nervous system.
13. Nitro benzene on reduction with SnCl₂ + KOH gives …………..
14. Nitrobenzene on alkaline medium reduction gives …………..
15. Amines posses ………….. geometry.
16. The nitrogen atom in amine is ………….. hybridised.
17. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of …………..
18. Ammonolysis of hydroxyl compounds is called ………….. reaction.
19. Aniline when exposed to air becomes coloured due to …………..
20. Alkyl amines are stronger base than …………..
21. Acylation and benzoylation of Aniline aer ………….. reactions.
22. Libermann’s nitroso test is used to detect …………..
23. ………….. test is used to identify primary amine.
24. Direct nitration of aniline gives O and P – nitro aniline along with ………….. due to oxidation.
25. The conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to benzene by H₃PO₂ proceeds through ………….. mechanism.
26. Benzene diazonium chloride when boiled with water gives …………..
27. The conversion of Benzene diazonium chloride is Biphenyl is called ………….. reaction.
28. Coupling reaction generally occurs at ………….. position of Benzene ring.
29. The condensation reaction of esters with nitrites containing a – hydrogen is known as …………..
30. Chloropicrin is used as an …………..
31. 4% solution of ethyl nitrite in alcohol is known as …………..
32. Sweet spirit of nitre is used as …………..
33. ………….. is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery.
34. ………….. an anti cancer agent used to treat stomach and colon cancer.
35. Mitomycin C contains an ………….. ring.
36. ………….. is used as percursor to explosive.
37. An organic nitrogen compound ………….. is used as an insecticide.
38.  ………….. is known as sweet spirit of nitre.
39.  Chloropicnn ………….. is used as an insecticide.

Answer:

1. Pyridoxine, vitamin B₆
2. alkaloids, biologically active amines
3. Nitrogen
4. Neurotransmitter
5. Histamine
6. tautomerism
7. Reddish brown
8. Pseudo acids (or) Nitronic acids
9. SN₂
10. Methane
11. trifluoroperoxy acetic acid
12. Nitro ethane
13. Azobenzene
14. Hydrazobenzene
15. Pyramidal
16. SP³
17. Aliphatic primary amines
18. Sabatier – mailhe
19. Oxidation
20. Ammonia
21. Nucleophilic substitution (or) Schotten Baumann
22. Secondary amine
23. Carbylamine reaction (or) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction
24. dark coloured tars
25. Free radical chain
26. Phenol
27. Gomberg
28. Para
29. Levine and hauser
30. insecticide
31. Sweet spirit of nitre
32. diuretic
33. Nitrobenzene
34. Mitomycin C
35. Aziridine
36. Nitro ethane
37. chloropicrm
38. 4% solution of ethyl nifrite in alcohol
39. CCI₃NO₂

III. Match the Column I and II using the code given below the columns.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 2.

Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 3.

Answer:
(c) 3 4 1 2

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) 4 3 1 2

Question 5.

Answer:
(b) 4 1 2 3

Question 6.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 7.

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) 2 1 4 3

Question 9.

Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

Question 10.

Answer:
(a) 4 1 2 3

IV. Assertion and reasons.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Tertiary nitro alkanes do not exhibit tautomerism.
Reason (R): Tertiary nitro alkanes do not have of α – H atom.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A
(b) Both A and R are not correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): Primary and secondary nitroalkanes show an equilibrium mixture of two tautomers namely nitro and aci form.
Reason (R): Both primary and secondary nitroalkanes are having a-H atoms.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of ofA
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion(A): Nitro alkanes dissolve in NaOH solution to form a salt.
Reason (R): The α – H atom of 1° and 2° nitroalkanes show acidic character because of the electron withdrawing effect of NO₂ group.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion(A): 2 – nitro propane is more acidic than nitro mehtane.
Reason (R): When the number of alkyl group attached to a carbon increases, acidity decreases. due to +1 effect of alkyl groups.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 5.
Assertion(A): Nitrobenzene cannot be prepared from bromo benzene by action of ethanolic solution of potassium nitrite.
Reason (R): The bromine directly attached to the benzene ring cannot be cleaved easily.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Assertion(A): Nitrobenzene undergoes friedel – craft reaction.
Reason (R): Nitrobenzene have strong deactivating – NO₂ group.
(a) Both A and R arc correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong but R ¡s correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(c) A is wrong but R ¡s correct

Question 7.
Assertion(A): Amines posses pyramidal geometry.
Reason (R): Nitrogen atoms of amines is trivalent and has four sp3 hybridised orbital. Three sp³ orbitais overlap with orbitais of hydrogen and four sp3 orbitais contain a lone pair of electrons.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R ¡s the correct explanation of A

Question 8.
Assertion(A): The C – N – C bond angle of trimethyl amine is 108°.
Reason (R): The bond angle of C – N – C is due to the repulsion between the bulky methyl groups.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct and R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 9.
Assertion(A): Aniline cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R): Arylhalides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 10.
Assertion(A): Amines have lower boiling point than alcohols.
Reason (R): Nitrogen has lower electronegative value than oxygen and hence the N – H bond is less polar than – OH bond.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Assertion(A): Tertiary methyl amine is less soluble in water than methyl amine.
Reason (R): Solubility decreases due to the increase in size of the hydrophobic alkyl group.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct but R is wrong.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 12.
Assertion(A): Aniline reacts with acids to form salts and also reacts with electrophiles.
Reason (R): The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in amines makes them basic as well as nucleophilic.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 13.
Assertion(A): Alkyl amines are stronger base than Ammonia.
Reason (R): When a +I gorup like alkyl group is attached to nitrogen increases the electron density on the nitrogen which makes the electron pair readily available for protonation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) A is correct but R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 14.
Assertion(A): 2° amines are more basic.
Reason (R): Due to + I effect, steric effect and hydration effect cause 2° amines are more basic.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 15.
Assertion(A): Aromatic amines are less basic than ammonia.
Reason (R): The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in aniline (aromatic amine) gets delocalised over the benzene ring and less available for protonation.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 16.
Assertion(A): Electrophilic substituion in aniline take place at ortho and para position.
Reason (R): The – NH₂ group is a strong activating group and lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is in conjugation with benzene ring that increases electron density at ortho and para position.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 17.
Assertion(A): Acylation of amines gives a mono substituted product whereas alkylation of amines gives polysubstituted product.
Reason (R): Acyl group sterically hindered the approach to further acyl group.
(a) Both A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Acetanilide is less basic than anime.
Reason (R): Acetylation of aniline results in the decrease of electron density on nitrogen.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 19.
Assertion(A): Aromatic 1° amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R): Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are wrong

Question 20.
Assertion(A): Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): Aniline donates its lone pair of electrons to the Lewis acid AiCl₃ to form an adduct which inhibits further electrophilic substitution reaction.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A.
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is explains A.

V. Find the odd one out and give the reasons.

Question 1.
Pyridoxine, Dopamine, Histamine, Aspirin.
Answer:
Aspirin:
It is acid derivative and used as medicine whereas other are organic nitrogen compounds used in medicine.

Question 2.
Trinitro glycerine, Glyceryl triacetate, Trinitro benzene, Trinitro toluene
Answer:
Glyceryl triacetate:
It is a an ester of glycerol whereas others are organic nitrogen compounds used in making explosives.

Question 3.
N – methyl methanamine, N – methyl ethanamine, N – phenyl benzamide, N,N – dimethyl methanamine
Answer:
N,N – dimethyl methanamine: It ¡s an example of tertiary amine whereas others are secondary amine.

Question 4.
Propan – 2 – amine, N – ethyl – N – methyl, propan – 2 – amine, N,N – dimethyl methanamine, N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine
Answer:
Propan – 2 – amine:
It is a secondary amine whereas others are tertiary amines.

Question 5.
P – hydroxy azo benzene, Hydrazo benzene, P – amino azo benzene, 2 – Phenyl azo – methyl phenol
Answer:
Hydrazo benzene: It is not a dye whereas others are dyes.

Question 6.
Methyl ISo cyanide, Methyl cyanide, Acetic anhydride, Ethyl amine Nitro ethane
Answer:
Acetic anhydride:
It is an acid derivative whereas others are organic nitrogen compounds.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is called nitro compound? Give one example.
Answer:
1. Ntiro compounds are considered as the derivatives of hydrocarbons. 1f one of the hydrogen atom of hydrocarbon is replaced by the – NO₂ group, the resultant organic compound is called a ntiro compound.

2. E.g., CH₃ – CH₂ – NO₂. Nitro ethane

Question 2.
Define Tautomerism. Give example. Why tertiary nitro alkanes do not ethibit tautomerism?
Answer:
1. Tautomerism is an isomerism in which the isomers change into one another with great ease of shifting of proton so that they exist together in equilibrium.

2. Tertiary nitro alkanes do not exhibit tautomerism due to absence of a-H atom.

Question 3.
Differentiate between nitro form and acid form of tautomerism of nitro methane.
Answer:
Nitro form

1. Less acidic
2. Dissolves in NaOH slowly.
3. Decolourises FeCl₃ solution.
4. Electrical conductivity is low.

Aci form

1. More acidic and also called pseudo acids (or) Nitrolic acids.
2. Dissolves in NaOH instantly.
3. With FeCI₃ gives reddish brown colour.
4. Electrical conductivity is high.

Question 4.
Compare the acid strength of the following compounds

1. Nitro methane
2. Nitro ethane
3. 2 – nitro propane.

Answer:
1. The α – H atom of 1⁰ and 2⁰ nitroalkanes show acidic character because of the electron withdrawing effect of NO₂ group.

2. Nitroalkanes dissolve in NaOH solution to form a salt.

3. When the number of alkyl group attached to a carbon increases, acidity decreases. due to +1 effect of alkyl groups.

Question 5.
Nitro benzene cannot be prepared from Bromo benzene by direct nitration. Give reason.
Answer:
Nitro benzene cannot be prepared from Bromo benzene because the bromine directly attached to the benzene ring cannot be cleaved easily.

Question 6.
How would you convert Acetaldoxime into Nitroethane?
Answer:
Oxidation of acetaldoxime and with trifluoro peroxy acetic acid gives nitroethane.

Question 7.
How is nitrobenzene from benzene?
Answer:
When benzene is heated with a nitrating mixture (Con.HNO₃ + Con.H₂SO₄), at 330 K, electrophilic substitution takes place to form nitro benzene.

Question 8.
How will you prepare p – dinitrobenzene from p – nitroanlline?
Answer:

Question 9.
How is amino group can be directly converted into nitro group? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Amino group can be directly converted into nitro group using caro’s acid (H₂SO₅) (or) persuiphuric acid (H₂S₂O₈) (or) peroxytrifluro acetic acid (F₃C.COOOH) as oxidising agent.

Question 10.
Explain the action of tin and hydrochloric acid with ethyl nitrite.
Answer:
Ethyl nitrite on reduction with Sn / HCI gives ethanol.

Question 11.
Explain about the acid (or) basic hydrolysis of ethyl nitrite.
Answer:

Question 12.
What is Chioropicrin? How is ¡t prepared? Give its uses.
Answer:
CCI₃NO₂ is Chioropicrin. It is prepared from nitro methane with Cl₂ in the presence of NaOH. The a – H atom of nitroalkanes are successively replaced by halogen atoms. It is used as an insecticide.

Question 13.
Explain – Nef carbonly synthesis.
Answer:

Question 14.
What happens when nitrobenzene Is treated with Ni (or) Pt (or) LiAIH₄?
Answer:
Nitrobenzene undergoes reduction with Ni (or) Pt (or) LiAlH₄ to give aniline.

Question 15.
Write a note about structure of Amines.
Answer:
1. Nitrogen atom of amines is trivalent and carries a lone pair of electron and sp³ hybridised, out of the four sp³ hybridised orbitais of nitrogen, three sp³ orbitais overlap with orbitais of hydrogen (or) alkyl groups of carbon, the fourth sp³ orbital contains a lone pair of electron. Hence, amines posses pyramidal geometry.

2. Due to presence of lone pair of electron C – N – H (or) C – N – Cbond angle is less than the normal tetrahedral bond angle 109.5v. For example, the C – N – C bond angle of trimethylamine is 108°. This is due to the repulsion between the bulky methyl groups.

Question 16.
How would you convert Nitroethane to ethanamine?
Answer:

Question 17.
Explain the action of Pt (or) Sn/HCI with nitrobenzene.
Answer:

Question 18.
Explain mendlus reaction.
Answer:
Reduction of alkyl or aryl cyanides with Na / C₂H₅OH is used as a reducing agent is called mendius reaction.

Question 19.
Explain the action of sodium amalgum and ethanol with Methyl isocyanide.
Answer:

Question 20.
What happens when sodium azide is treated with methyl bromide?
Answer:

Quesion 21.
How would you convert chiorobenzene to aniline?
Answer:
When chiorobenzene is heated with alcoholic ammonia, aniline is obtained.

Question 22.
Explain Sabatier – MalIhe method.
Answer:
when vapour of an alcohol and ammonia are passed over alumina, W₂O₅ (or) silica at 400°C, all types of amines are formed. This method is called Sabatier – Mailhe method.

Question 23.
Convert phenol into aniline.
Answer:
Phenol reacts with ammonia at 300°C in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂ to give aniline.

Question 24.
Compare the boiling points of 10, 2° and 3° amInes.
Answer:
1. The boiling point of various amines follows the order,

2. Due to the polar nature of primary and secondary amines, can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds using their lone pair of electron on nitrogen atom. However, tertiary amines do not form intermolecular hydrogen bond and they have lower boiling point than 1° and 2° amines.

Question 25.
Aniline is basic in nature. Justify this statement.
Answer:
The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom in aniline makes it base. Aniline reacts with mineral acids to form salt.

Question 26.
Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia. Justify this statement.
Answer:
When a + I group like and alkyl group is attached to the nitrogen increase the electron density on nitrogen which makes the electron pair readily available for protonation. Hence alkyl amines are stronger than ammonia.

Question 27.
Explain the action of acretyl chloride with ethyl amine?

Question 28.
What happens when ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid?
Answer:
Ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid to give ethyl diazonium chloride, which is unstable and it is converted to ethanol by liberating N₂.

Question 29.
Explain the action of nitrous acid with N – methyl aniline.
Answer:
N – methyl aniline react with nitrous acid to give N – nitroso amine as yellow oily liquid which is insoluble in water.

Question 30.
Explain the action of nitrous acid with trimethyl amine.
Answer:
Aliphatic tertiary amine reacts with nitrous acid to form trialkyl ammonium nitrite salt, which is soluble in water.

Question 31.
What happens when nitrous acid is treated iith N, N – dimethyl aniline?
Answer:

Question 32.
Explain Hoffmann mustard oil reaction. (or) Explain the action of CS₂ with aniline.
Answer:
When aniline is treated with CS₂, or heated together, S – diphenylthio urea is formed, which on boiling with strong HCI , phenyl isothiocyanate (phenyl mustard oil), is formed.

The above reaction is known as Hoffmann mustard oil reaction.

Question 33.
Explain the action of Br₂water with aniline.
Answer:

Question 34.
How would you prepare p – bromo aniline from aniline?
Answer:

Question 35.
How would you prepare p – nitro from aniline?
Answer:

Question 36.
Explain the action of hypophosphrous acid with Benzene diazonium chloride. (or) Explain the action of ethanol with benzene diazonium chloride.

Question 37.
Explain Gattermann reaction.
Answer:
Gattermann reaction.

Question 38.
How would you get iodo benzene form benzene diazonium chloride.
Answer:

Question 39.
Explain Baltz – schiemann reaction.
Answer:
When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with fluoroboric acid, benezene diazonium tetra fluoroborate is precipitated which on heating decomposes to give fluorobenzene.

Question 40.
Convert Benzene diazonium chloride into phenol.
Answer:

Question 41.
StartIng form Benzene diazonium chloride, how will you get Nitrobenzene?
Answer:
When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with fluoroboric acid we get diazonium fluoroborate which on treated with sodium nitrite solution in the presence of copper, nitrobenzene is obtained.

Question 42.
Convert benzene diazonium chloride to benzoic acid
Answer:

Question 43.
Explain the action of SnCl₂ and HCl with benzene diazonium chloride.
Answer:

Question 44.
Starting from benzene diazonium chloride, how would you get bright organge azo dye?
Answer:

Question 45.
Write the structural formula and TUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Isobutyl nitrite
2. Benzo nitrile

Answer:
1. Isobutyl nitrite

2 – methyll propane nitrile

2. Benzo nitrile C₆H₅CN Benzene carbo nitrile

Question 46.
Draw the structural formula of

1. 3 – cyano butanoic acid
2. 2 – bromo – 3 – chloro – 3 – methyl pentane nitrile.

Answer:
1. 3 – cyano butanoic acid

2. 2 – bromo – 3 – chloro

– 3 – methyl pentane nitrile

Question 47.
How will you get propane nitrile from ethyl bromide?
Answer:

Question 48.
Starting from methyl magnesium bromide, how would you obtain ethane nitrile?
Answer:

Question 49.
Explain thrope nitrite condensation.
Answer:
Self condensation of two molecules of alkyl nitrile in the presence of sodium to form iminonitrile is called Thrope nitnie condensation.

Question 50.
Explain Levine and hauser acetylation.
Answer:
The nitrites containing α – hydrogen also undergo condensation with esters in the presence of sodamide in ether to form ketoriitriles. This reaction is known as Levine and hauser acetylation.

Question 51.
How would you prepare the following compounds by carbylamines reaction.

1. Methyl isocyanide
2. Phenyl isocyanide

Answer:
1.

2.

Question 52.
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 53.
How is methyl isocyanide changed to methyl cyanide?
Answer:

Question 54.
What are the uses of nitrobenzene?
Answer:

1. Nitro benzene is used to produce lubricating oils in motors and machinery.
2. It is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, pesticides, synthelic rubber, aniline and explosives like TNT, TNB.

Question 55.
Primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines why?
Answer:
Due to the presence of two H – atom on N – atoms of primary amines they undergo extensive intermolecular H – bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H – atom on the N – atom do not undergo H – bonding. As a result primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines.

Question 56.
How is m – nitroaniline obtained from nitrobenzene?
Answer:

Question 57.
How is aniline obtained from benzoic acid?
Answer:

Question 58.
How will you convert benzene into aniline?
Answer:

Question 59.
How will you distinguish between.

Answer:
1. By reacting with NaNO₂ and HCl at the temperature of around 0 to 5°C, Aniline will from diazonium salt. CH₃NH₂ will form methanol and bubbles of N₂ gas will come out of the solution.

2. By Hinsberg’s reagent, C₆H₅SO₂CI(CH₃)₃N will not react. (CH₃)₂NH will form a product which is insoluble in alkali.

Question 60.
Account for any two of the following.

1. Amines are basic substances while amides are neutral.
2. Aromatic amines are weaker bases than aliphatic amines.

Answer:
1. In amines alkyl group is an electron releasing group which increases the electron density on nitrogen thus making them basic whereas in amides

group is electron withdrawing, therefore they are neutral.

2. It is because aryl group is an electron withdrawing group which decreases electron density on nitrogen atom, making them less basic whereas alkyl group is electron releasing which makes alkylamines more basic.

Question 61.

1. Assign a reason for the following statements – Alkylamines are stronger bases than arylamines.
2. How would you convert methylamine into ethylamine?

Answer:
1. It is because in arylamines the – NH₂ group is attached directly to the benzene ring. It results in the unshared electron pair on nitrogen atom to be in conjugation with the benzene ring and thus making it less available for protonation whereas alkyl group are electron releasing group.

2.

Question 62.

1. How will you convert an alkyl halide to a primary amine whose molecule has one carbon atom more than the used alkyl halide molecule?
2. Why are amines more basic than the comparable alcohols.

Answer:
1.

2. Due less electronegativity of oxygen atom as compared to nitrogen, amines are more basic than alcohols.

Question 63.
Aniline gets coloured on standing in air for a long time. Why?
Answer:
Due to strong electron – donating effect (+ R effect) of NH₂ group, the electron density on the benzene ring increases. As a result, aniline is easily oxidised on standing in air for a long time to form coloured products.

Question 64.
CH₃CONH₂ is a weaker base than CH₃CH₂NH₂. Why?
Answer:
Due to resonance, the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom in CH₃CONH₂ is delocalised over the keto group. There is no such effect ip CH₃CH₂NH₂. Due to reduction in electron density on N – atom of CH₃CONH₂, it is a weaker base than CH₃CH₂NH₂.

Question 65.
Write chemical equation for the following conversions:

1. CH₃CH₂ – Cl into CH₃CH₂CH₂ – NH₂
2. C₆H₅ – CH₂ – Cl into C₆H₅CH₂CH₂NH₂

Answer:
1.

2.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 3 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the classification of organic nitro compounds.
Answer:

2. Draw the structural formula of the following compounds.

1. 2 – methyl – 1 – nltropropane
2. 2, 2 – dimethyl – 1 – nitropropane
3. Nitrobenzene

Answer:
1.  2 – methyl – 1 – nitropropane
2.  2, 2 – dimethyl – 1- nitropropane
3.  Nitrobenzene

Question 3.
Draw the structural formula of the following compounds.

1. 2 – nitro – 1 – methyl benzene
2. 1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
3. 2 – phenyl – 1 – nitroethane

Answer:
1.     2 – nitro – 1 – methyl benzene
2.  1, 3, 5 – trinitrobenzene
3. 2 – phenyl – 1 – nitroethane

Question 4.
Write the possible isomers for the formula C₄H₉NO₂.
Answer:

Question 5.
How would you prepare nitro ethane from the following compounds?

1. CH₃ – CH₂Br
2. CH₃ – CH₃

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 6.
Mention any two methods of preparation of nitro methane.
Answer:
1.
2.

Question 7.
Explain the

1. acid medium reduction
2. neutral medium reduction of Nitromethane.

Answer:

Question 8.
What happens when hydrochloric acid is treated with

1. Nitro ethane
2. 2 – nitropropane
3. 2 – methyl – 2 – nitro propane

(or)
How would you distinguish 1°, 2°, 3° nitro compounds?
Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 9.
Explain the following reactions using nitro benzene.

1. Chlorination
2. Nitration
3. Suiphonation

Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 10.
Give the structural formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Isopropvl amine
2. Allyl amine
3. Hexamethyl diamine

Answer:
1. Isopropvl amine  Propan – 2 – amine
2. Allyl amine   Prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine
3. Hexamethyl diamine  Hexane 1, 6 – diamine

Question 11.
Draw the structural formula and write the IUPAC name of

1. Methyl isopropyl amine
2. Diethyl butyl amine
3. Ethyl methyl ispropylamine

Answer:
1. Methyl isopropyl amine:

N – methyl propan – 1 – amine

2. Diethyl butyl amine:

N, N – diethyl butan – 1 – amine

3. Ethyl methyl ispropylamine:

N – ethyl – N – methyl propan – 2 – amine

Question 12.
Draw the structural formula and write the IUPAC name of …………..

1. N, N – dimethyl aniline
2. Benzyl amine
3. N – methyl benzylamine

Answer:
1. N, N – dimethyl aniline

2. Benzyl amine

3. N – methyl benzylamine

Question 13.
Explain the alkylation reaction of methylamine with equation.
Answer:
Alkylation:
Primary amines reacts with alkyl halides to give successively 2° and 3° amines and quaternary ammonium salts.

Question 14.
Explain about the suiphonation reaction of aniline.
Answer:
Aniline reacts with Conc. H₂SO₄ to form anilinium hydrogen sulphate which on heating with H₂SO₄ at 453 – 473K gives p – aminobenzene suiphonic acid, commonly known as suiphanilic acid, as the major product.

Question 15.
Explain Sandmeyer reaction with example.
Answer:
On mixing freshly prepared solution of benzene diazonium chloride with cuprous halides, aryl halides are formed. This reaction is called Sandmeyer reaction.

Question 16.
Write the structural formula and IUPAC name of the following compounds.

1. Methyl cyanide
2. Propionitrile
3. Butyro nitrile

Answer:

1. CH₃CN – Ethane nitrile
2. CH₃ – CH₂CN – Propane nitrile
3. CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂CN – Butane nitnie.

Question 17.
How would you produce Ethane nitrite form the following compounds?

1. Acetamide
2. Ammonium acetate
3. Acetaldoxime

Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 18.
Explain the action of following reagent with ethane nitrile.

1. Dilute mineral acid
2. Ni / H₂

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 19.
What happens when methyl isocyanide reacts with the following reagents?

1. Mineral acid
2. Na + C₂H₅OH

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 20.
Explain the addition reactions of alkyl Isocyanide with

1. halogen
2. sulphur
3. ozone

Answer:
1.
2.
3.

Question 21.
What are the uses of aliphatic nitro compounds.
Answer:

1. Nitromethane is used as a fuel for cars.
2. Chloropicrrn (CCI₃NO₂) is used as an insecticide
3. Nitroethane is used as a fuel additive and precursor to explosive and they are good solvents for polymers, cellulose ester, synthetic rubber and dyes etc,

Question 22.
Explain about the structure and uses of Mitomycin.
Answer:

1. Mitomycin C, and anticancer agent used to treat stomach and colon cancer, contains an aziridine ring.
2. The aziridine functional group participates in the drug’s degradation by DNA, resulting in the death of cancerous cells.
3. 

Question 23
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 24.
Convert Methanamine into Ethanamine.
Answer:

Question 25.
Convert Ethanamic into Methanamine.
Answer:

Question 26.
How would you obtain Benzoic acid from aniline?
Answer:

Question 27.
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 28.
Write the reactions of

1. aromatic and
2. aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.

Answer:
Aromatic primary amines react with HNO₂ at 273 – 278 K to form aromatic diazonium salts.

Aliphatic primary amines also react with HNO₂ at 273 – 278 K to form aliphatic diazonium salts. But these are unstable even at low temperature and thus decomposes readily to form a mixture of compounds consisting of alkyl chlorides, alkenes and alcohols, out of which alcohols generally predominates.

Question 29
Given plausible explanation for each of the following.

1. Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
2. Why do primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines?
3. Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines?

Answer:
1. It is because C₂H₅O° is more stable than C₂H₅NH° because oxygen is more electronegative than nitrogen.

2. Due to the presence of two H – atoms on N – atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive intennolecular H – bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H – atoms on the N – atom do not undergo H – bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines of comparable molecular masses.

3. It is because there is electron withdrawing, C₆H₅ group in aromatic amines which makes them less basic than aliphatic amines in which alkyl group is electron releasing.

Question 30.
Account for the following.

1. Primary amines (R – NH₂)have higher boiling point than tertiary amines (R₃N).
2. Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
3. (CH₃)₂NH Is more basic than (CH₃)₃N in an aqueous solution.

Answer:
1. Due to maximum intermolecular hydrogen bonding in primary amines (due to presence of more number of H – atoms), primary amines have higher boiling point in comparison to tertiary amines.

2. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction due to acid-base reaction. Aniline and a Lewis Acid / Protic Acid, which is used in Friedel-crafts reaction.

3. In (CH₃)₃N there is maximum steric hindrance and least solvation but in (CH₃)₂NH the solvation is more group; di-methyl amine is still a stronger base than trimethyl amine.

Question 31.
Write the structures of A,B and C in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 32.
Predict, giving reasons the order of basicity of the following compounds.

1. gaseous phase
2. In aqueous solution (CH₃)₃N, (CH₃)₂NH, CH₃NH₂, NH₃

Answer:
1. In gaseous phase, basic character of amines increases with the increase in the number of electron the releasing alkyl groups due to + I effect so the trend of basic character is 3° > 2° > 1° > NH₃. Therefore, (CH₃)₃N > (CH₃)₃NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃.

2. In aqueous phase, solvation of ammonium cation occurs by warer molecules, greater the size of ion, lesser will be the solvation and lesser will be the stability of ion. So on combining + I effect and solvation effect, in aqueous phase trend changes to 2° > 1° > 3°, (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃.

Question 33.
Identify A and B in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 34.
What happens when. (Write reactions only)

1. Nitroethane is treated with LiAlH₄.
2. Diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in basic medium.

Answer:
1.
2.

Question 35.
How would you achieve the following conversions.
Answer:

(i) Nitrobenzene to aniline

(ii) An alkyl halide to a quarternary ammonium salt.

(iii) Aniline to benzonitrile.

Answer:

Question 36.
What happens when (write reactions only).

(i) Nitropropane is treated with LiAlH₄.
(ii) Ethyl lsocyañide undergoes hydrolysis.
(iii) Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol i basic medium.

Answer:

Question 37.
Identify A and B in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 38.
Identify A and B in the following reactions

Answer:

Question 39.
A compound ‘x’ having molecular formula C₃H₇NO reacts with Br₂ in the presence of KOH to give another compound ‘y’. The compound ‘y’ reacts with HNO₂ to form ethanol. and N₂ gas. Identify the compounds x andy and write the reactions involved.
Answer:

Question 40.
An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C₃H₅N on hydrolysis gave a nother compound ‘B’ The compound ‘B’ on treatment with HNO₂ gave ethyl alcohol. ‘B’ on warming with CHCI₃ and alcoholic caustic potash gave an offensive smelling substance ‘C’. Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry 13 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the various reduction reactions of nitrobenzene.
Answer:

Question 2.
What happens when nitrous acid react with
(i) Ethyl amine
(ii) Aniline
(iii) N – methyl aniline
(iv) Trimethyl amine
(v) N, N – dimethyl aniline
Answer:

Question 3.
Starting from Benzene diazonium chloride, how would you prepare
(i) Benzene
(ii) Phenol
(iii) Nitro benzene
(iv) Benzolc acid
(v) Fluorobenzene
Answer:

Question 4.
Starting from Benzene diazonium chloride, how would you prepare
(i) Biphenyl
(ii) Phenyl hydrazine
(iii) p – hydroxy azo benzene
(iv) p – amino azo benzene
(v) Chioro benzene
Answer:

Question 5.
Convert aniline into the following compounds.
(i) N – phenyl benzamide
(ii) Phenyl isothiocyanate
(iii) 2, 4, 6 – tribromo aniline
(iv) Sulphanilinic acid
(v) Phenyl isocyanide
Answer:

Question 6.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₆H₇N on reaction with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0°C gives (B) of formula C₆H₅N₂Cl. (B) on treatment with cuprous cyanide give (C) of formula C₇H₅N. (C) on reaction with sodium and ethanol gives (D) of formula C₇H₉N. (D) on reaction with nitrous acid gives (E) of molecular formula C₇H₈O. Identify A, B, C, D and E and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
1. (A) is identified as Aniline from the molecular formula.
2. Aniline on reaction with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0°C, diazotisation take place and the product (B) formed is benzene diazonium chloride.

3. Benzene diazonium chloride on treatment with CuCN produces (C) as cyano benzene.

4. Cyano benzene on reaction with Na and C₂H₅OH undergoes reduction reaction to give (D) as benzvlamine.

5. Benzylamine on treatment with nitrous acid gives benzyl alcohol as (E).

Question 7.
Complete the following reactions and identify the A, B and C in these reaction.

Answer:

Question 8.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compound A, B and C.
Answer:
Step – 1: To find out the structure of compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’.
1. Since compound ‘C’ with molecular formula C₆H₇N is formed from compound ‘B’ on treatment with Br₂ + KOH (i.e., Hoffmatm bromamide reaction). Therefore, compound ‘B’ must be an amide and ‘C’ must be an amine. The only amine having the molecular formula C₆H₇N is C₆H₅NH₂ (i.e., aniline or benzenamine).

2. Since ‘C’ is aniline, therefore, the amide from which it is formed must be benzamide (C₆H₅CONH₂). Thus, compound ‘B’ is benzamide. The chemical equation showing the conversion of ‘B’ to ‘C’ is

Step – 2:
To find out the structure of compound ‘A’. Since compound ‘B’ is formed from compound ‘A’ by treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating. Therefore, compound ‘A’ must be benzoic acid or benzenecarboxylic acid.

Question 9.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C₇H₇ON undergoes a series of reactions as shown below. Write the structures of A,B,C, D and E in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 10.
Write reactions and conditions required for the following conversions.
(i) Aniline to benzene
(ii) Methylamine to methylcyanide
(iii) Propanenitrile to ethylamine
(iv) m – Bromoaniline to m – bromophenol
(v) Nitrobenzene to 2, 4, 6 – tribromoaniline.
Answer:

Question 11.
A compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C₃H₇O₂N on reaction with Fe and cone. HCI gives a compound ‘B’ of molecular formula C₃H₉N. Compound ‘B’ on treatment with NaNO₂ and HCI gives another compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₃H₈O. The compound ‘C’ has molecular formula, C₃H₈O. The compound ‘C’ gives effervescence with Na. On oxidation with CrO₃, the compound ‘C’ gives a saturated aldehyde containing three carbon atoms. Deduce the structures of A, B and C and write the equations for the reaction involved.
Answer:

Question 12.
Identify compounds A, B and C in the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 13.
A aromatic hydrocarbon (A) of molecular formula C₆H₆ reacts with Conc.HNO₃ and Conc. H₂SO₄ gives (B) of formula C₆H₅O₂N. (B) on reaction with Sn/HCI gives (C) of formula C₆H₇N which answers carbylamine reaction. (C) on treatment with chloroform and alkali gives (D) of formula C₇H₅N. Identify A, B, C, D and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:

Question 14.
Convert the following.
(i) Nitro benzene → Benzene
(ii) Benzene → Benzoic acid

Answer:

Common Errors

1. TUPAC name of nitro compounds.
2. If the formula ends as – NO₂, the students always think of nitro only.
3. Reducing agents may be different for different medium.
4. Basic character of amines is always difficult to remember.
5. Cyanide and isocyanide formula may get confusing.

Rectifications

1. Both common name and IUPAC names are same for aliphatic and aromatic nitro compounds.

2. – NO₂ may be

3.

• Acid medium reducing agent: Sn / HCI
• Neutral medium reducing agent: Zn + NH₄CI
• Basic medium reducing agent: Zn / NaOH
• Catalytic reducing agent: Ni, Pt, LiAlH₄

4. 2° amine > 3° amine > 1° amine > NH₃

Alkyl group is connected to C – Cyanide. If alkyl group connected to  Isocyandie.

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