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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

Heat Lesson For Class 8 Question 1.
Heat is a form of ………….
(a) electrical energy
(b) gravitational energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) thermal energy

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Term 2 Question 2.
If you apply some heat energy to a substance, which of the following can take place in it?
(a) Expansion
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Change of state
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

8th Standard Science Heat Question 3.
Which of the following substances will absorb more heat energy?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Science Term 2 Question 4.
If you apply equal amount of heat to a solid, liquid and gas individually, which of the following will have more expansion?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All of them
Answer:
(c) Gas

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 5.
The process of converting a liquid into a solid is called ……………
(a) sublimation
(b) condensation
(c) freezing
(d) deposition
Answer:
(c) freezing

8th Science Heat Lesson Question 6.
Conduction is the heat transfer which takes place in a …………….
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) All of them

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A calorimeter is a device used to measure the …………….
2. …………… is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C.
3. A thermostat is a device which maintains ……………
4. The process of converting a substance from gas to solid is called ……………
5. If you apply heat energy, the temperature of a system will …………….
6. If the temperature of a liquid in a container is decreased, then the inter atomic distance will ……………

Answer:

1. heat capacity of water
2. Specific heat capacity
3. temperature of an object constant
4. deposition
5. increase
6. decrease

III. State True or False. If false, correct the statement

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Guide Term 2 Question 1.
The applied heat energy can be realized as an increase in the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 2.
The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is decreased.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is increased.

Thermal Expansion Is Always A Nuisance Question 3.
The process of converting a substance from solid to gas is called condensation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The process of converting a substance from solid to gas is called sublimation.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solution Question 4.
Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in solids.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in liquids and gases.

8th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
The amount of heat gained by a substance is equal to the product of its mass and latent heat.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Guide Question 6.
In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect and radiate the heat to the outside.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the bottle.

III. Match the following

8th Science Term 2 Question 1.

1. Conduction	(a) Liquid
2.Convection	(b) Gas to liquid
3. Radiation	(c) Solid to gas
4. Sublimation	(d) Gas
5. Condensation	(e) Solid

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. b

V. Read the directions given below and answer the questions.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Heat Class 8 Question 1.
Assertion : Radiation is a form of heat transfer which takes place even in vacuum.
Reason : The thermal energy is transferred from one part of a substance to another part without the actual movement of the atoms or molecules.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Question 2.
Assertion : A system can be converted from one state to another state.
Reason : It takes place when the temperature of the system is constant.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Answer briefly

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
What are the applications of conduction in our daily life?
Answer:

1. We cook food in vessels made up of metals. When the vessel is heated, heat is transferred from the metal to the food.
2. When we iron dresses heat is transferred from the iron to the cloth.
3. Handles of cooking utensils are made up of plastic or wood because they are poor conductors of heat.
4. The temperature inside igloo (snow house) is warm because snow is a poor conductor of heat.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Science Question 2.
What are the effects of heat?
Answer:

1. Expansion
2. Increase in temperature
3. Change in state

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Answers Question 3.
Name three types of heat transfer.
Answer:
Three types of heat transfer are:
Answer:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

8th Standard Science Term 2 Question 4.
What is conduction?
Answer:
The process of heat transfer in solids from the region of higher temperature to the region of lower temperature without the actual movement of atoms or molecules is called as conduction.

Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 5.
Write a note on convection.
Answer:
The form of heat transfer from places of high temperature to places of low temperature by the actual movement of molecules is called convection. Convection takes place in liquids and gases.

Heat Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Define specific heat capacity.
Answer:
Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1°C or 1 K. It is denoted by the symbol C.

Question 7.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
With the help of a neat diagram explain the working of a calorimeter.
Answer:
1. A calorimeter is a device used to measure the amount of heat gained or lost by a substance.

2. It consists of a vessel made up of metals like copper or aluminium which are good conductors of heat and electricity.

3. The metallic vessel is kept in an insulating jacket to prevent heat loss to the environment.

4. There are two holes in it. Through one hole a thermometer is inserted to measure the temperature Of the Contents.

5. A stirrer is inserted through another hole for stirring the content in the vessel.

6. The vessel is filled with liquid which is heated by passing current through the hating element.

7. Using this device we can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.

Question 2.
Write a note on thermostat.
Answer:

1. A thermostat is a device which maintains the temperature of a place or an object constant.

2. The word thermostat is derived from two Greek words, ‘thermo’ meaning heat and ‘static’ meaning staying the same.

3. Thermostats are used in any device or system that gets heated or cools down – to a pre – set temperature. It turns an appliance or a circuit on or off when a particular temperature is reached.

4. Devices which use thermostat include building heater, central heater in a room, air conditioner, water heater, as well as kitchen equipment including oven and refrigerators.

5. Sometimes, a thermostat functions both as the sensor and the controller of a thermal 6 system.

Question 3.
Explain the working of thermos flask.
Answer:

1. A thermos flask has double walls, which are evacuated.
2. It is silvered on the inside.
3. The vacuum between the two walls prevents heat being transferred from the inside to the outside by conduction and convection.
4. With very little air between the walls, there is almost no transfer of heat from the inner wall to the outer wall or vice versa.
5. Conduction can only occur at the points where the two walls meet, at the top of the bottle and through an insulated support at the bottom.
6. The silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the bottle.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Why does the bottom of a lake not freeze in severe winter even when the surface is all frozen?
Answer:
Lakes don’t completely freeze because the ice (and eventually snow) on the surface acts to insulate die water below. To freeze water into ice, a large quantity of heat is to be withdrawn. This heat cannot be

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct? Give reason.
(a) Steel > Wood > Water
(b) Steel > Water > Wood
(c) Water > Steel > Wood
(d) Water > Wood > Steel
Answer:
(b) Steel > Water > Wood
Reason:
Thermal conductivity is defined as the heat flow per unit time.
Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than water and wood.
[Thermal conductivity of steel = 50.2 w/mk
Thermal conductivity of water = 0.6 w/mk Thermal conductivity of wood = 0.12 w/mk]

IX. Problems

Question 1.
An iron ball requires 1000 J of heat to raise its temperature by 20°C. Calculate theheat capacity of the ball.
Solution:
Heat capacity C’ = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\)
Here, A = 1000 J
T = 20°C – 0°C = 20°C = 20 k
C = \(\frac{1000}{20}\) = 50 JK^-1
The heat capacity of the ball = 50 JK^-1

Question 2.
The heat capacity of the vessel of mass 100 kg is 8000 J/°C. Find its specific heat capacity.
Solution:
Specific heat capacity, C = \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\)
Here, m = 100 kg
Heat capacity = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\) = 8000 J/°C = 8000 J/K
C = \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\) = 100 x 8000 J = 8,00,000 JKg^-1 K^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Intext Activities

Activity – 2

Question 1.
Take a cup of water and note its temperature. Heat the water for few minutes and note the temperature again. What caused the temperature change?

Question (i)
Do you find any increase in the temperature?
Answer:
When the water is heated, water molecules receives heat energy, increases the kinetic energy of the molecules.

Question (ii)
What caused the temperature change?
Answer:

1. When the molecules receive more energy, the temperature of the water increases.
2. Heat energy causes increase in temperature.

Activity – 3

Question 1.
Take few ice cubes in a container and heat them for some time. What happens? The ice cubes melt and become water. Now heat the water for some time. What do you observe? The volume of water in the vessel decreases. What do you understand from this Activity?
Answer:

1. In ice cubes, the force of attraction between the water molecules is more. So they are close together.
2. When we heat them the force of attraction decreases and the ice cubes become water.
3. when we heat the water, the force of attraction between the molecules decreases further.
4. Hence they move away from one another and become vapor.
5. Since water vapor escape to the surrounding,water level decreases.
6. From this Activity we understand that heat energy causes change in the state of the substances.

Activity – 4

Question 1.
Take hot water in a cup and put a silver spoon in it. Leave the spoon inside the water for some time. Now touch the end of the spoon. Do you feel the heat?
Answer:

1. Yes, we feel hot.
2. It is because heat in the hot water is transferred from one end to other end of the spoon.
3. In solid substances such as silver spoon, atoms are arranged very closely.
4. So heat transfer takes place from the higher temperature region to lower temperature region.
5. This is due to conduction.

Activity – 5

Question 1.
Take some water in a vessel and heat it on a stove. Touch the surface of the water. It will be cold. Touch it after some time. It will be hot now. How did the heat which was supplied at the bottom reach the top?
Answer:

1. When water in the vessel is heated, water molecules at the bottom receive heat energy and move upward.
2. Then the molecules at the top comes down and get heated.
3. This kind of heat transfer is known as convection.

Activity – 6

Question 1.
Take some amount of water and cooking oil in two separate vessels. Heat them till they reach a particular temperature (Caution: Heat the oil under the supervision of your teacher). Which one is heated first? Water will take more time to get heated. Why?
Answer:

1. Heat transfer depends on the nature of the substance.
2. Water has high specific heat capacity than that of cooking oil.
3. A substance with high specific heat capacity absorbs a large quantity of heat.
4. Thus, it takes long time to heat up.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
1 calorie equals ……………….
(a) 0.42 J
(b) 4.2 J
(c) 420 J
(d) 4200 J
Answer:
(b) 4.2 J

Question 2.
The SI unit of heat energy is ………………
(a) joule
(b) calorie
(c) kilo calorie
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) joule

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a scale of temperature?
(a) Kelvin scale
(b) Celsius scale
(c) Richter scale
(d) Fahrenheit scale
Answer:
(c) Richter scale

Question 4.
Convection of heat takes place in ……………
(a) liquids only
(b) gases only
(c) metals only
(d) liquids and gases
Answer:
(d) liquids and gases

Question 5.
In solid substances, heat is transferred by –
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) only a and b
Answer:
(b) radiation

Question 6.
In conduction, heat flows from ………………
(a) hotter to hotter region
(b) colder to hotter region
(c) hotter to colder region
(d) colder to colder region
Answer:
(c) hotter to colder region

Question 7.
Mud houses are cooler in summer and warmer in winter because –
(a) mud is a bad conductor of heat
(b) mud is a good conductor of heat
(c) mud is a super conductor of heat
(d) none
Answer:
(c) mud is a super conductor of heat

Question 8.
Process of change of state from gaseous state to liquid state is called …………….
(a) freezing
(b) condensation
(c) sublimation
(d) boiling
Answer:
(b) condensation

Question 9.
Substances which allow heat to pass through them are called …………….
(a) conductors
(b) insulators
(c) moderators
(d) none
Answer:
(a) conductors

Question 10.
When two objects are in thermal contact, the heat is transferred by ………………
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) none
Answer:
(c) conduction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In vacuum, heat energy can travel by the process of ……………….
2. In ice cubes the force of attraction between the water molecules is ……………….
3. When we heat water, the force of attraction decreases and the ice cubes becomes ……………….
4. ………………. is the only matter on the Earth that can be found naturally in all three states.
5. Radiation is defined as the heat transfer from one place to another in the form of ………………..
6. Heat capacity C’= ……………….
7. 1 Calorie = …………….. J.
8. Specific heat capacity C = ………………..
9. The device which is used to measure the heat capacity of the liquid is …………………
10. ……………….. is a device which maintains the temperature of a place or an object constant.
11. The vacuum flask was invented by …………………
12. Vacuum flask is also called as …………………
13. The water in the black can becomes ……………….. than that in white can after exposing to the sun.
14. The handles of cooking utensils are made of …………………
15. Black color is a ……………….. absorber of heat.

Answer:

1. radiation
2. morel
3. water
4. Water
5. electro magnetic waves
6. \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\)
7. 4.186 J
8. \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\)
9. Calorimeter
10. Thermostat
11. Sir James Dewar
12. Dewar flask
13. hotter
14. insulators
15. good

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Heat is the transfer of energy between two objects with different temperature.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
When ice changes into a liquid, it absorbs energy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Heat energy flows from a body at low temperature to a body at higher temperature.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Heat energy flows from a body at high temperature to a body at lower temperature.

Question 4.
J/Kg °C is the unit of specific heat capacity.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Conductors have generally high specific heat capacities and insulators have low specific heat capacities.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Conductors have generally low specific heat capacities and insulators have high specific heat capacities.

Question 6.
Temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy of molecules.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
When a liquid evaporates, it gives off energy.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
When a liquid evaporates, it absorbs energy.

Question 8.
When a liquid boils, energy is absorbed.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Water has the lowest specific heat capacity.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Water has the very high specific heat capacity.

Question 10.
While a substance is undergoing a change of state, the temperature of the body remains the same.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
In summer, we prefer light – colored clothes and in winter we usually wear dark – colored clothes.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The transfer of heat by radiation does not require any medium.
Answer:
True

Question 13.
Metals like copper, aluminium are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
In thermos flask, the vacuum between the two walls prevents heat from the inside to the outside by radiation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In thermos flask, the vacuum between the two walls prevents heat from the inside to the outside by conduction and convection.

Question 15.
Thermostat is a device can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Calorimeter is a device can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1.	Heat	(a)	Good absorber
2.	Temperature	(b)	Form of energy
3.	Black surface	(c)	Insulators
4.	Rubber, cork	(d)	Measure of hotness or coldness

Answer:

1. b
2. d
3. a
4. c

Question 2.

1.	Specific heat capacity	(a)	Dewar bottle
2.	Calorimeter	(b)	Lavoisier and simon
3.	Vacuum flask	(c)	J Kg-1 K-1
4.	Ice – calorimeter	(d)	Heat capacity

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 3.

1.	Conduction	(a)	liquids and gases
2.	Convection	(b)	Poor conductor
3.	Radiation	(c)	Solids
4.	Snow	(d)	Vacuum

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

Question 4.

1.	Solid to liquid	(a)	Condensation
2.	Liquid to gas	(b)	Deposition
3.	Gas to solid	(c)	Melting
4.	Gas to liquid	(d)	Vaporization

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

V. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : When a very hot liquid is poured into a thick glass tumbler it cracks.
Reason : Unequal expansion of the inner and outer glass walls causes the glass to crack.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion : Radiation is a process of transfer of heat in which a material medium is not necessary.
Reason : The heat from the sun reaches us through millions of miles of empty space by convection.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 3.
Assertion : Temperature is the measure of the heat energy.
Reason : Energy is the capacity to do work.
Answer:
Assertion is false, but the reason is true

Question 4.
Assertion : Small gaps left between railway lines.
Reason : It allows for contraction of rails during summer.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write the relation between joule and calorie.
Answer:
1 Calorie = 4.186 J.
1 K cal = 4186 J = 4.186 KJ.

Question 2.
Mention the factors affecting the flow of heat.
Answer:

1. Mass and materials of the bodies in contact.
2. Difference in their temperatures.

Question 3.
What is the principle of calorimetry?
Answer:
Heat lost by the hot body is equal to the heat gained by the cold body.

Question 4.
What are the various modes of transfer of heat?
Answer:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

Question 5.
Which color absorb heat radiation and which color reflects heat radiation?
Answer:
Black surfaces absorb heat radiation. White color reflects heat radiation.

Question 6.
What is the SI unit of heat capacity?
Answer:
The SI unit of heat capacity is JK^-1

Question 7.
Mention the SI unit of specific heat capacity?
Answer:
The SI unit of specific heat capacity is J Kg^-1 K^-1.

Question 8.
What is the function of a thermostat in a device?
Answer:
Thermostat functions both as the sensor and the controller of a thermal system.

Question 9.
Name some appliances which uses thermostat.
Answer:
Central heater in a room, air conditioner, water heater, oven and refrigerators.

Question 10.
What is the function of silvered wall in a thermos flask?
Answer:
The silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the flask.

Question 11.
You would have noticed some space being left in railway tracks. Why?
Answer:

1. It is because railway tracks which are made up of iron (metal) expand during summer.
2. When there is a gap, there will not be any damage in the track due to expansion of the metal rod.

Question 12.
What is transfer of heat?
Answer:
If heat energy is supplied to any substance, it will be transferred from one part of the substance to another part.

Question 13.
Mention the applications of convection in daily life.
Answer:

1. Formation of land breeze and sea breeze is due to convection of air.
2. Wind flows from one region to another region by convection.
3. In hot air balloons heat is transferred by convection and so the balloon raises.
4. In refrigerators, cool air moves downward and replaces the hot air because of convection.

Question 14.
Define radiation.
Answer:
Radiation is defined as the way of heat transfer from one place to another in the form of electromagnetic waves.

Question 15.
Mention the applications of radiation in daily life.
Answer:

1. Heat energy from the Sun reaches the Earth by radiation.
2. While standing near fire we feel the heat which is transferred as radiation.
3. Black surfaces absorb heat radiation. So that the bottom of the cooking vessels are painted black.
4. White color reflects heat radiation. That’s why we are advised to wear white cloth during summer.

Question 16.
Why do we wear woolen clothes in winter?
Answer:

1. The fibers of wool have the property of trapping air in between them.
2. In trapping the air, woolen clothes do not allow the heat to flow away from the body, which would then become cold.
3. Besides, wool is poor conductor of heat. So this property further prevents heat from leaving the body.

Question 17.
Can convection take place in solids? Why?
Answer:

1. No. The molecules in a solid are only free to vibrate about their fixed positions.
2. For convection to take place, the molecules need to move carrying the heat with them.
3. Hence convection cannot take place in solids.

Question 18.
Distinguish between heat capacity and specific heat capacity.
Answer:

Heat capacity	Specific heat capacity
1. It is the heat required to raise the temperature of a given mass of a substance through 1°C.	1. It is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of a substance through 1°C.
2. It depends on the mass of the body	2. It does not depend on the mass of the body.
3. Its unit is J°C-1	3. Its unit is J Kg-1°C-1

Question 19.
Arrange the following in order of decreasing expansion of heating : Steel, milk, air.
Answer:
Air, milk, steel.

Question 20.
Distinguish between evaporation and vaporization.
Answer:

Evaporation	Vaporization
1. Evaporation takes place at all temperature.	1. Vaporization takes place at fixed temperature.
2. Slow and gradual process	2. Violent and rapid process.
3. Takes place at the surface of the liquid	3. Takes place through the entire liquid.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Describe an experiment to prove that solids expands on heating and contract on cooling.
Answer:

1. Take a metal ball and a metal ring of suitable diameter.
2. Pass the metal ball through the ring.
3. You can observe that the metal ball can easily go through it.
4. Now heat the metal ball and then try to pass it fits through through the ring.
5. It will not pass through the ring.
6. Keep the metal ball on the ring for some time.
7. In few minutes, it will fall through the ring. Expansion in Solids
8. When the ball is heated the atoms in the ball gain heat energy.
9. They start vibrating and force each other apart.
10. As a result an expansion takes place. That’s why the ball did not go through the ring.
11. After some time, as the ball lost the heat energy to the surrounding it came back to its original size and it went through the ring.
12. This shows that heat energy causes expansion in solids.

Question 2.
Write a note on radiation.
Answer:

1. Radiation is the third form of heat transfer.
2. By conduction, heat is transferred through solids, by convection heat is transferred through liquids and gases, but by radiation heat can be transferred through empty space even through vacuum.
3. Heat energy from the Sun reaches the Earth by this form of heat transfer.
4. Radiation is defined as the way of heat transfer from one place to another in the form of electromagnetic waves.

Question 3.
Write the difference between conduction, convection, and radiation.
Answer:

Conduction	Convection	Radiation
Heat is transferred without the actual movement of the molecules	Heat transfer takes place due to the movement of the molecules themselves.	Heat is transferred without a medium.
Conduction is possible only in solids with the exception of mercury which is a liquid	Convection takes place in liquids and gases only.	Radiation requires no medium. It takes place even in vacuum.
Transfer is slow	Transfer is faster	Transfer is the fastest
Heat transfer can be in any direction.	Heat transfer is mainly upwards.	Heat transfer takes place in all direction.

Question 4.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

Heat	Temperature
1. It is a form of energy.	1. It is a thermal condition of body.
2. It flows from one object to other object when there is a difference in temperature	2. It is a quantity that indicates whether or not and in which direction heat will flow.
3. It is the total amount of internal energy of a body	3. It is proportional to average kinetic energy of the molecules of a body.
4. In the transmission of heat, total amount of heat remains unchanged.	4. In the transmission of heat, temperature does not remain same.
5. Its SI unit is joule (J)	5. Its SI unit is kelvin (K).

VIII. Problems for practice

Question 1.
What is the rise in temperature of 5 kg of water if it is given 84,000 J heat energy? Specific heat capacity of water 4200 J Kg^-1 °C^-1.
Solution:
Given, m = 5 kg
Q = 84,000 J
C = 4200 J Kg^-1 °C^-1
Let rise in the temperature be ∆T.
Heat energy (Q) = mC∆T
84,000 = 5 x 4200 x ∆T

= 4°C

Question 2.
A body of mass 750 g requires 13,500 J of heat energy in order to raise its temperature from 25 °C to 55 °C. Calculate its specific heat capacity.
Solution:
Given
m = 750 g = 0.750 kg
∆T (55 – 25)°C = 30°C
Q = 13,500 J
Q = mC∆T
or

= 600 JKg^-1

Question 3.
An iron ball requires 9000 J heat energy to raise its temperature by 10°C. Calculate the heat capacity of the iron bail.
Solution:
Given, Q = 9000 J
∆T = 10°C
Heat capacity, C = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\) = \(\frac{9000}{10}\) = 900 J°C^-1

IX. Picture based Questions

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Freezing
2. Vaporization
3. Condensation
4. Deposition

Students who are interested in learning of 11th English Prose Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing Questions and Answers can use Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th English Chapter Wise Pdf. First check in which chapter you are lagging and then Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers Summary, Activity, Notes Chapter Wise. Students can build self confidence by solving the solutions with the help of Tamilnadu State Board English Solutions. English is the scoring subject if you improve your grammar skills. Because most of the students will lose marks by writing grammar mistakes. So, we suggest you to Download Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Solutions according to the chapters.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Prose Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing

Check out the topics covered in Prose Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Prose Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Check out the topics covered in Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Warm up
We use various sports equipment to play different indoor and outdoor games. Now, associate the following sports equipment with their corresponding sports or games.

spear	racket	pawns	puck	stump	bow & arrow
Javelin	Tennis/ Squash’Badminton	Chess	Ice hockey	Cricket	Archery

club	oar	striker	sabre	dice	baton
Golf	Boating	Carrom	Fencing	Craps	Athletics

11th English The Queen Of Boxing Paragraph Question 1.
Have you won any medals? What are the levels to be accomplished to become an international sports person?
Answer:
Yes, I have won three medals. To become an international sportsperson, one has to clear district, regional and national level sports contests.

The Queen Of Boxing Lesson Summary Question 2.
What is your favourite sport? Do you play any sport?
Answer:
My favourite sport is cricket. I play cricket.

 

The Queen Of Boxing Question 3.
In India, the number of women pursuing careers in sports is considerably less, when compared to men. What do you think are the reasons? Discuss with a partner and share the ideas with the class.
Answer:
In India, the community looks at marriage as a culmination of a woman’s goal in life. The society is yet to recognize the potential of women players to compete with international players.

The Queen Of Boxing Questions And Answers Question 4.
Here is a list of Indian women celebrities who are accomplished in the field of sports and games. Match their names with the sports or games they are associated with, by drawing lines. One has been done for you as an example.

Answer:

1. (d) badminton
2. (i) wrestling
3. (j) chess
4. (b) weight lifting
5. (k) shooting
6. (n) tennis
7. (i) squash
8. (c) swimming
9. (h) athletics
10. (J) hockey
11. (k) basketball
12. (e) cricket
13. (a) golf
14. (g) archery

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English The Queen of Boxing Textual Questions

1. Antonym:

A
(a) amateur
(b) compulsory
(c) traditional
(d) expensive
(e) hopeful
(f) accepted

B
professional	leader	eccentric
respective	elusive	cheap
unnecessary	supportive	ancillary
hateful	desperate	trivial
modem	fanciful	repulsive
fulfilled	refused	showered
invaluable	novice	optional
complex	antique	detennined

Answer:
(a) Professional
(b) Optional
(c) Modern
(d) Cheap
(e) Desperate
(f) Refused

2. Based on your reading of the text, answer the following questions in two to three sentences each:

Queen Of Boxing Summary Question (a)
How did Mary Kom manage to get financial support for her trip to the USA?
Answer:
Mary Koms dad gave her Rs. 2,000/-. She spoke to her friend Onler about her problem. He took some elders and friends to meet the two Members of Parliament and seek their support. Two MPs donated Rs, 5,000/- and 3,000/- respectively. Thus Mary Kom managed to raise a princely sum of Rs. 10,000/- for her trip to USA.

The Queen Of Boxing Lesson Paragraph Question (b)
Why did Mary Kom think that she should not return empty-handed?
Answer:
Mary Korn’s dad had given all he had for her trip to USA. Besides, her friends had raised funds through MPs. They had pinned their hopes on her. So, she thought she should not return empty- handed.

11th English Prose 2 Paragraph Question (c)
What was her first impression of America?
Answer:
America was cold and beautiful. What little she saw was very pleasing to her eyes. Americans were enormously nice too.

11th English Unit 2 Prose Question (d)
Why did she call herself lucky’?
Answer:
Mary Kom was tired and suffering from jet lag. After weighing in, she found out that she did not have a match that day. Unlike her team mates, she could take rest well enough to face her opponent in the ring. So, she called herself lucky.

Queen Of Boxing Question (e)
According to Mary Kom, what was the reason for her losing in the finals?
Answer:
Mary Kom was not accustomed to American food. The greatest disadvantage was her loss of appetite. She could not eat food however hard she tried. She started losing weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This probably cost her the dream of winning the gold in the finals. What made her feel confident about the competitive players? Explain.
She was heartbroken because she lost the gold. The coaches were kind and appreciated her for winning silver to medal-hungry India. She was the only person in the team to get a medal. The biggest thing she took away from World Women’s boxing championship in Pennsylvania, USA was the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.

The Queen Of Boxing Summary Question (g)
What difficulty did she experience while eating Chinese food?
Answer:
Once Mary Kom and her team mates were given chopsticks to eat their food in China. Other friends, asked for spoons and managed. But Mary Kom ended up using both her hands to hold the chopsticks to pick up the food and push it into her mouth. She managed the complex work and satisfied her hunger.

The Queen Of Boxing Paragraph Question (h)
How was she felicitated on her return to India?
Answer:
On her return, Mary Kom was given a warm welcome at the airport. Back at Imphal, she was greeted with garlands, drumbeats and dancing. There was a victory procession across the town. A felicitation programme was held at Langol. People showered her with rich encomiums. She was presented with a traditional shawl.

11th English The Queen Of Boxing Question (i)
What did she consider her greatest achievement? Why?
Answer:
Mary Kom won a medal in each of the six World Boxing Championships she attended. There were a number of other international level Boxing Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her world title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania 22-7 at the fourth World Championship in New Delhi that she considered her greatest achievement in life because she was able to win at home.

Additional Questions

Queen Of Boxing Book Back Answers Question 1.
What did the first ‘silver’ mean to Mary Kom? Why?
Answer:
The first international silver medal in Boxing meant a lot to Mary Kom. The boxing contest and all that followed got clearly etched in her memory. Besides, it gave her the confidence that she could take on anyone in the ring in a boxing contest.

Question 2.
Why was Mary Kom dissatisfied with her first silver?
Answer:
Mary Kom was not satisfied with her .first silver medal because she knew she was good enough to win gold. So, she vowed to herself that the next time she would win gold in future tournaments.

Question 3.
Why did Mary Kom want a Government job?
Answer:
A Government job alone can bring long-term security and a steady income. After her first win, she was getting married. She had no savings. So, she wanted a Government job, both to support herself and to pursue her dreams.

Question 4.
How did the Sub-Inspector job give Mary Kom the required flexibility to follow her dreams? [OR] How does a Government job on sports quota support sportsmen?
Answer:
She got sub-Inspeetor job on sports quota from Manipur Government. Persons appointed under sports quota need not attend office regularly. They tend to be away either at practice camps or at the tournaments most of the year. They went to the office only when necessary. Thus Government job on sports quota helped Mary Kom (sports person) pursue her dream. with the most required financial security.

Question 5.
What was the speculation of Mary Korn’s friends and family members? How did Mary Kom explode it?
Answer:
Mary Kom’s friends and family members speculated that she may not continue to win medals in boxing after marriage. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005 and fourth in 2006. Thus, she exploded the speculation and myth that women may not achieve stardom in sports after marriage.

3. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 100-150 words each:

Question (i)
Describe Mary Kom’s personal experiences during her first International Championship match from the time of selection to winning the medal.
Answer:
Mary Kom flew to Pennsylvania, USA to compete under 48 kg World Womens’s Boxing Championship in 2001. On landing, she rushed to the sports arena and weighed. She was lucky as she could rest enough to face her opponent the following day. As soon as she won her opponent in the first match, she gained enormous confidence. Her fear of facing new opponents in the ring vanished completely. While her team-mates went on losing one after another, she went on to reach the finals. She was even hopeful of winning gold. She had defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC.

She also defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 219. The greatest disadvantage just before finals was that she lost her appetite. She was not accustomed to American food. However hard she tried, she could not eat. She lost her weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This cost her, her long cherished dream of gold medal and she lost to Hula Sahin of Turkey 13-5. She won her silver but was very sad. But the biggest thing she took home from Pennsylvania was not the medal but the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.
“Some people want it to happen, some wish it would happen, others make it happen.”

Question (ii)
Lack of adequate financial resource and sponsorships often affect sports persons. Hpw is this evident from Mary Kom’s life?
Answer:
Sports is all about Money. Mary Kom was selected to represent India in Pennsylvania, USA to contest under 48 kg World Women’s Boxing championship. Her father managed to collect only Rs. 2,000/- for her trip. Having heard of the cost of living.in USA, her heart sank. Things were very expensive in America. Her parents could do nothing more. She spoke to Onler and some of her friends. They met two local MPs and sought their help. Two MPs donated Rs. 5,000 and 3,000 respectively. It was only with the princely sum of Rs 10,000/- she was able to leave for USA.

Even after winning the first silver for India her financial worries did not end. Prize money offered respite to her immediate financial worries. She had no savings on her except a few insurance policies. She was getting married. She longed for a Government job under sports quota. With a government job she could follow her dreams with a steady income and flexible work schedule. It was only after she won her second World Women’s Boxing Championship gold, the Manipur state government offered her the job of a Sub-Inspector. Her ‘ first salary of Rs 15,000/- gave her a sense of relief.

“There is an old saying that money can’t buy happiness. If it could, I would buy my self four hits every game.”

 

Question (iii)
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”?
Answer:
After Mary Kom’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004. She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary. There, were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Kom’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media christened her, “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”.
“Don’t quit; suffer now; so that you can live the rest of your life like a Queen.”

Additional Questions

Question 1.
Mary Kom had an intention that her first championship contest would be a turning point in her life. How did this self fulfilling prophecy turn out to be true?
Answer:
On landing at Pennsylvania, Mary Kom didn’t have time to stand and stare. The weather was ’ chill but the people were enormously warm in the American soil. She kept telling herself that she could beat anyone in the ring. Her fear of facing opponents vanished. As her team-mates had to take in opponents soon after reaching USA, they started losing in a succession. But her first win against Nadia Hokmi of Poland (RSC) and at the semi-finals against Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9 gave her a feeling that the championship contest in Pennsylvania would be a turning point in her life. She lost her gold but she was lauded for her silver medal by the kind coaches. The match gave her an invaluable conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world. On return, Delhi gave her a warm welcome.

Back in Imphal, there was a victory procession. At Langol, there was a felicitation programme. People were liberal with their praise. She was presented with the traditional shawl. Her hero, Oja Ibomcha was also present. She spoke at Langol of her hope of winning gold for India. From 2001 – 2004 she won many International and National titles. She was recognized by the Government of Manipur which gave her a Sub-Inspector job. This addressed all her financial worries and she could focus on her dream alone. She is the only woman boxer to have won a medal in earth one-of six World Championship. She was honoured with Padma Shri in 2010 and Padma Bhushan in 2013 for her achievements in Sports. She lived up to her-self fulfilling prophecy in Sports Career.

“If you are persistent, you will get it. If you are consistent, you will keep it. ”

Vocabulary

A. Write the expanded forms of the following abbreviations, we commonly come across in our daily life:

1.	IELTS
2.	GST
3.	TNPSC
4.	STD
5.	ISD
6.	MBA
7.	MHRD
8.	GPS
9.	ns’s
10.	PTA
11.	NGO
12.	ICU
13.	IIM
14.	MRI
15.	EGG
16.	NCC
17.	LED
18.	CPU
19.	CBSE
20.	GDP
21.	LCD
22.	NRI
23.	IIT
24.	ITI

Answers:

1.	IELTS	International English Language Testing Service
2.	GST	Goods and Service Tax
3.	TNPSC	Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission
4.	STD	Subscribers’ Trunk Dialling
5.	ISD	International Subscribers’ Dialling
6.	MBA	Master of Business Administration
7.	MHRD	Ministry of Human Resource Development
8.	GPS	Global Positioning System
9.	NAS	National Social Service
10.	PTA	Parent Teachers’ Association
11.	NGO	Non Governmental Organization
12.	ICU	Intensive Care unit
13.	IIM	Indian Institute of Management
14.	MRI	Magnetic Resonance Imaging
15.	EGG	Electro Cardio Gram
16.	NCC	National Cadet Corps
17.	LED	Light Emitting Diode
18.	CPU	Central Processing Unit
19.	CBSE	Central Board of Secondary Education
20.	GDP	Gross Domestic Product
21.	LCD	Liquid Crystal Display
22.	NRI	Non Residential Indian
23.	IIT	Indian Institute of Technology
24.	ITI	Industrial Training Institute

B. Note the underlined words in the sentences below. They are antonyms formed by adding prefixes ‘un’ and ‘dis’ to the base words, for example.

The boxers were not unbeatable as I had earlier thought.
The greatest disadvantage for me was my loss of appetite.
Now form the opposites of the words given below by prefixing ‘un’, ‘in’, ‘dis’, ‘ir’, ‘il’ appropriately.

– fortunate	– regular	– continue	– comfortable
– respect	– active	– decent	– aware
– rational	– agree	– legitimate	– necessary
– direct	– obedient	– regular	– finite

Answer:

unfortunate	irregular	discontinue	uncomfortable
disrespect	inactive	indecent	unaware
irrational	disagree	illegitimate	unnecessary
indirect	disobedient	irregular	infinite

C. Idioms related to Sports:

Question 1.
Match the idioms with their meanings:

1. throw in the towel – (a) state of near collapse or defeat
2. in our comer – (b) unfair or unsporting behaviour
3. on the ropes – (c) prepare for a conflict
4. below the belt – (d) on your side in an argument or dispute
5. square off – (e) to give up

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Listening Activity

Read the questions based on the running commentary of a cricket match. Then, listen to the running commentary of the match read out by your teacher or played on the recorder and tick the right answers.

(For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.iri)

49th over, first ball, Kulasekara to Yuvraj, 1 run, yorker outside off, dug out to point, Yuvraj and Dhoni scamper through for a single. Perfect time for Dhoni to hit the winning runs. He deserves to hit the runs. Second ball, Kulasekara to Dhoni, SIX!! India are World Champions! A nation of a billion will sleep well tonight. What a shot to end the game! Yuvraj can’t control his emotions. He is in tears. Sachin runs in from the dressing room and is mobbed. What marvellous scenes in Mumbai! Dhoni got under the length ball and absolutely hammered that out of sight and out of the park. The White Kookaburra soared over the fence. Bhajji too is in tears. 28 years in waiting and the helicopter shot has brought an end to the game.

The finishers of old times Dhoni and Yuvraj, who were popularly called ‘ The Finishers ’ against Pakistan and Sri Lanka a few years ago, took the game closer and a thrilling finish was on the cards. They needed 30 off 30 deliveries when the batting power play became mandatory. Could they do it? They were up against a lethal bowler in Malinga. Just three runs of the Malinga over meant the Indians needed 27 off the next four overs. There were nerves all around, but the two batsmen in the middle looked to be in a different world altogether. Pressure was just a distant relative and they kept their cool to help India romp home with 10 deliveries to spare.

Question 1.
Who faced the first ball in the 49th over?
(a) Kulasekara
(b) Yuvraj
(c) Dhoni
(d) Sachin
Answer:
(b) Yuvraj

 

Question 2.
Which batsman hit a sixer?
(a) Kulasekara
(b) Bajji
(c) Dhoni
(d) Yuvraj
Answer:
(c) Dhoni

Question 3.
Where was the match held?
(a) Chennai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

Question 4.
Who were popularly called ‘The Finishers’?
(a) Dhoni and Yuvaraj
(b) Bajji and Malinga
(c) Gambhir and Yuvaraj
(d) Perara and Malinga
Answer:
(a) Dhoni and Yuvaraj

Question 5.
How many runs did India need to win the match in the last four overs?
(a) 30
(b) 21
(c) 37
(d) 27
Answers
(d) 27

Speaking Activity

In a group of five, discuss the following topic taking examples from Mary Kom’s life. Athletes cannot run with money in their pockets. They must run hope in their heart and dreams in their head.

Mr.A : In my opinion, every sportsman is not bom with a silver spoon in his mouth. Many sportsmen have come from very poor backgrounds.

Mr.B : I whole heartedly support your view, even Milka Singh, the flying Sikh had his humble beginnings.

Miss.C : At the outset, let me tell you, it is the burning desire in one’s heart that propels one to success in sports.

Mr.A : I should like to draw your attention to the fact that even former skipper Kapil Dev even did not have enough food when he began his career in cricket. The mess boy even refused to give him a few chapattis more during practice sessions. He commanded respect of every one with his batting and bowling skills.

Mr.B : New sports stars like Bhuvaneswar Kumar who took five wickets in the latest T-20 cricket in South Africa is also from a humble home.

Miss C : Similar to Mary Kom, I wish to share with you about the rising star of Indian women Hockey team. She is Rani Rampal, who was bom in a very poor family. Her dad was a driver of a horse-drawn cart in a small village called Shahabad in Haryana. She was impressed with many hockey players landing in jobs in Indian Railways as a result of their performance in Hockey games. At the age of six, she walked to the Hockey academy coach Mr. Baldev Singh. She disclosed her dream of becoming a Hockey Champion and replacing the leaky hut with a good house.

Baldev Singh considered her too young to start practice and asked her to come after some time. She met him again after a few days and begged him to take her in. Impressed, he admitted her. People protested that a young girl was practising a boy’s game. Her parents ignored the protest. They had no money to buy her even the uniform or the hockey stick. One day, she came late for her practice. Baldev Singh being a dedicated coach got angry and imposed a penalty of Rs 200/-.

Miss E : Dear friends, I would also like to highlight a girl rising as a volleyball champion . from Tamil Nadu. She has become a star player giving hopes to Tamil Nadu.She is Michael Nandhini (16). She hails from Tharuvaikulam, Thoothukudi district. She is studying in Std XI, like us, in the Government Higher Secondary School in her own village. She has represented Tamil Nadu Sub-Junior Volley Ball team and helped Tamil Nadu bag Silver medal in Rajasthan. Her father and brother are coolies.

But she cherishes the dream of playing for India in the lntemationalgames.Thechallengeforheristoscaleoverthethreateningpoverty at home and touch stardom in sports. Nandhini wants to break the vicious cycle of poverty by training herself in volley ball. She is also making her mark in athletic events such as long jump, triple jump, 100 meter and 200 meter races. The balls she hits over the net may help her scale over poverty line.

Mr. A : MS Dhoni is also from a small tribal village. Today he is rich and famous but it was his hardwork and dream for India that made him great.

Miss E : Well, Shikhar Dhawan who has hit 72 runs out of 39 balls is a legend who guides India to success during critical situations.

Mr. B : Why have you left Virat Kohli? He leads by example. He has proved to the world that if you believe in your dreams you can beat any team in the world:

Mr. A : Yes, with persistence and hard work one can grow from rags to riches.

Reading

The passage given is on Kabbadi. Read the passage and complete the activities that follow.

Kabbadi (கபடி – in Tamil) is a contact team sport that originated in Tamil Nadu, India. It is the national Sport of Bangladesh. It is also popular in South Asia and is the state game of the Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Punjab and Telangana,

Kabbadi is played between two teams of seven players: the objective of the game is for a . single player on offence referred as a “raider” to run in to the opposing teams half of a court, tag out as many of their defenders as possible, and return to their own half of the court-all without being tackled by the defenders. Points are scored for each player tagged by the raider, while the opposing team earns a point for stopping the raider. Players are taken out of the game if they are tagged or tackled, but can be “revived” for each point scored by their team from a tag or tackle. The raider should hold his breath and utter the words like “Kabbadi, Kabbadi; hututu, hututufchadu, kudu;” etc. while the opponents try to catch him. If he stops uttering these words, he is considered out.

The game is known by its regional names in different parts of the subcontinent, such as Kabbadi or Chedugudu in Andhra Pradesh, Kabbadi in Kerala and Telangana, Hadudu in Bangladesh, Bhavatik in Maldives, Kauddi or Kabbadi in the Punjab Region, Hu-Tu-Tu in Western India and Hu-Do-Do in Eastern India and Chadakudu in South India. The highest governing body of Kabbadi is the International Kabbadi Federation.
Given below is the visual presentation of the first paragraph.

Given below is the visual presentation of the first paragraph.

I. Represent the other paragraphs in a visual form of your choice.(flow chart, mind-map, pie-chart, etc.)

II. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
A contact sport usually involves a .
(a) violent
(b) gentle
(c) Physical
Answer:
(c) Physical

Question 2.
Kabbadi is a game played between
(a) seven teams of two players
(b) two teams of seven players
(c) four teams of seven players
Answer:
(b) two teams of seven players

Question 3.
A single
(a) player on offence is reffered to as a raider.
(b) offence is reffered to as a raider.
(c) raider is an offence by the player. .
Answers:
3. (a) player on offence is referred to as a raider

III. Answer the following.

Question 1.
How does a raider score points for his team?
Answer:
A raider runs into the area of opponents (i.e.) defenders who are secure in half part of the Kabbadi court. He tries to tag out as many as possible. If he. tags two defenders, the offence team wins two points.

Question 2.
When does a raider concede a point to the opponent team?
Answer:
A raider concedes a point to the opponent team when he is tackled successfully by the defenders. .

Question 3.
Can a player be revived when he/she is out of the game? Explain your answer.
Answer:
If a defender is tagged by a raider, one member from the raider’s team can be revived. Similarly, a defender can be revived if his team tackles a raider.

 

Question 4.
Kabbadi is called by different names in different parts of India. Do you know how Pallankuzhi is called in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala?
Pallanguzhi/Pallankuzhi is called Ali gulimare in Karnataka; Vamana guntalu in Andhra Pradesh and Kuzhipara in Kerala.

Grammar

Modal Verbs

A. Choose the correct word to complete the following sentences. (Modal Verbs)

Question 1.
We are not completely sure but Kishore come _____ back tomorrow.
(a) needn’t
(b) may
(c) ought
Answer:
(b) may

Question 2.
When Koushik was a child, he _____ play in the street.
(a) won’t
(b) must
(c) used to
Answer:
(c) used to

Question 3.
_____ I have some more juice, please?
(a) Could
(b) Needn’t
(c) Would
Answer:
(a) Could

Question 4.
I _____ believe my eyes. Is Santhosh the one who is standing over there?
(a) couldn’t
(b) mustn’t
(c) can’t
Answer:
(c) can’t

Question 5.
Dinesh _____ be the richest person in the village. He’s just bought two luxury cars.
(a) may not
(b) ought
(c) must
Answer:
(c) must

Question 6.
Imran _____ have studied more for the final exam than playing.
(a)would
(b) should
(c) can
Answer:
(b) should

 

Question 7.
My house _____ decorating as I’m tired of the old furniture.
(a) could
(b) may
(c) needs
Answer:
(c) needs

Question 8.
I _____ rather request you to check my exercise before giving it to the teacher.
(a) would
(b) should
(c) ought to
Answer:
(a) would

Question 9
_____ I use your mobile phone? It’s an emergency.
(a) Must
(b) May
(c) Won’t’
Answer:
(b) May

Question 10.
In schools, students _____ wear uniforms. It is compulsory.
(a) should
(b) must
(c) may
Answer:
(a) should

Question 11.
Nirmala’s daughter _____ write perfectly when she was seven.
(a) might
(b) could
(c) mustn’t
Answer:
(b) could

Question 12.
I _____ let you know when I have more information about the matter.
(a) would
(b) shall
(c) can’t
Answer:
(b) shall

B. Practice your modal verbs. Look at these signs and write down the rules, regulations or advice they convey using the modal verbs given below.
(can – could – may – might – must – ought to – shall – should – will – would)

1. Nobody should trespass in this area
2. Those who enter this area must wear chemical goggles for safety.
3. Danger zone-materials may fall on visitors.
4. Visitors may contact officer for information pertaining to this factory.
5. Loitering must be avoided. This gate should be used only for exit.
6. You should walk carefully, the floor is slippery.
7. Unauthorised persons should not enter.
8. You should bend your knees while lifting heavy materials

C. Read the following passage adapted from ‘Three Men in a Boat’ and fill in the blanks with appropriate modals and read the paragraph aloud.

I thought I will go to British Museum today to read the treatment for some slight ailment of which I had a touch. I (1) _____ read all I wanted to read and then felt I (2) _____ begin to study diseases. I started to generally turn the leaves idly.(I came to typhoid fever, read the symptoms and discovered I (3) _____ (be) having it for months without knowing it. Cholera, I had severe complications. Diphtheria, I (4) _____ have been born with. I was relieved to find that Bright’s disease, I had only in a modified form as so far as that was concerned, I (5) _____ live for years. The only diseaset I (6) _____ conclude I had not got was a housemaid’s knee. I sat and pondered. I tried to feel my heart. I (7) _____ (not feel) my heart. I walked into the reading room as a happy healthy man but crawled out as a decrepit wreck.
Answer:

1. could
2. must
3. was
4. must
5. would
6. could
7. could not feel

Prepositions And Prepositional Phrases:

(on, off. up, in, out. above, below, over, under, to, from, with, without, before, aller. at. f during, according to, a head of, a part of. from, as far as, in spite of, owing to. in addition to, in case of, in front of, but for, on account of, on behalf of, with reference to etc.)

Sometimes, a sentence can end with a preposition. Read the sentences given below.

1. This seat is not very comfortable to sit ________
2. My father gave me some pictures to look ________
3. Was it worth waiting ________ ?

Answers:

1. in
2. at
3. for

(A) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with appropriate prepositions.

Question (i)
In case (1) ______ difficulty, you should refer (2) ______ a dictionary and then respond (3) ______ the question.
Answer:

1. of
2. to
3. to

Question (ii)
The clothes that he has put (1) ______ . are very impressive. He is going (2) ______ his hometown to pay homage (3) ______ the village head.;
Answer:

1. on
2. to
3. to

Question (iii)
The nearest hospital (1) ______ this place is (2) ______ a distance of twenty. kilometers. You can reach it either (3) ______ car or (4) ______ a bicycle.
Answer:

1. in
2. at
3. by
4. by

(B) Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks with suitable prepositions and read the paragraph aloud for better understanding of the use of prepositions.

Mr. Beek of New Jersey has invented a floating life-preserver, which gives complete protection (1) _____ people who have been shipwrecked. The upper section is large enough for the wearer to be able to move his head and arms (2) _____ , and a month’s supply (3) _____ food and drinking water can also be stored (4) _____ it. The cover can be closed in rough weather, and the wearer can see (5) _____ the window in the front, and breathe (6) _____ a curved pipe. The life preserver is made (7) _____ water proof cloth attached (8) _____ circular metal tubes, which protect the wearer (9) _____ sharp rocks and hungry fish.
Answers:

1. for
2. out
3. of
4. in
5. through
6. through
7. of
8. to
9. from

(C) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences, using prepositions if necessary.

Question (i)
The new machines are quite different (1) _______ the old ones. They are able to work (2) _______ a much faster pace, a substantially reduced risk (3) _______ .the environment.
Answer:

1. from
2. at
3. to

Question (ii)
The students discussed the problem (1) _______ themselves. However, they did not arrive
(2) _______ any conclusion. They went (3) _______ their class teacher and discussed (4) _______ her. She gave a solution (5) _______ it and they were happy.
Answer:

1. among
2. at
3. to
4. with
5. for

(D) Do you know what happened to the Titanic, the largest ship to sail then? She hit an iceberg and sank into the Atlantic Ocean. Now choose the right word and complete the paragraph. Read the paragraph aloud.

The wreck (1) _____ (up/of) the RMS Titanic lies (2) _____ ( in/at)a depth of (3) _____ (about/ above) 12,500 feet, about 370 miles south east (4) _____ (of/off) the coast of Newfoundland. It lies (5) _____ (in/on) two main pieces about a third (6) _____ (of/off) a mile apart. The bow is still largely recognizable (7) _____ (with/ within) many preserved interiors, despite the damage it sustained hitting the sea floor. A debris field (8) _____ (of/around) the wreck contains thousands (9) _____ (on/ of) items spilled (10) _____ (from/of) the ship as it sank. She sank (11) _____ (in/at) the year 1912.
Answer:

1. of
2. at
3. about
4. off
5. in
6. of
7. with
8. around
9. of
10. from
11. in

 

(E) Solve the crossword using the clues given

Across

2. We fought _____ the measure.(7)
9. The cat climbed _____ the tree.(2)
11. Cats are _____ dogs.(6)
14. Let’s walk _____ the park.(7)
16. The vegetables were planted _____ the apple tree(6)
17. Banu sings _____ a bird.(4)
19. Subash is the president _____ our class.(2)
20. We live _____ the river.(2)
22. The bank is _____ the park.(8)
25. I saw John waving _____ the crowd.(5)
29. I have a present _____ you.(3)
32. He ran _____ us.(7)
7. The cat jumped _____ the table.(4)
10. My story is shorter _____ yours.(4)
13. Put the cookie _____ the jar.(2)
18. My story is _____ my pets.(5)
21. Let’s walk _____ class together.(4)
23. We live _____ the city limits.(6)
28. I am more cautious _____ the fall.(5)
31. We strolled _____ the river.(5)
33. The leaves had collected _____ the trees.(7)

Answer:

2. against
7. onto
9. up
10. than
11. unlike
13. in
14. through
16. Beside
17. like
18. about
19. of
20. by
21. into
22. opposite
23. within
25. above
28. since
29. for
31. along
32. between
33. beneath

Down

1. put the book _____ the table.(4)
3. Desert will be served _____ dinner.(5)
2. Please treat us _____ equals.(2)
4. My house is _____ the school.(4)
5. We walked _____ the store.(2)
6. No eating _____ class.(6)
8. The book fell _____ my desk.(3)
11.I will not leave _____ the speech is finished.(5)
12. The store is open everyday _____ Sunday.(3)
15. The dog is____ the house.(7)
16. The cat is hiding _____ my bed.
19. The cat jumped _____ the dog.(4)
20. He is hiding _____ the bookcase.
22. Dinner is _____ the table (2)
24. I put my hands _____ my Pockets.(6)
26. We will eat _____ the play.(6)
27. The cat is sleeping the bed.(5)
29. This letter is ______ my aunty.(4)
30. We ran ______ the other kids.(4)

Answer:

1. upon
2. as
3. after
4. near
5. to
6. during
8. off
11. until
12. but
15. outside
16. below
19. over
20. behind
22. on
24. inside
26. before
27. under
29. from
30. past

Writing

A. Note-making:
Decline of Traditional Games

I. Modern child Vs child of prev. gen.:

Question (a)
Games modern children play
Answer:
Cricket – Tennis – Football – West origin – unidimensional – just hit & run in nature – hand eye co-ordination only ^

Questions (b)

Question (i)
Games played in 1970’s
Answer:
Variety of outdoor games – Kabbadi, Goli, Ghilli, Pandi, Adupuliyattam

Question (ii)
Indoor Games
Answer:
Dhayakkattam, Paramapadham, Pallanguzhi

 

Question (iii)
Advantages
Answer:

• Retain rich culture & value pass on ancestral knowledge
• sharpen our observn
• dvp. math skills

II. Potential of Traditional games:
(a) can dvp. a lot of skills like logical thinking, bldg, strategy, concentration, basic math, aiming etc.

III. Traditional Games – learning Aids:
(a) Teach How to treat success & failure
(b) dvp. sensory skills
(c) count add
(d) Improve motor skills
(e) Hand – eye coordination

IV. Values Gained:
(a) Envt. – friendly values
(b) Chance to learn abt. our cultural history.
(c) Suitable for all ages
(d) Interaction between generations
Conclusion:
(e) Modem games – origin in our traditional games-pride

B. Summarising:

Task: On the basis of your understanding of the given sample, make notes of the following text and write a summary in about 75 words.

Paralympic Games

Summarising is to briefly sum up the various points given in the notes made from the original passage. It is a retrieval of information from the notes made. Hence, while writing it, one need not go back to the original passage but refer only to the notes made. A first draft will help us to write a fair summary.

Rough Draft
Worrisome decline of Traditional games
I Most-efLthemodem children play cricket, Tennis, football originated in west that are uni-
dimensiond and-develpp only hand and eye coordination, Traditional indoor games like Dayakkattam, Parama PadKaSirPallanguzhi, Pandi or Adupuliyattam and out door games, like Kabbadi, Gobi and Ghilli are legacy oflirSemLJcnow 1 edge. They develop logical thanking, basic math, sensory skills and improve motor skillsTGne~vanJiaye great fun either playing or watching traditional games. By playing traditional games we leam about ourjculture and enhance interaction between generation. It is a matter of pride that many moderir-garaes originated from traditional Indian games.

Fair draft
Modern Games Vs Traditional Games
Modem games like Tennis, Cricket and football develop only hand-eye coordination and are unidimensional in nature, whereas traditional indoor and outdoor games are inherited legacy of our ancestral knowledge. Each traditional game is a learning aid helping us develop, sensory skills and improve motor skills and enhance inter-generational bondage too. It is a pride that traditional games influenced modem games.

C. Debate is an essential skill and your class room is the best place to practice this skill. Your teacher will now divide the class into two groups and organize a debate on the topic “Fast food tastes better than nutritious food.” The following points may help you to participate and speak in a debate. One group will speak FOR the motion and the other group will speak AGAINST the motion. Now prepare a speech for the debate.

Debate
Fast Food Tastes Better Than Nutritious Food
Preethi : Respected principal, teachers and my dear friends, good morning to you all. I am Preethi from XI ‘B’ section. I am before you to talk in favour of the topic, “Fast food tastes better than nutritious food”. At the outset, I would like to tell you all that change is inevitable. Nowadays we have the world in our palm and we can order any food that we like online or just by a phone call. Pizza, Noodles and Crispy KFC chicken are delivered to us at our door step. People who are jealous of the variety of foods we have, accuse us of wasting money and eating junk food.

But if they are so, would the central Government and sanitary Inspectors permit the proliferation of fast food chains and open the doors for foreign fast food joints like Domino’s, PizzaHut, KFC and MC Donald’s restaurants in all big and small cities of India. Quick service restaurants hope to expand further. The parents, also wish to take children out for eating in Quick Service Restaurants. Friends do you know that the United Nation’s Economic situation and prospects 2018 estimated that India will grow 7.2% in 2018 and accelerate to 7.47 in 2019.

Judge : Now I invite Sangeetha to present her case against fast food Sangeetha Respected Principal/Headmaster, teacher and my dear friends whenever a nation moves away from its cultural moorings and natural food habits it is doomed for a health disaster. My heart-felt sympathies are for my friends in the fast food team because they don’t know what they are doing. Friends please try to understand the scientific truth that Burger, fried crispy item, pizza and the like are important food items not designed to suit our physical needs.

Besides, taste is not the only thing. Nutrition is more important. Sprouts, greens, pulses, fruits and vegetables, nourish our health. All the traditional food items our ancestors have left us have excellent nutritional value. Even the simple rasam made of Tamarind water has its rich nutritional value as it has ingreditents of pepper, garlic etc. Young ones are now becoming victims of obesity because of their addition to eating fast food and spending long hours before T.V. Our team is really worried about blind shifting over to fast food. Health is more important than pleasing your palate.

If you don’t change and return to nutritious traditional food consumption, we will be producing large number of well-fed sick younger generation. Do you want India to be populated by people who can’t play and have fun but just eat junk food, become fat and die early. No, I appeal to my friends in the opponent team to concede defeat and mend their ways before it is too late. We come across juvenile diabetics, digestion- related problems and cholesterol increase among young children.
Even the beverages children take like Pepsi, Coke and the likes are harmful to health. School canteens are offering foods, high in fat and sugar. Such food increases body weight among children and cause infection, food poisoning and dental diseases. As a

concluding remark, I would like to say, the practice of high consumption of junk foods, like noodles, burgers, pao-bhaji, sandwiches, hot dogs, patties, pastries, popcorn, potato chips, carbonated drinks, kulcha channa, pani puri, samosa have become common food items of adolescent children in India. As per WHO report, let me repeat, claims more than 3% of children in India are obese. It is time to get over your addiction to junk food. Instead, you can take healthy food such as fermented foods, wheat noodles by adding a lot of vegetables, sprouted pulses, vegetable cutlets and multi-grain bread, etc. Should you pay health for your taste? Don’t dig your own grave with your teeth. There are enough undertakers and cremation facilities. Don’t rush to death, live a healthy life. Thank you one and all.

Judge : Based on the arguments, I am glad to announce that the person who spoke against fast food has won. Please avoid junk food and stay healthy.

D. Writing an article:

Task: Read and understand the data presented in the pie-chart below on factors affecting health, and write an article for your school magazine highlighting the fact that it’s our lifestyle that determines how healthy we remain. Write your article in about 150 words. Give a suitable title too.

Cause For Diseases

For a billion plus population in India, the medical facilities are restricted to only 10% of the population. As the poorest of the poor ‘ can’t afford to buy health services, their health gets affected and they die early. The pollution levels in all the metropolitan cities are growing to alarming levels. Lung-related diseases are caused by the toxic fumes released by two wheelers and four wheelers. The study’reveals 19% of diseases are caused due to pollution. Of course there are 20% of diseases genetically inherited from parents. TB and diabetics are said to be some of the inherited diseases.

Now doctors are trying to isolate the gene that causes terminal illness and correct it during pregnancy itself. Such advanced health care and preventive support may not be available for poor countries. 51% of the causes of illness is jointly shared by lifestyle, smoking, obesity, stress, diet, nutrition and blood pressure. Lifestyle and stress are inter-related.

Hectic work schedules, lack of sleep, eating disorders contribute to stress and high level of blood pressure. Due to addiction to android games and TV shows, young ones neglect playing in open grounds. They are glued to small or big screens and keep eating chips, fries and heavily advertised junk food. Poor people don ’t give nutritious food to children. The malnourishment leads to various diseases. Some children lose their eyesight due to vitamin deficiency. Politicians should focus on investing money in sports and games and health care delivery systems that give good health care to all freely.

The Queen of Boxing About the Author

Mary Kom is a boxer and the winner of five world boxing championships and an Olympic Bronze medal in 2012. Influenced by the media attention and recognition bestowed on Dingko Singh, a Manipuri boxer, Mary Kom made up her mind to become a boxer. Despite all odds, how she achieved glory, forms this brief excerpt from Mary Korn’s autobiography “Unbreakable”.

 

The Queen of Boxing Summary

Mary Kom was selected in the 48 kg category for the International Boxing Association, World Women’s Boxing championships in Pennsylvania, USA, in November-December 2001.

Mary Kom wanted to become a world boxing champion but her dad could manage only Rs 2000 for her expenses in USA. Mary Kom was deeply disturbed as she had heard that things were very expensive in America. She realized that her parents can’t do much about her predicament. So, she talked to her friend Only. A few well wishers met two Members of Parliament and they gave her Rs 8000. With the princely sum of Rs 10000 in her hands, she went to USA. She made up her mind to bring laurels back home.

Unlike fellow players, who had to rush to sporting arena straight from the airport, she could take rest. Her match was scheduled the following day. She won in the first round comfortably. This eliminated her fear of facing opponents quickly. She went on to reach the finals while her friends lost. She even harboured the idea of bagging gold.

Mary Kom had an intuition that the event in Pennsylvania would change the rest of her life. In the quarter final, she defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC. In the semi-final, she defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9. She reached the finals but lost to Hula Sahin ofo Turkey by 13-5.

Mary Kom wasn’t accustomed to the kind of food available in USA. As she skipped food, she began losing her weight. Just before the finals, she weighed only 46kg. This cost her the dream of winning Gold. She cried her heart out. But her kind coaches consoled her and cheered her up. The silver medal gave her the confidence that she could take on any boxer in the ring.

The career of boxing took Mary Kom to different countries of the world. Incidentally, she learnt about the different cultures and lifestyles of people. In China, they were given chopsticks to eat their meal. Just then she was trying to master the art of handling a knife and fork. Others asked for spoons whereas Mary Kom managed to satisfy her hunger using chopsticks.

Medal-hungry India, gave her a warm welcome at the airport. Back at Imphal, she was greeted with garlands and victory ride across the tours. The whole community shared its joy. She was felicitated at Langol. She was presented with a traditional shawl. Her boxing model Oja Ibomcha was also felicitated. Mary Kom shared her hope of gold in future boxing tournaments.

The first international silver medal meant a lot to Mary Kom though she was not content with it. She vowed to bring gold in future for India. The prize money from the Government helped her overcome financial worries. In order to ensure long-term security and a steady income she needed a Government job. Her dream of getting a Government job under sports quota was fulfilled when she got her Second World championship gold. The Manipur Government offered her the post of a Sub-Inspector. She earned a salary of Rs 15000 per month. Sports quota job allows persons to invest time in practice and apply for leave while going for tournament.

Mary Kom’s medal haul continued breaking the speculation about her ability to win after her marriage. She retained the world title in the Third World Women’s Championship at Podolsk in Russia. Her winning streak continued in Fourth World Women’s Championship in 2006.

Retaining her world title for the fourth time in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania 22-7 at New Delhi was one of her greatest achievements in life. Winning at home turned out to be the most memorable thing for her.

Mary Kom inspired fellow boxers to excel. In 2006, India hauled four golds, one silver and three bronzes. Her team went on to win the overall title. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media christened her “Queen of boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”.

Mary Kom became the “Queen of Boxing” breaking free from poverty with her perseverance. She exploded the myth about women’s participation in boxing. She is a living legend to all women who wish to reach stardom in sports.

The Queen of Boxing Glossary

Textual:

appetite – hunger
adulation – appreciation
conviction – firm faith or belief
etched – imprinted
felicitation – congratulatory address
haul – taking a collection
jet lag – a tired and unpleasant feeling, a person experiences, following a long flight through different timezones
lauded – appreciated
myth – a legendary tale (imaginary)
princely – very large
palate – sense of taste
sate – satisfy
speculation – guess

Additional:

accustomed to – habituated to
auto – biography – life story written by oneself
disappointed – upset over failure
enough – sufficient
unbeatable – unconquerable / invincible
vanished – disappeared
vowed – pledged / promised
security – protection
steady – constant

The Queen of Boxing Synonyms

I. Choose the correct synonyms of the word underlined below:

Question 1.
My father managed to collect only Rs 2000 for my trip.
(a) tip
(b) dance
(c) journey
(d) jogging
Answer:
(c) journey

Question 2.
I was both unset and worried.
(a) disappointed
(b) disliked
(c) destined
(d) distracted
Answer:
(a) disappointed

 

Question 3.
Onler and few of my friends went to seek help from MPs.
(a) give
(b) obtain
(c) reject
(d) denounce
Answer:
(b) obtain

Question 4.
With the princely sum of Rs 10000 Mary Kom left for USA.
(a) very small
(b) meagre
(c) insignificant
(d) huge
Answer:
(d) huge

Question 5.
Players need to weight in which is compulsory for all players.
(a) optional
(b) objectionable
(c) mandatory
(d) discretionary
Answer:
(c) mandatory

Question 6.
I was fortunate.
(a) unlucky
(b) lucky
(c) optional
(d) descretionary
Answer:
(b) lucky

Question 7.
I was able to rest enough to face my opponent.
(a) Friend
(b) Villain
(c) anto:hero
(d) enemy
Answer:
(d) enemy

Question 8.
The fight and all that followed are clearly etched in my memory.
(a) erased
(b) melted
(c) stayed
(d) imprinted
Answer:
(d) imprinted

 

Question 9.
My fear of facing the opponents quickly vanished.
(a) vanquished
(b) disappeared
(c) appeared
(d) soared
Answer:
(b) disappeared

Question 10.
The boxers were not unbeatable.
(a) conquerable
(b) invincible
(c) invisible
(d) visible
Answer:
(b) invincible

Question 11.
The greatest disadvantage for me was my loss of appetite.
(a) thirst
(b) hunger
(c) anger
(d) passion
Answer:
(b) hunger

Question 12.
I was very disappointed.
(a) happy
(b) pleased
(c) sad
(d) envious
Answer:
(c) sad

Question 13.
The coaches lauded me on the silver.
(a) reproached
(b) rebuked
(c) rescinded
(d) appreciated
Answer:
(d) appreciated

Question 14.
The biggest thing I took away from this championship was the conviction that I could take on any boxer.
(a) infirmity
(b) assurance
(c) acquittal
(d) despair
Answer:
(b) assurance

Question 15.
I was not accustomed to the food there.
(a) unfamiliar
(b) adapted
(c) unused
(d) accursed
Answer:
(b) adapted

 

Question 16.
T managed the complex work required.
(a) easy
(b) delicate
(c) intricate
(d) intimate
Answer:
(c) intricate

Question 17.
I ate enough to sate my appetite.
(a) saturate
(b) satisfy
(c) stratify
(d) sanctify
Answer:
(b) satisfy

Question 18.
A felicitation programme was Held in Langol.
(a) congratulatory
(b) evaluation
(c) assessment
(d) acknowledge
Answer:
(a) congratulatory

Question 19.
Words of praise and adulation were showered on me.
(a) censure
(b) reproach
(c) criticism
(d) appetite
Answer:
(d) appetite

Question 20.
My medal haul continued after my marriage.
(a) dispersal
(b) collection
(c) separation
(d) dispersal
Answer:
(b) collection

Question 21.
It put an end to the speculation among my friends and family.
(a) truth
(b) calculation
(c) guess
(d) guess
Answer:
(c) guess

Question 22.
A grand reception was organized.
(a) mean
(b) frugal
(c) simple
(d) magnificent
Answer:
(d) magnificent

Question 23.
Indian boxers also performed exceptionally well.
(a) usually
(b) abnormally
(c) unusually
(d) commonly
Answer:
(c) unusually

Question 24.
They christened her, ‘Queen of Boxing’.
(a) Christ-like
(b) named
(c) incognito
(d) named
Answer:
(b) named

 

Question 25.
The new flavour pleased his palate.
(a) disgust
(b) taste
(c) plate
(d) tasteless
Answer:
(b) tasteless

The Queen of Boxing Antonyms

II. Choose the correct antonyms of the word underlined below: (Exam model)

Question 1.
I left for TISA with this princely sum.
(a) meagre
(b) substantial
(c) enormous
(d) large
Answer:
(a) meagre

Question 2.
T spoke to Onler and some of mv friends about my problem.
(a) issue
(b) conflict
(c) confrontation
(d) solution
Answer:
(d) solution

Question 3.
I was relieved to have money in my pocket.
(a) happy
(b) free
(c) tensed
(d) bonded
Answer:
(c) tensed

Question 4.
The people were enormously nice.
(a) radically
(b) drastically
(c) largely
(d) insignificantly
Answer:
(d) insignificantly

Question 5.
It is compulsory for each player to wear uniform.
(a) obligatory
(b) mandatory
(c) indispensable
(d) optional
Answer:
(d) optional

Question 6.
I was fortunate.
(a) lucky
(b) unlucky
(c) lovely
(d) unlikely
Answer:
(b) unlucky

 

Question 7.
I was able to rest well to face my opponent
(a) fiend
(b) foe
(c) villain
(d) friend
Answer:
(d) friend

Question 8.
My fear vanished.
(a) disappeared
(b) appeared
(c) concluded
(d) ended
Answer:
(b) appeared

Question 9.
The biggest thing I took away from this championship that I could take on any boxer was conviction
(a) faith
(b) hope
(c) trust
(d) disbelief
Answer:
(d) disbelief

Question 10.
She came across different cultural practices across the world.
(a) dissimilar
(b) unlike
(c) same,/similar
(d) likely
Answer:
(c) same,/similar

Question 11.
They consoled and lauded
(a) appreciated
(b) praised
(c) condemned
(d) confided
Answer:
(c) condemned

Question 13.
I was presented with a traditional shawl.
(a) ancient
(b) inherited
(c) cultural
(d) modern
Answer:
(d) modern

Question 14.
Everybody was doubtful.
(a) convinced
(b) suspicious
(c) relaxed
(d) consulted
Answer:
(a) convinced

Question 15.
Retaining my world cup was one Of my greatest achievements.
(a) holding
(b) losing
(c) rescuing
(d) reviving
Answer:
(b) losing

Question 16.
Things were expensive in America.
(a) costly
(b) extravagant
(c) highly priced
(d) cheap
Answer:
(d) cheap

Question 17.
It was the most memorable even
(a) worth-remembering
(b) forgettable
(c) unforgatable
(d) facination
Answer:
(b) forgettable

Question 18.
She was hopefull of winning gold.
(a) optimistic
(b) pessimistic
(c) firm
(d) desperate
Answer:
(b) pessimistic

Question 19.
She accepted donations.
(a) took
(b) approved
(c) agreed
(d) refused
Answer:
(d) refused

Question 20.
They were not amateur players.
(a) novice
(b) inexperienced
(c) fresher
(d) professional
Answer:
(d) professional

Question 21.
Media christened her magnificent Mary.
(a) significant
(b) accomplished
(c) rescuing
(d) insignificant
Answer:
(d) insignificant

Question 22.
I was selected by the Boxing association.
(a) adopted
(b) stipulated
(c) excluded
(d) sophisticated
Answer:
(c) excluded

Question 23.
My father managed to collect Rs. 2000/-
(a) distribute
(b) gather
(c) compose
(d) restrain
Answer:
(a) distribute

 

Question 24.
We were the last team to arrive.
(a) reach
(b) articulate
(c) great
(d) depart
Answer:
(d) depart

Question 25.
One should never feel inferior.
(a) lesser
(b) minor
(c) superior
(d) menial
Answer:
(c) superior

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Organ Systems in Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer:

Organ System In Animals Class 9 Question 1.
Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
(a) Sublingual
(b) Lachrymal
(c) Submaxillary
(d) Parotid
Answer:
(b) Lachrymal

Chapter 20 Organ Systems In Animals Question 2.
Stomach of human beings mainly digests
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fat
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(b) Proteins

9th Science Organ System In Animals Question 3.
To prevent the entry of food into the trachea, the opening is guarded by
(a) Epiglottis
(b) Glottis
(c) Hard palate
(d) Soft palate
Answer:
(a) Epiglottis

Organ System In Animals Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Bile helps in the digestion of
(a) Proteins
(b) Sugar
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates
Answer:
(c) Fats

Science Digest 9th Question 5.
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is
(a) Villi
(b) Liver
(c) Nephron
(d) Ureter

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 6.
Which one of the following substances is not a constituent of sweat?
(a) Urea
(b) Protein
(c) Water
(d) Salt
Answer:
(b) Protein

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 7.
The common passage meant for transporting urine and sperms in male is
(a) Ureter
(b) Urethra
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Scrotum
Answer:
(b) Urethra

Organ System In Animals Question 8.
Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive system?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Testes
(d) fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) testes

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The opening of the stomach into the intestine is called …………………
2. The muscular and sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with saliva is ………………….
3. Bile, secreted by liver is stored temporarily in ……………………
4. The longest part of alimentary canal is ………………
5. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about …………………..
6. The largest cell in the human body of a female is ……………………

Answer:

1. duodenum
2. tongue
3. the gall bladder
4. small intestine
5. 37°C
6. an ovum

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct the wrong statements:

1. Nitric acid in the stomach kills microorganisms in the food – False
   Correct Statement: Hydrochloric acid kills the bacteria swallowed along with food.
2. During digestion, proteins are broken down into amino acids – True
3. Glomerular filtrate consists of many substances like amino acids, vitamins, hormones, salts, glucose, and other essential substances – True

IV. Match the following:

Organ		Elimination
Skin	a.	Urine
Lungs	b.	Sweat
Intestine	c.	Carbon dioxide
Kidneys	d.	Undigested food

Answer:

1. b. Sweat
2. c. Carbon dioxide
3. d. Undigested food
4. a. Urine

V. Differentiate the following terms:

a. Excretion and Secretion
b. Absorption and Assimilation
c. Ingestion and Egestion
d. Diphyodont and Heterodont
e. Incisors and Canines
Answer:

a.

Excretion	Secretion
The process of eliminating or expelling waste matter.	a process by which substances are produced and discharged from a cell, gland, or organ for a particular function in the organism or for excretion.

b.

Absorption	Assimilation
Absorption is the process by which nutrients obtained after digestion are absorbed by villi and circulated throughout the body by blood and lymph and supplied to all body cells according to their requirements.	Assimilation means the incorporation of the absorbed food materials into the tissue cells as their internal and homogenous components.

c.

Ingestion	Egestion
The process of nutrition begins with intake of food, called ingestion.	The undigested or unassimilated portion of the ingested food material is thrown out from the body through the anal aperture as faecal matter. This is known as egestion.

d.

Diphyodont	Heterodont
In human beings two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their life time.	Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont).

e.

Incisors	Canines
Type of teeth used for cutting and biting foods.	Type of teeth used for tearing and piercing of food.

VI. Answer briefly:

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 1.
How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?
Answer:
Small intestine comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger like projections called villi where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

Organ Systems In Animals Question 2.
Why do we sweat?
Answer:
Sweat palys an important role in maintaining body temperature. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about 37°C. When it gets hot sweat glands start secreting sweat, which contains water with small amounts of other chemicals like ammonia, urea, lactic acid and salts. This helps in cooling the body.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Question 3.
Mention any two vital functions of the human kidney.
Answer:
Two vital functions of the kidneys are;

1. Maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance in our body.
2. Maintain the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.

Science Organ System Question 4.
What is micturition?
Answer:
When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition.

Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 5.
Name the types of teeth present in an adult human being. Mention the functions of each.
Answer:
Types of teeth and their functions

Types of teeth	Functions
Incisors	Cutting and biting
Canines	Tearing and piercing
Premolars	Crushing and grinding
Molars	Crushing, grinding and mastication

Question 6.
Explain the structure of nephron.
Answer:
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys. Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus.

Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles. The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hairpin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Alimentary canal (digestive tract/gastro-intestinal tract):
The glands associated with the digestive system are the salivary glands, gastric glands, pancreas, liver and intestinal glands.

Structure of the Alimentary Canal:
Alimentary canal is a muscular coiled, tubular structure. It consists of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine (consisting of duodenum, jejunum and ileum), large intestine (consisting of caecum, colon and rectum) and anus.

Mouth: The mouth leads into the buccal cavity. It is bound by two soft, movable upper and lower lips. The buccal cavity is a large space-bound above by the palate (which separates the windpipe and food tube), below by the throat and on the sides by the jaws. The jaws bear teeth.

Teeth: Teeth are hard structures meant for holding, cutting, grinding and crushing the food. In human beings, two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their lifetime. The first appearing set of 20 teeth called temporary or milk teeth are replaced by the second set of thirty-two permanent teeth, sixteen in each jaw. Each tooth has a root fitted in the gum (Theocodont). Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont), according to their structure and function namely incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.

Salivary glands: Three pairs of salivary glands are present in the mouth cavity. They are: parotid glands, sublingual glands and submaxillary or submandibular glands

• Parotid glands are the largest salivary glands, which lie in the cheeks in front of the ears (in Greek Par – near; otid – ear).
• Sublingual glands are the smallest glands and lie beneath the tongue.
• Submaxillary or Submandibular glands lie at the angles of the lower jaw.
  The salivary glands secrete a viscous fluid called saliva, approximately 1.5 liters per day. It digests starch by the action of the enzyme ptyalin (amylase) in the saliva which converts starch (polysaccharide) into maltose (disaccharide). Saliva also contain an antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme.

Tongue: The tongue is a muscular, sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with the saliva. The taste buds on the tongue help to recognize the taste of food.

The masticated food in the buccal cavity becomes a bolus which is rolled by the tongue and passed through pharynx into the oesophagus by swallowing. During swallowing, the epiglottis (a muscular flap-like structure at the tip of the glottis, beginning of trachea) closes and prevents the food from entering into trachea (wind pipe).

Pharynx is a membrane lined cavity behind the nose and mouth, connecting them to the oesophagus. It serves as a pathway for the movement of food from mouth to oesophagus.

Oesophagus or the food pipe is a muscular-membranous canal about 22 cm in length. It conducts food from pharynx to the stomach by peristalsis (wave-like movement) produced by the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscular walls of alimentary canal.

Stomach is a wide J-shaped muscular organ located between oesophagus and the small intestine. The gastric glands present in the inner walls of the stomach secrete gastric juice. The gastric juice is colourless, highly acidic, containing mucus, hydrochloric acid and enzymes rennin (in infants) and pepsin.

Small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal, which is a long coiled tube measuring about 5 – 7 m. It comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

1. Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from the pancreas).
2. Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region of the small intestine. The secretion of the small intestine is intestinal juice which contains enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
3. Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine and opens into the large intestine. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger-like projections called villi (one millimeter in length) where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

The small intestine serves both for digestion and absorption. It receives

• the bile from liver and
• the pancreatic juice from pancreas in the duodenum. The intestinal glands secrete the intestinal juices.

Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. The right lobe is larger than the left lobe. On the under surface of the liver, gall bladder is present. The liver cells secrete bile which is temporarily stored in the gall bladder.

Pancreas is a lobed, leaf shaped gland situated between the stomach and duodenum. Pancreas acts both as an exocrine gland and as an endocrine gland. The gland’s upper surface bears the islets of Langerhans which have endocrine cells and secrete hormones in which α (alpha) cells secrete glucagon and β (beta) cells secrete insulin.

The intestinal glands secrete intestinal juice called succusentericus which contains enzymes like maltase, lactase, sucrase and lipase which act in an alkaline medium. From the duodenum the food is slowly moved down to ileum, where the digested food gets absorbed

Large intestine
The unabsorbed and undigested food is passed into the large intestine. It extends from the ileum to the anus. It is about 1.5 meters in length. It has three parts- caecum, colon and rectum.

The caecum is a small blind pouch like structure situated at the junction of the small and large intestine. From its blind end a finger – like structure called vermiform appendix arises. It is a vestigeal (functionless) organ in human beings.

The colon is much broader than ileum. It passes up the abdomen on the right (ascending colon), crosses to the left just below the stomach (transverse colon) and down on the left side (descending colon).

The rectumis the last part which opens into the anus. It is kept closed by a ring of muscles called anal sphincter which opens when passing stools.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of kidney and the steps involved in the formation of urine.
Answer:

Kidneys are bean-shaped organs reddish brown in colour. The kidneys lie on either side of the vertebral column in the abdominal cavity attached to the dorsal body wall. The right kidney is placed lower than the left kidney as the liver takes up much space on the right side. Each kidney is about 11 cm long, 5 cm wide and 3 cm thick. The kidney is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue, the renal capsules, adipose capsule and a fibrous membrane.

Internally the kidney consists of an outer dark region, the cortex and an inner lighter region, the medulla. Both of these regions contain uriniferous tubules or nephrons. The medulla consists of multitubular conical masses called the medullary pyramids or renal pyramids whose bases are adjacent to cortex. On the inner concave side of each kidney, a notch called hilum is present through which blood vessels and nerves enter in and the urine leaves out.

Ureters are thin muscular tubes emerging out from the hilum. Urine enters the ureter from the renal pelvis and is conducted along the ureter by peristaltic movements of its walls. The ureters carry urine from kidney to urinary bladder.

Urinary bladder is a sac-like structure, which lies in the pelvic cavity of the abdomen. It stores urine temporarily.

Urethra is a membranous tube, which conducts urine to the exterior. The urethral sphincters keep the urethra closed and opens only at the time of micturition (urination).

Functions of kidney:

1. Maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance in our body.
2. Regulate acid-base balance of blood.
3. Maintain the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.
4. Help to retain important plasma constituents like glucose and amino acids.

Structure of Nephron
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys.
Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus. Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles.

The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hair pin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The nitrogenous wastes are drained into renal pelvis which leads to ureters and stored in the urinary bladder. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.

Mechanism of Urine Formation
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

• Glomerular filtration
• Tubular reabsorption and
• Tubular secretion

Glomerular filtration: Urine formation begins with the filtration of blood through epithelial walls of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule, The filtrate is called as the glomerular filtrate. Both essential and non-essential substances present in the blood are filtered.

Tubular reabsorption: The filtrate in the proximal tubule consists of essential substances such as glucose, amino acids, vitamins, sodium, potassium, bicarbonates, and water that are reabsorbed into the blood by a process of selective reabsorption.

Tubular secretion: Substances such as H+ or K+ ions are secreted into the tubule. Certain substances like potassium and a large number of drugs like penicillin and aspirin are passed into the filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule. This tubular filtrate is finally known as urine, which is hypertonic in man. Finally, the urine passes into collecting ducts to the pelvis and through the ureter into the urinary bladder by urethral peristalsis (waves of constriction in the ureters.

The relaxation of sphincter muscles located at the opening of the urinary bladder into the urethra. When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition. A healthy person excretes one to two litres of urine per day.

VIII. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct answer.
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
c. If Assertion is true but Reason is false
d. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 1.
Assertion: Urea is excreted out through the kidneys
Reason: Urea is a toxic substance.
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In both the sexes gonads perform dual function
Reason: Gonads are also called primary sex organs
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

XI. Match the parts of the given figure with the correct option.

Question 1.

1	2	3	4	5
a. Fallopian tube	Oviduct	Uterus	Cervix	Vagina
b. Oviduct	Cervix	Vagina	Ovary	Vas deferens
c. Ovary	Oviduct	Uterus	Vagina	Cervix
d. Fallopian tube	Ovary	Cervix	Uterus	Vagina

Answer:

1. a. Fallopian tube,
2. d. Ovary,
3. d. Cervix,
4. d. Uterus,
5. a. Vagina

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
If pepsin is lacking in gastric juice, then which event in the stomach will be affected?
a. digestion of starch into sugars.
b. breaking of proteins into peptides.
c. digestion of nucleic acids.
d. breaking of fats into glycerol and fatty acids.
Answer:
kidney

Question 2.
Name the blood vessel that
a. enter Malpighian capsule and
b. leaves the Malpighian capsule.
Answer:
urinary bladder

Question 3.
Why do you think that urine analysis is an important part of medical diagnosis?
Answer:
Urine is excreted from the human body which constitutes of mote than 95% water and other constituents like urea, chloride, sodium, potassium, creatinine and other dissolved ions, and inorganic and organic compounds. When there is an illness or disease, the constituents and its levels in urine also changes.

Therefore urinalysis is also an important diagnostic tool which may be used to screen for and/or help diagnose conditions such as a urinary tract infections, kidney disorders, liver problems, diabetes or other metabolic conditions.

Question 4.
Why your doctor advises you to drink plenty of water?
Answer:
The doctor advises to drink more water as;

• Water helps to maximize physical performance.
• Hydration has a major effect on energy levels and brain function.
• Drinking water may help to prevent and treat headaches.
• Drinking more water may help relieve constipation.

Question 5.
Can you guess why there are sweat glands on the palm of our hands and the soles of our feet?
Answer:
Sweating is important for thermal regulation. Sweat works as a defense against microbes to which our hands and feet are mostly exposed than the other parts of our body.

Activity

Question 1.
Look at the pictures given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Are the teeth of animals similar to ours?
2. How is the shape of their teeth related to their food habit?

Answer:

1. Not all the teeth are similar to ours.
2. The lion is a carnivore and hence canine teeths are predominant.
   The buffalo is a herbivorous animal and incissors are predominant in them.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
Write the function of the following organ systems: Muscular system, Endocrine system, Sensory system, Excretory system.
Answer:

• Muscular system: Involved in the contraction and relaxation resulting movement.
• Endocrine system: Co-ordinates the functions of all organ systems.
• Sensory system: This helps in sight, smell, hearing, taste, and touch.
• Excretory system: Elimination of nitrogenous waste products.

Question 2.
What are the three stages of urine formation?
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption and
3. Tubular secretion

Question 3.
What are the functions of liver?
Answer:
Functions of Liver

• Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
• Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
• Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
• Destroys red blood cells
• Stores iron, copper, vitamins A, and D.
• Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)
• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 4.
Draw the excretory system and label its parts.
Answer:

Question 5.
Draw a flow chart showing the route of urine flow.
Answer:

Question 6.
What is dialysis or artificial kidney?
Answer:
When kidneys lose their filtering efficiency, an excessive amounts of fluid and toxic waste accumulate in the body. This condition is known as kidney (renal) failure. For this, an artificial kidney is used to filter the blood of the patient. The patient is said to be put on dialysis and the process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney is called hemodialysis. When renal failure cannot be treated by drug or dialysis, the patients are advised for kidney transplantation.

Question 7.
What is spermatogenesis?
Answer:
The process of formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis.

Question 8.
Describe the three parts of small intestine.
Answer:
The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal. It comprises of 3 parts – duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

• Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from pancreas).
• Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region. It contains the enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
• Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine. It is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger like projections called villi. Absorption of food takes place here.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate the enzymes secreted by the digestive glands secrete in a human body.
Answer:

Digestive glands	Enzymes
Salivary glands	Ptyalin (Salivary amylase)
Gastric glands	Pepsin
	Rennin (in infants)
Pancreas	Pancreatic amylase
	Trypsin
	Chymotrypsin
	Pancreatic lipase
Intestinal glands	Maltase
	Lactase
	Sucrase
	Lipase

Question 2.
Describe the liver and list out its functions.
Answer:
Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. On the undeside of the liver, the gall bladder is present. It stores the bile which is secreted by the liver. The bile is secreted into the smll intestine when food enters it. Bile helps in the digestion of fats.

Functions of Liver:

• • Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
  • Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
  • Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
  • Destroys red blood cells
  • Stores iron, copper, vitamins A and D.
  • Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)

• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 3.
Draw a flowchart describing the process of digestion.
Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat and Temperature

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Heat and Temperature Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Heat And Temperature Class 7 Samacheer Question 1.
International unit of measuring temperature is
(a) Kelvin
(b) Fahrenheit
(c) Celsius
(d) Joule
Answer:
(a) Kelvin

Heat And Temperature 7th Standard Question 2.
In thermometer when bulb comes in contact with hot object, liquid inside it
(a) expands
(b) contracts
(c) remains same
(d) none of above
Answer:
(a) expands

Heat And Temperature 7th Class Question 3.
The body temperature of a healthy man is;
(a) 0°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 98°C
(d) 100°C
Answer:
(b) 37°C

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Science Question 4.
Mercury is often used in laboratory thermometers because it
(a) is a harmless liquid
(b) is silvery in colour and is attractive in appearance
(c) Expands uniformly
(d) is a low cost liquid
Answer:
(c) Expands uniformly

7th Science Heat And Temperature Question 5.
Which of the following temperature conversions is incorrect K (Kelvin) = oc ( Celsius) + 273.15

II. Fill In the blanks:

1. Doctor uses ________ thermometer to measure the human body temperature.
2. At room temperature mercury is in _______ state.
3. Heat energy transfer from _______ to _______
4. -7°C temperature is _______ than 0°C temperature.
5. The common laboratory thermometer is a _______ thermometer.

Answer:

1. clinical
2. liquid
3. hotter object, colder object
4. less
5. mercury

III. Match the following:

1. Clinical thermometer – A form of energy
2. Normal temperature of human body – 100°C
3. Heat – 37°C
4. Boiling point of water – o°c
5. Melting point of water – Kink

Answer:

1. Clinical thermometer – Kink
2. Normal temperature of human body – 37°C
3. Heat – A form of energy
4. Boiling point of water – 100°C
5. Melting point of water – 0°C

IV. Give very short answer:

7th Standard Science Heat And Temperature Question 1.
Temperature of Srinagar (J&K) is -4°C and in Kodaikanalis 3°C which of them
has greater temperature ? What is the difference between the temperatures of
these two places?
Answer:
Kodaikanal has greater temperature.
Temperature of srinagar (J &K) = -4°C
Temperature of = 3°C
Difference = -4°C + 3°C = 7°C
Srinagar is colder than that of kodaikanal.

7th Standard Heat And Temperature Question 2.
Jyothi was prepared to measure the temperature of hot water with a clinical thermometer. Is it right or wrong? Why?
Answer:
It is wrong, because clinical thermometer has small temperature range (35°C to 42°C or 94°F to 108°F). If it is used to measure the temperature of hot water, the glass will crack/ burst due to excessive pressure created by expansion of mercury.

Science 7 Heat And Temperature Question 3.
A clinical thermometer is not used to measure the temperature of air, why?
Answer:
The range of the clinical thermometer is less than that of thermometer used to measure temperature of air.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Term 2 Question 4.
What is the use of kink in clinical thermometer?
Answer:
A kink is clinical thermometer prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb when the thermometer is taken out of the patient’s mouth, so that the temperature can be noted conveniently.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Science Book Back Answers Question 5.
Why do we jerk a clinical thermometer before we measure the body temperature?
Answer:
The jerk to the thermometer will allow the mercury level to flow into the bulb so that the mercury level is below the normal temperature.

V. Give Short Answer

Heat And Temperature Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why do we use mercury in thermometers? Can water be used instead of mercury? What are the problems in using it?
Answer:

1. We use mercury in thermometers as they remain in liquid form even with a change of temperature in it.
2. A small change in the temperature causes change in volume of a liquid.
3. Water cannot be used as a thermometric liquid, because it is not helpful to measure below 0°C and above 100°C.
4. Water is transparent. So it makes the reading of the scales of the thermometer more difficult, water wets the glass tube so its steady is glass tube.
5. Due to this constraints it is not used as a thermometric liquid.

Heat And Temperature Answer Key Question 2.
Swathi kept a laboratory thermometer in hot water for some time and took it out to read the temperature. Ramani said it was a wrong way of measuring temperature. Do you agree with Ramani ? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with Ramani.

1. Laboratory thermometer does not have a kink. So, when Swathi takes out the thermometer, the level can go back because of absence of kink.
2. So Swathi should note the reading when the thermometer bulb has surrounded by hot water.

Question 3.
The body temperature of Srinath is 99°F. Is he suffering from fever? If so, why?
Answer:
Srinath is having a fever because the normal body temperature is 98.6°F.

VI. Give long answer:

Question 1.
Draw the diagram of a clinical thermometer and label its parts
Answer:

Question 2.
State the similarities and differences between the laboratory thermometer and the clinical thermometer.
Answer:
Similarities between laboratory thermometer and the clinical thermometer:

1. Both clinical and laboratory thermometers have long, narrow and uniform glass tubes.
2. Bulbs contain mercury.
3. Both have Celsius scale.

Differences:

Laboratory thermometer:

1. Laboratory thermometer is generally scaled from -10°C to 11 CPC.
2. Mercury level falls on its own as no kink is present.
3. Temperature is read while keeping the thermometer in the source of temperature, e.g. a liquid or any other thing.
4. No need to give jerk to lower the mercury level.
5. It is used to take temperature in laboratory.

Clinical thermometer:

1. Clinical thermometer is scaled from 35°C to 42°C or from 94°F to 108°F.
2. Mercury level does not fall on its own, as there is a kink near the bulb to prevent the fall of mercury level.
3. Temperature can be read after removing the thermometer from armpit or mouth.
4. To lower the mercury level jerks are given.
5. It is used for taking the body temperature.

VII. Higher Order Thinking questions:

Question 1.
What must be the temperature in Fahrenheit, so that it will be twice its value in Celsius?
Answer:
According to the question, F = 2C and C₁ = C
F = \(\frac { 9C }{ 5 }\) + 32
2c =\(\frac { 9 }{ 5 }\) C + 32
2c – \(\frac { 9 }{ 5 }\) c = 32 ⇒\(\frac { 10c – 9c }{ 5 }\) = 32 + 0
\(\frac { 1c }{ 5 }\) = 32

Question 2.
Answer:
Go to a veterinary doctor (a doctor who treats animals). Discuss and find out the normal temperature of domestic animals and birds.

1. Dog – 38.9°C
2. Horse – 38°C
3. Rabbit – 38.3°C
4. Cow – 38.6°C
5. Cat – 39°C
6. Goat- 39.7°C
7. Pigeon – 44.1°C
8. Crow – 40°C
9. Duck – 40.7°C
10. Karaknath – 41.8°C
11. Parrot – 41°C

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Heat and Temperature Intext Activites

Activity – 1

Question 1.
What is required?
A small glass bottle, a rubber cork, an empty refill, water, colour, a candle, a fork, a paper.
What to do?

• Take a small glass bottle. Fill it with coloured water.
• Make hole at the centre of the rubber cork.
• Pass empty refill from the hole of the rubber cork.

• Make the bottle air tight and observe the water raised in the refill.
• Make a scale on paper, place it behind the refill and note down the position of the surface of water.
• Hold bottle with fork and supply heat to it with candle. Then ‘ observe.

Question 2.
What is the change in the surface of water?
Answer:
The level of water increases.
Stop the supply of heat. When water is cooled, observe the surface of water in the refill,

Question 3.
what change takes place? Why?
Answer:
The level of water comes to the original position.
When, a liquid is heated, it expands and when it is cooled down, it contracts.

Activity – 2

Question 1.
What is required?
A big bottle, a balloon, threads, candle, water, fork.
What to do?

• Take one big bottle, and fill some water in it.
• Attach one balloon on the mouth of bottle and fix it with thread.
• Hold bottle with a fork. Heat the bottle with a candle and take observation.

Question 2.
What change occurs in the state of balloon after heating the bottle?
Answer:
The balloon expands.

Question 3.
What change occurs in the state of balloon after heating the bottle?
Why?
Answer:
The air inside it gets heated and expands. This causes the balloon to stretch and expand.
Now, let the bottle get cooled down.

Question 6.
What change occurs in the state of balloon after bottle gets cool down?
Why?
Answer:
The temperature within the bottle reduces causing the air to cool down. This causes the balloon to contract.
When gases substance gets heat, it expands; when it cools it contracts.

Question 5.
Why does a tyre get burst in summer?
Answer:
During summer, the air inside the tyre of a vehicle will get heated up with the increase in pressure of the air inside the tyre. As there is no place to air to escape tyre will get bursted.

Activity – 3
Measure your body temperature.
Wash the thermometer preferably with an antiseptic solution. Hold it firmly by the end and give it a few jerks. These jerks will bring the level of Mercury down. Ensure that it falls below 35°C (95°F). Now place the thermometer under your tongue or arm pit. After one minute, take the thermometer out and note the reading. It tells you your body temperature.
What did you record as your body temperature?
Answer:
37°C

1.6 Numerical problems:

3. Convert the given temperature :

Question 1.
45°C = _____ °F
Solution:
F = \(\frac { 9c }{ 5 }\) + 32
\(\frac{9 \times 45^{9}}{8}\)
= 81 +32
45°c = 113°F

Question 2.
20°C =______°F
Solution:
F =\(\frac { 9c }{ 5 }\)
= \(\frac{9 \times 20^{4}}{5}\) + 32
=36 + 32
20°c = 68°F

Question 3.
68°F =_______°F
Solution:
C = (F-32) ×\(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= (68 – 32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= 36 ×\(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
68°F = 20°C

Question 4.
185°C =_______°F
Solution:
c = (F – 32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= (185 -32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= 153 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
185F° = 85°C

Question 5.
0°=________°F
Solution:
K = C + 273
= 0 + 273
0°C = 273K

Question 6.
– 20°=________°F
Solution:
k = C + 273
= – 20 + 273
– 20°C = 273K

Question 7.
100K=________°F
Solution:
C = K – 273
=272.15 – 273
272.15K= – 0.85°C

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Heat and Temperature Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Heat energy is the total of the particles that make up a substance.
(a) potential energy
(b) substance
(c) temperature
(d) none
Answer:
(b) substance

Question 2.
Heat energy is always transferred from to temperatures.
(a) lower, higher
(b) higher, lower
(c) conductor, insulator
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(b) higher, lower

Question 3.
A clinical thermometer is calibrated from to .
(a) 10°Ctol00°C
(b) 32°C to 110°C
(c) 0°Ctol00°C
(d) 35°C to 42°C
Answer:
(d) 35°C to 42°C

Question 4.
The thermometer which ranger from -10°C to 110°C is .
(a) clinical thermometer
(b) digital thermometer
(c) laboratory thermometer
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) laboratory thermometer

Question 5.
Which one of the following scale has lower fixed point at 0°C?
(a) Kelvin scale
(b) Fahrenheit scale
(c) Celsius scale
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Celsius scale

Question 6.
The lower fixed point on the Celsius scale is
(a) melting point of mercury
(b) melting point of ice
(c) boiling point of water
(d) none
Answer:
(b) melting point of ice

Question 7.
The measure of degree of hotness or coldness of a body is called
(a) heat energy
(b) Celsius
(c) kelvin
(d) temperature
Answer:
(d) temperature

Question 8.
Digital thermometer is widely used for the measurement of the temperature due to .
(a) Analog display
(b) Mercury
(c) High accuracy
(d) Low accuracy
Answer:
(c) High accuracy

Question 9.
Temperature of boiling water cannot be measured by a thermometer.
(a) laboratory
(b) digital
(c) clinical
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(d) both b & c

Question 10.
When a substance is heated, its temperature .
(a) rises
(b) falls
(c) remains same
(d) none
Answer:
(a) rises

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Digital thermometers do not use ______
2. In a thermometer, when liquid gets heat, it_____and when it is cooled down, it
3. The SI unit of temperature is ______
4. A small change in the temperature causes change in of a liquid.________
5. The freezing point of alcohol is less than________
6. All clinical thermometers have a________ that prevents mercury from flowing back into the bulb.
7. A clinical thermometer indicates temperatures from a minimum of ________ °F to a maximum of °F.
8. Before use, the mercury level in clinical thermometer should be below________
9. The coldest natural temperature ever recorded on earth is________
10. The hottest natural temperature ever recorded on earth is________
11. Temperature of the universe in the earliest moments after the big bang is ________

Answer:

1. mercury
2. expand, contact
3. kelvin
4. volume
5. – 100°
6. kink
7. 94° F,108° F
8. 35° C or 94° F
9. 178.45K
10. 392.85K
11. 10³² K

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Temperature is related to how fast the atoms within a substance are moving.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mercury is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer
False. Mercury is a good conductor of heat.

Question 3.
Fahrenheit scale is more sensitive that the Celsius scale.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
In humans, the average internal temperature is 98.60°C.
Answer:
False. In humans, the average internal temperature is 98.60°F.

Question 5.
Digital thermometers are mainly used to take the body temperature.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The glass of a clinical thermometer will burst due to excessive pressure created by contraction of mercury.
Answer:
The glass of a clinical thermometer will burst due to excessive pressure created by expansion of mercury.

Question 7.
In greek, Centium means 100 and Gradus means steps, both words make it Centigrade and later Celsius.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Kelvin is written as K also known as absolute scale as it starts from absolute zero temperature.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The temperatures in Celsius and in Fahrenheit will be same at -40.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Answers:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)

V. Assertion and Reason.
Mark the correct choice as
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion

(A): Heat energy is transferred from one body to another due to a temperature difference between them.
Reason (R): Heating a substance causes a rise in temperature.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of assertion.

Correct reason: Heat energy always travels from hotter object to colder objects.

1. Assertion

(A): When a very hot liquid is poured into a thick glass tumbler it cracks.
Reason (R): Unequal expansion of inner and outer glass walls causes the glass to crack.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of assertion

VI . Very short Answers:

Question 1.
Mention the three units which are used to measure the temperature.
Answer:
The three units which are used to measure the temperature: Degree Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin.

Question 2.
What is the boiling point of mercury?
Answer:
357°C

Question 3.
What is the freezing point of alcohol?
Answer:
Less than -100°C

Question 4.
Mention the use of laboratory thermometers.
Answer:
To measure the temperature is laboratories for scientific research.

Question 5.
What is the average internal temperature of human body?
Answer:
37°C (98.6°F)

Question 6.
What is the freezing point of water is Fahrenheit scale?
Answer:
32°F

Question 7.
At what temperature the value will be same in Celsius and in Fahrenheit?
Answer:
– 40.

Question 8.
Name the principle which is used in thermometer.
Answer:
Liquids expand on heating and contract on cooling.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Mention any two precautions to be followed while using a clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. The thermometer should be washed before and after use, preferably with an antiseptic solution.
2. Jerk the thermometer a few times to bring the level of the mercury down.

Question 2.
What are the uses of laboratory thermometers?
Answer:
Laboratory thermometers are used to measure the temperature in school and other laboratories for scientific research. They are also used in the industry as they can measure temperatures higher than what clinical thermometers can record.

Question 3.
Mention any two properties of alcohol.
Answer:

1. The freezing point of alcohol is less than -100°C. So it can be used to measure very low temperatures.
2. Its expansion per degree Celsius rise in temperature is very large.

Question 4.
What is the use of kink in clinical thermometers?
Answer:
Kink prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb when the thermometer is taken out of the patient’s mouth. So that the temperature can be noted conveniently.

Question 5.
Why mercury or alcohol is used in thermometers?
Answer:
Mostly Alcohol and Mercury are used in thermometers as they remain in liquid form even with a change of temperature in them. A small change in the temperature causes change in volume of a liquid. We measure this temperature by measuring expansion of a liquid in thermometer.

Question 6.
We are advised to avoid keeping clinical thermometer in the sun or near a flame. Why?
Answer:
A Clinical thermometer has small temperature range. The glass will crack/ burst due to excessive pressure created by expansion of mercury.

VIII. Long Answer:

Question 1.
Explains the properties of mercury.
Answer:

1. Its expansion is uniform. (For equal amounts of heat it expands by equal lengths.)
2. If is opaque and shining.
3. It does not stick to the sides of the glass tube.
4. It is a good conductor of heat.
5. It has a high boiling point (357°C) and a low freezing point (-39°C). Hence a wide range of temperatures can be measured using a mercury thermometer.

Question 2.
Explain the construction and working of clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. Clinical thermometers are used to measure the temperature of a human body – at home, clinics and hospitals.
2. All clinical thermometers have a kink that prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb when the thermometer is taken out of the patient’s mouth, so that the temperature can be noted conveniently.
3. There are temperature scales on either side of the mercury thread, one in C elsius scale and the other in Fahrenheit scale.
4. Since the Fahrenheit scale is more sensitive than the Celsius scale, body temperature is measured in F only.
5. A clinical thermometer indicates temperatures from a minimum of 35°C or 94°F to a maximum of 42°C or 108°F.

Question 3.
Explain the precautions to be followed while using clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. The thermometer should be washed before and after use, preferably with an antiseptic solution.
2. Jerk the thermometer a few times to bring the level of the mercury down.
3. Before use, the mercury level should be below 35°C or 94°F.
4. Do not hold the thermometer by its bulb.
5. Keep the mercury level along your line of sight and then take the reading.
6. Handle the thermometer with care. If it hits against some hard object, it may break.
7. Do not place the thermometer in a hot flame or in the hot sun.

Question 4.

1. Write a note on laboratory thermometer.
2. Write the precautions to be following while using a laboratory thermometer.

Answer:
(a) Laboratory Thermometers:

1. Laboratory thermometers are used to measure the temperature in school and other laboratories for scientific research.
2. They are also used in the industry as they can measure temperatures higher than what clinical thermometers can record.
3. The stem and the bulb of a lab thermometer are longer when compared to that of a clinical thermometer and there is no kink in the lab thermometer.
4. A laboratory thermometer has only the Celsius scale ranging from -10°C to 110°C.

(b) Precautions to be Followed While Using a Laboratory Thermometer:

1. Do not tilt the thermometer while measuring the temperature. Place it  upright.
2. Note the reading only when the bulb has been surrounded by the substance from all sides.

Question 5.
Explain how do you determine the temperature of hot water using laboratory thermometer?
Answer:

1. Take some water in a beaker.
2. Take a laboratory thermometer and immerse its bulb end in water; holding it vertically. Ensure to dip whole portion of bulb end. The bulb end should not touch the bottom or side of the beaker.
3. Observe the movement of rise of mercury. When it becomes stable, take the reading of the thermometer.
4. Repeat this with hot water and take the reading.

Question 6.

1. write a note on digital thermometer.
2. Mention the precaution to be followed while using digital thermometer.

Answer:
(a) Digital Thermometer:

1. Mercury is a toxic substance and is very difficult to dispose of if a thermometer breaks.
2. These days, digital thermometers are available which do not use mercury.
3. Instead, it has a sensor which can measure the heat coming out from the body directly and from that can measure the temperature of the body.
4. Digital thermometers are mainly used to take the body temperature.
5. Do not use a clinical thermometer for measuring the temperature of any object other than human body.
6. Avoid keeping it in the sun or near of flame.

Question 7.
Explain the usage of digital thermometer.
Answer:
Use of Digital thermometer:

1. Wash the tip with warm (not hot), soapy water.
2. Press the “ON” button.
3. Insert the tip of the thermometer into the mouth, bottom, or under the armpit.
4. Hold the thermometer in place until it beeps (about 30 seconds).
5. Read the display.
6. Turn off the thermometer, rinse under water, and put it away in a safe place.

IX.Problems for practice:
Convert the given temperature:

Question 1.
40°C =_______°F
Solution:
F = \(\frac { 9c }{ 5 }\) +32
\(\frac{9 \times 40^{8}}{8}\) + 32
= 72 + 32
40°C = 104°F

Question 2.
0 K =_______°F
Solution:
C = k – 273
= 0 – 273
0 K = – 273°C

Question 3.
– 30°C = _______°F
Solution:
K = C + 273
= – 30 + 273

Question 4.
150°F =_______°C
Solution:
C = (F – 32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= 118 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
=\(\frac { 590 }{ 9 }\) = 65.9
150°F = 65.9°C

X . Creative Questions: HOTS

Question 1.
What the minimum possible temperature is 0 k .There also a maximum possible temperature ?
Answer:
The minimum possible temperature is 0 K. There is no limit to maximum temperature.

Question 2.
Complete the table.

Answer:

1. 212°F
2. Freezing point of water
3. 273.15 K
4. 37°C
5. 23 K

Students can Download English Lesson 2 Friendship Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Prose Chapter 2 Friendship

Read And Understand

A. Choose the correct answer.

Friendship 8th Std Prose Question 1.
Vetri went to Asif ‘s _______
(a) home
(b) office
(c) room
Answer:
(b) office

Friendship Prose In 8th Standard Summary Question 2.
Vetri came to Chennai to visit his _______
(a) father
(b) friend
(c) brother
Answer:
(b) friend

Friendship Lesson For 8th Standard Question 3.
Asif saw his friend through the _______
(a) camera
(b) window
(c) glass
Answer:
(a) camera

B. Choose correct synonyms for the italic word.

Friendship Lesson 8th Standard Question 1.
Vetri constructed a bungalow.
(a) design
(b) build
(c) foundation
(d) destroy
Answer:
(b) build

Friendship 8th Std Prose Summary Question 2.
The brothers started a business, separately.
(a) apart
(b) alone
(c) united
(d) combined
Answer:
(a) apart

Friendship Prose In 8th Standard Question 3.
I am living in the outskirts of the village.
(a) border
(b) outpost
(c) center
(d) region
Answer:
(b) outpost

8th Standard English Friendship Lesson Question 4.
Asif quarreled with his friend.
(a) fight
(b) differ
(c) peace
(d) fun
Answer:
(a) fight

Friendship Prose Summary Question 5.
He stood astounded.
(a) happy
(b) surprised
(c) shocked
(d) excited
Answer:
(c) shocked

C. Choose correct Antonyms for the italic word.

Friendship Lesson Question Answer Question 1.
The wife replied angrily.
(a) calm
(b) annoyed
(c) irritate
Answer:
(a) calm

8th English Prose Friendship Question 2.
The vegetables look fresh.
(a) rotten
(b) dull
(c) new
Answer:
(a) rotten

8th Friendship Question 3.
Vetri had a strong will to start a new business.
(a) desire
(b) thin
(c) weak
Answer:
(c) weak

Friendship Prose Question 4.
Vetri was surprised by his friend.
(a) unsurprised
(b) expected
(c) shocked
Answer:
unsurprised

Question 5.
He spoke nervously
(a) Scared
(b) confident
(c) anxious
(b) confident
Answer:
(b) confident

D. Answer the following questions in one or two words.

Question 1.
What was the name of Vetri’s company?
Answer:
The name of Vetri’s company was ‘Vetri Constructions’.

Question 2.
Why did he sell his properties?
Answer:
He sold his properties to pay his loans.

Question 3.
Which was the home town of Vetri and Asif ?
Answer:
The home town of Vetri and Asif was Keelakudi village.

Question 4.
When was the school established?
Answer:
The school was in the outskirts of Keelakudi village. It was a middle school.

Question 5.
When did Vetri receive a call from Asif’s office?
Answer:
Two days later after reaching his home, Vetri received a call from Asif’s office.

E. Answer the following questions in 100 words.

Question 1.
How Vetri lost his properties?
Answer:
Vetri was once a successful businessman in Coimbatore. His Vetri constructions was a leading construction company. After his father’s death, his brothers demanded to split the wealth, as they wanted to start their business separately. From then on, Vetri found it difficult to establish his business. He took loans to run his company, but he could not pay the loan. So he sold all his properties and paid the loans. His family then moved to a very small house. He found a job and started to lead a normal life.

Question 2.
What happened when Vetri met Asif?
Answer:
Vetri boarded the train and went straight to Asif’s office. When Vetri was enquiring about Asif, he got a pat on his back. It was Asif, who came to receive Vetri, after seeing him through the CCTV camera. Vetri was speechless. He apologized to Asif saying that he never got a chance to visit Chennai. So he couldn’t meet him at all. They spoke about their school days and the fun they had. They also discussed about their business. Asif took Vetri to his home for lunch. Vetri was surprised to see that everyone knows him. In the evening, Asif dropped him at the station.

Question 3.
How did Asif show his friendship?
Answer:
Asif was a true friend of Vetri. When Vetri came to his office, he came to receive him, as he saw through the CCTV camera. He gave Vetri a pat on his back. Vetri was speechless on seeing him. He took to his cabin. They spoke about their school days and the fun they had. They discussed about their business. Asif took Vetri to his home for lunch. Vetri was surprised to see that everyone knows him. Vetri stayed there till evening. Asif dropped him in the railway station. After two days, he invited Vetri to his office and assigned him a project.

Vocabulary

Compound Words

A. Match the following compound words and write them:
Answer:

First word	Second word	New word
match	mark	matchbox
air	cut	airport
blood	port	blood bank
Pop	gum	pop corn
sky	bank	sky blue
hair	blue	hair cut
book	corn	book mark
chewing	box.	chewing gum

B. Choose the best answer to make a compound word.

Question 1.
Which can be placed after ‘soft’?
(a) play
(b) ware
(c) run
(d) cycle
Answer:
(b) software

Question 2.
Which can be placed before ‘light’?
(a) try
(b) sun
(c) horse
(d) cat
Answer:
(b) sunlight

Question 3.
Which can be placed after ‘safe’?
(a) chair
(b) guard
(c) shop
(d) van
Answer:
(b) safeguard

Question 4.
Which can be placed after ‘blue’?
(a) cane
(b) print
(c) see
(d) land
Answer:
(b) blueprint

Question 5.
Which can be placed after ‘water’?
(a) food
(b) stick
(c) fall
(d) out
Answer:
(c) waterfall

Singular, Plural

Write the plural form of the given words :
Answer:

No.	Singular	Plural
1.	food	food
2.	radius	radii
3.	governor – general	governors-general
4.	syllabus	syllabi
5.	datum	data
6.	commander-in-chief	commanders-in- chief
7.	thesis	theses
8.	forum	fora
9.	cattle	cattle
10.	genius	geniuses / genii

Listening
Listen carefully to the passage given in QR code and answer the following questions.

Questions:

Question 1.
Whose speech is it?
Answer:
It is Rahim’s speech.

Question 2.
What did Rahul engrave?
Answer:
Rahul engraved Rahim’s help in his heart.

Question 3.
Who is lucky?
Answer:
Rahim is lucky.

Question 4.
Who bagged ‘all-rounder’ award?
Answer:
Rahul bagged all-rounder medal in school.

Question 5.
Whose birthday party is it?
Answer:
It was Rahul’s birthday party.

Writing
Arrange the picture in order by writing the numbers 1,2,3 and 4 in the given boxes and write this familiar story in about 100 words.
Make use of the words given below.

(thirsty, village, pitcher, disappointment, pebbles, water level )

Answer:
One hot day, a thirsty crow in a village, searched for water everywhere. At last, it found . a pitcher. But there was a disappointment for the crow, as the water level in the pitcher was very low. The crow got an idea. It saw some pebbles nearby. It started putting pebbles in the pitcher. Slowly, the water level raised. The crow drank the water and flew away happily.

Grammar

Degrees Of Comparison

a. Fill in the blanks:
Answer:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
tall	taller	tallest
smart	smarter	smartest
large	larger	largest
more	more	most
late	Later/latter	latest (last)

Let’s compare two things.

Question 1.
Which is faster a train or a plane?
Answer:
plane is faster than a train.

Question 2.
Which is cheaper gold or silver?
Answer:
Silver is cheaper than gold.

Question 3.
Which is larger, city or village?
Answer:
A city is larger than a village.

Question 4.
Which is bigger, a sea or an ocean?
Answer:
An ocean is bigger than a sea.

Question 5.
Which is taller, a giraffe or a camel?
Answer:
A giraffe is taller than a camel.

Let’s compare three things.

EG: Donkey, horse and elephant (strong)
A donkey is strong.
The horse is stronger than a donkey.
An elephant is the strongest.

Question 1.
Town – city – village (quiet)
Answer:
A city is quiet.
Town is quieter than the city.
The village is the quietest.

Question 2.
Istanbul – Moscow – London (populated)
Answer:
Istanbul is populated.
Moscow is more populated than Istanbul.
London is the most populated.

Question 3.
Windy weather – warm weather – rainy weather (good)
Answer:
Windy weather is good.
Warm weather is better than windy weather.
Rainy weather is the best.

Question 4.
Ocean – river – lake (deep)
Answer:
River is deep.
Lake is deeper than the river.
Ocean is the deepest.

Question 5.
The USA – Russia – Spain (large)
Answer:
Hitl Spain is a large country.
The USA is larger than Spain.
Russia is the largest country.

Question 6.
The Mahanadi – The Cauvery – The Ganga (long)
Answer:
The cauvery is a long river.
The Mahanadi is longer than the Cauvery.
The Ganga is the longest river in our country.

Question 7.
Chennai – Hyderabad – Bangaluru (modern)
Answer:
Chennai is a modern city.
Hyderabad is more modern than Chennai.
Bengaluru is the most modern city.

Friendship Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct Synonyms for the italic word

Question 1.
After his fathers death, his brothers demanded to split the wealth.
(a) break up
(b) brush
(c) open
(d) close
Answer:
(a) break up

Question 2.
But he always long to start a new construction company.
(a) fabrication
(b) devastation
(c) real estate
(d) building formation
Answer:
(d) building formation

Question 3.
He told his wife about his decision.
(a) hesitation
(b) delay
(c) judgement
(a) Abnormal
Answer:
(c) judgement

Question 4.
They lived in the beautiful village Keelakudi.
(a) ugly
(b) awful
(c) vile
(d) Pretty
Answer:
(d) Pretty

Question 5.
Their friendship grew stronger with time.
(a) weaker
(b) slender
(c) firmer
(d) Punier
Answer:
(c) firmer

Question 6.
Asif consoled him with a chocolate.
(a) comforted
(b) distressed
(c) troubled
(d) annoyed
Answer:
(a) comforted

Question 7.
I don’t know if you will get an appointment.
(a) employment
(b) dismissal
(c) arrangement for meeting
(d) discharge
Answer:
(c) arrangement for meeting

Question 8.
Vetri was dumbfounded.
(a) speechless
(b) mindful
(c) conscious
(d) Casual
Answer:
(a) speechless

Question 9.
Our MD Mr. Asif, has assigned a project to you.
(a) refused
(b) cancelled
(c) given
(d) relieved
Answer:
(c) given

Question 10.
The security was astounded.
(a) annoyed
(b) irked
(c) upset
(d) surprised
Answer:
(d) surprised

II. Choose the correct Antonyms for the italic word.

Question 1.
Vetri was once a successful businessman in Coimbatore.
(a) powerful
(b) unsuccessful
(c) wonderful
(d) awful
Answer:
(b) unsuccessful

Question 2.
Vetri found it difficult to establish his business.
(a) abolish
(b) setup
(c) deal
(d) offer
Answer:
(a) abolish

Question 3.
He started to lead a normal life.
(a) usual
(b) same
(c) ordinary
(d) abnormal
Answer:
(d) abnormal

Question 4.
His brothers demanded to split the wealth.
(a) offered
(b) searched
(c) rushed
(d) ordered
Answer:
(a) offered

Question 5.
One day he discussed with his wife.
(a) ignored
(b) considered
(c) examined
(d) argued
Answer:
(a) ignored

Question 6.
To everyone’s surprise, they continued to be good friends.
(a) lingered
(b) extended
(c) discontinued
(d) lasted
Answer:
(a) lingered

Question 7.
One day there was a quarrel between Vetri and Asif’s families.
(a) row
(b) fight
(c) contest
(d) agreement
Answer:
(d) agreement

Question 8.
The results and marks never affected their friendship.
(a) moved
(b) stirred
(c) unaffected
(d) pretended
Answer:
(c) unaffected

Question 9.
Two days later, Vetri received a call.
(a) paid
(b) gave
(c) lived
(d) took
Answer:
(b) gave

Question 10.
Vetri told his wife everything in detail.
(a) same
(b) anything
(c) nothing
(d) all
Answer:
(c) nothing

III. Choose the Correct Answer [MCQ]

Question 1.
Vetri’s constructions was once a ________ construction company.
(a) small
(b) leading
(c) dull
(d) vague
Answer:
(b) leading

Question 2.
Everything went well, until his ________ died
(a) father
(b) sister
(c) uncle
(d) brother
Answer:
(a) father

Question 3.
They were alwavs together in learning and ________
(a) writing
(b) reading
(c) studying
(d) playing
Answer:
(d) playing

Question 4.
They also helped others with their ________
(a) homework
(b) lessons
(c) projects
(d) assignment
Answer:
(b) lessons

Question 5.
The security was ________
(a) surprised
(b) astounded
(c) arrogant
(d) bold
Answer:
(b) astounded

Question 6.
They spoke about their school days and the ________ they had.
(a) boring
(b) lethargic
(c) fun
(d) indolent
Answer:
(c) fun

Question 7.
Then thev discussed about their ________
(a) business
(b) children
(c) relatives
(d) plans
Answer:
(a) business

Question 8.
Asif dropped him in the ________ station.
(a) police
(b) railway
(c) bus
(d) fire
Answer:
(b) railway

IV. Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What did Vetri’s Constructions construct? ‘
Answer:
Vetri’s constructions constructed many shopping complexes, houses and a few apartments in and around Coimbatore.

Question 2.
What happened after his father’s death?
Answer:
After his father’s death, his brothers demanded to split the wealth, as they wanted to start their business separately.

Question 3.
Whom did Vetri decide to meet? Why?
Answer:
Vetri decided to meet his friend Asif in Chennai for help.

Question 4.
How strong was their friendship?
Answer:
Vetri and Asif studied in the same school at Keelakudi village. They were always together in learning and playing. They continued to be good friends till their X Std. After that, Asif had to move to Chennai.

Question 5.
Who stopped Vetri at the gate of Asif’s office?
Answer:
The security stopped Vetri at the gate and asked whom does he wants to meet.

Question 6.
How did Asif know that Vetri had come to his office?
Answer:
Asif saw him through the CCTV camera and came to receive him.

V. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
How did Vetri and Asif’s friendship start?
Answer:
Their friendship started on the first day of school. When Vetri’s parents dropped him at the school, he started crying. Asif consoled him with a chocolate and asked him not to cry. From that day, they stayed together, played together and even exchanged their food. Their friendship grew stronger with time. They were always good in studies and helped each other in lessons. There was always a healthy competition between them. Surprisingly, the exams, results and marks never affected their friendship. Their friendship continued till tenth standard. Then Asif moved to Chennai

Friendship Grammer Additional

Degrees of Comparison

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
big
	costlier
		hardest
short
	simpler
		tallest
long
	faster

Answer:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
big	bigger	biggest
costly	costlier	costliest
hard	harder	hardest
short	shorter	shortest
simple	simpler	simplest
tall	taller	tallest
long	longer	longest
fast	faster	fastest

Question 2.

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
beautiful
	more different
		most enjoyable
effectively
	more delicious
		most useful
honest		most honest
	more qualified

Answer:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
beautiful	more beautiful	most beautiful
different	more different	most different
enjoyable	more enjoyable	most enjoyable
effectively	more effectively	most effectively
delicious	more delicious	most delicious
useful	more useful	most useful
honest	more honest	most honest
qualified	more qualified	most qualified

Question 3.

Adjectives	Comparative	Superlative
bad
	drier
far (place)		farthest
far (time)		furthest
	better
late (time)		latest
late (order)	latter
	less
		most
safe
simple	simpler

Answer:

Adjectives	Comparative	Superlative
bad	worse	worst
dry	drier	driest
far (place)	farther	farthest
far (time)	further	furthest
good	better	best
late (time)	later	latest
late (order)	latter	last
little	less	least
many	more	most
safe	safer	safest
simple	simpler	simplest

II. Change the following sentences into comparative degree sentences.

Question 1.
India is not as large as China.
Answer:
China is larger than India.

Question 2.
Water is not as light as air.
Answer:
Air is lighter than water.

Question 3.
My brother is not as tall as I am.
Answer:
I am taller than my brother.

Question 4.
Ravi is not as intelligent as Magesh.
Answer:
Magesh is more intelligent than Ravi.

Question 5.
No other problem facing our country is as serious as unemployment.
Answer:
Unemployment is more serious than any other problem facing our country.

III. Change the following sentences into Superlative degree sentences.

Question 1.
Chandrasekar is richer than any other man in this town.
Answer:
Chandrasekar is the richest man in this town.

Question 2.
Vijay is taller than any other student in this class.
Answer:
Vijay is the tallest student in this class.

Question 3.
Shakespeare is greater than any other English poet.
Answer:
Shakespeare is the greatest of English Poets.

Question 4.
Greenland is larger than any other island.
Answer:
Greenland is the largest island.

Question 5.
Anita is prettier than any other girl in my class.
Answer:
Anita is the prettiest girl in my class.

Friendship Summary

Section – I

This is a story on the Friendship between Vetri and Asif. Vetri was a successful businessman in Coimbatore. His Vetri construction company constructed many shopping complexes, houses and a few apartments in and around Coimbatore. After his father’s death, he was forced to split the wealth to his brothers. From then on, Vetri found it difficult to establish his business. He could not pay the loans taken to run his company. So he sold all his properties and paid the loans. He moved to a very small house with his family.

He found a job and led a normal life. But he desired to start a company again. No one was ready to lend him money. One day, his wife suggested him to ask his friend Asif for help. But Vetri hesitated to ask him for help, as he had not seen him for a long time. After deep thought, he decided to meet his friend Asif who was in Chennai.

Fill in the blanks :

1. _________ constructions was once a leading company
2. He took a_________to run his company.
3. Vetri’s friend is_________

Answers:

1. Vetri
2. loan
3. Asif

Section – II

Vetri boarded the train to Chennai. His memory went back to his school days. They lived in the beautiful village Keelakudi near Coimbatore. Vetri and Asif studied in a school in the outskirts of the village Keelakudi. The teachers and the students would never forget Vetri and Asif and their friendship. They were always together in learning and playing.

Their friendship started on the first day of school. On the first day, when Vetri started crying, Asif consoled him with a chocolate and told him not to cry. After that day, they stayed together played together and even exchanged their food. They were always good in studies and helped each other in lessons.

One day, there was a quarrel between Vetri and Asif’s families. But this did not affect their friendship. Their exams, results and the marks never affected their friendship. After their tenth standard, Asif moved to Chennai and Vetri settled in Coimbatore.

Say True or False.

1. Keelakudi was the native of Vetri.
2. The school was a middle school.
3. Vetri and Asif were good in studies.
4. Vetri never visited Chennai.
5. Asif was a businessman.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True

Section – III

When Vetri went to Asif’s office, he was stopped by the security. Vetri told him that he wanted to meet his friend Asif. He directed Vetri to the Receptionist. When Vetri was asking the receptionist whether he could meet Asif his friend, Vetri got a pat on his back. It was Asif his friend. Asif saw him through the CCTV camera and came down to receive him. Vetri was speechless and apologized to Asif that he did not get a chance to visit Chennai till then. He said that since he had come to attend his friend’s wedding he thought that he could meet him.

They spoke about their school days, the fun they had. They discussed about their business. Asif took Vetri to his home to lunch. Vetri was surprised to see that everyone knows him. In the evening, Asif dropped him in the railway station. Vetri reached home and told his wife everything in detail. Two days later, he received a call from Asif’s office stating that Asif, their M.D. had assigned a project to Vetri.

Students can Download English Poem 1 The Castle Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Poem Chapter 1 The Castle

Warm Up:

The Castle Poem Question And Answer Question (a)
What thoughts come to your mind when or/you think about a castle? Add your ideas to the list.
Answer:
moat, huge buildings, soldiers, weapons gatehouse, look outs.

12th English The Castle Poem Paragraph Question (b)
Have you ever visited a fort or a castle?
Answer:
Yes I have visited the red Fort in Delhi

The Castle Poem Question (c)
Fill in the following empty boxes.

Name	Location
Fort St. George	Chennai
Gingee Fort
Golconda Fort
Red Fort

Answer:

Name	Location
Fort St. George	Chennai
Gingee Fort	Villupuram District
Golconda Fort	Hyderabad
Red Fort	Delhi

 

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English The Castle Textual Questions

1. Based on your understanding of the poem, answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

12th English Reference To The Context Question (a)
Who is the narrator in the poem?
Answer:
A soldier is the narrator in the poem.

12th English Poem Appreciation Questions And Answers Question (b)
How long had the soldiers been in the castle?
Answer:
The soldiers had been in the castle all through the summer.

The Castle Poem Summary Question (c)
Why were the soldiers in the castle fearless?
Answer:
They were fearless because they were behind a well-guarded castle headed by a brave captain. Allies were close at hand and they had adequate arms to fight and foodgrains to sustain them under a siege.

12th English Poem Appreciation Questions Question (d)
Where were the enemies?
Answer:
Of course yes. There were enemies.

The Castle Poem 12th Question (e)
Why does the narrator say that the enemy was no threat at all?
Answer:
Soldiers behind the turret wall were ready to shoot the enemy at sight. The castle was surrounded by a deadly moat. The captain was brave and the soldiers loyal. Allies were close at hand. Hence, the enemy was no threat at all.

The Castle Poem Summary Pdf Question (f)
Did the soldiers fight with the enemies face to face?
Answer:
No, the soldiers did not fight with their enemies face to face.

12th English The Castle Poem Summary Question (g)
Who had let the enemies in?
Answer:
The aged greedy wicket gate keeper had let the enemy in.

The Castle Poem Appreciation Questions Question (h)
How did the enemies enter the castle?
Answer:
The enemies bribed the warder with gold coins. He opened the wicket gate and the castle was captured without bloodshed and fight.

Question (i)
Why were the secret galleries bare?
Answer:
The secret galleries were looted by the cunning enemies. So, they were bare.

Question (f)
What was the ‘shameful act’?
Answer:
Being sold to an enemy and losing the castle without heroic fight is a ‘shameful act’.

Question (k)
Why didn’t the narrator want to tell the tale to anybody?
Answer:
The narrator did not want to tell the shameful act because it will expose the greed of the aged warder. He had sold them all for a bag of gold. They did not have any weapon to fight the invisible enemy within.

Question (l)
Why did the narrator feel helpless?
Answer:
The narrator felt helpless because they could not fight gold. The greed for gold is an invisible and internal enemy and they had no weapon to fight it with. So, they felt helpless.

Question (m)
Who was the real enemy?
Answer:
“The gold” was their real enemy.

2. Read the poem again and complete the summary using the words given in box.
Stanzas 1-3

half-a-kilometre	watching	castle
brave	ration	capture
plenty	confident

The Castle ’ by Edwin Muir is a moving poem on the (1) _____ of a well-guarded (2) _____ The soldiers of the castle were totally stress-free and relaxed. They were (3) _____ of theircastle’s physical strength. Through the turrets they were able to watch the mowers and noenemy was found up to the distance of (4) _____ and so they seemed no threat to the castle.They had (5) _____ of weapons to protect them and a large quantity of (6) _____ in stock to take care of the well-being of the soldiers inside the castle. The soldiers stood one above theother on the towering (7) _____ to shoot the enemy at sight. They believed that the castle was absolutely safe because their captain was (8) _____ and the soldiers were loyal.

Answers

1. capture
2. castle
3. confident
4. half-a-kilometre
5. plenty
6. ration
7. watching
8. brave

Stanzas 4-6

lamented	shameful	wicked guard	bait
let	gold	gold	weapon
weapon	citadel	weak	weak
disloyalty	helpless	enemy	enemy

Even by a trick no one but the birds could enter. The enemy could not use a (9) ______ for their entry inside the castle. But there was a wicket gate guarded by a (10) ______ He (11) ______ in the enemies confident inside the famous citadel that had been known for its secret gallery and intricate path. The strong castle became (12) ______ and thin because of the greedy disloyal warder. The (13) ______ was captured by the enemies for (14) ______ The narrator (15) ______ over the (16) ______ of the useless warder and also decided not to disclose this (17) ______ story to anyone. He was (18) ______ and wondered how he would keep this truth to himself. He regretted not finding any (19) ______ to fight with the (20) ______ called ‘gold’.

Answer:

9.weapon
10. wicked guard
11. let
12. weak
13. citadel
14. gold
15. lamented
16. disloyalty
17. shameful
18. helpless
19. enemy
20. bait

3. Read the poem and answer the following in a short paragraph of 8-10 sentences each.

Question (a)
How safe was the castle? How was it conquered?
Answer:
The castle was fortified by a deep moat very difficult for an enemy to cross. They had a stock pile of arms. Their captain was brave and the soldiers loyal. They had a huge stock of foodgrains to last any siege of the castle. Allies were ready to pitch in at a short notice. From the turret wall, soldiers were ready to shoot down the enemy at sight. Not a single enemy was spotted all through the summer. The soldiers were relaxed and spent time gazing at the mowers in the distant fields. But the castle’s wicket gate was guarded by an aged greedy gatekeeper. The warder collected gold from the enemy and let the enemies in. Their enemy was gold against which they had no weapon. Their castle fell to the greed of an aged warder.

Question (b)
Bring out the contrasting picture of the castle as depicted in stanzas 3 and 5.
Answer:
The gates of the castle were very strong. The walls were high and smooth. No enemy could ever enter it by trick. The soldiers were quite alert to the movement of the enemies. They were proud that only a bird could venture to scale over the castle. But the enemies entered through the wicket gate. The tunnelled stone walls became thin and treacherous. The famous citadel ‘ was overthrown without a fight. The cunning enemies, having bribed the aged warder, looted the treasures in the secret galleries. The citadel was lost without a fight and a groan of protest.

Question (c)
Human greed led to the mighty fall of the citadel. Explain.
Answer:
The loyal soldiers and their brave captain expected enemies from outside the castle. Their arms and army was ready to fight them. But they could not identify the enemy within. The soldiers were proud that no might would tear their castle down. But they were unaware of the • invisible soul-dead enemy within. The ingredients of personal downfall went unnoticed by them. If a person never looks within, the faults that can be their doom go overlooked. Their reality could crumble while they gaze outward and pride themselves on their sureness. This is what happened precisely with the soldiers of the castle. They only focused on the strength of their physical surroundings and what was beyond the castle. Human greed-propelled betrayal from within caused the castle’s downfall.

Additional Questions

Question (a)
Why did the narrator say that their “only enemy was gold”?
Answer:
The narrator was very proud of the awe-inspiring castle. The soldiers were least bothered about the enemy who was just half a mile away. They had a well -guarded, tall, smooth and insurmountable fort. They were led by a brave captain. The soldiers were loyal and ready to lay down their lives for protecting the castle and the trusting citizens of their country. There was constant vigil from the turret wall to shoot down the enemy at sight. They were proud that only a bird could have the temerity to scale over the fortified castle. They were even prepared for a siege as they had well-stocked granaries. In the event of the outbreak of a war, allies were ready to rush with their assured forces in support of them.

But the soldiers were unaware of the truth, “the strength of the strongest chain lies in its weakest link”. An aged warder of a wicked wicket gate had a cancerous growth of greed. As the enemy was hidden within the soul of their own citizen, they had no weapon to fight it. Gold was ultimately their enemy. Jesus Christ was betrayed for “thirteen pieces of silver by his own disciple”. Similarly, the wicked gate keeper betrayed his country for a bag full of gold. The great citadel fell without even a groan of protest and without shedding “a jot of blood.”

Appreciate The Poem

4. Read the given lines and answer the questions that follow in a line or two.

(a) “All through the summer at ease we lay,
And daily from the turret wall
We watched the mowers in the hay”

Question (i)
Who does ‘we’ refer to?
Answer:
“We” refers to the brave and loyal soldiers in the castle.

Question (ii)
How did the soldiers spend the summer days?
Answer:
They spent the summer days gazing out of the castle. They were ready to shoot the enemy at sight who were at half-a kilometer distance. But none came near. So, they were relaxed.

Question (iii)
What could they watch from the turret wall?
Answer:
They could watch the farmers mowing at a distance from inside their turret walls.

(b) “Our gates were strong, our walls were thick,
So smooth and high, no man could win. ”

Question (i)
How safe was the castle?
Answer:
The castle had high and smooth walls. No enemy could think of climbing it as soldiers were ready to shoot the enemy at sight. The moat was deadly and deep.

Question (ii)
What was the firm belief of the soldiers?
Answer:
The soldiers had the firm belief that their castle was invincible. They felt safe and secure behind the castle.

(c) “A foothold there, no clever trick
Could take us dead or quick,
Only a bird could have got in.”

Question (i)
What was challenging?
Answer:
Scaling over the castle’s smooth and high walls was challenging.

Question (ii)
Which aspect of the castle’s strength is conveyed by the above line?
Answer:
The physical strength of the castle (i.e.) its brave and loyal soldiers, the stockpile of arms and well stocked granary, is conveyed here.

(d) “Oh then our maze of tunneled stone
Grew thin and treacherous as air.
The castle was lost without a groan,
The famous citadel overthrown

Question (i)
Bring out the contrast in the first two lines.
Answer:
The maze of tunnelled stone walls instead of intriguing the enemies, gave passage to them. So, the poet says the secret tunnelled path became thin and treacherous as air.

Question (ii)
What happened to the castle?
Answer:
The castle was captured by the enemies.

(e) “We could do nothing, being sold.”

Question (i)
Why couldn’t they do anything?
Answer:
The enemies had entered through the wicket gate stealthily and easily occupied their castle.

Question (ii)
Why did they feel helpless?
Answer:
They felt helpless because they had no weapon to fight “Gold” their invisible enemy. Their castle fell due to the unnoticed greed of their warder, an aged man.

Additional Questions

(a) “And the enemy half a mile away
They seemed no threat to us at all ”

Question (i)
What were the soldiers expecting?
Answer:
The soldiers were expecting a war.

Question (ii)
Where were the enemies?
Answer:
The enemies were half a mile away.

Question (iii)
Were they afraid? Why?
Answer:
No, they were not afraid because they had a huge army, strong fort and loyal soldiers.

(b) “For what, we thought, had we to fear
With our arms and provender, load on load,”

Question (i)
What was the mood of the soldiers?
Answer:
The soldiers were confident of winning the war.

Question (ii)
What made the soldiers confident?
Answer:
They had enough grains to survive a siege and plenty of arms to fight the war. These things made them confident.

(c) “ What could they offer us for bait?
Our captain was brave and we were true. ”

Question (i)
What do you mean by bait?
Answer:
Bait means something intended to entice someone to do something usually dishonourable.

Question (ii)
Why did the soldiers believe that they were invincible?
Answer:
The soldiers believed that they were invincible because their captain was brave and they were loyal.

5. Explain the following with reference to the context in about 50-60 words each.

Question (a)
They seemed no threat to us at all.
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while flaunting the invincibility of their strong castle. They could watch the movement of enemies from the turret wall and shoot down the enemy at a distance of half-a-kilometer. They had a stock pile of arms. Their granary was full to sustain the people in the event of a siege. Only a bird could have got into the castle. So, the enemies did not seem to be a threat at all to the soldiers.

Question (b)
How can this shameful tale be told?
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation: The narrator feels disgraced that their strong castle was overtaken without a groan. There was no fight. They were helpless because under the cover of darkness, they were sold for gold by the aged warder. It was a shameful and treacherous act of betrayal. The castle had fallen due to the greed of an aged warder. The narrator is hesitant to disclose the shameful betrayal to outsiders.

Question (c)
I will maintain until my death
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation: The poet says this while recounting the shameful act of betrayal by the aged warder of the wicket gate. The narrator was overconfident of the invincibility of their castle, their stock piled arms and well-stocked granary. They had a brave captain and loyal soldiers. In an open war, they need not fear defeat as their friendly neighbours were also willing to join them during a war against any invader. But their enemy was within their fortified castle. They were sold for a bag of gold. Without a groan the citadel was captured. It was a shameful way to lose one’s side. So, the narrator prefers not to recount this shameful secret to anyone so long as he is alive.

Question (d)
Our only enemy was gold
Answer:
Reference: This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation: The helpless soldier says this while being surprised by the enemies who bribed the wicked wicket gate keeper. The soldier was initially proud of their fortified castle, brave and loyal soldiers and pile of arms and the well-stocked granary to last a siege. There was vigil behind the turret wall. But he was not aware of the enemy within the human soul: the greed. Gold was their enemy for which they had no weapon. The wizened warder had let the enemy in through the wicket gate by taking “gold”. The weakness of the gatekeeper for gold made the strong castle weak.

Additional Questions

Question (a)
Our gates were strong, our walls were thick,
So smooth and high, no man could win
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation : The poet says these words while describing the confidence level of the soldiers about the might of the castle. The gates of the castle were strong. The walls were high and smooth. It appeared very formidable for any enemy to conquer.

Question (b)
A little wicked wicket gate.
The wizened warder let them through.
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation : The poet says these words while describing the circumstances that led to the conquest of the castle without any bloodshed. A greedy aged warden let the enemies in through a little wicket gate.

Question (c)
Oh then our maze of tunneled stone
Grew thin and treacherous as air.
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation : The poet says these words while describing the betrayal of the wizened warden. His betrayal resulted in weakening the tunneled maze into thin walls exposing the treachery and breach of trust by the warder.

Question (d)
The famous citadel overthrown,
And all its secret galleries bare.
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation : The poet says these words while describing the evil impact of cunning invasion of the castle. The enemies ransacked the rare treasures of art and culture guarded in secret galleries in the castle.

Question (e)
How can this shameful tale be told?
Answer:
Reference : This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation : The poet says these words while describing the treacherous betrayal of the aged warden. He had taken gold and let the enemy in. The soldiers who were ready to lay down their lives to protect their castle were shamefully overpowered by the trick of the enemy and the greed of the warder. The soldier is reluctant to relate this shameful tale.

Question (f)
And we had no arms to fight it with.
Answer:
Reference : This line is from Edwin Muir’s poem “The Castle”.
Context and Explanation : The poet says these words about the helplessness of the soldiers. They were taken by surprise by the enemies at night. The enemies had won them with gold against which they had no weapon. Human greed has destroyed the brave and loyal soldiers and the castle is captured by foes.

6. Read the poem and complete the table with suitable rhyming words

All through that summer at ease we lay,
And daily from the turret wall
We watched the mowers in the hay
And the enemy half a mile away
They seemed no threat to us at all.

For what, we thought, had we to fear
With our arms and provender, load on load,
Our towering battlements, tier on tier,
And friendly allies drawing near
On every leafy summer road.

Our gates were strong, our walls were thick,
So smooth and high, no man could win
A foothold there, no clever trick
Could take us dead or quick,
Only a bird could have got in.

What could they offer us for bait?
Our captain was brave and we were true…
There was a little private gate,
A little wicked wicket gate.
The wizened warder let them through.

Oh then our maze of tunneled stone
Grew thin and treacherous as air.
The cause was lost without a groan,
The famous citadel overthrown,
And all its secret galleries bare.

How can this shameful tale be told?
I will maintain until my death
We could do nothing, being sold:
Our only enemy was gold,
And we had no arms to fight it with.

lay	hay

Answer:

lay	hay
wall	all
thick	trick
win	in
fear	near
load	road
bait	gate
sold	gold
true	through
stone	groan
air	bare

7. Underline the alliterated words in the following lines.

Question (a)
With our arms and provender, load on load.
Answer:
With our arms and provender, load on load.

Question (b)
A little wicked wicket gate.
Answer:
A little wicked wicket gate.

Question (c)
The wizened warder let them through.
Answer:
The wizened warder let them through.

8. Identify the figure of speech used in the following lines.

Question (a)
A little wicked wicket gate.
Answer:
Personification

Question (b)
Oh then our maze of tunneled stone
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (c)
Grew thin and treacherous as air.
Answer:
Simile

Question (d)
How can this shameful tale be told?
Answer:
Personification

Question (e)
Our only.enemy was gold.
Answer:
Personification

Question 9.
Can you call ‘The Castle’ an allegorical poem? Discuss.
Answer:
The castle is doubtless an allegorical poem. The outward strength of the castle is matchless. It is fortified well. It has brave soldiers and large quantity of arms are stockpiled. The castle houses well stocked granary also. But the castle also conceals the ingredients of personal downfall within. If a person does not look within, their doom may be unstoppable. It is very difficult to protect oneself against greed, particularly the love of gold, instilled deep in the psyche of human beings. People say, “everything is fair in love and war.” People resort to anything to win in a war. Gandhi said, “the end never justifies the means.” But in times of war people stoop down to any betrayal to win. Thus, the castle is an allegorical poem.

Listening Activity

Following is one of the most celebrated poems of Rupert Brooke. It describes the noble sacrifice of an English soldier.

The Soldier
If I should die, think only this of me:
That there’s some comer of a foreign field
That is forever England. There shall be
In that rich earth a richer dust concealed;
A dust whom England bore, shaped, made aware,
Gave, once, her flowers to love, her ways to roam;
A body of England’s, breathing English air,
Washed by the rivers, blest by suns of home.
And think, this heart, all evil shed away,
A pulse in the eternal mind, no less
Gives somewhere back the thoughts by England given;
Her sights and sounds; dreams happy as her day;
And laughter, learnt of friends; and gentleness,
In hearts at peace, under an English heaven.

Some phrases have been left out in the poem below. Fill in the missing phrases on listening to the reading or the audio played by the teacher. You may listen again, if required. Soldier

If I should die, (1)_____ That there’s some comer (2)_____ That is (3)_____ There shall beIn that rich earth a richer (4)_____ A dust whom England bore, shaped, made aware,Gave, (5)_____ roam;A body (6)_____ air,Washed (7)_____ suns of home.And think, (8)_____ away,A pulse in the (9)_____ , no less Gives somewhere back (10) given;Her (11)_____ ; dreams happy as her day;And laughter, (12)_____ ; and gentleness,In hearts (13)_____ English heaven.

Answer:

1. think only this of me
2. of a foreign field
3. forever England
4. dust concealed
5. once, her flowers to love, her ways to
6. of England’s breathing English
7. by the rivers, blest by
8. this heart, all evil shed
9. eternal mind
10. the thoughts by England
11. sights and sounds
12. learnt of friends
13. at peace, under an

The Castle About the Poet

Edwin Muir (1887-1959), a renowned Scottish poet, novelist, translator and critic is remembered for his vivid poetry. He began writing poetry at a relatively old age, and over the course of several years worked out an individual, philosophical style for which he gained”recognition later in his life. First Poems and Chorus of the Newly Dead contain Muir’s initial attempts. Muir’s later collections include Variations on a Time Theme, The Narrow Place, The Voyage and Other Poems, The Labyrinth, and One Foot in Eden.

The Castle Summary in English

Edwin Muir’s ‘The Castle’ describes the capture of a castle through the eyes of a helpless soldier who witnessed the fall. Throughout the poem, the poet employs a constant ABAAB rhyme building the confidence of the readers about the strength of the castle and the invincibility of their status in the event of a war. Being confident of the strength of the fort, depth of the moat, and quantum of weapons, access to the allies, readiness to shoot the enemies from the turret walls of the fort, the soldiers were relaxed watching the mowers in the fields at work. There was no doubt about the valour of their captain and the loyalty of the soldiers.

They were confident of the sufficiency of the stockpile of food grains even if the castle came under siege. Citizens slept in peace. The soldiers were proud of the fact that in an armed combat they will surely win. But there was a wicket wicked gate guarded by an old man. The enemy bribed the aged gate keeper and the castle fell into the hands of the enemies. The brave soldiers had no weapon to fight human greed for “gold”.

The Castle Summary in Tamil

எட்வின் மூர் ‘கோட்டை’ எனும் கவிதை அந்த நாடு எதிரிகள் கைப்பற்றியதைக் கண்டு செய்வதறியாது திகைத்த சிப்பாயின் துயரக் கதையை விவரிக்கிறது. கவிதை முழுவதுமான ABAAB எனும் இசை நயத்தைக் கவிஞர் கையாண்டு போரின் போது நாட்டின் பலத்தையும். தோற்கடிக்க முடியாத அவர்களின் தகுதியையும் வாசகர்கள் நம்பிக்கைக்கு உகந்த வண்ணம் கையாண்டுள்ளார். கோடை காலத்தில் இளைப்பாறிக் கொண்டு கோபுரத்தின் வழியாக சிப்பாய்கள் அறுவடை செய்பவர்களை வயலிலும் மற்றும் எதிரிகளை அரை மைல் தொலைவிலும் கண்ட போது அவர்கள் அபாயகரமானவர்களாகத் தோன்றவில்லை. ஒவ்வொரு இலையுதிர் கோடைக் காலத்திலும் படை பலமும், தானியக் குவியலும் அபரிமிதமாக இருக்க, கம்பீரத் தோற்றமுடைய சிப்பாய்கள் மற்றும் நேச நாடுகளும் அருகாமையில் இருக்க அவர்கள் எதற்குப் பயப்படவேண்டும் என்றே கருதினார்கள்.

ஒரு பறவை மட்டுமே பறந்து கடக்கவல்ல வலிமை மிக்க கதவுகளும், கடினமான, வளவளப்பான சுவர்களும் இருக்க எந்த சூழ்ச்சியும், சிப்பாய்களைப் பிணமாகவோ அல்லது உயிருடனோ பிடிக்க இயலாது. சிப்பாய்கள் நம்பிக்கைக்கு உகந்தவர்களாக இருக்க, தளபதி வீரனாக இருக்க சிப்பாய்களை சபலப்படுத்துவதற்கு எதிரிகளிடம் எதுவும் இல்லை . ஆனால், அந்த வாயிற்கதவின் வயது முதிர்ந்த – காலாளி எதிரிகளை உள்ளே நுழையவிட நாடு சத்தமின்றி எதிரிகள் வசமானது. இந்த அவலநிலை தன் உயிர் உள்ள மட்டும் மறவா வண்ணம் இருக்கும் என சிப்பாய் கூறினார். மனிதனின் பொருள் வேட்கையால் தாம் அடிமையாக்கப்பட்டதை எதிர்த்துப் போரிட எந்த ஆயுதமும் இல்லாமல் போயிற்று, தங்கம் எதிரியால் பயன்படுத்தப்பட்டதால், வயதான வாயிற்காப்போனின் மனதில் மறைந்திருந்த பேராசை அவர்களது பலமான கோட்டையும், நாட்டையும் காவு வாங்கியது.

The Castle Glossary

Textual:

Additional:

Students can Download English Lesson 2 When the Trees Walked Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Prose Chapter 2 When the Trees Walked

Reading

Listen to your teacher read the first part of the story. Many things described in the story can be seen in the picture. Find and name them.

Answer:

1. Mango Tree
2. Bungalow
3. Author
4. Grandpa
5. Plants
6. Butterflies

Discuss and answer.

When The Trees Walked Questions And Answers Question 1.
When did the garden become a happy place for the author?
Answer:
The garden became a happy place for the author when his grandfather joined him.

When The Trees Walked Question 2.
What are the two reasons the author gives for the plants moving towards grandfather?
Answer:
The two reasons the author gives for the plants moving towards grandfather are:

1. Light & Warmth
2. They liked to be near grandpa.

When The Trees Walked Lesson Question Answer Question 3.
Why does the writer think that the peepul tree is a great show off?
Answer:
Even when there is no breeze, their road-chested, slim-waisted leave will spin like tops determined to attract your attention and invite you into the shade.

Discuss and answer.

When The Trees Walked Summary Question 1.
Why do we need trees? List four reasons that Grandfather gives.
Answer:

1. We need trees to keep the desert away.
2. To attract rain.
3. To prevent banks of rivers being washed away.
4. For fruits and flowers
5. For timber.

When The Trees Walked Book Back Answers Question 2.
Why did the author help his Grandfather plant trees?
Answer:
The thought of a world without trees became a sort of nightmare to the author and so he helped his Grandfather in his tree-planting with greater enthusiasm.

When The Trees Walked 6th Standard Question 3.
What made Grandfather plant saplings on the rocky island?
Answer:
There was a mango tree on the island. So grandfather planted saplings there.

Discuss and answer.

When The Trees Walked Lesson Question 1.
What did grandmother feel about trees growing in the house?
Answer:
Grandmother felt that trees growing in the house made it look like a roof brought down by jungle.

Question 2.
Why did the author leave town?
Answer:
The author left town to live with his father.

Question 3.
How did grandfather’s dream come true?
Answer:
The island became a small green paradise.

Question 4.
Describe what the author saw when he went back to the Island.
Answer:
When he went back to the island, the author noticed smaller trees, wild plants and grasses had sprung up under their protection. The trees they had planted long ago had multiplied.

Read and Understand

A. Tick the most appropriate option.

Question 1.
According to the author the tendril was moving towards grandfather because it
(a) needed light and warmth .
(b) did not like the light and warmth,
(c) wanted to be near Grandfather. (✓)
(d) wanted to escape from the winter

2. Grandmother had wanted the peepul tree cut down because
(a) she did not like trees.
(b) she wanted to grow flowers.
(c) it was an old tree.
(d) it was knocking down the bricks of the outhouse. (✓)

3. Grandfather helped grandma out with the gardening because he
(a) liked gardening.
(b) wanted to grow flowers to attract butterflies. (✓)
(c) wanted to beautify the garden.
(d) wanted to make the house green.

4. The author did not want to plant saplings in the forest because
(a) no one would come to see them (✓)
(b) it was dangerous to enter the forest.
(c) it would not be of any use to them.
(d) no one would appreciate them.

5. Grandfather felt planting trees would help the forest because
(a) he wanted to make the view beautiful.
(b) the river-bed was dry.
(c) animals and birds in the forest would love him.
(d) the animals and birds would find it easier to live. (✓)

6. When the author returned from England to Dehradun, he found Grandfather’s dream had come true because the
(a) old house had changed.
(b) river was full.
(c) trees had red flowers.
(d) forest covered the island. (✓)

B. Read the story on your own. Discuss in a group and complete the story map below.

Answer:
story map is the main events of the story given in a flow chart.

C. Work in groups of five. Tell the story in ten sentences.

You can begin the story like this :
The author’s Grandfather served in the Indian Forest Service.
After his retirement he built ________
Now continue the story. Each one should say one sentence.
Answer:

1. Grandfather built a bungalow.
2. He planted trees around it.
3. During the rains Grandfather walked into the jungle.
4. He planted cuttings & saplings.
5. They found a small rocky island.
6. Grandfather planted a number of tamarind, laburnum and coral tree saplings.
7. During the second world war, the author was sent to a boarding school.
8. Two or three years later he went to England.
9. Some years later, the author returned and saw the island.
10. He looked around and noticed a beautiful small green paradise.

D. Write a summary based on the story map.
Answer:
Grandfather built a bungalow and planted trees around it. During the rains grandfather walked into the jungle. He planted cuttings & saplings. They found a small rocky island and grandfather planted a number of tamarind, laburnum and coral tree saplings. During the second world war, the author was sent to a boarding school. Two or three years later he went to England. Some years later, the author returned and saw the island. He looked around and noticed a beautiful small green paradise.

Vocabulary

E. Look at the words in the boxes. Match the words to make as many new words as possible. One is done for you. Eg. out house.

1. Out – a. root
2. river – b. wall
3. water – c. garden
4. flower – d. body
5. sun – e. hill
6. aerial – f. bed
7. busy – g- sill
8. window – h. house
9. foot – i. shine
10. compound – j fall

Answer:

1. (h)
2. (f)
3. (j)
4. (c)
5. (i)
6. (a)
7. (d)
8. (g)
9. (e)
10. (b)

F. Look at the words in the box. Make new words by adding ‘ly’ wherever possible, it will not be possible until all the words.
lone
blossom
fertile
vigorous
place
constant complete
strong
unlike
great
cross
immediate
broad

Answers:

lonely
vigorously
constantly
completely
strongly
unlikely
greatly
immediately
broadly

G. Look at the words in the box. Fill the wheel with their antonyms.

All the words begin with ‘S’ and are from the text.

hard, fat, weak, big, fast, hide, rough, dull

Answer:

hard × soft
fat × slim
weak × strong
big × small
fast × slow
hide × seek
rough × soft/still
dull × smart

Listening

H. Listen to you r teacher read out what happened to Nandhu. Some of the statements given beiow are correct. Tick them (✓).

• The truck went over a stone. (x)
• The box fell out of a truck. (✓)
• The brass lamp was in the truck. (x)
• Nandhu wanted to play with the lamp. (✓)
• It was like the lamp Nandhu had at home. (x)
• Nandhu pressed a button. (✓)

Speaking

I. Take something from your school bag. Describe it in three sentences. Ask the class to find out the thing you have described.

• I have a thin wooden piece.
• It has graphite in it.

J. Discuss in groups of five. Make a story about the comic strip. Then share it in the doss.
(To be done by the students)

Use Grammar

K. Tick the right option to fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
a beautiful flower!
(a) How
(b) Wow
(c) What
(d) Hurrah
Answer:
(c) What

Question 2.
play football?
(a) You can
(b) Can you
(c) Have you
(d) You could
Amswer:
(b) Can you

Question 3.
did you go yesterday?
(a) Which
(b) Where
(c) What
(d) Who
Answer:
(b) Where

Question 4.
us go for a walk.
(a) Shall
(b) May
(c) Let
(d) Can
Answer:
(c) Let

Question 5.
like to play hide and seek.
(a) He
(b) She
(c) I
(d) Muthu
Answer:
(c) I

L. Look at the punctuation of these sentences. Why are they punctuated differently ? Discuss in class.

Question 1.
One always felt like drawing close to Him.
Answer:.
This sentence is a statement. So, we end it with a full stop.

Question 2.
But no one ever comes here
Answer:
This sentence expresses surprise. So, we end it with an exclamation mark.

Question 3.
Who’s going to see them?
Answer:
This sentence asks a question. So, we end it with aquestion mark.

Question 4.
Come here.
Answer:
This sentence gives a command. So, we end it with a full stop.

M. Work in pairs and say the sentences to each other. Do you hear any difference in the way it is spoken? Discuss and share with the class. Discuss the difference in the meaning of the sentences.

Question 1.
This is a banyan tree.
Answer:
Statement / Declarative Sentence.

Question 2.
Is this a banyan tree?
Answer:
Question / Interrogative Sentence.

Question 3.
What a beautiful banyan tree
Answer:
Exclamation / Exclamatory Sentence.

Question 4.
Look at this banyan tree.
Answer:
Command / Imperative Sentence.

N. Read these sentences from the story carefully. Do they give commands or requests or make statements? Write ‘C’ for command and ‘R’ for request and ‘S’ for statement,

1. The tendril moved towards grandfather. [S]
2. I want a roof over my head. [S]
3. Please do not cut trees. [R]
4. We spent the whole day planting saplings. [S]
5. Will you please remove the trees growing on the [R]
6. There was a forest on the island. [S]
7. Go to the river bed. [C]
8. The island was a green paradise. [S]
9. Grow more trees to protect nature. [C]
10. Grandfather’s dream had come true. [S]

writing

O. Look at the picture and write a paragraph using the dues in the picture.
Grow and protect trees

Answer:
Trees are most essential. They are the homes to different birds & insects. They give us medicine. They give fruits and provide shade. They prevent soil erosion & landslides. Trees bring rain and keep the temperature cool.

Creative Writing

Look at the Picture and write a story

Answer:
Man needs oxygen to live. A man cuts trees for his needs but one day he realises that there is no good air to survive. The man needs oxygen cylinder. He pays the fees of cutting down trees.

When the Trees Walked Additional Questions

I. Select The Suitable Synonyms.

1. beside
(a) above
(b) next to
(c) below
Answer:
(b) next to

2. creeping
(a) crawling
(b) summing
(c) moving
Answer:
(a) crawling

3. beneath
(a) above
(b) under
(c) front
Answer:
(b) under

4. fertile
(a) barren
(b) worthy
(c) productive
Answer:
(c) productive

5. trailing
(a) making
(b) tracking
(c) stopping
Answer:
(b) tracking

6. abandoned
(a) deserted
(b) habited
(c) occupied
Answer:
(a) deserted

7. vigorous
(a) quick
(b) slow
(c) energetic
Answer:
(c) energetic

8. invite
(a) refuse
(b) welcome
(c) decline
Answer:
(b) welcome

9. determined
(a) confused
(b) set
(c) done
Answer:
(b) set

10. constantly
(a) rare
(b) never
(c) always
Answer:
(c) always

11. content
(a) plenty
(b) satisfied
(c) few
Answer:
(b) satisfied

12. protested
(a) opposed
(b) dispose
(c) destroy
Answer
(a) opposed

13. prevent
(a) stop
(b) allow
(c) send
Answer:
(a) stop

14. nightmare
(a) interesting dream
(b) terrific dream
(c) pleasant dream
Answer:
(b) terrific dream

15. enthusiasm
(a) fast
(b) dull
(c) excited
Answer:
(c) excited

16. spare
(a) pull
(b) leave
(c) change
Answer:
(b) leave

17. sheltered
(a) protected
(b) demolished
(c) cut
Answer:
(a) protected

18. interfering
(a) putting
(b) stopping
(c) letting
Answer:
(b) stopping

19. completely
(a) moderately
(b) partially
(c) totally
Answer:
(c) totally

20. rambling
(a) walking
(b) running
(c) wanderiftg
Answer:
(c) wandering

21. sprang
(a) rose
(b) jumped
(c) fall
Answer:
(a) rose

22. spectacular
(a) eye-catching
(b) wonderful
(c) unpleasant
Answer:
(a) eye-catching

23. beckon
(a) to chase
(b) to follow
(c) to call
Answer:
(c) to call

24. paradise
(a) hell
(b) forest
(c) heaven
Answer:
(c) heaven

25. contrast
(a) variation
(b) liken
(c) same
Answer:
(a) variation

II. Select The Suitable Antonyms.

1. slowly
(a) lazily
(b) fast
(c) moderately
Answer:
(b) fast

2. soft
(a) cozy
(b) smooth
(c) hard
Answer:
(c) hard

3. lonely
(a) accompanied
(b) isolated
(c) destitute
Answer:
(a) accompanied

4. broad
(a) large
(b) narrow
(c) extensive
Answer:
(b) narrow

5. including
(a) containing
(b) along with
(c) excluding
Answer:
(c) excluding

6. attract
(a) repel
(b) entice
(c) bring
Answer:
(a) repel

7. happy
(a) elated
(b) sad
(c) merry
Answer:
(b) sad

8. comer
(a) edge
(b) rim
(c) centre
Answer:
(c) centre

9. small
(a) big
(b) tiny
(c) paltry
Answer:
(a) big

10. prevent
(a) avoid
(b) let
(c) hinder.
Answer:
(b) let

11. beyond
(a) further
(b) farther
(c) nearby
Answer:
(c) nearby

12. protested
(a) accepted
(b) revolted
(c) objected
Answer:
(a) accepted

13. improve
(a) deteriorate
(b) mend
(c) develop
Answer:
(a) deteriorate

14. enthusiasm
(a) passion
(b) excitement
(c) disinterest
Answer:
(c) disinterest

15. many
(a) lot
(b) few
(c) any
Answer:
(b) few

16. dry
(a) arid
(b) wet
(c) barren
Answer:
(b) wet

17. crossly
(a) madly
(b) angrily
(c) calmly
Answer:
(c) calmly

18. bought
(a) sold
(b) acquired
(c) procured
Ans.
(a) sold

19. falling
(a) sliding
(b) raising
(c) dropping
Answer:.
(b) raising

20. several
(a) various
(b) lot of
(c) none
Answer:
(c) none

21. across
(a) forward
(b) beyond
(c) over
Answer:
(a) forward

22. whispered
(a) murmured
(b) roar
(c) muttered
Answer:
(b) roar

23. nearer
(a) closer
(b) beside
(c) furtherer
Answer:
(c) furtherer

24. multiplied
(a) divided
(b) augmented
(c) added
Answer:
(a) divided

III. State True or False.

1. Grandfather had served many years in the Indian Forest Service
2. During the holidays, I went to live with my father in Dehradun.
3. My grandparents sold the house and went to Delhi.
4. My grandfather taught me a poem by George Morris.
5. In the fertile Doon Valley, plants and trees did not grow tall and strong.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False

IV. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
_______ minutes later, it had crossed the step and was touching his
(a) Two
(b) Twenty
(c) Ten
(d) Five
Answer:
(b) Twenty

Question 2.
In the fertile Doon Valley, plants and trees grew tall and _______
(a) weak
(b) sturdy
(c) strong
(d) big
Answer:
(c) strong

Question 3.
Peepul. trees are great _______
(a) trees
(b) boons
(c) show offs
(d) gifts
Answer:
(c) show offs

Question 4.
But men are cutting down without
(a) growing
(b) replacing
(c) looking at
(d) plantini
Answer:
(b) replacing

Question 5.
Grandfather helped her out with the
(a) watering
(b) cutting
(c) planting
(d) gardening
Answer:
(d) gardening

Question 6.
We’re planting them for the _______
(a) garden
(b) prize
(c) forest
(d) award
Answer:
(c) forest

Question 7.
One day, the trees will _______ again
(a) run
(b) jump
(c) come
(d) move
Answer:
(d) move

Question 8.
We found a small _______ island
(a) stony
(b) pretty
(c) rocky
(d) award
Answer:
(c) rocky

Question 9.
At every turn, there was _______ new to see.
(d) always
(b) something
(c) rarely
Answer:
(b) something

Question 10.
When I went up to the trees, I noticed that some _______ were living in them.
(a) monkeys
(b) bats
(c) squirrels
(d) birds
Answer:
(c) squirrels

V. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What did the author notice, white he was sitting beside his Grandfather?
Answer:
He noticed a tendril of a creeping vine trailing nearby

Question 2.
Where had Ms grandfather served many years?
Ans:
His Grandfather served many years in the Indian Forest Service.

Question 3.
What did his grandfather do, after his retirement?
Answer:
After his retirement, he built a bungalow on the outskirts of Dehradun, planting trees all around.

Question 4.
Name some of thetreespiantedby his grandfather.
Answer:
Lime, Mango, Orange, Guava, Eucalyptus, Jacaranda and Persian lilacs.

Question 5.
What did his grandmother prefer doing?
Answer:
His grandmother preferred growing flowers and was constantly ordering Catalogues and seeds.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Who wanted to cut down the peepul tree?
Answer:
Grandmother wanted to cut down the peepul tree but grandfather decided not to cut it down, as he thought he could build another outhouse.

Question 2.
What was the reason behind Grandfather helpinc his wife in gardening?
Answer:
His Grandfather helped her not because he liked the flower gardens but because he liked watching butterflies being attracted towards the flowers.

Question 3.
Was Grandfather content with growing trees in his compound? Why?
Answer:
No, he was not content with growing trees only in his compound because he desired to plant saplings and cuttings in the forest for animals, birds for more food and shelter.

Question 4.
What did his grandfather teach the author, wt»Be they were tree-planting?
Answer:
While the author helped his grandfather, in his tree – planting with greater enthusiasm, his grandfather taught him a poem on trees by George Morris.

Question 5.
What brought Hie and greenness to the plants and trees?
Answer:
Out of the earth and rock and leafless boughs, the magic touch of the rains had bought life and greenness to the trees. Plants sprang up in the most unlikely of place.

VII. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Describe the oM peepul tree In the compound of grandfathers house.
Answer:
An old peepul tree broke through the walls of an abandoned outhouse, knocking the bricks down with its vigorous growth. Peepul trees are great show-offs. Even when there is no breeze, their broad-chested, slim waisted leaves will spin like tops determined to attract our attention and invite us into the shade. Though the author’s grandmother wanted to cut down the tree, his grandfather decided to keep it, as he thought he could build another outhouse.

Question 2.
What did the narrator and his grandfather do in an island?
Answer:
The narrator and his grandfather saw an island, a small rocky one in a dry river-bed. It was one of those river-beds so common in the foothills, which are completely dry in summer, but flooded during the monsoon rains. A small mango tree was growing on the island. Seeing this, they decided to plant other trees. As soon as the rains set in and while rivers could still be crossed, they set out with a number of tamarind, laburnum, coral tree saplings and cuttings. They spent the day planting them on the island.

Question 3.
What did the narrator see on the island, after several years?
Answer:
The author went to live with his father in Delhi. After two or three years he left for England. When he returned to Dehradun after many years, he walked towards the / river bed. He was surprised to see the amazing view of the island, where they had planted coral tree saplings. He could hear squirrels and koels asking him who he was. The narrator could see that the trees recognized him and came nearer to him. The trees, they had planted long ago, had multiplied. They were walking again. He remembered his grandfather’s words and his dream had come true.

Question 4.
How did grandfather’s drawn come true?
Answer:
The author’s grandfather planted trees all around his bungalow. He told that trees would give food and shelter to the birds and animals. In a small rocky island, he planted a number of tree saplings. After some years, the author went to the island. The island looked like a small green paradise. Birds were living there. The trees had multiplied. It was because of his grandfather’s effort. Thus grandfather’s dream came true.

Picto Grammar

The Sentence

Kinds of Sentences
There are four kinds of sentences.

1. Assertive
2. Interrogative
3. Imperative
4. Exclamatory

1. Assertive (or declarative) sentences : These sentences assert, state or declare something. An assertive sentence either makes an affirmative (positive) or a negative statement. In assertive sentences the object mostly comes before the verb. For example :

1. The moon shines during the night, (affirmative)
2. He was never interested in sports, (negative)

2. Interrogative sentences: These sentences ask questions. In such sentences, the verb or a part of the verb comes before the subject. For example :

1. Where is the golf club?
2. Do you like to play cricket?
3. What is the matter?
   Interrogative sentences end with a question mark. (?)

3. Imperative sentences : These sentences express command, request, entreaty, suggestion or wish. The subject is generally omitted in these sentences. For example :

1. Never tease animals, (command)
2. Bring me a loaf of bread, please, (request)
3. Could you please show me the way to the airport? (suggestion)
4. It is better for you to consult a lawyer, (suggestion)
5. Bless me, Oh God. (entreaty)
6. God save my country, (wish)
   Imperative sentences also end with a full stop (.).

4. Exclamatory sentences: These sentences express strong and sudden feelings. For example :

1. How good the painting is!
2. What a beautiful woman you are!
3. How hot it is!
4. What a horrible man!
   Exclamatory sentences end with an exclamation mark (!).

Declarative or Interrogative?

Write whether the sentence is declarative or interrogative.

1. _______ The wind blows hard in a hurricane. [Declarative]
2. _______ How are you? [Interrogative]
3. _______ Who has seen the magic show? [Interrogative]
4. _______ Do you like white bread or wheat bread the best? [Interrogative]
5. _______ Fifteen boys and twelve girls ride my bus. [Declarative]
6. _______ Evan and Gary made a kite. [Declarative]
7. _______ The clowns made me laugh. [Declarative]
8. _______ Those three girls are my best friends. [Declarative]
9. _______ May I look at your pictures? [Interrogative]
10. _______ Can you tell time? [Interrogative]
11. _______ Who knows why dogs can’t write? [Interrogative]
12. _______ Mac can jump on a skateboard. [Declarative]

Declarative, Imperative, Interrogative, or Exclamatory?

I. Write whether the sentence is declarative, imperative, interrogative, or exclamatory.

1. _______ The little kittens feel so soft and warm. [Declarative]
2. _______ Wow! That was cool. [Exclamatory]
3. _______ Stop hitting me! [Imperative]
4. _______ Quit crying [Imperative]
5. _______ Can you see the bottom of the pond? [Interrogative]
6. _______ When will you be home? [Interrogative]
7. _______ Who has read this book? [Interrogative]
8. _______ The wind blows hard in a hurricane. [Declarative]
9. _______ Do not eat so much cake. [Imperative]
10. _______ Show Mom your report card. [Imperative]
11. _______ Kick the ball harder. [Imperative]
12. _______ Belinda has on a blue dress today. [Declarative]

II. Add the correct ending punctuation. Then write whether declarative, imperative, interrogative, or exclamatory.

1. _______ be careful ___ [. / Imperative]
2. _______ Mr. Vader wrote a note to my mother and father ___ [. / Declarative]
3. _______ Stop yelling at me ___ [. / Imperative]
4. _______ This shirt is not his ___ [. / Declarative]
5. _______ How fast can Ken run ___ [? / Interrogative]
6. _______ Show Mom your report card ___ [. / Imperative]
7. _______ Get out of my house ___ [. / Imperative]
8. _______ Lay this book on the table ___ [. / Imperative]
9. _______ Have you seen my baby brother ___ [? / Interrogative]
10. _______ Josh plays the drums in a band ___ [. / Declarative]
11. _______ Show me your homework ___ [. / Imperative]
12. _______ Does Ali have a sister ___ [? / Interrogative]

III. Tick the right option to fill in the blanks

Question 1.
_______ likes to play hide and seek.
(a) We
(b) Raju
(c) They
Answer:
(b) Raju

Question 2.
Wait a minute. _______ ?
(a) are you
(b) were you
(c) will you
Answer:
(c) will you

Question 3.
_______ you like tea?
(a) Could
(b) Would
(c) Should
Answer:
(b) Would

Question 4.
_______ big eyes you have!
(a) Which
(b) Where
(c) What
Answer:
(c) What

When the Trees Walked Summary

Section I

The story starts with the narrator and his Grandfather sitting on the veranda steps when the narrator notices a tendril (a climbing plant) creeping towards the Grandfather. After twenty minutes the tendril crosses the step and touches Grandfather’s feet.

The narrator believes there is a scientific explanation to the plant’s behavior. Whenever Grandfather joined the narrator in the garden, the garden became a happy place. The Grandfather served many years in the Indian Forest Service so he liked trees and plants. After his retirement he built a bungalow on the outer area of Dehradun. He planted trees like lime, mango, orange and guava around the house. The Doon valley was fertile, so all the trees grew tall and strong.

An old peepul tree broke through the walls of an abandoned outhouse. Peepul trees have broad-chested trunk and slim-waisted leaves that spin like tops which attract our attention and invites us into their shade. Grandmother wanted to cut down the peepul tree but Grandfather decided not to as he thought he could build another outhouse.

Grandmother was not against trees but fond of growing flowers. She ordered seeds and Grandfather helped her out in gardening. Grandfather helped her not because he liked flower garden but he liked watching butterflies attracted towards the flowers.

Section II

Grandfather, during the rains, would walk into the jungle beyond the river-bed with saplings and cuttings, which he would plant in the forest. The Narrator questioned Grandfather that no one would come there. Grandfather replied that he was planting them for the forest and for the animals and birds for more food and shelter. He also explained that trees are required to keep the desert away, to attract rain, to prevent the banks of rivers from being washed away, for fruits and flowers.

The Narrator helped Grandfather with enthusiasm while Grandfather taught the narrator a George Morris poem. Grandfather said trees would start to walk again like they did earlier until some busybody (a mischief) cast a spell on them.

The narrator and Grandfather saw an island that was dry in summer but flooded during rains. Grandfather saw a small mango tree growing there and decided to plant tamarind, laburnum and coral tree saplings on the island.

Section III

The narrator spent the monsoon season with his Grandparents, where he saw life and greenness brought by the rains. He also saw broad-leaved vines, peepul trees taking root in the ceiling, a mango sprout on the window-sill. During Second World War , the narrator went to live with his father in Delhi. After two or three years he left for England and returned to India after several years. When he returned to Dehradun after many years, he walked towards the river bed. He was surprised to see the spectacular (amazing) view of the island where they had planted coral tree saplings. He could hear squirrels and koel asking him who he was ?. The narrator could see that the trees recognized him and came nearer. He thought of what his Grandfather had said, “Trees are walking again”.

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Sea Turtles Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Prose Chapter 1 Sea Turtles

Talk about

Sea Turtle Questions And Answers Question 1.
Have you seen turtles? Where do they live?
Answer:
Yes, I have seen turtles. They live in the Oceans.

Sea Turtle Lesson 6th Standard In English Question 2.
What do you know about turtles?
Answer:
I know that turtles live long.

Sea Turtles Come To The Shore To Answers Question 3.
Why do you think the turtles in the picture have names such as Leatherback and Hawksbill?
Answer:
I think that the shells of the turtles are like leather and hawksbill.

Put (✓) for the correct and a (×) for the incorrect statements.

1. Turtles are different from tortoises. (✓)
2. Turtles are sea animals. (✓)
3. There are seven kinds of sea turtles in the world. (✓)
4. Sea turtles are very small. (×)
5. Turtles come ashore to lay eggs. (✓)
6. Sea turtles come to rest on land. (×)
7. Olive Ridleys are the only sea turtles seen on Indian shores. (✓)

Are these statements right? Discuss with your partner and (✓) them if they are correct. Correct them if they are wrong. Share your answers in class.

1. Female Olive Ridleys come ashore at night to lay eggs. (✓)
2. The eggs of an Olive Ridley are in the shape and size of a cricket ball. (×)
3. Ridleys come to lay their eggs in the month of January. (✓)
4. The turtles use their flippers and make a hollow for their nests. (✓)
5. The hatchlings use a tiny egg-tooth to come out of the eggs. (✓)

Fill in the table given below

Answer:

Read and Understand

A. Choose the correct answers. You may choose more than one answer If needed.

6th English Sea Turtles Answers Question 1.
The _______ is a biological relative of tortoises.
(a) sea turtle
(b) fish
(c) reptile
Answer.
(a) sea turtle

Sea Turtle Lesson Questions And Answers Question 2.
In India’s coastal waters we can see a species of _______
(a) tortoises
(b) sea turtles
(c) dolphin
Answer:
(b) sea turtles

Sea Turtles Lesson Question 3.
Sea turtles come to the shore to
(a) visit their birth place
(b) lay eggs
(c) go back to sea
Answer:
(b) lay eggs

Sea Turtles Come To The Shore To Question 4.
It is a problem for sea turtles to come ashore because _______
(a) they find it difficult to walk on sand
(b) they don’t know their way to the shore
(c) animals and people hunt them
Answer:
(a) they find it difficult to walk on sand

Sea Turtle Lesson 6th Standard Question 5.
A turtle’s flippers help it to _______
(a) swim
(b) dig a nest
(c) climb
Answer:
(a) swim

A Turtle Flippers Help It To Question 6.
A sea turtle camouflages its nest by tossing sand on it to _______
(a) hide its eggs from predators
(b) incubate eggs in the warmth of the sun
(c) keep the hatchlings safe
Answer:
(b) incubate eggs in the warmth of the sun

Vocabulary

B. Find any five words related to sea from the text (Sections I & II). Write them below. Then use the words to frame sentences of your own.

eg: beach – We like to play In the sandy beach.
Swimming – I like swimming
Motorboat – We went on a motorboat
Crabs – People eat crabs as sea food
Sand – Children play on sand
Cavity – There are cavities in beach

C. Fill in the blanks with words that convey correct meaning of the sentences.

1. Tiny hatchlings fall _______ (pray / prey) to many predators.
2. Sea turtles live their (hole / whole) life in the sea.
3. The turtles come ashore only during the _______ (night/knight).
4. The predators follow the _______ (sent / scent) of the turtles to eat their eggs.
5. The female turtles lay eggs and go back to the _______ (see / sea)

Answers:

1. prey
2. whole
3. night
4. scent
5. sea

D. Use the dues and fill In the crossword puzzle.

1. This word rhymes with seen.
2. This animal has two horns and a spotted coat.
3. This is a huge sea animal.
4. Sounds like hair
5. Shines brightly
6. Rhymes with load

Answer:

Listening

E. Listen to the flash news. Read the questions given below, then listen to the flash news again and complete the responses.

Answer:

Speaking

F. Look at the picture. Work in groups and give a short Wk about it using the words given below.

Good morning to one and all. I am going to speak about the Students’ Sea Turtle Conservation Network and its activities. This voluntary group protects the Olive Ridley turtles. The boys collect many eggs and incubate in a hatchery. Thus they enjoy doing this service. As soon as the hatchlings come out, they safely take them in a basket of sand. After that they leave them near the sea at night. The little turtles rush into the sea waves. However, rough sea conditions affect the turtles.

Grammar

G. Make meaningful sentences from the table given below.

A turtle – is huge.
– has flippers to swim.

Turtles – live in the sea.
– have a connection with the land.
– are found in coastal waters.
– are wonderful creatures.

H. Write a suitable sentence for the pictures given below.

Answer:

I. Match the two halves of the sentences and read them.

1. Sea turtles – a. threaten the survival of sea turtles.
2. Hatchlings – b. uses its front flippers to swim.
3. A turtle – c. come ashore to lay eggs.
4. Many factors – a. cut open the leathery egg shell.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

Writing

J. Tortoises and Turtles are not the same. Read the facts given below.
List the similarities and differences between them.

Answer:

K. Write a paragraph from the contents of the table given above. Frame sentences with these words – but as well as, whereas.
eg. A turtle as well as a tortoise belongs to the reptile family.
Answer:
A turtle as well as a tortoise belongs to the reptile family. A tortoise is a land animal whereas a turtle is a sea animal. Both a tortoise and a turtle lives long for many years. A tortoise uses its tiny feet to walk but a turtle uses flippers to swim. A tortoise feeds on grass, weeds and flowers but a turtle eats insects and bugs.

Creative Writing

L. Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words/phrases given below.

Answer:
There are many sea animals in the ocean. They are beautiful and wonderful in varied sizes, shape and structure. The fishes are in different colours and are of different varieties. Many rare species of fishes are found in deep sea. Most corals and exotic species are under the sea.

Sea Turtles Additional Questions

I. Select the Suitable Synonyms.

1. entire
(a) small
(b) partial
(c) whole
Answer:
(c) whole

2. huge
(a) large
(b) little
(c) dwarfed
Answer
(a) large

3. connection
(a) separation
(b) link
(c) division
Answer.
(b) link

4. extremely
(a) majorly
(b) initially
(c) slowly
Answer
(a) majorly

5. commonly
(a) individually
(b) usually
(c) urgently
Answer:
(b) usually

6. haul
(a) pull force
(b) push force
(c) twist force
Answer:
(a) pull force

7. slash
(a) join
(b) cut
(c) merge
Answer:
(b) cut

8. emerge
(a) disperse
(b) submerge
(c) come out
Answer:
(c) come out

9. camouflage
(a) seek
(b) colour
(c) hide
Answer:
(c) hide

10. scent
(a) stink
(b) perfume
(c) heat
Answer
(b) perfume

11. aspect
(a) characteristic
(b) respect
(c) perfect
Answer
(a) characteristic

12. prey
(a) winner
(b) victim
(c) survivor
Answer:
(b) victim

13. tiny
(a) large
(b) huge
(c) small
Answer:.
(c) small

14. estimate
(a) calculate
(b) exact
(c) appropriate
Answer:
(a) calculate

15. adult
(a) young
(b) pre-mature
(c) matured
Answer:
(c) matured

16. survive
(a) die
(b) exist
(c) kill
Answer:
(b) exist

17. fascinating
(a) interesting
(b) surprising
(c) enjoying
Answer:
(a) interesting

18. mystery
(a) interesting
(b) story
(c) puzzle
Answer
(c) puzzle

19. wonderful
(a) amazing
(b) ordinary
(c) casual
Answer:
(a) amazing

20. accidentally
(a) wantedly
(b) deliberately
(c) unintentionally
Answer:
(c) unintentionally

21. construction
(a) destruction
(b) creation
(c) confusion
Answer:
(b) creation

II. Select the Suitable Antonyms.

1. entire
(a) absolute
(b) integral
(c) partial
Answer:
(c) partial

2. largest
(a) biggest
(b) smallest
(c) tallest
Answer:
(b) smallest

3. commonly
(a) rarely
(b) frequently
(c) regularly
Answer:
(a) rarely

4. after
(a) later
(b) next
(c) before
Answer:
(c) before

5. life
(a) soul
(b) death
(c) spirit
Answer:
(b) depth

6. tiny
(a) big
(b) small
(c) little
Answer:
(a) big

7. predators
(a) hunters
(b) killers
(c) rescuers
Answer:
(c) rescuers

8. cavity
(a) crater
(b) bulge
(c) dent
Answer:
(b) bulge

9. camouflage
(a) expose
(b) mask
(c) cover
Answer:
(a) expose

10. scent
(a) aroma
(b) fragrance
(c) stink
Answer:
(c) stink

11. emerge
(a) arise
(b) submerge
(c) appear
Answer:
(b) submerge

12. haul
(a) push
(b) lift
(c) pull
Answer:
(a) push

13. natural
(a) normal
(b) common
(c) artificial
Answer:
(c) artificial

14. accidentally
(a) unintentionally
(b) deliberately
(c) unwittingly
Answer:
(b) deliberately

15. sadly
(a) happily
(b) gloomily
(c) cheerlessly
Answer:
(a) happily

16. interested
(a) keen
(b) concerned
(c) uninterested
Answer:
(c) uninterested

17. conservation
(a) preservation
(b) depletion
(c) control
Answer:
(b) depletion

18. famous
(a) infamous
(b) acclaimed
(c) eminent
Answer:
(a) infamous

19. estimate
(a) guess
(b) appraise
(c) exact
Answer:
(c) exact

20. own
(a) possess
(b) rent
(c) dominate
Answer:
(b) rent

21. adult
(a) juvenile
(b) grown-up
(c) mature
Answer:
(a) juvenile

III. State True or False.

1. Turtles and tortoises are the same. [False]
2. The Leatherback is the largest sea turtle. [True]
3. Jackals, dogs and pigs will not eat the eggs of Olive Ridley. [False]
4. Crabs and birds will eat the tiny hatchlings. [True]
5. Human activities have put the turtles in grave danger. [True]

IV. Fill in the Blanks Using the Homophones.

1. The eggs are left to incubate under the warmth of the _______ (sun/son).
2. Most of us have _______ (scene/seen) a tortoise in a zoo or a reptile park.
3. This is _______ (quiet/quite) a problem for female Olive Ridleys for moving on land.
4. Human activities during the _______ (lost/last) few decades have put sea turtles in grave danger.
5. The Olive Ridley weighs up to 35 kg when fully _______ (grown/groan).

Answers:

1. sun
2. seen
3. quite
4. last
5. grown

V. Choose the Correct Answers (mcq).

Sea Turtle 6th Standard Question 1.
The hatchlings open the egg shell using their _______
(a) egg-tooth
(b) flippers
(c) body
Answer:
(a) egg-tooth

Sea Turtle Lesson Question 2.
It is estimated by scientists that only one in every _______ hatchlings become an adult
(a) 5000
(b) 1000
(c) 500
Answer:
(b) 1000

Sea Turtles Questions And Answers Question 3.
Female hatchlings that have become adults _______
(a) find a new beach to lay their eggs
(b) return to the same beach to lay their eggs
(c) lay their eggs in the ocean
Answer:
(b) return to the same beach to lay their eggs

A Turtles Flippers Help It To Answer Question 4.
Sea Turtles are _______ species
(a) endangered
(b) out of danger
(c) extinct
Answer:
(a) endangered

Sea Turtles Come To Rest On Land True Or False Question 5.
The only way to solve the problems faced by Sea Turtles is _______
(a) to not allow the sea turtles to come ashore
(b) to systematically tackle the problems and removing threats
(c) to dig the eggs laid on shore and put it back into the sea.
Answer:
(b) to systematically tackle the problems and removing threats

VI. Very short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Where do ths reptiles spend, almost their entire life?
Answer:
Ammamma asked the children to sit upstairs in the middle room and gave. The Reptiles spend almost their entire life in the sea.

Question 2.
How many species of marine or sea turtles are there?
Answer:
There are seven species of marine or sea turtles in the world.

Question 3.
Name the five sea-turtles found in India’s coastal waters.
Answer:
The Oliver Ridley, the Hawksbill, the Green sea turtle, the Loggerhead and the Leatherback.

Question 4.
Where do they go to lay eggs?
Answer:
They must come ashore to lay their eggs.

Question 5.
How much does an Olive Ridley weight?
Answer:
It weighs up to 35kg, when fully grown.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
How do the local people jackles and domestic dogs identify the turtle’s eggs?
Answer:
Jackals, domestic dogs and pigs dig up and eat the eggs by following the scent left by the turtle. Even the local people follow the tracks of the turtle to its nest and collect the eggs for eating.

Question 2.
What happens to the eggs, that escape front the people and predators?
Answer:
The eggs that escape from the people and predators hatch 45 – 60 days later. The hatchlings slash open the leathery eggshell with the help of a tiny egg – tooth.

Question 3.
How do the hatchlings read) the shore?
Answer:
When most of the eggs have hatched, the hatchlings push themselves upwards through the sand and emerge on the surface of the beach. From there, they make a hurried dash to the sea.

Question 4.
Where does nesting takes place?
Answer:
Mass nesting takes place on the shore. Odisha is one of the only three places in the world, where a phenomenon known as mass nesting or Arribada takes place. Thousands of female turtles come ashore simultaneously to lay their eggs on particular beaches.

Question 5.
How can we ensure that the sea turtles wfl continue to exist in die yean to come?
Answer:
Only by systematically tackling the problems faced by the sea turtles and removing the threats subjected to them, can we ensure that sea turtles will continue to exist in the years to come.

VIII. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What problems are faced by the female turtles, when they come ashore to lay their eggs?
Answer:
Between the months of January and March, female Olive Ridleys come ashore at night to lay their eggs. This is quite a problem for them, as a turtle’s front flippers enable it to swim gracefully and effortlessly, but are not very useful for moving on land. The turtle has to haul itself laboriously onto the beach. Then it chooses a spot well away from the high tide line. There, it scoops out a nest cavity, 45 cms deep, into which it lays about 100 eggs. Then it fills the cavity and hides the nest with the sand. Finally, it returns to the sea, leaving the eggs to incubate under the warmth of the sun.

Question 2.
Describe one of the many mysterious of these fascinating reptiles
Answer:
After many years of swimming in the open ocean, the female hatchlings that have become adults return to the same beach, they were bom. They come there to lay their own eggs. How they manage to find the place after so many years in the sea is one of the many mysteries of these fascinating reptiles. It is also a wonder that they have survived natural dangers for millions of years.

Question 3.
What are the problems that affect the survival of turtles?
Answer:
People hunt the sea turtles for their meat. They collect their eggs. Some times the turtles are trapped in the nets of motorboats. Pollution and dumping of plastics into the ocean affect their survival. Construction activities on nestling beaches also hurt their survival.

Picto Grammar

Subjects and Predicate

Identify the subject and the predicate in the following sentences.

Question 1.
The sun was shining brightly.
Answer:
The sun (subject) / was shining brightly (predicate).

Question 2.
The dogs were barking loudly.
Answer:
The dogs (subject) / were barking loudly (predicate).

Question 3.
The pretty girl was wearing a blue frock.
Answer:
The pretty girl (subject) / was wearing a blue frock (predicate).

Question 4.
My younger brother serves in the army.
Answer:
My younger brother (subject) / serves in the army (predicate).

Question 5.
The man and his wife were working in their garden.
Answer:
The man and his wife (subject) / were working in their garden (predicate).

Question 6.
My mother and my aunt are trained classical dancers.
Answer:
My mother and my aunt (subject) / are trained classical dancers (predicate).

Question 7.
You don’t have to wait for me.
Answer:
You (subject) / don’t have to wait for me (predicate).

Question 8.
We will no longer tolerate this.
Answer:
We (subject) / will no longer tolerate this (predicate).

Question 9.
The little tree was covered with needles instead of leaves.
Answer:
The little tree (subject) / was covered with needles instead of leaves (predicate).

Question 10.
A rich merchant was passing by the shoemaker’s window.
Answer:
A rich merchant (subject) /was passing by the shoemaker’s window (predicate).

For each sentence given below, underline the subject once and the predicate twice.

Example : John went to the movies with his friends.
Answer:
John went to the movies with his friends.

1. The horse appeared at the starting line.
Answer:
The horse appeared at the starting line.

2. The student arrived late to class because he woke up late.
Answer:
The student arrived late to class because he woke up late.

3. John looked out of the window to check the sky.
Answer:
John looked out of the window to check the sky.

4. The audience grew very restless waiting for the play to start.
Answer:
The audience grew very restless waiting for the play to start.

5. The air in the classroom smelled fresh.
Answer:
The air in the classroom smelled fresh.

6. I felt exhausted from the anticipation.
Answer:
I felt exhausted from the anticipation.

7. The owners grew flowers all around their house.
Answer:
The owners grew flowers all around their house.

Underline the simple subjects In the following sentences.

1. I want a new car.
Answer:
I want a new car.

2. James is nice.
Answer:
James is nice.

3. The sun is moving.
Answer:
The sun is moving.

4. Max wrote the letter.
Answer:
Max wrote the letter.

5. The letter was written by Max.
Answer:
The letter was written by Max.

The simple predicate is the main verb in the sentence.

Example: Mary plays the piano.
Answer:
Plays the piano.
In this example, the verb phrase “plays the piano” is the predicate.

Example : Josephine is having a nice day.
In this example, the verb phrase “is having a nice day” is the predicate.

Underline the simple predicates in the following sentences.

1. I run with my dog.
Answer:
I run with my dog.

2. We made a cake.
Answer:
We made a cake.

3. The cake was made by us.
Answer:
The cake was made by us.

4. Jessica and Rebecca are playing the piano and singing.
Answer:
Jessica and Rebecca are playing the piano and singing.

5. We will be running in the race this Sunday.
Answer:
We will be running in the race this Sunday.

Underline the simple subjects and draw a box around the simple predicates In the following sentences.

Example : Elise is going to sing in the concert tomorrow

1. The dentist charges $6200 for an office visit.
Answer:
The dentist charges $6200 for an offce visit.

2. The baby weighed 7.2 pounds at birth.
Answer:
The baby weighed 7.2 pounds at birth.

3. We need to make a new plan.
Answer:
We need to make a new plan.

4. I want to go to the concert, but I don’t have enough money.
Answer:
I want to go to the concert, but I don’t have enough money

5. My friend and I are going to the movies tonight.
Answer:
My friend and I are going to the movies tonight.

Now try to write three complete sentences of your own.
Try to underline the simple subjects and circle the simple predicates.

Choose a subject from the box to complete each sentence.

A big spider, A buzzing bee, My notebook, A gray dolphin, My mother, My closet, The houseplant, The eye doctor, The space alien

1. _________ looked for nectar in the flower.
2. _________ has lots of clothes in it.
3. _________ checked my vision.
4. _________ needs soil, water, and sunlight.
5. _________ landed the UFO.
6. _________ jumped in the sea.
7. _________ was upset because I broke her favorite vase.
8. _________ is filled with stories that I wrote.
9. _________ spun a web in the doorway.

Answers:

1. A buzzing bee
2. My closet
3. The eye doctor
4. The houseplant
5. The space alien
6. A gray dolphin
7. My mother
8. My notebook
9. A big spider

Choose a predicate from the box to complete each sentence.

watered her flowers, barked all night long, drove me to school, blew in the wind, ate crickets, cut the boy’s hair, fixed the sink, slept in her crib, flew the airplane.

1. The gardener _________
2. The pilot _________
3. The little puppy _________
4. The barber _________
5. James’ baby sister _________
6. The flag _________
7. The lizard _________
8. The plumber _________
9. The bus driver _________

Answers:

1. watered her flowers
2. flew the airplane
3. barked all night long
4. cut the boy’s hair
5. slept in her crib
6. blew in the wind
7. ate crickets
8. fixed the sink
9. drove me to school

Creative Writing

I. Make sentence of your own

1. Beach
2. Breeze
3. Swimming
Answer:
1. We like to the play in the sandy beach.
2. The trees swayed in the breeze.
3. I like swimming.

II. Picture Composition:

Question 1.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
children
playing park
boy
hand in hand
colourful
flowers wheel
girls
performed

Answer:
Theme park
There are children playing in a theme park. Two girls are playing by the swing each hand in hand. A boy is playing with a colourful boy. Some children are playing on the giant wheel. A circus show is also being performed there. The park is full of trees and flowers.

Question 2.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
activities
classroom
student
building
discussing
Everyone
useful
answers
skit

Answer:
Drawing Class
These children are doing various activities with enthusiasm outside their classroom. A student is drawing and two other students are playing with the building blocks. Three children are enacting a skit. There are four children sitting and discussing about their activity. Everyone is busy doing something useful answers.

Question 3.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
monkey
picture
entrance
snakes
people
animals
welcome
bears
lions

Answer:
Zoo
This is a zoo. There are plenty of ammals seen in the picture. I can see monkey, elephants, lions, rabbits, giraffe, snakes, bears, tigers and birds. They are all at the entrance of the zoo. I can see some animals on top of the board ‘zoo’. It seems that they are all ready to welcome the people, who visit the zoo.

Question 4.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
bird
nest
hungry
mother
food
sitting
near

Answer:
Nest
I see a bird and two nestlings in the picture. The nestlings are seemed to be in hungry. The mother bird has fetched some food. It is sitting near the nestlings. The nestlings eagerly open their beaks for the food.

Sea Turtles Summary

Section I

This lesson is about Sea Turtles which are different from Tortoise that we see in a zoo or a reptile park. There are seven species of sea turtles -out of which five are seen in India – the Olive Ridley, the Hawksbill, the Green Sea Turtle, the Loggerhead and the Leatherback. The turtles are huge and weigh between 35 kg and 700 kg. The largest sea turtle is the Leatherback which is 2.2m long and 700 kg in weight. Sea turtles come to the shore to lay their eggs. Except Olive Ridleys, other species have become rare in India. Mass Nesting or Arribada is a phenomenon that occurs in Odisha and other two places in the world where Olive Ridleys come ashore alone to lay their eggs.

Section II

Between January and March, female Olive Ridleys come ashore and haul (pull with force) using their front flippers onto the beach. They choose a spot away from the high tide and dig 45 cm into which they lay their eggs. They lay about 100 eggs at one time. After covering the nest with sand it returns to the sea. The eggs are left to incubate under the sun. People collect these eggs for eating. Jackals, domestic dogs and pigs eat the eggs. After escaping from the predators, the hatchlings (little ones) come out the egg shell with the help of egg-tooth. After they come out they make a dash into the sea.

Section III

Weighing less than 20 grams, many of these hatchlings fall prey to crabs or birds before they reach the sea. It is estimated that one in a thousand hatchlings become an adult. After swimming for years in the sea, the adult female returns to the same beach where they were born which is an unsolved mystery. Human activities have endangered the survival of sea turtles. Problems like pollution, dumping of plastics in to the ocean and the construction activities on nesting beaches endanger their survival. We have to tackle these problems to save the sea turtles.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 3 Fluids

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Fluids 9th Science Question 1.
The size of an air bubble rising up in water ……………. .
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) may increase or decrease
Answer:
(a) decreases

Fluids Lesson 9th Class Question 2.
Clouds float in atmosphere because of their low ……………. .
(a) density
(b) pressure
(c) velocity
(d) mass
Answer:
(a) density

9th Science Fluids Question 3.
In a pressure cooker, the food is cooked faster because ……………. .
(a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point
(b) increased pressure raises the boiling point
(c) decreased pressure raises the boiling point
(d) increased pressure lowers the melting point
Answer:
(a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point

9th Science Fluids Book Back Answers Question 4.
An empty plastic bottle closed with an airtight stopper is pushed down into a bucket filled
with water. As the bottle is pushed down, there is an increasing force on the bottom as shown in graph. This is because

(a) more volume of liquid is displaced
(b) more weight of liquid is displaced
(c) pressure increases with depth
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

II. Fill in the blanks.

1.  The weight of the body immersed in a liquid appears to be ………….. than its actual weight
2.  The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is …………….. .
3.  The magnitude of buoyant force acting on an object immersed in a liquid depends on ………….. of the liquid.
4.  A drinking straw works on the existence of …………….. .

Answer:

1.  less
2.  barometer
3.  density
4. Pressure

III. True or False.

Chapter 3 Fluids Question 1.
The weight of fluid displaced determines the buoyant force on an object.
Answer:
True.

Fluids Class 9 Question 2.
The shape of an object helps to determine whether the object will float.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Question 3.
The foundations of high-rise buildings are kept wide so that they may exert more pressure on the ground.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Solutions Question 4.
Archimedes’ principle can also be applied to gases.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Archimedes’ principle is about fluid displacement which does not involve gases.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solution Question 5.
Hydraulic press is used in the extraction of oil from oil seeds.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following.

Column – I	Column – II
(a) Density	(i) hpg
(b) 1 gwt	(ii) Milk
(c) Pascal’s law	(iii) \(\frac { Mass }{ Volume }\)
(d) Pressure exerted by a fluid	(iv) Pressure
(e) Lactometer	(v) 980 dyne

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (v)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
(e) (ii)

V. Answer in brief.

Science Solution Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
On what factors the pressure exerted by the liquid depends on?
Answer:
Pressure exerted by a liquid at a point is determined by,

•  depth (h)
•  density of the liquid (p)
•  acceleration due to gravity (g).

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Question 2.
Why does a helium balloon float in air?
Answer:
Helium is much less denser than ordinary air which gives them buoyancy and thus float in air.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 3.
Why it is easy to swim in river water than in sea water?
Answer:
Due to the presence of dissolved salts in sea water is denser than river water which makes floating easier and hence swimming is easier.

Question 4.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The pressure exerted by the atmospheric gases on its surroundings and on the surface of the earth is called atmospheric pressure.

Question 5.
State Pascal’s law.
Answer:
Pascal’s law states that an increase in pressure at any point inside a liquid at rest is transmitted equally and without any change, in all directions to every other point in the liquid.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
With an appropriate illustration prove that the force acting on a smaller area exerts a greater pressure.
Answer:
Consider standing on loose sand. Your feet go deep into the sand. Now, when you lie down on the sand, you will find that your body will not go that deep into the sand. In both the cases the force exerted on the sand is the weight of your body which is the same. This force acting perpendicular to the surface is called thrust. When you stand on loose sand, the force is acting on an area equal to the area of your feet.

When you lie down, the same force acts on an area of your whole body, which is larger than the area of your feet. Therefore the effect of thrust, that is, pressure depends on the area on which it acts. The effect of thrust on sand is larger while ‘ standing than lying.

Question 2.
Describe the construction and working of mercury barometer.
Answer:

The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called barometer. A mercury barometer, first designed by an Italian Physicist Torricelli, consists of a long glass tube (closed at one end, open at the other) filled with mercury and turned upside down into a container of mercury. This is done by closing the open end of the mercury filled tube with the thumb and then opening it after immersing it in to a trough of mercury. The barometer works by balancing the mercury in the glass tube against the outside air pressure.

If the air pressure increases, it pushes more of the mercury up into the tub and if the air pressure decreases, more of the mercury drains from the tube. As there is no air trapped in the space between mercury and the closed end, there is vacuum in that space. Vacuum cannot exert any pressure. So the level of mercury in the tube provides a precise measure of air pressure which is called atmospheric pressure. This type of instrument can be used in a lab or weather station.

Question 3.
How does an object’s density determine whether the object will sink or float in water?
Answer:
Whether an object will sink or float in a liquid is determined by the density of the object compared to the density of the liquid. If the density of a substance is less than the density of the liquid it will float. For example, a piece of wood which is less dense than water will float on it. Any substance having more density than water (for example, a stone), will sink into water.

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a hydrometer with diagram.
Answer:

A direct-reading instrument used for measuring the density or relative density of the liquid is called hydrometer. Hydrometer is based on the principle of flotation, i.e., the weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed portion of the hydrometer is equal to the weight of the hydrometer.

Hydrometer consists of a cylindrical stem having a spherical bulb at its lower end and a narrow tube at its upper end. The lower spherical bulb is partially filled with lead shots or mercury. This helps hydrometer to float or stand vertically in liquids. The narrow tube has markings so that relative density of a liquid can be read directly.

The liquid to be tested is poured into the glass jar. The hydrometer is gently lowered into the liquid until it floats freely. The reading against the level of liquid touching the tube gives the relative density of the liquid.

Question 5.
State the laws of flotation.
Answer:
Laws of flotation are,

1. The weight of a floating body in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
2. The centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy are in the same vertical line.

VII. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct answer as
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c ) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): To float, body must displace liquid whose weight is equal to the actual weight.
Reason (R): The body will experience no net downward force in that case.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pascal’s law is the working principle of a hydraulic lift.
Reason (R): Pressure is thrust per unit area.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

VIII. Numerical problems.

Question 1.
A block of wood of weight 200 g floats on the surface of water. If the volume of block is 300 cm³ calculate the upthrust due to water.
Answer:
Upthrust of floating object = weight of the water displaced
Weight = mg
= 0.200Kg × \(\frac { 10m }{ s² }\)
= 2N

Question 2.
Density of mercury is 13600 kg m^{– 3}. Calculate the relative density.
Answer:
Relative Density = \(\frac { Density of Mercury }{ Density of water }\) at 4°C
R.D. = 13.6

Question 3.
The density of water is 1 g cm^{– 3}. What is its density in S.I. units?
Answer:
S.I. unit of density of water = \(\frac { 1000kg }{ m³ }\)

Question 4.
Calculate the apparent weight of wood floating on water if it weighs 100g in air.
Answer:
Apparent weight = Weight of the body – Weight of liquid
Since the body is floating the two are equal. So, apparent weight is zero.
100 – 100 = 0

IX. HOTS

Question 1.
How high does the mercury barometer stand on a day when atmospheric pressure is 98.6 kPa?
Answer:
H= \(\frac{P_{\max }}{P_{H_{g}}}\) = 98.6 × 10 × 10 × 10
= \(\frac{(\mathrm{N} / \mathrm{m})^{2}}{13.6 \times 10 \times 10 \times 10 \mathrm{Kg} / \mathrm{m}^{3}}\)
= \(\frac { 9.8m }{ s² }\) = 740mm

Question 2.
How does a fish manage to rise up and move down in water?
Answer:
Fish has an internal swim bladder which is filled with gas. When it needs to rise or descend, it changes the volume and its density by filling this bladder with oxygen collected from the surrounding water through gills. When the bladder is filled with oxygen gas, the fish has a greater volume, with minimal increase in weight. When the bladder is expanded, it displaces more water and so experiences a greater force of buoyancy.

When the bladder is completely inflated, the fish has maximum volume and is pushed to the surface. When the bladder is completely deflated, the fish has minimum volume and sinks to the ocean floor.

Question 3.
If you put one ice cube in a glass of water and another in a glass of alcohol, what would you observe? Explain your observations.
Answer:
Ice floats in water and not in alcohol. This is because the density of ice is \(\frac { 0.917g}{ cc }\) which is lower than that of water which is 1. Whereas, the density of ethanol (alcohol) is only \(\frac { 0.789g}{ cc }\) which is lesser than ice, hence it floats in alcohol.

Question 4.
Why does a boat with a hole in the bottom would eventually sink?
Answer:
A boat with a hole at the bottom allows water to enter it, thus increasing its weight and hence it sinks. As water starts entering the boat through the hole, the boat starts to get heavier, so it starts to sink, trying to displace more water. But the water keeps coming as the hydrostatic pressure at the hole is always higher than the atmospheric pressure pushing down on the surface of the water in the boat.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Take two identical flasks and fill one flask with water to 250 cm³ mark and the other with kerosene to the same 250 cm³ mark. Measure them in a balance. The flask filled with water will be heavier than the one filled with kerosene. Why? The answer is in finding the mass per unit volume of kerosene and water in respective flasks.
Answer:

To understand density better, let us assume that the mass of the flask be 80 g. So, the mass of the flask filled with water is 330 g and the mass of flask filled with kerosene is 280 g. Mass of water only is 250 g and kerosene only is 200 g.
Mass per unit volume of water = \(\frac { 250 }{ 250 }\) cm³
= \(\frac { 1 g }{ cm3 }\)
Mass per unit volume of kerosene = 200 g/250cm³
= \(\frac { 0.8 g }{ cm3 }\)
The result \(\frac { 1g }{ cm3 }\) and \(\frac { 0.8 g }{ cm3 }\) are the densities of water and kerosene respectively.
Therefore the density of a substance is the mass per unit volume of a given substance.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids In Text Problems

Question 1.
A man whose mass is 90 kg stands on his feet on a floor. The total area of contact of his two feet with the floor is 0.036 m² (Take, g = 10 ms^{– 2}). How much is the pressure exerted by him on the floor?
Solution:
The weight of the man (thrust),
F = mg = 90 kg × 10 ms^{– 2} = 900 N
Pressure, P = \(\frac{F}{A}=\frac{900 N}{0.036 m^{2}}\) = 25000 Pa

Question 2.
Calculate the pressure exerted by a column of water of height 0.85 m (density of water, p_w = 1000 kg m^{– 3}) and kerosene of same height (density of kerosene, p_k = 800 kg m^{– 3})
Solution:
Pressure due to water = hp_wg = 0.85 m × 1000 kg m^{– 3} × 10 ms^{– 2} = 8500 Pa.
Pressure due to kerosene = hp_kg = 0.85 m × 800 kg m^{– 3} × 10 ms^{– 2} = 6800 Pa.

Question 3.
A mercury barometer in a physics laboratory shows a 732 mm vertical column of mercury. Calculate the atmospheric pressure in pascal.
[Given density of mercury, p = 1.36 × 10⁴kg m^{– 3}, g = 9.8 ms^{– 2}]
Solution:
Atmospheric pressure in the laboratory,
P = hpg = 732 × 10^{– 3} × 1.36 × 1o⁴ × 9.8
= 9.76 × 10⁴ Pa (or) 0.976 × 10⁵ Pa

Question 4.
A hydraulic system is used to lift a 2000 kg vehicle in an auto garage. If the vehicle sits on a piston of area 0.5 m², and a force is applied to a piston of area 0.03 m², what is the minimum force that must be applied to lift the vehicle?
Given: Area covered by the vehicle on the piston A₁ = 0.5 m²
Weight of the vehicle, F₁ = 2000 kg × 9.8 m s^{– 2}
Area on which force F₂ is applied, A₂ = 0.03 m²
Solution:
P₁ = P₂ ;\(\frac{F_{1}}{A_{1}}=\frac{F_{2}}{A_{2}}\)and F₂ = \(\frac{F_{1}}{A_{1}}\)A₂ ;
F₂ = (2000 × 9.8)\(\frac{0.03}{0.5}\) = 1176 N

Question 5.
You have a block of a mystery material, 12 cm long, 11 cm wide and 3.5 cm thick. Its mass is 1155 grams.
(a) What is its density?
(b) Will it float in a tank of water, or sink?
Solution:
(a) Density = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}=\frac{1155 \mathrm{g}}{12 \mathrm{cm} \times 11 \mathrm{cm} \times 3.5 \mathrm{cm}}=\frac{1155 \mathrm{g}}{462 \mathrm{cm}^{3}}\) = 2.5g cm^{– 3}
(b) The mystery material is denser than the water, so it sinks

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Fluids Additional Questions

I. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Give reasons why:
a. a single nail pricking the body is painful when compared to lying on a bed of nails.
b. cutting edges of knife and axes are sharpened.
c. heavy trucks are fitted with 6 to 8 wheels
Answer:
a. In a nail bed, the weight is evenly distributed among numerous nails, so that the pressure exerted by each nail is not enough to puncture a person’s skin. If its only a single nail, the entire force created by the weight of the body would be distributed over a very small area presented by the tip of one nail. In this case the force per unit area will be great and can puncture the skin.
b. Knives and axes are sharpened because when the area decreases the pressure increases. Hence a small force is enough to cut an object.
c. As area increases pressure decreases. So weight of the truck exerts less pressure on the road.

Question 2.
Define:

1. Thrust,
2. Pressure

Answer:

1. Force acting on a body perpendicular to the surface is called thrust.
2. The force per unit area acting on an object concerned is called pressure.

Question 3.
In petrol bunks, in what unit is tyre pressure measured?
Answer:
The tyre pressure is measured in units of psi. it stands for pascal per inch.

Question 4.
Stating Pascal’s law, explain its application in a hydraulic press.
Answer:

Pascal’s law states that-the external pressure applied on an incompressible liquid is transmitted uniformly throughout the liquid. Pascal’s law became the basis for one of the important machines ever developed, the hydraulic press. It consists of two cylinders of different cross-sectional areas. They are fitted with pistons of cross-sectional areas “a” and “A”. The object to be compressed is placed over the piston of large cross-sectional area A. The force Fj is applied on the piston of small cross-sectional area a.

The pressure P produced by small piston is transmitted equally to large piston and a force F₂ acts on A which is much larger than F₁ area ‘a’ is given by,
P = \(\frac { F₁}{ A₁}\) …………………….(1)
Applying Pascal’s law, the pressure on large piston of area A will be the same as that on small piston. Therefore, P = \(\frac { F₂ }{ A₂ }\) …………… (2)
Comparing equations (1) and (2),we get
\(\frac { F₁ }{ A₁ }\) = \(\frac { F₂ }{ A₂ }\) or F₂ = F₁ × \(\frac { A₂ }{ A₁ }\)
Since, the ratio \(\frac { A₂ }{ A₁ }\) is greater than 1, the force F₂ that acts on the larger piston is greater than the force F₁ acting on the smaller piston. Hydraulic systems working in this way are known as force multipliers.

Question 5.
What is Artisan aquifer?
Answer:
An artesian aquifer is a confined aquifer (an underground water bearing permeable rocks) containing groundwater that will flow upwards out of a well without the need for pumping. In recharging aquifers, this happens because the water table at its recharge zone is at a higher elevation than the head of the well.

Question 6.
What is relative density? Explain it mathematically.
Answer:
Density of any other substance with respect to the density of water at 4°C is called relative density. Mathematically,

Thus, the ratio of mass of a given volume of a substance to the mass of an equal volume of water at 4°C also denotes relative density.

Question 7.
What is lactometer? Explain its principle and working.
Answer:
One form of hydrometer is a lactometer, an instrument used to check the purity of milk. The lactometer works on the principle of gravity of milk. The lactometer consists of a long graduated test tube with a cylindrical bulb with the graduation ranging from 15 at the top to 45 at the bottom. The test tube is filled with air. This air chamber causes the instrument to float. The spherical bulb is filled with mercury to cause the lactometer to sink up to the proper level and to float in an upright position in the milk.

Inside the lactometer there may be a thermometer extending from the bulb up into the upper part of the test tube where the scale is located. The correct lactometer reading is obtained only at the temperature of 60°C. A lactometer measures the cream content of milk.

More the cream, lower the lactometer floats in the milk. The average reading of normal milk is 32. The lactometers are used highly at milk processing units and at dairies.

Question 8.
Why do petroleum based products float on surface of water?
Answer:
Petroleum based products float on water because their specific gravity is low.

Question 9.
State and explain Archimedes principle. Name the devices based on this principle.
Answer:

Archimedes principle is the consequence of Pascal’s law. It states that a body immersed in a fluid experiences a vertical upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the liquid it displaces.

When a body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid at rest, it experiences an upthrust which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it. Due to the upthrust acting on the body, it apparently loses a part of its weight and the apparent loss of weight is equal to upthrust.

Thus for a body either partially or completely immersed in a fluid,
upthrust = weight of the fluid displaced
= apparent loss of body weight
Apparent weight of an object = True weight of an object in air – upthrust (weight of water displaced)
Devices based on Archimedes principle are – hydrometers, lactometers, balloons, boats and ships, submarines, etc.

You can Download The Spider and the Fly Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Poem Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 4 The Spider and the Fly

The Spider and the Fly Warm Up:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Poem Chapter 4 The Spider and the Fly

The Spider And The Fly Question Answer Question 1.
How will you make him or her eat them?
Answer:
I will explain the nutritious value of these vegetables and how ii helps in maintaining good health.

The Spider And The Fly Book Back Answers Question 2.
What are all the flattering or tempting words you might use to convince them?
Answer:
I will say that if they eat these vegetables, it will make them healthy and smart. I will convince them by explaining that eating vegetables is a good habit and that they will be called obedient and disciplined children if they listen to good advice.

3. Work in pairs and enact that moment in front of your classmates.

The Spider and the Fly Textual Questions

A. Read the following lines from the poem and answer the questions in a sentence or two.

1. “The way into my parlour is up a winding stair,
And I’ve many curious things to show when you are there ”

Spider And The Fly Question Answer Question (a).
How to reach the spider’s parlour.
Answer:
The spider’s parlour can be reached through a winding stair.

9th English Poem The Spider And The Fly Question (b).
What will the fly get to see in the parlour?
Answer:
The fly will get to see many curious things in the parlour.

2. “Oh no, no, ” said the little Fly, “kind Sir, that cannot be,
I’ve heard what s in your pantry, and I do not wish to see! ”

The Spider And The Fly Samacheer Kalvi Question (a).
Is the fly willing to enter the spider’s pantry?
Answer:
No. The fly is not willing to enter the spider’s pantry.

The Spider And The Fly 9th Std Question (b).
Can you guess what was in the pantry?
Answer:
Only remains of dead flies may be found in the pantry.

3. “Sweet creature! ” said the Spider, “you’re witty and you’re wise,
How handsome are your gauzy wings, how brilliant are your eyes!”

Spider And The Fly Book Back Answers Question (a).
List the words used by the spider to describe the fly.
Answer:
Sweet, witty, wise, handsome, gauzy, brilliant.

The Spider And The Fly Questions And Answers Question (b).
Why does the spider say that the fly is witty?
Answer:
The spider calls the fly witty because the fly is clever to avoid entering the web.

4. The Spider turned him round about, and went into his den,
For well he knew the silly Fly would soon come back again:

The Spider And The Fly Question And Answer Question (a).
Why is the poet using the word ‘den’ to describe the spider’s web?
Answer:
The spider is like a lion in its web. So the poet uses the word.

Spider And The Fly Questions And Answers Question (b).
Why was the spider sure that the fly would come back again?
Answer:
The spider has flattered the fly of its beauty, so he was sure it would come back again.

With buzzy wings, she hung aloft, then near and nearer drew,
Thinking only of her brilliant eyes, and green and purple hue-

The Spider And The Fly Summary In Tamil Question (a).
Who does’she’refer to? ON)
Answer:
She refers to the fly.

The Spider And The Fly Poem Questions And Answers Question (b).
What was’she’thinking of? 0
Answer:
She was thinking of her beautiful eyes and the colours of her wings.

6. And now dear little children, who may this story read,
To idle, silly flattering words, I pray you never give heed:

Question (a).
Who does ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
I refer to the poet.

Question (b).
What is the advice given to the readers?
Answer:
The poet advises us not to fall a prey to flattery and sweet words.

Additional Questions

1. “I’m sure you must be weary, dear, with soaring up so high;
Will you rest upon my little bed?” said the spider to the fly.

Question (a).
Why is the fly weary?
Answer:
The fly is weary because of the fact that it flies high up in the sky.

Question (b).
What does the spider ask the fly?
Answer:
The spider asks the fly if it will rest on his bed.

2. So he wove a subtle web, in a little corner sly,
And set his table ready to dine upon the fly.

Question (a).
What is meant by subtle?
Answer:
Subtle means delicate or faint or mysterious.

Question (b).
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
The rhyming words are ‘sly’ and ‘fly’.

3. “There are pretty curtains drawn around, the sheets are fine and thin,
And if you like to rest awhile, I’ll snugly tuck you in.”

Question (а).
What do you understand by the term, ‘snugly’?
Answer:
‘Snugly’ means to be secured or have a feel of comfort.

Question (b)
Mention the figure of speech in the above lines.
Answer:
Assonance is the figure of speech employed.

For example:
The sound of ‘aw’ in drawn and around.
The vowel sound in snugly and tuck.

4. I have within my pantry good store of all that’s nice;
I’m sure you’re very welcome; will you please to take a slice?”

Question (a).
What is a pantry?
Answer:
A pantry is a storeroom for foods or wines.

Question (b).
Give the rhyming word for nice.
Answer:
The rhyming word for nice is ‘slice’.

5. Alas, alas! how very soon this silly little fly,
Hearing his wily flattering words, came slowly flitting by;

Question (a).
Why is the little fly silly?
Answer:
The little fly is silly because it came back enticed by the spider’s flattering words.

Question (b).
What is ‘wily’?
Answer:
‘Wily’ is cunning.

B. Complete the summary by filling in the spaces with suitable words.

The poem begins with the spider’s (1) …………………. of the fly. He (2) …………….. to the fly to come into its home. The spider describes his parlor as the (3) …………………. one. The spider kindles the curiosity of the fly so that she may enter his home. Fortunately, the fly was (4) ………………… and refused to get into his home. Now the spider pretends to be a (5) …………………. and asks her to come and rest in his home. He offers her (6) ……………………. and a (7) ………………….. to rest. This time also the fly (8) ………………… the spider’s offer very politely. The next weapon that the spider uses is (9) …………………. The spider praises the (10) ……………….. and (11) …………………. of the fly and also praises her (12) …………………….. He invites her to look at herself in the (13) ………………………. which is in his parlour. The fly is (14) …………….. by the words of the spider and she falls a (15) …………………… to her (16) ………………… .
Answers

1. welcoming
2. reaches out
3. prettiest
4. wise/intelligent
5. friend
6. sheets
7. bed
8. declines
9. flattery
10. wings
11. eyes
12. crest
13. looking-glass
14. flattered
15. prey
16. enticement/invitation

C. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
Write a character sketch of the spider.
Answer:
This poem takes us through a spider’s ultimately successful attempts in enticing a fly into its web. The spider is cunning in capturing its victim. It ensnares the fly through the use of seduction and flattery. In stanza one, it does its best to trap the fly into its parlour with the promises of pretty things to see. Next, it tries a different tactics, offering the fly a pretty and a comfortable place to sleep, and lovely food. Finally, it tries to flatter the fly by praising its beauty and traps the fly into his den.

Question 2.
What happens if we fall a prey to flattery? Give instances from the poem ‘The Spider and the Fly’.
Answer:
If we fall a prey to flattery, we have to face evil consequences, just like the fly who falls a prey to the spider’s flattery and seduction. The spider uses different tactics to entice the fly into its web. It invites the fly into its parlour with the promises of pretty things to see. When the fly refuses, it entices him by offering a pretty, comfortable bed and lovely food. When the fly refuses again, finally it flatters the fly for its beautiful appearance. The fly gets flattered and gets trapped into its den. This poem teaches us that we should be cautious against those who use flattery and charm to disguise their true evil intentions.

Question 3.
In your own words, give a detailed description of:
(a) The Spider’s Parlour.
Answer:
The Spider’s Parlour had winding stairs. It is the prettiest parlour that had ever been seen by the fly. It has been filled with many pretty things, which would arouse the curiosity of the fly. There are also pretty curtains, whose sheets are fine and thin. It had a pretty and a comfortable bed.

(b) The Fly’s Appearance
Answer:
The fly had gauzy wings and brilliant eyes. But the spider flattered it saying that it had pearl and silver wings, green and purple body and its antenna is like a crown on him.

Additional Questions:

1. What are the four ways by which the spider lures the fly?
There are four ways by which the spider lures the fly:
(i) The spider invites the fly to his home.
(ii) The spider pretends to be concerned over the weary fly and offers his bed.
(iii) He tries to influence the fly to come and have a look into his pantry.
(iv) He compliments the fly’s intelligence, gauzy wings and bright eyes.
At last, the spider is successful in luring the fly.

Appreciate The Poem
Figures of speech

1. Consonance: Repetition of similar consonant sounds in the neighbouring words.
Ex: “T is the prettiest little parlour that ever you did spy;
Pick out one more instance of consonance from the poem.
Hearing his wily, flattering words, came slowly flitting by;
So he wove a subtle web, in a little corner sly.

2. Assonance: Repetition of similar vowel sounds in the neighbouring words.
Ex: “T is the prettiest little parlour that ever you did spy;
Pick out one more instance of consonance from the poem.
The spider tuned him round about and went into his den,
“I’m sure you must be weary, dear, with soaring up so high.”

3. Anaphora: Repetition of a word or a phrase at the beginning of a sequence of sentences, paragraphs and lines.
Ex: How handsome are your gauzy wings, how brilliant are your eyes!
Identify the figures of speech.
“Your eyes are like the diamond bright, but mine are dull as lead! ’’
Simile is the figure of speech.

4. Alliteration: Repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words.
Pick out the words in alliteration.
“Sweet creature! ” said the Spider, “you’re witty and you ’re wise,”
Sweet – Spider; and witty – wise are alliterated.

Listening

D. Listen to the passage and fill in the blanks with appropriate answers.

(For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.in) Trust is one of the most important things anyone can have in a relationship because trust is what makes the foundation of a relationship. Without trust there is no relationship at all because everything you do or make of the relationship will be based on truth. Trust is a very rare thing to find and if you are able to give it in return, your life is so much better and more fulfilling for everyone involved. Trusting people can hurt sometimes because they betray you, but you learn from the situation and move on to the next adventure in your life. Just don’t let small bumps in the road throw you back to not trusting and being cold. Simply keep moving forward and you will have a wonderfully fulfilling life that will be filled with good people that care and are trustworthy.

1. Without trust there is no………………
2. …………….. is a very rare thing to find in life.
3. When people betray you learn from the………………………
4. Don’t let ……………….. on the road…………………….
5. If we keep moving forward you will have a wonderfully……………………..

Answers

1. relationship
2. Truth
3. situation
4. small bumps; to make you cold
5. fulfilling life

Speaking:

E. The cunning spider was waiting for a chance to pull the fly into its web and it used all the possible ways to trap her. Have you ever been trapped by flattery to do something you did not want to do? Discuss in pairs and share your experience in the class.

A small token of appreciation definitely rejuvenates our energy. But the escalation of mood which flattery brings is quite different. It makes you land in cloud nine. Sadly one realizes the consequences at the end of all turmoil. As in the poem, it may also go to the level of costing one’s life. This kind of flattery has led me to take a wrong decision in my life once. I was born and brought up in a village. When I completed my 6th standard, my parents got an opportunity of moving to Chennai and I was all excited about it.

My cousin, who was not happy with this, came and persuaded me to stay in the village. She said that I was very brilliant and would be a role model to all other students, but in Chennai I wouldn’t be appreciated so much. She said I would be happier, healthier and would have more fun here rather than in the city since all the village people really liked me. Due to her influence, I asked my parents to leave me and go to Chennai.

Before 1 could realize that it was a trap, my parents had left and I had to stay in the village for another 2 years missing my parents and the luxuries of Chennai city. This poem reminded me of that experience from which I have learned my lesson, not to fall prey to flattery.

Writing:

F. The fly gives into flattery and becomes the spider’s prey. If you are asked to give a happy ending to the poem, how will you save the fly? Write in your own words.

Finally, the fly, mesmerized by the words spoken by the spider about her beauty, flies towards the web. But before she could enter it, the fly’s friend arrives and sees what a dreadful trap she is going .to fall into. She immediately comes in front of her and stops her from entering the web. The fly regaining her consciousness, realizes what a foolish thing she was going to do and thanks her friend for saving her life.

The Spider and the Fly by Mary Botham Howitt About The Poet:

Mary Botham Howitt (1799 – 1888) was an English poet. She was born at Coleford, in Gloucestershire. She was home-schooled and read widely. She commenced writing verses at an early age. In 1821, she married William Howitt and began a career of joint authorship with him. William and Mary were associated with many important literary figures of the day including Charles Dickens, Elizabeth Gaskell and Elizabeth Barrett Browning. In 1837, she started writing her well-known tales for children, a long series of books which met with signal success. She received a silver medal from the Literary Academy of Stockholm. Together with her husband William Howitt she wrote over 180 books.

The Spider and the Fly Summary:

‘The Spider and the Fly’ teaches the reader not to be misled by flattery and be trapped. Here a spider lures a fly to enter its web, upon which he can feast upon her. He invites the little fly to enter its pretty parlour using the winding stairs, since there are so many curious things to see there. The fly refuses by saying that whoever enters the parlour can never be freed.

The spider further persuades the fly saying that she must be tired by flying so high and that she can come and take rest in his bed. For this, the fly replies that she has heard that whoever sleeps in his bed never wakes up again. The spider then tries to tempt the fly asking her to come and see his pantry where all nice things are available for her to taste and see.

The fly answers the spider saying 1 have already heard what is available in your pantry and I am not willing to see them. When all the attempts failed, the spider praises the fly saying that she is very witty and wise, with her gauzy wings and brilliant eyes. He asks her to come and have a look in the mirror that he has in his parlour. For this the fly thanks him and says she will come some other day. The spider knowing that the fly has been flattered, and will surely come to his web, makes ready his table to dine upon the fly.

Then the spider comes out and starts to sing merrily describing the beautiful features of the fly once again comparing it with his. After hearing these words, the fly cannot resist herself from thinking about her beauty and falls into the spider’s web. The spider quickly grabs her and traps her in his den from where she never comes out. The poet now asks the little children not to fall a prey to such silly, flattering words and also, never listen to an evil counselor.

The Spider and the Fly Glossary:

Textual:
counsellor – a person who advises
flattering – to praise or compliment insincerely
pantry – a room where beverages, food, dishes are stored
parlour – a tidy room in a house used for entertaining guests
subtle – delicate or faint and mysterious
weary – very tired, especially from hard work
winding – a twisting movement or course