Category: Class 6

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Air

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 2 Question 1.
_______ is the percentage of nitrogen in air
(a) 78%
(b) 21%
(c) 0.03%
(d) 1%
Answer:
(a) 78%

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Gas exchange takes place in plants using …………
(a) Stomata
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Leaves
(d) Flowers
Answer:
(a) Stomata

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Standard Science Question 3.
The constituent of air that supports combustion is _______
(a) Nitrogen
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) water vapour
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Question 4.
Nitrogen is used in the food packaging industry because of it …………
(a) provides colour to the food
(b) provides oxygen to the food
(c) adds proteins and minerals to the food
(d) keeps the food fresh
Answer:
(d) keeps the food fresh

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 5.
_______ and _______ are the two gases, which when taken together, make up about 99 percentage of air.
I. Nitrogen
II. carbon-di-oxide
III. Noble gases
IV. Oxygen
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I and II
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(d) I and IV

II. Fill in the blanks:

1.  _______ is the active component of air.
2. The gas given out during photosynthesis is _______
3. _______ gas is given to the patients having breathing problems.
4. _______ can be seen moving in a beam of sunlight in a dark room.
5. _______ gas turns lime water milky.

Answers:

1. Oxygen
2. Oxygen
3. Oxygen
4. Dust particles
5. Carbon-di-oxide

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6 Science Question 1.
Inhaled air contains a large amount of carbon-di-oxide.
Answer:
False, Inhaled air contains a large amount of Oxygen.

Samacheer Kalvi Term 2 Question 2.
Planting trees help in decreasing global warming.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 3.
The composition of air is always exactly the same.
Answer:
False, The composition of air changes slightly place to place.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 4.
Whales come up to the water surface to breathe in oxygen.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi Books 6th Science Question 5.
The balance of oxygen in atmosphere is maintained through photosynthesis in animals and respiration in plants.
Answer:
False. The balance of oxygen in atmosphere is maintained through photosynthesis in plants and respiration in animals.

IV. Match the following:

6th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.

Answer:

V. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Term 2 Question 1.

1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide just as animals.
4. Plants take carbon-di-oxide from the atmosphere, use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
6. During this process, oxygen is released by plants.

Answers:

1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon di oxide just as animals.
4. Plant take carbon di oxide from the atmosphere use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
6. During this process oxygen is released by plants.

VI. Analogy:

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Photosynthesis : _______ :: Respiration : Oxygen.
Answer:
Carbon – dioxide.

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 2.
78% of air : Does not support combustion :: ________ : Supports combustion
Answer:
21% of air.

VII. Observe the given figure carefully and answer the questions:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science 6th Question 1.
What will happen if we remove plants from the aquarium?
Answer:
If we remove the plants from the aquarium, oxygen percentage will be decreased. So fishes would die.

Question 2.
What will happen if we remove the fish from the aquarium and keep it (with green plants) in a dark place?

Answer:
If the aquarium is kept in the dark place, the green plants will not prepare their food due to lack of sunlight and carbon di oxide. So the plants get spoiled.

VIII. Give very short answer:

Question 1.
What is the atmosphere? Name the five layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air called the atmosphere.
The atmosphere is made of five different layers – the Troposphere, the Stratosphere, the Mesosphere, the Ionosphere and the Exosphere.

Question 2.
How do the roots of land plants get oxygen for breathing?
Answer:
The roots can absorb oxygen from the small air spaces in soil.

Question 3.
What should be done if the clothes of a person catch fire accidentally? Why?
Answer:

1. Cover the person in a rug or blanket and Roll him on the floor.
2. This will cut off the air and put out the flames.
3. Suitable fire extinguisher can also be chosen.

Question 4.
What will happen if you breathe through mouth?
Answer:
Anyone can develop a habit of breathing through their mouth, but certain conditions increase your risk. These include:-

1. Chronic allergies
2. Hay fever
3. Chronic or recurring Sinus infections
4. Asthma
5. Chronic Stress and Anxiety.

IX. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Biscuits kept open on a plate during monsoon days lose it’s crispness. Why?
Answer:
Air also contains more water vapour in rainy season (monsoon days). So, Biscuits kept open on a plate during monsoon days loses its crispness.

Question 2.
Why do traffic assistants wear a mask on duty?
Answer:
Traffic assistants are continually exposed to smoke emitted out from the vehicles. Inhaling the pollutants in the smoke may cause breathing and lung problems. So they wear a mask on duty.

X. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do plants and animals maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon-di-oxide in air?
Answer:
Respiration in plants:
During respiration, plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide, just as animal also do. Gaseous exchange with air in atmosphere takes place in plants with stomata.

Photosynthesis:
During photosynthesis, carbon-di-oxide from the air and water from the soil react in the presence of sunlight to produce food. Plants release oxygen during photosynthesis which is much more than the oxygen consumed by the plants during respiration.

Respiration in animats:
When we breath in air, the oxygen present in the air reacts chemically with digested food within the body to produce carbon-di-oxide gas. The inhaled air contains more oxygen while the exhaled air contains more carbon-di-oxide.

So plants sent out more oxygen during the photosynthesis. Animals sent out more carbon-di-oxide during respiration. Plants take carbon-di-oxide for photosynthesis. Animals take oxygen during respiration. So plants and animals maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon-di-oxide in air.

Question 2.
Why is atmosphere essential for life on earth?
Answer:
The atmosphere is essential for life because it maintains an appropriate climate for the maintenance of life by carrying out the following activities:

1. The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the Earth fairly constant during the day time.
2. It prevents a sudden increase in temperature during the day time.
3. It also slows down the escape of heat from the surface of the Earth into outer space during the night time.

XI. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Can you guess why fire extinguishers throw a stream of carbon-di-oxide while putting – off fire?
Answer:
The reasons behind fire extinguishers throw a stream of CO, while putting-off fire:-

1. CO₂ is a colourless and in normal concentrations, odourless gas. It doesn’t react with burning materials, so it doesn’t create any toxic or other by products while putting-off fire.
2. Carbon dioxide doesn’t conduct electricity, making it an ideal fire suppressant for use in the places where a large amount of electricity may be present.
3. CO₂ acts on fires in two ways: The release of the gas under pressure has a cooling effect, as can be seen by the resulting mist cloud and ice particles; the gas also displaces the oxygen that’s necessary to maintain combustion.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Intext Activities

Activity 1

Air is everywhere
Let us take an empty glass bottle. Is it really empty or does it have something inside?

Now, shall we turn the glass bottle upside down? Can you agree that there is still something inside the empty glass bottle? Let us do the following activity to find what is there inside an empty glass bottle.
Dip the open mouth of the bottle into the trough filled with water as shown in Fig 1. Observe the bottle. Does water enter the bottle? _______
Now tilt the bottle slightly. Now again dip the open mouth of the bottle as shown in
Fig 2. Do you think that water will enter the bottle? _______
Kindly observe the Fig 2 carefully. You can see bubbles coming out of the bottle.
When you perform the experiment, can you hear the bubbly sound? can you now guess what was inside the bottle? _______
Yes, you are right. It is “air” that was present in the bottle.
The bottle was not empty at all. In fact, it was filled completely with air even when you turned it upside down. That is why we notice that water does not enter the bottle when it is pushed in an inverted position, as there was no space for air to escape.
When the bottle was tilted, the air was able to come out in the form of bubbles, and water filled up the empty space that the air has occupied.
Hence we can see that air fills all the space inside the bottle.
Answer:
Fig. – 1 – No.
Fig – 2 – Yes.
Yes, I can hear a bubbly sound. Yes the bottle has a full of ‘Air’.

Activity 2

Take a healthy branch of Hydrilla and place it in a funnel. Invert the funnel in a beaker of water as shown in the figure. Invert a test tube over the stem of the funnel. The stem of the funnel should be kept immersed inside the water Leave the beaker in sunlight for some time. You will notice some bubbles rising in the test tube. The bubbles contain oxygen released by the plant during photosynthesis. If we show a glowing splinter to the collected air, it burns brightly. This shows that the collected gas is oxygen.

Activity 3

We know that iron undergoes rusting with oxygen and forms iron oxide. This process can be used to estimate the percentage of oxygen in air, which has been removed by the rusting reaction.

Take a small portion of iron wool, press it into a 20 ml graduated test tube and wet it with water. Tip away excess of water. Take a 500ml beaker and fill half of the beaker with water. Invert the test tube and place it in air. Leave the arrangement at least for a week without making any disturbance to the test tube.

Observe the changes that had happened in the iron wool and to the level of water inside the test tube. We could see that the water level has increased inside the test tube. The rise in water is because of oxygen in air which has been removed by the rusting reaction. This will be about 20% which is approximately the percentage of oxygen in the air.

Activity 4

Oxygen is necessary for burning

Place two candles on a table. Ensure that both the candles are of same size and height. Mark them as candle 1 and candle 2 using a chalkpiece. Light both the candles. Now, cover candle 2 with glass tumbler as shown in the figure. Observe the happenings at both the candles.

What does happen to candle 1?
_________________________
What does happen to candle 2?
_________________________
Can you guess why did the covered candle extinguish?
_________________________

Let us summarize the happenings.

The candle 1 continues to bum, unless it is blown – off by strong moving air or any other external force. This is because fresh air is continuously available to the candle for its burning process.

Candle 2 glows for a while and then gets put – off. When the burning candle is covered with a glass tumbler, the candle can use the oxygen available in the air inside the glass tumbler. Since only a small amount of air is present inside the glass tumbler – only a small portion of oxygen is available for the candle to continue glowing. When all the oxygen of the air inside the gas jar is used up, then the burning candle gets extinguished.

Now, repeat the candle – glowing experiment taking four containers of different sizes. Lor example, you can take a 250ml conical flask, a 500ml bottle, a one – litre jar, a two – litre jar. Cover the burning candle one by one with these containers and find out how long it takes for the candle to extinguish in each case. Record your observations in the following table.
Answer:

The time taken for the candle to extinguish depends upon the volume of the containers. Lor less volume, the time taken is less. Lor more volume, the time taken is more.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Movement of wind takes place in _______ layer
(a) Troposphere
(b) ozone
(c) stratosphere
(d) ionosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

Question 2.
A component of air used by green plants to prepare their food is
(a) N₂
(b) O₂
(c) He
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(d) CO₂

Question 3.
_______ layer contain ozone layer.
(a) Trophosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(b) Stratosphere

Question 4.
The percentage of oxygen in exhaled air of respiration is
(a) 78%
(b) 16%
(c) 4%
(d) 21%
Answer:
(b) 16%

Question 5.
During respiration carbon-di-oxide is exhaled out of the body through the _______
(a) Lungs
(b) Heart
(c) Kidney
(d) Skin
Answer:
(a) Lungs

Question 6.
_______ respire using their skin.
(a) Fish
(b) Frogs
(c) Rats
(d) Human beings
Ans:
(b)Frogs

Question 7.
_______ gas cylinders are used for breathing purpose for a diver going deep into the sea
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon-di-oxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Atmosphere is held in place by the earth’s _______
2. The atmosphere is made of _______ different layers.
3. A _______ shows the direction in which the air is moving at a particular place.
4. The ozone layer protects all life on earth from the harmful _______ rays of the sun.
5. Highly reactive gas was later names ‘oxygen’ by _______
6. _______ discovered nitrogen.
7. Air contains small amount of CO₂, Water vapour and some other gases like _______ etc.
8. Air contains more _______ in rainy season

Answers:

1. gravity
2. five
3. weathercock
4. ultraviolet
5. Lavoisier
6. Daniel Rutherford
7. argon,helium
8. water vapour

III. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement:

Question 1.
When air is moving with cool and soothing, it is called as cyclone.
Answer:
False. When air is moving with cool and soothing is called as breeze.

Question 2.
Exosphere has high temperature.
Answer:
False. Exosphere has low temperature.

Question 3.
Jan Ingenhousz showed that chlorophyll is essential to the plant to carry out photosynthesis.
Answer:
False. Jan Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential to the plant to carry out photosynthesis.

Question 4.
The second major component of air is oxygen.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Air also contains small amount of carbon-di-oxide, water vapour and some other gases like argon, helium etc.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The amount of water vapour in the air is more in windy places than other areas.
Answer:
False. The amount of dust in the air is more in windy places then other areas.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Cool and soothing wind : Breeze.
uproot trees wind : ________
Answer:
Cyclone

Question 2.
Weather changes : Trophosphere.
Ozone layer: ________
Answer:
Stratosphere

Question 3.
Oxygen : Joseph Priestley.
Nitrogen : ________
Answer:
Daniel Rutherford

Question 4.
Respire through skin: ________
Respire through gills: Fish
Answer:
Frogs

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define – Atmosphere.
Answer:
Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air. It is called atmosphere.

Question 2.
The air envelope is thicker near the earth’s surface and we go higher the density and availability of air gradually decreases. Why?
Answer:
When altitude increases, number of gas molecules will be decreased. Therefore, the density is also decreased when we go higher. Gravity pulls most of the atmosphere’s gas molecules close to the Earth’s surface. Air rises as it is heated because it becomes less dense.

Question 3.
Define troposphere.
Answer:

1. This layer is closest to the earth.
2. It is the layer in which we live.
3. Movement of wind takes place in this layer.
4. It also contains water vapour, which is responsible for making clouds.
5. It is responsible for the weather we experience on earth.

Question 4.
Why aircraft usually fly above the troposphere layer?
Answer:
Aircrafts usually fly above the troposphere to avoid strong winds and bad weather.

Question 5.
How to show that the presence of carbon-di-oxide in air?
Answer:
Pour some lime water in a glass tumbler Bubble some air using a straw through the litne water. After a few minutes, lime water will produce a white precipitate and that the lime water will turn to a milky white solution. This shows the presence of Carbon- di-oxide in air.

Question 6.
Write the composition of air.
Answer:
The major component of air is nitrogen. Almost four – fifth of air is nitrogen. The second major component of air is oxygen. Air also contains small amount of Carbon-di- oxide, water vapour and some other gases like argon, helium etc. The air may also contain some dust particles.

Question 7.
The composition of air changes slightly from place to place. Give examples.
Answer:

1. Air over industrial cities has a higher amount of carbon-di-oxide in it.
2. Air in coastal areas may have more water vapour than inland areas.
3. Air also contains more water vapour in rainy season.
4. The amount of dust in the air is more in windy places.

Question 8.
What is meant by burning?
Answer:
The process of burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen and releasing a large amount of light and heat is called burning.

Question 9.
In Rockets, along with fuel, oxygen is also carried for combustion – why?
Answer:
In Rockets, as they go high in the atmosphere, the availability of oxygen is considerably reduced. So rockets along with the fuel, oxygen is also carried for combustion.

Question 10.
Write the equation of photosynthesis.
Answer:

Question 11.
What is dry ice? What is its use?
Answer:

1. When carbon-di-oxide is cooled to -57°C, it directly becomes a solid, without changing to its liquid state. It is called dry ice.
2. Dry ice is used in trucks or freight cars for refrigerating meat and fish while transporting them.

Question 12.
Write the uses of wind mills.
Answer:
The wind mills are used

1. to draw water by running pumps
2. run flour mills
3. to generate electricity.

Question 13.
Give the components present in the air with percentage?
Answer:
The components present in the air with percentage Nitrogen – 78%, Oxygen – 21%, Carbon di oxide, Argon, Water vapour and other gases – 1%.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Prove by an experiment that Oxygen is released during photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Take a healthy branch of Hydrilla and place it in a funnel. Invert the funnel in a beaker of water as shown in the figure.
2. Invert a test tube over the stem of the funnel.
3. The stem of the funnel should be kept immersed inside the water Leave the beaker in sunlight for some time.
4. You will notice some bubbles rising in the test tube.
   
5. The bubbles contain oxygen released by the plant during photosynthesis.
6. If we show a glowing splinter to the collected air, it bums brightly.
7. This shows that the collected gas is oxygen.

Question 2.
Prove by an experiment that oxygen is necessary for burning.
Answer:

1. Place two candles on a table.
2. Ensure that both the candles are of same size and height.
3. Mark them as candle 1 and candle 2 using a chalkpiece.
4. Light both the candles. Now, cover candle 2 with glass tumbler as shown in the figure.
5. Observe the happenings at both the candle.
   
6. The candle 1 continues to bum, unless it is blown – off by strong moving air or any other external force.
7. This is because fresh air is continuously available to the candle for its burning process.
8. Candle 2 glows for a while and then gets put – off.
9. When the burning candle is covered with a glass tumbler, the candle can use the oxygen available in the air inside the glass tumbler.
10. Since only a small amount of air is present inside the glass tumbler – only a small portion of oxygen is available for the candle to continue glowing.
11. When all the oxygen of the air inside the gas jar is used up, then the burning candle gets extinguished.

Question 3.
Compare the composition of inhaled air and exhaled air.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write the uses of air.
Answer:

1. Air is used by plants and animals for breathing.
2. Air is used for burning fuels like wood, coal, kerosene, LPG etc.
3. Compressed air is used to fill tyres of various kinds of vehicles.
4. Ozone layer, present in the atmosphere, helps in preventing harmful radiations of the sun from reaching the earth’s surface.
5. Under extra – ordinary conditions such as:
   • (a) a patient having breathing difficulties,
   • (b) a mountaineer climbing a high mountain,
   • (c) a diver going deep into the sea, oxygen gas cylinders are used for breathing purposes.
6. Blowing air is used to turn the blades of wind mills. The wind mills are used to draw water by running pumps, run flour mills and to generate electricity.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Achieving Equality

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Achieving Equality For Class 6 Question 1.
Which one of the following is not the reason for Prejudice?
(a) Socialization
(b) Economic Benefits
(c) Authoritarian personality
(d) Geography
Answer:
(d) Geography

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 2.
Discrimination done on the basis of gender is referred to as …………….
(a) gender discrimination
(b) caste discrimination
(c) religious discrimination
(d) inequality
Answer:
(a) gender discrimination

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 3.
Gender-based stereotypes are often portrayed in
(a) films
(b) advertisements
(c) TV serials
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) AH of these

Social Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 4.
Name the book/s written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam …………….
(a) India 2020
(b) Wings of Fire
(c) Ignited Minds
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1996
(c) 1995
(d) 1994
Answer:
(a) 1997

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Question 6.
Viswanathan Anand became India’s first grandmaster in the year.
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Answer:
(d) 1988

Samacheer Kalvi Social 6th Standard Question 7.
In which sport Ilavazhagi excels
(a) Chess
(b) Wrestling
(c) Carrom
(d) Tennis
Answer:
(c) Carrom

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 8.
Which article of the Constitution says discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them is not …………….
(a) 14(1)
(b) 15(1)
(c) 16(1)
(d) 17(1)
Answer:
(b) 15(1)

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 9.
B.R. Ambedkar was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1990
(b) 1989
(c) 1988
(d) 1987
Answer :
(a) 1990

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Question 10.
As per the 2011 census the highest literate district in Tamil Nadu …………….
(a) Namakkal
(b) Salem
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Sivagangai
Answer:
(c) Kanyakumari

II. Fill in the blanks :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 1.

1. People have false belief and ideas on others is called _______.
2. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was born in _______.
3.  _______was the first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award, India’s highest Sport honour
4. _______was independent India’s first Law Minister
5. As per the 2011 Census, the lowest Sex ratio was in _______.

Answers:

1. Prejudices
2. Rameswaram
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Dharmapuri Dist

III. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Question 1.

1. Prejudice – (i) abolition of untouchability
2. Stereotype – (ii) treating someone less fairly than others
3. Discrimination – (iii) equality before law
4. Article 14 – (iv) false view or idea about something
5. Article 17 – (v) judge other people negatively

Answer:

1. – v
2. – iv
3. – ii
4. – iii
5. – ii

IV. Answer the following questions:

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Social Science Question 1.
What is Prejudice?
Answer:

1. Prejudice means to judge other people in a negative or inferior manner, without knowing much about them.
2. It happens when people have false belief and ideas.

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 2.
What is a stereotype?
Answer:
When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a stereotype. Stereotype is a false view or idea about something. For example, girls are not good at sports.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 6th Question 3.
What is discrimination?
Answer:

1. Discrimination can be defined as negative actions towards people.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion and gender etc.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 4.
What are the articles that are discussing the equality in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides equality before the law or equal protection within the territory of India.
2. Article 15 (1) of the Constitution states that the State shall not to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
3. Article 17 of the Indian consitution, untouchability is totally abolished.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Question 1.
What are the causes of Prejudice?
Answer:
Some common social factors that contributes to the rise of prejudice are-

1. Socialisation
2. Conforming behaviours
3. Economic benefits
4. Authoritarian personality
5. Ethno – centrism
6. Group closure
7. Conflicts

Social Guide For Class 6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Write any two types of discrimination?
Answer:
Caste discrimination:

1. Caste system is the most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination in India.
2. In the beginning the society was divided into different groups on the basis of occupation, known as varnas.
3. Leaders like Ambedkar was against caste discrimination.
4. He fought actively for equality among the citizens of India

Gender discrimination:

1. Gender discrimination refers to health, education, economic and political inequalities between men and women in India.
2. For example: A girl is not allowed to go to college after finishing her schooling.
3. Most of the girls are not allowed to select a career of their choice.
4. In some families girls are not allowed to wear modern dresses while boys in such families wear modern dresses.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Question 3.
Explain the solution to the removal of inequality and discrimination in Indian society?
Answer:
The remedial measures for abolishing inequality and discrimination in Indian society are as follows.

1. Wider access to quality based services like healthcare and education for all.
2. Be aware of current gender bias.
3. Make women more visible in public life and institution to eradicate gender disparity.
4. Be open to learning about other religions.
5. Promoting community dining in the classroom may help the students to sit together without any bias of caste, religion or gender.
6. Socialise with people of all types outside home.
7. Effective implementation of laws.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Science Question 2.
Collect information about any two famous personalities who faced prejudice and discrimination.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar :

(i) Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891 in the town and military cantonment of Mhow in the Central Provinces (now in Madhya Pradesh).

(ii) He was the 14th and last child of Ramji Maloji Sakpal, an army officer who held the rank of Subedar, and Bhimabai Sakpal, daughter of Laxman Murbadkar.

(iii) His family was of Marathi background from the town of Ambadawe (Mandangad taluka) in Ratnagiri district of modem-day Maharashtra.

(iv) Ambedkar was bom into a poor low Mahar (dalit) caste, who were treated as untouchables and subjected to socio-economic discrimination.

(v) Ambedkar’s ancestors had long worked for the army of the British East India Company, and his father served in the British Indian Army at the Mhow cantonment.

(vi) Although they attended school, Ambedkar and other untouchable children were segregated and given little attention or help by teachers. They were not allowed to sit inside the class. When they needed to drink water, someone from a higher caste had to pour that water from a height as they were not allowed to touch either the water or the vessel that contained it.

(vii) This task was usually performed for the young Ambedkar by the school peon, and if the peon was not available then he had to go without water; he described the situation later in his writings as “No peon, No Water”. He was required to sit on a gunny sack which he had to take home with him.

Dr. Nelson Mandela :

(i) Mandela was bom on 18 July 1918 in the village of Mvezo in Umtata, then part of South Africa’s Cape Province.

(ii) He spent the first 18 of his 27 years in jail at the brutal Robben Island Prison, a former leper colony off the coast of Cape Town.

(iii) He was confined to a small cell without a bed or plumbing and compelled to do hard labor in a lime quarry. ,

(iv) As a black political prisoner, he received scantier rations and fewer privileges than other inmates. He was only allowed to see his wife, Winnie Madikizela-Mandela once every six months.

(v) Mandela and his fellow prisoners were routinely subjected to inhumane punishments for the slightest of offenses; among other atrocities, there were reports of guards burying inmates in the ground up to their necks and urinating on them.

(vi) Despite his forced retreat from the spotlight, Mandela remained the symbolic leader of the antiapartheid movement.

(vii) In 1980 Oliver Tambo introduced a “Free Nelson Mandela” campaign that made the jailed leader a household name and fueled the growing international outcry against South Africa’s racist regime.

(viii) As pressure mounted, the government offered Mandela his freedom in exchange for various political compromises, including the renouncement of violence and recognition of the “independent” Transkei Bantustan, but he categorically rejected these deals.

(ix) In 1982 Mandela was moved to Pollsmoor Prison on the mainland, and in 1988 he was placed under house arrest on the grounds of a minimum-security correctional facility.

(x) The following year, newly elected president F. W. de Klerk lifted the ban and called for a nonracist South Africa, breaking with the conservatives in his party. On February 11, 1990, he ordered Mandela’s release.

(xi) Mandela helped bring an end to apartheid and has been a global advocate for human rights.

(xii) He was a leader of both peaceful protests and armed resistance against the white minority’s oppressive regime in a racially divided South Africa.

(xiii) His actions landed him in prison for nearly three decades and made him the face of the antiapartheid movement both within his country and internationally.

(xiv) Released in 1990, he participated in the eradication of apartheid and in 1994 became the first black president of South Africa, forming a multiethnic government to oversee the country’s transition.

VII. HOTS:

Class 6 Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Various discrimination in India. Discuss.
Answer:

1. The different forms of inequalities such as caste inequality, religious inequality, race inequality or gender inequality give rise to discrimination.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion gender etc.
3. Treating dark-skinned people differently from fair-skinned people, giving more importance to people of higher than to those of lower caste and thinking boys are smarter than girls are all thoughts of discrimination.
4. Article 15(1) of the consitution states that the State not to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

VIII Life Skill:

Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 1.
How can you fight against prejudice and discrimination in your village?
Answer:
Fighting against prejudice and discrimination :

1. First we should assess our own biases. We should understand what they are.
2. Keep ourselves accountable. Prejudice is a kind of handicap to our perspective. We are forbidden to think beyond our assumptions. A virtual wall gets built around our objective thinking.
3. Acknowledge our own biases and prejudices and actively replace them with more! reasonable alternative.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Books Answers Question 1.
The eleventh President of India was _______
(a) Narasimha Rao
(b) Man mohan singh
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
(d) lal bahadur sastri
Answer:
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam

6th Samacheer Kalvi Social Guide Question 2.
Apartheid was abolished in ……………
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 3.
Baba Saheb refers to ______
(a) Patel
(b) Tilak
(c) Ambedkar
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Ambedkar

Question 4.
As per the 2011 census the lowest literate district in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chennai
(b) Thoothukudi
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Urban people are more civilised than rural people in _______ and _______.
2. When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a _______.
3. In 1988, India’s first grandmaster was _______.
4. The Indian National carrom championship in 2008 was won by _______.
5. At the Rio Paralympics (2016) _______ won the gold medal in men’s high jump T-42 event.
6. The Father of the Indian Constitution is _______.
7. The most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination is _______.

Answer:

1. Attitudes,behaviour
2. stereotype
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Ilavazhagi
5. Mariyappan
6. Dr. Ambedkar
7. caste system

II. Match the following
(a) Abdul Kaiam – (i) Padma Vibushan
(b) Viswanathan Anand – (ii) India’s first law minister
(c) Ambedkar – (iii) Closed
(d) Varrias – (iv) Missile Man of India
Answer:
(a – iv)
(b – i)
(c – ii)
(d – iii)

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is meant by Stereotype?
Answer:

1. When prejudice gets stronger in develops into a stereotype.
2. Stereotype is a false view or idea about something.
3. Stereotype is learned at a very early age, and children grow to have very strong ideas or opinions about things, groups or ideologies.
4. As children grow up, the lines of like and hate for others things, people, cultures, beliefs, languages become sharper.

Question 2.
Mention the different forms of inequalities
Answer:

1. Caste inequality
2. Religious inequality
3. Race inequality
4. Gender inequality

Question 3.
How many times did Viswanathan Anand win World Chess Championship?
Answer:
Viswanathan Anand won the World Chess Championships five times in 2000, 2007,2008, 2010 and 2012.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write a short note op Dr. APJ Abdul Kaiam. ,
Answer:
Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kaiam was bom in a Muslim family in Rameswaram.He was the 11th President of India and who is fondly remembered as People’s President.He completed his schooling at Ramnad, graduation from St. Joseph’s College, Trichy, and went on to study aerospace engineering at the Madras Institute of Technology (MIT) after he joined the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).

Kalam’s family had become poor at his early age; he sold newspapers to supplement )his family income.Kaiam has written many books. Among them, very famous books are India 2020, Wings of Fire, Ignited Minds, The Luminous Sparks and Mission India.He was a recipient of several prestigious awards, including the Bharat Ratna. India’s v highest civilian honour in 1997.His outstanding work earned him the title of the ‘Missile Man of India’.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is _______ water.
(a) fresh
(b) pure
(c) Salty
(d) polluted
Answer:
(c) Salty

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of water cycle?
a. evaporation
b. condensation
c. rain
d. distillation

Science Term 3 Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
(a) ii and iii
(b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) i and ii
Answer:
(c) i and iv

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science 3rd Term Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
a. glaciers
b. groundwater
c. other sources of water
d. 0.3%
Answer:
b. groundwater

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Third Term Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates a lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is _______
(a) make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
(b) use it for watering plants
(c) to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
(d) to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
(b) use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Only _______ percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called _______
3. _______ is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during _______
5. Water cycle is also called as _______

Answer:

1. 0.3
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Raining
5. Hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.
Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
Answer:
False. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 3 Question 2.
Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
Answer:
False. Ponds are formed when the water table meets the land surface.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Term 3 Question 3.
The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
Answer:
True.

6th Science Term 3 Question 4.
Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Question 5.
Sea water can be used for irrigation as such.
Answer:
False. Sea water cannot be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence :

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
4. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
5. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

6th Standard Science Water Lesson Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity :: Recycle : __________
Answer:
Water Management.

6th Science Water Question 2.
Ground water : __________ :: Surface water : lakes
Answer:
Tube wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Science Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
In city, people get water from water tanks, hand pipes and bore wells.
In rural area, people get water from wells, canals, ponds and rivers.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Water Lesson 6th Standard Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:

1. The millions of tiny droplets do not collide with another to form larger droplets.
2. The air around the clouds is not cool.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
In Arctic and Antarctic circle, water in lakes and ponds will be frozen and a solid layer of ice is formed on the surface of water. Still aquatic animals living under the ice do not die. This is because the floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So as the surface water alone turns to ice, the aquatic animals manage it.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface water:

1. Water present on the surface of the earth.
2. Ex : River, lake, ponds, streams or freshwater.

Groundwater:

1. Water present beneath earth’s surface in soil.
2. Ex : open wells, tube wells (or) hand pumps, Spings etc.

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”?
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water and even then we face scarcity of water. Reasons:

1. 97% of total water is found in seas and oceans, which is salty and not fit for human consumption.
2. Only 3% found is the freshwater and that too available in polar ice caps and glaciers.
3. Out of 3% fresh water, only 0.3% is available to us as surface water, in lakes, rivers, and swamps.

Question 4.
Give a reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:

1. Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
2. If we dispose of sewage before treatment the rivers and oceans will be polluted.
3. Aquatic animals and species will die due to pollution.
4. We can not use the river water for our day to day life.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics?
Answer:

1. Potable water is the water which is safe to drink.
2. On average the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.

Characteristics of potable water :

1. Cleaned of harmful contaminants.
2. It is transparent.
3. It is odourless and colourless.
4. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as Waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the Waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He get Ramon Magasaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got Jamnalal Bajaj award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian, named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:

1. Direct collection and use of rain water is called rainwater harvesting.
2. The system is easy to install, operate and maintain for all types of houses.
3. Excellent and valuable source of water in emergencies.
4. Reduces rainwater runoff and solve drainage problems in houses.
5. Ideal solution for inadequacy of water.
6. Increase groundwater level.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
Yes, the formation of clouds is possible at that area because plants also release water vapour by transpiration process. This water vapour will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which get condensed and changed into tiny water droplets and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword :

DOWN:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from sea water.
6. Water stored in dams is used for generation of _____
ACROSS
3. _______ is a large body of non-potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as _______
5. Plants undergo _______ and contribute to water cycle.

Answer:
Down:
1. Recycling
2. Evaporation
6. Electricity

Across:
3. Ocean
4. Sweat
5. Transpiration

XI.

Question 1.
Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

a. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
b. Name the food item that has maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Name the food item that has minimum amount of water in its content.
d. Human body consists of about _________ percentage of water.
e. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.
Answer:
a. 70% of water is seen in fish.
b. Watermelon has maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Fish has minimum amount of water in its content.
d. 60%.
e. Watermelon is the food item which can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
a. Dharmapuri, Erode, Karur, Trichy, Perambalur, Tanjore, Pudukottai, Dindugul, Madurai, Sivagangai, Ramanathapuram.
b. Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kanchipuram, Vellore, Krishnagiri, Thiruvannamalai, Salem, Namakkal, Vizhupuram, Ariyalur, Thiruvarur, Thiruppur, Virudunagar, Tuticorin.
c. Cuddalore, Nagappatinam, Nilgiri, Coimbatore, Theni, Thirunelveli, Kanyakumari.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Intext Activities

Activity 1

Relative amount of water at various sources

Take a 20 litre bucket, a 500 ml mug, a 150 ml tumbler and a 1 ml spoon. If the capacity of the bucket is 20 litre, then it represents the total amount of water present on the Earth.

Now, transfer a mug of water from the bucket and it is 500 ml and then it represents the total amount of fresh water present in the Earth. The water left in the bucket represents seas and oceans. This water is not fit for human use.

The water present in the mug represents the freshwater which is present in frozen form on snow-covered mountains, glaciers and polar ice caps. This water is also not readily available for human use. Next, transfer 150 ml of water to the tumbler, then it represents the total amount of ground water. Finally, take one-fourth spoonful of water while the capacity of the spoon is 1 ml, then it represents the total amount of surface water (i.e) water seen in all the rivers, lakes and ponds of the world. It can be taken as potable water.

When such a small amount of potable water is available, then we should be more cautious in handling water. Is it not?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2
Conduct the activity with common salt, sand, chalk powder, charcoal powder and copper sulphate.

Fill up the following table.

From the above activity, we could observe that common salt and copper sulphate dissolve in water and contribute their properties like colour and other properties to water but sand, chalk powder and charcoal powder do not dissolve in water.
Answer:

Activity 3

Water contains dissolved salts

Take some tap water in a china dish and heat it. Continue heating till all the water gets dried up. Stop the heating and look at the china dish. What do you observe inside the china dish?

Deposits of some solid particles on the surface of china dish can be observed. The deposit is of salts that are dissloved in water. This shows that water has dissolved salts in it.

Note : Do not use distilled water or water from purifier or RO unit and the like for this activity.

Activity 4
Spread a piece of wet cloth in the sunlight. Observe after some time. Where has the water in the wet cloth gone?

The water evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun.

Activity 5

Condensation of water vapour

Take a glass half filled with water. Wipe the outer surface of the glass with a clean piece of cloth. Add some ice into the water. Wait for one or two minutes. Observe the changes that take place on the outer surface of the glass.

From where do water drops appear on the outer side of the glass?

The cold surface of the glass containing icy water cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses on the surface of the glass. This process is also the result of condensation of water vapour.

Activity 6

Estimation of water consumed by a family on a day

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ form of water is present in mountain and polar region.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gaseous
(d) All these
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 2.
The melting point of Ice is ……….
(a) 100°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 0.100°C
(d) 10°C
Answer:
(b) 0°C

Question 3.
_______ water contains 0.05% to 1% of salts.
(a) Brackish
(b) Fresh
(c) Sea
(d) Sewage
Answer:
(b) Fresh

Question 4.
The human body requires ………. litres of water per day for proper functioning.
(a) 2 – 3 litres
(b) 3 – 4 litres
(c) 4 – 5 litres
(d) 1 – 2 litres
Answer:
(b) 3 – 4 litres

Question 5.
In plants, the loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts through _______
(a) Root
(b) Shoot
(c) Stomatal Pores
(d) Fruit
Ans:
(c) Stomatal Pores

Question 6.
_______ water is obtained through open wells, tube wells or hand pumps, springs.
(a) Surface
(b) Frozen
(c) Saline
(d) Ground
Ans:
(d) Ground

Question 7.
_______ of Asia’s largest rivers flow from the Himalayas.
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 8.
Volume of liquid is measured by _______
(a) Gallon
(b) Litre
(c) Cusec
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

Question 9.
_______ forests are found in pichavaram near Chidambaram
(a) Green
(b) Grass lands
(c) Mangrove
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. _______ plays a vital role in the evolution and survival of life.
2. _______ is present in the air around us.
3. In the distribution of total 0.3% of surface water, _______ have 87% surface water.
4. The molecular formula of water is _______
5. The oceanic volcanoes which are present inside also add _______ to the sea.
6. Every year _______ is observed as the world water day.
7. The water vapour gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form _______ in the sky.
8. A larger portion of water is _______ % of the total available fresh water in frozen state.
9. Water level in the reservoirs is measured in _______
10. Adoption of _______ and irrigation in agriculture.

Answers:

1. Water
2. Vapour
3. Lakes
4. H₂O
5. Salt
6. March 22nd
7. Clouds
8. 68.7
9. Cubic feet per second (cusecs)
10. Drip, Sprinkler

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Mountains helps to regulate the temperature of our earth.
Answer:
False. Water helps to regulate the temperature of our earth.

Question 2.
Solid form of water is present in underground.
Answer:
False. Liquid form of water is present in underground.

Question 3.
Water while passing through layers of soil dissolves salt and minerals to a maximum extent.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Water freeze at 100° Celsius at normal pressure.
Answer:
False. Water freeze at 0° celsius at normal pressure.

Question 5.
When the air around the clouds is cool, these drops of water fall in the form of snow or rain.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Direct collection and use of rain water is called rain water harvesting.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Estuaries are harmful to unique plants and animal species.
Answer:
False. Estuaries are home to unique plants and animal species.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Ice berg : Solid form :: Water vapour : _______
Answer:
Gaseous form.

Question 2.
Contain more than 3% of salt: _______ :: upto 3% of salt dissolved : Brackish water.
Answer:
Sea water.

Question 3.
Water bodies meet the sea : Estuaries :: Wet lands : _______
Answer:
Swamps.

Question 4.
Napier Bridge area : _______ :: Pallikkaranai: Wet land.
Answer:
Estuaries.

V. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give the uses of water.
Answer:
Cooking food, washing cloths, cleaning utensils, bathing, agricultural etc.

Question 2.
What are the three forms of water?
Answer:
Water is available in solid, liquid and vapour forms.

Question 3.
Which places have fresh water?
Answer:
Ponds, pools, rivers, tube wells have fresh water.

Question 4.
How is 3% of fresh water distributed?
Answer:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Groundwater – 30.1%
Another source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%

Question 5.
Define – Saline water.
Answer:
Water with a large amount of dissolved solids is not potable or suitable for drinking. Such water is called saline water.

Question 6.
How water is classified based on its salinity?
Answer:
Based on salinity, water is classified into three main categories. Such as Fresh water, Brackish water and Sea water.

Question 7.
What are the salts dissolved in sea water?
Answer:
The salts are dissolved in sea water are sodium chloride, magnesium chloride and calcium chloride.

Question 8.
Define – Water cycle.
Answer:
The water on the earth evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun. The water vapour in the atmosphere forms clouds. From the clouds, water falls on the earth in the form of rain or snow. By this natural process, water gets renewed. This is called water cycle.

Question 9.
What is Condensation?
Answer:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky. This process is known as condensation.

Question 10.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form. This is called transpriation.

Question 11.
What is frozen water?
Answer:
Water that is present in the frozen form as polar ice caps and glaciers are called frozen water. A large portion of water is 68.7% of the total available fresh water is in frozen state.

Question 12.
Define – Scarcity of water.
Answer:
There is no change in.the total quantity of water available on the earth. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals and man is decreasing day by day. It is called Scarcity of water.

Question 13.
List the wet lands in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. Pichavaram Mangroves near Chidambaram.
2. Muthupet Mangrove wet-land.
3. Pallikkaranai wet-land in Chennai.
4. Chembarambakkam in Kancheepuram are a few examples of swamps in Tamilnadu.

Question 14.
What is meant by conservation of water?
Answer:
Saving water for the future generations by using water carefully and in a limited way is conservation of water.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Draw and describe the total water on earth by pie chart.
Answer:
If the total water on earth be 100%, let’s see what percent would be the availability of fresh water. Look at the pie chart given below
From the pie chart, it can also be noted that 97% water is saline water. Only 3% found is the freshwater and that too in polar ice caps and glaciers. So this portion of water is not readily available for drinking.

The distribution of the totally available (3%) freshwater is as follows:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Ground water – 30.1 %
Other source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%
The distribution of total 0.3% of surface water is as follows:
Lakes – 87%
Rivers – 2%
Swamps – 11%
Thus the above pie chart explains that we have a very small amount of fresh water available for human usuage and so maintaining the water table and the conservation of water is very essential.

Question 2.
What are the methods of water conservation? Explain?
Answer:
1. Water management :

• Bringing awareness to the people.
• Recycling water by separating pollutants.
• Minimize the use of fertilizers.
• Controlling deforestation.
• Adopt drip and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.

2. Rainwater harvesting:

• Collecting water from where it falls:
• Collecting water from the roof tops.
• Collecting flowing rain water :
• Collecting rain water by constructing dams.

Question 3.
Give the importance of water.
Answer:
The importance of water:

1. Our body uses water in all its cells, organs and tissues to help regulate its temperature and maintain other bodily functions.
2. On an average, the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.
3. Water helps in digestion of food and removal of toxins from the body.
4. Water is used in the domestic activities like cooking, bathing, washing clothes, washing utensils, keeping houses and common places clean, watering plants, etc.
5. It is also essential for the healthy growth of farm crops and farm stock and is used in the manufacture of many products.
6. Industry depends on water at all levels of production.

Question 4.
Describe water distribution and treatment system through flow chart.
Answer:

Question 5.
What are the reasons for scarcity of water?
Answer:
The main reasons for scarcity of water are:

1. Population explosion.
2. Uneven distribution of rainfall.
3. Decline of ground watertable.
4. Pollution of water.
5. Careless use of water.

Students can Download English Lesson 3 I Dream of Spices Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 3 I Dream of Spices

I Dream Of Spices Poem Overview

I Dream Of Spices Questions And Answers Glossary

cinnamon – the bark of a tree that gives a delicious flavour to food
garlic – a small bulb with a strong taste used in cooking
rattle off – recite
sesame seeds – gingelly seeds
ouch – sound that expresses pain

Read and Understand

A. Answer the following questions.

I Dream Of Spices Poem Summary Question 1.
Who is Raj?
Answer:
Raj is a little boy.

Dream Of Spices Question 2.
Where did Raj’s mother send him?
Answer:
Raj’s mother sent him to a shop.

I Dream Of Spices Poem Question 3.
Who is Muthu?
Answer:
Muthu is the owner of a shop.

I Dream Of Spices Mind Map Question 4.
What did mother ask Raj to buy?
Answer:
His mother asked him to buy some cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th English Question 5.
What did Raj buy?
Answer:
Raj bought sesame seeds,onions, tomatoes and pickles.

B. Choose the correct answers.

1. Mother called _______
(a) Muthu
(b) Raj
(c) Ram
Answer:
(b) Raj

2. Mother did not ask for _______
(a) cinnamon
(b) cardamom
(c) betel leaves
Answer:
(b) cardamom

Spices Poem Question 3.
Raj did not buy _______
(a) onions and sesame
(b) ginger and garlic
(c) tomato and pickles
Answer:
(b) ginger and garlic

Dream About Spices Appreciating The Poem

C Find an example of alliteration in the poem.

sesame – seeds
what – want
ginger – garlic

D. Listen to the poem read by your teacher.

Read the poem aloud in pairs. One person reads out Raj’s words and the other reads the mother’s. Take turns and read.
(To be done by the students)

E. Tell the stoiy of the poem In three or four sentences with the help of the pictures given below.

Answer:

• Mother asks her son to go to shop and buy a few items.
• The boy goes to shop and buys different items.
• He returns home.
• Mother sees the items & punishes him.

Writing

F. Read the jumbled lines from the poem and rearrange them in correct order.

Answer:
4. My mother would say:
6. “Little boy Raj…
3. Go to Muthu’s
5. and get some
1. cinnamon, betel leaves
2. and ginger and garlic.”
7. And so I go to the shops
8. singing all the way
13. and when Muthu asks me
12. what I’d want
11. I rattle off a list:
10. “Sesame seeds, onions
9. tomatoes and pickles”
15. And back home,
14. My mother twists my ears
16. Ouch!

G. Fill in the blanks with different words and write, your own poem.

Your Title for the poem : Me and Mani!
My mom would say :
“Little boy / girl Mano
Go to Mani’s
and get some
Tomato, Brinjai
Carrot and Onion”
And so I go to the Mani’s
singing all the way
and when Mani asks me
what I want
I rattle off a list:
“Biscuit, Candies
Cakes and Wafers”
And back home,
My mom twists my ears
Ouch!

I Dream of Spices Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension.

1. My mother would say:
“Little boy Raj….
Go to Muthu s

Question a.
Who would say to go to shop?
Answer:
Raj’s mother.

Question b.
How does she call Raj?
Answer:
Little boy

2. get some
cinnamon, betel leaves
and ginger and garlic. ”

Question a.
Where will he get the items?
Answer:
Muthu’s shop.

Question b.
What should he buy?
Answer:
Cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger, garlic.

3. And so I go to the shops
singing all the way

Question a.
Who goes to shops?
Answer:
Raj goes to shops.

Question b.
How does he go?
Answer:
He goes singing all the way.

4. when Muthu asks me
what I’d want
I rattle off a list:
“Sesame seeds, onions
tomatoes and pickles ’’

Question a.
What does Muthu ask?
Answer:
Muthu asks Raj what he would want.

Question b.
List the things he will buy?
Answer:
Sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles.

5. And back home,
Mother twists my ears
Ouch!

Question a.
What does mother do?
Answer:
Mother twists Raj’s ears.

Question b.
Why does she do so?
Answer:
He forgot the list of items told by her.

II. Poetic Devices.

1. And back home
Mother twists my ears.

What Is the poetic devise used in the second line?
Answer:
Alliteration – Mother – my

2. Cinnamom, beetal leaves
and ginger and garlic

Pick out the Alliteration.
Answer:
Alliterati on – ginger – garlic.

III. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Describe Raj’s experience in helping his mom at shopping?
Answer:
This is a simple and interesting poem by Raj Arumugam on a little boy’s memory while shopping for his Mom. One-day when Raj’s Mom asks him to buy cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic but Raj bought sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles. He gets lovingly punished by his Mom.

Question 2.
How did Raju react when his mother asked him to buy a list of items?
Answer:
Raju’s mother called him and gave him a list of items to be bought from Muthu’s shop. She told him to get some cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic. But, being a little boy, he goes to the shop, singing happily all the way. When the shop owner asks him what does he want, he forgets what his mother had told him to buy and recites different items like sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles. When he gets back home, his mother gets angry and twists his ears due to his poor memory.

I Dream of Spices Summary

This is a simple and interesting poem by Raj Arumugam on a little boy’s memory while shopping for his Mom. One-day when Raj’s Mom asks him to buy cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic but Raj bought sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles. He gets lovingly punished by his Mom.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 National Symbols

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 1.
The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by _______
(a) Pingali Venkayya
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

National Symbols In Tamil Question 2.
Which is the National Anthem of India?
(a) Jana Gana Mana
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(d) Neerarum Kaduluduththa
Answer:
(a) Jana Gana Mana

Questions On National Symbols Of India Question 3.
Who wrote the most ramous novel Anand Math?
(a) Akbar
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Term 2 Question 4.
________ birthday is celebrated as the International Day of non-violence?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi

6th Standard Symbol Question 5.
The colour of the Asoka chakra found in our National flag is _______
(a) sky blue
(c) blue
(b) navy blue
(d) green
Answer:
(b) navy bluel

Question 6.
The first flag ever flown after the Independence is stored in ……………..
(a) Chennai fort Museum
(b) Delhi Museum
(c) Saranath Museum
(d) Kolkata Museum
Answer:
(a) Chennai fort Museum

Question 7.
The National Anthem was written by _______
(a) Devandranath Tagpre
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
(d) Balagangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(c) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 8.
The time taken to play the National Anthem is ……………..
(a) 50 seconds
(b) 52 minutes
(c) 52 seconds
(d) 20 seconds
Answer:
(c) 52 seconds

Question 9.
“Vande Mataram” was first sung by _______ at the 1896 session of the National Congress
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 10
________ hoists the flag on Independence day in Delhi.
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) Vice President
(d) Any Political leader
Answer:
(a) The Prime Minister

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The National emblem was adapted from the Ashoka pillar of ______
2. The National fruit of India is______
3. The National Bird of India is______
4. Our National tree is the______
5. The Flag which was flown in 1947 Independence day was weaved in______
6. The Indian National Flag was designed by ______
7. ______ started the Saka Era
8. The longest river in India is______
9. The Indian Rupee symbol was designed by ______
10. The Chakra of the National Flag has______ spokes

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. Mango
3. peacock
4. Banyan tree
5. Gudiyatham
6. Pingali Venkayya
7. Kanishka
8. The Ganges
9. D. Udhaya
10. 24

III. Choose the correct answer

1. The Lion Capital is now in the ______ museum (Kolkata/Samath)
2. The National Anthem was adopted in ______
3. ______ is declared as our National Micro organism (Lacto bacillus / Rhizobium)

Answer:

1. Sarnath
2. 1950
3. Lacto bacillus

IV. Fill in the blanks:

1. Saffron — Courage ; White – _______
2. Horse — Energy; Bull – _______
3. 1947 — Independence day; 1950 – _______

Answer:

1. Honesty, peace, purity
2. Hardwork and dedication
3. Republic day

V. Chooose the Correct Option:

1) Rabindranath Tagorea – a.National Song
2) Bankim Chandra Chatteijee – b. National Flag
3) Pingali Venkayyac. – c. Astro Physicist
4) Meghnad Saha – d. National Anthem
a) a d b c
b) d a c b
c) d a b c
Answer:
c) d a b c

VI. Match and choose the wrong answer:

1. National Reptile – Tiger
2. National Aquatic Animal – Lacto bacillus
3. National Heritage Animal – King Cobra
4. National Micro organism – Dolphin

Answer:

1. National Reptile – King Cobra
2. National Aquatic Animal – Dolphin
3. National Heritage Animal – Tiger
4. National Micro organism – Lacto bacillus

VII. Choose the Wrong sentence:

Question 1.
a) The ratio of our National Flag’s length and breadth is 3:2
b) The Chakra has 24 spokes
c) The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour
Answer:
c) The Chakra is Blue in colour [Clue : Navy Blue is correct]

Question 2.
a) The National Flag was designed by Pingali Venkayya
b) The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum
c) The First National Flag was weaved in Gudiyattam
Answer:
b) The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum,

VIII. Choose the correct sentence:

a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day
b) November 26 is celebrated as the Republic day
c) October 12 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti
Answer:
a) August 15 is celebrated as the Independence day

IX. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What do the colours in our National Flag represent?
Answer:

1. The saffron at the top represents valour and sacrifice.
2. The green at the bottom represents fertility and prosperity.
3. The white band in between represents honesty, peace and purity.
4. The Ashoka chakra or the wheel in navy blue represents truth and peace.

Question 2.
What are the parts of our National emblem?
Answer:

1. Our National emblem consists of two parts the upper and the lower parts.
2. The upper part has four lions facing the North, South, East and West on a circular Pedestal.
3. The lower part has an elephant, a horse, a bull and a lion. The wheel of right sourness is placed between them.

Question 3.
What are the salient features of the National anthem?
Answer:

1. ‘Jana Gana Mana’ is our National anthem.
2. It symbolises the sovereignty and intergrity of our Nation.
3. This anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali.

The rules to be observed while singing the Anthem

1. This anthem has to be sung at a duration of 52 seconds.
2. Everyone should stand erect while singing the national anthem,
3. One should understand the meaning while singing.

Question 4.
Draw and define the Indian Rupee Symbol.
Answer:

1. The Indian Rupee sign is the official currency of India. (Designed by D. Udhaya Kumar)
2. It was presented to the public by the Government of India on 15 July 2010.
3. Shershah Sur’s currency was Rupiya.
4. This Rupiya has been transformed into Rupees the Indian Currency.
5. The symbol of Rupees in.
6. This was designed by D. Udhayakumar from Tamil Nadu in 2010.

Question 5.
Where do we use our National emblem?
Answer:
The National emblem is found at the top of the Government Communication, Indian Currency and passport.

Question 6.
Who wrote the National Pledge?
Answer:
Pydimarri Venkata Subha Rao wrote the National Pledge.

Question 7.
What are the animals found in the bottom of the emblem?
Answer:
In the bottom of the emblem, we see an elephant, a horse, a bull and a lion.

Question 8.
What are the natural national Symbols?
Answer:

1. Banyan tree
2. Peacock
3. River Ganges
4. Dolphin
5. King Cobra
6. Lotus
7. Tiger
8. Elephant
9. Lactobacillus
10. Mango

Question 9.
Where is the peacock sanctuary located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
There is a peacock sanctuary at Viralimalai in the district of Pudukottai (Tamil Nadu).

X. Activities:

Question 1.
What should we do to protect the endangered plants and animals – Discuss.
Answer:

1. Grow native plants.
2. Reduce your water consumption.
3. Recycle and buy sustainable products.
4. Do not buy plastic products.
5. Volunteer your time to protect the wildlife in your area.
6. Do not purchase products from companies
7. Avoid supporting the market in illegal wildlife including tortoise-shell, ivory, and coral.
8. Herbicides and pesticides are hazardous pollutants that affect wildlife at many levels.
9. Educate friends and relatives about endangered species in your area.

Question 2.
Celebrate the national eyents in your school and prepare a news item for a local
newspaper.
Answer:
Republic Day Celebrations in our XYZ Hr. Sec. School
A Report
On the morning of 26th Jan, our school, XYZ Hr. Sec. School, celebrated Republic Day in the school premises. It was a matter of great pride for all of us. Our Headmaster, teachers and the students didn’t want to leave any stone unturned in making this monumental day a memorable one.

The DIG of the City Police was the Chief Guest. He came on time. He was warmly welcomed by the whole staff led by our Headmaster. Then our Headmaster took him to the Function venue. There our hon’ble guest unfurled the national flag. With that everybody stood erected for National Anthem sung by the students. Then there were parades by NCC cadets of the school. After this, students presented cultural items.

These cultural items included patriotic songs, folk dances and speeches. Some students also presented skit based on fight against terrorist. Then there were speakers who through their speeches invoked the precious contribution of great freedom fighters.

With a couple more cultural items, the function ended with national anthem. Towards the end, all the people there flew colored balloons symbolizing prosperity and peace. Despite weather being inclement, we enjoyed Republic Day with great enthusiasm. Along with other students, I will never forget this wonderful day.

XI. Life skill activity:

Question 1.
Why are certain organisms adopted as natural National symbols? Analyse.
Answer:
Along with various animals and birds, which form part of the national symbols of India, the Indian government adopted a microorganism called lactobacillus delbrueckii in the year 2012 as our national microorganism.

The reason for doing so, is primarily educational and to create awareness among people about the importance of microorganisms. Lactobacillus is an important bacteria used in food production.

Lactobacillus species are used for the production of yogurt, cheese, sauerkraut, pickles, beer, wine, cider, kimchi, cocoa, and other fermented foods, as well as animal feeds, such as silage.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols InText Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
Who has been given the right to manufacture the National flag?
Answer:

1. By law the flag is to be made of Khadi.
2. The right to manufacture the flag is held by the Khadi Development and Village Industries Commission who allocates it to regional groups.
3. As of 2009, the Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha has been the sole manufacturer of the flag.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science National Symbols Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct answer

Question 1.
Wildlife Protection Act was passed in the year.
(a) 1970
(b) 1971
(c) 1972
(d) 1973
Answer:
(c) 1972

Question 2.
The National flower of India is
(a)’ Lotus
(b) Jasmine
(c) Rose
(d) Lily
Answer:
(a) Lotus

Question 3.
The Government of India adopted Elephant as a natural National symbol in the year.
(a) 1950
(b) 1963
(c) 1973
(d) 2010
Answer:
(d) 2010

Question 4.
Congress committee in 1911 Was held at
(a) Chennai
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(c) Kolkata

Question 5.
The symbol Indian National Currency was designed by
(a) Ravikumar
(b) Udhyakumar
(c) Krishnakumar
(d) Manojkumar
Answer:
(b) Udhyakumar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Tirupur Kumaran was bom in _______
2. Tirupur Kumaran honoured with the titile _______
3. Satyameva Jayate means _______
4. Lactobacillus was accepted as our National Micro organism in the year _______
5. SherShah sur introduced rupee currency Rupiya in the _______
6. During a leap year the spring equinox begins on _______
7. World’s biggest democracy is _______
8. Aaduvome Pallu Paduvome” was sung by _______ Over the AIR
9. The first citizen of India is the _______
10. On Republic Day, the _______ of India the National Flag at the red fort,New Delhi
11. The International Day of Non-violence is observed on _______

Answer:

1. Chennimalai
2. Kodi Kaatha Kumaran
3. Truth alone Triumphs
4. 2012
5. Sixteenth Century
6. March 21th
7. India
8. T.K. pattammal
9. President
10. President
11. 2nd October

III. Match the following:

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain the ‘Beating retreat’ Ceremony.
Answer:
On January 29, the third day of the Republic day, the celebrations are brought to an end with the “ Beating Reteat” ceremony. This is performed by the bands of Indian Army, Navy and Airforce. The President of India is the chief guest of this day. Rashtrapati Bhavan will be illuminated at 6pm as a part of the celebration.

Question 2.
Write a note on Kodi Katha Kumaran.
Answer:

1. Tirupur Kumaran was bom in Chennimalai of Erode district.
2. As a youth, he actively participated in the freedom struggle of India,
3. in 1932, when Gandhiji was arrested, there were protests all over India.
4. Tirupur Kumaran took active part in these protests.
5. He lost his life when the police attacked violently.
6. He held on to the tricolour flag even when he died.
7. He was honoured with the title, ‘Kodi Kaatha Kumaran’.

Question 3.
Write about Tamil Nadu’s National Symbols.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the natural national symbols.
Answer:

1. Banyan tree (1950). It is a symbol of pride and has many medicinal values.
2. Peacock (1963). It is native to Asia and the only bird which has a tail.
3. River Ganges (2008) is a perennial river and many royal capitals flourished on its banks.
4. River Dolphin (2010). It is the reliable indicator of the health of the entire river eco-system. It is in the endangered list.
5. King Cobra – It is the World’s longest venomous snake and lives in the rain forests and plains of India.
6. Lotus (1950) Though it grows in muddy water, it blooms with beauty.
7. Tiger (1973) It is the largest cat species. India has 70% of tigers population in the world.
8. Elephant (2010) It is native to mainland Asia and plays a critical role in maintaining the regions forests.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Magnetism

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 1.
An object that is attracted by magnet.
(a) wooden piece
(b) plain pins
(c) eraser
(d) a piece of paper
Answer:
(b) plain pins

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 3 Question 2.
People who made mariner’s compass for the first time.
a. Indians
b. Europeans
c. Chinese
d. Egyptians
Answer:
c. Chinese

Magnetism Lesson 6th Grade Question 3.
A freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the
(a) North – East
(b) South – West
(c) East – West
(d) North – South
Answer:
(d) North-South

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 4.
Magnets lose their properties when they are
a. used
b. stored
c. hit with a hammer
d. cleaned
Answer:
c. hit with a hammer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 5.
Mariner’s compass is used to find the
(a) speed
(b) displacement
(c) direction
(d) motion
Answer:
(c) direction

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Artificial magnets are made in different shapes such as _______ , _______ and _______
2. The materials which are attracted towards the magnet are called _______
3. Paper is not a _______ material.
4. In olden days, sailors used to find direction by suspending a piece of _______
5. A magnet always has _______ poles.

Answers:

1. Bar-magnet, Horseshoe magnet, Ring magnet
2. magnetic substances
3. magnetic
4. lodestones
5. two

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Question 1.
A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.
Answer:
False. A cylindrical magnet has two poles.

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science 3rd Term Question 2.
Similar poles of a magnet repel each other.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Third Term Question 3.
Maximum iron filings stick in the middle of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
Answer:
False. Maximum iron filings stick in the poles of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.

Science Term 3 Question 4.
A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place.
Answer:
True. A magnetic compass always points towards the North-South direction. If the North-South direction is known, then the East-West direction can also be determined. This direction is perpendicular to the North-South direction, ie., perpendicular to the compass needle in the same plane.

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Rubber is a magnetic material.
Answer:
False. Rubber is anon-magnetic material.

IV. Match the following:

1. Compass – Maximum magnetic strength
2. Attraction – Like poles
3. Repulsion – Opposite poles
4. Magnetic poles – Magnetic needle

Answer:

1. Compass – Magnetic needle
2. Attraction – Opposite poles
3. Repulsion – Like poles
4. Magnetic poles – Maximum magnetic strength

V. Circle the odd ones and give reasons:

6th Science Term 3 Question 1.
Iron nail, pins, rubber tube, needle.
Answer:
Rubber tube.
Rubber tube is a non-magnetic substance, others are magnetic substances.

Samacheer Kalvi Guide 6th Science Question 2.
Lift, escalator, electromagnetic train, electric bulb.
Answer:
Electric bulb.
Electric bulb does not have magnets others have electromagnets.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Question 3.
Attraction, repulsion, pointing direction, illumination.
Answer:
Illumination
Illumination is not a property of magnet, others are magnetic properties.

VI. The following diagrams show two magnets near one another. Use the words, ‘Attract, Repel, Turn around’ to describe what happens in each case.

Answer:
a. Unlike poles attract one another.
b. Like poles repel each other.
c. Unlike poles attract one another.
d. Perpendicular poles turn around and attract one another.
e. Like poles repel each other.
f. Perpendicular poles turn around and attract one another.

VII. Write down the names of substances :

Answer:

VIII. Give Short Answer:

6th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.
Explain the attraction and repulsion between magnetic poles.
Answer:

1. Like poles (N – N, S – S) repel each other.
2. Unlike poles (N – S, S – N) attract each other.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Question 2.
A student who checked some magnets in the school laboratory found out that their magnetic force is worn out. Give three reasons for that?
Answer:
Magnets lose their properties if they are:

1. heated
2. dropped from a height
3. hit with a hammer

These are the reasons for that their magnetic force is worn out.

IX. Answer in detail:

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Science Question 1.
You are provided with an iron needle. How will you magnetize it?
Answer:

1. Place the iron needle on the table.
2. Take a bar magnet and place one of its poles near one edge of the iron needle.
3. Rub from one end to another without changing the direction of the pole of the magnet.
4. Repeat the process for 30 to 40 times. The needle will be magnetized.
5. If it will not attract pin or iron fillings continue the same process for some more time.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Third Term Question 2.
How does an electromagnetic train work?
Answer:

1. Electromagnets are used in Electromagnetic train.
2. Electromagnets are magnetised only when current flows through them.
3. When the direction of current is changed, the poles of the electromagnets are also changed.
4. Like poles of the magnets which are attached at the bottom of the train and rai l track repel each other.
5. So, the train is lifted from the track up to a height of 10 cm.
6. We know that we can move any magnetic object with the force of attraction or repulsion properties of magnets.
7. This train also moves with the help of the magnets attached on the sides of track and the magnets fitted at the bottom sideway of the train.
8. By controlling the current, we can control the magnets and movement of the train.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
You are provided with iron filings and a bar magnet without labelling the poles of the magnet. Using this.

1. How will you identify the poles of the magnet?
2. Which part of the bar magnet attracts more iron filings? Why?

Answer:

1. When we place the bar magnet in iron fillings large amount of iron fillings stick on the two ends of the bar magnet. These ends are poles of the magnet.
2. Poles will attract more iron filings. Because poles have high magnetic strength.

Question 2.
Two bar magnets are given in the figure A and B. By the property of attraction, identify the North pole and the South pole in the bar magnet (B)

Answer:
The Fig -A has S and N poles.
In the Fig -B magnet, nearer to the North pole of Fig-A is South pole and the next pole is North pole.

Question 3.
Take a glass of water with a few pins inside. How will you take out the pins without dipping your hands into the water?
Answer:
If we keep a strong bar magnet above the glass of water, all pins inside the water come up and attract the magnet.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Take a magnet. Take the magnet Closer to the objects surrounding you.
What happens? Observe and note.
i. The objects attracted by the magnet: ______________
ii. The objects, not attracted by the magnet: ______________
iii. Which substance is used to make the objects attracted by the magnet? ______________
Answer:
i. The objects attracted by the magnet: irons nail, iron rod, pins, needle, key, iron filings.
ii. The objects, not attracted by the magnets: rubber, paper, plastic pen, scale, pencil, water bottle.
iii. Which substance is used to make the objects attracted by the magnet?
Iron is used to make the objects attracted by the magnet.

Activity 2

LET US MAKE MAGNETS

Take a nail / a piece of Iron and place it on a table. Now take a bar magnet and place one of its poles near one edge of the nail/piece of Iron and rub from one end to another end without changing the direction of the pole of the magnet. Repeat the process for 30 to 40 times.

Bring a pin or some iron filings near the nail/piece of Iron to check whether it has become a magnet. Does the nail/piece of iron attract the pin/iron filings? If not, continue the same process for some more time.
Answer:
Yes, The nail / a piece of Iron acquires the same ability to attract other pieces of pin/ iron filings.

Activity 3

Make your own magnetic compass

Insert the magnetized needle, that you made in the activity 2, in to two styrofoam balls and place the needle in bowl of water. Test whether the floating needle is always turned in rest on north-south direction.

Note : If you don’t have styrofoam balls you can use dry leaf or a cork piece.

Inference: The floating needle is always turned in nest on North-South direction.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Magnetism Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ made objects are attracted by magnets.
(a) Plastic
(b) Iron
(c) Glass
(d) Wax
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 2.
Magnets lose their property if they
(a) heated
(b) dropped from a height
(c) hit with hammer
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 3.
_______ poles repel to each other.
i. N – N
ii. N – S
iii. S – N
iv. S – S
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv
Answer:
(d) i and iv

Question 4.
When N pole of bar magnet is moved closer to the north pole of a magnet it will
(a) attract
(b) repel
(c) rotate
(d) none
Answer:
(b) repel

Question 5.
Electro magnetic trains can easily attain a speed of _______ km per hour.
(a) 1200
(b) 600
(c) 100
(d) 800
Answer:
(b) 600

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. The magnetic Ore is called as _______
2. _______ magnets do not have a definite shape.
3. Man-made magnets are called _______ magnets.
4. A _______ is an instrument which is used to find directions.
5. _______ will also get affected by magnetic field.
6. For a _______ magnet a single piece of soft iron can be used as a magnetic keeper across the pole.

Answer:

1. magnetite
2. Natural
3. Artificial
4. compass
5. Cell phone
6. horse-shoe

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Magnetites are artificial magnets.
Answer:
False. Magnetites are natural magnets.

Question 2.
Cube shaped magnets are also available.
Answer:
False. Oval shaped, Disc shaped, Cylindrical shaped magnets are also available.

Question 3.
Substancess which are attracted by magnet are called non-magnetic substance.
Answer:
False. Substances which are attracted by magnets are called magnetic substance.

Question 4.
The end of the magnet that points to the north is called south pole.
Answer:
False. The end point of the magnet that points to the south is called south pole.

Question 5.
The compass has a magnetic needle that can rotate easily.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Magnets lose their properties if they are dropped from a height.
Ans:
True.

Question 7.
Proper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties.
Answer:
False. Improper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties.

Question 8.
Electro magnetic train is also called as flying train.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

Answer:
I – f
II – d
III – e
IV – b
V – c
VI – a.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Natural magnet: Magnetic stones.
Artificial magnet: _________
Answer:
Bar magnet.

Question 2.
Magnetic substance : Attracted by magnets
Non magnetic substance : _________
Answer:
Not attracted by magnets.

Question 3.
Repel to each other: Like poles.
Attract to each other : _________
Answer:
Unlike poles.

Question 4.
Demagnetisation : _________
Making magnets: Rubbing with one end to another end without changing direction.
Answer:
Hit with hammer

Question 5.
Electromagnet: Magnetic crane.
Ordinary magnet: _________
Answer:
Mobile phone covers.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give the different shapes of Artificial magnets.
Answer:

1. Bar magnet
2. Horseshoe magnet
3. Ring magnet
4. Needle magnet
5. Oval shape magnet
6. Disc shape magnet
7. Cylindrical shape magnet.

Question 2.
Differentiate magnetic and non-magnetic substance.
Answer:
Magnetic substance:

1. It is attracted by magnets
2. Ex: Iron, Cobalt, Nickel

Non-magnetic substance:

1. It is not attracted by magnets
2. Ex: Paper, Plastic, Glass

Question 3.
Define – Poles of a magnet.
Answer:
The attractive force of the magnet is very large near the two ends. These two ends are called poles of a magnet.

Question 4.
Give the properties of magnets.
Answer:

1. Like poles repel each other.
2. Unlike poles attract each other.

Question 5.
What are the objects affected by magnetic field?
Answer:
Cellphone, Computer and DVD are the objects affected by magnetic field.

Question 6.
Give any two tips to store bar magnets.
Answer:

1. Bar magnet should be kept in pairs with their unlike poles on the same side.
2. They must be seperated by a piece of wood and two pieces of soft iron should be placed across their ends.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Give the uses of magnets.
Answer:

1. Magnets are used in speakers to power up.
2. Magnets are used in Ladies hand bags, Pencil boxes etc., to make a tight seal.
3. Magnets are also used in some door locks.
4. In home, magnets are used as magnetic toys, magnetic smiley stickers, magnetic Alphabet stickers to stick on the refrigerators.
5. Magnets are used to store data in computers.

Question 2.
How will you make levitating propeller?
Answer:
1. Make a propeller from a 500-ml plastic bottle. Make a hole in the bottle lid.

2. Screw the lid with the hole on a bottle half filled with sand. Press fit a stiff straw in the lid. Embed the straw in the sand to make it stand erect. Place a few ring magnets in the straw. Similar poles will repel each other.

3. Place two magnets each inside and outside the propellor lid. These magnets will automatically stick to each other.

4. Like poles repel and this levitates the bottle fan. The ceiling fan makes it spin.

5. Place the propeller on the stiff straw. The magnets in the straw and the propeller should repel each other. This will make the propeller levitate. On placing it under a ceiling fan the propeller will spin very fast.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Health and Hygiene

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 1.
Our body needs _______ for muscle-building.
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Fat
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Protein

Health And Hygiene Class 6 Questions And Answers Samacheer Question 2.
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of ………..
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin C

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 3.
Calcium is an example of a _______
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Fat
(c) Protein
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(d) Minerals

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Question 4.
We should include fruits and vegetables in our diet, because ……….
(a) They are the best source of Carbohydrates.
(b) They are the best source of Proteins.
(c) They are rich in minerals and vitamins.
(d) They have high water content.
Answer:
(c) They are rich in minerals and vitamins.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 5.
Bacteria are very small _______ microorganism.
(a) Prokaryotic
(b) Eukaryotic
(c) Protozoa
(d) Acellular
Answer:
(a) Prokaryotic

II. True or false

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
There are three main nutrients present in food.
Answer:
False. There are six main nutrients present in food.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Fats are used as an energy store by our body.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi Science 6th Standard Question 3.
All bacteria have flagella.
Answer:
False. Not all bacteria have flagella only, some bacteria have flagella.

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Science Question 4.
Iron helps in the formation of haemoglobin.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solution Question 5.
Virus can grow and multiply outside host.
Answer:
False. Virus can grow and multiply inside host.

III. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Malnutrition leads to _______
2. Iodine deficiency leads to _______ in adults.
3. Vitamin D deficiency causes _______.
4. Typhoid is transmitted due to contamination of _______ and water.
5. Influenza is a _______ disease.

Answers:

1. deficiency disease
2. goitre
3. Rickets
4. food
5. viral (virus)

IV. Complete the Analogy.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Question 1.
Rice: Carbohydrate :: Pulses: _______
Answer:
Protein.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Question 2.
Vitamin D : Rickets :: Vitamin C: _______
Answer:
Scurvy.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Question 3.
Iodine: Goitre :: Iron: _______
Answer:
Anaemia.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 6 Science Solutions Question 4.
Cholera: Bacteria :: Smallpox: _______
Answer:
Virus.

V. Match the following

1. Vitamin A – Rickets
2. Vitamin B – Night blindness
3. Vitamin C – Sterility
4. Vitamin D – Beriberi
5. Vitamin E – Scurvy

Answer:

1. Vitamin A – Night blindness
2. Vitamin B – Beri beri
3. Vitamin C – Scurvy
4. Vitamin D – Rickets
5. Vitamin E – Sterility

VI. Complete the diagram

Question:

Answer:

VII. Write a Short Answer.

Samacheer Kalvi Science 6th Question 1.
Write two examples for each of the following.
Answer:
(a) Food items were rich in fat – Egg yolk, meat.
(b) Vitamin deficiency – diseases.
(c) Vitamin C – Scurvy
(d) Vitamin D – Rickets.

6th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 2.
Differentiate between carbohydrate and protein.
Answer:
Carbohydrate:

1. Energy giving component of the food.
2. The sources of carbohydrate are nuts, fruits, rice and maize.

Protein:

1. It is body building foods.
2. The sources of proteins are pulses, soyabean, nuts, egg, and fish.

6th Standard Science Question 3.
Define the term ‘balanced diet’?
Answer:
A balanced diet is a diet which contains an adequate amount of all the necessary nutrients like carbohydrate fat protein minerals and vitamins required for healthy growth and activity.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Question 4.
Why should the fruits and vegetables not to be washed after cutting?
Answer:
We should not wash the fruits and vegetables after cutting, because the minerals and protein in the fruits and vegetables will also be washed away.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Solutions Question 5.
Write any two viral diseases.
Answer:

1. AIDS
2. Hepatitis.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 6.
What is the main feature of a microorganism?
Answer:
Microorganism will be seen with the help of microscope. They are very small in size.

VIII. Long Answer.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Standard Science Question 1.
Tabulate the vitamins and their corresponding deficiency diseases.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Intext Activities

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Guide Activity 1

Identify the following food items and complete the table given below.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6 Science Question 1.
Do your favorite foods make you healthy?
Answer:
Some of my favorite foods make me healthy.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 2.
Do you choose your food by taste or by its nutritive value?
Answer:
I choose my food by taste and also by its nutritive value.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Guide Activity 2
Collect as many food items as you can and classify them according to the major nutrient content in it.
Answer:

Activity 3
Aim: To test the presence of Carbohydrate as Starch in the given food item.

Question 1.
What do you need?
Answer:
Boiled potato, dropper and dilute Iodine solution.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Smash the boiled potato. Add two or three drops of dilute Iodine solution on the Sample.

Question 3.
What do you observe?
Answer:
The potato turns blue-black in colour.

Question 4.
What do you infer?
Answer:
Iodine reacts with Starch to form Starch-Iodine complex which is blueblack in colour. Thus, the appearance of blue-black colour confirms the presence of Starch in the food item.

Activity 4
Aim: To test the presence of Fat in the given food item.

Question 1.
What do you need?
Answer:
Coconut Oil, groundnut oil, and any Paper.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Pour few drops of oil onto the paper and rub it gently with your finger. In case of ground nut, crush the groundnut and place it on a paper. Now rub the groundnut on the paper.

Question 3.
What do you see?
Answer:
The paper turns translucent and becomes greasy.

Question 4.
What do you learn?
Answer:
The given food sample contains fat.

Activity 5
Aim: To test the presence of Protein in the given food item.

Question 1.
What do you need?
Answer:
Egg white, Copper sulphate solution, Sodium hydroxide, Test tube and Bunsen burner.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Take a small amount of the food sample (egg white) and put in the test tube. Add some water to the test tube and shake it. Next, heat the test tube for about one minute. After the test tube has cooled down, add two drops each of Copper sulphate solution and Sodium hydroxide to it.

Question 3.
What do you see?
Answer:
The food sample turns purple or violet.

Question 4.
What do you learn?
Answer:
Change in colour of the given food sample turns purple or violet confirms the presence of Protein.

Just Think

A medical camp was conducted in School. Most of the children were healthy. Some of the students had some health issues
Priya had bleeding gums.
Raja could not see clearly in dim light.
Arun had bent legs .
Can you guess what could be the reasons?

• Priya was affected by Vitamin ‘C’ deficiency. So she had bleeding gums.
• Raja was affected by vitamin ‘A’ deficiency. So he could not see clearly in dim light.
• Arun was affected by vitamin ‘D’ deficiency. So he had bent legs.

Activity 6

Question 1.
Make your food little healthier. What do you need?
Answer:
A small cup of green gram seeds, Water and thin cloth.

Question 2.
How to do?
Answer:
Soak the green gram seeds in water over night. Take out the seeds and strain the water. Wrap the seeds in wet thin cloth. Keep it for a day or two. Sprinkle some water whenever it is dry.

Question 3.
What do you see?
Answer:
You can see white sprouts coming out of the seeds.

Question 4.
What do you learn?
Answer:
Green gram sprouts are low in calories, have fibre and Vitamin B. It has comparatively high amount of vitamin C and vitamin K.

Complete the following Table – 4

Answer:

Activity 7

Question:
Why do we need a balanced diet?
Prepare a diet chart to provide balanced diet to a 12 year old child. The diet chart should include food item which are not expensive and are commonly available in your area.
Answer:
We need a balanced diet because,
a balanced diet contains sufficient amount of various nutrients to ensure good health.
Balance diet for 12 year old boy / girl.

Activity 8

Question:
Visit a nearby Anganwadi centre and find the steps taken by the government to overcome malnutrition and ensure health in the age group 0-5 years.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 9

One day Rahim, a class six boy vomited three times. He was looking tired and dehydrated. His mother who was a nurse prepared a solution and gave it to him drink. He felt better after sometime and asked his mother what the solution was. His mother said it was Oral Rehydration Solution – ORS. Shall we see what an ORS is? Vomiting or loose motions result in loss of water and cause salt imbalance in the body. Loss of water (dehydration) can lead to serious problems. This can be prevented by consuming ORS at short intervals.

Follow the steps to make ORS at home:

• Take a litre of boiled water. Cool it.
• Add half a teaspoon of salt and six teaspoons of sugar to it.
• You can also add a few drops of lemon juice to it. Stir it and give it to the person suffering from vomiting, loose motions or dehydration.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Discuss in your class room
“Is virus a living thing or non living thing?”
Answer:
Viruse is a non-living thing.

Reasons:

1. Virus is an a cellular, meaning it lacks a cell membrane.
2. It is an obligate parasite. It requires a host cell to reproduce.
3. It lacks an energy-generating system. It cannot produce its own energy.
4. It cannot perform metabolic activities.
5. Viruses are not composed of cells and do not reproduce themselves from other pre-existing viruses.
6. The genetic material (DNA or RNA) inside the virus invades the living host cell, and causes the cell to replicate virus parts and assemble them to make new viruses, which are released to infect more cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Health and Hygiene Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
_______ provides more energy than Carbohydrates.
(a) Fat
(b) Vitamin
(c) Protein
(d) Water
Answer:
(a) Fat

Question 2.
Name the vitamin which is rich in Gooseberry.
(a) C
(b) E
(c) B
(d) D
Answer:
(c) B

Question 3.
Among the Vitamins, which one is the water soluble Vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(e) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B

Question 4.
Name the vitamin present in Muringa leaves
(a) A and B
(b) C and D
(c) K and A
(d) A and C
Answer:
(d) A and C

Question 5.
_______ is made in our skin using sunlight.
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin B
Answer:
(a) Vitamin D

Question 6.
_______ are required for growth as well as for the regulation of normal body function.
(a) Fats
(b) Proteins
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(d) Minerals

Question 7.
80% of the world production of Moringa leaves is in _______
(a) China
(b) Germany
(c) India
(d) Canada
Answer:
(c) India

Question 8.
Any human being should take minimum _______ of water every day.
(a) 2 litres
(b) 3 litres
(c) 8 litres
(d) 6 litres
Answer:
(a) 2 litres

Question 9.
_______ is the bacterial disease and it transmits through contamination of wounds, with the bacteria.
(a) Cholera
(b) Tetanus
(c) Typhoid
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(b) Tetanus

Question 10.
_______ is a cellular agent that replicates only inside the cells of the other living organism.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Protozoa
(c) Fungi
(d) Virus
Answer:
(d) Virus

Il. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
We can obtain Carbohydrates in the form of _______
Answer:
Sugar, Starch, Dietary Fibers

Question 2.
Vitamins are called as _______ food.
Answer:
Protective

Question 3.
The vitamins A, D, E, K are _______ soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Fat

Question 4.
_______ is a disease, due to the deficiency of Vitamin E.
Answer:
Nervous Weakness

Question 5.
Moringa leaves contains powerful anti _______
Answer:
Oxidantsl

Question 6.
Skinny appearance and slow body growth are the symptoms of _______ disease.
Answer:
Marasmusl

Question 7.
_______ is strengthening muscles and the cardiovascular system.
Answer:
Physical exercisel

Question 8.
_______ can kill damage or change the cells and make you sick.
Answer:
Virus

Question 9.
Sun screen lotion reduces your skin’s ability to produce _______ by up to 95%.
Answer:
Vitamin D

Question 10.
Goose bernes contain nearly _______ the vitamin C than orange.
Answer:
20 times

Question 11.
India has the _______ highest number of obese children ¡n the world.
Answer:
Second

III. True of false. If false give the correct answer.

Question 1.
Minerals are required for carrying out various biochemical reactions in our body.
Answer:
False. Vitamins are required for carrying out various biochemical reactions in our body.

Question 2.
Night blindness is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin A.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Vitamin D abundantly found in orange and gooseberry.
Answer:
False. Vitamin C abundantly found in orange and gooseberry.

Question 4.
Sun screen lotion reduces ability to produce Vitamin D. It leads to Vitamin D deficiency diseases.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Iodine maintains strong bones, teeth and helps in clotting of blood.
Answer:
False. Calcium maintains strong bones, teeth and helps in clotting of blood.

Question 6.
Moringa leaves are rich in the minerals potassium, calcium and iron.
Answer:
True.

IV. Complete the Analogy

Question 1.
Polio : Virus :: Tetanus : _______
Answer:
Bacteria

Question 2.
_______ : Diarrhoea:: Marasmus: Slow body growth.
Answer:
Kwashiorkar

Question 3.
Synthesis of thyroid harmone: Iodine:: Formation of haeniogiobin: _______
Answer:
Iron

Question 4.
Fish oil : Vitamin D :: Vegetable oil : _______
Answer:
Vitamin II

Question 5.
Vitamin K : Clotting of blood :: Vitamin E : _______
Answer:
Fertility

Question 6.
Protein: Soya bean:: Fat: _______
Answer:
Meat

V. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Carbohydrate – (a) Carrying out various biochemical reactions
2. Proteins – (b) Regulation of normal body function
3. Vitamins – (c) energy giving component
4. Minerals – (d) Body building food

Answer:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b

Question 2.

Answer:

1. – d
2. – e
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Complete the diagram

Answer:
A – Exercise
B – Yoga.

VII. Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define homeostasis.
Answer:
It is to maintain a stable equilibrium of body in accordance with the pressures and changes of body environment.

Question 2.
What are the nutrients obtained from food?
Answer:

1. Carbohydrate
2. Proteins
3. Fats
4. Vitamins
5. Minerals
6. Water.

Question 3.
What is meant by deficiency diseases?
Answer:
The diseases that are caused due to lack of nutrients in the diet are called deficiency diseases.

Question 4.
Sun Screen lotion is not good for our health. Justify.
Answer:
Sun Screen lotion reduces our skin’s ability to produce vitamin D upto 95%. It may lead to Vitamin D deficiency. So it not for good our health.

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks.
A – Calcium – Rickets
Phosphorus – …………
Answer:
Osteomalacia

B – Iodine – cretinism
Iron – ………….
Answer:
anaemia

Question 6.
What are the nutrients present in Moringa leaves?
Answer:
Moringa leaves are rich in Vitamin A, Vitamin C, Potassium, Calcium, Iron and Protein. It also contains powerful anti-oxidants.

Question 7.
How does Balanced diet help in our body?
Answer:
Balanced diet helps in our body, in the following ways :

1. An increased capacity to work
2. Good physical and mental health
3. Increased capacity to resist diseases.
4. Help in proper growth of the body.

Question 8.
Give some mineral deficiency diseases.
Answer:
Rickets, Osteomalatia, Cretinism in Child, Goitre in adult, Anaemia are the mineral deficiency diseases.

Question 9.
How does Physical exercise help us?
Answer:
Physical exercise helps us in the following ways:

1. increase in growth and development
2. strengthening muscles and the cardiovascular system
3. developing athletic skills
4. weight loss or maintenance, and enjoyment.

Question 10.
How are the following bacterial diseases transmitted?
(i) Cholera
(ii) Tetanus
(iii) Typhoid
(iv) Tuberculosis
Answer:

Question 11.
Name the countries which import Moringa leaves.
Answer:
China, United States, German, Canada, South Korea and European Countries import Moringa leaves.

Question 12.
Define health.
Answer:
Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely absence of diseases. Eating a healthy diet keeps us physically and mentally fit.

Question 13.
Name the four major groups of Microbes.
Answer:
Microbes divided into four major groups. They are

• Bacteria
• Virus
• Protozoa
• Fungi

Question 14.
Define Disease.
Answer:
Disease is a definite pathological process having a characteristic set of signs and symptoms.

Question 15.
What is a Retrovirus?
Answer:
A Virus that contains R.N.A. instead of D.N.A. is called a Retrovirus.

VIII. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Fill in the Table :

Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Measurements Ex 2.2

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Term 2 Question 1.
Say the time in two ways:

Solution:
(i) 10 : 15 hours; quarter past 10; 45 minutes to 11
(ii) 6 : 45 hours; quarter to 7; 45 minutes past 6
(iii) 4 : 10 hours; 10 minutes past 4; 50 minutes to 5
(iv) 3 : 30 hours; half-past 3; 30 minutes to 4
(v) 9 : 40 hours; 20 minutes to 10; 40 minutes past 9.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Term 2 Question 2.
Match the following:
(i) 9.55 – (a) 20 minutes past 2
(ii) 11.50 – (b) quarter past 4
(iii) 4.15 – (c) quarter to 8
(iv) 7.45 – (d) 5 minutes to 10
(v) 2.20 – (e) 10 minutes to 1?
Solution:
(i) 9.55 – (d) 5 minutes to 10
(ii) 11.50 – (e) 10 minutes to 12
(iii) 4.15 – (b) quarter past 4
(iv) 7.45 – (c) quarter to 8
(v) 2.20 – (a) 20 minutes past 2

6th Maths Guide Term 2 Question 3.
Convert the following :
(i) 20 minutes into seconds
(ii) 5 hours 35 minutes 40 seconds into seconds
(iii) 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours into minutes
(iv) 580 minutes into hours
(v) 25200 seconds into hours
Solution:
(i) 20 minutes into seconds
20 minutes = 20 × 60 seconds = 1200 seconds
(ii) 5 hours 35 minutes 40 seconds into seconds

∴ 5 hours 35 minutes 40 seconds = 20,140 seconds
(iii) 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours into minutes
3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours = 3 hours 30 minutes
= 3 × 60 minutes + 30 minutes
= 180 minutes + 30 minutes
= 210 minutes
∴ 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours = 210 minutes
(iv) 5580 minutes into hours
580 minutes = \(\frac{580}{60}\) hours = 9 hours 40 minutes
∴ 580 minutes = 9 hours 40 minutes
(v) 25200 seconds into hours
25200 seconds = \(\frac{25200}{60}\) minutes = 420 minutes = \(\frac{420}{60}\) hours = 7 hours
∴ 25200 seconds = 7 hours

Samacheer Kalvi Term 2 Question 4.
The duration of electricity consumed by the farmer for his pumpset on Monday and Tuesday was 7 hours 20 minutes 35 seconds and 3 hours 44 minutes 50 seconds respectively. Find the total duration of consumption of electricity.
Solution:
Total duration of electricity consumed on both the days
= 7 hours 20 min 35 sec + 3 hours 44 min 50 sec
= (7 + 3) hours (20 + 44) min (35 + 50) sec
= 10 hours 64 min 85 seconds
= 11 hours 5 min 25 seconds

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Question 5.
Subtract 10 hrs 20 min 35 sec from 12 hrs 18 min 40 sec.
Solution:

1 hour 58 minutes 05 seconds

6th Standard Maths Exercise 2.2 Question 6.
Change the following into 12 hour format:
(i) 02 : 00 hours
(ii) 08 : 45 hours
(iii) 21 : 10 hours
(iv) 11 : 20 hours
(v) 00 : 00 hours
Solution:

Term 2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
Change the following into 24 hour format.
(i) 3.15 a.m.
(ii) 12.35 p.m.
(iii) 12.00 noon
(iv) 12.00 midnight.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Guide Term 2 Question 8.
Calculate the duration of time.
(i) from 5.30 a.m to 12.40 p.m
(ii) from 1.30 p.m to 10.25 p.m
(iii) from 20:00 hours to 4:00 hours
(iv) from 17:00 hours to 5 :15 hours
Solution:
(i) from 5.30 a.m. to 12 .40 p.m.
Duration of time from 5.30 a.m. to noon = 12 : 00 – 5 : 30 = 6 : 30 i.e 6 hours 30 minutes
From noon to 12.40 p.m the duration = 00 hours 40 minutes
Total duration = 6 hours 30 minutes + 00 hours 40 minutes
= 6 hours 70 minutes
= 6 hours + (60 + 10) minutes
= 6 hours + 1 hr 10 minutes
= 7 hours 10 minutes
∴ Duration of time from 5.30 am to 12.40 pm = 7 hours 10 minutes
(ii) from 1.30 pm to 10.25 p.m.

(iii) from 20 : 00 hrs to 4 : 00 hrs.

(iv) from 17 : 00 hours to 5 : 15 hours.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Question 9.
The departure and arrival timing of the Vaigai Superfast Express (No. 12635) from Chennai Egmore to Madurai Junction are given. Read the details and answer the following.

(i) At what time does the Vaigai Express start from Chennai and arrive at Madurai?
(ii) How many halts are between there Chennai and Madurai?
(iii) How long does the train halt at the Villupuram junction?
(iv) At what time does the train come to Sholavandan?
(v) Find the journey time from Chennai Egmore to Madurai?
Solution:
(i) It starts from Chennai at 13 : 40 hrs and arrive at Madurai at 21 : 20 hrs.
(ii) There are 8 halts.
(iii) Departure from Villupuram = 15 hours 55 minutes
Arrival at Villupuram = 15 hours 50 minutes
The train halt at Villupuram for = 05 minutes
(iv) At 20 : 34 hours the train come to Sholavandan
(v) Arrival time at Madurai = 20 hours 80 (20 + 60) minutes
Departure time from Chennai Egmore = 13 hours 40 minutes
Journey Time = 07 hours 40 minutes

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Maths Question 10.
Manickam joined a chess class on 20.02.2017 and due to exam, he left practice after 20 days. Again he continued practice from 10.07.2017 to 31.03.2018. Calculate how many days did he practice?
Solution:
From the date of joining = 20 days From 10.07.2017 to 31.03.2018
July – 22
Aug – 31
Sep – 30
Oct – 31
Nov – 30
Dec – 31
Jan – 31
Feb – 28
Mar – 31
Total – 265
Total no of practice days = 265 + 20 = 285 days

Class 6 Maths Chapter 2 Exercise 2.2 Solutions Question 11.
A clock gains 3 minutes every hour. If the clock is set correctly at 5 a.m, find the time shown by the clock at 7 p.m?
Solution:
5 a.m. = 5.00 hours
7 p.m = 19.00 hours
Difference = 19.00 – 5.00 = 14.00 hours
Time gain = 14 × 3 = 42 minutes
Time shown by the clock = 7.42 p.m

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Question 12.
Find the number of days between the republic day and kalvi valarchi day in 2020.
Solution:
2020 is a leap year republic day – 26.01.2020
Kalvi valarchi day – 15.07.2020
Jan – 5
Feb – 29
Mar – 31
April – 30
May – 31
June – 30
July – 14
Total – 170 days

6th Class Maths Exercise 2.2 Question 13.
If 11th of January 2018 is Thursday, what is the day on 20th July of the same year?
Solution:
January – 21 Days (31 – 10)
February – 28 Days
March – 31 Days
April – 30 Days
May – 31 Days
June – 30 Days
July – 19 Days
Total – 190 Days
190 days ÷ 7
190 days = 27 weeks + 1 day
Required day is the first day after Thursday.
∴ 20th of July is Friday.

Samacheer Kalvi Maths 6th Question 14.
(i) Convert 480 days into years
(ii) Convert 38 months into years
Solution:
(i) 480 days = \(\frac{480}{365}\)
= 1 year 115 days
= 1 year 3 months 25 days

(ii) 38 months = \(\frac{38}{12}\)
= 3 years 2 months

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Maths Term 2 Question 15.
Calculate your age as on 01.06.2018
Solution:

Age is 12 years 2 months

Objective Type Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solution Question 16.
2 days = …….. hours
(i) 38
(ii) 48
(iii) 28
(iv) 40
Solution:
(ii) 48

Samacheer Kalvi Class 6 Maths Solutions Question 17.
3 weeks = _____ days.
(a) 21
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 28
Solution:
(a) 21

Question 18.
Number of ordinary years between two consecutive leap years is
(i) 4 years
(ii) 2 years
(iii) 1 year
(iv) 3 years
Solution:
(iv) 3 years

Question 19.
What time will it 5 hours after 22 : 35 hours?
(a) 2 : 30 hrs
(b) 3 : 35 hrs
(c) 4 : 35 hrs
(d) 5 : 35 hrs
Solution:
(b) 3 : 35 hrs

Question 20.
2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) years is equal to months.
(i) 25
(ii) 30
(iii) 24
(iv) 5
Solution:
(ii) 30

Students can Download English Poem 2 A Tragic Story A Memoir Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 2 A Tragic Story

A Tragic Story Poem Summary Poem Overview

A. Answer the following.

A Tragic Story Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
What made the sage upset?
Answer:
The sage was upset, as his pigtail hung behind him.

The Tragic Story Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why did the sage spin all day?
Answer:
He spinned continually all day to change the position of his pigtail.

A Tragic Story Question 3.
What solution did he arrive at for the mystery that he found?
Answer:
He thought that if turned him round, he can change the position of his pigtail.

The Tragic Story Poem Summary In English Question 4.
Was he finally successful in changing his pigtail’s position? Support your answer with a line from the poem.
Answer:
No, he was not successful in changing his pigtail’s position. The line ‘Still faithful to his back, the pigtail hangs behind him’ supports this answer.

The Tragic Story Class 4 Question Answer Question 5.
Did something dreadful happen? How would you describe the events in the poem- comedy or tragedy?
Answer:
No, nothing dreadful happened. The events in the poem are humorous. The illogical behaviour of the sage creates humour throughout the poem.

B. Read the poem lines and answer the questions given below.

1. But wondered much and sorrowed more
Because it hung behind him.

Tragic Story Poem Summary Question a.
What was he wondering about?
Answer:
He was wondering about why his pigtail is behind him and how to change its position.

The Tragic Story Question b.
What does the word ‘it’ refer to here?
Answer:
It refers to the pigtail.

2. And though his efforts never slack
And though he twist, and twirl, and tack,
Alas! Still faithful to his back
The pigtail hangs behind him.

A Tragic Story Poem Lesson Plan Question a.
Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines and give the rhyme scheme for the same.
Answer:
The rhyming words are slack – tack – back. The rhyming scheme for this stanza is ‘a a a b’.

A Tragic Story Poem Pdf Question b.
Did he quit his trying? How can you say?
Answer:
No, he did not quit his trying. The lines ‘Though his efforts never slack and though he twist and twirl and tack’ indicate that he kept on trying.

3. ‘He mused upon this curious case ’

A Tragic Story Poem Question a.
What is the figure of speech used in this line?
Answer:
The figure of speech used here is hyperbole, as it exaggerates a simple foolish thing of changing the position of his pigtail to a curious case.

4. Irony is a figure of speech in which words are used in such a way that their intended meaning is different from the actual meaning. It may also be a situation that ends up in quite a different way than what is generally anticipated. In simple words, it is a difference between appearance and reality.

Can this poem be called an ironic poem? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, this poem is an ironic poem because the word ‘sage’ is used in an ironic sense to refer to a person who is dull witted. It insists on how learned men lack practical common sense.

C. Fill in the table with the appropriate poem lines. A few lines may be used more than one time.

D. The summary of the poem is given. But there are some words missing. Fill in the blanks with the help of the box given below.

faithfully, change, pigtail, round, sage, down, slack, out, hung, place, behind, wain, face

Once upon a time there lived a sage. He had a handsome pigtail. He was worried and pondered over his pigtail’s place. He wanted to change its place. He wanted it hanging at his face. He didn’t like it hanging there behind him. So he turned right and left and round about, up and down, and in and out but it still hung behind him. However he tried, his efforts were in vain. But he didn’t slack in his efforts. Nevertheless his pigtail hung faithfully behind him.

E. Role Play.

Work with a partner. Let one student read the poem and the other to pantomime (communication by means of gesture and -facial expression) the poem as he or she reads.
(To be done by the students)

A Tragic Story Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension and Poetic Devices.

1. ‘There lived a sage in days of yore,
And he a handsome pigtail wore ’.

The Tragic Story Poem Summary In Hindi Question a.
Who lived long ago?
Answer:
A sage lived long ago.

Tragic Story Poem Question b.
What did he have?
Answer:
He had a beautiful pigtail.

The Tragic Story Poem Question c.
Pick out the rhyming words in these lines.
Answer:
The rhyming words are ‘yore – wore’.

2. ‘And swore he’d change the pigtail s place,
And have it hanging at his face
Not dangling there behind him.

Question a.
What did the sage swear?
Answer:
He swore that he would change his pigtail’s place.

Question b.
Where did he wants to have it?
Answer:
He wanted to have it hanging at his face.

Question c.
Pick out the alliterated words in these lines.
Answer:
The alliterated words are:
(1) pigtail’s – place
(2) have – hanging – his

3. ‘Then round and round, and out and in
All day the puzzled sage did spin;
In vain – it mattered not a pin
The pigtail hung behind him.

Question a.
What did the sage do?
Answer:
He turned round and round, out and in all day.

Question b.
Why was the sage puzzled?
Answer:
He was puzzled because he could not change the position of his pigtail, even though he turned round and round all day.

Question c.
What Is the rhyme scheme of the poem?
Answer:
The rhyme scheme is ‘a a a b’.

4. ‘Alas! Still faithful to his back’.

Question a.
Who Is faithful?
Answer:
The pigtail is faithful.

Question b.
Why did the poet use the word Alas’?
Answer:
He criticizes the sage’s ignorance and pities him in a serious tone, using the word ‘Alas’.

Question c.
Whose bag is referred to here?
Answer:
The back of the sage is referred to here.

II. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What makes the poem humorous?
Answer:
The antics of the sage, usage of mock serious tone, absurdity of the sage’s ‘curious case’ and his solution, the way the poet organizes his materials and arranges the sentence structures makes the poem humorous. The repetition of the last line of each stanza add humour to the poem because it always brings to focus how the pigtail mocks at the sage’s efforts by stubbornly remaining behind him. The ending of the poem indicates the readers that the sage didn’t stop his rotation, although it is useless. This also gives a humorous touch to the poem.

Question 2.
What is the theme of the poem and what message does the poet convey?
Answer:
The theme of the poem is ‘when men are too learned or too wise, they lose the sight of reality. Sages are considered more wise. The irony of the poem is that the sage shows total foolishness. The poet uses the words in old English such as ‘sage’, ‘yore’, ‘mused’ to emphasize that right from the olden days, the highly learned people are too foolish and irrational. He attacks them as people, who do not have practical common sense. He also conveys a message to the readers to be alert and thoughtful and always act in a meaningful manner.

A Tragic Story Summary

The poem ‘A tragic story’ written by William Makepeace Thackeray is a humorous poem which revolves around a foolish act done by a sage. Throughout the poem, the poet laughs at this wise man, who does not have any practical knowledge, but uses his theatrical knowledge and does foolish things.

The poet narrates us about a sage, who lived in the past with a beautiful pigtail. He was worried about his pigtail, being hung behind him. He thought about this for a long time and swore that he would change the pigtail’s place, which is apparently impossible and funny.

He would like to have it at his face and not dangling there behind him. This small thing is a serious problem for this wise man. He said that he had found a solution to change the position of his pigtail. So he turned him round continuously without stopping, throughout the day. He turned in different directions – he turned right and left, out and in, up and down. But the pigtail didn’t change a bit. Though his efforts were not slackened, and though he twisted, twirled and tacked, his pigtail hung faithfully and steadily behind him. Thus, this poem is amusing and the poet brings out the theme

“How learned man lack practical common sense.”

Students can Download English Lesson 2 Gulliver’s Travel Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 2 Supplementary Chapter 2 Gulliver’s Travel

Read and Understand

A. Read the following statements. Say True or False.

1. Gulliver was the captain of the ship.
2. One of the Lilliputians gave a ten minutes talk in Gulliver’s language.
3. Gulliver took the small creatures in his hand and crushed them.
4. The horses were four-and-a-half-inches tall.
5. The war between the two kingdoms ended in peace.

Answers:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True

State True or False : Additional

1. Four of the crew members, including Gulliver got into a small boat.
2. His hair, which was long and thick, was similarly tied down.
3. To his surprise, he saw a human being not three inches high.
4. Gulliver took up fifty of the small creatures in his hand and crushed them.
5. Then they set about transporting Gulliver to the capital.
6. Two or three curious young Lilliputians wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep.
7. Gulliver was not set free at all.
8. The Lilliputians ran to Blefuscu for help.
9. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water.
10. Gulliver was hailed as a Hero.

Answers:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True

B. Identify the speaker / character.

1. He felt something moving along his body almost up to his chin.
2. They somehow managed to put him on the platform.
3. “Don’t let us down now, Gulliver; we need your help.”

Answers:

1. Gulliver
2. Lilliputians
3. The Emperor of Lilliputians to Gulliver

Identify the Character / Speaker : Additional

1. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender strings – Gulliver
2. They soon brought baskets of meat and several loaves of bread – The Lilliputians
3. ‘Don’t let us down now, Gulliver’. – The Emperor to Gulliver
4. His leg was chained and he could only move about a little bit. – Gulliver
5. ‘We need your help ’ – The Emperor to Gulliver

C. Choose the right option.

Gulliver’s Travels 6th Standard Question 1.
Gulliver managed to reach the land as he was _______
(a) A doctor
(b) One of the crews
(c) A swimmer
(d) the captain
Answer:
(c) A swimmer

Gulliver’s Travels Class 6 Question Answer Question 2.
Gulliver was set free because the emperor _______
(a) was afraid of him
(b) confirmed that he was not harmful
(c) was a kind hearted person
(d) wanted to get something from.him
Answer:
(b) confirmed that he was not harmful

Gulliver Was The Captain Of The Ship True Or False Question 3.
Gulliver was hailed as a hero because he _______
(a) made the army of Blefuscu giddy.
(b) fought with the army of Blefuscu
(c) drowned the army of Blefuscu in the water
(d) defeated the emperor of Blefuscu.
Answer:
(a) made the army of Blefuscu giddy

MCQ: Additional

Gulliver Was The Captain Of The Ship Question 1.
Gulliver, a ship’s doctor, took a job on the ship that was going on a long _______
(a) tour
(b) journey
(c) voyage
(d) trip
Answer:
(c) voyage

Gulliver’s Travels Book Back Answers Question 2.
The coast appeared strange and _______
(a) lonely
(b) vast
(c) simple
(d) new
Answer:
(a) lonely

Gulliver’s Travels 6th Class Question 3.
When Gulliver woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his _______
(a) body
(b) hands
(c) head
(d) face
Answer:
(d) face

Gulliver’s Travels Class 6 Question 4.
With _______ he signalled to the little people that he wanted food and drink.
(a) gestures
(b) symbols
(c) signs
(d) signals
Answer:
(a) gestures

Gulliver’s Travels Summary Question 5.
This tickled Gulliver’s nose like a straw, and made him _______
(a) cough
(b) laugh
(c) sneeze
(d) burp
Answer:
(c) sneeze

Question 6.
Finally, they arrived at the _______ palace.
(a) King’s
(b) Lord’s
(c) Sultan’s
(d) Emperor’s
Answer:
(d) Emperor’s

Question 7.
The king brought a _______ ships to mount an attack.
(a) fifty
(b) hundred
(c) thousand
(d) five thousand
Answer:
(c) thousand

Question 8.
The neighbouring _______ of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput.
(a) place
(b) area
(c) country
(d) kingdom
Answer:
(d) kingdom

Question 9.
The Littiputians ran to Gulliver for _______
(a) help
(b) money
(c) ships
(d) weapons
Answer:
(a) help

Question 10.
Gulliver was _______ as a hero.
(a) called
(b) praised
(c) hailed
(d) herald
Answer:
(c) hailed

D. Discuss in groups. Retell the story in your own words. Each one should say one sentence.

You can begin like this:
Gulliver was travelling in a ship. One stormy night, the ship was wrecked…
Answer:
Gulliver was travelling in a ship. One stormy night, the ship was wrecked. Six of the crew„ members including Gulliver got into a boat and rowed. They were overturned by a big wave but Gulliver managed to reach an island, as he was a swimmer. He felt hungry and tired. So he slept on a patch of grass. When he woke up, he was unable to move his hands, legs, head and body. He was tied up with slender strings on each side and attached to pegs fixed on the ground. Later Gulliver understood that they were Lilliputians who were not six inches high. When Gulliver tried to free himself, the Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body, until he was calm.

Gulliver asked for food and drink by signalling to-them with gestures. Gulliver slept ’’again and then he was transported to the capital on a large platform with twenty- two wheels pulled by dozens of four-and-half-inch horses. More than one hundred thousand Lilliputians came to see him. The Emperor received him and lodged him in an old and unused temple. After a few weeks, they decided that Gulliver meant them no harm. So they freed him. Gulliver stayed with them by helping them in many ways.

The neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput. The king brought hundred ships to mount an attack. Gulliver helped them. He walked into the sea, tied all the hundred ships and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The king of Blefuscu begged for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was the hero for them. After that Gulliver lived peacefully in Lilliput for many years.

E. Think and Answer.

Question 1.
How did Gulliver overcome the adversity?
Answer:
Gulliver landed into a strange city called Lilliput after the ship wreck. The people of Lilliput were not six inches tall. They thought he was a strange giant and tied him. Though Gulliver was upset at first, he managed to adapt to their environment and helped them in many ways, as they freed him, after some weeks. He also helpful them to make peace with their neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu. He lived there peacefully for many years.

Question 2.
How should one react to adversity?
Answer:
The diversity of religion, race, gender, culture etc are things that are bound to be different from person to person that you meet. Now is the time to embrace this diversity. The message to spread love and understanding are more important than ever in our day and time. Diversity fosters more creative and innovative workforce.

Question 3.
Describe Gulliver’s encounter with the army of Blefuscu.
Answer:
Gulliver walked into the sea. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

Project

F. Look at the traffic signals and write down the traffic rule against each signal.

Answer:

Connecting to Self

G. Look at these pictures. Think of how you must behave when you visit these places. Discuss with your partner and complete the table.

Use Dust bins:

1. Handle all the things with care.
2. Use the rest rooms allotted for you.
3. Keep your belongings carefully.
4. Always be with your elders.
5. Maintain discipline and give due respect to people.

Do not throw rubbish in public places:

1. Do not handle rough or break any object.
2. Don’t spit every where or pure water anywhere.
3. Don’t throw your belongings here and there.
4. Don’t go any where alone.
5. Don’t shout and run about disturbing others.

Steps to Success

H. What is the logical sequence for these words? Tick the right option.

eg. 1.Leaves, 2. Fruit, 3.Seed, 4. Flowers, 5. root
(a) 2,4,5,1,3 (b) 3,5,1,4,2 (c) 1,2,3,4,5 (d) 5,3,1,2,4
Answer:
(b) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

Question 1.
1. Drive, 2. Get in, 3. Arrive, 4. Park, 5. Open door
(a) 2,1,3,5,4 (b) 5,2,1,3,4 (c) 3,4,5,1,2 (d) 3,5,1,2,4
Answer:
(b) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4

Question 2.
1. Travel, 2. Book, 3. Plan, 4. Confirm, 5. Enjoy
(a) 3,2,4,1,5 (b) 4,5,3,2,1 (c) 1,2,3,4,5 (d) 5,4,2,3,1
Answer:
(a) 3,2,4,1,5

Question 3.
1. Rest, 2. Return, 3.Supper, 4. Go out, 5. Visit
(a) 1,2,3,4,5 (b) 4,5,1,2,3 (c) 4,5,2,3,1 (d) 5,4,3,2,1
Answer:
(c) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1

Question 4.
1. Check out, 2. Pack, 3. Pay bill, 4. Vacate, 5. Drive
(a) 3,4,5,2,1 (b) 1,2,3,4,5 (c) 5,4,3,2,1 (d) 2,4,3,1,5
Answer:
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

Question 5.
1. Wait, 2. Slow, 3. Go, 4. Stop, 5. Get ready
(a) 2,4,1,5,3 (b) 1,2,3,4,5 (c) 5,4,3,2,1 (d) 3,4,2,1,5
Answer:
(a) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

Gulliver’s Travel Additional Questions

I. Rearrange The Following Jumbled Sentences in the correct Order.

A.
1. Hungry and exhausted,fee fell on a patch of grass and fell into a deep sleep.
2. The coast appeared strange and lonely.
3. But there was no sign of life.
4. Gulliyer dragged himself along the shore.
5. He looked for some people or houses.
Answer:
2, 4, 5, 3, 1
2. The coast appeared strange and lonely.
4. Gulliver dragged himself along the shore!
5. He looked for some people or houses.
3. But there was no sign of life.
1. Hungry and exhausted, he fell on a patch of grass and fell into a! deep sleep.

B.
1. Terrified and puzzled, he tried to turn his head.
2. He found his arms and legs were securely tied wife slender strings on each side.
3. When Gulliver woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his face.
4. His hair, which was long and thick was similarly tied down.
5. When he tried to get up, he found himself unable to sit up or move at all.
Answer:
3, 5, 1, 2, 4
3. When Gulliver woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his face.
5. When he tried to get up, he found himself unable to sit up or move at all.
1. Terrified and puzzled, he tried to turn his head.
2. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender strings on each side.
4. His hair, which was long and thick was similarly tied down.

C.
1. Startled by this sight, Gulliver cried out and soon managed to free his left arm.
2. He felt something moving along his body almost up to his chin.
3. The frightened Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body, until he once again lay down calmly.
4. To his surprise, he saw a human being not six inches high, with a bow and arrow in his hands.
5. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians.
Answer:
2, 4, 5, 1, 3
2. He felt something moving along his body almost up to his chin.
4. To his surprise, he saw a human being not six inches high, with a bow and arrow in his hands.
5. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians.
1. Startled by this sight, Gulliver cried out and soon managed to free his left arm.
3. The frightened Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body, until he once again lay down calmly.

D.
1. Gulliver pulled the ships, the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight.
2. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water.
3. Gulliver walked into the sea.
4. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was hailed as a hero.
5. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms.
Answer:
3, 2, 1, 5, 4
3. Gulliver walked into the sea.
2. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water.
1. Gulliver pulled the ships, the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight.
5. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms.
4. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

II. Read The Passage and Answer the Questions.

1. Gulliver, a ship’s doctor, took a job on a ship that was going on a long voyage. The voyage started well but soon things changed dramatically. The ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course. Then it hit a rock and broke up completely. Six of the crew members, including Gulliver, got into a small boat and rowed until they were overturned by a big wave which came up suddenly. Gulliver was a good swimmer and he managed to swim till he reached land.

Question a.
Who was Gulliver?
Answer:
Gulliver was a ship’s doctor.

Question b.
What happanad to tha ship?
Answer:
The ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course.

Question c.
How many of tha member* got Into a boat?
Answer:
Six crew members including Gulliver got into a small boat.

Question d.
Why ware they overturned?
Answer:
They were overturned by a big wave which came up suddenly.

Question e.
How did Gulliver managed to reach the land?
Answer:
As he was a good swimmer, he managed to reach the land.

2. After he had eaten, Gulliver promptly fell asleep because his drink had a sleeping draught in it. They then set about transporting Gulliver to the capital. They used a large platform with twenty-two wheels pulled by dozens of four-and-a-half-inch horses. They somehow managed to put him on the platform and dragged Gulliver down the road to the city. Suddenly Gulliver woke-up when the vehicle stopped. Two or three curious, young Lilliputians wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep. They climbed up into the engine, and advancing very softly to his face, put the sharp end of their half-pike into his left nostril. This tickled Gulliver’s nose like a straw, and made him sneeze.

Question a.
Why did Gulliver promptly fell asleep, after he had eaten?
Answer:
He fell asleep because his drink had a sleeping draught in it.

Question b.
How many horse pulled the platform on which Gulliver was laid?
Answer:
Dozens of four-and-a-half-inch horses pulled and dragged Gulliver to the capital.

Question c.
What happened when the vehicle stopped?
Answer:
When the vehicle stopped, Gulliver woke up suddenly.

Question d.
Who wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep?
Answer:
Two or three curious young Lilliputians wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep.

Question e.
What did Lilliputians do to Gulliver?
Answer:
They put the sharp end of their half pike into his left nostril.

3. The Emperor was there to receive Gulliver. Gulliver was lodged in an old and disused temple. His leg was chained and he could only move about a little bit. After a few weeks, the Lilliputians and their Emperor decided that he meant them no harm. So Gulliver was set free to roam around Lilliput on condition that he would not harm them and would help them in whatever way he could. Gulliver agreed and was freed. He was provided with food and water, a house was built for him. Gulliver stayed with Lilliputians helping them in many ways. Once, it so happened, that the neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput. The king brought a hundred ships to mount an attack. The Lilliputians ran to Gulliver for help. The Emperor said, “Don’t let us down now, Gulliver; we need your help.”

Question a.
Who was there to receive Gulliver?
Answer:
The Emperor was there to receive Gulliver.

Question b.
Where was Gulliver lodged?
Answer:
He was lodged in an old and disused temple.

Question c.
On what condition was Gulliver set free?
Answer:
He was set free on condition that he would not harm them and would help them in whatever way he could.

Question d.
What did the Emperor do for Gulliver?
Answer:
He built him a house and provided him with food and water.

Question e.
Who declared war on Lilliput?
Answer:
The king of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput.

4. Gulliver walked into the sea. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The King of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed. Gulliver was hailed as a hero and lived peacefully in Lilliput for many years.

Question a.
How many ships did the king of Blefuscu bring?
Answer:
He brought hundred ships to mount an attack.

Question b.
Why did Gulliver take a long rope?
Answer:
Gulliver took a long rope to tie all the hundred ships together and drag them in the water.

Question c.
What did he do the whole day?
Answer:
Gulliver pulled the hundred ships, the whole day, going round and round, until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight.

Question d.
What did the king of Blefuscu beg for?
Answer:
He begged for peace between the two kingdoms.

Question e.
Who was hailed as a hero?
Answer:
Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

III. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What happened to the ship, when Gulliver was going on a long voyage? How did Gulliver escape?
Answer:
Gulliver was a ship’s doctor. He was going on a long voyage. The voyage started well but soon things changed dramatically. The ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course. Then it hit a rock and broke up completely. Six of the crew members including Gulliver, got into a small boat and rowed until they were overturned by a big wave which came up suddenly. Gulliver was a good summer and so he managed to swim till he reached land.

Question 2.
Where did Gulliver land after the shipwreck and how was he treated by the inhabitants?
Answer:
After reaching the land, Gulliver fell asleep. When he woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his face. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender strings on each side and attached to pegs fixed on the ground. He felt something moving along his body. To his surprise, he saw a human being not six inches high with a bow and an arrow. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians. When Gulliver signalled them that he was hungry, they brought food and drink for him. Then they set about transporting Gulliver to the capital. There, the Emperor received him and set him free as they thought that Gulliver was harmless.

Question 3.
Who declared war on Lilllput and how did Gulliver help them?
Answer:
The neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput. The king brought a hundred ships to mount an attack. The lilliputians ran to Gulliver for help. The Emperor said, ‘Don’t let us down now, Gulliver; we need your help”. So Gulliver helped them. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to flight. The king of Blefuscu begged for peace between the two kingdoms. Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

Gulliver’s Travel Summary

Gulliver, a ship’s doctor was on a long journey. Suddenly, the ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course. It hit a rock and broke up completely. Six of the crew members, including Gulliver got into a boat, but unfortunately they were overturned by a big wave. As Gulliver was a good swimmer, he managed to reach a land. Hungry and exhausted, Gulliver fell into a deep sleep. When he woke up, he was unable to move. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender string on each side and attached to pegs fixed on the .ground. He saw a human being not six inches high, with a bow and arrow in his hands. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians. When Gulliver tried to free himself, the frightened Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body.

As Gulliver was hungry, he made gestures to the little people. They asked him to promise to behave himself and then gave him food and drink. After eating, Gulliver slept. The Lilliputians set about transporting Gulliver to the capital. They used a large platform with twenty-two wheels pulled by dozens of four-and-a-half-inch horses. They somehow managed to put him on the platform and dragged Gulliver down the road to the city. One hundred thousand Lilliputians came out to see the strange giant. The Emperor of the city received Gulliver.

Gulliver was lodged in an old and disused temple. After a few weeks, they found that he would do them no harm. So Gulliver was set free to roam around and he also helped the little people in many ways. One day, the neighbouring kingdom declared war on Lilliput. The king brought a hundred ships to mount an attack. The Lilliputians ran to Gulliver for help.

Gulliver walked into the sea. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. He pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed. Gulliver was hailed as a hero and lived peacefully in Lilliput for many years.